Kinematics Question Bank

Questions 1 to 3 refer to the following information.

A car is travelling at a speed of 25 m s -1 when the driver sees a traffic hazard ahead. The driver
takes 0.45 s to respond and apply the brakes. The brakes and road conditions mean that the
car accelerates at -8.0 m s-2.

Question 1

How far does the car travel before the brakes are applied?

(2 marks)

Question 2

What is the total stopping distance of the car from when the driver notices the hazard?

(3 marks)

Question 3
What period of time elapsed from when the brakes were first applied to when the car stopped?

(2 marks)

Questions 4 to 8 refer to the following information.

The graph below shows how velocity varies with time for a car travelling north along a road.

Test (continued)

Question 4
What was the car’s instantaneous acceleration 25 seconds after starting?

(2 marks)

Question 5

For what period of time was the car travelling at a constant velocity?

(1 mark)

Question 6

What is the car’s final displacement from its starting point?

Question 7

What is the car’s average velocity for the trip?

(2 marks)

Question 8

Briefly describe the motion of the car as depicted in this graph.

Test (continued)

Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following information.

A rower on the Hawkesbury River is able to reach a velocity of 10 m s-1 relative to the water. An
otter hitching a ride on a log floats along in the water (at rest relative to the water). The water is
moving at velocity of 2 m s-1 relative to the river bank.

Question 9

With what velocity is the rower moving relative to the otter when rowing upstream?

(1 mark)

Question 10

What is the velocity of the rower relative to the riverbank?

Question 11

What is the velocity of the otter relative to the rower?

(1 mark)

Question 12

What is the velocity of the rower relative to the riverbank when rowing downstream?

(2 marks)

Question 13

While driving north at a velocity of 28 m s-1 relative to the ground, a man notices a cyclist
crossing the road ahead. The cyclist is travelling west at 7 m s-1 relative to the ground.

(a) What is the velocity of the cyclist relative to the driver?

Test (continued)

Question 13 (continued)

(b) What is the velocity of the driver relative to the cyclist?

(2 marks)

Questions 14 to 16 refer to the following information.

A cyclist is taking part in a race. The mass of the cyclist and bicycle is 75 kg. The cyclist, starting
from rest, applies a constant driving force and is travelling at a constant speed 16 metres from
the start. The graph below shows the total resistance forces applied to the cyclist and bicycle
over the first 20 metres of the race.
Question 14

What is the magnitude of the net force acting on the cyclist and bicycle at a distance of 19 m
from the start? Justify your answer.

(2 marks)

Question 15

What is the magnitude of the constant driving force provided by the cyclist?
(3 marks)

Question 16

What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the cyclist and bicycle at a distance of 6 m from the
start?

(3 marks)

Test (continued)

Questions 17 to 20 refer to the following information

A racing car of mass 750 kg travelling with a velocity of 40 m s-1 west collides head-on with a
solid wall. The car rebounds with a velocity of 5.0 m s-1 east. The car is in contact with the wall
for 0.80 s. Assume that no external force acts on this system.

Question 17

What is the initial momentum of the car?

Question 18

What is the change of momentum of the car while it is in contact with the wall?

(3 marks)

Question 19

Calculate the average force that the car exerts on the wall during the collision.

(3 marks)
Question 20

State the Law of Conservation of Momentum and account for any apparent loss of momentum
in this collision.

(2 marks)

Test (continued)

Questions 21 to 23 refer to the following information

A truck of mass 6.0 ´ 10 3 kg is travelling west at a speed of 25 m s-1 when it collides with a car of
mass 1.2 ´ 103 kg travelling east at a speed of 20 m s-1. The vehicles become locked together
during the collision. The collision lasted 0.90 s.

Question 21

What is the velocity of the vehicles immediately after the collision? Assume that no external
forces acted on the car and truck during the collision.
(3 marks)

Question 22

Fully specify the change of momentum of the car.

(3 marks)

Question 23

Fully specify the average force that the car exerts on the truck during the collision.

(2 marks)
Questions 24 to 26 refer to the following information.

A car of mass 1550 kg travelling with a speed of 12.0 m s-1 collides head-on with a stationary
car of mass 1220 kg. During the collision, the cars become locked together. Assume that no
external forces act during the collision.

Question 24

What is the speed of the two cars after the collision?

(3 marks)

Test (continued)

Question 25

Is this collision elastic? Use calculations to justify your answer.

Question 26

Account for any loss of kinetic energy that might have occurred.

(1 mark)

Questions 27 to 30 refer to the following information.

The graph below shows how velocity varies with time for an object travelling in a straight line.

Question 27

Fully state the object’s velocity 4.0 s after starting its motion.
(2 marks)

Question 28

Fully state the object’s acceleration 18 s after starting its motion.

(3 marks)

Test (continued)

Question 29

What distance does the object travel in the first 20 s of its motion?
(2 marks)

Question 30

What is the object’s final displacement from its starting point?

(3 marks)

Questions 31 to 33 refer to the following information.

A car starts from rest and moves in a straight line with a uniform acceleration of magnitude 3.0
m s-2.

Question 31

What is the speed of the car 5.0 s after starting?

(2 marks)
Question 32

What distance has the car travelled from the starting point 6.0 s after starting?

(3 marks)

Question 33

What is the speed of the car when it is 24 m from the starting point?

(3 marks)

Test (continued)

Question 34

What is the magnitude of the net force that makes a mass of 3.0 kg accelerate at 5.0 m s-2?
(3 marks)

Questions 35 and 36 refer to the following information.

Newton’s third Law of Motion can be stated as ‘Every action has an equal and opposite
reaction’.

The diagram below shows an apple hanging from a twig.

Question 35

Mark and label on the diagram the forces acting on the apple.

(2 marks)

Question 36
What is the reaction force to the weight force acting on the apple and where does it act?

Justify your answer.

(3 marks)

Questions 37 to 39 refer to the following information.

A car of mass 1600 kg is travelling at a speed of 20 m s-1. A force of 640 N acts on the car and
brings it to rest.

Question 37

What is the magnitude and direction of the car’s acceleration?

(2 marks)

Test (continued)
Question 38

Calculate the distance travelled by the car while it is accelerating until it comes to rest.

(3 marks)

Question 39

Calculate the work done on the car by the force in bringing it to rest.

(3 marks)

Dynamics Question Bank

Number of questions: 30
Total marks: 68

Test

Question 1

What is the magnitude of the net force that makes a mass of 3.0 kg accelerate at 5.0 m s-2?

(3 marks)

Questions 2 to 7 refer to the following information.

A car of mass 1200 kg is at rest on a road inclined at to the horizontal.

What is the weight of the car?

(2 marks)

Test (continued)

Question 3

Calculate the magnitude of the component of the weight that acts down the slope.

(2 marks)
Question 4

What is the magnitude of the normal reaction on the car?

(2 marks)

Question 5

What is the magnitude of the force parallel to the slope that prevents the car from rolling
down the slope?

(2 marks)

Question 6

What applies the force on the car that prevents it from rolling down the slope?
(1 mark)

Test (continued)

Question 7

On which part, or parts, of the car is the force referred to in questions 5 and 6 applied?

(1 mark)

Questions 8 and 9 refer to the following information.

A hungry coyote rolls a spherical boulder down a hill in an attempt to hit a fast-moving bird.
The situation is shown in the following diagram.
The boulder has a mass of 120 kg and starts rolling from rest.

Question 8

What is the potential energy of the boulder when it is released?

(2 marks)

Question 9

Calculate the speed of the boulder at the bottom of the hill. Ignore the effect of friction.

(3 marks)

Test (continued)

Questions 10 to 12 refer to the following information.

A boy drags a box across a level floor as shown in the figure below.
The box is moving at a constant velocity of 1.6 m s-1 west. The boy applies a constant force
of 120 N along the rope. The rope makes an angle of 30° to the horizontal.

Question 10

What is the magnitude of the net force acting on the box?

(1 mark)

Question 11

Calculate the magnitude of the resistance forces acting on the box. Justify your answer.
(3 marks)

Question 12

How much work does the boy do against the resistance forces when he drags the box a
distance of 5.0 m?

(2 marks)

Test (continued)

Questions 13 and 14 refer to the following information.

Newton’s third law of motion can be stated as ‘Every action has an equal and opposite
reaction’.

The diagram below shows an apple hanging from a twig.

Mark and label on the diagram the forces acting on the apple.

(2 marks)

Question 14

What is the reaction force to the weight force acting on the apple and where does it act?

Justify your answer.

(3 marks)

Questions 15 to 19 refer to the following information.

The graph below shows how the net force acting on an object varies with distance. The
object is initially at rest and has a mass of 2.0 kg.
Test (continued)

Question 15

What is the magnitude of the object’s acceleration when it has travelled a distance of 4.3 m?

(2 marks)

Question 16

How much work is done on the object when it has travelled a distance of 7.4 m?

(2 marks)
Question 17

What is the object’s kinetic energy when it has travelled a distance of 7.4 m?

(2 marks)

Question 18

What is the magnitude of the object’s velocity when it has travelled a distance of 7.4 m?

(3 marks)

Test (continued)
Question 19

Fully specify the object’s velocity after it has travelled a distance of 10 m.

(3 marks)

Questions 20 to 23 refer to the following information.

An empty railway wagon of mass 1600 kg is travelling at a constant speed of 20 m s-1 north
on a straight, horizontal track. It is then allowed to roll freely until it comes to rest. While
rolling, the horizontal resistance forces on the wagon total 640 N.

Question 20

What is the magnitude of the wagon’s deceleration?

(2 marks)
Question 21

Calculate the distance travelled by the wagon while it is decelerating until it comes to rest.

(3 marks)

Question 22

Calculate the work done on the wagon by the force in bringing it to rest.

(3 marks)

Test (continued)

Question 23

What change in momentum has the wagon experienced while rolling?

Questions 24 to 27 refer to the following information.

During testing, a dodgem car of mass 400 kg collides head-on with a concrete barrier at a
velocity of 2.0 m s–1 due east. It rebounds straight back with a speed of 1.0 m s–1.

Question 24

What is the initial momentum of the dodgem car?

(3 marks)

Question 25

Calculate the change in momentum of the dodgem car.

(3 marks)
Question 26

What is the magnitude of the impulse delivered to the dodgem car?

(2 marks)

Test (continued)

Question 27

If the interaction takes place over a time interval of 0.80 s, what force does the dodgem car
apply to the barrier?

(3 marks)

Question 28 refers to the following information.

An ideal spring held vertically is extended by progressively hanging weights on it. The graph
below shows how the extension of the spring changes with the force applied to it by the
weights.
Question 28

What is the extension of the spring when a force of 20 N is applied to it?

(1 mark)

Question 29

What is strain potential energy?

Test (continued)

Question 30

A cyclist travels at constant speed over a horizontal distance of 20 metres in 4.0 seconds,
riding against rolling friction of 9.0 N and air resistance of 6.0 N. What is the cyclist’s power
output?

(3 marks)

Waves and Thermodynamics Question Bank

Questions 1 and 2 refer to the following information.

Light has many properties that can be explained using a wave model.

Question 1

The velocity of light in a vacuum is 3.0 ´ 108 m s-1. How long does it take for light to travel across
the orbit of the Earth, a distance of 2.98 ´ 1011 m?
(2 marks)

Question 2

Light in a vacuum with a wavelength of 600 nm is yellow.

(a) Convert 600 nm to metres.

(1 mark)

(b) What is the frequency of this light? (The velocity of light in a vacuum is 3.0 ´ 108 m s-1.)

(2 marks)

Questions 3 to 6 refer to the following information.

A beam of light strikes an air–glass boundary at an angle of 40º as shown in the following
diagram.

Test (continued)

Question 3

What is the angle of incidence in this case?

(1 mark)

Question 4

What is the value of the ratio for light passing from air into glass?
(1 mark)

Question 5

Light passes from air into glass with an angle of incidence of 75°. Use Snell’s Law to calculate
the angle of refraction.

(3 marks)

Question 6

In which of the following cases might total internal reflection occur?

Light travelling from:

A. air to water

B. water to glass

C. glass to water

D. water to air.
(one or more answers)

(1 mark)

Test (continued)

Questions 7 and 8 refer to the following information.

The absolute refractive index for diamond is n = 2.42. The absolute refractive index for air is n =
1.00. The following diagram shows a ray of light meeting the diamond-to-air interface at an
angle greater than the critical angle.

Question 7
Calculate the critical angle for light passing from diamond into air.

(3 marks)

Question 8

Which ray shows the correct path for the ray of light after it meets the interface?

A. ray A

B. ray B

C. ray C

D. ray D

(1 mark)

Questions 9 and 10 refer to the following graph.

The graph shows how air pressure varies with distance from a musical instrument.

Question 9

What is the wavelength of the sound being produced by the musical instrument?
(1 mark)

Question 10

If the speed of sound in air is 340 m s-1, what is the frequency of the sound being produced?

(2 marks)

Test (continued)

Questions 11 to 13 refer to the following information.

The diagram below shows the trace on the screen of a cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO). This
trace is produced by a microphone detecting a sound near a signal generator. Time scale: 1 cm
equals 5 ms.

Question 11
What is the frequency of the sound?

(2 marks)

Question 12

Sketch the trace produced by a sound of twice the frequency, using the original time and voltage
scales.

(2 marks)

Question 13

Sketch the trace obtained from a louder sound that has the original frequency.
(2 marks)

Question 14

Explain how a transverse wave differs from a longitudinal wave and give an example for each
type.

(2 marks)

Test (continued)

Questions 15 to 18 refer to the following information

Students use a 4.0 m slinky to propagate a single pulse from one end to the other. They
measure the time it takes to do this. Their average result is 0.85 s.

Question 15

Determine the speed of the pulse.

Question 16

The students then send a periodic wave from one end to the other, making 5 complete cycles in
1.5 seconds. What is the frequency of the periodic wave?

(2 marks)

Question 17

Calculate the wavelength of the periodic wave.

Question 18

The students lower the tension of the slinky and repeat the experiment just as before. Without
calculating values, indicate whether the following quantities would increase in value, decrease in
value or remain unchanged: i) wave speed, ii) frequency, iii) wavelength.

(3 marks)

Test (continued)

Question 19

The wavelength of red light is 650 nm and of blue light is 500 nm. Calculate the frequencies of
red light and blue light.
(4 marks)

Question 20

The wavelength for a particular visible light is 580 nm. What is the colour of this light?

(1 mark)

Question 21

Humans analyse light in terms of brightness and colour. How do these sensations relate to the
transverse wave model for light?

(2 marks)
Question 22

What is the period for violet light having a wavelength of 380 nm?

(2 marks)

Question 23

What evidence do we have that light travels in straight line?

(2 marks)
Test (continued)

Question 24

Show with a clear diagram what happens when light reflects off a smooth surface.

(3 marks)

Question 25

What does the phrase ‘constructive interference’ describe?

(2 marks)
Questions 26 to 28 refer to the following information.

When a source generates waves that pass through a pair of narrow slits, an interference pattern
is formed on the far side. The pattern consists of regions of waves with large amplitude and
regions of waves with little or no amplitude.

Question 26

Explain this phenomenon in terms of the quantity called path difference.

(2 marks)

Question 27

If the distance between the slits is increased, what effect does this have on the double-slit
interference pattern?

(2 marks)

Question 28

If the frequency of the waves was increased, what effect would this have on the pattern?
(2 marks)

Test (continued)

Questions 29 and 30 refer to the following information.

Coherent light of wavelength 650 nm from a laser passes through a pair of slits, and an
interference pattern is formed.

Question 29

What is the path difference for the third dark band from the central maximum? Give your answer
in nm.

(2 marks)

Question 30
What is the path difference for the fifth bright band from the central maximum. Give your answer
in nm.

(2 marks)

Question 31

Waves also diffract when passing around an obstacle or through a single narrow slit. Explain the
effect of changing the wavelength of the waves λ and then the effect of changing the width of
the slit or size of the obstacle w.

(3 marks)

Question 32

Sound emitted from a speaker is subject to diffraction effects. The diameter of the speaker cone
relates in the same way as the width w of a single opening. A speaker with a cone of diameter
17 cm emits sound at two frequencies: 200 Hz and 6000 Hz. Compare the amount of diffraction
for each of the two sounds. Take the speed of sound to be 340 m s–1.

(6 marks)

Test (continued)

Questions 33 to 35 refer to the following information.

Question 33

Determine the speed of the transverse waves on the string.

(4 marks)

Question 34

The string is now made to vibrate as a standing wave so that there are three antinodes. By
drawing the wave pattern, determine the distance between two adjacent antinodes.
(4 marks)

Question 35

What is the distance between two adjacent nodes of the standing wave?

(2 marks)
Test (continued)

Questions 36 and 37 refer to the following information.

A siren emits sound with a frequency of 1000 Hz. The siren is positioned on an ambulance
travelling at 30 m s–1. Take the speed of sound to be 330 m s–1 in this instance.

Question 36

With the ambulance approaching an observer, what would be the measured frequency of the
siren?

(2 marks)

Question 37

How much different would the frequency of the sound produced by the siren be to an observer
positioned at the rear of the ambulance as it moves away compared to the observer at the front
of the ambulance?
(4 marks)

Question 38

A point source of light (S) is placed 5.0 cm in front of a plane mirror as shown in the following
diagram.

(a) Which one of the following will the rays of light from the source be after reflection from
the mirror?

A. parallel

B. converging

C. diverging

D. laterally inverted
(1 mark)

Test (continued)

Question 38 (continued)

(b) What is the distance of S from its image?

(1 mark)

(c) At which of the following points would an observer not be able to see an image of S in
the mirror?

A. U only

B. X only

C. U and X

D. W
(1 mark)

Question 39

A magnifying glass consists of a convex lens with a focal length of 12 cm. It is placed 4.0 cm
from a coin. The coin has a diameter of 32 mm. This situation is shown in the following diagram.

(a) Use accurate ray tracing of the diagram above to locate the position and size of the
image. Use your results to answer the following questions.

(2 marks)

(b) Which of the following best describes the image formed?

A. real, upright, magnified

C. virtual, upright, magnified

D. virtual, inverted, diminished

(1 mark)

Test (continued)

Question 39 (continued)

(c) Use your ray tracing diagram to estimate the distance of the image from the lens.

(1 mark)

(d) Use your ray tracing diagram to estimate the magnification of the image.
(2 marks)

Question 40

A convex lens has a focal length of 10.0 cm. It is placed 15.0 cm from an illuminated slide. The
slide has a height of 30 mm.

(a) Use the thin lens formula to determine the position of the image that is produced.

(1 mark)

(b) Which of the following best describes the image formed?

A. real, upright, magnified

B. real, inverted, magnified

C. virtual, upright, magnified

D. virtual, inverted, diminished

(1 mark)
 (c) Determine the magnification of the image.

(2 marks)

(d) Determine the height of the image.

(2 marks)

Test (continued)
Question 41

The following graph shows how air pressure varies with time at a point near a musical
instrument.

(a) What is the period of the sound produced by the musical instrument?

(1 mark)

(b) What is the frequency of the sound produced by the musical instrument?

(2 marks)
 (c) If the speed of sound in air is 340 m s-1, what is the wavelength of the sound produced
by the musical instrument?

(2 marks)

Question 42

(a) What is the sound intensity level that corresponds to a sound intensity of 6.0 ´10-6 W
m-2?

(2 marks)

(b) What sound intensity corresponds to a sound intensity level of 75 dB?

Test (continued)

Question 42 (continued)

(c) Calculate the change in sound intensity level when the sound intensity at a point
increases from 3.4 ´ 10-6 W m-2 to 8.3 ´ 10-5 W m-2.

(2 marks)

Question 43

The figure below shows the lowest intensity level that the average person can hear at a given
frequency.
 (a) Estimate the range of frequencies that an average person can hear at a sound intensity
level below 0 dB.

(1 mark)

(b) When compared with the hearing of an average person, Eva is found to have a hearing
loss of 20 dB at 100 Hz. What is the minimum sound intensity level of a sound of 100 Hz
that Eva will be just able to hear?
(1 mark)

(c) Use the graph to determine the loudness of the lowest intensity level that the average
person can hear.

(2 marks)

Test (continued)

Question 44

The sound intensity of a siren at a distance of 4.0 m from the siren is measured to be 1.2 ´ 10-2
W m-2.

(a) Calculate the sound intensity at a distance of 10.0 m from the siren.
(2 marks)

(b) State two assumptions that were made in calculating the answer to part (a).

(2 marks)

Question 45

(a) What is the diffraction of sound?

(1 mark)

(b) When sound diffracts through a gap in a barrier, which of the following causes the effect
to increase (one or more answers)?

A. The width of the gap increases.

B. The width of the gap decreases.

D. The wavelength of the sound decreases.

(1 mark)

(c) Many home theatre, surround-sound and stereo systems use a single subwoofer
speaker. Subwoofers produce low frequency sounds, usually with a wavelength of
greater than 1 metre. The average human head is about 14 cm wide. Why don’t home
theatre, surround-sound and stereo systems use two subwoofer speakers?

(3 marks)
Test (continued)

Question 46

A guitar string has a length of 1.0 m and produces a fundamental frequency of 250 Hz.

Which of the following is the wavelength of the sound produced?

A. 1.0 m

B. 1.4 m

C. 2.0 m

D. 4.0 m

(1 mark)

Question 47

The graph below shows the amplitude of a standing wave produced in a guitar string as a
function of distance from the bridge. The graph shows an instant when the amplitude of the
wave is at a maximum. The frequency being produced by this string is 440.0 Hz.

(a) What resonant frequency above the fundamental (or overtone) is shown in the graph?
(2 marks)

(b) What is the fundamental frequency of this string?

(2 marks)

(c) Sketch a graph of the amplitude of this standing wave one-quarter of a period later than
the instant shown.
(2 marks)

Test (continued)

Question 48

A pipe open at both ends has an effective length of 40 cm.

(a) Calculate the frequency of the first harmonic.

(2 marks)

(b) How many harmonics can be produced by this pipe that can be heard by a person with a
normal hearing range (20 Hz-20 000 Hz)?
(2 marks)

(c) The diagram below shows the variation from normal air pressure along the pipe at an
instant when it is producing a harmonic. What harmonic is represented in the diagram?

(2 marks)

Question 49

A flute can be modelled as a pipe open at both ends. The lowest note that a flute can play is
middle C, which has a frequency of 261.6 Hz.

(a) What is the effective length of the pipe that has a fundamental frequency of 261.6 Hz?
(2 marks)

Test (continued)

Question 49 (continued)

(b) The diagram below represents the distribution of air particles in the flute at a particular
instant when the pressure variations from normal are at a maximum. What harmonic and
overtone are being played? Show your reasoning.

(2 marks)
 (c) Sketch the distribution of air particles one half period later than the instant shown in part
(b).

(2 marks)

Question 50

The clarinet behaves like a pipe closed at one end. A student plays a note with a fundamental
frequency of 466.2 Hz.

(a) What is the effective length of the clarinet pipe when it is playing this note?

(2 marks)
 (b) What is the frequency of the second resonant frequency above the fundamental (or
second overtone) when the clarinet is producing this note? Justify your answer.

(3 marks)

Test (continued)

Question 51

A student produces the following graph showing the variation in air pressure from normal along
a pipe that is resonating with a signal generator.

(a) What is the effective length of the pipe?

(b) Was the pipe open at both ends or closed at one end? Justify your answer.

(2 marks)

(c) What is the wavelength of the sound being produced by the signal generator?

(2 marks)
 (d) What is the fundamental frequency of the pipe? Show your calculations or reasoning.

(3 marks)

Test (continued)

Question 51 (continued)

(e) Which one or more of the following is true of standing waves?

A. They are caused by waves of equal wavelength passing through a medium in opposite
directions.

B. They are caused by waves of any wavelength passing through a medium in opposite
directions.

C. They occur only in air.

D. They have a wavelength equal to the distance between adjacent nodes.

(f) What is the longest wavelength of sound that this pipe will resonate at?

(1 mark)

(g) Calculate the lowest resonant frequency for the pipe.

(h) At which one or more of the following frequencies will the pipe resonate?

A. 235 Hz

B. 940 Hz

C. 1410 Hz

D. 3290 Hz

(2 marks)