A320 Systems Oral Guide

2022
A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE
Lawrence Itani
JULY 10, 2022 VERSION 5

2 A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE
ACKNOWLEDGMENT
THE QUESTIONS WITHIN THIS GUIDE HAVE
BEEN GATHERED FROM EXPERIENCED
PILOTS THROUGH THEIR A320 TYPE RATING,
PC CHECKS, LINE TRAINING.
ALL ANSWERS HAVE BEEN REFERENCED TO

THE A320 FCOM FCTM (CEO) WHERE
DIFFERENCES (NEO) AIRCRAFT IT IS
MENTIONED. YOUR AIRCRAFT MAY DIFFER
FROM MSN TO MSN, AND DEPENDING ON
INSTALLED EQUIPMENT, SO KINDLY ALWAYS
REFER TO YOUR COMPANY’S CURRENT
UPDATED FCOM.
IAM TRYING TO MAKE THIS GUIDE AS

COMPLETE AS POSSIBLE FOR SYSTEM
REVIEW, ESPECIALLY BEFORE ANY
PROFICIENCY CHECK OR ANNUAL, SO IF YOU
HAVE ANY IMPROVING IDEAS,
SUGGESTIONS, PLEASE DO SEND ME AN
EMAIL IT WILL BE HIGHLY APPRECIATED.
MISTAKES, TYPO ERRORS, OUTDATED

INFORMAYION ARE VERY LIKELY TO BE
PRESENT, IF FOUND KINDLY DO CORRECT
ME.
GOOD LUCK WITH YOUR CHECKRIDE AND

ALWAYS HAVE A SAFE FLIGHT
li.avtraining@gmail.com
JULY 10, 2022 ‫ ׀‬A320 SYSTEMS ORAL QUESTIONS V5 | PREPARED BY LAWRENCE ITANI
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GUIDE COLOR CODES
PANEL NAME
ATA CHAPTER
QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
FAULT LIGHT
DESCRIPTION
SYSTEM DESCRIPTION /
OR NOTES
neo AIRCRAFT
DIFFERENCES
LIMITATIONS
STANDARD
OPERATING
PROCEDURES
The guide’s layout has been OVERHEAD PANEL

organized as close as possible to
the Airbus flow pattern, starting CENTER INSTRUMENT PANEL
from the overhead panel, then the

centre instrument panel, pedestal, PEDESTAL
FMGS preparation, glareshield, and
then the lateral console. GLARESHIELD
Like I said as close as possible :-D.

So the system’s questions are LATERAL CONSOLE
organized according to each panel
starting from the overhead panel
and so on.
7 A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE OVERHEAD PANEL
WINDSHIELD WIPER PANEL

ATA-30
Q: When is the rain repellent inhibited?

A: It is inhibited when the aircraft is on the ground
and the engines are stopped
Q: What does the RAIN RPLNT pb do when pressed?

A: A timer applies a measured amount of liquid to LIMITATIONS
the respective windshield window (left or right) Q: What is the maximum wipers operating speed?
A: 230 kt
CALLS PANEL MECH pb

ATA-23 Pressed (and held):
 COCKPIT CALL lights up blue on the
external power panel in the nose L/G bay
 An external horn sounds
Released:
 COCKPIT CALL remains lighted
 The ground mechanic can extinguish it by
pressing the RESET button on the external
power panel
 The external horn stops sounding
Q: What happens in the Cabin when you press

the (GUARDED) EMER pb-sw? LOCATION OF AREA CALL PANEL (ACP)
A:
 2 Pink lights flash on all ACP
 EMERGENCY CALL appears on all AIPs
 A High-Low chime sounds 3 times on all
loudspeakers
Q: What happens when the FAs initiate an

emergency call? LOCATION OF ATTENDANT INDICATION PANEL (AIP)
A:
 The ON light flashes in white, and the
CALL light flashes in amber.
 The ATT lights flash on all ACPs
 3 buzzers will sound in the cockpit
(inhibited during take-off and landing)
The cabin call system will reset when the cabin

crewmember hangs up the handset.
CIDS standard architecture

AIRBUS TECHNICAL MAGAZINE. FAST #64
OXYGEN PANEL
ATA-35
Q: What happens during the pre-flight when you

push to extinguish the CREW SUPPLY OFF light?
A: The valve will open, and supply low pressure
oxygen to the masks (normal position in flight)
Q: What would you notice on the ECAM

DOOR/OXY page when CREW SUPPLY pb is
MASK MAN ON pb
pressed?
The guard keeps this button in the AUTO
A: CKPT OXY turns from amber to white
position.
 AUTO:
Q: What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean?
- The mask doors open automatically
A: This light comes on in white, when the control
when the cabin altitude exceeds 14000 ft
for the oxygen mask door is activated and remains
 Pressed:
- The mask doors open
on until the TMR RESET pb is pressed.
Q: When do the mask automatically deploy?

A: When cabin pressure altitude exceeds 14,000ft
(+250, -750 ft)
Q: What method is used to supply passenger cabin

supplemental oxygen?
A: Chemical generators produce the oxygen, for
about 15 minutes
Q: What indication would you have of the crew

oxygen cylinder thermal discharge?
A: The green disk (OXY overboard discharge
indicator) on the lower left side of the FWD
fuselage would be missing
Q: Above what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen

masks provide 100% oxygen regardless of the
position of the N/100% selector?
A: The mask provides the flight crew with a
mixture of air and oxygen. This mixture changes
with cabin altitude. The higher the cabin altitude,
the more oxygen the mask provides, until the
mask supplies 100% oxygen.
Q: When an amber half frame box appears on

ECAM DOOR page, what does that mean?
A: On ground if oxygen pressure is <1000 psi.
(neo aircraft) On ground, an amber half frame appears

when oxygen pressure is <800 PSI
neo
(In this case, the flight crew must refer to
LIMITATIONS to check if the remaining quantity is
not below the MINIMUM)
Q: What are the OXY pressure indications on the

ECAM DOOR/OXY page?
A:
It is in green when the pressure is ≥ 600 psi
It pulses in green when the pressure is < 600 psi
It is in amber when the pressure is < 300 psi
 It is in green when the pressure is ≥ 500 PSI
 It pulses in green when the pressure is < 500 PSI (the
DOOR/OXY SD page is automatically displayed
 It is in amber when the pressure is < 200 PSI
(1) EMERGENCY pressure selector

Use of this selector creates on overpressure which eliminates
condensation or fogging of the mask, and prevents smoke, smell or
ashes from entering the mask.
 Pressing this knob generates an overpressure for a few seconds.

 Turning the knob, in the direction of the arrow, generates a
permanent overpressure.
o Overpressure supply is automatically started, when cabin
altitude exceeds 30 000 ft.
o Overpressure supply is available only when the N/100%
selector is set on the on the 100% position.
11 A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE LATERAL CONSOLE
HOW TO TEST THE OXYGEN MASK
BLINKER CREW SUPPLY pb………….……………… CHECK ON

4 N/100% LOUDSPEAKERS….………………………………….. ON
1 2 SELECTOR
INT reception knob…….… PRESS OUT - ADJUST
INT/RAD sw…..………………….…………………… INT
4
2 5
EMERGENCY
RESET/TEST
BUTTON
6 PRESSURE
SELECTOR
On the mask stowage box:

1- Press and hold the RESET/TEST button in the direction of the arrow. Check that the blinker turns
yellow for a short time, and then goes black.
2- Hold the RESET/TEST button down, and press the Emergency Pressure selector. Check that the blinker
turns yellow and remains yellow, as long as the Emergency Pressure selector is pressed.
3- Listen for oxygen flow through the loudspeakers.
4- Check that the RESET/TEST button returns to the up position and the N/100% selector is in the 100 %
position.
5- Press the Emergency Pressure selector again, and check that the blinker does not turn yellow. This
ensures that the mask is not supplied.
6- Check that the Emergency Pressure selector is NOT turned right in the direction of the arrow
(permanent overpressure). This ensures that the oxygen permanent overpressure is not supplied.
RECORDER PANEL
ATA-31
On the ceo aircraft, DFDR records last 25 hours, CVR records

last 2 hours. On the neo aircrafts the two CVDRs are combined
CVR-FDR. The CVR retains the last 25 hours of recording.
The recording system is automatically active: Q: What does the CVR records?
A: Record ACP’s and Cockpit area microphone, PA
 On the ground, during the first 5 minutes announcement if PA reception is selected on at
after the aircraft electrical network is least one ACP
energized
Q: How do you erase the RCDR tape?
 On ground with one engine running
A: When pressed for 2 s, the CVR ERASE function
 In Flight
erases the CVR full recording, if:
 On ground, it automatically stops 5 minutes
after second engine shuts down - The aircraft is on the ground, and
- The parking brake is on.
CVR TEST
In order to perform the CVR test, ensure that the PARK BRK is on.
LOUDSPEAKER VOLUME knob …………….….……………..… OFF (BOTH SIDES)

ACP INT/RAD sw (CAPT and F/O)……………..…………………………... SET to INT
INTERPHONE VOLUME RECEPTION Knob (CAPT and F/O)………... RELEASE
Turn down the volume to the minimum
CVR TEST pb……………………………………………………… PRESS AND MAINTAIN
The CVR test is successful when an audio test signal is heard through
the loudspeakers and the CVR TEST pb is pressed and maintained.
GPWS PANEL
ATA-34
FAULT LIGHT
Q: What does an Amber FAULT light on the
SYS pb indicate on the GPWS panel?
A: If the basic GPWS mode 1 to 5 malfunction.
Note: If ILS 1 fails, only GPWS mode 5 is lost.

The "NAV GPWS FAULT" ECAM warning does Q: What are the predictive functions (EGPWS) of
not trigger. GPWS based on?
A: The enhanced functions are based on a
On ground, the GPWS FAULT light turns on. worldwide terrain database and of the modelling of
the climb performance capability of the aircraft
In flight, the GPWS FAULT light does not turn
on, while GPWS modes 1 to 4 are operative.
Q: What do they provide more over the normal
GPWS 5 basic functions?
FAULT LIGHT A:
- Terrain Awareness Display (TAD) which
Q: What does an Amber FAULT light on the predicts the terrain conflict and displays the
TERR pb indicate on the GPWS panel? terrain on the ND
- Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) which
A: If the Terrain Avoidance Display or Terrain
improves the low TERR warning during LDG
Clearance Floor predictive mode fails and
TERR is not shown on the ND.
Q: Pressing the SYS pb does what?
So we have a failure in the Enhanced part of
A: Inhibits All basic GPWS alerts (Mode 1 to 5), the
the GPWS.
predictive mode TERR will not be affected
Q: What does LDG FLAP 3 ON light indicate?

A: Flap mode is inhibited when FLAPS CONF 3 is
selected. In this case, LDG MEMO displays "FLAPS
... 3" instead of “CONF ... FULL”
Q: What does FLAP MODE OFF light indicate?

A: MODE 4 “Too Low Flaps” is inhibited when
The 5 basic GPWS modes, active up to landing less than Flap 3
radio height of 2500 ft.
MODE 1 Excessive rate of descent “SINK RATE”

MODE 2 Excessive terrain closure rate “TERRAIN TERRAIN”
MODE 3 Altitude loss after take-off or go-around “DON’T SINK”
MODE4 Terrain clearance not sufficient, if not in LDG CONF “TOO LOW GEAR - TOO LOW FLAPS”
MODE 5 Excessive descent below the glide slope “GLIDE SLOPE”
Q: Do Pilots ever use the EMER GEN TEST pb? EMERGENCY ELECTRICAL PANEL
A: No, Maintenance function only ATA-24
Q: What is the function of the MAN ON pb?

A:
 AUTO – RAT will automatically extend if AC
BUS 1 & 2 are not powered and Airspeed
greater than 100 kt.
 Pressed – Extend the RAT at any time.
Emergency generator coupling occurs 3 s
after the RAT supplies the emergency
generator.
Q: Is there another way to deploy the RAT? FAULT LIGHT

A: Yes, from the RAT MAN ON, on the HYD panel
Q: What does the RED FAULT light on the RAT & EMER
GEN pb indicate?
A: If the EMER GEN is not supplying power when AC BUS

1 & 2 are not powered, also during the RAT extension
(about 8s)
Q: What buses are powered by the EMERGENCY Q: What does SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pb
GENERATOR? indicates?
A: A: The amber light comes on when smoke is
1. AC & DC ESS BUS detected in the avionics ventilation duct.
2. AC & DC ESS SHED BUS
Via the ESS TR.
Q: What happens when you push the GEN 1 LINE

pb?
When GEN 1 LINE pb is A:
pressed to the OFF  GEN 1 Line contactors open
position, as you can  The AC BUS 1 is powered from GEN 2
see GEN 2 is now through BUS TIE contactors
supplying AC bus 1  GEN 1 supplies One fuel pump in each wing
Inner Tank
This permit removing AC power from all buses
Q: What powers the EMER GEN?
during the AVIONICS SMOKE ECAM procedure
A: If both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and the aircraft speed is above 100
kt, the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) extends automatically. without removing power from the fuel pumps.
This powers the blue hydraulic system, which drives the emergency
generator by means of a hydraulic motor. This generator supplies the AC ESS Q: Will be there any other indications of Avionics
BUS, and the DC ESS BUS via the ESS TR.
Smoke?
Q: What happens when the RAT stalls? A: Yes, ECAM Warning and an amber FAULT lights
A: If the RAT stalls, or if the aircraft is on the ground with a speed below 100 in the BLOWER & EXTRACT pbs on the
kt, the emergency generator has nothing to drive it. The emergency
generation network automatically transfers to the batteries and static
VENTILATION panel
inverter, and the system automatically sheds the AC SHED ESS and DC SHED
ESS buses.
When the aircraft is on ground:
Below 100 kt, DC BAT BUS is automatically connected to the batteries.
Below 50 kt, AC ESS BUS is automatically shed, leading to the loss of all
display units.
EMERGENCY EVACUATION
Q: What is the function of the CAPT and CAPT & PURS PANEL ATA-23
switch?
A:
- CAPT and PURS: The alert may either be
activated from the cockpit or the cabin.
- CAPT: The alert may only be activated from the
cockpit.
If one of the cabins CMD pb is pressed, only the cockpit
horn sounds for 3 s
Q: If CAPT & PURS switch was set to CAPT and CMD pb

was pressed in the cabin, what indications do we have?
A: Only the cockpit horn sounds for 3s
FLIGHT CONTROLS PANEL

ATA-27
FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT

Q: What does an amber FAULT light on the ELAC pb Q: What does an amber FAULT light on the SEC or
indicate? FAC pb indicate?
A: A: When a failure is detected

- When a failure is detected
- During ELAC power-up test (eight seconds)
Credit to WWW.AVB.RU
PITCH AXIS
Elevator = Electrical Q: What is the difference between HIGH SPD
Stabilizer = Electrical for normal or alternate control. Mechanical PROTECTION and HIGH SPD STABILITY?
for manual trim control
Speed protections are protections in Normal Law,
ROLL AXIS
Ailerons = Electrical when the aircraft is entered in Alternate Law, the
Spoilers = Electrical speed protections become “High Speed and Low
Speed Stability Protection”.
YAW AXIS
Rudder = Mechanical, however control for yaw damping, turn The side stick authority is reduced, a nose up
coordination and trim is electrical.
command is introduced to avoid an excessive
SPEED BRAKES increase in speed. Unlike Normal Law the pilot can
Speed brakes = Electrical override this nose up command. That is the
Note:
difference between the two.
All surfaces are hydraulically actuated.
Q: What are the protections in ALTERNATE LAW? Flight control surfaces are all:
 Electrically-controlled, and
 Hydraulically-actuated.
- Low Speed Stability
The stabilizer and rudder can also be mechanically-
controlled.
- High Speed Stability
- Load Factor Limitation

Q: Under NORMAL LAW, what does ELAC 2
control?
A:
 Primary – Elevator / Stabilizer (pitch)
 Standby – Aileron control (backs up ELAC 1)
 Provides 5° Aileron droop
In normal operations, ELAC2 controls the elevators
and the horizontal stabilizer.
Q: What does ELAC stand for? If a failure occurs in ELAC2, or in the associated
A: Elevator Aileron Computer hydraulic systems, or with the hydraulic jacks, the
system shifts pitch control to ELAC1. ELAC1 then
Q: How many ELACs on the A320? And what do controls the elevators.
they control?
A: 2 ELACs. Normal aileron, elevator, and stabilizer If neither ELAC1 nor ELAC2 is available, the system
control. shifts pitch control either to SEC1 or to SEC2.
Q: What are the functions of the ELAC? Q: What backup ELAC 2?

A: A: ELAC 1, if both ELACs fails, SEC 2 will back up.
 Normal, Alternate and Direct pitch
 Normal and Direct roll Q: What is the computer and priority for the
 Normal and alternate LAF Ailerons?
 Abnormal Attitude A: ELAC 1 -> ELAC 2
 Aileron droop
 Acquisition of autopilot orders Q: What is the computer and priority for the
ELEVATOR and STABILIZER?
Q: Under NORMAL LAW, what does ELAC 1 A: ELAC 2 -> ELAC 1 -> SEC 2 -> SEC 1
control?
A: Q: What does SEC stand for?
 Primary – Aileron control (roll) A: Spoiler Elevator Computer
 Standby – Elevator / Stabilizer control
Q: How many SECs are installed?
(backs up ELAC 2)
A: 3 SECs
 Provides 5° Aileron droop
The ELAC 1 normally controls the ailerons.
Q: What functions are performed by the SECs?
If ELAC1 fails, the system automatically transfers
A:
aileron control to ELAC2.
 Normal, Direct roll (by controlling the spoilers)
If both ELACs fail, the ailerons revert to the damping  Alternate, Direct pitch (SEC 1 and SEC 2 only)
mode.  Alternate LAF
 Speed brakes and ground spoilers
SEC3 controls the N° 2 spoilers, SEC1 the N° 3 and 4
spoilers, and SEC2 the N° 5 spoilers.
 Abnormal Attitude
If a SEC fails, the spoilers it controls are automatically
retracted. Q: What is the sole purpose of SEC 3?
A: Spoiler Control
Q: What does FAC stand for? Q: When does the Stabilizer Trim goes to Zero?
A: Flight Augmentation Computer A: Following nosewheel touchdown and pitch less
(FCOM DSC-27-20-30) Both FACs perform the following than 2.5° for more than 5s, pitch trim is
functions: automatically reset to zero.
Normal roll (coordinating turns and damping dutch roll) Q: How are the flight control surface controlled and
Rudder trim
actuated?
Rudder travel limit
Alternate yaw A: Electrically controlled and hydraulically activated
Q: Under NORMAL LAW, what functions do the Q: When is AUTOMATIC Pitch Trim Available?
FACs provide? A: In flight under NORMAL LAW with Bank Angle <
A: The aircraft has two flight augmentation 33° with or without AP engaged
computers (FACs) that perform four main functions:
Q: If the active Elevator fails, what occurs?
• Yaw function A: The damped one becomes active, and the failed
- Yaw damping and turn coordination jack is automatic switched to damping mode. Damp
- Rudder trim Mode: The jack follows surface movement.
- Rudder travel limitation
Q: How Roll Control is normally achieved?
• Flight envelope function A: 1 Aileron and 4 Spoilers on each wing
- PFD speed scale management
▪Minimum/maximum speed computation Q: What items will degrade if we lose ELAC 1 and
(VSW, VLS, VFE, VFE next, VLE VMO/MMO SEC 2?
▪Manoeuvring speed computation A: Nothing, ELAC 2 and SEC 1 will back them up
(Green dot speed, S speed, F speed)
- Alpha-floor protection Q: In ALTERNATE LAW, when does the Aircraft go to
FLARE MODE?
• Low-Energy Aural Alert function A: When the Pilot selects Landing Gear Down
• Windshear detection function
Q: How Many motors in the Vertical Stabilizer?
Q: If both FACs fail, is rudder available? A: 3 Motors
A: YES, by Rudder pedals
Q: When do we get CONFIG 1+F?
Q: If Both FACs fail, is maximum rudder deflection A:
available? TAKEOFF IN CONFIGURATION 1
A: YES, after Slats extension. 1 + F (18 °/10 °) is selected. If the flight crew does not
select configuration 0 after takeoff, the flaps retract
automatically at 210 kt.
Q: In case of an Elevator Fault (Left or Right), what
happen to the Speed brake? TAKEOFF OR GO-AROUND IN CONFIGURATION 2 OR 3
A: Speed brake extension is inhibited If the flight crew selects configuration 1, the flight crew
gets 1 + F (18 °/10 °) if airspeed is under 210 kt.
Q: What happen to spoilers if electric is lost? If the flight crew does not select configuration 0 after
A: Spoilers retract to Zero takeoff, the flaps retract automatically at 210 kt.
Q: When do the Ailerons go to the damping mode? CONFIGURATION 0 TO CONFIGURATION 1 IN FLIGHT

A: If Both ELACs Fail or in the event of BLUE and Configuration 1 (18 °/0 °) is selected.
GREEN hydraulic low pressure
Note:
After flap retraction, configuration 1 + F is no longer
On the ceo aircraft, position FULL brings the Flaps to 35°. available until the airspeed is 100 kt or less, unless
On neo aircraft position FULL brings the Flaps to 40°. configuration 2, 3, or FULL has been selected previously.
Flight controls system, and flight

control laws summary will be
included in the next update
ADIRS PANEL ATA-34 Q: What info does the ADR Q: What info does the IR
supplies? Supplies?
A: A:
1. Altitude 1. Ground Speed
2. Airspeed 2. Aircraft Position
3. Angle of Attack 3. Attitude
4. Temperature 4. Angular rate
5. Overspeed warning 5. Flight Path Vector
6. Mach 6. Heading
7. Acceleration
8. Track
AAA TOM GAAAF HAT
Q: What would be missing on the CPT’s PFD if IR1 failed

or was turned OFF?
A: Attitude and Navigation Information
FAULT LIGHT Q: What action would recover the attitude and

navigation information?
Q: What does a STEADY amber ADR FAULT light A: Selecting CAPT 3 on EIS switching panel ATT HDG
indicate? selector
A: A fault is detected in the AIR DATA reference part
FAULT LIGHT Q: What does the amber ON BAT light indicate?

A: The ON BAT light comes on in amber when the a/c
Q: What does a STEADY amber IR FAULT light
battery supplies at least one ADIRU, also come on for few
indicate?
A: The respective IR is lost seconds
Q: Whenat dothewe beginning of a ATT
need to select complete
and whatIRS must
alignment
be
(self-test).
done after selecting it?
Q: What does a FLASHING amber IR FAULT light A: IR ALIGNMENT IN ATT MODE: We can select ATT if the
indicate? Note: When the aircraft is on ground and if at least one ADIRU
A: The IR lost its position, the ATT and HDG
IR system by
is supplied loses its batteries:
aircraft ability toAnnavigate (indicated
external horn soundsby The
information may be recovered in ATT Mode FLASHING
ADIRU andFAULTAVNCSlight)
lightAfter
comes selecting
on amberATTon(a/c
themust stay
EXTERNAL
level
POWER with constant speed for 30sec), the HDG must be
panel.
(Check QRH procedure IR Alignment in ATT Mode)
entered through the MCDU and has to be reset about
Q: With
every 10 the loss of ADR 1, what would be lost on the
minutes)
CPT’s PFD?
A: Airspeed and Altitude
Q: What would restore the lost ALTITUDE and AIRSPEED

In ATT mode, IR 1(2)(3) only provides attitude and heading information?
data (if entered by the flight crew). The navigation data are A: Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel AIR DATA
not available. The heading must be entered through the selector
MCDU and must be reset frequently (about every 10 min).
During the flight, if the IR mode selector is set from NAV to

ATT or NAV to OFF, the NAV mode is lost for the remainder
of the flight.
Q: What if you lose all ADRs? REFFER TO QRH

PROCEDURE
PRO-ABN-NAV ADR 1+2+3 FAULT
- Speed (Fly the Green )
- PFD ALTITUDE: GPS
- TCAS & ATC ALT RPTG INOP
- Cabin Pres Mode Selector Manual
- Manual Landing Gear extension (QRH)
IRS INIT, and ADR ABN PROC will

be included in the next update
EXTERIOR LIGHTING PANEL

Q: If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE
ATA-33
switches are all in the ON position, which lights
automatically extinguish after T/O?
A:
1. Taxi and Takeoff lights
2. RWY TURN OFF light
extinguish when LDG GEAR is retracted
Q: Why do we have 2 positions for the NAV &

LOGO switch?
A: We have 2 sets of navigation lights (2 bulbs) on
each wing and in the APU tail cone
Q: What position should the STROBE switch be
Q: When does the LOGO light illuminate when the during the pre-flight?
switch is in 2 or 1 position? A: AUTO
A: Main LDG gear strut compressed or when flaps
or slats extended. (Depending on the aircraft Q: When do the strobes flash in AUTO?
configuration) A: When the main landing gear is not compressed
RWY TURN
TAXI AND T.O
OFF
LIGHTS
LIGHTS
APU PB SW ATA-49 Q: What does the blue ON light illuminates

on the APU MASTER pb-sw indicate?
A: The APU is in operation, or the APU is in
LIMITATIONS starting sequence
Q: The APU generator can supply 100% electrical
load to what altitude?
A: 39800 feet Q: What does the blue ON light illuminates
on the APU START pb-sw indicate?
Q: The APU can supply bleed air to what altitude?
Single Pack Operation: 22500 feet A: The APU start sequence is in progress
Dual Pack Operation: 15000 feet When the APU reaches the appropriate
speed, the ON light goes off and the AVAIL
Q: What max altitude the APU can assist in engine light comes on.
start?
A: 20000 feet Q: What does the Green AVAIL light on the
APU START pb indicate?
Q: What is the max altitude the APU can be
started using Battery only?
A: The APU is started and can supply bleed
A: that would be in ELEC EMER CONFIG, and in air and electrical power to the aircraft
such a situation the limitations would be 25000 systems. The AVAIL light comes on when N is
feet. above 95 %.
Q: With the APU green AVAIL light ON and

FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which
system is powering the aircraft?
Q: What does an amber Q: What does an amber A: APU
FAULT light on the APU FAULT light on the APU
MASTER SW pb indicates? BLEED pb mean? Q: What would normally cause an APU shut
down?
A: Indicates that an A: APU leak A: List some failures:
automatic APU shutdown - FIRE (on GROUND ONLY)
has occurred - No Acceleration
- Low OIL pressure
- Air Inlet Flap not open
Q: How does the APU gets fuel supply? - DC power lost (BAT OFF when
A: aircraft on batteries only)
The left fuel feed line supplies the APU.
Q: During the cool down cycle, can you still
The required pressure is normally available from tank use the APU?
pumps. A: YES, if you want to change your mind and
If pressure is not available (batteries only or pumps off) want to interrupt the shutdown cycle for
the APU FUEL PUMP starts automatically. continued APU operation, you can select the
APU MASTER SW pb back to ON as long as
Q: what does a FLAP OPEN on the ECAM APU page the APU AVAIL memo is in view.
indicate?
If the aircraft was using APU bleed air, the
A: APU keeps running for a cooling period of 60
Displayed in green when APU air intake flap is fully open. to 120 s.
Advisory if the flap is not fully closed 3 min after the
MASTER sw has been turned OFF
Q: When will the (FASTEN SEAT BELT & NO PED) signs SIGNS PANEL
and EXIT signs illuminate with the respective ATA-33
switches set to AUTO?
A: when either landing gear is extended or
flaps/slats are extended (position 1, 2, 3, or FULL)
If Cabin ALT goes above 11300ft (± 350ft), the cabin
lights and all cabin signs, except the NO PORTABLE
ELEC DEVICE, come on regardless of switches
position
Q: When will the EXIT MARKERS and Proximity

Emergency Escape Path Marking automatically
Note: The LIGHT EMER pb on the
illuminate?
A: With the EMER EXIT LT selector at ARM: Purser panel can turn on the
 Normal Aircraft Electrical power fails, or emergency lighting regardless of
 DC SHED ESS BUS is lost the position of the EMER EXIT LT sw.
Q: When will the EXIT signs automatically

illuminate?
A: With the EMER EXIT LT selector at ARM:
 Normal Aircraft Electrical power fails, or
 DC SHED ESS BUS is lost
Q: When will the Overhead Emergency come on

automatically?
A: With the EMER EXIT LT selector at ARM:
 Normal Aircraft Electrical power fails, or
 DC SHED ESS BUS is lost
 AC BUS 1 fails
Q: What is the power source of the overhead EXIT SIGNS

emergency light and EXIT signs?
A:
 DC ESS SHED BUS
 If DC ESS SHED BUS fails, batteries inside the
light fixtures power them for 12min EXIT
MARKER
Q: What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT
switch is placed to ON?
A:
 Overhead emergency lights
 EXIT signs
 Proximity marking system PROXIMITY EMERGENCY
ESCAPE PATH MARKING
SYSTEM
Q: What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is
placed to OFF?
A:
 Above lights go to OFF
 Amber EMER EXIT LT-OFF light comes on
The floor path marking system enables passengers

and crew to find the way to the exit in the event of
smoke in the cabin. It’s a photo luminescent strips on
the floor, which glow in the dark and requires no
electrical power.
INTEGRAL LIGHTING Q: What flight deck lighting is available if normal

CONTROL PANEL ATA-33 electrical power is lost?
A:
 CM1 Instrument Panel
 Right-hand dome light (provided DOME switch
set in DIM or BRT)
 Standby Compass
When the ANN LT sw is set to TEST, do not reconfigure the DU
(ECAM/ND transfer) or the DMC (DMC switching).
Q: Is the ENG anti-ice part of the normal ANTI ICE PANEL

pneumatic system? ATA-30
A: NO, it is an independent air bleed from HP
compressor
Air is supplied through a two-position (open and
closed) valve that the flight crew controls with two
pushbuttons, one for each engine.
Q: What should you do if there is significant ENG

vibration due to ice? FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT
A: Follow the ABN QRH ENG
Q: What does the amber Q: What does the amber
Q: With ENG Anti-Ice ON, is your descent affected? FAULT light on the ENG ANTI FAULT light on the WING
A: YES, because Idle Thrust is increased. ICE pb indicate? ANTI ICE pb indicate?
When an engine anti-ice valve is open, the N1 limit
is automatically reduced and, if necessary, the idle A: Pushbutton – Valve A:
N1 is automatically increased for both engines in Disagreement  Pushbutton – Valve
order to provide the required pressure. disagreement
The amber FAULT light comes  Low Pressure is
Q: Can you use the Wing Anti-Ice on the ground? on briefly as valve transits detected
A: No
Q: When do the Wing Anti-Ice valves automatically
Q: What happens if you turn ON the switch on the close?
ground? A:
A: The Wing Anti-Ice valves open for 30 s only test  On Landing
sequence  Bleed leak detected
 Loss of electrical power
Q: What part of the Wing are heated?
A: The three Outboard slats (3-4-5) Q: In What position do the Wing and ENG Anti-Ice
valves fail if electrical power is lost?
A:
 WING – valves CLOSE
 ENG – valves OPEN
The valve automatically closes if air is unavailable

(engine not running). If electrical power fails, the
valves open.
If the system detects a leak during normal operation,
the affected side’s wing anti-ice valve automatically
closes
Q: With the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb in AUTO, Windshield heating operates at low power on the ground and
when will the probes and windows heated? at normal power in flight. The changeover is automatic.
A: Only one heating level exists for the windows.
 In Flight, or
On the ground, the TAT probes are not heated, and pitot
 On the ground (except TAT probes) provided
heating operates at a low level (the changeover to normal
one ENG is running power in flight is automatic).
NOTE: Windshield & Pitot heat operate LOW
(ground) and NORMAL (flight)
Q: What does the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb do in Windshield

the ON position? When do we normally do that?
A: Light comes on blue. Probes and windows are
heated permanently
TAT probes only heated in flight
Q: Can you use the APU bleed for Wing Anti-Ice?

A: No due to limitations of the APU Windows
CABIN PRESS PANEL ATA-21
FAULT LIGHT
Q: What does an amber FAULT light
on the MODE SEL pb indicate?
A: Light comes on only when both

automatic systems are faulty
Q: The LDG ELEV selector is in the AUTO position, what Q: What does the controller do in case of residual
is the data source for pressurization schedule? pressure after landing?
A: The pressurization system uses the FMGS data to A: The RPCU automatically depressurizes the aircraft
construct and optimized pressure schedule in case of abnormal residual pressure on ground. It
When FMGS data is not available for automatic automatically opens the outflow valve, when:
pressurization, the crew only needs to select the landing
field elevation.
- The outflow valve is not fully open, and
- Both CPCs are failed, or manual mode is
Q:The
When out of the AUTO
pressurization systemposition,
then useswhattheis different?
manually- selected, and
A:selected
The pressurization uses the LDG ELEV selected
landing field elevation for internal schedules.with - The aircraft is on ground, and
the LDG ELEV knob (-2000 ft / +14 000 ft) - All engines are shutdown, or all ADIRS indicate
an airspeed below 100 kt.
Q: What protects the airframe from excessive cabin
differential pressure?
A: Two independent pneumatic safety valves prevent Q: What is the ABORT mode in auto cabin
cabin pressure from going too high (8.6 PSI above pressurization and what does it do?
ambient) or too low (1 PSI below ambient). A: If the aircraft does not climb after take-off, the
abort mode prevents the cabin altitude from climbing.
They are located on the rear pressure bulkhead, above Cabin pressure is set back to the take-off altitude +0.1
the flotation line PSI.
Q: How many controllers are in the pressurization

system?
A: 2, only one operates at a time. They Swap roles 70s
after each LDG or if the Operating System Fails
Q: How do you manually switch between controllers?

A: Switching the MODE SEL pb to MAN, for at least 10s,
the returning it to AUTO
Q: How many motors does the OUTFLOW valve have?

A: 3 – Either of 2 for the automatic mode and 1 for the
manual mode. The 3 motors are DC powered. The
manual motor is powered by DC Bat.
Q: Can the Pilot control the OUTFLOW valve?

A: YES, by selecting MAN on the MODE SEL and use the
MAN V/S CTL switch
Q: What does the DITCHING pb do?

A: Closes ALL valves below the flotation line
Q: Which Valves are below the Flotation line?

A:
1. Emergency RAM AIR inlet
2. OUTFLOW valve (only if in AUTO mode)
3. Pack Flow Control valves
4. Avionics ventilation Inlet & Extract valves
Q: Will the DITCHING pb always close the OUTFLOW

valve?
A: NO, the OUTFLOW valve will not close if it is under
MANUAL control
AIR PANEL
ATA-21 ATA-36
neo aircraft
FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT
Q: What does the amber FAULT light on the ENG Q: What does the amber FAULT light on the ENG
BLEED pb indicate? BLEED pb indicate?
A: A:
 Overpressure downstream of the bleed valve  Overpressure downstream of the bleed valve
 Overheat of the bleed air  Overheat of the bleed air
 Bleed valve is not closed during ENG start  Bleed valve is not closed during ENG start
 Bleed valve is not closed with APU bleed ON  Bleed valve is not closed with APU bleed ON
 Leak (wing or pylon on the related side)  Leak (wing or pylon on the related side)
 HP valve failed open on ground.

OOBBL
OOh Brazilian Butt Lift :-P
 Single BTS failure on ground or BTS disagree
on ground.
 Dual BTS failure in flight or on ground.
 Fan Duct burst detected by the FADEC (LEAP- FAULT LIGHT
1A engines only). Q: What does the amber FAULT light on the PACK pb
indicate?
A:
Q: What monitors and controls the pneumatic system?  Pack Outlet overheat, or
A: 2 BMC (Bleed Monitoring Computer). Each BMC  Compressor Outlet overheat, or
receives info about bleed pressure, temperature, and  Valve position disagrees with selected
valve position. Each system is designed to: position
 Select the compressor stage to use as a source NOTE: FAULT light appears during pre-flight as no
of air bleed air is supplied
 Regulate the bleed air temperature
 Regulate the bleed air pressure
FAULT LIGHT
Q: If one BMC fails, can the other take over? Q: What does the Amber HOT AIR FAULT light
A: YES, they are interconnected indicate??
If BMC 1 fails, ENG BLEED LEAK warning for ENG1 and
APU BLEED LEAK warning are lost A: Duct overheat is detected (The HOT AIR and TRIM
AIR valves will close automatically)
Q: On the ECAM Bleed page, how do you tell if GND HP
air supply is connected?
A: The GND unit TEMP and PRESS are indicated on the
ECAM BLEED PRECOOLER #1
Q: What are the 2 functions of the ENG bleed valves? Q: What is the function of the HOT AIR pb?
A: A: It controls the HOT-AIR PRESSURE-REGULATING
 Pressure regulation VALVE which controls the flow of hot air to the Trim Air
valves. This Hot Air is mixed with the pack-conditioned
 Shut-off valves
air for zone temperature control. ACSC 1 regulates this
Q: When HI flow rate is automatically selected valve.
regardless of the Pack flow knob position?
A: Q: When will the HOT AIR valve close?
 In Single-pack operation, A:
 When the APU is supplying Bleed air  No Air
 Both lanes of ACSC 1 or ACSC 2 fail, or
NOTE: The system delivers NORMAL flow (100%) even if
 Duct overheat, or
the LO is selected, when the temperature demand
 The Cockpit trim air valve fails, or
cannot be satisfied  At least any two trim air valves fail
Q: What is the RAM AIR pb used for? Q: How many ACSC (Air-Conditioning system
A: controllers) are there?
 Smoke removal A: 2 ACSC to monitor the TEMP of the 3 zones (Cockpit,
 Ventilation of Cockpit and Cabin if both PACKS FWD & AFT Cabin)
fail
Q: How many lanes on each ACSC? And how do they
Q: When will the RAM AIR valve open if selected on? operate?
A: A: 2 Lanes (1 active, 1 standby). If BOTH lanes fail the
 ΔP is less than 1psi related pack is lost, and the associated HOT AIR
 Ditching is not selected pressure-regulating valve and associated TRIM AIR
valves close
- If Δp ≥ 1 PSI: The outflow valve control remains
normal. No emergency ram air flows in Q: Explain the Trim Air Valves?
- If Δp < 1 PSI: The outflow valve opens to about A: These valves are electrically controlled by the ACSC.
50 % when under automatic control. It does not Each trim air valve is associated with each zone, adjusts
automatically open when it is under manual the temperature by adding hot air.
control. Emergency ram airflow is directly
supplied to the mixer unit. The cockpit trim air valve is controlled by ACSC 1, and
During take-off, the ram air inlet flap closes when take-off the cabin trim air valves are controlled by ACSC 2.
power is set, and the main landing gear struts are
compressed. Q: Where are the temperature measurement sensors
located?
During landing, it closes as soon as the main landing gear A:
struts are compressed, as long as speed is at or above 70 kt. - In the cockpit, for the cockpit zone
It opens 20 s after the speed drops below 70 kt.
- In the lavatory extraction circuit and galley
ventilation system, for the cabin.
Q: What is connected to the mixer unit?
A: The mixer unit is connected to the emergency ram air
inlet, and the low pressure ground inlets.
Q: What causes the Pack Flow Control valve to automatically

close?
A:
 Absence of air pressure, a spring keeps the valve closed.
 Pack overheat (on ground only)
 ENG Start sequence
 ENG FIRE pb on the related side is pressed
 DITCHING pb is selected
Q: If an ACM (Air cycle machine) fails, what occurs?

A: The affected PACK may be operated in heat exchanger cooling
mode
Warm pre-conditioned bleed air enters the cooling path via the pack
valve and goes to the primary heat exchanger. Then, the main part of
the cooled air goes directly downstream of ACM turbine through the
bypass valve, and the rest goes through the failed ACM. The ACM
seizure reduces the pack flow.
Q: What happens to the Pack Flow control valves during ENG

start (Normal ENG start using APU)?
A: Close when ENG Mode selector is IGN, and re-opens when set
to NORM or 30 secs after engine start
Q: What logic controls the X-BLEED valve when the switch is in

AUTO?
A:
- The X-BLEED valve is OPEN when APU bleed valve is OPEN
- The X-BLEED valve is CLOSED when APU bleed valve is CLOSED
- The X-BLEED valve is CLOSED in case of a Wing, Pylon or APU
leak (except during ENG start)
Q: How many motors drives the X-BLEED valve?

A: 2 Electrical motors
Q: After ENG start with the APU BLEED pb ON, what source is
supplying bleed air to the packs?
A: APU BLEED, it has priority over the ENGs bleed
ELECTRICAL PANEL ATA-24
COMMERCIAL pb
All aircraft commercial electrical
loads are supplied:
‐ Cabin and cargo lights
‐ Water and toilet system
‐ Drain mast ice protection
‐ Galley FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT
‐ Passenger entertainment system Q: What does the amber FAULT Q: What does the amber FAULT
light on the GALY & CAB pb light on the BAT pb indicate?
indicate?
Q: How does the GALLEY pb works in AUTO? A: The battery charge limiter is in
A: Main & Secondary Galley, (in-seat power A: The load of any generator is fault
supply and IFE if installed) are supplied. more than 100% of rated output
The Main galley and (in-seat and IFE) are
automatically shed:
 IN FLIGHT: When only one generator is FAULT LIGHT
operating Q: What does a FAULT on the ENG GEN pb or the APU GEN FAULT indicate?
 ON GND: When only one ENG GEN is A:
operating (All galleys are available when the  The associated GCU (Generator control unit) trips it
APU GEN or EXT PWR is supplying power)  Opening of the Line contactor (except if the GEN pb sw is selected OFF)
Q: When galley SHED is displayed on ECAM?

A: FAULT LIGHT
 The GALLEY pb-sw is OFF, or Q: What does an IDG FAULT light indicate? When is inhibited?
A:
 IN FLIGHT, only one GEN is operating, or
 IDG Oil outlet overheats (above 180°C), or
 ON GND, the aircraft is being supplied by one
 IDG oil pressure is low (inhibited at low ENG speed: N2 <14%)
ENG GEN only Light is inhibited when IDG is disconnected
An automatic thermal disconnection of the IDG will occur if the temperature
Q: What is the significance of the Green reaches 200 °C
Collared C/Bs in the flight deck?
A:
Q: When is it normal to see the ENG GEN FAULT light illuminate?
 GREEN: Monitored by ECAM
A: Prior to engine start
 BLACK: Not Monitored by ECAM
 RED: DON’T RESET, example WTB
Q: When is the APU GEN FAULT light inhibited?
Monitored (green): When out for more than 1
A: - APU speed too low
min, the C/B TRIPPED warning is triggered on the
- APU GEN line contactor opens after EXT PWR or ENG GEN
ECAM.
takes over
Q: What is the priority for ELEC power?
Q: What does IDG stand for?
A: GEN - EXTERNAL – APU – RAT - BAT
A: Integrated Drive Generator
GEARB
Q: What is the function of the IDG?
Q: Will the batteries completely drain if you A: Converts variable ENG speed to constant speed for optimum GEN
leave the BAT switches in AUTO after AC power operation
is removed?
A: NO. Battery cut-off logic prevents from Q: What precautions must you take when disconnecting an IDG?
completely discharge when ACFT is on GND  Do not disconnect when the ENG is not operating or wind
and unpowered. milling
Q: How is the BATERY BUS normally powered?  Do not hold pb longer than 3s
A: Powered via DC BUS 1 through a DC TIE NOTE: Only MAINTANANCE can reconnect the IDG on GND
contactor
Q: Which BUSSES are normally supplied by TR 1? Q: How will the BAT check be accomplished?
A: DC BUS 1 – DC BAT BUS – DC ESS BUS  Select ECAM ELEC page
 Switch BAT 1 & 2 OFF, then ON
Q: Which BUSSES are normally supplied by TR 2?  Check charging current below 60 A and
A: DC BUS 2 decreasing within 10s
Q: What will happen if we have a failure of one TR?

A:
Q: What is the purpose of the STAT INV? What powers
- The other TR automatically replaces the faulty one
it?
- The ESS TR supplies the DC ESS BUS
A: To provide AC power to a part of the ACC ESS bus from
the BAT 1 if only BATs are supplying electrical power to
Q: If TR 1 and TR 2 where lost, what buses will be un-
the aircraft
powered?
A:
Q: When is the STAT INV activated?
- DC BUS 1 -DC BUS 2 - DC BAT BUS will be unpowered
A: When the aircraft is only powered by the BATs
- DC ESS BUS will be powered by the ESS TR
 SPEED <50kts BAT 1 & 2 pb-sw must be in AUTO
 SPEED >50kts regardless of the pb-sw position
Q: AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by?
A: AC BUS 1
Q: What happens if AC BUS 1 fails?

A:
- AC BUS 2 can supply AC ESS BUS, and the ESS TR can
supply the DC ESS BUS, both via the AC ESS FEED pb.
This is done automatically with the AC ESS FEED Auto
Switching.
- DC BUS 2 supplies DC BUS 1 and DC BAT BUS
automatically after 5 s.
Q: What is the function of the ACC ESS FEED pb in the

NORMAL position? When do we need to push it?
A: If AC BUS 1 is lost AC BUS 2 automatically feed the ACC
ESS BUS. Only when asked by a checklist
Q: What does the ACC ESS FEED pb White ALTN light

indicate?
A: The AC ESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 2 (manually
selected). FAULT light comes on when ACC ESS BUS is not
powered
Q: What happens when AC BUS 1 AND AC BUS 2 are lost Q: Do we have to push BUS TIE pb to keep AC BUS 1 & 2
speed is above 100kts? powered?
A: RAT extends automatically. This powers the blue A: NO, it’s an automatic function
hydraulic system, which drives the emergency generator
by means of a hydraulic motor (5KVA) Q: What is the function of the BUS TIE pb in the AUTO
position?
Q: In EMERG CONFIG and the EMERG GEN failed, can we A: The BTCs automatically OPEN or CLOSE to maintain
start the APU in flight? power supply to both AC BUS 1 & 2
A: NO, only on GND and SPD <100kts (only then the BATs - One contactor is closed, when:
will be connected to the DC BAT BUS)  One ENG GEN supplies the associated AC BUS, and
 The APU GEN, or EXT PWR supplies the other side
Q: if RAT stalls, or if the aircraft is on the ground with - Both contactors are closed during:
speed below 100 kts what happens?  Single-engine ops, or
A:  Operation on the APU GEN, or
- Emergency generation network automatically  EXT PWR supply
transfers to the batteries and STAT INV
- AC ESS SHED, and DC ESS SHED, both are shed Q: If the battery switches are at AUTO, when will
batteries be connected to the DC BAT BUS?
Q: What happens below 100 & 50 kts when EMERG GEN A: The batteries are connected to the DC BAT BUS in the
is powering the aircraft? following cases:
 Below 100kts DC BAT BUS is automatically (a) APU starting (MASTER SW at ON & N less than 95%).
connected to the BATTs Note: The connection is limited to 3 mins when the
 Below 50kts AC ESS BUS is automatically shed, emergency generator is running.
leading to the loss of all Displays unit (b) Battery voltage below 26.5 V (battery charge). The
charging cycle ends when battery charge current goes
below 4 Amps.
(c) Loss of AC BUS 1 and 2 when below 100 knots (EMER
GEN not supplying).
Short answer:
- APU Start
- BAT charging (less than 26.5 V)
- AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and SPD <100kts
A simplified in depth summary of

the electrical system, in addition
of new questions, coming in the
next update.
FUEL PANEL
ATA-28
FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT

Q: What does an amber FAULT light on Q: What does an amber FAULT light Q: What does an amber FAULT light on
the CTR TK L(R) XFR pb-sw indicate? on the MODE SEL pb-sw indicate? the FUEL PUMP pb-sw indicate?
A: if the associated wing tank overflows A: When centre tank has more than A: Fuel delivery pressure drops
250 kg of fuel and the left or right
wing tank has less than 5 000 kg and
the MODE SEL pb-sw is at AUTO.
Q: How many Fuel pumps are installed? Center Tank MODE SEL pb-sw
A: - Auto: Control of centre tank transfer valves is
- The system has 4 main fuel pumps, 2 in each inner automatic:
tanks  They open if the associated inner tank is not full.
- 1 APU pump to provide fuel to the APU when the tank  They automatically stop 5 min after centre tank
pumps are off low level is reached.
Q: When the aircraft has been refuelled to maximum - MAN: Flight crew manually controls the centre
capacity, by how much can the fuel expand without tank transfer valves with the CTR TK XFR
spilling? pushbutton switches.
A: The fuel can expand by 2 % (20 °C temperature rise)
without spilling. CTR TK L(R) XFR PB-SW
- On: The transfer valve opens if MAN mode is
Q: What is the normal in-flight management scheme? selected on the MODE SEL pb-sw. The
A: transfer valve is automatically controlled
The inner tanks feed fuel to the engines. The tanks empty in when AUTO mode is selected.
the following sequence: - OFF: The transfer valve is closed.
1. The centre tank: Fuel transfers into the inner tanks.
2. The inner tanks: Each inner tank empties down to 750 kg. The FLSCU automatically closes the associated centre
3. The outer tanks: Fuel transfers into the inner tanks. tank transfer valve when the inner tank is full. The
FLSCU then reopens the centre tank transfer valve when
Q: What feeds the APU if all pumps are off? the engines have used 500 kg (1 100 lb) of inner tank
A: A special fuel pump supplies fuel for APU start up when fuel (when the fuel level reaches the underfull sensors).
fuel feed pressure is low. (Due to loss of tank pumps or loss
of normal AC electrical supply). This pump normally runs off With the MODE SEL in MAN position, the centre tank
the AC ESS SHED, but runs off the AC STAT INV BUS if the AC transfer valves will open. Inner tank overflow must be
ESS SHED fails prevented by selecting the CTR TK XFR pb-sw OFF when
the inner tanks are full. They must also be selected OFF
when the centre tank is empty.
AIRBUS SAFETY FIRST MARCH 2020
Q: When do the Main tanks Outer Cell drain into the Q: How is the IDG cooled?
Inner tanks? A: By Fuel from the HP fuel line goes through the
A: When the Inner tank fuel reaches about 750kg IDG heat exchanger to the fuel return valve and
back to the Outer fuel tank.
Q: If only One Inner tank reaches 750kg, what Q: If outer tank is already full, what will happen to
happens to the other transfer valve? the IDG return fuel?
A: All 4 Transfer valves open A: If outer tank is already full, the fuel spills to inner
tank through a spill pipe
Q: Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel
outer transfer valves closed? Q: When fuel quantity in one wing tank goes below
750 kg (1 650 lb), what happens?
A: They will automatically close at the next
A: The low-level sensor triggers the LO LVL warning
refuelling operation on ECAM. The LO LVL warning is totally
independent from the displayed fuel quantity
Q: If the Wing tank pumps fail, is suction feeding indication of the tank.
available?
A: Yes, SUCTION VALVES closed by pumps pressure
in normal operation, they allow engines to be fed
by gravity if the inner tank pumps fail
Q: Why does the Fuel system keeps fuel in the Outer

Tanks and drain them last?
A: To reduce wing bending and flutter
Q: How is the low pressure (LP) fuel valve closed?

A: The LP fuel valve is closed by either:
- The engine master switch, or
- The ENG FIRE PUSH pushbutton.
Q: What does the REFUEL message on the ECAM

indicate?
A: The door of the refuel control panel on the
fuselage or wing is open
neo aircraft, the PWR pb-sw of the refuel control
panel in the cockpit is ON
Q: What does an amber half boxed on the ECAM

ECAM FUEL PAGE
FOB indicates? FOB
A: It depends on location, either on the ECAM fuel
page or the ECAM upper display.
 On the ECAM Fuel page; means both

transfer valves fail to open, when the inner
tank is at low level.
 On the ECAM upper display; a half amber
box appears around FOB, when the
displayed quantity is not all usable (intercell
transfer valve failure or both centre tank
transfer valves fail in the closed position).
ECAM UPPER
Q: Explain Fuel Tank Inerting System? DISPLAY FOB
A: To reduce the flammability in the CTR TK, the Fuel
Tank Inerting System produces an oxygen-depleted air
that goes in the CTR TK to replace the ambient air.
The fuel centre tank is the only one that has a high
flammability exposure. Therefore, the Fuel Tank Inerting
System only needs to be installed for the centre tank. All
other tanks do not need Fuel Tank Inerting System
installation.
HYDRULIC PANEL ATA-29
FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT

Q: What does an amber FAULT light on Q: What does an amber FAULT light on Q: What does an amber FAULT light on
the HYD ENG PUMP pb-sw indicate? the PTU pb-sw indicate? the BLUE or YELLOW ELEC PUMP pb-sw
A: A: indicate?
 Pump pressure is low GREEN or YELLOW A:
 Reservoir overheats  G or Y reservoir overheats  Pump overheats
 Reservoir low air pressure  G or Y reservoir low air pressure  Pump pressure is low
 Reservoir low level  G or Y reservoir low fluid level  Reservoir overheats
 Reservoir low air pressure
 Reservoir low level
P RRR 3 RRR PP RRR
Q: What is the normal system hydraulic pressure? Q: How many hydraulic pumps are in the YELLOW
A: 3000 PSI ± 200. 2500 PSI when powered by the RAT. system?
A: 1 engine driven pump, 1 electric pump, 1 hand
Q: What is the function of the Hydraulic priority pump
valves?
A pump driven by engine 2 pressurizes the yellow system.
A: Priority valves cut off hydraulic power to heavy load
An electric pump can also pressurize the yellow system,
users if hydraulic pressure in a system gets low
which allows yellow hydraulics to be used on the ground
when the engines are stopped.
Q: How many Hydraulic pumps are in the GREEN
system?
A: 1 engine driven pump Crew members can also use a hand pump to pressurize the
yellow system in order to operate the cargo doors when no
Q: How many Hydraulic pumps are in the BLUE electrical power is available.
system?
A: 1 Electric pump, 1 pump driven by a ram air turbine Q: What is the purpose of the Hand pump?
(RAT) pressurizes this system in an emergency. A: To provide YELLOW hydraulic pressure for Cargo
door operations
Q: When does the BLUE ELEC PUMP operates when set
to AUTO? Q: With the switch set to OFF, when does the YELLOW
A: If AC power is available, it operates: electric pump comes on automatically? And what does
it power?
- In Flight
A: When the Cargo door lever is set to OPEN or CLOSE,
- On Ground if one ENG is running, or this inhibits the operation of yellow system functions
- If the BLUE PUMP OVRD pb on the except Alternate Braking and REV ENG #2
maintenance panel was pushed
Q: What occurs when you press the RAT MAN ON pb?
Q: When is the BLUE PUMP inhibited? A: The RAT extends providing pressure to the BLUE
A: On Ground with BOTH ENGs shutdown HYD system
Q: Does the RAT automatically deploy with the loss of

BLUE pressure?
A: NO, it must be deployed manually by the RAT MAN
ON pb
MAINTENANCE
PANEL
Q: When does the PTU operate with the pb in AUTO? A bidirectional power transfer unit enables the yellow system to
A: When the differential pressure between GREEN pressurize the green system and vice versa.
and YELLOW systems is more than 500 PSI The power transfer unit comes into action automatically when the
differential pressure between the green and the yellow systems is
Note: The PTU is inhibited during the first engine
greater than 500 PSI.
start and automatically tested during the second
The PTU therefore allows the green system to be pressurized on
engine start.
the ground when the engines are stopped.
Q: When is the PTU inhibited?
A: PTU is inhibited when: USE OF PTU IN CASE OF FAILURE
- The yellow electrical pump is operated to close In case of reservoir low level, reservoir overheat, reservoir low air
the cargo door and is kept inhibited 40 seconds pressure, the PTU must be switched OFF as required by ECAM to
after the end of cargo door operation. avoid a PTU overheat which may occur two minutes later. Indeed,
- The aircraft is on the ground with one engine a PTU overheat may lead to the loss of the second hydraulic circuit.
running and the parking brake ON.
- The aircraft is on the ground with one engine
running, the parking brake OFF and the
nosewheel steering deactivated.
- The PTU pushbutton is OFF
Q: If the ECAM actions lead you to turn OFF the PTU

for a reservoir overheat, will the FAULT light go out?
A: The light goes out when the crew selects OFF,
except during an overheat. (The light stays on as
long as the overheat lasts
Q: If the FAULT light on the PTU pb is ON, are there

any other indications on the HYD panel?
A: YES, also a FAULT light illuminated in the
respective ENG PUMP pb
Q: Does the PTU transfer Hydraulic fluid?

A: NO
Q: Name several items that run from ONLY the

GREEN system?
A: AIRBUS SAFETY FIRST #04 JUNE 2017
1. Landing Gear
2. Norm Brakes
3. REV ENG #1
Q: Name several items that run from only the

YELLOW system?
A:
1. Alternate Brake
2. Brake Accumulator
3. Cargo doors
4. REV ENG #2
5. Yaw Damp #2
Q: If the ACCU PRESS indicator is low, what should

you do?
A: Obtain ground clearance, then turn ON the
YELLOW ELEC PUMP to recharge the brake
accumulator
ENGINE AND APU FIRE PANEL

ATA-26
Q: Where are the ENG Fire loops installed? Q: List the actions that occur when an ENG FIRE pb is
A: pressed?
 Pylon nacelle A:
 Engine core 1. Silences the aural fire warning
 Fan section 2. Arms the fire extinguisher squibs
3. Closes the LP fuel valve
Q: What happens if BOTH fire loops fail? 4. Closes the HYD fire shut-off valve
A: If failure of BOTH loops occurs within 5s of each 5. Closes the ENG bleed valve
other (flame effect), a FIRE WARNING appears 6. Closes the PACK flow control valve
7. Cuts off the FADEC power supply
Q: What does Amber DISH light mean? 8. Deactivates the IDG
A: The fire extinguisher bottle has lost pressure
Q: What occurs when you press the TEST pb on the
Q: How many fire extinguishers are provided for each ENG FIRE panel?
ENG? A: CRC sounds MASTER WARN lights flash
A: 2
ENG FIRE warning appears on ECAM
Each engine has two fire extinguisher bottles, with
electrically-operated squibs to discharge their agents. Each On the FIRE panel:
squib has a dual electric supply. The flight crew controls the  The ENG FIRE pb lights up red
discharge of the fire extinguisher bottles from the FIRE  SQUIB lights come on white if discharge supplies
panel in the cockpit. are available
 The DISCH lights come on amber.
Notes:
“SQUIB” comes on white when the flight crew releases the
ENG 1(2) FIRE pb to help the flight crew identify the AGENT
pb-sw to be activated. On the ENG MASTER panel (pedestal):
 FIRE lights come on red
“DISCH” comes on amber when the corresponding fire
extinguisher bottle has lost pressure.
The FIRE lights do not illuminate in case of Engine Fire

Detection Loop A fault on the Engine 1 or Engine Fire
Detection Loop B fault on the Engine 2.
PEDESTAL
Q: How many fire extinguishers are provided for the

APU?
Notes:
A: The APU has one fire extinguisher bottle, with two
The automatic shutdown of the APU on ground may occur if
electrically-operated squibs to discharge its agent.
the flight crew performs this test for more than 3 seconds.
Q: List of action that occur when the APU FIRE pb is If the fire test is performed on ground with only batteries to
pressed? supply the electrical network, both of the following apply:
A:
1. Shuts down the APU - The SQUIB light and DISCH light come on, without
2. Silences the aural warning ECAM warnings.
3. Arms the APU FIRE extinguisher squib - The red APU FIRE pb-sw light partially comes on, as
4. Closes the LP fuel valve and one of the sets of bulbs is not electrically available.
5. Shuts off the APU fuel pump
6. Closes the APU BLEED valve and X FEED valve
7. Deactivates the APU GEN
Q: What occurs when you press the APU FIRE TEST

pb?
A:
- CRC sounds
- The MASTER WARN light flash
- APU FIRE warning appears on ECAM
- On the FIRE panel:
 The APU FIRE pb lights up red
 The SQUIB light comes on white if
discharge supplies are available
 The DISCH light comes on amber
EXTERNAL POWER PANEL
Notes:
 The red APU FIRE light comes on and an external
warning horn sounds when the system detects an
APU fire.
 The APU fire extinguisher discharges automatically

3 s after the appearance of the fire warning.
 The light goes out when the fire has been

extinguished.
ENG PANEL Q: What are the primary differences between a MANUAL and a
ATA-70 NORMAL AUTOMATIC start?
A:
 AUTOMATIC start interruption and Auto-Crank are not available
during MAN start
 In MAN start, the FADEC will only abort the start if on Ground
and EGT limit exceeded before reaching N2=50% (725°C)
neo:
 The start EGT limit is exceeded before reaching 50 % N2, or
 starter shaft shear fault occurs, or
 dual N2 sensor failure occurs.
In this case only, the FADEC aborts the start.
Q: What is the FADEC authority during a MANUAL start?
A: FADEC has a limited authority:
 Opening and Closing of the Start valve (if ENG MODE is set to
IGN/START and MAN START switch is pressed)
 Opens the HP shutoff valve, and operates both igniters when
the flight crew sets the ENG MASTER lever to ON
 Closes the engine start valve, and cuts off the ignition when N2
PEDESTAL reaches 50 %.
neo: Closes the engine start valve, and cuts off the ignition when N2
reaches 63 %.
Q: Will the start valve then automatically close?

A: YES, at 50% N2
Q: When is the FADEC automatically
energized? neo: Closes the engine start valve, and cuts off the ignition when N2
The system has its own alternator reaches 63 %.
making it independent from the
aircraft electrical system when N2 > Q: When a MAN ENG start is recommended?
12%, If this alternator fails, the A:
FADEC automatically switches to the After aborting a start because of:
aircraft electrical power  Engine Stall
 Engine EGT overlimit
 Low start air pressure
When expecting a start abort, because of:
 Degraded bleed performance, due to hot conditions or
high altitudes airfields
 An ENG with a reduced EGT margin, in hot conditions
or high altitudes airfields
 Marginal performance of external pneumatic power
 Intermittent ECAM ENG 1(2) IGN A(B) FAULT alert,
during the first start of the day
Intermittent ECAM ENG 1(2) IGN A(B) FAULT alert, during the first start of
the day, doesn’t apply to neo aircrafts.
VENTILATION CONTROL PANEL

ATA-21
S
Q: What is the function of the Cabin Fans? When do
we select them OFF?
A: 2 Cabin Fans are installed to recycle cabin air into FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT
the mixing unit and back saving fuel, we select OFF Q: What does an amber FAULT Q: What does an amber FAULT
only in respond to an ECAM procedure light on the BLOWER pb light on the EXTRACT pb
indicate? indicate?
A: A:
Q: Is Air Conditioning ever introduced into the  SMOKE warning is activated  SMOKE warning is activated
Avionics compartment?  Computer power supply fails  Computer power supply fails
A: YES, in the SMOKE CONFIG, AIR COND INLET  Blowing pressure is low  Extract pressure is low
VALVE opens  Duct overheats
Q: Is the Skin Heat Exchanger ever bypassed in If the warning occurs on the ground when the
flight? engines are stopped, the external horn sounds
A: YES, during the SMOKE configuration, skin heat
exchanger isolation valve closes The air extraction duct of the avionics ventilation system has one
smoke detector. When smoke is detected for more than 5 s:
Q: With 2 FAULT lights on the VENTILATION panel,  The Single Chime (SC) sounds
are there any other indications?  The MASTER CAUTION lights flash
A: YES, The SMOKE light on the GEN 1 LINE pb-sw  The ECAM AVIONICS SMOKE alert triggers
 On the EMER ELEC PWR panel, the SMOKE light of the GEN 1 LINE
pb-sw comes on
 On the VENTILATION panel, the FAULT lights of the BLOWER pb-
sw and the EXTRACT pb-sw come on.
Q: With Both BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs in OVRD,

Q: How is the equipment cooled in each configuration?
what are the positions of the INLET and EXTRACT
A:
valves?
 OPEN CIRCUIT: is cooled by blown outside air
A:
 CLOSED CIRCUIT: is cooled by blown air through a skin heat
- INLET valve is CLOSED
exchanger
- EXTRACT valve PARTIALLY OPEN
 INTERMEDIATE: is cooled by blown air through a skin heat
exchanger which is then partially exhausted overboard
Q: Which Fan is OFF in the above situation?
A: The BLOWER Fan is OFF
NOTE: All valves are CLOSED (except EXTRACT valve)

and air from air-conditioning system is added to the
ventilation air and directed overboard through the
skin air extract valve
Q: With BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs in AUTO, how does the

system operate?
A:
 OPEN configuration, this configuration operates on the
ground when the avionics duct temperature is equal or
above 40°C.
 CLOSED configuration, this configuration operates on the

ground when the avionics duct temperature is below
40°C.
 CLOSED configuration in flight, operates when the skin
temperature is beneath the inflight threshold.
Inflight threshold + 35°C, temperature increasing, or

+ 32°C, temperature decreasing.
 INTEMEDIATE configuration, this configuration operates

during flight when the skin temperature is above the
inflight threshold. This configuration is similar to the
closed – circuit configuration, except a small flap on the
skin air outlet extract valve is open.
Inflight threshold + 35°C, temperature increasing, or

+ 32°C, temperature decreasing.
CARGO SMOKE PANEL

Q: How many fire extinguishers are provided for the
ATA-26
Cargo compartments?
A: One fire bottle with two discharge heads, one for
S
each compartment, supplies three nozzles:
‐ One nozzle in the forward cargo compartment
‐ Two nozzles in the aft cargo compartment
Q: What does the red SMOKE light on the FWD or AFT pb

indicate?
A:
Smoke in one cavity activates the cargo smoke warning
if:
 Both smoke detectors detect smoke, or
 One smoke detector detects smoke and the
other is inoperative.
Q: what does the DISCH light indicates?

A: Within 60 s after pressing the discharge pushbutton,
the amber DISCH light comes on when the associated
bottle is fully discharged.
Q: How many SMOKE detectors are there (cavities)?

A:
- Two smoke detectors that are in the forward cargo
compartment ceiling panel cavities. Each detector
is linked to one of the two detection loops.
- Four smoke detectors that are in the aft cargo
compartment ceiling panel cavities. Each detector
is linked to one of the two detection loops.
Q: With a CARGO SMOKE Warning, what happens to

the Isolation Valve and Extract Fan?
A:
- Isolation valves CLOSES automatically
- Extract Fan STOPS
Q: What happens when the flight crew presses the

FWD (AFT) DISCH pb?
2 smoke detectors that are in the forward A: This action ignites the corresponding squib on the
cargo compartment ceiling panel cavities fire bottle, which then discharges the extinguisher
agent into that cargo compartment. When the bottle
is empty, the DISCH light comes on amber.
48 A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE CENTER INSTRUMENT PANEL
LANDING GEAR INDICATOR

PANEL ATA-32 Note: The LDG GEAR panel is connected to the LGCIU 1
only, therefore, the lights on the LDG GEAR indicator
panel come on as long as the LGCIU 1 is electrically
supplied.
If one UNLK indication remains on, the landing gear

position can be confirmed using the WHEEL SD page
(information from LGCIU 1 & 2). Only one green
triangle on each landing gear is sufficient to confirm
that the landing gear is down locked.
Q: What is the function of the two LGCIU (Landing Gear

Control and Interface Units)? PEDESTAL
- Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring and
indications for the LDG Gear
- Provide Aircraft “IN FLIGHT” or “ON GROUND” signals
to other aircraft system
Q: Where do the LGCIUs take their position information

from?
A: The LGCIUs receive position information from the
landing gear, cargo door, and landing flap systems.
Q: What Hydraulic system powers the LDG Gear and

Doors?
A: Green
Q: What 3 things occur when you turn the Manual Gear

Extension Handle? Q: In what occasion is Green hydraulic power not
- Isolates the landing gear hydraulics from the green available to the LDG Gear?
hydraulic system A:
- Unlocks the LDG gear doors, main and nose gear - After EMERGENCY LANDING GEAR GRAVITY
- Allows gravity to drop the gear into the extended EXTENSION
position - When the aircraft is flying faster than 260 kt, a
safety valve automatically cuts off hydraulic
Q: How many cranks does it take to lower the gear supply to the landing gear system. Below 260
manually? kt, the hydraulic supply remains cut off as long
A: 1 Crank (but 3 clockwise turns) as the landing gear lever is up.
Q: When does the red arrow on the L/G LEVER panel

illuminate?
A: This red arrow lights up if the landing gear is not
locked down when the aircraft is in the landing
configuration, and a red warning appears on ECAM
Q: What do the red UNLK lights indicate?

A: The LDG Gear is not locked in the selected position
49 A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE CENTER INSTRUMENT PANEL
AUTO BRK PANEL

Q: What controls and manages all braking function?
A: The BSCU (Brake and Steering Control Unit) ATA-32
Q: Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the

brakes?
A:
- NORMAL BRAKING – Green
- ALTERNATE BRAKING – Yellow backed up by the
hydraulic accumulator
Q: When do the Autobrakes activate on landing if

armed?
A: When the Ground Spoilers deploy
Q: What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO SYSTEM ARMING
BRK? The crew may arm the system by pressing the LO, MED,
A: or MAX pushbutton provided all the following arming
- MED – Sends progressive pressure to the brakes 2s conditions are met:
after GND spoilers deploy to decelerate at 3 m/s2
- LOW – Sends progressive pressure to the brakes 4s  Green pressure available
after GND spoilers deploy to decelerate at 1.7 m/s2)  Anti-skid electrically-powered
 No failure in the braking system
Q: What does the AUTO BRK Green DECEL light  At least one ADIRU is available.
indicate?
A: Actual rate of deceleration is 80% of the selected Note:
rate Auto brake may be armed with the parking brake on.
MAX autobrake mode cannot be armed in flight.
Q: If you do not see DECEL light after landing, will you
call DECEL? The armed AUTO BRK mode is displayed in blue on the
A: YES, if deceleration is felt by the crew and confirmed Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA). neo aircraft
by the speed trend on the PFD
Q: What is the Take-off setting for AUTO BRK? SYSTEM ACTIVATION

A: MAX Automatic braking is activated when:
Q: What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on  The command for ground spoilers extension is
an RTO? Rejected Take-off detected, for LO and MED mode, or
A:  The command for ground spoilers extension is
- Airspeed > 72 kt, and detected, and the wheel speed is above 72 kt, for MAX
- Thrust Levers at IDLE, and mode.
- GND Spoilers extension
Therefore, if the aircraft makes an acceleration stop and
begins to decelerate when the wheel speed is under 72
kt, the automatic braking will not activate because the
ground spoilers will not extend.
 For autobrake to activate, at least two SEC’s must be

operative.
(The active AUTO BRK mode is displayed in green on the

Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA). neo aircraft)
Q: What happens when you switch the A/SKID &

N/W STRG to off?
A:
- Braking is powered by the yellow system
 ON light: comes on blue to indicate positive - Antiskid is deactivated. To avoid wheel locking
arming and limiting the risk of tire burst, brake pressure
 DECEL light: comes on green when the actual is automatically limited to 1000 PSI
deceleration is 80 % of the selected rate
- Nose-wheel steering is lost
Note: On slippery runways, the predetermined
deceleration may not be reached, due to antiskid - Differential braking remains available through
operation. In this case, the DECEL light will not come the pedals
on. This does not mean that autobrake is not - Triple indicator displays yellow system brake
working. pressure
Q: Describe the three modes of braking?

A:
Normal breaking:
 Where antiskid is operative and autobrake is
available.
Alternate breaking with Antiskid:
 Autobrake is inoperative
 This mode is used when green hydraulic pressure
is insufficient
Alternate breaking without Antiskid:

 Autobrake and antiskid are inoperative
 The antiskid system is either deactivated:
- Electrically (A/SKID & N/W STRG sw OFF, or power
supply failure, or BSCU failure), or
- Hydraulically (Y+G system low pressure, the brakes
are supplied by the brake accumulator only).
51 A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE PEDESTAL
RADIO MGMT PANEL

ATA-23
Three modes of tuning are available.
1. Automatic Tuning
This is the basic means for tuning navaids. In normal
operation, the FMGC tunes navaids automatically,
with each FMGC controlling its own receivers.
If one FMGC fails, the remaining FMGC controls both
side’s receivers.
2. Manual Tuning
The flight crew can use the MCDU to override the
automatic tuning of navaids by FMGC in order to select
a specific navaid for visual display. This does not affect
Q: How are the Communication Radios controlled? the automatic function of the FMGC.
A: From any of the 3 RMPs Any entry on one MCDU is sent to both FMGC in dual
mode, or the remaining FMGC in single mode.
Q: Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical
Config? 3. Back Up Tuning
A: RMP 1 If both FMGCs fail, the flight crew can use the RMPs
(Radio Management Panels 1 and 2) on the pedestal
Q: Which Communication radios are powered in the for back up tuning.
Emergency Electrical Config?
A: VHF 1 and HF 1  The CAPT RMP controls VOR1 and ADF 1
 The F/O RMP controls VOR2 and ADF 2
Q: What would cause the SEL indicator light to  Either RMP controls the ILS, provided “STBY NAV” is
illuminate on Both RMPs? selected on RMP1 and RMP2. RMP3 is not used for
A: When a communication radio normally associated navaids tuning.
with one RMP is tuned by another RMP
- The flight crew must select this backup tuning
Q: If the NAV key is selected on either RMP, can the
mode on both RMP1 and RMP2 if both FMGCs or
FMGC still auto-tune Navaids?
both MCDUs fail. In the emergency electrical
A:
configuration, only RMP1 receives power.
- NO, RMP now controls the VOR/ILS receivers
- NAV key on RMP 3 has no effect
- When the flight crew uses an RMP to tune an
- Normal Radio Communication is still available
ILS/DME, the PFDs do not display the DME
distance.
- Pressing the NAV key on RMP3 has no effect.
AUDIO CONTROL PANEL

ATA-23
Q: With the INT/RAD switch on the ACP in the INT position

and the Sidestick radio selector pressed, what will you
transmit on?
A: The Radio selected by its transmission key on the ACP
Q: What methods would the Crew utilize to make a PA

announcement?
A:
 Pressing the PA key on the ACP and using the Boom.
Hand or Mask microphone, or
 The Flight Deck dedicated handset to the PA system
only
Q: What does the illumination of the CALL light on the VHF

or HF transmission keys indicate?
A: The SELCAL system detects a call
Q: Will the Loudspeaker Volume Knob control the

loudness of Aural Alert and Voice Messages?
A: NO
WX RADAR
ATA-34 RDR-4000
Q: What capabilities does the RADAR system has?

A:
- WX Avoidance
- TURB Detection
- TERR Mapping
- PWS Detection
Q: What would prevent the WX display on the ND?

A:
- When ND is in PLAN mode, or Q: How many Radar systems are installed?
- When TERR pb-sw is selected ON A: 1 or 2
Q: Does PWS detection work when Radar system is Note: ‐ If only one radar is installed, a DEACT
sticker placed next to the "2" label indicates that
switched off?
the system 2 is deactivated.
A: YES, if the PWS is in AUTO
The Predictive Windshear detection is available as
soon as a radar is selected ON and activation
conditions are satisfied
TURB sw:
Q: When are the PWS alerts inhibited? In normal operation, the TURB sw is in AUTO position.
A: The flight crew can remove the turbulence display
- During Take-off > 100kt and up to 50ft and from the ND (for de-cluttering purpose) by setting the
TURB sw to the OFF position.
- During Landing below 50ft
Turbulence areas are displayed in magenta within 40
Q: What is the Scanned Area of the PWS detection NM.
feature?
A: Up to 5NM ahead of the Aircraft when it is below
1800ft AGL
TRANSPONDER
ATA-34
Q: How many transponders are installed?

A: 2
Q: Does the illumination of the ATC FAIL light

indicates loss of all transponder capability?
A: NO, Only the selected transponder
MODE SELECTOR AUTO:
- In flight: The selected XPDR operates.

- On ground: The selected XPDR only operates in
mode S (Selective aircraft interrogation mode)
EIS SWITCHING PANEL

ATA-31
Q: What computers feed data to the six display units? Q: If the UPPER DISPLAY knob was switched OFF, what
A: 3 DMC (Display Management Computer) will occur?
A: The E/WD would automatically transfer to the Lower
Q: What does each of the DMCs normally supply? display
A:
- DMC 1 – CAPT PFD, ND ECAM’s DUs Q: With the E/WD displayed on the Lower screen, how
- DMC 2 – F/O PFD, ND else can you view SD information?
- DMC 3 – is on standby, ready to drive any DU A: Press and Hold the appropriate system button on the
ECAM CONTROL panel you wish to view
Q: How can you tell if a DMC has failed?
A: A diagonal line appears on the respective DU Q: How long will this information be available?
“INVALID DATA” message is displayed on the respective A: Up to 3 minutes by pushing and holding the system
DU (only DMC 1 or 2) page
Q: What happens when the Upper ECAM display fails? Q: What happens when you press the RCL pb?
A: The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the Lower A:
ECAM display - Allows you to recall any Warnings/Cautions
messages that the activation of the CLR pb or flight
Q: If Both E/WD and SD units fail, how can you display phase inhibition may have suppressed
E/WD information? - If held longer than 3s, the E/WD will show any
A: Use the “ECAM/ND XFR” switch to display the E/WD caution messages suppressed by the EMER CANC pb
on an ND (CAPT 3 or F/O 3)
Q: What does the EMER CANC does?
Q: What does the ALL pb do? A:
A: - Cancels the current LEVEL 1 or 2 caution for the
- Display ALL the system pages successively in 3s remainder of the flight
intervals when held down - Cancels the current LEVEL 3 Warning for that
- Release the pb to maintain display of the selected occurrence
page
Q: What occurs during the Before Take-off Checklist
Q: If you press the STS pb and the system has no STATUS when T.O. CONFIG pb is pressed?
messages, what will be displayed? A:
A: “NORMAL” for 3s - The system simulates the application of T.O. Power
and checks certain system for proper configuration
Q: If power fails to the ECAM CONTROL panel, which - A Warning is displayed if and system is not configured
buttons are still functional? properly
A: - “TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO
- CLR – RCL – STS – EMER – CANC – ALL section if the configuration is correct
ENGINE / THRUST LEVERS

SYSTEM ATA-70
Q: What controls the ENGs in all operating regimes?

A: FADEC’s (Full Authority Digital Engine Control)
Q: What functions does the FADEC control?

A:
 Control of gas generator
 Protection against engine exceeding limits
 Power management
 Automatic engine starting sequence
 Manual engine starting sequence
 Thrust reverser control
 Fuel recirculation control
 Transmissions of engine parameters information
to cockpit indicators
 Detection, isolation, and recording of failures
Q: If the FADEC detects a Fault during an Automatic  FADEC cooling
start, is any crew intervention required? neo aircraft, in addition to the above:
A: NO, the FADEC will discontinue the start, clear the  Protection against engine stall and engine flame-out
ENG and attempt a new start (if warranted)  Thrust Control Malfunction Accommodation
automatically  Protection against bowed rotor during engine start on
ground
Q: When does the FADEC command a higher engine
at Idle Speed? Q: What redundancy does the FADEC have?
- Bleed system demand A: DUAL CHANNEL REDUNDANCY – One Channel is
- Approach configuration Active while the other on in Standby
- Ambient conditions
Q: What is the power source for the FADEC?
Q: How many Igniters fire during a Normal A:
Automatic ground start sequence? - The system has its own alternator making it
- One Igniter with the other serving as a backup independent from the aircraft electrical system
- The FADEC automatically alternates the Igniters when N2 > 12%
(A and B) at each start - If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically
switches to the aircraft electrical power
Q: How many Igniters fire on Manual or In-Flight
Start? Q: When will the FADEC abort a start?
A: Both A and B A:
- HOT START
Q: When does Continuous Ignition Automatically - HUNG START
operate? - STALLED START
A: - NO LIGHT UP
- ENG Flame Out detection - NO IGNITION
- Failure of the EIU
- Ignition Delay during start
The pilot can change from FLX to MCT by moving the

thrust lever to TOGA or CL, then back to MCT. After
that, he cannot use the FLX rating.
Note: Setting the thrust lever out of FLX/MCT detent

without reaching TOGA or CL detent has no effect.
Q: What are the 5 detent positions of the Thrust Q: How would you arm the A/THR?
Levers? The flight crew arms A/THR:
A:
- TOGA ‐ On ground
- FLX MCT  By pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU when the
- CL engines are not running, or
- IDLE  By setting the thrust levers at the FLX or TOGA
- MAX REV detent when the engines are running.
Q: What is the Active range of the A/THR? ‐ In flight

A:  By pushing the A/THR pb on the FCU while the
- Just above IDLE to CL detent (2 ENGs) thrust levers are out of the active range, or
- Just above IDLE to MCT detent (1 ENG)  while A/THR is active (“A/THR” white on the FMA),
by setting all thrust levers beyond the CL detent or
Q: What is the Normal operational position of at least one lever above the MCT detent, or
the Thrust Levers when A/THR is active?  by engaging the go around mode.
A: The CL detent
Q: What are the ways to disconnect the A/THR?
Q: What determines the Maximum Thrust the A: The A/THR can be disconnected in two ways:
A/THR system will be able to command? ‐ Standard disconnection:
A: The Detent position of the Thrust Lever  The flight crew pushes the instinctive
disconnect pb on the thrust levers, or
Q: What is the preferred method of  The flight crew sets both thrust levers to IDLE
disconnecting the A/THR? detent.
A:
- Set Thrust Levers to match the TLA to the ‐ Non-standard disconnection:
existing N1 and  The flight crew pushes the A/THR pb on the
- disconnect using the Instinctive pb FCU while A/THR is active/armed, or
 The system loses one of the arming
MATCH & MASH conditions.
Q: What is the indication on ECAM if you disconnect

the A/THR with the pb on the FCU?
A:
 Master Caution light illuminated
 ECAM message flashing ENG THRUST LOCKED
amber caution
 AUTO FLT A/THR OFF amber Caution
 Blue “THR LEVERS…. MOVE”
 Single Chime
 CLR pb ON ECAM CONTROL PANEL Illuminated
ALPHA FLOOR is a protection that commands TOGA thrust, Q: What happens to Thrust and what
regardless of the thrust levers’ positions. This protection is annunciates on FMA when you reach A. FLOOR?
available from lift-off to 100 ft RA on approach. A:
- THRUST – TOGA
ALPHA FLOOR calls up the following indications:
- FMA – “A FLOOR”
- “A FLOOR” in green, surrounded by a flashing amber
box on the FMA, and in amber on the engine warning Q: What occurs during ALPHA FLOOR protection
display, (as long as α-floor conditions are met) after speed increase above VLS?
- “TOGA LK” in green, surrounded by a flashing amber A: FMA changes to “TOGA LK”
box on the FMA, when the aircraft leaves the α-floor
conditions. TOGA thrust is frozen. Q: When is ALPHA FLOOR protection active?
A: From Lift-off to 100 ft RA on approach
To cancel ALPHA FLOOR or TOGA LK thrust, the flight crew
must disconnect the autothrust. Q: How do you regain normal A/THR?
A:
Alpha floor is inhibited when TCAS mode is engaged
- Move Thrust levers to the TOGA detent
- Press the Instinctive Disconnect pb
- Return Trust Levers to CL detent
- Push the A/THR pb to engage A/THR
Q: When would Thrust Lock occur?

A: Thrust Levers in CL detent and
- A/THR pb on the FCU is pushed, or
- A/THR disconnects due to a failure
Q: What controls the ENG LP Fuel valves?

A:
- ENG MASTER switch, or
FAULT LIGHT
- ENG FIRE PUSH pb
Q: What does an amber FAULT light on the ENG
panel indicate?
A:
- Position of HP Fuel shutoff valve is
abnormal, or
- Automatic start sequence aborts, or
- There is a malfunction of the Thrust control
Q. How would you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of

the flight? Will you be able to restore the A/THR? And what
else will you lose?
If the flight crew pushes and holds one instinctive disconnect

pb for more than 15 s, the A/THR system is disconnected for
the remainder of the flight.
All A/THR functions including ALPHA FLOOR are lost, and they
can be recovered only at the next FMGC power-up (on
ground).
RUDDER TRIM PANEL TRIMMABLE HORIZONTAL

ATA-27 STABILIZER (THS) ATA-27
Q: When Hand flying the aircraft, can we trim the

rudder?
A: YES, by using the RUD TRIM rotary selector
Q: What happens if you turn the RUD TRIM with the AP

engaged? WWW.AVB.RU
A: Nothing happens
Q: How is the THS normally operated in flight?

Q: What is the RUD TRIM RESET pb used for?
A: The flight control computers control trim functions
A: To reset the rudder trim to neutral
automatically
Q: Does the Rudder RESET pb works with the AP

Q: If NO Hydraulic power is available, can the THS be
engaged?
positioned?
A: NO
A: NO, the THS requires hydraulic power from the green
or yellow system
Q: Is there any feedback in the Rudder Pedals from the
Yaw Damping or Turn Coordination functions?
Q: If a complete flight control computer failure occurs
A: NO
can the THS be positioned?
A: YES, mechanical trimming is possible by manually
positioning the Pitch Trim Wheel
Q: Can you move the PITCH TRIM wheel if all systems are
working normally?
A: Manual inputs have priority over computer inputs.
The AP will disconnect
By pushing the RESET pb, the zero trim position Q: What happens to the THS after Landing?
is ordered at 1.5 °/s. A: Following nosewheel touchdown, as the pitch
attitude becomes less than 2.5° for more than 5 s, pitch
After the reset, an indication of up to 0.3° (L or R)
trim automatically resets to zero
may be observed in the rudder trim position
indication.
Note: This function is inoperative, when the green or
yellow hydraulic system is not pressurized.
PARKING BRAKE
Q: What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple
ATA-32
indicator indicate?
A:
- Yellow system brake accumulator pressure
- Yellow hydraulic pressure delivered to the Left
and right brakes
Q: What effects does setting the Parking Brake has on

Q: How do you perform the brake check during initial others Braking mode?
taxi? A: All other braking modes and Antiskid are deactivated
A: Press the brake pedals to ensure the aircraft slows
down and check the brake pressure on the triple Q: When Brake Accumulator pressure is low, how is it re-
indicator is zero, indicating the Green hydraulic system charged?
took over A: With the Yellow hydraulic system electric pump
Q: If you lose the Green hydraulic pressure will you Q: By what means is the Parking Brake activated when
have the AUTO BRK? you turn ON the Parking Brake handle?
A: NO, not with the Alternate Braking A: Electrically
Q: Is it required to depress the brake pedals while setting

Q: Is Antiskid available with Alternate Braking?
the Parking Brake?
A: YES, if certain conditions are met
A: NO
With spoilers not armed, will the spoilers deploy for
Q: How do you verify the Parking Brake is set?
an RTO?
A:
A: YES, if the speed is greater than 72kt and when at
- ECAM “PARK BRK” memo
least one ENG is in reverse and other engine in IDLE
- Triple indicator brake pressure
Q: How many brake applications are available with Q: If during an ENG start with brake ON, the aircraft
the accumulator pressure? starts to move due to a parking brake failure, what must
A: Approximately 7 full applications you quickly do?
A: Release the PARK BRK handle to restore Normal
Braking with the pedals
Q: When should the brake fans be selected ON?
- ON when brake temperature exceeds 300° C
(amber HOT light on) for Take-off PARKING BRAKE
- 5 minutes after landing or just before stopping at Brakes are supplied by the yellow hydraulic system, or by
the gate whichever occurs first accumulator pressure via the parking brake control valve,
which opens allowing full pressure application on the main
gear wheel brakes. The accumulator maintains the parking
LIMITATIONS pressure for at least 12 h.
Q: What is the maximum brake
temperature for Take-off? If the parking brake is activated and no yellow hydraulic or
accumulator brake pressure is available, then the normal
A: 300° C (BRK FAN OFF) braking system can be applied via the brake pedals.
Yellow accumulators can be pressurized by pressing the yellow

electrical pump switch. A triple indicator on the centre
instrument panel indicates the pressure delivered to the left
and right brakes, as well as the accumulator pressure.
61 A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE LATERAL CONSOLE
NOSE WHEEL STEERING

(N/W STRG) ATA-32
Q: What Hydraulic system supplies N/W STRG? The steering system receives actuating hydraulic
A: YELLOW pressure when:
Q: What does the Rudder PEDALS DISC pb on the  A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is ON
steering handwheel does?  Towing control lever is in normal position
A: Pressing this pb removes control of N/W STRG from
 At least one engine is running
the rudder pedals until released
 Aircraft is on ground.
Q: What would occur if the A/SKID & N/W STRG sw
were selected to OFF?
A:
 N/W STRG is lost
 Antiskid is deactivated
 Autobrake is also lost
 Braking is powered by the Yellow Hydraulic System
accumulator (max 1000 psi)
Q: The Steering handwheel can steer the Nose Wheel

up to how much in each direction?
A: The handwheel can turn the nosewheel up to 75 ° in
either direction. A lever, on the towing electrical box
(on nose landing gear), enables ground crew to
deactivate the steering system for towing. Then the
wheel can be turned 95 ° in either direction.
Q: When using the Rudder Pedals for steering, when

does the steering angle begins to reduce?
A: Starts reduction at 40kt and progressively reduces
to 0° at 130kt
Q: Is the nosewheel centred after takeoff?

A: Yes, an internal cam mechanism returns the
nose wheel to the centred position after takeoff.
Note: The steering system centres the nose wheel

automatically after liftoff.
FLAPS/SLATS
Q: With only Green hydraulic system pressure
available, will both Flaps and Slats operate?
ATA-27
A: YES, at ½ speed
Q: What system prevents Flap or Slats asymmetry?

A: WTB (Wing Tip Brake)
Q: What cause the WTBs to activate?

A:
- Asymmetry
- Mechanism overspeed
- Symmetrical runaway, or
- Uncommented movement of the surfaces
They cannot be released in flight.
Q: If the WTB activates due to a Flap Asymmetry, can Wingtip brakes WTBs:
the Slats still operate? The WTBs which activate in the case of an
A: YES, only flap operation is inhibited uncommented movement of the surfaces, such as
runaway, asymmetry or over speed. They cannot be
Q: How many SFCC (Slat/Flap Control Computers) are released in flight.
installed?
A: 2 They use blue and green hydraulic power for the slats
and for the right-wing flaps, and blue and yellow
Q: What would occur if one SFCC fails? hydraulic power for the left-wing flaps.
A: The Slats and Flaps will continue to operate at ½
speed If the flap wingtip brakes are on, the pilot can still
operate the slats, and if the slat wingtip brakes are
Q: What Flap/Slat configurations correspond to on, he can still operate the flaps.
position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?
A: If one SFCC is inoperative, slats and flaps both operate
- CONFIG 1+F is used for Take-off and provides both at half speed.
Slats (position 1) + Flaps
- CONFIG 1 is used in flight and is Slats only If one hydraulic system is inoperative, the
corresponding surfaces (slats or flaps) operate at half
Q: When will the ARS (Automatic Retraction System) speed.
operate?
A: On acceleration in CONFIG 1+F, the Flaps (not Slats)
will automatically retract to 0 at 210kt
Q: What is ALPHA LOCK?

A: This function inhibits Slat retraction at high AOA
and low speed
Q: When the Flap’s legend appears in Cyan on the

upper ECAM display, what does it indicate?
A: Flaps/Slats are in transit
Q: What happens to the Ailerons when the Flaps are

extended?
A: The ailerons droop 5°
SPEED BRAKE/SPOILERS
ATA-27
Q: Is there any LDG CONFIG when the Speed Brake

extension is inhibited?
A: Yes, when flaps are in CONFIG FULL
Q: When do the GND Spoilers automatically extend

during an RTO?
A:
If GND Spoilers ARMED and speed exceeds 72kt:
 when BOTH Thrust Levers are set to IDLE
If GND Spoilers NOT ARMED and speed exceeds

72kt:
Q: When are the Speed Brakes inhibited?
 when REV is selected on One ENG (the other
A: Speed Brakes (2-3-4) are inhibited when: Thrust Lever remains at IDLE)
- SEC 1 & 3 both have faults, or
- AOA protection is Active, or Q: When do the GND Spoilers automatically extend
- ALPHA FLOOR activation, or during Landing?
- Thrust Lever above MCT position, or A:
When ARMED:
- Flaps FULL, or
 Both main LDG GEAR on Ground
- Elevator (L or R) has a fault, or
 Both Trust levers at or below IDLE, or REV on at
- When a Speed brake fails on one wing, the least one ENG (and the other Thrust Lever
symmetric one on the other wing is inhibited below MCT position)
If an inhibition occurs when the speed brakes are
extended, they retract automatically and stay retracted When NOT ARMED:
until the inhibition condition disappears, and the pilots  Both main LDG GEAR on ground
reset the lever. (The speed brakes can be extended  REV selected on at least One ENG (and the other
again 10 s or more after the lever is reset). Thrust Lever below MCT position)
When a speed brake surface on one wing fails, the
Q: Will the GND Spoilers extend if Touchdown with
symmetric one on the other wing is inhibited.
REV selected and Only One LDG Gear is
compressed?
Q: In Flight, what happens if a Spoiler fault is A: PARTIALLY, Full extension is limited until BOTH
detected, or electrical power is lost? Main LDG Gears are compressed
A: The Spoiler Automatically Retract
Q: When will the GND Spoilers Automatically
Retract?
A:
After LDG or RTO:
 when the GND Spoilers are disarmed
During touch and go:

 when at least one Thrust Lever is advanced above
20°
A summary of flaps/slats operations, and

ABN will be added in the next update
AUTO FLIGHT
FMGS FLIGHT MANAGEMENT
GUIDANCE SYSTEM
CAPT F/O EFIS

EFIS
CONTROL FCU CONTROL
PANEL
PANEL
PFD 1 ND 1 ND 2 PFD 2
FMGC 1 FMGC 2 ND 2 PFD 2
FADEC
MCDU MCDU
1 2
THRUST
LEVERS
Q: What are the main components of the FMGS? Q: Does SELECTED or MANAGED Guidance have
A: priority?
- 2 FMGCs A: SELECTED Guidance
- 2 MCDUs
- FACs Q: What type of Database is periodically updated in
- FCU the FMGS?
Q: What are the functions of the Flight Management A: The airline updates every 28 days. The updating
Guidance Computers? operation takes 20 min to complete or 5 min if cross
A: - FG (Flight Guidance) loaded from the opposite FMGC
- FM (Flight Management)
Q: What are the 2 modes of FG (Flight Guidance)? Q: Can the Crew modify data in the NAVIGATION
A: MANAGED Guidance and SELECTED Guidance Database?
A: The Crew has limited ability to create Pilot stored
Q: What is the MANAGED mode of Flight Guidance Navigational data
used for?
A: LONG-TERM Lateral, Vertical and SPD profiles as Q: How do you determine the validity of the
determined by the FMGS NAVIGATION Database?
A: On the AIRCRAFT STATUS MCDU page
Q: What is SELECTED mode of FG used for?
A: TEMPORARY Lateral, Vertical and SPD commands as
selected with the FCU
MCDU DUAL MODE

Q: What are the 4 modes of FMGC
operation? FMGC 1 FMGC 2
A:
- DUAL MODE (the normal mode)
- INDEPENDENT MODE (each FMGC being
controlled by its associated MCDU)
- SINGLE MODE (using one FMGC only)
- BACK-UP NAVIGATION MODE MCDU MCDU
1 2
The system automatically selects this degraded mode under specific INDEPENDENT MODE
abnormal conditions (e.g., different database validity on both
FMGCs). FMGC 1 FMGC 2
Both FMGCs work independently and are linked only to peripherals
on their own sides of the flight deck (“onside” peripherals). When
this occurs, the “INDEPENDENT OPERATION” message is displayed
on both MCDU scratchpads.
There are a procedure to be followed on ground, and a procedure in MCDU MCDU

flight as well. But I will mention that on the ground, if you have 1 2
different databases, we can CROSSLOAD the database to restore
dual FMGS operations. This page is called the P/N XLOAD PAGE
BACK UP NAVIGATION MODE

EFIS
1
EFIS
2 SINGLE MODE
FMGC 1 FMGC 2 FMGC 1 FMGC 2
MCDU MCDU MCDU MCDU

1 2 1 2
The flight crew must select this backup tuning

mode on both RMP1 and RMP2 if both FMGCs or
both MCDUs fail. In the emergency electrical
configuration, only RMP1 receives power.
When the flight crew uses an RMP to tune an

ILS/DME, the PFDs do not display the DME
distance.
Q: What inputs does each FMGC use for Position ANNUNCIATORS (ON THE TOP OF THE MCDU)
determination?
A: Each FMGC computes its own aircraft position
(called the "FM position") from a MIX IRS position
and a computed radio position, or a GPS position.
FM 1 FM 2 The onside FM is failed
Q: What is the Normal operational mod of the The onside FM detects an independent mode of operation
FMGS? IND
while both FM are healthy.
A: DUAL MODE, with one FMGC as master and the RDY
MCDU has passed its power up test after it was turned off using
its DIM key.
other FMGC as slave
Q: How does Autopilot selection influence master ANNUNCIATORS (ON THE SIDE OF THE KEYBOARD)
FMGC logic?
A:
- If One AP is Engaged, the related FMGC is Master
- If Two APs are Engaged, FMGC 1 is Master
Q: If Amber “OFFSIDE FM CONTROL” message is

displayed on the ND, what action should the crew
take?
A: No action is needed as an FMGC has failed and we Indicates that the Multipurpose Control and Display Unit
are in SINGLE MODE. Both NDs would be set to the FAIL (MCDU) has failed.
same Mode and Range
Indicates that the flight crew should call up a peripheral linked
MCDU
to the MCDU (such as ACARS, ATSU or CFDS).
MENU
On the ND usually associated with the failed FM:
 If the NDs are not both in the same mode or Comes on while the flight crew is using the MCDU to display
peripherals. This light tells the flight crew that the FMGC has an
range, the associated ND displays "MAP NOT FM important message to deliver. The flight crew accesses the
AVAIL" and "SET OFFSIDE RNG/MODE". message by pressing the MCDU MENU key and the line select
 If the NDs are in the same mode and range, the key adjacent to the FMGC prompt.
associated ND displays the "OFFSIDE FM

Q: Can BOTH APs be engaged during any Phase of
CONTROL" amber message.
Flight?
A: NO, only during an ILS approach
Q: What is the difference between the large and

small fonts utilized in the MCDU?
A:
- LARGE – Pilot entries and modifiable data
- SMALL – Default/Computed non-modifiable data
Q: When would a TO SHIFT be entered on the PERF

TO page?
A: When takeoff begins at a runway Intersection
Q: If the FLEX TEMP is not inserted on Take-off page

of the MCDU, and thrust levers are positioned in the
FLEX detent, what will occur?
A: A Warning will be generated, Set TOGA, and
execute a MAX Thrust Take-off
Q: What occurs when managed NAV mode is

engaged and the aircraft flies into a flight plan
discontinuity?
A: NAV mode automatically reverts to the HDG/TRK
mode
A simplified summary of the AUTO FLIGHT

system, and notes will be added in the next
update
71 A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE GLARESHIELD
GLARESHIELD
Q: What does the red AUTO LAND light indicate?
A: Below 200ft RA:
- Excessive LOC or G/S deviation
- Loss of LOC or G/S signal
- 15ft difference between both RA
- The last AP disengages
- FMGS detect a Long Flare
Q: What do the flashing Green CAPT, and F/O Q: What does the Red Arrow on the SIDE STICK PRIORITY light mean?
SIDESTICK PRIORITY lights indicate? A: Comes in front of the pilot losing authority
A:
Q: How would you regain control?
- Both lights flash when the pilots move both
A: The last pilot to press the TAKEOVER pb on the sidestick will have
sidesticks simultaneously and neither takes
priority. An Aural “PRIORITY LEFT” or “PRIORITY RIGHT” will sound
priority.
- When a pilot has taken priority by pressing the Q: What happens when BOTH pilots make an input simultaneously on
takeover pushbutton and the other pilot's BOTH sidesticks?
sidestick is not at neutral, the light in front of A:
the pilot with priority lights up. It goes out - The Inputs are algebraically summed up to the normal limits
when the other pilot returns his stick to the - An Aural “DUAL INPUT” will sound
neutral position. - Green CAPT and F/O light will illuminate
To deactivate the other sidestick, the flight

crewmember must press their sidestick pb for 40s.
The other sidestick is permanently deactivated,
until any flight crewmember presses their
sidestick pb.
72 A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE GLARESHIELD
FLIGHT CONTROL UNIT

FCU
Q: What is the function of the LOC pb? Q: What is the function of the FCU (Flight Control Unit)?
A: Arms, Engages or Disengages the LOC mode A:
- Permits short term interface between the Pilot and
FMGS
Q: When do you press the APPR button? - Allows temporary modification of any flight
A: When cleared for the Approach parameters (HDG, SPD, ALT, V/S)
- Used to select operational modes of the autopilots,
Q: After pressing the APPR pb, what do you check for? flight directors and A/THR system
A:
Q: What do Dashes on the FCU display windows along
 ILS – Blue LOC and G/S in FMA with the adjacent White dot indicate?
 RNAV – APP NAV and FINAL A: FMGS Managed Guidance is in use
Q: How is Selected Guidance engaged? Q: How do you confirm all AP, FD and A/THR inputs?
A: Confirm all mode inputs by reference to the FMA
A: Pull the appropriate selector knob
Q: Will the FCU Altitude window ever displayed dashes?
Q: When is the FCU inhibited? A: NO, Pilot selected altitude will be always displayed
A: LAND mode and aircraft below 400ft RA, LOC and
GS locked
Additional photos, questions and notes will

be added in the next update
74 A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE MAIN INSTRUMENT PANEL
ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENT
SYSTEM (EIS)
THE E/WD
AND THE SD
REPRESENTS
THE
ELCTRONIC
THE PFD AND THE ND REPRESENTS THE PFD AND THE ND REPRESENTS
CENTRALIZED
THE ELECTRONIC FLIGHT THE ELECTRONIC FLIGHT
AIRCRAFT
INSTRUMENT SYSTEM INSTRUMENT SYSTEM
MONITOR
(EFIS) (EFIS)
(ECAM)
PFD 1 ND 1 E/WD ND 2 PFD 2
SD
THE SIX IDENTICAL DISPLAY

UNITS PRESENTS THE
ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENT
SYSTEM (EIS)
76 A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE MAIN INSTRUMENT PANEL
PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY

PFD (EIS)
A whole new chapter will be added in the

next update
NOTES:

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2022

A320 SYSTEMS ORAL GUIDE

JULY 10, 2022 VERSION 5

ALL ANSWERS HAVE BEEN REFERENCED TO

IAM TRYING TO MAKE THIS GUIDE AS

MISTAKES, TYPO ERRORS, OUTDATED

GOOD LUCK WITH YOUR CHECKRIDE AND

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GUIDE COLOR CODES

The guide’s layout has been OVERHEAD PANEL

from the overhead panel, then the

Like I said as close as possible :-D.

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WINDSHIELD WIPER PANEL

Q: When is the rain repellent inhibited?

Q: What does the RAIN RPLNT pb do when pressed?

CALLS PANEL MECH pb

Q: What happens in the Cabin when you press

Q: What happens when the FAs initiate an

The cabin call system will reset when the cabin

CIDS standard architecture

Q: What happens during the pre-flight when you

Q: What would you notice on the ECAM

Q: When do the mask automatically deploy?

Q: What method is used to supply passenger cabin

Q: What indication would you have of the crew

Q: Above what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen

Q: When an amber half frame box appears on

(neo aircraft) On ground, an amber half frame appears

Q: What are the OXY pressure indications on the

(1) EMERGENCY pressure selector

 Pressing this knob generates an overpressure for a few seconds.

HOW TO TEST THE OXYGEN MASK

BLINKER CREW SUPPLY pb………….……………… CHECK ON

On the mask stowage box:

On the ceo aircraft, DFDR records last 25 hours, CVR records

LOUDSPEAKER VOLUME knob …………….….……………..… OFF (BOTH SIDES)

A: If the basic GPWS mode 1 to 5 malfunction.

Note: If ILS 1 fails, only GPWS mode 5 is lost.

Q: What does LDG FLAP 3 ON light indicate?

Q: What does FLAP MODE OFF light indicate?

MODE 1 Excessive rate of descent “SINK RATE”

MODE 5 Excessive descent below the glide slope “GLIDE SLOPE”

Q: What is the function of the MAN ON pb?

Q: Is there another way to deploy the RAT? FAULT LIGHT

A: If the EMER GEN is not supplying power when AC BUS

Q: What happens when you push the GEN 1 LINE

Q: If CAPT & PURS switch was set to CAPT and CMD pb

FLIGHT CONTROLS PANEL

FAULT LIGHT FAULT LIGHT

A: A: When a failure is detected

- Load Factor Limitation

Q: What are the functions of the ELAC? Q: What backup ELAC 2?

Q: When do the Ailerons go to the damping mode? CONFIGURATION 0 TO CONFIGURATION 1 IN FLIGHT

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Flight controls system, and flight

AAA TOM GAAAF HAT

Q: What would be missing on the CPT’s PFD if IR1 failed

FAULT LIGHT Q: What action would recover the attitude and

FAULT LIGHT Q: What does the amber ON BAT light indicate?

Q: What would restore the lost ALTITUDE and AIRSPEED

During the flight, if the IR mode selector is set from NAV to

Q: What if you lose all ADRs? REFFER TO QRH