Chất Lượng

CHƯƠNG 1: Differing Perspectives on Quality
23. Experience with cross-functional teams has been difficult for many firms due to
________.
A) poor communication skills
B) lack of quality training
C) increasing redundancy
D) differing corporate goals
E) increasing inflexibility
24. ________ include all of those activities involving interaction with suppliers.
A) Inbound logistics
B) Core process activities
C) Outbound logistics
D) Upstream activities
E) Downstream activities
25. Which of the following is an upstream activity in supply chain management?
A) value stream mapping
B) Six Sigma
C) customer support
D) international sourcing
E) shipping and logistics
26. ________ include traditional process improvement as well as value stream mapping.
A) Core process activities
B) Upstream activities
C) Inbound logistics
D) Downstream activities
E) Outbound logistics
27. Which of the following is a core process activity in supply chain management?
A) shipping and logistics
B) acceptance sampling
C) value stream mapping (lập bản đồ chuỗi giã trị)
D) supplier qualification
E) customer support
28. ________ involves analyzing processes from a systems perspective such that upstream
and downstream effects of core process changes can be evaluated.
A) Six Sigma
B) Acceptance sampling
C) Concurrent engineering
D) International sourcing
E) Value stream mapping
29. ________ include customer support and focusing on delivery reliability.
A) Inbound logistics
B) Downstream activities
C) Core process activities
D) Upstream activities
E) Outbound logistics
30. Which of the following is a downstream activity in supply chain management?
A) supplier qualification
B) supplier development
C) acceptance sampling
D) international sourcing
E) customer support
31. From an engineering perspective, engineers are primarily interested in ________.
A) applying mathematical problem-solving skills and models to the problems of

business and industry
B) taking a strategic management approach to solving problems
C) focusing on the perceived quality of products and services
D) ordering new machinery and updating the current machinery to the latest technology
E) training the workforce to develop and utilize its full potential to meet the company's
objectives
32. Two of the major emphasis in engineering are the areas of ________.
A) manufacturing excellence and long-term planning
B) product design and process design
C) employee empowerment and workforce training
D) supplier development and consumer growth
E) marketing and sales
33. All the activities associated with developing a product from concept development to
final design and implementation is known as ________.
A) process design engineering
B) life testing
C) simultaneous engineering
D) product design engineering
E) concurrent design engineering
34. Which step in the design life cycle is typically an iterative process? (lặp đi lắp lại)
A) idea generation
B) prototype development (Phát triển nguyên mẫu)
C) preliminary design
D) implementation
E) product design and evaluation
35. ________ engineering has resulted in the simultaneous performance (đồng thời) of
product and process design activities.
A) Stepwise
B) Progressive
C) Incremental
D) Concurrent (Đồng thời)
E) Discrete
36. The facet of reliability engineering that determines whether a product will fail under
controlled conditions during a specified life is referred to as ________.
A) life testing (vòng đời cuộc sống)
B) reengineering
C) concurrent prototyping
D) value stream mapping
E) statistical process control
37. If a component has a relatively high probability of failure(hỏng) that will affect the
overall function of a product,then ________ is applied so that a backup system can take
over(thay thế) for the failed primary system.
A) redundancy (dư thừa)
B) life testing
C) concurrent engineering
D) statistical process control
E) value stream mapping
38. Statistical process control is associated with which of the following perspectives of
quality?
A) operations
B) marketing
C) human resources
D) engineering
E) strategic management
39. ________ is an engineering-related contribution to quality management that is concerned

with monitoring process capability and process stability.
A) Reengineering
B) Statistical process control (kiểm soát quá trình thống kê)
C) Redundancy testing
D) Concurrent engineering
E) Life testing
40. During statistical process control, if a process is________ it will consistently produce
products that meet specification.
A) redundant
B) unstable
C) capable (có khả năng)
D) stable
E) concurrent
41. During statistical process control, if a process is________ it will only exhibit random
or common cause variation instead of nonrandom special cause variation.
A) redundant
B) unstable
C) capable
D) stable (ổn định)
E) concurrent
42. The ________ perspective on quality is technically oriented, focusing on statistics and
technical specification that are needed to produce high-quality products.
A) marketing
B) operations
C) engineering
D) strategic management
E) financial
43. The operations management view of quality is rooted (bắt nguồn) in the ________
approach.
A) strategic management
B) marketing
C) finance
D) engineering (kỹ thuật )
E) human resource
44. ________ was the first functional field of management to adopt quality as its own.
A) Engineering
B) Marketing
C) Human resources
D) Finance
E) Operations
45. The systems view is associated with which of the following perspectives of quality?
A) operations
B) engineering
C) marketing
E) financial
46. ________ refers to the planning processes (quy trình lập kế hoạch) used by an
organization to achieve a set of long-term goals.
A) SPC
B) Concurrent engineering
C) Product design engineering
D) Value stream mapping
E) Strategy
47. Which of the following components (các thành phẩn) is not included in the generic
strategic planning process (quy trình họat định chiến lược chung)?
A) firm mission, vision, and goals
B) business-level strategy
C) external analysis
D) empowerment (Trao quyền)
E) internal analysis
48. The ultimate goal of strategic quality planning is to help an organization achieve
________.
A) maximum profitability
B) sustainable competitive advantage (lợi thế cạnh tranh bền vững)
C) an increase in market share
D) cost minimization
E) growth in revenues
49. The marketing function trend that concentrates on satisfying and delivering value
to the customer is known as ________. (thỏa mãn và mang lại giá trị cho khách hàng)
A) common cause variation
B) relationship management (Quản trị quan hệ)
C) customer-centric approach
D) special cause variation
E) change management
50. The marketer focuses on the ________ dimension of a products and services.
A) perceived quality (chất lượng cảm nhận)
B) durability
C) conformance
D) reliability
E) performance
51. The primary marketing tools for influencing customer perceptions of quality are
________.
A) features and aesthetics
B) price and advertising
C) value and conformance
D) durability and reliability
E) manufacturing integrity and serviceability
52. The marketing system involves the interactions (tương tác) between ________.
A) the producing organization, industry trade groups,and the final consumer
B) the raw material supplier, the producing organization, and the intermediary
C) the producing organization, the intermediary, and the final consumer
D) the raw material supplier, the producing organization, and the final consumer
E) the producing organization, the intermediary, and the regulatory agency
53. The role of marketing in design has been to bring the voice of the ________ into the
design process.
A) supplier
B) customer
C) intermediary
D) retailer
E) producer
54. The first theoretical attempt to link quality improvement to financial results was the
________.
A) Juran cost-benefit analysis
B) Garvin quality matrix
C) Deming value chain (chuỗi giá trị)
D) 360-degree evaluation
E) law of diminishing marginal returns
55. In his value chain, Deming linked quality improvements to ________.
A) improved product features and improved durability
B) improved organizational performance and reduction in costs
C) increase in efficiency and improved product features
D) improvements in reliability and reduction in costs
E) reduction in defects and improved organizational performance
56. ________ referred to the communication problem when he stated that "the language
of management is money."
A) Deming
B) Shewhart
C) Juran
D) Garvin
E) Crosby
57. According to the ________, there is a point at which investment in quality

improvement will become uneconomical.
A) Deming value chain
B) contingency theory
C) Juran cost-benefit analysis
D) Garvin quality matrix

E) law of diminishing marginal returns
58. Which of the following best defines employee empowerment?
A) It involves moving decision making to the highest level in the organization.
B) It involves moving decision making to middle-management levels in the organization.
C) It involves moving decision making upwards in the chain of command.
D) It involves moving decision making to the lowest level in the organization.
(Nó liên quan đến việc chuyển ra quyết định xuống cấp thấp nhất tổ chức)
E) It involves moving decision making outside the borders of the organization.
59. ________ involves collecting detailed information about a particular job.
A) Job forecast
B) Job specification
C) Job selection
D) Job sharing
E) Job analysis
60. ________ is a performance evaluation process in which an employee's peers,

supervisors, and subordinates are involved in evaluating the worker's peformance.
A) Circular evaluation
B) Upward-downward evaluation
C) 360-degree evaluation
D) Broad spectrum evaluation
E) Inward-outward evaluation
62. The ________ process is based on the scientific method, which includes the phases of
analysis, relation, and generalization.
A) quality execution
B) quality implementation
C) quality assurance
D) quality management
E) quality control
Quality Control
In the analysis phase, a process is broken into its fundamental pieces.
Relation involves understanding the relationships between the parts.
generalization involves perceiving how interrelationships apply to the larger phenomenon of

quality being studied
• Monitoring process capability and stability
• Measuring process performance
• Reducing process variability
• Optimizing processes to nominal measures
• Performing acceptance sampling
• Developing and maintaining control charts
Quality assurance refers to activities associated with guaranteeing the quality of a product or
service. Often, these activities are design-related. This view of quality states that quality
control is reactive rather than proactive by detecting quality problems after they occur. Given
this, the best way to ensure quality is in the design of products, services, and processes.
Quality assurance activities include tasks such as
• Failure mode and effects analysis
• Concurrent engineering
• Experimental design
• Process improvement
• Design team formation and management
• Off-line experimentation
• Reliability/durability product testing
68. Which of the following activities is related to quality assurance?
A) providing leadership and support
B) reducing process variability
C) facilitating organizational communication

D) performing acceptance sampling
E) experimental design
The management processes that overarch and tie together the control and assurance
activities make up quality management. See Quality Highlight 1-2 for an example of a
company with effective quality management. The integrative view of quality management
supports the idea that quality is the responsibility of all management, not just quality
managers. For this reason, a number of managers, supervisors, and employees are involved in
quality management activities such as
• Planning for quality improvement
• Creating a quality organizational culture
• Providing leadership and support
• Providing training and retraining
• Designing an organizational system that reinforces quality ideals
• Providing employee recognition
• Facilitating organizational communication
70. Which of the following activities is related to quality management?
A) measuring process performance
B) providing employee recognition
C) off-line experimentation
D) design team formation and management
E) developing and maintaining control charts
71. SQI is an acronym for ________.
A) Sequential Quality Initiative
B) Service Quality Indicator
C) Structured Query Informatics
D) Service Quotient Intel
E) Structured Quality Intern
72. A ________ perspective on quality involves a subjective assessment (đánh giá chủ
quan) of the efficacy of every step on thebprocess for the customer.
A) cultural
B) value-added
C) operations
E) financial
73. ________ theory presupposes that there is no theorybor method for operating a
business that can be applied in all instances.
A) Value-added
B) Collaborative
C) Cost-benefit
D) Contingency
E) Stochastic (ngẫu nhiên)
CHƯƠNG 2: Quality Theory

The what of the theory involves which variables or factors are included in the model
The how of a theoretical model involves the nature, direction, and extent of the
relationship among the variables. For example, in our simple quality/morale model, we
posited that quality improvement positively influences worker morale. This is represented by
the plus sign in the model.
The why of the theory is the theoretical glue that holds the model together. For example,
what are the psychological dynamics that could cause quality improvement to increase
worker morale? Suppose we theorize that organizations using quality improvement are more
organic in nature, stressing worker empowerment. Suppose further that worker empowerment
lifts worker self-esteem by stressing increased decision making and control over his or her
own job. Finally, we propose that this increase in self-esteem results in improved worker
morale.
The who-where-when aspects place contextual bounds on the theory. For example,
we might add a condition to our model stating that morale is improved only in companies that
receive strong leadership by top management to implement quality improvement.
7. A theory that is generated by observation and description is said to have been developed
by the process of ________.
A) deduction
B) abstraction
C) simulation
D) induction
E) supposition
8. Researchers use ________ to propose a model based on prior research and design an
experiment to test the theoretical model.
A) supposition
B) deduction
C) induction
D) simulation
E) abstraction
Ishikawa’s 11 Points
1. Quality begins with education and ends
7. Put quality fi rst and set your with education. sights on long-term objectives.
2. The fi rst step in quality is to know the
8. Marketing is the entrance requirements of the customer. and exit of quality.
3. The ideal state of quality control is
9. Top management must not when inspection is no longer necessary. show anger when facts
are
4. Remove the root causes, not the presented to subordinates. symptoms.
10. Ninety-fi ve percent of the problems
5. Quality control is the responsibility of in a company can be solved by all workers and all
divisions. the seven tools of quality control.
6. Do not confuse the means with the
11. Data without dispersion objectives. information are false data.
10. Deming believed that poor quality resulted from________.
A) poor management of the system for continual improvement

B) poor human resource management
C) consumer complacency
D) a lack of commitment on the part of management
E) poor engineering and design
11. Which of the following points for management devised by Deming involves the
management committing resources to ensure that the quality job is completed?
A) constantly improve the system
B) eliminate work standards
C) improve leadership
D) adopt a new philosophy
E) create constancy of purpose (tạo sự nhất quán của mục đích)
12. ________ means that all workers are responsible for their own work and perform needed
inspections at each stage of the process to maintain process control.
A) Quality at the source (chất lượng tại nguồn)
B) In-process management
C) Constancy of purpose
D) Parallel processing
E) Just-in-time approach
13. ________ minimizes the number of suppliers used resulting in decreased variability.
A) Parallel processing
B) Just-in-time purchasing
C) Management by objective
D) In-process management
E) Constancy of purpose
14. Which of the following points for management devised by Deming encourages parallel
processing infocused teams?
A) constantly improve the system
B) create constancy of purpose
C) institute education and self-improvement
D) adopt a new philosophy
E) break down barriers between departments
15. ________ refers to a process of setting annual goals, typically during a performance
appraisal, that are binding on the employee.
A) Just-in-time approach
B) Management by objective
C) In-process management
D) Parallel processing
E) Constancy of purpose
16. What are the three aspects of Juran's trilogy?
A) planning, control, and improvement
B) cost, quality, and customer satisfaction
C) labor, management, and system
D) organizing, management, and control
E) leadership, cost, and quality
17. According to Juran, ________ is a process-related activity that ensures processes are
stable and provides a relatively consistent outcome.
A) control
B) organizing
C) planning
D) improvement
E) scheduling
18. ________ improvement implies that the process has been studied and that some major
improvement has resulted in large, nonrandom improvement to the process.
A) Ongoing
B) Progressive
C) Successive
D) Continuous
E) Breakthrough
19. According to Juran, the language of management is________.
A) labor
B) quality
C) money
D) performance
E) improvement
20. The driving force of the Century of Productivity was the movement known as ________.
A) total quality management
B) statistical process control
C) human resource management
D) scientific management
E) behavioral modification
21. The theory of scientific management was proposed by________.
A) Frederick W. Taylor
B) Joseph M. Juran
C) Philip Crosby
D) W. Edwards Deming
E) Kaoru Ishikawa
22. ________ is also called the 80/20 rule.
A) Ishikawa's quality philosophy
B) Pareto's law
C) Juran trilogy
D) Taguchi method
E) Deming's points for management
23. ________ was responsible for the development and dissemination of the basic seven tools
of quality.
A) Kaoru Ishikawa
B) Philip Crosby
C) Genichi Taguchi
D) Armand Feigenbaum
E) Joseph M. Juran
24. ________ is credited with democratizing statistics.
A) Armand Feigenbaum
B) Joseph M. Juran
C) Genichi Taguchi
D) Philip Crosby
E) Kaoru Ishikawa
25. What is the major theoretical contribution of Kaoru Ishikawa?
A) the concept of benchmarking
B) his assertion that the entire organization should be involved in improving quality
C) the zero-defects approach to quality improvement
D) his emphasis on total involvement of the operating employees in improving quality
E) the quality loss function and the concept of robust

design
26. What is the primary contribution of Armand Feigen baum?
E) the quality loss function and the concept of robust design
27. What are the three steps proposed by Feigenbaum to improve quality?
A) quality inspection, quality accountability, and quality control
B) quality leadership, quality technology, and organizational commitment
C) employee empowerment, total quality management, and statistical process control
D) self-directed work teams, employee empowerment,and total quality management
E) quality leadership, quality management, and totalquality control
28. ________ proposed "The 19 steps of Total Quality Control."
A) Philip Crosby
B) W. Edwards Deming
C) Joseph M. Juran
D) Genichi Taguchi
E) Armand Feigenbaum
29. What is the primary contribution of Philip Crosby?

30. What is the primary contribution of Genichi Taguchi?
31. Quality loss function and robust design are concepts included in ________.
A) Ishikawa's quality philosophy
B) the Taguchi method
C) Deming's 14 points for management
D) the Juran trilogy
E) Pareto's law
32. ________ refers to a reference point for determining the quality level of a product or
service.
A) Quality of conformance
B) Hothouse quality
C) Quality loss function
D) Specific quality
E) Ideal quality
33. The Taguchi concept of ________ states that products and services should be designed so
that they are inherently defect-free and of high quality.
A) homoscedasticity
B) robust design
C) quality loss function
D) ideal quality
E) design conformance
34. ________ is the principle pioneer of benchmarking.
A) Robert C. Camp
B) Tom Peters
C) Michael Hammer
D) James Champy
E) Stephen R. Covey
35. What is the primary contribution of Robert C. Camp?
36. Michael Hammer and James Champy are most closely identified with ________,
A) statistical process control
B) reengineering
C) total quality management
D) benchmarking
E) Six Sigma quality
37. Which of the following variables is at the core of quality management?
A) quality breakthrough
B) quality assurance
C) strategic planning
D) information analysis
E) team approach
38. Quality experts agree that quality can be assured only during the ________ phase.
A) production
B) marketing
C) analysis
D) testing
E) design
39. Which of the following factors is not addressed by the reengineering approach to quality
improvement?
A) team approach
B) information analysis
D) customer focus
E) quality assurance
CHƯƠNG 3: Supply Chain

1. ________ allows foreign firms to sell in restricted markets while using the design of the
original designer.
A) Exporting
B) Franchising
C) Licensing
D) Importing
E) Partnering
2. By changing their ________ environment, firms locate themselves near to or far away
from natural re
sources.
A) economic
B) task
C) physical
D) global
E) social
3. The portion of a firm's environment that has to do with the operating structure that the firm
encounters when globalizing is called the ________ environment.
A) global
B) physical
C) social
D) task
E) economic
4. The ________ environment facing globalizing corporations refers to cultural factors such
as language,business customs, customer preferences, and patterns of communication.
A) task
B) social
C) physical
D) global
E) economic
5. ________ produce their products and ship them internationally.
A) Exporters
B) Licensors
C) Franchises
D) Importers
E) Retailers
6. The model for the Baldrige consists of ________ interrelated categories that compose the
organizational system for performance.
A) four
B) five
C) six
D) seven
E) eight
7. The basis of the Baldrige model is ________.
A) operations management
B) information and analysis
C) accounting and finance
D) statistical process control
E) Six Sigma
8. Which of the following categories is not a criterion for the Malcolm Baldrige Award?
A) Internet competencies
B) operations focus
D) business results
E) leadership
9. Which of the following Baldrige criteria is used to evaluate the extent to which top
management is personally involved in creating and reinforcing goals, values,directions, and
customer involvement?
A) workforce focus
B) leadership
D) operations focus
E) business results
10. Which of the following Baldrige criteria requires the applicant to outline what the firm is
doing to fulfill its responsibility as a corporate citizen?
A) business results
B) operations focus
D) leadership
E) customer focus
11. Which of the following Baldrige criteria focuses on how a firm assesses the relative
importance of product or service features?
A) operations focus
B) business results
C) customer focus
D) leadership
E) strategic planning
12. Which of the following Baldrige criteria involves developing an internal environment
conducive to full participation and personal growth, including human resources
development?
A) workforce focus
B) strategic planning
C) measurement, analysis, and knowledge management
D) customer focus
E) leadership
13. Which of the following Baldrige criteria examines key aspects such as customer focus in
design, worksystem, design for services and products, support processes, and processes
relating to partners?
A)workforce focus
B) strategic planning
C) measurement, analysis, and knowledge manage
ment
D) business results
E) operations focus
14. What is the first step for a firm applying for theBaldrige award?
A) a review of financial statements
B) quality assessment
C) a site-visit by examiners
D) eligibility determination
E) consensus review
15. What is the main purpose of a Baldrige site visit?
A) to introduce the selection committee to the top management team of the contending firm
B) to formally congratulate an award winner
C) to verify and clarify those portions of the Baldrige application having the greatest
impact on the judges'scores
D) to discuss the outcome of the evaluation process
E) to collect additional information on each of the seven evaluation criteria
16. What is the major reason for the decrease in the number of applicants for the Malcolm
Baldrige Award?
A) decline in the prestige associated with the award
B) high application fee
C) difficulty associated with winning the award
D) lack of legitimacy of the award criteria
E) low focus on quality
17. In the ________ approach, the scores required to win the state awards are lower than
those for the national awards.
A) multilevel
B) Baldrige quality
C) Baldrige-lite
D) full-Baldrige
E) consensus
18. The ________ approach uses the Baldrige criteria but with a simplified process or
application.
A) Baldrige quality
B) consensus
C) full-Baldrige
D) Baldrige-lite
E) multilevel
19. In the multilevel approach, the top level includes the ________ approach.
A) consensus
B) full-Baldrige
C) strategic
D) Baldrige quality
E) Baldrige-lite
20. In the multilevel approach, the second level includes the ________ approach.
A) consensus
B) full-Baldrige
C) strategic
D) Baldrige quality
E) Baldrige-lite
21. The ________ for quality was established in 1951 by the Japanese Union of Scientists
and Engineers.
A) Deming Prize
B) Juran Prize
C) Ishikawa Prize
D) Taguchi Prize
E) Baldrige Prize
22. The Deming Prize is awarded to individuals and groups who have contributed to the field
of ________.
A) lean manufacturing
B) quality control
C) sales management
D) just-in-time production
E) strategic planning
23. Which of the following is a category of the Baldrige Award?
A) policy development
B) information analysis
C) workforce focus
D) partnerships and resources
E) management system
24. Which of the following is a category of the Deming Prize?
A) information analysis
B) workforce focus
E) customer results
25. Which of the following is a category of the European Quality Award?
A) policy deployment
B) operations focus
C) information analysis
E) human resources development
26. The first view of lean manufacturing is a philosophical view of ________.
A) strategic planning
B) waste reduction
C) inventory control
D) product development
E) reengineering
27. A productive system whose focus is on optimizing processes through the philosophy of
continual improvement is called ________.
A) lean manufacturing
B) reengineering
C) benchmarking
D) just-in-time production
E) statistical process control
28. ________ was fundamental in helping Toyota reduce waste.
A) Genichi Taguchi
B) Kaoru Ishikawa
C) Shigeo Shingo
E) Philip Crosby
29. Which of the following is not one of Shingo's seven wastes?
A) waste of stocks
B) waste of funds
C) waste of motion
D) waste of transportation
E) waste of waiting
30. With ________ inspection, all work is inspected at each stage of the manufacturing
process, and the workers inspect their own work.
A) in-process
B) multi-level
C) dynamic
D) continuous
E) line-stop
31. The N = 2 technique is an alternative to ________.
A) in-process inspection
B) acceptance sampling
C) statistical process control
D) benchmarking
E) quality control
32. ________ means that all departments are involved in quality.
A) Vertical deployment
B) Cross-functional deployment
C) Horizontal deployment
D) Multi-level deployment
E) Parallel deployment
33. ________ means that all levels of management and workers are actively involved in
quality.
A) Vertical deployment
B) Cross-functional deployment
C) Horizontal deployment
D) Multi-level deployment
E) Parallel deployment
34. With respect to the five S's, organizing by getting rid a of the unnecessary files, forms,
and other materials is called ________.
A) seiri
B) seiton
C) seiso
D) seiketsu
E) shetsuke
35. With respect to the five S's, neatness that is achieved by straightening offices and work
areas is called ________.
A) seiri
B) seiton
C) seiso
D) seiketsu
E) shetsuke
36. With respect to the five S's, cleaning plants and equipment to eliminate dirtiness that can
hide or obscure problems is called ________.
A) seiri
B) seiton
C) seiso
D) seiketsu
E) shetsuke
37. With respect to the five S's, standardizing locations for tools, files, equipment, and all
other materials is called ________.
A) seiri
B) seiton
C) seiso
D) seiketsu
E) shetsuke
38. With respect to the five S's, discipline in maintaining the prior four S's is called________.
A) seiri
B) seiton
C) seiso
D) seiketsu
E) shetsuke
39. ________ are natural work teams made up of workers who are empowered to improve
work processes and are used by Japanese companies to involve employees in improving
processes and process capability.
A) Empowerment task forces
B) Cross-functional teams
C) Horizontal task forces
D) Vertical task forces
E) Quality circles
40. The idea behind ________ is that the worst condition a machine should ever be in is on
the day you purchase the machine.
A) quality circles
B) vertical deployment
C) line-stop authority
D) horizontal deployment
E) preventive maintenance
41. ________ is the European standard for quality that has been expanded worldwide.
A) ISO 9000:2005
B) ISO 9000:2008
C) ISO 9001:2000
D) ISO 9004:2009
E) ISO 14001:2004
42. The focus of ISO 9000:2008 is to ________.
A) encourage the adoption of total quality management in Europe
B) reward European firms that embrace quality management techniques
C) provide a standardized format for firms to document their quality systems in order
to facilitate trade
D) teach European firms the importance of quality management
E) provide a framework for organizational improvement and change
43. What is the first step in the registration process for ISO 9000:2008?
A) inquiry
B) client contract
C) phase 1 audit
D) certification audit
E) process audit
CHƯƠNG 4: Strategic Quality Planning

1. Which of the following is not an example of a strategic content variable?
A) time
B) leadership
C) quality costs
D) generic strategies
E) product development
2. ________ involves a power-sharing relationship between two or more individuals
where the power is distributed unevenly.
A) Leading
B) Empowerment
C) Planning
D) Organizing
E) Controlling
3. ________ goals are those goals that pertain to achieving a higher end that benefits
not just the individual but the group.
A) Substantive
B) Deterministic
C) Congruent
D) Superordinate
E) Hierarchical
4. ________ is derived from a leader's possession of special knowledge.
A) Power of expertise
B) Reward power
C) Coercive power
D) Referent power
E) Legitimate power
5. If a leader grants raises or promotions to subordinates in return for some desirable
action, the leader has ________.
A) coercive power
B) legitimate power
C) reward power
D) power of expertise
E) referent power
6. If the leader has power to punish the follower for not following rules or guidelines,
the leader has ________.
A) power of expertise
B) referent power
C) legitimate power
D) coercive power
E) reward power
7. ________ often results in unintended responses, and causes the follower to rebel
and attempt to even the power relationship.
A) Reward power
B) Coercive power
C) Legitimate power
D) Power of expertise
E) Referent power
8. If a leader is charismatic or charming and is fol lowed because he or she is liked,
then the leader has ________.
A) referent power
B) coercive power
C) power of expertise
D) legitimate power
E) reward power
9. A case of ________ power is the mentor who is amired by his or her protégés who
want to be like the mentor.
A) reward
B) referent
C) legitimate
D) coercive
E) power of expertise
10.________ is derived from the positions that different people hold within an
organization.
A) Power of expertise
B) Coercive power
C) Referent power
D) Reward power
E) Legitimate power
11. Which of the following is a knowledge skill exhibited by a leader?
A) assertiveness
B) image building
C) identifying opportunities
D) evaluation skills
E) risk taking
12. Which of the following is a communication skill exhibited by a leader?
A) time management
B) assessing the climate
C) ethics
D) evaluation skills
E) conflict management
13. Which of the following is a planning skill exhibited by a leader?
A) developing competence
B) structuring
C) risk taking
D) identifying opportunities
E) assertiveness
14. Which of the following is a vision skill exhibited by a leader?
A) decision making
B) identifying opportunities
C) risk taking
D) conflict management
E) time management
15. ________ means that leaders provide funding, slacktime, and resources for quality
improvement efforts to be successful.
A) Cost evaluation
B) Task management
C) Time management
D) Commitment to quality
E) Task structuring
16. Commitment to quality is measured ________.
A) in decades
B) in quarters
C) in budget-cycles
D) annually
E) monthly
17. What are the three broad categories of the PAF paradigm?
A) performance, appraisal, and functional costs
B) process, assessment, and failure costs
C) prevention, appraisal, and failure costs
D) performance, assessment, and failure costs
E) process, appraisal, and functional costs
18. ________ costs are costs that limit the occurrence of defects and imperfections.
A) Process
B) Assessment
C) Prevention
D) Failure
E) Appraisal
19. ________ costs include costs such as training, quality planning, process
engineering, and other costs associated with quality beforehand.
A) Prevention
B) Process
C) Appraisal
D) Assessment
E) Failure
20. Which of the following is considered a prevention cost?
A) cost of troubleshooting
B) laboratory acceptance testing
C) warranty
D) supplier quality assurance
E) on-site performance tests
21. ________ costs are associated with the direct costs of measuring quality.
A) Failure
B) Appraisal
C) Assessment
D) Prevention
E) Process
22. ________ costs include lab testing, inspection, test equipment and materials, and
losses due to destructive tests.
A) Assessment
B) Failure
C) Prevention
D) Appraisal
E) Process
23. Which of the following is considered an appraisal cost?
A) supplier assessment
B) cost of troubleshooting
C) process waste
D) robust design
E) product quality audits
24. ________ failure costs are those associated with on line failure.
A) Indirect
B) Generic
C) External
D) Internal
E) Direct
25. ________ failure costs are associated with product failure after the production
process.
A) External
B) Indirect
C) Direct
D) Generic
E) Internal
26. Failure after the customer takes possession of the product results in a(n) ___
failure cost.
A) indirect
B) generic
C) external
D) internal
E) direct
27. Which of the following is considered a failure cost?
A) on-site performance tests
B) warranty
C) supplier quality assurance
D) robust design
E) product quality audits
28. Using the ____, quality costs can be modeled to show the trade-offs between these
costs.
A) law of diminishing marginal returns
B) order-winning criterion
C) forced-choice model
D) supply chain strategy
E) PAF paradigm
29. Using the law of diminishing marginal returns, quality costs can be modeled to
show the trade-offs between these costs. This trade-off model is called the________.
A) order-winning criterion
B) supply chain model
C) PAF paradigm
D) forced-choice model
E) Lundvall-Juran model
30. The Lundvall-Juran quality cost model states that________.
A) as quality increases, customer satisfaction increases
B) as expenditures in inspection and control activities increase, quality conformance
decreases
C) as design and manufacturing costs increase, quality increases
D) as expenditures in prevention and appraisal activities increase, quality
conformance increases
E) as inspection costs increase, customer satisfaction decreases
31. If a product is regional or is marketed to a particular segment of the population,
then the generic strategy in use is ________.
A) quality
B) cost
C) differentiation
D) flexibility
E) focus
32. The key to the Hill model for strategic quality planning is reaching consensus on
the ________.
A) order-winning criterion
B) Lundvall-Juran model
C) supply chain model
D) PAF paradigm
E) forced-choice model
33. Prahlad and Hamel have identified the strategic con
cept of ________.
A) core competence
B) process engineering
C) task management
D) quality control
E) employee empowerment
34. ________ refers to the variables, definitions, components, and concepts that are
included in the strategy.
A) Content
B) Process
C) Prototype
D) Paradigm
E) Criterion
35. ________ consists of the steps for developing strategy within an organization.
A) Prototype
B) Criterion
C) Process
D) Content
E) Paradigm
36. In the forced-choice model, the organization's position is determined by examining
________.
A) major future programs
B) major technological forces
C) key government issues
D) explicit strategies of competitors
E) broad economic assumptions
37. In the forced-choice model, the environmental assessment is completed by
examining ________.
A) the forecast of operational needs
B) explicit strategies of competitors
C) the statement of mission
D) interrelated set of financial and nonfinancial objectives
E) major future programs
38. Kanri refers to:
A) quality control
B) employee empowerment
C) product development
D) management control
E) quality conformance
39. The acronym TQEM stands for ________.
A) total quality environmental management
B) total quality engineering and management
C) total quality employee management
D) total quality energy management
E) total quality evaluation and management
40. The plan-do-check-act cycle is associated with________.
A) W. Edwards Deming
B) Walter Shewhart
C) Joseph Juran
E) Kaoru Ishikawa
CHƯƠNG 5: Designing Quality Service
1.________ service attributes cannot be inventoried or carried in stock over long

periods of time.
A) Continuous
B) Objective
C) Tangible
D) Discrete
E) Intangible
2. The heterogeneous nature of services means that ________.
A) no two services are exactly the same
B) they cannot be inventoried
C) customers cannot be involved in the production of the service
D) production and consumption of services occur simultaneously
E) cannot be carried in stock over long periods of time
3. Which of the following statements is true?
A) Tangible service attributes cannot be inventoried or carried in stock over long
periods of time.
B) The homogeneous nature of services means that no two services are exactly the
same.
C) Production and consumption of services often occur simultaneously.
D) Customers cannot exert control over the service provider to achieve customization.
E) Customers tend to be more involved in the production of goods than in the
production of services.
4. The participation of a customer in the delivery of a service product is called
________.
A) customer interaction
B) customer coproduction
C) customer conformity
D) customer proactivity
E) customer compliance
5.In many restaurants, it is common for customers to fill their own drinks. This
activity is an example of ________.
A) customer compliance
B) customer interaction
C) customer coproduction
D) customer proactivity
E) customer conformity
6. ________ services are those whose customers pay the bills.
A) External
B) Tangible
C) Internal
D) Discrete
E) Intangible
7. ________ services include services such as data processing, printing, and mail.
A) Tangible
B) External
C) Internal
D) Intangible
E) Discrete
8. Services that we actively seek out and employ of our own accord are referred to as
________ services.
A) voluntary
B) internal
C) external
D) intangible
E) involuntary
9. Which of the following is an example of a voluntary service?
A) police department
B) hospital
C) gas station
D) the IRS
E) fire department
10. Services that individuals do not choose to engage are referred to as ______
services.
A) internal
B) voluntary
C) intangible
D) involuntary
E) external
11. Which of the following statements is true?
A) It is easy to obtain hard data relating to services because services' attributes are
intangible.
B) Simultaneous production and consumption of services means that you have to
do it right the first time.
C) Customer contact leads to a decrease in variability in the process.
D) Service liability issues center around safety concerns.
E) Manufacturing liability issues often relate to malpractice.
12. _____ refers to the professionalism of the service provider and whether reasonable
measures were taken to ensure the customer's well-being.
A) Malpractice
B) Negligence
C) Indifference
D) Mismanagement
E) Empathy
13. Which of the following is not a quality dimension relating to services?
A) empathy
B) assurance
C) durability
D) tangibles
E) responsiveness
14. The SERVQUAL tool for assessing services quality was developed by ________.
A) Hammer and Champy
B) Juran, Deming, and Shewhart
C) Ishikawa and Taguchi
D) Feigenbaum, Crosby, and Peters
E) Parasuraman, Zeithamel, and Berry
15. The two parts of the SERVQUAL survey are ________.
A) customer expectations and customer perceptions
B) service quality and product quality
C) product integrity and customer service
D) services liability and manufacturing liability
E) service vision and high standards
16. ________ shows the difference between actual customer expectations and
management's idea or perception of customer expectations.
A) Gap 1
B) Gap 2
C) Gap 3
D) Gap 4
E) Gap 5
17. Gap 2 shows the difference between ________.
A) service delivery and external communications to customers
B) management perceptions of customer expectations and expected service
C) service delivery and service quality specifications
D) expected service and perceived service
E) service quality specifications and management perceptions of customer
expectations
18. ________ shows the difference between service delivery and service quality
specifications.
A) Gap 1
B) Gap 2
C) Gap 3
D) Gap 4
E) Gap 5
19. Gap 4 shows the difference between ________.
A) service delivery and external communications to customers
B) management perceptions of customer expectations and expected service
C) service delivery and service quality specifications
D) expected service and perceived service
E) service quality specifications and management perceptions of customer
expectations
20. _____ shows the difference between expected service and perceived service.
A) Gap 1
B) Gap 2
C) Gap 3
D) Gap 4
E) Gap 5
21. A university administered the SERVQUAL survey to its customers as a way to
assess its current position in the market. On the basis of 80 responses, the following
averages were computed for the tangibles construct.
Item
# Avg.
Perception Avg.
Perception
1 6.4 6.1
2 6.1 6.0
3 6.7 5.2
4 6.9 6.5
What is the difference for the tangibles dimension?
A) -1.50
B) -0.575
C) 1.50
D) 0.575
E) not enough data to determine the answer
22. A university administered the SERVQUAL survey to its customers as a way to
assess its current position in the market. On the basis of 80 responses, the following
averages were computed for the reliabilityconstruct.
Item
# Avg.
Perception Avg.
Perception
1 6.2 6.6
2 6.3 6.2
3 6.5 6.7
4 6.9 6.5
What is the difference for the reliability dimension?
A) -0.2
B) -0.025
C) 0.025
D) 0.2
E) not enough data to determine the answer
23. A ________ is a flowchart that isolates potential fail points in a process.
A) services statement
B) services draft
C) services plan
D) services blueprint
E) services data table
24. What is the first step in the development of a service
blueprint?
A) identify processes
B) isolate fail points
C) establish a time frame
D) eliminate highest risks
E) analyze profits
25.Which of the following best defines the front office in a service blueprint?
A) the portion of the firm's activities that the customer can see
B) the area in the firm where the majority of the work is done
C) the portion of the firm's activities that the customer cannot see but is necessary to
perform
D) the area in the firm where the majority of the profitability is generated
E) the area in the firm where the employees plan quality initiatives
26. Which of the following best defines the back office in a service blueprint?
A) the area in the firm where the majority of the work is done
B) the portion of the firm's activities that the customer cannot see but is
necessary to perform
C) the portion of the firm's activities that the customer can see
D) the area in the firm where the majority of the profitability is generated
E) the area in the firm where the employees plan quality initiatives
27. The fail points in the service blueprint are often referred to as ________.
A) defining events
B) turning points
C) poka-yokes
D) moments of truth
E) tangibles
28. The idea behind fail-safing is to ensure that ________.
A) certain errors will never occur
B) customer expectations are met
C) the highest risks are eliminated
D) forward planning takes place
E) the importance of quality is not neglected
29. The package of tangibles and intangibles that make up a service is referred to as
a(n) ________.
A) quality output package
B) internal services package
C) service vision package
D) fail-safe package
E) customer benefits package
30. In a customer benefits package, tangibles are known as ________.
A) service-content
B) process-content
C) product-content
D) quality-content
E) goods-content
31. In a customer benefits package, intangibles are referred to as ________.
A) service-content
B) goods-content
C) quality-content
D) process-content
E) product-content
32. Which of the following is not one of the four stages of the service benefit package
design process?
A) idea/concept generation
B) service concept investigation
C) the definition of a services package
D) process definition and selection
E) facilities requirement definition
33. The first stage of the service benefit package design process is ________.
A) service concept investigation
B) facilities requirement definition
C) process definition and selection
D) the definition of a services package
E) idea/concept generation
34. ________ service packages are of the one-size-fits-all variety.
A) Unique
B) Selective
C) Restricted
D) Generic
E) Constricted
35. ________ service packages are especially tailored for each customer.
A) Selective
B) Constricted
C) Unique
D) Restricted
E) Generic
36. ________ is a service improvement technique that allows managers to analyze
their service processes at a very detailed level.
A) Generic service analysis
B) Selective service analysis
C) Service transaction analysis
D) Service data analysis
E) Service quality analysis
37. The phenomenon of customers providing themselves, their belongings, and
information as process inputs is known as ________.
A) the reinvention process
B) services blueprinting
C) the Unreliable Supplier Dilemma
D) the capricious labor theory
E) service transaction analysis
CHƯƠNG 6: Managing Supplier Quanlity in

thhe Supply Chain
1. The ________ is a tool that disaggregates a firm into its core activities to help
reduce costs and identity sources of competitiveness.
A) Delta model
B) value reference model
C) generic data model
D) demand chain
E) value chain
2. Which of the following is not a core activity in the value chain?
A) marketing and sales
B) operations
C) human resource management
D) service
E) inbound logistics
3. Which of the following best describes the hidden factory?
A) system that links together supplier and customer information systems
B) non-value-chain activities having costs but no effect on the customer
C) firms involved in outsourcing business activities
D) disaggregation of a firm into its core activities
E) value-chain activities that add value for the customer
4. The ________ contains all the bureaucratic processes that are not part of the core
activities.
A) front office
B) hidden factory
C) product vendor
D) back office
E) data center
5. The linkage between a series of suppliers and consumers involves the complex
interaction of ________.
A) inbound logistics and outbound logistics
B) marketing and sales
C) operations, sales, and services
D) logistics, systems, and human behavior
E) consumer behavior and interaction
6. ________ is the term used to characterize the relationship between suppliers and
customers when a high degree of linkages and interdependencies exist.
A) Supplier alliance
B) Customer coproduction
C) Supplier-customer interaction
D) Supplier linkage
E) Value partnering
7. In ________, the number of approved suppliers is reduced to just a few.
A) multiple sourcing
B) generic sourcing
C) dual sourcing
D) constricted sourcing
E) selective sourcing
8. ________ reduces the exposure of having a single a supplier.
A) Dual sourcing
B) Selective sourcing
C) Multiple sourcing
D) Generic sourcing
E) Constricted sourcing
9. ________ is a tool used by many firms to differentiate and discriminate between
suppliers.
A) Supplier estimation
B) Supplier segmentation
C) Supplier differentiation
D) Supplier assessment
E) Supplier evaluation
10. ________ is often recorded on report cards in which potential suppliers are rated
based on criteria such as quality, technical capability, or ability to meet schedule
demands.
A) Supplier segmentation
B) Supplier evaluation
C) Supplier assessment
D) Supplier estimation
E) Supplier differentiation
11. ________ rely on external validation of quality programs.
A) Generic filters
B) Sole-source filters
C) Aggregate filters
D) Constricted filters
E) Extrinsic filters
12. Many companies perform lengthy inspections of their suppliers that involve long-
term visits and evaluations. These programs often called ________.
A) supplier segmentation programs
B) supplier assessment programs
C) supplier requirement programs
D) supplier evaluation programs
E) supplier certification programs
13. ________ is a system that aids customer and supplier communication by linking
together supplier and customer information systems.
A) Value-added network
B) Telecommunication network services
C) Computer data transfer
D) Electronic data interchange
E) Data transmission network
14. ________ results in the suppliers being responsible
for managing inventories and keeping inventory costs
low.
A) Vendor-managed inventory
B) Supplier-generated inventory
C) Service level inventory
D) Production inventory
E) Economic order inventory
15. What is the first step for supplier development?
A) identify critical suppliers
B) identify key projects
C) define details of agreement
D) identify critical products and services
E) meet with supplier top management
16. Which of the following steps for supplier development occurs when there is an
agreement about how the supplier needs to improve and where?
A) identify key projects
B) monitor status and modify strategies
C) define details of agreement
D) form cross-functional teams
E) identify critical products and services
17. Which of the following steps for supplier development involves cost,
commitments of resources, metrics for improvement, project charters, accountability,
and deliverables?
A) identify critical products and services
B) identify key projects
C) monitor status and modify strategies
D) identify critical suppliers
E) define details of agreement
18. Which of the following services is not included in supplier relationship
management systems?
A) supplier scorecarding
B) spend analytics
C) gap analysis
D) sourcing execution
E) procurement execution
19. The supplier development program developed by Chrysler, Ford, and General
Motors as a single standard for certifying suppliers was called ________.
A) Targets for Excellence
B) Q1
C) business process reengineering
D) QS 9000
E) ISO 13485
20. The ISO/TS 16949 standard applies only to ________ companies.
A) telecom
B) automotive
C) aviation
D) healthcare
E) information technology
21. Which of the following is not a section of ISO/TS 16949?
A) management responsibility
B) product realization
C) resource management
D) measurement, analysis, and improvement
E) supplier development
22. For the ________ section of ISO/TS 16949, suppliers must recognize key
processes and document these processes.
B) measurement, analysis, and improvement
C) product realization
D) quality management system
E) resource management
23. For the ________ section of ISO/TS 16949, the extent to which management is
committed to the development and implementation of quality management, and
continuous improvement is documented.
B) resource management
D) measurement, analysis, and improvement
E) quality management system
24. Which of the following sections of ISO/TS 16949 requires the management to
provide infrastructure such as bricks and mortar, equipment, and support systems?
C) quality management system
D) product realization
E) measurement, analysis, and improvement
25. The ________ section of ISO/TS 16949 includes as pects such as purchasing,
suppliers, control plans, setups, preventive maintenance, and traceability.
B) measurement, analysis, and improvement
D) quality management system
E) resource management
26. For the ________ section of ISO/TS 16949, the company needs to provide
documentation that it can demonstrate product conformity and quality management
system conformity.
A) measurement, analysis, and improvement
C) quality management system
D) product realization
E) management responsibility
27. ISO/TS 16949 does not specify the quality system requirements for the ________
of automotive-related products.
A) servicing
B) design and development
C) disposal
D) installation
E) production
28.________ is the technique used to verify that incoming goods from a supplier
adhere to quality standards.
A) Acceptance sampling
B) Sole-source filtering
C) Electronic data interchange
D) Resource management
E) Supplier certification
29. ________ is defined as a systems-based approach to performance improvement
that leverages opportunities created by upstream and downstream linkages with
suppliers and customers.
A) Customer relationship management
B) Supplier relationship management system
C) Supplier development system
D) Project management
E) Supply chain quality management
CHƯƠNG 7: The Tools of Quality
1. Which of the following is not a component of the quality system model?

A) planning
B) continual improvement
C) organizational behavior
D) change
E) renewal
2. What is the first step in a process improvement project?
A) creating a control chart
B) developing scatter plots
C) developing a histogram
D) creating a process map
E) setting up a check sheet
3. A ________ determines the parameters for process improvement.
A) process map
B) check sheet
C) control chart
D) cause-and-effect diagram
E) histogram
4. With reference to the language of process maps, indicates there is a decision to be
made.
A) parallelogram
B) rectangle
C) diamond
D) triangle
E) circle
5. With reference to the language of process maps, a
________ is used whenever materials, forms, or tools
enter or leave the process.
A) circle
B) triangle
C) diamond
D) rectangle
E) parallelogram
6. With reference to the language of flowcharts, a________ is used whenever
processing takes place.
A) circle
B) triangle
C) diamond
D) rectangle
E) parallelogram
7. What is the first step in process mapping?
A) developing a map of the process
B) settling on a standard set of process mapping symbols to be used
C) reviewing a draft copy of the process map with the employees
D) observing the work being performed by shadowing the workers performing the
work
E) clearly communicating the purpose of the process map to all the individuals
involved in the exercise
8. ________ are data-gathering tools that can be used informing histograms.
A) Process maps
B) Pareto charts
C) Check sheets
D) Scatter plots
E) Control charts
9. Check sheets are data-gathering tools that can be
used in forming ________.
A) Pareto charts
B) scatter diagrams
C) cause-and-effect diagrams
D) histograms
E) control charts
10. The first step in setting up a ________ is to identify common defects occurring in
the process.
A) histogram
B) Pareto chart
C) check sheet
D) control chart
E) process map
11. ________ are simply graphical representations of data in a bar format.
A) Cause-and-effect diagrams
B) Process maps
C) Histograms
D) Scatter plots
E) Pareto charts
12. Calculate the number of classes if there are 130 observations in a data set?
A) 8
B) 7
C) 6
D) 5
E) 4
13. Calculate the number of classes if there are 65 observations in a data set.
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 4
E) 3
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 4
E) 3
A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 4
E) 3
16. The ________ is used to examine the relationships between variables.
A) scatter diagram
B) process map
C) cause-and-effect diagram
D) Pareto chart
E) control chart
17. The first step in setting up a ________ is to determine the independent and
dependent variables.
A) control chart
B) scatter plot
C) process map
D) histogram
E) check sheet
18. ________ are used to determine whether a process will produce a product or
service with consistent measurable properties.
A) Scatter diagrams
B) Control charts
C) Process maps
D) Cause-and-effect diagrams
E) Histograms
19. The ________ is used to move to lower levels of abstraction in solving problems.
A) cause-and-effect diagram
B) Pareto chart
C) control chart
D) histogram
E) scatter diagram
20.The cause-and-effect diagram is also called a(n) ________.
A) fishbone diagram
B) tree diagram
C) affinity diagram
D) matrix diagram
E) scatter diagram
21. The first step in creating a ________ is to state the problem clearly in the head of
the fish.
A) control chart
B) Pareto chart
C) scatter diagram
E) histogram
22. ________ are used to identify and prioritize problems to be solved.
A) Scatter diagrams
B) Histograms
C) Control charts
D) Cause-and-effect diagrams
E) Pareto charts
23. ________ are frequency charts that are aided by the 80/20 rule.
A) Cause-and-effect diagrams
B) Control charts
C) Pareto charts
D) Histograms
E) Scatter diagrams
24. The first step in constructing ________ is to gather categorical data relating to
quality problems.
A) control charts
B) histograms
C) scatter diagrams
D) Pareto charts
E) cause-and-effect diagrams
25. The RC and More Superstore decides to track customer complaints as part of their
ongoing customer satisfaction improvement program. After collecting data for two
months, their check sheet appears as follows:
Type of Problem Frequency
(number of times)
Batteries not included 6
Items damaged when received 21
Literature not included in box 9
Parts missing 13
Unit not working 1
If they construct a Pareto chart, what is the cumulative
percentage of the two leftmost bars?
A) 20%
B) 28%
C) 54%
D) 68%
E) 80%
(number of times)
Parts missing 24
Unit not working 3
If they construct a Pareto chart, what is the cumulative
percentage of the two leftmost bars?
A) 12%
B) 27%
C) 40%
D) 60%
E) 71%
months, their check sheet appears asfollows:
(number of times)
Parts missing 13
Unit not working 1
If they construct a Pareto chart, how many of these
categories are required to make up 86% of all com
plaints?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
ongoing customer satisfaction improvement program. After collecting
data for two months, their check sheet appears as follows:
(number of times)
Parts missing 24
Unit not working 3
If they construct a Pareto chart, how many of these
categories are required to make up 53% of all com
plaints?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
29. The RC and More Superstore decides to track cus tomer complaints as part of their
(number of times)
Parts missing 13
Unit not working 1
If they construct a Pareto chart, what is the percentage
of complaints represented by the problem "Literature
not included in box"?
A) 9%
B) 18%
C) 36%
D) 54%
E) 81%
months, their check sheet appears as
follows:
(number of times)
Parts missing 24
Unit not working 3
If they construct a Pareto chart, what is the percentage
of complaints represented by the problem "Unit not
working"?
A) 3%
B) 6.7%
C) 11.1%
D) 17.8%
E) 23%
31. Which of the following is one of the new seven tools for management?
A) process map
B) cause-and-effect diagram
C) histogram
D) check sheet
E) affinity diagram
32. A(n) ________ is a tool that helps a group converge on a set number of themes or
ideas that can be addressed later.
A) tree diagram
B) affinity diagram
C) prioritization grid
D) matrix diagram
E) interrelationship digraph
33. The first step in completing a(n) ________ is to construct an affinity diagram to
identify the issues relating to a problem.
A) interrelationship digraph
B) matrix diagram
C) tree diagram
D) prioritization grid
E) activity network diagram
34. A(n) ________ is useful to identify the steps needed to address the given problem.
A) tree diagram
B) prioritization grid
C) activity network diagram
D) interrelationship digraph
E) affinity diagram
35. A(n) ________ is very similar to a work breakdown structure used in planning
projects.
A) matrix diagram
B) prioritization grid
C) interrelationship digraph
D) affinity diagram
E) tree diagram
36. The first step in completing a(n) ________ is to assemble the header cards from
the affinity diagram.
A) matrix diagram
B) tree diagram
D) activity network diagram
E) interrelationship digraph
37. A(n) ________ is used to make decisions based on multiple criteria.
A) tree diagram
B) matrix diagram
C) interrelationship digraph
D) prioritization grid
E) affinity diagram
38. Cletus Inc. plans to overhaul the cafeteria menu and has formed a four-person
team to evaluate alternatives. The team identifies four criteria and their respective
percentage weights as shown in the table below:Criteria Percentage Weight
Price 0.30
Taste 0.40
Texture 0.20
Nutrition
What is the percentage weight for the Nutrition criterion?
A) 0.10
B) 0.30
C) 0.50
D) 0.70
E) 0.90
39. Cletus Inc. plans to overhaul the cafeteria menu and chas formed a four-person
team to evaluate alternatives. The team identifies four criteria and their respective
percentage weights as shown in the table below:Criteria Percentage Weight
Price
Taste 0.43
Texture 0.21
Nutrition 0.27
What is the percentage weight for the Price criterion?
A) 0.18
B) 0.91
C) 0.09
D) 0.57
E) 0.48
40. Cletus Inc. plans to overhaul the cafeteria menu and b has formed a four-person
team to evaluate alternatives. The team identifies four criteria and has ranked the Price
criteria as shown in the table below:Alternative Person 1 Person 2 Person 3 Person 4
A1121
B2312
C3433
D4244
What is the final price ranking for alternative B?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
E) cannot be determined from the information given
41. Cletus Inc. plans to overhaul the cafeteria menu and c has formed a four-person
team to evaluate alternatives. The team identifies four criteria and has ranked the Price
criteria as shown in the table below: Alternative Person 1 Person 2 Person 3 Person 4
A1121
B2312
C3433
D4244
What is the final price ranking for alternative C?
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
E) cannot be determined from the information given
42. Cletus Inc. plans to overhaul the cafeteria menu and b has formed a four-person
team to evaluate alternatives. The team identifies four criteria and their corresponding
percentage weights. Option A has ranks as shown in the table below:
Criteria Percentage Weight Option A Rank
Price 0.25 1
Taste 0.30 2
Texture 0.10 2
Nutrition 0.35 3
What is the importance score sum for option A?
A) 1.0
B) 2.1
C) 4.2
D) 8.0
E) 9.6
43. Cletus Inc. plans to overhaul the cafeteria menu and chas formed a four-person
team to evaluate alternatives. The team identifies four criteria and their corresponding
percentage weights. Option C has ranks as shown in the table below:
Criteria Percentage Weight Option C Rank
Price 0.20 3
Taste 0.15 2
Texture 0.20 2
Nutrition 0.45 3
What is the importance score sum for option C?
A) 1.35
B) 2.20
C) 2.65
D) 3.45
E) 4.80
44. The ________ is similar in concept to quality function deployment in its use of
symbols, its layout, and its application.
A) matrix diagram
B) tree diagram
D) affinity diagram
45. The ________ is also known as a PERT diagram or critical path diagram and is
used in controlling projects.
A) affinity diagram
B) tree diagram
C) activity network diagram
E) matrix diagram
46. ________ are graphs that present multiple metrics
simultaneously in a two-dimensional plane.
A) Interrelationship digraphs
B) Spider charts
C) Tree diagrams
D) Activity network diagrams
E) Process decision program charts
47. ________ are usually spreadsheets that are communicated to management on a
regular basis-weekly, monthly, quarterly, and annually.
A) Matrix diagrams
B) Affinity diagrams
C) Process decision program charts
D) Balanced scorecards
E) Spider charts
48. A(n) ________ involves integrating financial measures of business success along
with nonfinancial, operational information about the business.
A) spider chart
B) balanced scorecard
C) affinity diagram
D) matrix diagram
E) process decision program chart

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CHƯƠNG 1: Differing Perspectives on Quality

A) poor communication skills

B) lack of quality training

D) differing corporate goals

B) Core process activities

25. Which of the following is an upstream activity in supply chain management?

A) value stream mapping

E) shipping and logistics

A) Core process activities

A) shipping and logistics

C) value stream mapping (lập bản đồ chuỗi giã trị)

E) Value stream mapping

29. ________ include customer support and focusing on delivery reliability.

C) Core process activities

30. Which of the following is a downstream activity in supply chain management?

31. From an engineering perspective, engineers are primarily interested in ________.

A) applying mathematical problem-solving skills and models to the problems of

B) taking a strategic management approach to solving problems

C) focusing on the perceived quality of products and services

A) manufacturing excellence and long-term planning

B) product design and process design

C) employee empowerment and workforce training

D) supplier development and consumer growth

E) marketing and sales

A) process design engineering

D) product design engineering

E) concurrent design engineering

B) prototype development (Phát triển nguyên mẫu)

E) product design and evaluation

D) Concurrent (Đồng thời)

A) life testing (vòng đời cuộc sống)

D) value stream mapping

E) statistical process control

A) redundancy (dư thừa)

D) statistical process control

E) value stream mapping

39. ________ is an engineering-related contribution to quality management that is concerned

B) Statistical process control (kiểm soát quá trình thống kê)

C) capable (có khả năng)

D) stable (ổn định)

D) engineering (kỹ thuật )

C) Product design engineering

D) Value stream mapping

A) firm mission, vision, and goals

D) empowerment (Trao quyền)

B) sustainable competitive advantage (lợi thế cạnh tranh bền vững)

C) an increase in market share

A) common cause variation

B) relationship management (Quản trị quan hệ)

D) special cause variation

A) perceived quality (chất lượng cảm nhận)

A) features and aesthetics

B) price and advertising

C) value and conformance

D) durability and reliability

E) manufacturing integrity and serviceability

A) the producing organization, industry trade groups,and the final consumer

C) the producing organization, the intermediary, and the final consumer

E) the producing organization, the intermediary, and the regulatory agency

A) Juran cost-benefit analysis

B) Garvin quality matrix

C) Deming value chain (chuỗi giá trị)

E) law of diminishing marginal returns