AIRCRAFT GENERAL

The air data Inertial Reference Unit (ADIRU) is limited to operate from ___
degrees North Latitude to ___degrees South Latitude
R: 82; 82
The Maximum Nose wheel steering angle is ________ when controlled by the
tiller.
R: 78
The flight spoilers augment the aileron operation when the control wheel is
rotated more than ___degrees.
R: 10
On the -800 the allowance for the Horizontal Stabilizer Arc is ______ then the
allowance for the Wing Tip Arc.
R: Equal to
The wingspan on the -700 is 2ft less than the wingspan on the -900 aircraft
R: False
Due to the length of the NG aircrafts, all NGs have a tailskid
R: False
Where are the external light switches and engine start switches located?
R: Forward Overhead Panel
Where is the display of the Crew Oxygen Bottle Pressure?
R: AFT Overhead panel

Navigation information is normally displayed on the ________ DUs

R: Inboard
Which cargo compartment has a higher volume capacity?
R: Aft
Are the cargo compartments ventilated during flight?
R: No
How many Overwing Exit doors are on the -700?
R: One on each side
Which F/A station has a switch to activate the Emergency Exit Lights?
R: Aft
Which F/A Station has provisions for testing the Water Levers?
R: Aft
Where is the Galley Power switch located?
R: Flight Deck-Overhead Panel
What is the capacity of the Portable Water Tank?
R: 40 gal.
Above what altitude is the differential pressure used to flush the toilet?
R:16,000fts
Where is the Water Level and Waste Level displayed in the aircraft?
R: Aft F/A Station
Which of the Flight Deck windows can be opened from outside?
R: Right Side
The Over-Wing exit doors are hinged _________?
R: On the top
When ditching in water, DO NOT OPEN the _________ Entry or Service doors.
R: Aft
To open the door in the normal mode the Girt Bar must be _______ the door
R: Removed from
Which passenger information sign (switch in auto) illuminates if either the
Landing Gear or the Flaps are extended?
R: Fasten Seat Belts
Which lights automatically illuminate when external power is connected to an
otherwise cold aircraft?
R: Entry and Lavatory
Where is the light control switch for the cockpit dome lights?
R: Aft Overhead Panel
The AFDS flood light control knob is on the _________ panel.
R: Capitan´s
The standby magnetic compass light is powered by the ________-
R: Battery Bus

Is there an airspeed limit for the extension of the Retractable Wing Landing
Lights?
R: No
Does the Nosegear Taxi light turn with the nosegear steering?
R: Yes
What is the normal position for the Flight Emergency Light Switch?
R: Armed
How many switches are installed to control the Emergency lights?
R: Two
Where is the cabin Emergency light switch located?
R: Aft F/A Station
With the cockpit Emergency Lights switch OFF, will the batteries continue to
charge?
R: Yes
Pressing either Master Caution light will reset both Master Caution Lights, the
System Annunciator Light, and the System Caution light on the associated
system control panel.
R: False, the system Caution Light remains on until the condition is corrected
The Fire Bell can be cancelled by pressing either Master FIRE WARN light or by
_________
R: Pressing the Bell Cut Out Switch on the Fire Control Panel
How can you recall a System Annunciator that has been cancelled?
R: Pressing either System Annunciator Panel
When the battery switch is off an the external power is connected to the
aircraft, the entry and lavatory mirror lights will automatically illuminate.
R: True
With an inoperative engine driven , the aircraft can dispatch with the APU as
the second source of electrical power
R: True
Rudder Pedal steering provides a maximum steering angle of ________
R: 7 degrees
If the external nosegear wheel well light switch is “ON” the flight deck control
switch cannot turn off the Nosegear Wheel Well light
R: True
Pressing the Hard Lock Switch on the Flight Deck Door Panel engages the
Hard Lock Door Mode for _______
R: 30 Mins
On the ground, the packs can receive compressed air from _________
R: All of these
The runway turnoff lights shine outward approximately _____ and have a beam
width of approximately______
R: 50 degrees; 30 degrees
If a Flush Valve fails to close after flushing, the cabin pressure will
continuously escape overboard
R: True

The batteries (emergency lights) should last for about ______minutes

R: 20 mins
The maximum nose wheel steering angle is ________ when controlled by the
tiller
R: 78 degrees
The individual emergency Nicad batteries are all charged by 28 volt DC Bus #1
R: True
The potable water tank is normally pressurized by the pneumatic system with
pressure regulated at ______
R: 35psi
A flight deck switch and a switch on the _____ attendant station control the
Emergency Light system
R: Aft
The APU is normally supplied by the ________
R: left Tank
The Map light are adjusted by the knob on the ____________
R: Sidewall Panels
When the FASTEN SEAT BELTS switch is selected to AUTO, the FASTEN SEAT
BELT and RETURN TO YOUR SEAT signs illuminate with ____________
R: Gear or flap extension
The water pressure for the lavatories is normally provided by the __________
R: Pneumatic System
The PANEL knob on the F/O´s panel can the integral lights in the First Officer´s
instruments and the AFDS mode control panel edge lighting
R: False
The taxi light will automatically turn off when the gear are retracted for safety
purposes
R: False
The cargo compartment doors are plug type, hinged at the____ and open____
R: Top; Inward
 OXYGEN

Which mask lever, when squeezed, applies oxygen flow to inflate the harness?
R: Right
Can the oxygen system be tested without removal of the mask from the
stowage box?
R: Yes
At what cabin altitude should the PSU doors automatically open?
R: 14,000ft
How does the flight crew confirm that the PSU door solenoids have been
powered?
R: PASS OXY ON light illuminates on the Aft Overhead Panel
What action activates an oxygen generating canister?
R: Pulling a mask to pull the lanyard
The oxygen generator can be shut off after the ignitor has been activated
R: False
How many cabin Portable Oxygen Bottles are required for dispatch?
R: One for each assigned Flight Attendant
What is the Preflight position of the Normal/100% Selector on the crew oxygen
mask ?
R: Pushed in to the 100% oxygen position
How long will an oxygen canister generate oxygen (in minutes)?
R: Approximately 12 to 22 minutes
How many Continuous flow masks can be connected to a cabin P.O.B.?
R: Two
Where is the manual control switch deploy the passenger oxygen masks?
R: Aft Overhead
How many mask outlets are available on a cabin Portable Oxygen Bottle?
R: Two
Where is the crew Oxygen bottle shutoff valve on the cockpit?
R: Behind the F/O seat sidewall
According to this CBT, Should the passenger Oxygen masks be used when
there is smoke in the cabin?
R: No
What is indicated by the PAX OXYGEN ON light?
R: Power has been sent to all PSU door solenoids.
Where is the crew oxygen bottle green blow out disc?
R: Right side of the fuselage
When the cabin altitude reaches __________ feet, a pressure switch
automatically activates the PSU door opening solenoids
R: 14,000
What is required to keep the mask harness inflated?
R: Keep the red release levers squeezed
Is the observer mask located in a stowage box like the flight crews masks?
R: No
Once activated, can an oxygen generating canister be shut off?
R: No
The PSU doors are released by _________
R: Electrical Activation
What action will activate an oxygen generating canister?
R: Pull down any mask in seat row to pull the release firing pin
Where is the crew oxygen bottle located?
R: Electronic Compartment
Where is the Pressure Indicator for the crew oxygen bottle?
R: Aft Overhead panel in the cockpit

How is the crew oxygen mask hardness inflated?

R: By squeezing the red mask release levers
Where is the switch located in the cockpit that allows the flight crew to
manually activate the solenoids to open all PSU doors?
R: Aft Overhead Panel
Can the crew oxygen system be tested without removing a mask from the
container?
R: Yes
At what cabin altitude will the PSU door solenoids be automatically activated?
R: 14,000
What is the normal preflight charge for a full crew oxygen bottle (in PSI)?
R: About 1800 psi

FIRE DETECTION

Which electrical bus provides the power for engine and APU fire detection?
-battery bus

Which electrical bus provides the power for engine and APU protection?
-hot battery bus

Which electrical bus provides the power for wheel well detection
-AC transfer bus #1

The APU fire extinguisher can be discharged only by controls in the flight deck.
-False
After discharge of the APU fire agent bottle from the APU ground control panel,
how would you determine is the bottle discharged.
-observe APU bottle discharge light located in the flight deck

With the fire detected for the APU, if you press the horn cutoff bottom on the
APU ground control panel, the flashing red light will:
-remain steady

Should the fault light normally illuminate during the overheat fire test
-no

If the fault lights illuminates during the overheat fire test, whats wrong
-A fault of one or more detector loops is indicated.

Should the Fault light normally illuminate during the FAULT/INOP test.
-YES

When a loop detector switch is in the A or B position.

-only a failure of the selected loop will cause the FAULT light to come on

Which of the following statements best describes arming the cargo

compartment suppression system
-the squibs must be manually armed

The master caution lights illuminates with the detector fault light
-false

After pressing the DISCH with to discharge the fire bottle, the DISCH light may
not illuminate for up to
-30 secs

The fire warning lights can also be cancelled by pressing

-BELL CUTOUT SWITCH

The fire detection system is powered by

-Batt Bus

How many lights should illuminate during the overheat and fire test
-11

There are no.........lights associated with the system fault/inop test

-red
The APU detector system monitors the fire condition and fault conditions, but
does not monitor for shutdown for overheat conditions
-TRUE

The power to the bottle squibs is provided by the

-hot battery bus

When a fault light comes on which other lights are triggered to come on
-None

Eng fire protection is provided by two freon bottles

-TRUE

There is no fire extinguisher for the wheel well area

-TRUE

The APU ground control panel and fire warning horn in the ............... aft main
wheel well
-right

There is ______ alert to the crew when a loop has failed

-NO

APU fire protection is provided two freon bottles

-NO

Each loop selector switch is usually in the NORMAL position, if loop A or B is

selected and the loop is defective the amber ______light indicates the selected
engine
loop has failed
-FAULT

If both loops on one engine are malfunctioning she the OVHT/DET switch is in
the normal position, the ________
L-FAULT light illumilplpnates

APU fire detection is powered by the

-BATT BUS

IF the loop selector is in the both position and both loops are faulty, the FAULT
light will not come on
-FALSE
The extinguisher TEST switch can test the circuitry________
-to the squibs on all three bottles

The wheel well system monitors the fire conditions, but does not
monitor_____or fault conditions.
-overheat

The engine fire warning switches are automatically unlocked for_____

-either an overheat or a fire condition.

AIR CONDITIONING

The deflectors door are extended when________to provide slush and debris
protection to the RAM air
-on ground

On the ground the pack switch high position may be used on both packs to
provide maximum flow with the APU bleed switch
-ON

The cabin can be maintained at_____feet shen the airplane is at maximum

certified altitude with only one pack operating
-8000

Ground conditioned air is plugged directly into the_______

-mix manifold

Warm air from the cabin normally circulates between the aircraft skin and the
aft cargo compartment walls and the exits through the_____
-main outflow valve

Single engine operation for takeoff is able to normal second segment climb
performance with the operating pack in HIGH
-False

For the equipment cooling fans, what determines with fan normal or alternate
is operating
- A switch position determines with fan operates
On the -800 what system is provided so that each zone can be warmed independently
from the pack temperature
-trim air system, (uses bleed air)

Any time the pack valve closes the mix air driven to the______position
automatically
-full cold

On the -700with both packs operating and either or both pack switches in the
HIGH position the recirculation fan______
-will shut down

In the pack the airflow through the cold mix valve is ______and is combined
with_______
-processed through a cooling cycle, hot air flowing from the hot air mix valve

The inlet door for the pack ram air ONLY opens fully when on the ground
-FALSE

The APU can operate the electrical system and one pack at altitudes up
to_______
-10000 feet

Which packs normally deliver conditioned air to the mix chamber

-both

Where are the two packs located

-lower fuselage between the wings

Which pack provides conditioned air directly to the flight deck

-left

On the -700 moving a temperature selector to the NORMAL position will cause
the pack mix valves to______
-be manually controlled by holding the temperature selector toward cool or warm

On the 700 when a DUCT OVERHEAT light comes on the pack temperature mix
valves drives to the full cold position______
-and no longer respond to the temperature controller

The pack auto position provides _______ if both packs are operating on the
ground or inflight
-normal flow

Warm air exhaust from the electronic equipment cooling is dumped overboard
through the_______________when the aircraft is on the ground
-overboard exhaust valve

With auto selected on the pack switch and the aircraft in flight with flaps
retracted, the pack flow rate automatically shifts to______if the opposite pack
switch is in off
- HIGH

The pack switch auto position provides pack______if either pack is shut off
inflight with the flaps retracted
-high flow

On the 700 the left DUCT OVERHEAT light comes on if the temperature of the
conditioned air delivered from the_____to the cockpit is too hot
-left pack

On the 700 if the recirculation fan is OFF the electrical equipment cooling
airflow is maintained by automatic opening of the______at all differential
pressures
-overboard exhaust valve

On the 700 the________provides temperature control for the flight deck

-left controller

How many total EQUIP COOLING fans are installed? include supply and
exhaust fans
-four (there is a normal and alternate for supply and exhaust)

On the 700 all of the air from the______flows to the mix chamber
-right pack

On the 800 how many recirculation fans are installed

-two

During normal cruise flight, the ram doors will modulate between a normal
open and a normal closed position to automatically regulate airflow through
the system
-TRUE
The______is the exhaust exit for the majority of the air circulated through the
cabin passenger cabin
-main overflow valve

When an external air cart is connected can the external air be used to operate
both packs
-YES

The pack valves are spring loaded and will only open if the pack switch is in
AUTO o HIGH
-pneumatic air is available

What sources of high pressure air may be used to supply the pack
-any of these, all of these

COMUNICATIONS
Which Position of the Push to Talk switch is used to directly speak on the Flight
Interphone regardless of the selection on the Audio Selector Panel?
R: I/C
Is It Necessary to select a Receiver Switch to monitor the radio that is selected for
transmission?
R: NO

An illuminated Offside Tuning Light indicates _______________.

R: Either the associated radio is controlled by another panel or this panel is
controlling a radio associated with another panel.
What is the purpose of the Transfer Switch?
R: To place the frequency selected to the Standby readout into the Active
readout.
If the Selected Radio is Unavailable, what will be displayed in the frequency
indicators?
R: INOP, INOP
Can a pilot monitor the Flight Interphone while using any other radio on his/her audio
selector panel?
R: Yes
The Voice Recorder can be erased only when _____________
R: the aircraft is on the ground, and the parking brake is set.
The voice Recorder records audio up to _____ min and deletes the older audio.
R: 120
How does HF communication operate?
R: HF signals reflect off the earth´s surface and an ionized layer of the
atmosphere to travel long distance.
How does one tune a HF frequency?
R: With the desired frequency selected, key the mike and wait for the tone to
stop.
What is the purpose of the TRANFER switch?
R: To select which of the displayed frequencies is active.
Which knob controls the selection of the 3 leftmost digits?
R: Outer
Which of the Flight Attendant panels has a CAPITAN call button that can be used to
call the cockpit?
R: Both
ACARDS
Which page allows the crew to request a Gate Assignment?
R: MISCELLANEOUS PAGE
Which page would you access before the flight?
R: PRE-FLIGHT FUNCIONS PAGE
The crew can request a call from Operations through the Ground Call page?
R: True

AUTOFLIGHT SYSTEM
1. What is the most accurate indication of the status of mode engagement?
Answer: The Flight Mode Annunciators (FMA)

2. When power is first applied to the aircraft the Altitude Display indicates
what altitude?
Answer: Last selected altitude before power down

3. Upon pressing the altitude hold button the light in the button illuminates.
Answer: This indicates the held altitude is not the same as the selected altitude
in the display.

4. The Altitude Alert will sound when departing the set MCP altitude by:
Answer: 300 FEET

5. Autothrottles and VNAV are engaged. The A/T FMA displays FMC SPD
mode. What will you see in the IAS/MACH Windows on the MCP?
Answer: The IAS/MACH Windows will be blank because speed controlled
through the MCDU.

6. With the autothrottles engaged, pressing the autothrottles disengage

switch on one of the thrust levers disengages the autothrottles. This
causes the A/T disengage lights to flash, a warning tone to sound, and
the A/T ARM switch trips OFF.
Answer: A second press of the disengage switch causes the A/T disengage
lights to extinguish.

7. The AFDS can quide a bank angle up to_____degrees when the localizer
is captured regardless of the MCP bank angle setting.
Answer: 30

8. The Flight Director has no Lansing flare capability. Pilots can expect the
FD command bars to retract from view at approximately______feet RA on
an ILS approach.
Answer: 50

9. What action takes precedent when determining the master FCC?.

Answer: The Autopilot engaged in CMD
10. During takeoff, failures of_______________will cause the A/T to
disengage.
Answer: valid N1 limit signals from the FMC

11. The selected speed appears in the IAS/MACH display when__________is

engaged.
Answer: MCP SPD

12. Illuminated MCP switch lights do not indicate the operating mode,
you must view the mode status on the________.
Answer: FMA displays

13. The Autothrottle system is normally engaged_________takeoff.

Answer: Before

14. The AP can also control the horizontal stabilizer trim, but has no
control over_________________-
Answer: The rudder system

15. If no active speed mode is displayed when LVL CHG is engaged,

the________appears, and the display and airspeed cursors synchronize
to allow current speed to be the target LVL CHG speed.
Answer: Present speed

16. During Autopilot operations, the operating FCC sends control

commands to the respective pitch and roll hydraulic servos, which
operate the flight controls through______________________.
Answer: Separate hydraulic systems

17. Two Autopilots are installed. Except for________________, Only

one AP can be engaged at a time.
Answer: an coupled Dual Channel Approach
18. LVL CHG cannot engage after__________________.
Answer: glideslope capture

19. With VORLOC armed, the AFDS wil intercept the selected radial or
localizer course from the Heading Select mode or from the ____________
mode.
Answer: AP CWS Roll

20. In VNAV descent, the A/T________________, and the AFDS holds

the FMC target speed using pitch.
Answer: retards thrust to idle

21. LNAV will automatically disconnect upon reaching the end of the
________________or entering into a route discontinuity.
Answer: active route

22. The N1 mode sets power to the N1 limit that is calculated by

the______. The available limits are Reduced Takeoff, Takeoff, Go Around,
Reduced Climb, Climb, Cruise, and Continuous.
Answer: FMC

23. When VNAV is engaged, the aircraft will automatically level off at
the altitude displayed in_________or the FMC altitude, whichever is
reached first.
Answer: the MCP Altitude Display

24. When the localizer is captured, the AFDS will command up

to______degrees of bank regardless of the MCP bank angle selector.
Answer: 30

25. An illuminated Master (MA) Light indicates

which_________________.
Answer: FCC is the current master computer
26. When Autopilot “A” is engaged, FCC “A” controls the autopilot
through the “A” system aileron and elevator servos utilizing
the____________________actuators.
Answer: A Hydraulic System

27. Each rotational click of a Course Selector knob, will change the
respective Course readout by 1 degree, and will move
the___________________on the respective ND by one degree.
Answer: course deviation pointer

28. The AFDS captures the glideslope at_______dot, then commands a

descent rate to track the glideslope signal.
Answer: 2/5

29. A Bank Angle Selector is used to limit the roll guidance for the
Heading Select mode and the______mode.
Answer: VOR

30. The Speed Selector is used to adjust the selected speed for
the____________modes.
Answer: MCP SPD and LVL CHG

31. If a________is selected on the MCP Altitude Display, the A/T will
advance power to the N1 limit, and the AFDS will provide pitch guidance
to hold the selected IAS/MACH value.
Answer: higher altitude

32. If a________is selected on the MCP Altitude Display, the A/T will set
idle thrust, and the AFDS will provide pitch guidance to hold the selected
IAS/MACH value.
Answer: lower altitude

33. Autothrottle operation is available with Flight Director________with

the AP engaged or not engaged.
Answer: ON or OFF
 34. The command bars are enabled when the respective FD switch is
turned ON, however the pitch command bar will come into view if
a_________is engaged.
Answer: pitch command mode

HYDRAULIC SYSTEM

1. The A and B Hydraulic Systems are normally pressurized by?

Answer: One Engine Driven Pump (EDP) and one Electric Motor Pump

2. The Leading Edge Devices and the Autoslats are normally pressurized
Answer: the B System

3. Where are the controls for the Standby Hydraulic System?

Answer: On the Flight Control Panel (FLT CONT panel on the Fwd overhead
panel)
o

4. What situation will cause the PTU to automatically activate?

Answer: Low pressure from the B System Engine Driven Pump (EDP)

5. If a leak occurs in the lines associated with the A System Engine Driven
Pump, _____________________________.
Answer: Fluid remains below the standpipe for the Electric Motor Pump.

6. What is the name of the A System Electric Motor Pump, and what bus
provides it with electrical power?
Answer: ELEC 2 ; AC Transfer Bus #2

7. When the Fire Switch is pulled, the engine driven pump LOW PRESSURE
light is___________.
Answer: Inhibited

8. When the PTU is operating, the A System ____________________.

Answer: Provides pressure to drive it.
9. What is the name of the electric motor pump on the B System and which
bus provides electrical power to this pump?
Answer: ELEC 1 ; AC Transfer Bus #1
10. If a leak develops in any B System component, the reservoir will
drain to near zero quantity. If this occurs, will the B System reservoir
hold sufficient fluid to operate the PTU?
Answer: Yes

11. What is the appropiate minimum fuel in the right wing tank to
provide adequate cooling for the hydraulic fluid when on the ground?
Answer: 1676 lbs ; 760 kgs

12. After takeoff, if the #1 engine N2 is below 56% and the LDG gear
lever is up but the gear are not UP, what will the Landing Gear Transfer
Unit cause to happen?
Answer: The B System will raise the gear.

13. Which position of the Flight Control switches is only used by

maintenance?
Answer: OFF
14. Which of these Standby system lights is available regardless of
Standby System operation?
Answer: LOW QUANTITY

15. Moving the_____________from the ON position causes the YAW

DAMPER switch to move to OFF.
Answer: Flight Control B

16. Moving the_____________switch to ARM closes the Trailing Edge

Flaps Bypass Valve.
Answer: Alternate Flaps

17. What is the purpose of the PTU?.

Answer To provide backup pressure to the Autoslats and Leading Edge
Devices.

18. Low pressure___________________causes the PTU to activate

when flaps are set to less than 15 (but not up).
Answer: From the B System EDP

19. The B System Electric Motor Pump receives electrical power

from_________________.
Answer: AC Transfer Bus #1
20. If the Standby System has a leak, the “B” system reservoir will
provide fluid to the Standby Reservoir, until the “B” system reservoir has
decreased and stabilized at approximately_____.
Answer: 72 %

21. A system reservoir pressure is maintained by_______________.

Answer: Pneumatic pressure

22. The RF (refill) indication appears if the quantity is below_____with

both engines shut down or after landing with flaps UP Turing the taxi IN.
Answer: 76%

23. The Standby system reservoir receives fluid and pressure from
the____reservoir.
Answer: B

24. The PTU (Power Transfer Unit) provides a backup source of

hydraulic pressure to assist the_____system electric motor pump to
operate the leading edge devices and the autoslat system when
the____system EDP output is below normal.
Answer: B ; B

25. In the event of a leak in the lines associated with the EDP, the
reservoir will maintain approximately_____of the hydraulic fluid for
operation of the Electric Motor Driven Pump.
Answer: 20%

26. After takeoff, if the #1 engine N2 RPM falls below 56% with the LDG
gear lever UP and either main gear NOT UP, the LDG GEAR TRANSFER
UNIT will use system____to retract the gear at the normal rate.
Answer: B

27. The PTU shut off valve automatically opens to provide (pressure
from) ____system pressure when necessary to operate the PTU.
Answer: A
28. In the event system A or B fails, the Standby system may be
pressurized by an Electric Motor Driven Pump that is powered by
the___________________.
Answer: AC Transfer Bus #2
29. How many hydraulic pumps are located in the hydraulic system?
Answer: Five (5)

30. The Standby reservoir is pressurized and receives fluid from an

interconnecting balance line from____________reservoir(s).
Answer: B

31. Each hydraulic pump delivers_________psi.

Answer: 3000

32. The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) operates when the Aircraft is
airborne, the_______system EDP pressure falls below an aceptable limit,
and the flaps are less than 15 but NOT UP.
Answer: B

33. The Standby system LOW QUANTITY light is always armed. It

illuminates if the fluid level is below_______.
Answer: 50%

34. Notice: the Leading Edge Devices and the Autoslat system normally
receive hydraulic pressure from the_________.
Answer: B

FUEL SYSTEM

1. Can the 737 dump fuel or transfer fuel when in flight?

Answer: No

2. The APU normally receives fuel from the________side of the fuel system.
Answer: Left

3. The engines can suction feed from the_______________tank(s).

Answer: Main tanks only
4. The imbalance is scheduled to be zero. Random imbalance between
Tank 1 and Tank 2 must not exceed__________.
Answer: 1000 lbs

5. With a loss of the Leith AC Electrical System, how many pumps will be
operable for each fuel tank?
Answer: One (1)

6. With a loss of all normal Electrical power, can the engines suction feed
from the Center tank?
Answer: No

7. With all 6 fuel pumps operating, the engines will be receiving fuel
from__________.
Answer: The Center Tank

8. All fuel tank Boost Pumps are powered by__________________.

Answer: Normal AC Power

9. With the Fuel Crossfeed Valve_______, the #1 Main Tank pumps or the
Leith Center Tank pump can provide fuel pressure to the #2 engine.
Answer: Open

10. With the Fuel Crossfedd Valve closed, the right center fuel pump
can provide fuel pressure to __________________.
Answer: Only the #2 Engine

11. What is the purpose of the Fuel Crossfeed Valve?

Answer: To correct an imbalance condition

12. The LOW PRESSURE lights for the Center Tank pumps
are__________when the pump switches are selected to OFF.
Answer: Inhibited
13. With all the fuel pumps selected ON, a failure of one Main Tank
pump will cause the FUEL system annunciator
to_________________________.
 Answer: Illuminated only upon recall

14. The Fuel Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light illuminates dim

when__________________________________________.
Answer: The Crossfeed selector is in the OPEN position and the Crossfeed
valve is open.
15. In flight, if the fuel quantity is less than____________in either main
tank, the indication displays amber and LOW appears below the digital
quantity.
Answer: 2000 lbs

16. On the ground or in flight with at least one engine running, CONFIG
is displayed if the Center tank quantity is more than________and the
Center tank pumps are producing no or low pressure.
Answer: 1600 lbs

17. Total Fuel Quantity is displayed on the________________page of

the CDU.
Answer: PERF INIT

18. In flight, an imbalance of more than_________between the main

tanks will cause the display of IMBAL to appear.
Answer: 1000 lbs

19. To transfer fuel FROM________,the Crossfeed Valve must be open?

Answer: Tank 1

20. To transfer fuel from the Center Tank, use of the Right Center Tank
pump will not require the Fuel Crossfeed Valve to be opened.
Answer: True

21. Is gravity fueling available to the Main Wing Tanks?

Answer: No

22. Where is the Single Point Refueling Panel?

Answer: Under the RIGHT wing
23. Which Center tank fuel pump normally feeds the #1 engine and
APU?.
Answer: Left

24. When is the Fuel Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light illuminated bright?.
Answer: When the valve is in transit or otherwise disagrees with the selected
position

25. The APU can suction feed fuel from the_______Wing Tank.
Answer: #1

26. When is the Fuel Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light illuminated dim?.
Answer: When the valve is open and the selector is in the OPEN position.

27. Gravity Refueling can be performed to the_____________.

Answer: Wing tanks only (NOTE: FOR 737NG Gravity refueling cannot be
performed)

28. Will the Wing Tank fuel boost pumps operate if only standby
electrical power is available?
Answer: No

29. How many AC powered boost pumps are installed for each tank?
Answer: Two

30. Can the 737 transfer fuel from tank to tank when in flight?
Answer: No

31. How can Center Tank fuel be delivered to both engines if one
Center tank fuel pump has failed?
Answer: Open the Fuel Crossfeed Valve

32. The Wing Tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate of the
pump output pressure is low and___________________.
Answer: The associated pump switch is ON or OFF.

33. What action causes the Fuel Scavenge Shutoff Valve to open?
Answer: Turning OFF the Center Tank pump switches

34. The Fuel Temperature indicador displays the temperature of the

fuel in tank____.
Answer: 1
35. Which Wing Tank fuel boost pumps are running for normal flight
operations?
Answer: Both

36. How many quantity measuring sticks are installed in each wing?
Answer: Six (6)

37. Fuel from which tank(s) is used first?

Answer: The Center Tank

38. The power to operate the Fuel Crossfeed Valve comes from
the_________________.
Answer: Battery Bus

39. The illuminated FUEL FILTER BYPASS light

indicates_________________________.
Answer: That the filter is contaminated and degraded engine performance may
result

40. For refueling, which tank(s) have an automatic shutoff valve that
closes when the tank is full?
Answer: All of them

41. What is the minimum in flight fuel temperature if the freezing point
of your fuel is -53ºC (in degrees centigrade)?
Answer: 45

42. When operating with only Wing Tank fuel, if both Wing Tank fuel
pump LOW PRESSURE lights are on above________feet, engine
flameout or thrust deteriorationmay occur.
Answer: 30,000

43. What controls the position of the Engine Fuel Shutoff Valves?
Answer: Both of these (Note: Engine Start Lever and Fire Switch)

44. What is the purpose of the Fuel Crossfeed Valve?

Answer: To correct an imbalance condition
45. If one Wing Tank Fuel Pump LOW PRESSURE light comes on, the
Master Caution and FUEL system annunciator lights_______.
Answer: Will only come on when the Recall feature is used

46. The Wing Tanks can feed fuel to either engine or the APU if
the______________.
Answer: Fuel Crossfeed Valve is OPEN
47. Where is the Manual Defueling Valve Lever for transfering fuel or
defueling on the ground?
Answer: Under the right wing

48. Are there any fuel quantity measuring sticks installed in the Center
Tank?
Answer: NO (Note: Correct answer for the 737NG is YES, there are 4)

49. The Engine Fuel Shutoff Valves are operated with power from
the_______________.
Answer: HOT Battery Bus

50. The Fuel Crossfeed Valve is electrically operated.

Answer: True

51. Can the 737 dump fuel?

Answer: No

52. What is the purpose of the Fuel Vent lines?

Answer: To prevent positive OR negative overpressure within the fuel tanks
53. If both Wing Tank Fuel Pump LOW PRESSURE lights come on, the
Master Caution and FUEL system annunciator lights______.
Answer: Will come on

54. The engines can suction feed fuel from the Center Tank.
Answer: False

55. When all fuel pumps are operating, why does the Center Tank fuel
feed first?
Answer: The Center Tank check valves open at a LOWER differential pressure
than the wing tank check valves

56. For extended ground operations, which fuel pump should be used
to provide fuel to the APU?
 Answer: Left pump in Center Tank

57. The Center Tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate if the
pump output pressure is low and ___________.Answer: The associated
pump switch is ON only

58. The Fuel Quantity Gauges are powered by Standby AC power.

Answer: False

59. Which Center tank fuel pump normally feeds the #2 engine?
Answer: Right

60. The engines can suction feed fuel from the respective Wing Tank.
Answer: True

ELECTRIC SYSTEM

How many generators are installed in the B737 ?

3 generators

The DC system is powered by the AC system by ?

Transformer Rectifiers

What is the normal voltage of the Transformer Rectifiers?

28 V

If an IDG automatically disconnects from the accessory gearbox inflight due to

a high oil temperature, it can be reset with a switch in the overhead panel ?
False

In order for the APU to provide power for the system the external power must
first be place to OFF ?
False

After the APU is started, the pilot must manually select the APU as the power
source for the system?
True

The APU can power both sides of the electrical system through the ?
Bus Tie System
With ground power connected: to place the ground power online and remove
the APU from powering the system the pilot should?
Select the ground power switch to ON

In the case of overload , the first thing to be shed is the ?

Galley power on transfer bus 2

If the APU is the sole source of electrical power in flight, a full electrical load is
initially attempted?
False

If the APU is the sole source of electrical power on ground, a full electrical load
is initially attempted?
True

DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 and DC STANDBY BUS may be powered by all three TR´s
if the ____ is closed ?
Cross Bus Tie Relay

The battery is normally powered by the ?

TR 3
With the battery switch ON – the _____ position of the Standby Power switch
allows the battery to supply the standby system inflight or on the ground.
AUTO

With the battery switch OFF – the Standby Power switch must be placed to
____ to power the Standby System from the battery.
BATT
Which of these sources provide backup power to the DC standby bus?
TR3

If either APU switch is move to ON when GRD Power is on, the GRD Power is
removed and both transfer buses are powered by the APU?
True

DC standby bus is normally powered by?

TR1and TR2

DC Power is normally provided by onboard ___ DC Transformer Rectifiers that

convert AC power to DC power.
28 Volt

The aircraft is equipped with __ 90KVA generators

Three

The BAT switch OFF position removes power from the Battery Bus and ___
when operating with normal power available and the Standby power switch in
AUTO.
Switched Hot Battery Bus

Each IDG is driven by the __ accessory drive of the engine.

N2

The normally closed Cross Bus Tie relay opens when the autoflight Approach
mode captures the ____ with the flight director or the Autopilot in use.
Glideslope

Which of these sources provide backup power to the DC standby bus?

TR3

How is the DC system powered ?

Powered from the AC system through transformer rectifiers

When and engine is started, its IDG automatically comes on line and powers
the respective side of the electrical system.
False

In case of an overload condition, the galley power on ___ is shed first.

Transfer Bus 2
Inflight or on the ground with normal conditions, the Standby power switch in
the AUTO position allows the AC Standby Bus to be normally powered by____?
Transfer Bus 1

When the APU is started it will automatically come on-line and replace the
previous source.
False

A disconnected IDG can only be reconnected on the ground, by maintenance.

True

The Battery Bus is normally powered from __?

TR3

There is never a time that two generators are allowed to power the same
transfer bus.
True
With the Bus Transfer switch in ___, the Bus tie Breakers (BTB) can
automatically power the entire electrical system from a single AC power
source.
AUTO

With the Battery Switch OFF- the Standby Power switch must be placed to__
power the standby system from the Battery.
BATT

If an overload exits after shedding of galley power, Main bus 1 and Main bus 2
are shed.
True

The aircraft battery cannot provide power to AC components.

False

FLIGHT CONTROLS

With a loss of both A and B Hydraulic Systems, the ailerons and elevators will
operate __.
Through Manual Reversion

With a loss of both the A and B Hydraulic Systems , the rudder will operate__.
With Standby Hydraulic System Pressure

The ___ spoilers will augment the roll control when the aileron control wheel is
rotated more than 10 degrees.
Flight

How many Hydraulic systems normally provide pressure to operate the

elevators?
A and B

With a loss of the A and B Hydraulic System, both ailerons should continue to
operate.
True

Does the input of Aileron Trim causes the control wheels to be displaced ?
Yes
The ailerons operate normally if the __ control wheel is jammed.
First Officer´s

Which of these switches is only to be used by Maintenance?

Spoiler Switches

Pressure from which hydraulic system (A or B ) is used by the Elevator Feel

System?
Which ever system produces the Higher Pressure

What is the maximum airspeed if the MACH TRIM system is inoperative?

.82 Mach

With a single Elevator PCU failure, or a single hydraulic system failure- does
the elevator continue to operate by use of a hydraulically powered PCU, or
does Elevator control revert manual ?
Hydraulic PCU operation remains available.

The WTIRS can move the rudder up to approximately __ 2.5 degrees in

response to control wheel movements.
2.5

The yaw damper actuator uses hydraulic pressure from the ___ hydraulic
system or the standby system.
B

With both flight control switches in the STBY RUD position and the yaw
damper switch reset to ON, the ___ hydraulic system will provide pressure for
the yaw damper.
Standby

Which trim method provides the largest range of trim?

Manual

If the stabilizer has been manually trimmed past the range of the Main Electric
Trim, can be Main Electric Trim be used to trim back within range?
Yes

The SPEED TRIM will operate with the Autopilot____.

Disengaged

There are___ flight spoiler panels and __ ground spoilers panels on each wing.
4:2

The ground Spoiler system receives hydraulic pressure from the ___ hydraulic
system.
A.

The SPEEDBRAKE ARMED light is inhibited when the Speedbrake Lever is in

the __detent.
DOWN

If the Speedbrake Lever is moved to UP while in flight, both the flight and
ground spoilers will extend.
False

The Trailing Edge Flaps are normally operated by the __ hydraulic system.
B

When using the Alternate flap switch- can be Trailing edge Flaps be extended
and retracted ?
Yes

Alternate extension from 0 to 15 takes about ?

2minutes

Landing with single engine operation or landing with alternate flap extension is
made using flaps__.
15

Normally the__ system supplies pressure to the Autopilot control valve.

B

There is no skew detection of the outboard slats( 1 and 8) or for the LE flaps.
True

The FSEU ( Flap Slat Electronic Unit) also monitors the LE devices for
asymmetry, and skew conditions on slats___.
2 through 7

With the Ground Proximity switch in the FLAP INHIBIT position GPWS
warnings/alerts are canceled or inhibited for landing with less than flaps__.
30
 PNEUMATIC

Air from the APU is directly supplied to the ___ side of the pneumatic system.
Left

Air to the wing Anti-ice valves is supplied by ___ of the pneumatic system.
The respective pneumatic duct

External compressed air is directly supplied to the ___ side of the pneumatic
system.
Right

APU Bleed air can be be supplied in flight up to a maximum altitude of ___.

17000

With the bleed switch ON and the engine not running, the associated Bleed
Valve will be __.
Closed

The Bleed Valve functions as a shut-off valve and as a Pressure Regulator.

True

The Bleed Valve will automatically close as a result of excessive temperature

or__.
Pressure

With Both Engine Bleed Switches set to ON. Both Pack Switches Set to Auto,
and the Isolation Valve switch in AUTO. What Position will the isolation valve
be in ?
Closed

What is the normal position of the isolation valves switches?

AUTO

It is normal for the Dual Bleed light to be ON during engine start.

TRUE

The Dual Bleed configuration monitors the position of the APU Bleed Valve, the
isolation valve and the __.
Engine bleed switches
What conditions will cause a Bleed trip Off?
Excessive Temperature and Excessive Pressure.

How does the pilot reset a Bleed trip off ?

Press the TRIP RESET button after cooling

When a WING BODY OVERHEAT light comes on, the associated bleed valve
will automatically close.
False

Which WING BODY OVERHEAT light monitors leaks for the APU ductwork?
LEFT

After APU start, APU bleed air may be used___.

After a one minute delay

When the APU switch is placed OFF the NG APU shuts down ___.
After a one minute delay

When using External Air to start the Engines Dual Bleed Light will NOT come
ON.
True

The isolation valve is open when the engine start is provided from external air.
This allows the air from the external source to supply directly to the right
system and through the open ___ to the left system.
Isolation Valve

For a high performance takeoff, the APU can be used to operate the ___ pack
and both engines Bleed are turned off
Left

To improve pack operations on the ground, the ___ should be used to provide
bleed air to the left pack, and the ___ should be used to provide bleed air to the
right pack.
APU; #2 Engine

When a takeoff is desired that will increase the performance by not using
engine bleed air, the APU may be used to operate the ___ pack during the
takeoff.
Left
The APU can supply bleed air to the left pneumatic manifold when the aircraft
is on the ground and up to ___ when in flight.
17000

Which of the following areas are monitored by the Wing Body Overheat
sensors?
All of these-engine strut , leading edge wing, APU bleed air duct,

The left and right pointers on the duct pressure gauges require __ power to
operate.
AC

The control panel for the Pneumatic System is located on the ___ of the
Overhead Panel.
Right Side

APU bleed air directly supplies the__ starter and can supply the__ starter if the
isolation valve is open.
#1;#2

An external Air supply can provide compressed air to the __ manifold when the
aircraft is parked.
Either

After engine start, turning OFF the____ will extinguish the DUAL BLEED light
APU Bleed Air Switch

When a Bleed Trip OFF occurs, the Master Caution lights and the ___
annunciator will illuminate.
AIR COND

It is preferred to takeoff with the__ supplying the bleed air.

Engines

The 9TH stage air is delivered at a ___ temperature and pressure than the 5 th
stage air.
Higher
If ground air is used for engine start, the DUAL BLEED light will illuminate
False

In order for the APU to supply bleed air, the APU must be running at over
95% rpm
When an engine is operating,__ stage bleed air is provided to the pneumatic
system through the respective Bleed Valve.
5th

The bleed valve is __ controlled but ___ operated.

Electrically;pneumatically

When the APU switch is placed OFF, the APU bleed valve is signaled closed
regardless of the bleed switch position, the APU generator trips and the APU
runs for ___ before shutting down.
One minute

A bleed trip off occurs to protect the pneumatic sytem from ___ conditions
Both – overpressure and over temperature

The position of the APU Bleed air switch does not affect the operation of the
Isolation Valve
True

Care must me used after takeoff to turn off the APU air before turning on the
___ Bleed switch to avoid causing the DUAL BLEED light to come on at high
power settings.
#1

Do the engines have to be running in order for the Dual BLEED light to
illuminate?
NO

In AUTO position, the isolation Valve is normally___.

Closed

To return the system to normal operation after a Bleed Trip Off,__.

Press the TRIP RESET button.

LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES

1. During gear extension, when each gear is locked down , the ………and the red
light will go out.
The respective green light will illuminate
2. If the RTO is initiated at speeds between 60-90 knots, the
AUTOBRAKING……………..,and the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will come on.
Does not initiate
3. After takeoff, If the #1engine RPM…………….,the landing gear transfer unit will
transfer from using A system hydraulic pressure to using B system hydraulic pressure
to raise the landing gear.
Falls below 56% N2
4 . The nosewhell steering receives hydraulic pressure only when the gear
are……….. .
Down
5. Normally during flight the gear are locked in the up position and all landing gear
position indicating lights are ……….. .
Out
6. Nosewheel steering pressure is normally provided by the …………. .
A System
7. The AUTOBRAKE DISARM light illuminates when the system has failed
or…………….
When the pilots has manually overridden the autobrake system.
8. What device automatically stops the spin of the nose gear wheels during gear
retraction ?
Snubbers
9. When the aircraft is towed,the…………….. should be off, or a steering lockout pin
must be installed.
A system
10. What device automatically stops the spin of the main gear wheels during gear
retraction ?
Wheel brakes
11. What is the maximum nosewheel turning angle that can be commanded by the
rudder pedals ?
7 degrees
12. What is the maximum operating speed in knots with the landing gear extended ?
320 knots
13. The hydraulic pressure for gear retraction/extension is normally
delivered……………. by the………….however,the……………..can provide the
pressure to raise the gear through the landing gear transfer unit.
A system , B system
14. Should hydraulic pressure fail,the gear remain locked down mechanically.
True
15. After the gear are retracted for a minimum of 10 seconds, the pilot will move the
landing gear lever to the………….. position to remove hydraulic pressure from the
landing gear system.
Off

16. With any or all gear not down, an aural warning horn will sound with flaps
selected to 15 –when one throttle is set to less than 10 degrees thrust lever angle ,
with the opposite throttle set to more than 30 degrees angle. Can the horn be
silenced by pressing the HORN CUTOUT button?
Yes
17. With any or all gear not down, an aural warning horn will sound with the flaps
selected to more than 15-when the throttles are in any position. Can the horn be
silenced by pressing the HORN CUTOUT button?
No
18. The RTO mode disarms automatically when the right main gear lifts off during
takeoff, however……………………. .
The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light does not illuminate.
19. Concerning the normal brake system; if the B pressure fails, the
……….automatically provides alternate brake pressure
A system
20. If due to malfunction – the landing gear lever remains locked down after takeoff
the pilot can pull the …………………to release the landing gear lever lock and then
raise the lever to up position.
Override trigger
21. The landing gear lever can be in any position for manual gear extension.
True
22. The normal brake pressure is delivered from the ……….system, while the
alternate brakes are pressurized from the ………..system.
B hydraulic, A hydraulic

23. The air/ground sensors are connected to………………….and also to the nose
gear strut. When the aircraft is inflight, these sensors activate a solenoid you unlock
the landing gear lever.
The right and the left main landing gear strut
24. Individual wheel brake control………..available when the alternate brakes are
operating.
Is not
25. Auto brakes………….available when alternate brakes are operating .
Are not
26. The Autobrake switch…………after the takeoff.
Must be manually turned off by the pilot.
27. What holds the gear in the retracted position during flight ?
The gear uplock hook
28. Accumulator pressure operates the brakes as a last resort. The brake pressure
gage in the cockpit will indicate ………when the accumulator is depleted.
1000 psi
29. During gear retraction, the red lights ……….until the respective gear position
agrees with the lever position.
Remain illuminated
30. What is the maximum speed to extend the landing gear ?
270 knots
31. When RTO mode is armed, the ………….light should illuminate for 1 to 2
seconds, while a system self test is performed.
AUTOBRAKE DISARM
32 ………………….seconds after the gear are retracted, the pilot will place the lever
in off position. All landing gear lights should remain extinguished.
10
33. RTO or landing autobrakes are disarmed by:
Positioning the autobrake select switch to off or applying manual brakes
34 . Are any cockpit indicating lights installed to monitor the position of the nose gear
doors ?
No
35. If the RTO is initiated at speeds over 90 knots, the AUTOBRAKE RTO
MODE………………..
Will apply full braking action
36. Are any cockpit indicating lights installed to monitor the position of the main gear
doors?
No, the doors are mechanically connected to the landing gear assemblies.
37. Which is the normal inflight position for the landing gear lever?
Off
38. With the landing gear retracted, the nose gear doors completely enclose the
nose gear
True
39. The two nose gear doors are………………whenever the nose gear is extended.
The doors mechanically close when the nose gear retracts.
Open
40. What is the maximum speed to retract the landing gear ?
235 knots
41. Normally during cruise flight, all gear lights should be extinguished, however, the
red lights illuminate inflight if the gear is not down and……………. .
Either throttle is retarded to idle.
42. Can the parking brake be set or released by either pilot?
Yes
43. With any or all gear not down, an aural warning horn will sound with the flaps
selected between 1 and 10-when the throttles are set to less than 10 degrees thrust
lever angle. Can the horn be silenced by pressing the HORN CUTOUT button?
Yes
44. Is hydraulic pressure needed to hold the nosegear in the retract position?
No
45. With any or all gear not down, an aural warning horn will sound with the flaps
selected to 15-when both throttles are set to less than 30 degrees. Can the horn be
silenced by pressing the HORN CUTOUT button ?
YES
46. Where is the brake pressure gage?
On the first officers instrument panel.
47. What is the maximum nosewheel turning angle that can be commanded by the
nosewheel steering wheel?
78 degrees
48. The red gear position indicating lights illuminate whenever ……………..the
landing gear lever position and the actual position of the respective gear .
There is a disagreement between

49. How many manual gear extension handles are installed?

There are 3 handles - 1 for each gear
50. Where is the control panel for the antiskid and the autobrake systems?
To the left of the landing gear lever
51. If the …………is inoperative you will lose both the antiskid and ABS.
ANTISKID/AUTOBRAKE CONTROL UNIT
52. Touchdown and locked wheel protection ……………..available with alternate
brakes
Are
53. To arm one of the landing modes, the aircraft must be…………and the antiskid
must be on.
Inflight
54. For landing, the autobrakes will apply the selected deceleration rate when main
wheel spin up is detected and ……………….. .
The thrust levers are retarded to near idle.
55. With an AUTOBRAKE mode armed, the…………………light should remain out.
AUTOBRAKE DISARM
56. The green gear position lights illuminate when…………………
Each respective gear is down and locked

NAVIGATION
FMS VNAV CLIMB
1. If the VNAV mode is engaged and you are climbing in the MAX ANGLE CLB
mode, what VNAV mode will engage when you reach the plan altitude at the
top of climb? (Hint: You have not Changed the speed on any cruise page)
 ECON CRZ
2. Execution of an ENG OUT PAGE will cause _________________________.
 VNAV to disengage
FMS VNAV CRUISE
3. You have entered Estimated Winds on a Cruise page. You go to the LEGs
page and back to the cruise page. What now appears in the Wind Line?
 Actual Winds
4. A STEP TO line is available on the cruise pages until you are within ______
NM of the Top of Descent.
  100
FMS VNAV DESCENT
5. Which Descent mode is the default mode?
 ECON PATH DES
6. If you start descent using a mode such as AFDS Level Change, what do you
have to do in order to recapture the VNAV Descent?
 Reset the Cruise Altitude
7. Does VNAV PATH DESCENT mode attempt to make the active route waypoint
altitude and airspeed crossing restrictions?
 Yes
WHEATHER RADAR
8. The Weather Radar display ON/OFF switch is located on the
 EFIS Control Panel
9. The Weather Radar TILT control switch is located
 Radar Control Panel
EGPWS
10. A Terrain Caution Alert is provided approximately_______________
prior to impact.
 40 to 60 Seconds
11. Which Alert has priority; Windshear or terrain?
 Windshear
12. What condition will activate a GPWS “Don´t Sink” Alert?
 Altitude loss after takeoff or go-around.
13. The Terrain Clearance Floor only monitors the terrain for the approach to
your intended runway as entered in your FMS route.
 False
TCAS
14. In order for the TCAS system to “see” the aircraft, the aircraft must be
within a maximum range of 30-40 NM, and maximum altitude range of ______
feet.
 9000´
15. Full TCAS operation requires an operating ________ transponder on all
associated aircraft to send and receive the signals.
 Mode S
16. A TA is provided when the TAU of the intruder is less than
____________ Seconds.
 35 to 45
17. A “corrective” RA requires _____________.
  A vertical maneuvers by the crew.

PWS (Predictive Windshear System)

18. Predictive Windshear Advisories are available from _____ to ______
AGL.
 1500´, 50´
19. Which of these systems has priority over the Predictive Windshear
Alerts?
 GPWS

20. You Have received a Predictive Windshear Alert: the windshear is

detected within ____ ahead of your aircraft if you´re on the ground; or _____
ahead if you´re in flight.
 3 NM, 1.5 NM
21. Which of the Predictive Windshear Alert will not produce an aural alert?
 Advisory

Transponder
22. The _____ mode is the normal operating mode of TCAS and is selected
on the Transponder control panel
 TA/RA
23. The STBY mode is selected on the ground to turn off the _______.
 Transponder, TCAS, and Predictive Windshear.

Flight Recorder
24. The Flight recorder is powered on the ground when________
 Electrical power is available and either engine has oil pressure
25. On the Ground, movement of the Flight recorder switch to TEST
_________.
 Bypasses the engine oil pressure switches to allow the record to operate
before engine start

IRS
26. During preflight, the pilot will move the switch to the ALIGN position to
align the IRS
 False: the selector is moved through the ALIGN position but is not set to
remain in this position.
27. If the IRS is not powered by AC power, the DC power________.
 Comes on Automatically
28. If AC power is available to the IRS but DC power is not available to the
IRS, ______
  The IRS will continue to operate normally, but the DC FAIL lights will
illuminate.
29. What is indicated by the steady white ALIGN light?
 The system is either aligning or shutting down.

IRS NORMAL OPERATIONS

30. The Aircraft must remain parked during IRS alignment
 True
31. You can view how much time remains on theirs alignment by putting the
DSPL SEL switch in the TK/GS position.
 False
32. To properly shutdown the IRS after your
flight:______________________________
 Move both Mode Selectors to the OFF position while normal AC power
remains applied to the aircraft.

IRS NON-NORMAL OPERATIONS

33. The CLR key cue lights will illuminates when the pilot inputs an invalid
entry into the ISDU.
 True
34. Heading Data will drift up to ____ degrees per hour while operating in
ATT mode.
 15

IRS FAST REALIGNMENT

35. Moving the Mode Selector from ALIGN to OFF after Alignment has
begun will_____
 Cancel the Alignment
GPS
36. Where is the GPS alert light located?
 IRS Panel

37. Where can you find the display of the GPS sensed position?
 POS REF page – 2
 INSTRUMENTS EXAM

1. The current Radio Altitude is displayed in the bottom center of the

attitude indication area when radio altitude is below ______ feet AGL
 2500´
2. Weather radar and TCAS can be displayed in the ___________ mode.
 Expanded and Center MAP
3. The MAP mode is displayed in a ______ Orientation
 Track Up
4. The minimum speed that can be displayed on the airspeed tape is ___
kts.
 30
5. With the SOURCE SELECT switch in _______, upon failure of either DEU,
automatic switching ensures that all DUs remain operable.
 AUTO
6. Vertical Speed is digitally displayed above or below the vertical speed
display when vertical speed is greater than _____ feet per minute.
 400
7. Weather Radar and TCAS cannot display in the _____ mode.
 Plan
8. Flight mode annunciations are displayed in the top three windows on the
PFD. Armed modes appear in ______ subscript format. Active modes
appear in______.
 White; green
9. If both Flight Director are on, the _____ EFIS control panel is the
reference panel.
 Left
10. A____ Landing altitude reference bar is displayed from 1000 to 500
above landing altitude.
 white
11. A____ bar is displayed from 500 feet to the landing altitude
 amber
12. The pitch scale is shown in ______ increments.
 2.5 degree
13. The PLN mode is presented ______ up
 True north
14. Below ______ feet radio altitude, with the localizer pointer in view, a
rising runway symbol comes into view to provide lateral guidance.
 2500´
15. WEATHER Radar display range is determine by the________
  ND Range selector
16. The message_________ is displayed if the amount of information sent to
the ND exceeds the display capability
 EXCESS DATA
17. If the tuned ILS disagrees, the frequency displays turns________ with an
amber line through it.
 amber
18. The slip and Skid indicator becomes filled _____ at full scale deflection
 White
19. At Bank angles of _____ degrees or more, the bank angle pointer and
slip and skid indicator turn amber.
 35°
20. If the LOWER DU switch is moved to the ENG PRI position, the engine
display moves to the Upper DU and the Lower DU blanks.
 False
21. An airspeed trend vector indicates predicted airspeed in ____ seconds
 10
22. The glideslope pointer fills in solid when it is within _____ dots from the
center of the scale.
 2½
23. Flaps speed indicator are not displayed above approximately______
feet.
 20,000´
24. The VOR and APP modes are displayed in a ________ orientation.
 Heading up

POWER PLANT

1. What is the purpose of the White stripes that are painted on the engine bullet ?
Visual indication that engine is running
2. Which spool generates most of the engine thrust ?
N1
3. During Reverse operations, which airflow is actually reversed ?
Fan airflow ( secondary )
4. The N2 operating speed is determined by the …………
EEC
5. The oil press must display ……….. when take off power is applied.
In the white range
6. What device actually deliversthe oil temperature information to DU ?
EEC
7. The oil pressure low light will blink for 10 seconds when the iol pressure is below
approximately ………….. Note : Blinking is inhibited during take off.
13 PSI
8. The ENG FAIL alert dispays if the engine N2 RPM falls below……….., with the
start lever in idle:
< 50 %

9. The N1 limit is normally calculated by the FMC. The assumed temperature is

entered by the pilot on the………page
N1 limit
10. If an EGT exceedance occurs, the color of the digital display returns to
white……………, but displays red after shutdown .
When the engine is below the exceedance value .
11. The compact display of engine instruments is available by selecting
the………..button on the multi-function display panel.
ENG
12. The ……………position of the fuel flow switch causes the fuel flow for each
engine to be displayed on the center DU.
Rate
13. When the SPAR shutoff valve and engine fuel shutoff valve are open there
indicating lights are…………
Off
14. When the fire switch for an engine is pulled the SPAR valve and engine fuel valve
Close
15. What causes the active EEC channel to switch under normal conditions?
Engine start
16. Does either the normal or alternate EEC mode provide EGT exceedance
protection?
No

17. Which EEC mode provides N1 and N2 overspeed protection?

Both normal or alternate ( soft or hard )
18. What powers the EEC prior to 15% N2 RPM ?
Transfer buses
19. Which ignition position operates both ignitors regardless of the selected ignitor ?
Flt
20. Which position is used for takeoff and landing ?
Cont
21. The start switch normally snaps to off when the N2 RPM reaches ………… during
engine start.
56%
22. The thrust reverser can operate if the air/ground sensor detects the aircraft to be
on the ground, or if either radio altimeter senses the radio altitude to be less than
………….
10 feet
23. If the reverser is commanded to stow and a ……….light remains illuminated for
more than 10 seconds, the master caution and ENG anunciator light will illuminate.
Reverser
24. An amber ENG FAIL alert appears on the EGT display if the N2 rpm falls
below……………. With the start lever in idle.
50%
25. The EEC is a ……….. computer.
2 channel
26. The …….stage bleed air will augment the 5 th stage bleed air, whenever the 5th
stage air is not sufficient , such as during low thrust settings.
9th
27. The lights for the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar shutoff valve
appear……….when the valves are closed.
Dim blue
28. A ………….X-BLD appears above the N2 display if airspeed is less than the
airspeed required for windmill start.
Magenta
29. The EEC provides EGT redline exceedance protection in the alternate mode.
False
30. The ………is the free spool, while the……is driven spool that is connected (by
gears) to the accessory section.
N1 , N2
31. The EGT display changes from white to amber if the maximum continuos EGT is
exceeded for more than …………
Five minutes
32. Soft alternate occurs when the EEC……………selects the alternate mode.
Automatically
33. When engine reverse thrust is selected, an…………REV appears above the N1
digital display box while the reverser is in transit.
Amber
34. The starter is …………operated.
Pneumatically
35. The start switch is magnetically held in the GND position (by normal AC power)
until the engine N2 rpm exceeds ………… %
56
36. The primary airflow continues to flow normally during reverse operations.
True
37. During engine start, a red radial appears on the EGT display to represent the
maximum start EGT of ……….degrees C
725
38. The N1,dial, pointer, and digital display turn ………if the max operating N1rpm is
exceeded.
Red
39. The EEC is electrically powered from the transfer buses until approximately
………N2 on engine start.
15%
40. The ……….stage bleed air is the normally bleed supply to the pneumatic system.
5th
41. The HMU functions independently of the EEC.
False
42. The ignition………position is used fot takeoff, landing,flight in precipitation, and
engine operation in icing conditions.
CONT
43. TAI displays in………….if the cowl anti-ice valve is not in the position
commanded by the cowl anti-ice switch.
Amber
44. The engine start valve is …………….controlled, and …………..operated.
Electrically, pneumatically
45. The fuel used displays is automatically reset when electrical power is removed
from the aircraft system.
True
46. The EGT display changes from white to amber if the maximum continuous EGT is
exceeded for more than …………..
Five minutes
47. If the EEC detects a rapid EGT rise or an EGT approaching the start limit, the
white box around the digital EGT display …………
Flashes

PRESSURIZATION
The maximum certified celing is
-41000 feet

The motorized overboard exhaust is normally?

-closed

The________ provide ambient static pressure, barometric corrected altitude,

non corrected altitude and calibrated airpeed to bothautomatic pressurization
controllers
-ADIRU

After a ______second delay, when the throttles are advanced to achieve N1

greather than 60% and an N2 greather than 89% the controller modulates the
main outflow valve toward close, slightly pressurizing the cabin.
-1.5

The altitude horn activates when the cabin altitude reaches _________ ft
-10.000feet

During isobaric cruise, minor airplane excursions from flight altitude may
cause the pressure differential to go as high ________ to maintain a constant
cabin altitude
-8.45 PSI

The purpose of the ________is to control the cabin pressurization.

-main outflow valve

The purpose of the _________ is to provide cooling to the EE compartment

- overboard exhaust valve.

While taxiing in, the controller drives the main outflow valve slowly to full open
position depressurizing the cabin when N1 is less than ________
-50%

On the 737, the cabin altitude can be maintained at sea level for flights up
to___________
-18500 feet

Outflow valve full range of motion takes approx _________ seconds

-20 seconds

Beginning descent, approximately 1000 feet below cruise, the cabin begins a
proportional descent to________feet below the selected LAND ALTITUDE.
-300

The differential pressure is limited by two pressure relief valves to a maximum

of_________
-9.1 PSI

INSTRUMENTS

 The pitch scale is in 2,5° increments.

 The RADIO and minimums display turn amber and flash for 3 seconds when the
aircraft descends through the selected minimum altitude.

 The digital selected heading in annunciated in the LEFT half side of the compass
rose.

 The barometric standard switch (inner button) is pressed to between a selection of

standard barometric pressure or a press value. TRUE

 For which modes can TCAS be displayed? MAP (EXP OR CTR) AND EXP VOR
AND EXP APP

 Weather Radar and TCAS cannot display in the PLAN mode.

 Are the MAP modes “heading up” or “track up” modes? TRACK UP.

 Which of the DU´s is normally blank? LOWER CENTER

 With the MAIN PANEL DU switch set to ENG PRI, the PFD , displays on the
outboard DU and the PRIMARY ENGINE INDICATIONS displays on the inboard
DU.
 The ISFD replace which instruments? SBTY HORIZON, STBY COMPASS, STBY
IAS, STBY ALTIMETER.

 The ISFD in presented in a display similar to the PFD.

 Which of the following instruments is powered by the AC stanby bus? STANBY

RMI

 Which pitot probe feeds the stby IAS? AUX

 The UTC mode derives the time and date from the GLOBAL POSITIONING
SYSTEM and is normally very accurate.

 When on sbty power, the F/O clock UTC time is unavailable. TRUE

 Which pitot probe provides input to the standby airspeed indicator? AUX PITOT.

 Which signals are provided to the ADIRU´s by Air Data Modules? CAPTAIN´S
AND FO STATIC PITOT.

APU

 What is the maximum APU operating altitude? FL410

 When over 17000’ the APU can be used to operate ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
ONLY; APU BLEED AIR CANNOT BE USED.

 Which of the following will cause and automatic APU shutdown. LOW OIL
PRESSURE.

 The APU normally receives fuel from the LEFT side of the fuel system.

 The APU can receive fuel from the right side of the fuel system if the FUEL
CROOSFEED VALVE is open.

 The APU can suction feed from TANK#1.

 If the APU Control switch is moved to the OFF position, the APU will SHUTDOWN
AFTER A 60 SECOND DELAY.

 Will the APU continue to operate when the LOW OIL PRESS light comes on? NO.
 Will the APU continue to operate when the FAULT light comes on? NO.

 Will the APU continue to operate when the blue MAINT light comes on? YES.

 The APU Bleed Air switch should be OFF prior to APU start.

 When Electrical loads and bleed load on the APU Generator are too high during
engine start ELECTRICAL LOAD IS SHED PRIOR TO REDUCING BLEED AIR
EXTRACTION.

 When Electrical loads and bleed load on the APU Generator are too high at times
other than during engine start THE COMPRESSOR VARIABLE GUIDE VANES
ADJUST TO REDUCE BLEED EXTRACTION AND MAINTAIN ELECTRICAL
SUPPLY.
 Selecting the battery switch to OFF WILL SHUTDOWN THE APU.

 When you are ready to removed APU power from the aircraft BOTH APU
GENERATOR SWITCHES MUST BE MOVED TO OFF.

 The APU start cycle may take up to 120 seconds.

 With the engine generators not online, moving one APU Generator switch to ON,
will POWER BOTH TRANSFER BUSES.

 What light comes on if the APU start is interrupted? OVERSPEED

 How long after APU shutdown should the battery switch remain on to allow time for
the inlet door to close? 20 SECONDS

 If the battery switch is turned off on the ground, the APU will SHUTDOWN

 APU bleed air should be turned off ONE minute before APU shutdown.

 APU bleed air should not be turned on until ONE minute after APU start.

 The APU start cycle can take up to 120 seconds.

 Successful APU start are not assured above FL250.

 Which electrical system can be powered by the APU when the aircraft is on the
ground? BOTH LEFT AND RIGHT.
 For extended operations, APU fuel may be provided by the LEFT pump in the
Center Tank.

 After the APU control switch is moved to START, approximately how long (in
seconds) does it take for the inlet door to open? 20

 What is indicated if the OVERSPEED light is on after APU shutdown. INDICATED

THAT THE OVERSPEED CIRCUIT DETECTION IS FAULTY

 The APU bleed air valve also functions as a LOAD CONTROL VALVE to give
priority to he delivery of electrical power.

 What is the maximum operating FL altitude of the APU. FL410

 Does the battery charger continue to charge the aircraft battery during APU start.
NO.

 Can be fuel delivered to the APU from tank 2 or from the right pump in the Center
Tank? YES – IF THE FUEL CROSSFEED VALVE IS OPEN.

 Fuel is normally supplied to the APU from TANK 1

 Does moving the APU control switch to OFF cause an immediate shutdown? NO

 In order for the APU to power the aircraft on the ground, is it necessary for the pilot
to place both APU generator switches to ON? YES

 How is APU GENERATOR power removed from a system? MOVING THE APU
GENERATOR SWITCH TO OFF – OR APPLYING ANOTHER POWER
SOURDCE TO THE ELECTRICAL SYSTEM.

 How many packs can be powered by the APU in the ground? TWO.

 How many packs can be powered by the APU during takeoff? ONE.

 What is the minimum battery voltage for APU start? 23

 Which APU lights are inhibited when the APU control switch is in the OFF
position? ALL OF THESE.

 Air that enters through the inlet door flows to: THE COMPRESSOR AND TO
COOLING AIRFLOW FOR ACCESSORIES.
 The APU GENERATOR OFF BUS light illuminates: WHEN THE APU IS
RUNNING AND IT’S GENERATOR IS NOT POWERING ANY BUSSES.

 If the battery switch is turned OFF inflight, the APU will SHUTDOWN.

 How is APU fuel heated to prevent icing? AUTOMATICALLY BY USE OF THE

BLEED AIR.

 What is the maximum altitude for use of APU bleed air (in feet)? 17000

 Will the APU start if there are no operating fuel boost pumps? YES – IT WILL
SUCTION FROM TANK 1.

ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION

 Which wing slats are heated on the B737-700 when the Wing Anti-Ice is ON?
THREE INBOARD LEADING EDGE SLATS

 Which part of the engine is heated when the engine Anti-Ice is ON. COWL

 The COWL ANTI-ICE light on the B737-700 indicated that PRESSURE is too high.

 If the COWL VALVE OPEN LIGHT is illuminated bright when the associated
Engine Anti-ice switch is ON, the cowl valve is CLOSED.

 The Wing Anti-ice Control Valves require air pressure to operate. FALSE

 If a Wing Anti-ice VALVE OPEN light is illuminated bright, the associated valve is
NOT IN the commanded position.

 If bleed air is supplied to only one side of the Pneumatic system, with Wing Anti-ice
ON, both Wings will be anti-ice regardless of the position of the Pneumatic system
Isolation Valve. FALSE.

 Is the window heat for all windows powered by the same electrical bus? NO.

 The PWR TEST will causes all GREEN ON lights to come on.

 Which windows are not electrically heated? #3

 The probe/pitot heat must be turned on: PRIOR TO TAKEOFF.

 If any Probe/pitot heat light illuminates, the master caution and ANTI-ICE
annunciator light will come on.

 In the event of failure of Window Heat, the Non-normal procedure directs the crew
to pull the WINDSHIELD AIR knob to vent conditioned air to the inside of the
window for defogging.

 If the pitot wants Wing Anti-Ice to operate in flight, the Wing ANTI-ICE switch
automatically default to ON if the WING ANTI-ICE had been activated on the
ground before takeoff. FALSE

 Engine Anti-Ice is provided by engine bleed air that is ducted UPSTREAM of the
engine bleed valve.

 Wing Anti-ice may be used in the air as well as on the ground. TRUE

 The INT position on the Windshield wiper controller provides a SEVEN second
intermittent operation.

 The L2 and R2 windows are BESIDE EACH PILOT

 Don’t operate Wing Anti-ice os Engine Anti-ice when the OAT (ground) / TAT
(airborne) is above 10 degrees C / 50 degrees F.

 Wing Anti-ice will operate with bleed air from only one engine. TRUE

 The COWL ANTI-ICE VALVE is ELECTRICALLY controlled (normal DC power)

and is PNEUMATICALLY operated.

 Wing Anti-ice is provided by use of bleed air to THREE of the leading edge inboard
slats.
 The green FWD WINDOW ON light will extinguish if the windows temperature
reaches the normal operating temperature of 100 degrees F.

 Which cockpit windows are not electrically heated? L3 and R3

 If Window Heat will not operated – limit airspeed to 250 kts. Below 10.000 feet.

 Engine Ignition must be selected to CON prior to and during engine anti-ice
operation.
 Window heat must be turned on at least 10 minutes before takeoff.

 If a Temperature Controller determines the temperature of a Window exceeds 145

degrees F, the current will stop flowing and the OVERHEAT light will come on and
the ON light will go out.

 The control panel for the engine Anti-ice system is below the PITOT/STATIC
HEAT CONTROL PANEL.

 Pitot Heat must be on prior to takeoff. TRUE

 A failure of the Wing Valve is identify by a BRIGHT BLUE L or R VALVE OPEN

light, which indicated the associated valve position disagrees with the selected
switch position.

 Engine Anti-ice may be used in the air but is not used on the ground. FALSE

 If one side if the pneumatic system is not provided with bleed air because of an
engine failure or bleed trip off. THE ISOLATION VALVE SHOULD BE OPEN

 The COWL VALVE OPEN light illuminates BRIGHT when the valve is in transit.