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3.1 INTRODUCTION
A “PIPE” is a closed conduit of a circular section which is used to carry fluids under pressure;
and thus it runs full.
Note that, if the pipe is not running full, e.g. flow in sewers and culverts, then the flow is not
under pressure. In this case, the atmospheric pressure exists inside the pipe and therefore
there is a free surface. The flow is thus similar to that of an open channel or river (i.e. the
flow is under the influence of atmospheric pressure).
A “PIPELINE” is a series of small lengths of pipes of uniform or different diameters, joined
together with the help of pipe fittings (e.g. couplings, flanges, bends, elbows, reducers, and
junctions).
• N.B:-Pipe fittings such as valves, sluices, etc, are employed in a pipeline for the purpose of
regulating the flow.
The head losses (𝒉𝑳 ), in pipe flow can be categorized into two main types; i.e. (i) friction head
loss, and (ii) minor head loss.
This is the major head loss which arises from the following factors:-
(i) Internal friction in fluid (water) due to shear stress amongst its layers;
(ii) Turbulence which results from the momentum changes occurring due to motion of
fluid particles from layer to layer; and
(iii) Friction of fluid due to shear stress against the pipe wall.
This type of head loss occurs due to the variations in the velocity of flow; i.e. when there are
changes in the velocity of the flowing fluid. Such changes may be the result of a change in
cross-sectional area and/or changes in the direction of flow passage. So there is a large scale
turbulence that is generated due to the formation of eddies. Consequently, a portion of
energy possessed by the flowing fluid is utilized and ultimately dissipated/lost in the form of
heat.
The minor head losses will occur under the following cases:-
1
(i) Sudden enlargement (or contraction);
(ii) Gradual enlargement (or contraction);
(iii) An obstruction is in the flowing passage;
(iv) At the entrance to a pipe from a large vessel;
(v) At the exit from a pipe; and
(vi) In a bend and other various pipe fittings.
𝒑𝟏 𝒗𝟐 𝒑𝟐 𝒗𝟐
𝒛𝟏 + + 𝟐𝒈𝟏 = 𝒛𝟐 + + 𝟐𝒈𝟐 + 𝒉𝑳(𝟏−𝟐) ..……………………………………………..1.1(i)
𝜸 𝜸
Where, 𝒉𝑳(𝟏−𝟐) = total head loss as water flows from section 1 to section 2
The frictional resistance offered to the flow depends on the type of flow. There are two types
of flow being considered in this context as was observed by Osboine Reynolnds (1883); i.e.
(i) “Laminar” flow; and
(ii) “Turbulent” flow.
2
When the velocity of flow is low there is no intermingling of the fluid particles. They move in
parallel layers (or laminae) sliding past adjacent laminae but not mixing with them. This is a
regime of “laminar flow”.
With increasing velocity of flow, a critical state is reached at which the different layers begin
to waver. With further increase in velocity the intermingling of fluid layers/particles can now
be observed. Hence the flow becomes “turbulent” at higher velocities.
The velocity at which the flow changes from laminar to turbulent for the given fluid,
temperature and pipe is known as “critical velocity”. The state of flow between the above
two type of flow is known as “Transitional” state.
3.2.2 REYNOLDS NUMBER
The occurrence of laminar flow and turbulent flow is governed by the relative magnitude of
the “inertial” and “viscous” forces, such that:-
At “low flow velocities” even for fluids having very small viscosity, the viscous forces become
predominant, and the flow is largely viscous in character. According to:-
(1.) Newton’s Law of viscosity:-
𝑉𝑖𝑠𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑠, 𝑭𝒗 = 𝒔𝒉𝒆𝒂𝒓 𝒔𝒕𝒓𝒆𝒔𝒔, (𝝉) x 𝑺𝒖𝒓𝒇𝒂𝒄𝒆 𝑨𝒓𝒆𝒂 𝒐𝒇 𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒕𝒂𝒄𝒕, (𝑨𝒔 )
𝑳
𝑑𝑣 [ ] 𝑳
=𝝁 [𝑳𝟐 ] = 𝝁 𝑻
[𝑳𝟐 ] = 𝝁[𝑳] [ ], and therefore:
𝑑𝑦 𝑳 𝑻
𝑭𝒗 = 𝝁𝑳𝑽.……………………….…….……………….1.2 (i)
However, at higher flow velocities the “inertial forces” become predominant. According to:-
(2.) Newton’s Second Law of motion:
𝐼𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝐹𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒, 𝑭𝒊 = 𝑴𝒂𝒔𝒔, (𝒎) x 𝑨𝒄𝒄𝒆𝒍𝒆𝒓𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏, (𝒂)
= [𝑫𝒆𝒏𝒔𝒊𝒕𝒚 x 𝑽𝒐𝒍𝒖𝒎𝒆]x 𝑨𝒄𝒄𝒆𝒍𝒆𝒓𝒂𝒕𝒊𝒐𝒏
𝑳 𝑳 𝟐
= 𝝆[𝑳𝟑 ] [𝑻𝟐 ] = 𝝆[𝑳𝟐 ] [𝑻] , and therefore:
𝑭𝒊 = 𝝆𝑳𝟐 𝑽𝟐 .……………………….……….……………….1.2 (ii)
Where;
𝝆 = mass density of the flowing fluid;
𝝁 = dynamic viscosity of the flowing fluid;
𝑽 = characteristic (or representative) velocity of flow;
𝑳 = characteristic linear dimension;
Note: -
• In the case of flow through pipes, the characteristic linear dimension (𝑳) is take as the
diameter ‘𝑫’ of the pipe and the characteristic velocity ‘𝑽’ is taken as the velocity ‘𝒗’ of
flow of the fluid.
𝐼𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝐹𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒, 𝑭𝒊
” = 𝑹𝒆
𝑉𝑖𝑠𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑠 𝐹𝑜𝑟𝑐𝑒, 𝑭𝒗
Where; the symbol 𝑹𝒆 denotes “Reynold’s Number” (a dimensionless parameter);
3
𝐹 𝜌𝐷 2 𝑣 2
Reynold’s Number, 𝑹𝒆 = ( 𝐹𝑖 = )
𝑣 𝜇𝐷𝑣
𝒗𝑫
𝑹𝒆 = 𝝆 ( )………………………………………….….1.2(iii)a
𝝁
𝝆𝒗𝑫 𝒗𝑫
But 𝑹𝒆 = = 𝝁
𝝁 ( )
𝝆
𝒗𝑫
𝑹𝒆 = ………………………………………………………1.2(iii)b
𝝂
𝝁
Where; 𝝂 = 𝝆 = kinematic viscosity of the flowing fluid.
Note that in Pipe flow:-
(i) Laminar flow, 𝑹𝒆 < 2000;
(ii) Transition flow, 𝑹𝒆 = 2000 – 4000; and
(iii) Turbulent flow, 𝑹𝒆 > 4000;
In laminar flow, all of the stream lines or path lines are parallel to each other and the flow is
very smooth, uniform, and steady; and
In turbulent flow, the flow path lines are random and the flow is uneven and fluctuates from
one instant to next.
The friction head losses are proportional to the length of the pipe, i.e. 𝒉𝑳 ∝ 𝑳 and thus
𝒉𝑳
= a constant. This constant represents the slope of the “Total Head Line, (T.H.L.)” called
𝑳
“Friction Slope, 𝑺𝒇 ” (ref: fig. 1.1). Therefore,
𝒉𝑳
𝑺𝒇 = ……………………………………………………………….….4.3(i)
𝑳
Consider a horizontal pipe of uniform cross sectional area (𝑨) carrying a fluid with a mean
velocity (𝑣). Let the sections 1 and 2 (ref: fig. 1.1) be at a distance (𝑳) apart, where intensities
of pressure are 𝒑𝟏 and 𝒑𝟐 , respectively.
Referring to fig. 1.1 and the corresponding energy equation 1.1(i); we put, 𝒛𝟏 = 𝒛𝟐 ; , 𝑨𝟏 =
𝑨𝟐 = 𝑨 and 𝒉𝑳 = 𝒉𝒇 (since ℎ𝑚 = 0).
Therefore, equation 1.1(i) can be transformed into the following:
𝒑𝟏 − 𝒑𝟐
Friction head loss, 𝒉𝒇 = ( ) …………………………………………………………..1.3(ii)
𝜸
Thus, the pressure intensity will be reduced by the frictional resistance in the direction of
flow.
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Now, putting 𝑨 = 𝑷𝑳 where, where 𝑷 = wetted perimeter, and 𝑳 = flow length of the pipe;
and when substituting these parameters in equation 1.2(iv), we get:
𝑭 = 𝒇′ (𝑷𝑳)𝒗𝟐 ………..……………………………………………………. 1.3(iii)
The total pressures (forces) at sections 1 and 2 (ref: fig. 1.1) are 𝒑𝟏 𝑨𝟏 and 𝒑𝟐 𝑨𝟐 respectively.
Resolving all the forces horizontally we get 𝒑𝟏 𝑨𝟏 = 𝒑𝟐 𝑨𝟐 + 𝒇′ (𝑷𝑳)𝒗𝟐 . But noting that 𝑨𝟏 =
𝑨𝟐 = 𝑨 and dividing both sides by 𝜸 and rearranging, the equation becomes: -
𝒑𝟏 − 𝒑𝟐 𝒇′ 𝑷 𝒇′ 𝟏
( )= ( ) 𝑳𝒗𝟐 ; or 𝒉𝒇 = [ 𝑨 ] 𝑳𝒗𝟐
𝜸 𝜸 𝑨 𝜸 ( )
𝑷
𝝅𝑫𝟐
𝑨 ( ) 𝑫
𝟒
𝑹 = (𝑷) (i.e. the hydraulic mean depth) = = for the pipe running full; which on
𝝅𝑫 𝟒
𝒇′ 𝟒 𝟒𝒇′
substitution we get: - 𝒉𝒇 = (𝑫) 𝑳𝒗𝟐 . Now rearrange this to get 𝒉𝒇 = ( ) 𝑳𝒗𝟐 .
𝜸 𝜸
𝟒𝒇′ 𝒇
But, the term ( ) = 𝟐𝒈, denoting “Darcy-Weisbach friction factor (or coefficient of friction)”.
𝜸
So on substitution, we get DARCY-WEISBATCH equation:
𝑳𝒗𝟐
𝒉𝒇 = 𝒇 ( )
𝟐𝒈𝑫
…………………………………………………………..1.3(iv)a
This is the equation which is commonly used for computing loss of head due to friction in
pipes.
𝑄 4𝑄
Now if substituting 𝑣 (= 𝐴 ) = 𝜋𝐷2 in eqn1.3(iv)a we get a relation:
4𝑄 𝟐
𝑳(
2) 16𝒇
𝒉𝒇 = 𝒇 ( 𝜋𝐷 ) = [ ] 𝑳𝑸𝟐
𝟐𝒈𝑫 2𝑔𝐷. 𝜋 2 (𝐷 2 )2
𝟎.𝟎𝟖𝟑𝒇
𝒉𝒇 = ( ) 𝑳𝑸𝟐 = 𝑳𝑲𝑸𝟐 …………………………………………………..1.3(iv)b
𝑫𝟓
𝟎.𝟎𝟖𝟑𝒇
Where; 𝑲 = 𝑫𝟓
EXAMPLE – 1.1
Q. It was observed that the difference in head between the two ends of a pipe 250 m long and 300
mm diameter is 1.5 m. Taking Darcy’s friction factor as 0.01 and neglecting minor losses,
calculate the discharge flowing through the pipe.
Solution:-
Given: - Pipe length, 𝑳 = 250 m; Pipe diameter, 𝑫 = 300 mm = 0.3 m; Difference in head
between the two end of pipe, 𝜹𝒉 = 𝒉𝒇 = 1.5 m; and Darcy’s coefficient of friction, 𝒇 = 0.01
𝟎.𝟎𝟖𝟑𝒇
If Q is the discharge through the pipe, and friction head loss, 𝒉𝒇 = ( ) 𝑳𝑄 2; then
𝑫𝟓
𝒉𝒇 𝑫𝟓 𝒉
𝒇 (0.3)5 x 1.5
𝑸=√ 𝟎.𝟎𝟖𝟑𝒇 = √(𝟎.𝟎𝟖𝟑𝒇)𝑳 = √(0.083 x 0.01) x 250 = 0.133 m3/s (Ans)
( 𝟓 )𝑳
𝑫
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DETERMINATION OF “𝒇-value”
The observations had shown that the 𝒇-value is not constant. It depends on the “Roughness”
condition of the inside surface of the pipe and the “Reynold’s Number” of the flow condition
and thus should be correctly estimated for the correct determination of 𝒉𝒇 .
On the basis of experimental observations, certain relationships were observed:
𝟑𝟐𝝁𝒗𝑳
The “Hagen-Poisseuilli” equation for laminar flow through circular pipes: 𝒑𝟏 − 𝒑𝟐 = ;
𝑫𝟐
𝒑𝟏 − 𝒑𝟐 𝟑𝟐𝝁𝒗𝑳
which when divided by 𝛾 both sides, we get: = 𝒉𝒇 = .
𝜸 𝜸𝑫𝟐
𝑳𝒗𝟐 𝟑𝟐𝝁𝒗𝑳
Substituting equation 1.3(iv) for 𝒉𝒇 and solving for 𝒇-value we get: - 𝒇 ( )= or 𝒇 =
𝟐𝒈𝑫 𝜸𝑫𝟐
𝟑𝟐𝝁(𝟐𝒈) 𝟔𝟒 𝟔𝟒 𝝆𝒗𝑫
= 𝜸 𝒗𝑫 = 𝒗𝑫 . But = 𝑹𝒆 [ref: eqn. 1.2(iii)a], and so on substitution the
𝜸𝒗𝑫 ( )( ) 𝝆( ) 𝝁
𝒈 𝝁 𝝁
equation becomes:-
𝟔𝟒
𝒇 = 𝑹 ………………………………………………1.3(v)
𝒆
EXAMPLE-1.2
Q2. A polymeric coagulant, undiluted, has a absolute viscosity of 4.8 Ns/m2 at 20oC and a specific
gravity of 1.15. This fluid is to be pumped at a rate of 3.78 l/s through 15.25 m long of 15.8 mm
internal diameter pipe. What is the head loss due to friction? [Hint: - You have to determine the flow
condition (Laminar/Turbulent) first, which leads to the decision over which equation to use in computing the
𝒇-value for the pipe].
Solution:-
Given: - Pipe length, 𝑳 = 15.25 m; Pipe diameter, 𝑫 = 15.8 mm = 0.0158 m; Absolute viscosity,
𝝁 = 0.48 kg(f).s/m2; Density of the coagulant 1000 x 1.15 = 1150 kg/m3 and flow (discharge)
𝑸 = 3.78 x 10-3 m3/s.
𝑄 4𝑄 4 x (3.78 x 10−3 )
Velocity of flow, 𝑣 = 𝐴 = 𝜋𝐷2 = = 0.321 m/s.
𝜋 x (0.0158)2
𝝆𝒗𝑫 1150 x 𝟎.𝟑𝟐𝟏 x (0.0158)
Reynolds number, 𝑹𝒆 = = = 12.1 which is < 2,000.
𝝁 0.48
𝟔𝟒 64
Therefore the flow is laminar. So eqn 1.3(v) applies: 𝒇 = = = 5.29
𝑹𝒆 12.1
𝑳𝒗𝟐 15.25 x (0.321)2
So the head loss due to friction, 𝒉𝒇 = 𝒇 (𝟐𝒈𝑫) = 5.29 x (2 ) = 26.7 m (Ans)
x 9.806 x 0.0158
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(2.) FOR TURBULENT FLOW CONDITION (𝑹𝒆 > 4000)
From the experimental work for pipe friction Darcy concluded that the friction factor, 𝒇:-
𝒌
(i) Varies with Reynold’s number, (𝑹𝒆 ) and the relative roughness, ( 𝑫𝒔 );
(ii) Decreases with increasing Reynold’s number: - the rate of decrease being smaller for greater
relative roughness;
(iii) It is independent of Reynold’s number for certain values of relative roughness; and
(iv) Increases with relative roughness for any constant value of Reynold’s number.
8
Figure 1.4 Turbulent Flow Conditions: (i) Smooth, (ii) Transitional, and (iii) Rough
If the film is substantially thicker than the roughness (i.e. 𝜹 > 𝒌𝒔 ) the pipe will be
“hydraulically smooth”, but if it is comparatively thinner then the pipe will be “hydraulically
Rough”. The film thickness can be determined as:
𝟑𝟐.𝟖𝑫
𝜹 = 𝒇𝟎.𝟓 𝑹 ……………………………………………………………….1.3(vi)
𝒆
𝒌𝒔
• Note: - < 0.25, for “Smooth” pipe; and > 6.0, for “Rough” pipe.
𝜹
𝒌
(a) Friction factor in hydraulically smooth pipes ( 𝜹𝒔 < 0.25):-
𝟏 𝒇𝟎.𝟓 𝑹𝒆
= 𝟐. 𝟎𝟑𝒍𝒐𝒈 ( ) ….(a Smooth Pipe Equation)……………………….1.3(vii)
𝒇𝟎.𝟓 𝟐.𝟓𝟏
𝒌
(b) Friction factor in hydraulically rough pipes ( 𝜹𝒔 > 6.0):-
𝟏 𝟑.𝟕𝑫
= 𝟐. 𝟎𝟑𝒍𝒐𝒈 ( ) ….(a Rough Pipe Equation)……………………….1.3(viii)
𝒇𝟎.𝟓 𝒌𝒔
𝒌𝒔
(c) Combination of the two equations (𝟎. 𝟐𝟓 < 𝜹
< 6.0) -
𝟏 𝟐.𝟓𝟏
𝒔 𝒌
= −𝟐. 𝟎𝟑𝒍𝒐𝒈 (𝒇𝟎.𝟓 𝑹 + 𝟑.𝟕𝑫) …….…(a Colebrook-White Equation)………….1.3(ix)
𝒇𝟎.𝟓 𝒆
𝟐.𝟓𝟏𝝂 𝒌
𝒔
𝒗 = −𝟐. 𝟎𝟑𝒍𝒐𝒈√𝟐𝒈𝑫𝑺𝒇 (𝑫 + 𝟑.𝟕𝑫) ……a Colebrook-White Equation)…….1.3(x)
√𝟐𝒈𝑫𝑺𝒇
Where;
𝝁 𝒉𝒇
Kinematic viscosity, 𝝂 = 𝝆; 𝑺𝒇 = 𝑳
; and 𝒉𝒇 = head loss due to friction in a pipe length, L.
9
(3.) APPLICATION OF MOODY DIAGRAM
Nikuradse (1930) made a diagram which plots the relationship between pipe friction factor
𝒌
(f), Reynold’s number (𝑹𝒆 ), and relative roughness ( 𝑫𝒔 ). The equivalent for commercial pipes
with an irregular roughness is known as “Moody Diagram” (Ref:- Appendix 1.3).
Solution:-
Given: - Pipe length, 𝑳 = 90 m; Pipe diameter, 𝑫 = 63mm = 0.063 m; Discharge 𝑸 = 1.5 m3/s
and Kinematic viscosity of flowing water, 𝝂 = 1.007 x 10-6 m2/s.
𝒌𝒔 𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟓
For the pipe of ID = 0.063 m and 𝒌𝒔 = 0.000005; then: - = = 7.94 x 10-5.
𝑫 𝟎.𝟎𝟔𝟑
𝑄 𝟒𝑸 𝟒 𝐱 𝟏.𝟓
But, velocity of flow, 𝑣 = 𝐴 = (𝝅𝑫𝟐 ) = (𝝅(𝟎.0𝟔𝟑)𝟐 ) = 4.812 m/s.
𝒗𝑫 𝟒.𝟖𝟏𝟐 x 0.063
Reynolds number, 𝑹𝒆 = = 1.007 = 3.0105 x 105 (which > 4,000 hence the flow is
𝝂 x 10−6
turbulent).
𝒌𝒔
From Appendix 1.3, with 𝑹𝒆 = 3.0105 x 105 and = 7.94 x 10-5 we get 𝒇 = 0.0152. Now on
𝑫
substitution of these values into eqn 1.3(vi) we get the laminar film thickness as:
The Hazen-Williams equation is such a relation and it basically takes the form:-
𝒗 = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟓𝑪𝑹𝟎.𝟔𝟑 𝑺𝟎.𝟓𝟒 ……………………………………………………………1.3(xi)
Where;
𝒗 = velocity of flow, (m/s);
𝑪 = Hazen-Williams coefficient, a factor dependent on relative roughness;
𝑺 = the slope of the energy grade line (H.G.L.= ℎ𝑓 /𝐿); and
𝑹 = the hydraulic radius or hydraulic Mean Depth
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤, 𝐴 𝑫
= 𝑊𝑒𝑡𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟, 𝑃
= 𝟒
𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑝𝑖𝑝𝑒 𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑓𝑢𝑙𝑙 =(m).
𝒉𝒇
Putting 𝑺 = in equation 1.3(xi) and solving for 𝒉𝒇 , we get:-
𝑳
10
𝟔.𝟖𝑳𝒗𝟏.𝟖𝟓𝟐
Friction head loss, 𝒉𝒇 = ……………….……………….………..1.3(xii)a
𝑪𝒘 𝟏.𝟖𝟓 𝑫𝟏.𝟏𝟕
𝑄 4𝑄
Putting 𝑣 = 𝐴 = 𝜋𝐷2; we get:-
4𝑄 𝟏.𝟖𝟓 4 𝟏.𝟖𝟓
𝟔.𝟖𝑳( ) 𝟔.𝟖( ) 𝟏𝟎.𝟔𝟓𝟖
𝜋𝐷2
𝒉𝒇 = = 𝜋
𝑳𝑄 𝟏.𝟖𝟓 = ( ) 𝑳𝑸𝟏.𝟖𝟓
𝑪𝟏.𝟖𝟓𝟐 𝑫𝟏.𝟏𝟕 𝑪𝟏.𝟖𝟓 𝑫𝟏.𝟏𝟔𝟕 (𝐷2 )𝟏.𝟖𝟓𝟐 𝑪𝒘 𝟏.𝟖𝟓 𝑫𝟒.𝟖𝟕𝟏
EXAMPLE-1.4
Q. A pipe has an inside diameter (ID) of 317.5 mm and relative roughness 0.00001.
(a) Use the Hazen-Williams equation with 𝑪𝑾 = 120 and Moody’s diagram to estimate the
Darcy-Weisbach friction coefficient (i.e. the 𝒇-value). The kinematic viscosity of water, 𝝂 =
1.007 x 10-6 m2/s.
(b) By Darcy Weisbach equation, find: - how much flow can this pipe carry if the allowable head
loss is 3.5 m in a length of 200 m?
Solution:-
𝐷 0.63 ℎ𝐿 0.54
(a) 𝒗 = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟓𝑪𝒘 𝑹𝟎.𝟔𝟑 𝑺𝟎.𝟓𝟒 = 0.85 𝐶 ( 4 ) (𝐿)
0.3175 0.63 3.5 0.54
= 0.85 x 120 x ( ) (200) = 2.32 m/s.
4
𝒗𝑫 2.32 x 0.3175
Reynolds number, 𝑹𝒆 = = = 733,000 which together with relative
𝝂 1.007 x 10−6
𝒌𝒔
roughness = 0.00001 (given):
𝑫
appying Appendix: 1.3 (i.e Moody’s diagram) we get:
Darcy’s factor, 𝒇 = 0.0125 (Ans)
𝑳𝒗𝟐
(b) Using Darcy-Weisbach equation: 𝒉𝒇 = 𝒇 (𝟐𝒈𝑫) and thus, the velocity of flow,
𝟐𝒈𝑫.𝒉𝒇 2 𝟐 𝐱 𝟗.𝟖𝟎𝟔 𝐱 𝟎.𝟑𝟏𝟕𝟓 𝐱 𝟑.𝟓 2
𝑣 = [ ] = [ ] = 2.95 m/s.
𝑓.𝐿 0.0125 x 200
𝜋𝐷 2 𝜋(0.3175)2
Therefore, the flow 𝑸 = 𝑨𝒗 = x𝑣 = x 2.95 = 0.234 m/s (Ans)
4 4
11
A “Normogram” which permits graphical solution of the Hazen-Williams equation can be
used. The graph will yield discharge, pipe size, or energy slope given the other two variables.
For the use of this Nomogram ref: Appendix 1.2.
Q1.
(a) Find the loss of head due to friction in a pipe of 1 m (ID) and 15 m long. The velocity of water in
the pipe is 1 m/s. Use Darcy-Weisbach friction factor as 0.02.
(b) Estimate size of the supply conduit leading to adequate service reservoir serving a town of
25,000 population at per capita demand of 135 𝒍/𝒅𝒂𝒚. The pipe’s length is 3.5 km and its Hazen-
William constant is 90. RL = 90.000 at the drawing point at the source and RL = 115.000 at the
discharging point into the reservoir.
Q2.
It was observed that the difference of heads between the two ends of a pipe 250 m long and 300
mm (ID) is 1.5 m.
(a) Using Hazen-William coefficient, 𝑪𝒘 -value as 110 and neglecting minor losses, calculate the
discharge flowing through the pipe.
(b) (i) Determine the corresponding Darcy’s friction factor (f) for this pipe. (ii) What is the Reynold
number of this flowing water at 30oC? (Apply appropriate tables/chart to extract required data
not given here).
Q3.
(a) A pipeline 22.5 cm in diameter and 1.58 km long has a slope of 1:200 for the first790 m and
1:100 for the next 790 m. The pressure at the upper end of the pipeline is 1.1 kg/cm2 and at the
lower end is 0.55 kg/cm2. Taking 𝒇 = 0.032 determine the discharge through the pipe.
(b) A 3 km pipeline is required to transport 56,775 m3/day from a supply reservoir to a storage
reservoir
Q4.
(a) Find the loss of head due to friction in a pipe of 1 m diameter and 5 km long. The velocity of
water (at 20oC) in the pipe is 1 m/s. The pipe material is Galvanized Steel (GS).
(Hint: - Apply appropriate tables/charts to extract the values for dynamic viscosity, 𝝁 and mass
density for water, 𝝆; and the 𝒌𝒔 -value for GS.
(b) Find suitable pipe diameter to carry 15 𝒍/𝒔 and the velocity of water from the service line to an
overhead tank. The total length of the service main is 200 m, and the residential pressure
available at the take-off point on the supply line is 15 m. Hazen-William constant is 𝑪𝒘 =110
and velocity. (Hint: - make use of Hazen-Williams Nomogram for 𝑪𝒘 = 100).
Q5.
(a) A steel pipe (𝑪𝒘 = 120) has an inside diameter (ID) of 320 mm. How much flow can this pipe
carry if the allowable head loss is 3.5 m in a length of 200 m?
Note:-Your calculation should base on the use of Hazen-William’s Normogram.
(b) Calculate the head loss in friction in discharging 150 m3/min of water through 1.2 m diameter
steel main 900 m long. Darcy’s friction factor of steel is 0.028.
12
Q6.
The population of a city is 800.000 and is to be supplied with water from a reservoir 6.4 km away.
Water is to be supplied at the rate of 140l/head/day and half the supply is to be delivered in 8 hrs.
The full supply level of the reservoir is R.L. 180.00, and its lowest level is R.L. 105.00. The delivery
end of the main is at R.L. 22.50, and the head required there is 12 m. Find the diameter of the pipe.
Use Hazen-Williams formula with 𝑪𝒘 = 140.
Q7.
A pipe 5 cm is 6 cm long and the velocity of flow in the pipe is 2.4 m/s.
(a) What loss of head and the corresponding power would be saved if the central 2 m length of
pipe is replaced by 7.5 cm diameter pipe, the change of section being sudden? Use Darcy-
Weisbach formula with 𝒇 = 0.04 for the pipes of both diameters.
(b) Estimate the 𝑪𝒘 -value of the pipe.
Q8.
(a) Using the Hazen-William’s Normogram, find the total friction head loss in 25 mm diameter of a
GI-pipe discharging 0.25 l/s in a total length of 300 m. Use 𝑪𝒘 = 90.
(b) A farmer has located a spring up in the hill 1750 m away at an elevation of 100 m above his
farmstead. He has managed to locate sufficient cheap second-hand pipe of 40 mm diameter.
The flow velocity is 1.2 m/s and its temperature is 25oC. How much water will he get?
Losses in fittings and transitions in pipes are called “minor losses”. In long pipelines, fitting
losses may be negligible, but in situations such as those which exist within water and
wastewater plants, these losses may be far greater than those due to friction.
Since the losses of energy have been found to vary as the square of the mean velocity, they
are generally expressed in terms of velocity head of flowing liquid:
𝒗𝟐
𝒉𝒎 = 𝒌 𝟐𝒈…………………………………………………………….1.4(i)
Where;
𝒌 = a function of changes in direction, obstructions, or changes in velocity.
Since 𝒌 is not a “friction” factor, then it does not vary with 𝑹𝒆 (Reynolds number). It is
constant for a given fitting, but is not constant for all fittings of a given type because of lack
of geometric similarity among different sizes. It has been found that 𝒌 varies with fitting size
in the same way that 𝒇 varies with pipe size in wholly rough or completely turbulent flow
13
3.4.1 LOSSES DUE TO SUDDEN ENLARGEMENT AND CONTRACTION
Due to sudden change in cross-section of the flow passage, the liquid emerging from the
smaller pipe is not able to follow the abrupt change of the boundary. Consequently, at this
section the flow separates from the boundary, forming regions of separation in which
turbulent eddies occur.
Expansions in pipelines produce substantial energy losses. At abrupt (i.e. sudden)
enlargements, application of momentum equation gives an energy loss, sometimes called the
“Borda-Carnot loss”, equal to:
(𝒗𝟏 −𝒗𝟐 )𝟐
𝒉𝒎 = ………………………………………………….1.4(ii)
𝟐𝒈
Referring to: fig. 1.5(a), consider two sections 1-1 and 2-2 located in the narrower and wider
pipes respectively and a control volume between them including the “non-uniform region of
separation”.
𝑄 = 𝐴1 𝑣1 = 𝐴2 𝑣2 (a continuity equation). Since there is a change in velocity (𝑣1 > 𝑣2 )
then there is a “change of momentum”; which its change per second is equal to the “net
force” acting in the direction of flow on the liquid in the control volume.
Let 𝒑′ = mean pressure of the eddying fluid over the annular face AB joining the two pipes.
The force acting on the liquid in the control volume in the direction of flow:
= 𝑝1 𝐴1 + 𝒑′ (𝐴2 − 𝐴1 ) − 𝑝2 𝐴2
But it is experimentally found that 𝒑′ = 𝑝1
Therefore, the net force = ( 𝑝1 − 𝑝2 )𝐴2
𝛾𝑄
Momentum of liquid passing through section 1-1 = ( 𝑔 ) 𝑣1 ; and
𝛾𝑄
That one passing through section 2-2 = ( 𝑔 ) 𝑣2
14
𝛾𝑄 𝛾𝑄 𝛾𝑄
Therefore, momentum per second = ( 𝑔 ) 𝑣1 − ( 𝑔 ) 𝑣2 = (𝑣1 − 𝑣2 ), since 𝑣1 > 𝑣2
𝑔
𝛾𝑄
From the Impulse-Momentum equation: ( 𝑝1 − 𝑝2 )𝐴2 = (𝑣1 − 𝑣2 )
𝑔
𝒑𝟏 − 𝒑𝟐 𝑸
Therefore, ( ) = 𝒈𝑨 (𝒗𝟏 − 𝒗𝟐 )…………………………………………….1.4(iii)
𝜸 𝟐
Let ℎ𝑚 = the minor head loss between the sections 1-1 and 2-2
𝒑𝟏 𝒗𝟐 𝒑𝟐 𝒗𝟐
Then by Bernoulli’s equation, 𝒛𝟏 + + 𝟐𝒈𝟏 = 𝒛𝟐 + + 𝟐𝒈𝟐 + 𝒉𝒎(𝟏−𝟐)
𝜸 𝜸
The pipe being horizontal, 𝒛𝟏 = 𝒛𝟐 ; when solving for 𝒉𝒎 we thus get:
𝑝1 − 𝑝2 𝒗𝟐𝟐 −𝒗𝟐𝟏
𝒉𝒎 = ( )+( ), and substituting equation 1.4(ii)
𝜸 2𝑔
𝑸 𝒗𝟐 − 𝒗𝟐𝟏
𝒉𝒎 = (𝒗𝟏 − 𝒗𝟐 ) + ( 𝟐 )
𝒈𝑨𝟐 2𝑔
𝑸
But, 𝑸 = 𝑨𝟐 𝒗𝟐 ; so 𝑨𝟐 = 𝒗 :
𝟐
𝟏 𝒗𝟐𝟐 −𝒗𝟐𝟏 2𝒗𝟐 (𝒗𝟏 − 𝒗𝟐 ) + (𝒗𝟐𝟐 −𝒗𝟐𝟏 )
Therefore, 𝒉𝒎 = 𝒈 𝒗𝟐 (𝒗𝟏 − 𝒗𝟐 ) + ( )=
2𝑔 2𝑔
2𝒗𝟏 𝒗𝟐 − 2𝒗𝟐𝟐 + 𝒗𝟐𝟐 − 𝒗𝟐𝟏 𝒗𝟐𝟏 − 2𝒗𝟏 𝒗𝟐 + 2𝒗𝟐𝟐 − 𝒗𝟐𝟐
= = −( )
2𝑔 2𝑔
(𝒗𝟏 −𝒗𝟐 )𝟐 𝒗 𝟐 𝒗𝟐
𝒉𝒎 = ( ) = (𝟏 − 𝒗𝟐 ) 𝟏
…………………………………………….1.4 (iv)a
2𝑔 𝟏 2𝑔
(𝒗𝟏 −𝒗𝟐 )𝟐 𝒗𝟏 𝟐 𝒗𝟐
𝟐
Similarly, 𝒉𝒎 = ( )=( − 𝟏) ……………..…………………………….1.4 (iv)b
2𝑔 𝒗𝟐 2𝑔
From the continuity equation, 𝑨𝟏 𝒗𝟏 = 𝑨𝟐 𝒗𝟐 then 𝒗𝟏 𝑫𝟐𝟏 = 𝒗𝟐 𝑫𝟐𝟐 ; then substitute 𝒗𝟐 =
𝑫 𝟐 𝑫 𝟐
(𝑫𝟏 ) 𝒗𝟏 or 𝒗𝟏 = (𝑫𝟐 ) 𝒗𝟐 inside the brackets of equations 1.4 (iii)a & b.
𝟐 𝟏
So the following equations can be obtained:
𝑫 𝟐 𝟐 𝒗𝟐 𝟏 𝟐
𝟐 𝟐
𝒗𝟏 𝒗𝟐
EITHER 𝒉𝒎 = [𝟏 − (𝑫𝟏 ) ] 𝟏
= [𝟏 − (𝜶) ] = 𝒌 𝟐𝒈𝟏 ………………………………….1.4 (iv)c
𝟐 𝟐𝒈 𝟐𝒈
𝟐
𝟏 𝟐
Where, 𝒌 = [𝟏 − (𝜶) ]
𝟐 𝟐
𝑫𝟐 𝟐 𝒗𝟐 𝒗𝟐 𝒗𝟐
OR 𝒉𝒎 = [(𝑫 ) − 𝟏] = [𝜶𝟐 − 𝟏]𝟐 𝟐𝒈𝟐 = 𝒌 𝟐𝒈𝟐 ………………………………….1.4 (iv)d
𝟏 𝟐𝒈
Where, 𝒌 = [𝛼 2 − 1]2 ; and
𝐷
𝜶 = 𝐷2 which is known as “Expansion Ratio”
1
15
determined easily. Moreover, in the region just u/s of the junction there being converging or
accelerating flow no major loss of energy occurs.
However, immediately d/s of the junction in the smaller pipe a “vena-contracta” is formed.
In between the vena-contracta and the wall of the pipe a lot of eddies are formed which cause
a considerable dissipation of energy and thus loss of energy.
Between the vena-contracta and section 2-2 at a certain distance away from it where again
the velocity has again become almost uniform, the flow pattern is similar to that after sudden
enlargement. Thus a similar equation is applicable between the vena-contractor c-c section
and section 2-2:
(𝒗𝒄 −𝒗𝟐 )𝟐
𝒉𝒎 = ( )………………………………………………..1.4 (v)a
𝟐𝒈
𝑨𝒄 𝒗𝟐
From the continuity equation: - 𝑨𝒄 𝒗𝒄𝟏 = 𝑨𝟐 𝒗𝟐 ; = = 𝑪𝒄 (known as “Coefficient of
𝑨𝟐 𝒗𝒄
Contraction”).
𝟐
𝒗𝒄 𝟐 𝒗𝟐 𝟏 𝒗𝟐𝟐
𝟐
The equation becomes: - 𝒉𝒎 = (𝒗 − 𝟏) =⌈ 𝒗 − 𝟏⌉ and therefore:
𝟐 𝟐𝒈 ( 𝟐) 𝟐𝒈
𝒗𝒄
𝟏 𝟐 𝒗𝟐 𝒗𝟐
𝟐
𝒉𝒎 = [𝑪 − 𝟏] = 𝒌 (𝟐𝒈𝟐 ) …………………………………………..1.4 (v)b
𝒄 𝟐𝒈
𝑨𝒄 𝒗𝟐
Where, 𝑪𝒄 = 𝑨 = (i.e. Coefficient of Contraction)
𝟐 𝒗𝒄
𝟏 𝟐
Generally the 𝒌 = [ − 𝟏] is taken to be equal to 0.5
𝑪𝒄
EXAMPLE-1.5
Q. Water flows vertically downwards through a 15 cm diameter pipe at the rate of l/s. The pipe
suddenly enlarges to 30 cm diameter. A is a point 50 cm distant from and above the centre C of
section of enlargement and B is another point 50 cm below the same. It was found that pressure
gauge connected at A reads 210.92 kN/m2.
Determine the pressure at point B, neglecting the friction loss between A and B.
Recalculate the pressure at B if the same discharge flows in a reverse direction; i.e. up the pipe,
considering the pressure at A is unchanged. Assume the coefficient 𝑪𝒄 .
Solution:-
16
1
𝒗𝟏
0.5m
𝑨
C
0.5m 𝑩
𝒗𝟐
1
2
Figure 1.6
(a) When the flow is in the downward direction; there is “sudden enlargement” loss at the
section of enlargement. Hence, the head loss:
(𝒗𝟏 − 𝒗𝟐 )𝟐 (𝟑.𝟗𝟔 – 𝟎.𝟗𝟗)𝟐
ℎ𝑚 = = = 0.45 m
2𝑔 2 x 9.81
Applying the energy (Bernoulli’s) equation:
𝒑𝟏 𝒗𝟐𝟏 𝒑𝟐 𝒗𝟐𝟐
𝒛𝟏 + + = 𝒛𝟐 + + + 𝒉𝒎(𝟏−𝟐)
𝜸 𝟐𝒈 𝜸 𝟐𝒈
Given: - pressure intensity at A; 𝒑𝟏 = 210.92 kN/m2; and taking the datum level at point B
𝒛𝟏 = 0.5 + 0.5 = 1.0 m; and 𝒛𝟐 = 0; 𝜸 = 9.81 kN/m3 (for water) and 𝒈= 9.81 m/s2.
Now substituting all the necessary variables (computed above) in energy equation:-
210.92 (3.92)2 𝒑𝟐 (0.99)2
1.0 + + = 0+ + + 0.45
9.81 2 x 9.81 9.81 2 x 9.81
𝒑𝟐
OR 1.0 + 21.50 + 0. 799 = 0 + 9.81 + 0.04995 + 0.45
𝒑𝟐
23.299 = + 0.49995
9.81
𝒑𝟐
= (23.299 − 0.49995 )= 22.799
9.81
Therefore, 𝒑𝟐 = 22.799 x 9.81= 223.66 kN/m2
(b) When the flow is in the upward direction; there is “sudden contraction” loss at the section
of contraction. Hence, the head loss:
17
𝟏 𝟐 𝒗𝟐 𝒗𝟐
𝟐
𝒉𝒎 = [𝑪 − 𝟏] = 𝒌 (𝟐𝒈𝟐 ) …….. eqn.1.4 (v)b but in this problem, the velocity to be
𝒄 𝟐𝒈
used in the smaller pipe now becomes 𝒗𝟐 (so that, 𝒗𝟐 = 3.96 m/s):
𝟏 𝟐 𝒗𝟐 𝟏 𝟐 (3.96)2
𝟐
Given 𝑪𝒄 = 0.64; 𝒉𝒎 = [𝑪 − 𝟏] = [0.64 − 𝟏] = 0.25 m
𝒄 𝟐𝒈 𝟐 x 𝟗.𝟖𝟏
The energy equation is thus:-
𝒑𝟏 𝒗𝟐𝟏 𝒑𝟐 𝒗𝟐𝟐
𝒛𝟏 + + = 𝒛𝟐 + + + 𝒉𝒎(𝟏−𝟐)
𝜸 𝟐𝒈 𝜸 𝟐𝒈
Where; 𝒛𝟏 = 0, 𝒗𝟏 = 0.99, and 𝒑𝟏 = (required to be calculated), 𝜸 = 9.81 kN/m3
𝒛𝟐 = 1.0m, 𝒗𝟐 = 3.96, 𝒑𝟐 = 210.92 kN/m3, 𝒉𝒎(𝟏−𝟐) = 0.25 m, and 𝒈 = 9.81 m/s2
𝑝1 (0.99)2 210.92 (3.96)2
0+ + = 1.0 + + + 0.25
9.81 2 x 9.81 9.81 2 x 9.81
(3.96)2 − (0.99)2
𝒑𝟏 = (9.81 x 1.25) + 210.92 + ( ) = 230.53 kN/m2 (Ans)
2
The energy loss is considerably reduced if in place of a sudden contraction (or enlargement)
is replaced is replaced by gradual contraction (or enlargement). This is because in a gradual
contraction (or enlargement) the velocity of the fluid is gradually increased (or reduced) and
thus, as far as possible, the formation of eddies responsible for the dissipation of energy is
eliminated.
Diffuser Conffuser
𝑫𝟏 𝜽 𝑫𝟐 𝑫𝟏 𝑫𝟐
𝑣1 𝑣2
Figure 1.7 (a) Gradual Enlargement (or Expansion); and (b) Gradual Contraction
In gradual enlargements the head loss depends on the shape. In a cone-shaped enlargement
there is a combination of “frictional loss” and “eddying loss” resulting from expansion. When
the central angle (𝜽 = angle of divergence) is small, friction predominates.
When it is large, eddying is the most significant. It has been found that there is both a
minimum and maximum value for 𝒌 (at about 𝜃 = 6𝑜 and 60𝑜 respectively).
Note that, beyond 𝜃 = 45𝑜 the head loss is at least as great as that in an abrupt expansion.
For such enlargements:
18
(𝒗𝟏 −𝒗𝟐 )𝟐
𝒉𝒎 = 𝒌𝟏 ……………………………………………….1.4 (vi)
2𝑔
Where, 𝒌 varies with the central angle, 𝜃; from about 0.1 to at least 1.0.
However, the energy loss may be calculated in terms of the u/s velocity alone by defining the
𝑫𝟏 𝒗𝟐
“contraction ratio, 𝜷 ” as 𝜷 = . Then given, 𝒗𝟏 = ===➔ 𝒗𝟐 = 𝜷𝟐 𝒗𝟏 which when
𝑫𝟐 𝜷𝟐
𝟐
(𝒗𝟏 −𝜷𝟐 𝒗𝟏 )
substituted in eqn. 1.4 (vi), we get: 𝒉𝒎 = 𝒌𝟏 . This is simplified to the fllowing:-
2𝑔
𝒗𝟐
𝒉𝒎 = 𝒌𝟏 (𝟏 − 𝜷𝟐 )𝟐 2𝑔𝟏 …………………………………………………..1.4 (vii)
Where;
𝒗𝟏 = the velocity in the smaller pipe; and
The entire coefficient 𝒌𝟏 (𝟏 − 𝜷𝟐 )𝟐 varies with the central angle, 𝜽 [(ref: the next eqn1.4 (viii)]
Gradual contractions produce insignificant head losses in most cases; but the contraction will
increase the velocity and the pressure downstream will become less than indicated by eqn
1.1(ii). If the contraction is particularly long (i.e. small central angle, 𝜃), the net loss will be
greater as a result of friction. Now, it is recommended to use eqn. 1.4(ix) above.
EXAMPLE-1.6
Q. Estimate the head loss factor 𝒌 for a venturi which has an entrance angle of 𝟐𝟎𝒐 and an exit
angle of 𝟓𝒐 . Express k in terms of both the velocity in pipe and that in the throat of the venturi.
Solution:-
19
𝑣3 = 𝑣1
𝑣1 𝑣2
Figure 1.8
Note: - both are in terms of the “velocity in the throat”. To express this loss in terms of the
velocity in the pipe, then by continuity equation: 𝑣1 𝐴1 = 𝑣2 𝐴2 ;
2
𝐴1 𝑑1 2 1 𝟏 2 𝟏 4
𝑣2 = 𝐴 𝑣1 = 𝑣1 (𝑑 ) = 𝑣1 ( 𝑑2 ) = 𝑣1 (𝜷) so that, 𝑣22 = 𝑣12 (𝜷)
2 2
𝑑1
𝒗𝟐 𝒗𝟐
On substitution in the eqn: 𝒉𝒎 = 𝒌. 𝟐𝒈𝟐 = (𝒌𝒄 + 𝒌𝒆 ). 𝟐𝒈𝟐 we thus obtain: -
𝟏 4
𝑣21 ( )
𝟐 𝟐 𝟐 𝜷
= (𝟎. 𝟏𝟑𝟗[𝟏 − 𝜷 ] + 𝟎. 𝟏𝟏𝟑[𝟏 − 𝜷 ] )
𝟐𝒈
𝟐
𝟎.𝟏𝟑𝟗[𝟏−𝜷𝟐 ]+𝟎.𝟏𝟏𝟑[𝟏−𝜷𝟐 ] 𝒗𝟐
=( ) 𝟐𝒈𝟏 Answer
𝜷𝟒
(1.) LOSS AT PIPE EXIT: FREE or SUBMERGED END DISCHARGING INTO A LARGE TANK
This represents a special case of EXPANSION loss. The pipe outlet end may be left either freely
discharging into air or submerged and the liquid being discharged into a large body of static
liquid [ref: fig. 1.7(a)]
The liquid leaving the pipe still possesses kinetic energy corresponding to the velocity of flow
𝒗1 of the liquid in the pipe. This energy is ultimately dissipated either in the form of a “free
jet” or it is “lost in turbulence” in the reservoir depending on the condition of the outlet. The
20
discharge from a pipeline in such cases may be considered as a special case of Borda-Carnot
expansion in which 𝒗𝟐 = 0.
𝒗2 = 0 𝒗1 = 0
2 1
Reservoir Reservoir
Pipe 𝒗1 𝒗2 Pipe
1 2
(a) Loss at Pipe Exit into a Large Tank (Expansion) (b) Loss at Pipe Entrance from a Large Tank
(Contraction)
Figure 1.9 (a) Loss at Pipe Exit into a Large Tank; and (b) Loss at Pipe Entrance from a Large Tank
Alternatively;
When the outlet end of the pipe is connected to a large reservoir, the flow pattern is similar
to that of a sudden expansion. Hence the loss may be determined by using the equation
1.4(iv)c:
𝟐
𝒗𝟐 𝟏 𝟐
𝒉𝒎 = 𝒌 𝟐𝒈𝟏 in which 𝒌 = [𝟏 − (𝜶) ] with the condition that 𝑫𝟐 => ∞.
𝑫𝟐 𝟏 𝟏
Therefore the expansion ratio, 𝜶 = => ∞ ; = = 0; and thus 𝒌 = [1 − (0)2 ]2 = 1
𝑫𝟏 𝜶 ∞
When a liquid enters a pipe from a large vessel (e.g. tank/reservoir) [ref: fig.6.7(b)] some loss
of energy (i.e. inlet energy loss) occurs at the entrance.
The flow pattern at the entrance to the pipe is similar to that in the case of sudden
contraction. The loss of head in this case is assumed to be the same as in the case of a sudden
contraction; and thus, the “square-edged” pipe entrance from a large tank is a special case of
sudden contraction in which the contraction ratio, 𝜷 = 0 and 𝒗𝟏 = 0.
The sudden contraction represented by large values of 𝜃 produces a vena-contracta and a
consequent expansion in which energy losses are high, reaching a maximum loss such that
referring to eqn 1.4 (ix), 𝜃 = 180𝑜 .
21
𝜽 𝟎.𝟓 𝟏𝟖𝟎 𝟎.𝟓
Hence, 𝒌 = 0.5 [𝒔𝒊𝒏 (𝟐)] [1 − 𝛽 2 ] = 0.5 [𝒔𝒊𝒏 ( )] [1 − (0)2 ] = 0.5; and
𝟐
𝒗𝟐 = 𝑣 = velocity of flow in the pipe
𝒗𝟐
𝒉𝒎 = 𝒌 …………….………………………………………………1.4 (xi)
𝟐𝒈
Where; 𝒌 = 0.5
• Note: -If the entrance is rounded, the loss can be substantially reduced. Any radius of rounding
“greater than 0.14D” will prevent formation of the vena-contracta. For such a “bell-mouth”
entrance “𝑘” is commonly taken as 0.04. Actual values range up to 0.5 depending upon the radius
of rounding.
EXAMPLE-1.7
Q. Water flows from one basin with a water surface at 100-m elevation to another with water
surface at 99.5 m. Flow is a 3.05 m long, ID = 213.1 mm commercial steel pipe with a square
edged entrance and submerged discharge. What is the flow?
Solution:-
𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝒎
∆𝒉 = 𝒉𝑳
𝟗𝟗.
𝟗𝟗.𝟓𝒎
𝟓𝒎
𝟗𝟗. 𝟓𝒎
𝑳 =3m 𝑳
Figure 1.10 =
The total energy loss is the sum of friction, entrance, and exit losses. Bernoullli’s equation
between the two basins is:
𝒑𝟏 𝒗𝟐 𝒑𝟐 𝒗𝟐
𝒛𝟏 + + 𝟐𝒈𝟏 = 𝒛𝟐 + + 𝟐𝒈𝟐 + 𝒉𝑳(𝟏−𝟐)
𝜸 𝜸
Where, 𝒉𝑳(𝟏−𝟐) = head loss as water flows from section 1 to section 2
𝒉𝑳(𝟏−𝟐) = 100 – 99.5 = 0.5 m; also
𝒗𝟐 𝒗𝟐 𝑳𝒗𝟐
𝒉𝑳(𝟏−𝟐) = 𝒌𝒆𝒏𝒕 𝟐𝒈 + 𝒌𝒆𝒙𝒊𝒕 𝟐𝒈 + 𝒇 (𝟐𝒈𝑫) and thus,
𝑣2 𝑣2 3.05𝑣 2 𝒗𝟐 𝟑.𝟎𝟓
0.5 = 0.5 2𝑔 + 1.0 2𝑔 + 𝑓 (2𝑔(0.2131)) OR 0.5 = (𝟎. 𝟓 + 𝟏. 𝟎 + 𝒇)
𝟐𝒈 𝟎.𝟐𝟏𝟑𝟏
But Reynolds number, 𝑹𝒆 and Darcy friction factor, 𝒇 are unknown; now assuming complete
turbulence flow condition and a hydraulically rough pipe, from Appendix 1.4 for a commercial
steel pipe ID = 213.1 mm; we get friction factor, 𝒇 = 0.014.
Now, substituting 𝒇 -value in the above equation we get,
22
3.05 𝑣2
[1.0 + 0.5 + 0.014 (0.2131)] 2 x 9.81 = 0.5 OR 0.087𝑣2 = 0.5
0.5
Now solving, we get flow velocity as: 𝑣 = √0.087 ≈ 2.40 m/s
𝑣𝐷 2.40 x 0.213
Reynolds number, 𝑹𝒆 = = 1.007 x 10−6 = 507,885 ≈ 5.089 x 105 and (𝒌𝒔 = 0.00381 mm for a
𝜈
𝒌𝒔 𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟑𝟖𝟏
commercial steel and 𝑫 = 213.1mm) = = 1.79 x 10-5,
𝑫 𝟐𝟏𝟑.𝟏
Then using Appendix 1.3 (i.e. Moody’s diagram), we get Darcy friction factor as: 𝒇 ≈ 0.0123
π(0.2131)2
The total flow: 𝑸 = 𝑨𝒗 = x 2.42 ≈ 0.086 m3/s (Ans)
4
Alternatively:-
23
Figure 1.11 Obstacles in the Flow Passage
Between the vena-contracta section 1-1and the section 2-2 at a certain distance away from
the obstruction, on its d/s, where the velocity has again become almost uniform; the flow
pattern is similar to that after sudden enlargement:
𝐴
The continuity equation, 𝐶𝑐 (𝐴 − 𝑎)𝑣𝑐 = 𝐴𝑣; therefore, 𝑣𝑐 = (𝐶 ). When this equation
𝑐 (𝐴−𝑎)
(𝒗𝒄 −𝒗𝟐 )𝟐
is substituted in the expression for minor head loss, 𝒉𝒎 = , simplifying and
𝟐𝒈
rearranging it we get:
𝐴 2 𝑣2
𝒉𝒎 = [(𝐶 ) − 1] ……………………………………………………………1.4(xii)
𝑐 (𝐴−𝑎) 2𝑔
24
3.5.2 FRICTION OR MAJOR) HEAD LOSSES
𝟎.𝟎𝟖𝟑𝒇
Therefore, 𝒉𝒇 = ( ) 𝑳𝑸𝟐 = 𝑲𝑳𝑸𝟐 ……………………...…………………….1.5 (ii)
𝑫𝟓
𝟎.𝟎𝟖𝟑𝒇
Where; 𝑲 = 𝑫𝟓
10.658
Therefore, 𝒉𝒇 = ( 𝐶 1.852 4.871 ) 𝑳𝑸𝟏.𝟖𝟓𝟐 = 𝑲𝑳𝑸𝟏.𝟖𝟓𝟐 ……………………...…………………….1.5 (iii)
𝑤 𝑫
𝟏𝟎.𝟔𝟓𝟖
Where; 𝑲 =
𝑪𝒘 𝟏.𝟖𝟓𝟐 𝑫𝟒.𝟖𝟕𝟏
SUMMARY:-
Generally, for a single pipe length: 𝒉𝒇 = 𝑲𝑳𝑸𝒙
But for a pipeline (i.e. for a number of pipes), the total head loss:
25
𝒉𝑳 = (∑ 𝒉𝒇 + ∑ 𝒉𝒎 ) = ∑ 𝑲𝑳𝑸𝒙 + ∑ 𝒌𝑲′ 𝑸𝟐 ……………………………………..1.5(v)
0.083
Where; and 𝑲′ = ; and the index, 𝒙 = 2.0, for Darcy-Weisbach equation;
𝑫𝟒
= 1.852, for Hazen-Williams equation; and
= 2.0, for Manning equation;
𝟎.𝟎𝟖𝟑𝒇
The factor, 𝑲 = 𝑫𝟓
, for Darcy-Weisbach equation;
𝟏𝟎.𝟔𝟓𝟖
= , for Hazen-Williams equation; and
𝑪𝒘 𝟏.𝟖𝟓𝟐 𝑫𝟒.𝟖𝟕𝟏
𝟏𝟎.𝟐𝟗𝟒𝒏𝟐
= 𝑫𝟓.𝟑𝟑𝟑 , for Manning equation;
Where; 𝑳 = pipe length; 𝑸 = Discharge through the pipe; 𝒇 = Darcy-Weisbach friction
factor; 𝑪𝒘 = Hazen–Williams coefficient; 𝒏 = Manning roughness coefficient; and
𝑫 = Internal Diameter (ID) of the pipe
3.5.3 TUTORIAL QUESTIONS – II
Q1.
A pipe 60 m long and 15 cm (ID) having f = 0.04 is connected horizontally to a water tank at one end,
and flows freely into the atmosphere at the other end. The height of water level in the tank is 2.6
m above the centre of the pipe. Determine. Considering all the minor losses as well as friction
losses, determine the discharge through the pipe.
Q2.
A pipeline ABCD joins two tanks at A (water surface RL 100.00) and D (water surface RL 78.00). At
B there is a gradual contraction from an ID = 60 cm to 30 cm and a gradual expansion an ID = 30 cm
to 60 cm. Portions: - AB = 200 m, and f = 0.04; BC = 300 m and Hazen-Williams C = 140; and CD =
180 m f = 0.024. The central angle of the reducer at B is 30o and that of the enlarger at C is 60 o.
Estimate the discharge through the pipe (Hint: consider all the friction and local losses).
Q3.
A pipe of 0.1 m2 c/s area suddenly enlarges to 0.4m2 c/s area. The quantity of water flowing in the
pipe is 0.3 m3/s and the pressure at the smaller pipe is 83.4 kN/m2. Find out:-
(a) Head loss due to shock (i.e sudden enlargement);
(b) Pressure in the larger pipe (consider all the major and minor losses) i.e;
(c) Work done in forcing the water through the enlargement.
Q4.
A pipe-line ABC 180 long is laid on an upward slope of 1 in 50. The length of the portion AB = 90 m
and its diameter is 15 cm. At B the pipe section suddenly enlarges to 30 cm diameter and remains
so up to C for a length of 90 m. A flow of 55 litres is pumped at the lower end A and is discharged
at the upper end C in a clock tank. The pressure of water at A is 1.4 kg/cm 2. Find the pressure of
water at C. (Take Hazen-Williams coefficient as 120).
Q5.
A pipe 25 cm is 600m long and the velocity of flow in the pipe is 2.4 m/s.
What loss of head and the corresponding power would be saved if the central 200 m length of pipe
is replaced by 15 cm diameter pipe, the change of section being gradual with central angle of 𝟓𝟎𝒐
26
at its inlet end and 𝟐𝟎𝒐 at its outer end?. Use Darcy-Weisbach formula with 𝒇 = 0.04 for the pipes
of both diameters.
Q6.
A pipe of 3 km pipeline is required to transport 56,775 m3/day of water from a supply reservoir to a
storage reservoir by gravity. The supply reservoir water level varies seasonally from RL 840.000 to
RL 850.000. Accounting for all important local losses,
(a) If the storage reservoir is at RL 790.000, determine the require size of the pipe (use C = 140).
(b) Use the same input data as given in part (a), but assume it is necessary to pump water from the
lower reservoir to the upper one. Determine the required sizes of the suction main and the rising
(or pumping) main.
(a) The difference in water surface levels of tanks is equal to the sum of the head
losses in all the section.
i.e. 𝒉𝑳 = ∑𝒏𝟏 𝒉𝒇 + ∑𝒏𝟏 𝒉𝒎 ………………………………………………………………….. 1.6(i)
(b) The discharge through each pipe is the same, i.e.
𝑸𝟏 = 𝑸𝟐 = 𝑸𝟑 = ………………………….= 𝑸𝒏 = 𝑸 ………………………… 1.6(ii)
(or 𝐴1 𝑣1 = 𝐴2 𝑣2 = 𝐴3 𝑣3 = ⋯ … … … … … … . = 𝐴𝑛 𝑣𝑛 = 𝑸)
27
EXAMPLE-1.8
Q. A 5 cm pipe takes off abruptly from a large tank, runs 8 m and then expands abruptly to 10 cm;
again runs 45 m and finally discharges directly into an open air with a velocity of 1.5 m/s.
Compute the necessary height of water surface above the point of discharge. Use 𝒇 = 0.026.
Solution:-
Figure 1.13
In this case, a main pipeline divides into two or more parallel pipes which again may join
together downstream and continue as a mainline.
28
Figure 1.14 Pipes in Parallel
EXAMPLES-1.9
Q. Two pipes are connected to a large water reservoir and have free discharge at the outlet ends.
One is 15 cm in
diameter and 300
m in length connected horizontally at 3.8 m below the reservoir water level. Neglecting entrance
head loss,
(a) If a total discharge of 50 𝒍/𝒔 is to be transmitted determine at what depth below the reservoir
water level, another pipe of 20 cm in diameter and 600 m long should be connected.
NB: - Assume Darcy’s friction factor 𝒇 = 0.018 for both pipes and neglect all the minor losses.
(b) Given Darcy’s friction factor 𝒇𝟏 = 0.018 for the 15 cm diameter pipe, 𝒗𝟏 = 1.42 m/s and the two
pipes are connected in parallel from a common point below the water level in the reservoir
determine:-
(i) Darcy’s friction factor 𝒇𝟐 (i.e. for a 20 cm diameter pipe of length 600 m) so that the total
discharges of 50 𝒍/𝒔 is obtained from the reservoir.
(ii) The hydraulic head responsible for the flow (i.e. the depth H of the common point of
connection below the reservoir water surface level).
(a) Solution:
Note: - The pipes to run horizontally and being connected vertically parallel one above the
other.
29
𝑯𝟐
𝑯𝟏
Figure 1.15
(b) Solution
Note: - The pipes are connected in parallel at a common point on one of sides of the reservoir,
at a depth H below the reservoir water surface level.
𝜋𝐷12 𝜋𝐷22
(i) 𝑸 = 𝑸𝟏 + 𝑸𝟐 or 𝑸 = 𝑨𝟏 𝒗𝟏 + 𝑨𝟐 𝒗𝟐 = ( ) 𝑣1 + ( ) 𝑣2
4 4
𝜋𝐷21 )𝑣 𝜋 x (0.15)2
𝑄−( 1 0.05 – ( ) x 1.42
4 4
Flow velocity in the second pipe, 𝒗𝟐 = 𝜋𝐷2
= 𝜋 x (0.2)2
( 2) ( )
4 4
0.05−0.025
Therefore, 𝒗𝟐 = = 0.796 m/s
0.0314
For the pipes in parallel, 𝒉𝑳1 = 𝒉𝑳 2 ; and thus,
𝑳 𝒗𝟐
𝟏 𝟏 𝑣2 𝟐 𝟐 𝑳 𝒗𝟐 𝒗𝟐 𝑓1 𝐿1 𝑣2 𝑓2 𝐿2 𝑣2
𝒇𝟏 𝟐𝒈𝑫 + 2𝑔1 = 𝒇𝟐 𝟐𝒈𝑫 + 𝟐𝒈𝟐 (neglecting entrance losses) OR ( + 1) 2𝑔1 = ( + 1) 2𝑔2
𝟏 𝟐 𝐷1 𝐷2
0.018 x 300 (1.42)2 𝑓2 x 600 (1.796)2
On substitution, we get: ( + 1) =( + 1)
0.15 2𝑔 0.2 2𝑔
(1.42)2
(1500𝑓2 + 1) = (36 + 1) x ≈ 117.75 OR 1500𝑓2 = 116.75
(01.796)2
22.13
Therefore, 𝒇𝟐 = 1500 ≈ 0.0778
(ii) 𝒉𝑳1 = 𝒉𝑳 2 = 𝑯
𝟏 𝟏 𝑳 𝒗𝟐 𝑣2 0.018 x 300 (1.42)2
Applying 𝒉𝑳1= 𝑯, therefore, 𝑯 = 𝒇𝟏 𝟐𝒈𝑫 + 2𝑔1 = ( + 1) 2 x 9.81 = 3.8 m
𝟏 0.15
A pipes in series (i.e. a compound pipe) can be replaced by a “pipe of uniform diameter” and
of the “same length” such that the “loss of head” as well as the discharge are the same. Thus,
this is a pipe which has the same hydraulic characteristics as those of the pipes it theoretically
replaces. Such a new pipe is known as “Equivalent Pipe”, and its diameter is called the
“Equivalent Size” of the pipes replaced.
Let 𝑳𝟏 , 𝑳𝟐 , 𝑳𝟑 , …………….., 𝑳𝒏 , be the lengths and 𝑫𝟏 , 𝑫𝟐 , 𝑫𝟑 , …………….., 𝑫𝒏 be the diameters,
of respectively, different pipes in series.
Equating the friction head loss (𝒉𝒇 ) in the equivalent pipe to that in the compound pipe: -
𝐿𝑒 𝑣𝑒2 𝐿1 𝑣12 𝐿2 𝑣22 𝐿3 𝑣32 𝐿𝑛 𝑣𝑛2
𝑓𝑒 ( ) = 𝑓1 + 𝑓2 + 𝑓3 + … . . + 𝑓𝑛
2𝑔𝐷𝑒 2𝑔𝐷1 2𝑔𝐷2 2𝑔𝐷3 2𝑔𝐷𝑛
From continuity equation: 𝑄 = 𝐴𝑒 𝑣𝑒 = 𝐴1 𝑣1 = 𝐴2 𝑣2 = 𝐴3 𝑣3 = ⋯ … . . = 𝐴𝑛 𝑣𝑛
𝜋𝐷𝑒2 𝜋𝐷12 𝜋𝐷22 𝜋𝐷32 𝜋𝐷𝑛2
Or 𝑄= 𝑣𝑒 = 𝑣1 = 𝑣2 = 𝑣3 = ⋯ … . . = 𝑣𝑛
4 4 4 4 4
4𝑄 4𝑄 4𝑄 4𝑄 4𝑄
Therefore; 𝑣𝑒 = 𝜋𝐷2 ; 𝑣1 = 𝜋𝐷2; 𝑣2 = 𝜋𝐷2; 𝑣3 = 𝜋𝐷2; …………..; 𝑣𝑛 = 𝜋𝐷2
𝑒 1 2 3 𝑛
31
Hence eqn 1.6(v) transforms to eqn 1.6(v) below:
The length of an equivalent pipe of uniform diameter 𝑫𝒆 which is available for use to replace
the compound pipe having the same discharge and the same head loss due to friction, then
“Equivalent Length”,
𝑳𝟏 𝑳𝟐 𝑳𝟑 𝑳𝒏
𝑳𝒆 = 𝑫𝟓𝒆 ( + + + ……..+ )……………………………………1.6(v)
𝑫𝟓𝟏 𝑫𝟓𝟐 𝑫𝟓𝟑 𝑫𝟓𝒏
For an equivalent pipe having the same length as the sum of lengths of the individual pipes,
[i.e. 𝑳𝒆 = ∑𝒊=𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 (𝑳𝒊 )] so as to give the same discharge for the same head loss due to friction,
then
∑𝒊=𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 (𝑳𝒊 )
“Equivalent size, 𝑫𝒆 𝑫𝟓𝒆 = 𝑳𝒊
…………………………………………1.6(vi)a
∑𝒊=𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 ( 𝟓 )
𝑫𝒊
Note:-
If the pipes to be replaced are of the same lengths i.e. 𝐿1 = 𝐿2 = 𝐿3 = ⋯ … = 𝐿𝑛 (= 𝑳),
then ∑𝒊=𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 (𝑳𝒊 ) = 𝒏𝑳, (where 𝒏 = number of pipes of equal lengths 𝑳). Also,
𝑳𝒊 𝑳 𝟏
∑𝒊=𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 ( ) = ∑𝒊=𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 ( ) = 𝑳 ∑𝒊=𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 ( ).
𝑫𝟓𝒊 𝑫𝟓𝒊 𝑫𝟓𝒊
So substituting these in equation 1.6(vi)a:
∑𝒊=𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 (𝑳𝒊 ) 𝒏𝑳
𝑫𝟓𝒆 = 𝑳𝒊
= . On simplifying of this equation we get:-
𝟏
∑𝒊=𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 ( 𝟓 ) 𝑳.∑𝒊=𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 ( 𝟓 )
𝑫𝒊 𝑫𝒊
Equivalent Size”;
𝒏
𝑫𝟓𝒆 = ………………………….…………….….1.6(vi)b
𝟏
∑𝒊=𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 ( 𝟓 )
𝑫 𝒊
For parallel pipes discharge for the equivalent pipe will be:
𝑸𝒆 = 𝑸𝟏 + 𝑸𝟐 + 𝑸𝟑 + … … . . + 𝑸𝒏 ; or 𝑸𝒆 = ∑𝒏𝒊=𝟏 𝑸𝒊 ………………………………………..1.6(vii)
𝒆 𝒆 𝑳 𝒗𝟐
Frictional head loss in the equivalent pipe, 𝒉𝒇 = 𝒇𝒆 (𝟐𝒈𝑫 ); and solving for velocity, then
𝒆 𝒆
2𝑔𝒉𝒇 𝑫
flow velocity in the equivalent pipe: 𝑣𝑒 = √ 𝒆
( 𝑳 𝒆)
𝒇𝒆 𝒆
32
𝜋 2𝑔ℎ𝑓 𝜋 2𝑔ℎ𝑓
𝑒 𝑖
But in this case, 𝑓𝑒 = 𝑓𝑖 = 𝒇; ℎ𝑓 𝑒 = ℎ𝑓 𝑖 = ℎ𝑓 ; then 4 (√ ) = 4 (√ ) = 𝒌 (a constant)
𝑓𝑒 𝑓𝑖
But being of equal length, 𝑳𝒆 = 𝑳𝒊 = 𝑳 (e.g. All starting from and ending in the same
𝟓/𝟐 𝟐
𝑫𝒊 𝟓/𝟐 𝟐
reservoir) then 𝑫𝟓𝒆 = 𝑳. [∑𝒊=𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 ( 𝑳𝟏/𝟐 )] = 𝑳. [𝑳(−𝟏/𝟐) ∑𝒊=𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 (𝑫𝒊 )] .
If there are 𝒏 pipes of the same diameter (𝑫) laid in parallel, then ∑𝒊=𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 (𝑫
𝟓/𝟐
) = 𝒏 𝑫𝟓/𝟐 and
𝟐
eqn 1.6(viii)a becomes: 𝑫𝟓𝒆 = [𝒏 𝑫𝟓/𝟐 ] .
Q1. Two reservoirs are connected by a pipeline consisting of two pipes in series, one of 15 diameter
and 6 m long; and the other of diameter 22.5 cm and 16 m long. If the difference of water levels
in the two reservoirs is 6 m, calculate the discharge (Take Hazen-Williams constant C=140, and
consider also all the minor loses).
Q2. A pipeline of 0.6 m diameter is 1.5 km long. To augment the discharge, another pipeline of the
same diameter is introduced parallel to the first in the second half of its length. With all the
local (minor) losses considered also, determine the increase in discharge. (Take Hazen-Williams
constant C=130, and consider also all the minor loses).
Q3. Two pipes each 300 m long are available for connecting to a reservoir which a flow of 0.085 m3/s
is required. If the diameters of the two pipes are 30 cm and 15 respectively determine the ratio
of the head lost when the pipes are connected in series to the head lost when they are connected
in parallel (neglect minor losses).
Q4. Find the diameter of uniform pipe to replace a compound pipeline having the following
elements:-
Pipes of 900m-45 cm∅; 450m-37.5∅; and 300m-30cm∅. The total length should remain the
same.
Q5 A compound piping system consists of 1,800 m of 50 cm∅; 1,200 m of 40 cm∅; and 600 m of 30
cm∅; new cast iron pipes connected in series (Apply Hazen-Williams) . Convert the system to:-
33
(a) An equivalent length of 40 cm ∅ pi pipe pe; and
(b) An equivalent size of a 3,600 long.
Q6. For the distribution main of a city water supply, a 30 cm pipe is required. As pipes above 25 cm
diameter are not available, it is decided to lay two parallel mains of the same diameter. Find
the diameter of the parallel mains.
34
3.7 Hydraulic Gradient and Total Energy Lines
𝑝
If the pressure head (ℎ = 𝛾) of liquid flowing in a pipe be plotted as vertical ordinates on the
centre line of a pipe, then the line joining the tops of such ordinates (a straight slopping line)
is known as hydraulic gradient line (H.G.L).
𝑝 𝑣2
If the sum of pressure head (𝛾 + 2𝑔) of a flowing liquid in a pipe be plotted as vertical ordinates
on the centre lines of the pipe, then the line joining the tops of such ordinates is known as
Total Energy Line (T.E.L). Thus, the T.E.L lies over the H.G.L by an amount equal the velocity
𝑣2
head (2𝑔).
The vertical height of the
hydraulic grade line above the
datum at that section of the
pipe represents the piezometric
𝑝
head which is equal to (𝑤 + 𝑍).
As such, sometimes the H.G.L is
also known as piezometric head
line. Thus, energy line at any
section of the pipe is equal to
the sum of the datum head 𝑍,
pressure head (𝑝/𝛾) and the
velocity head (𝑣 2 /2𝑔) . The
energy grade line (or total
energy line) will be parallel to
the hydraulic grade line with a
vertical distance between them
equal to (𝑣 2 /2𝑔).
At the entrance section of the
pipe there occurs some loss of
energy called ‘entrance loss’
equal to (𝑣 2 /2𝑔) and hence the
energy grade line (or total
energy line) at this section will
Figure 1: Hydraulic grade line and energy grade line (or
lie at a vertical depth equal to
total energy line) for pipes of the same diameter.
0.5 (𝑉2 /2𝑔) below the liquid
surface in the reservoir. Similarly at the exit section of the pipe since there occurs an exit loss
equal to ℎ𝑚 = (𝑣 2 /2𝑔) the energy grade line (or total energy line) at this section will lie at
a vertical distance equal to (𝑣 2 /2𝑔) above the liquid surface in the reservoir.
35
Figure 2: Hydraulic grade line and energy grade line
for (a) an inclined pipe; (b) horizontal pipe,
discharging freely in atmosphere
36
3.8 Pipe networks
In many applications water is fed through pipes to several points from the same supply
(supplies), this requires many pipe branches. In the design of these systems one should take
care to minimise the minor losses except for the case of regulation purposes. On the other
hand, since the lengths of the pipelines may be quite considerable, friction will be dominant.
A pipe network is the aggregate of connected pipes used to distribute water to users in a
specifies area (eg. city) or an irrigation project. The network consists of pipes of various sizes,
geometric orientation and hydraulic characteristics plus eventually pumps, valves and fittings
etc.
iii) For each outlet (ℎ0 − ℎ𝑗 ) = 𝐾𝐿𝑄 𝑥 + ∑ 𝑘𝐾 ′ 𝑄 2 ; 𝑗 = 1,2, … 𝑁 and there N-equations
of pizometric head differences got by summing up the equations of head losses of all
the branches leading from the supply point O to the 𝑁 𝑡ℎ outlet.
Similarly,
𝑽𝟐𝟏 𝑽𝟐𝟐 𝑽𝟐𝟑 𝑽𝟐𝟒
= = 𝑲′𝟏 𝑸𝟐𝟏 = 𝑲′𝟐 𝑸𝟐𝟐 𝐚𝐧𝐝 = = 𝑲′𝟑 𝑸𝟐𝟑 = 𝑲′𝟒 𝑸𝟐𝟒
𝟐𝒈 𝟐𝒈 𝟐𝒈 𝟐𝒈
[4.2]
Where
0.083
𝐾𝑖′ =
(generally)
𝐷𝑖4
3. Applying principle of conservation of mass (continuity equation of flow) i.e.
𝑄1 = 𝑄2 + 𝑄3 and
𝑄3 = 𝑄4 + 𝑄5
Thus, the unknown discharge Q1 and Q2 can be calculated
4. Determination of diameter (𝐷𝑖 ); 𝑖 = 1,2, … . 𝑁
Where
0.083𝑓
𝑥 = 2; and 𝐾 = for 𝐃𝐚𝐫𝐜𝐲 𝐰𝐞𝐢𝐬𝐛𝐚𝐜𝐡 𝐟𝐨𝐫𝐦𝐮𝐥𝐚
𝐷5
38
10.65
𝑥 = 1.85; and 𝐾 = for 𝐇𝐚𝐳𝐞𝐧 𝐖𝐢𝐥𝐥𝐢𝐚𝐦 𝐟𝐨𝐫𝐦𝐮𝐥𝐚
𝐶 1.85 𝐷4.87
Now, from Eq. 3.23
𝐷2 𝑄2 𝐷4 𝑄4 𝐷𝑛 𝑄𝑛
=√ ; = √ ; …… =√
𝐷1 𝑄1 𝐷3 𝑄3 𝐷𝑖 𝑄𝑖
Rearranging Eq. 3.24
For Darcy weisbach
1
× 𝑄𝑖2 5
𝐾𝑖 𝑄𝑖2 𝐷𝑖5 𝐷𝑛 5 𝑄𝑖 2 𝑄𝑛 2 𝑄𝑖 2
= =( ) ×( ) =( ) ×( )
𝐾𝑛 𝑄𝑛2 1 2 𝐷𝑖 𝑄𝑛 𝑄𝑖 𝑄𝑛
× 𝑄𝑛
𝐷𝑛5
𝟏
𝑲𝒊 𝑸𝟐𝒊 𝑸 𝟐
∴ 𝑲𝒏 𝑸𝟐𝒏
= ( 𝑸𝒏 ) [4. 4]
𝒊
Similarly
For hazen-Williams
1
× 𝑄𝑖2 4.87
𝐾𝑖 𝑄𝑖1.85 𝐷𝑖4.87 𝐷𝑛 4.87 𝑄𝑖 1.85 𝑄𝑛 2 𝑄𝑖 1.85
= =( ) ×( ) =( ) ×( )
𝐾𝑛 𝑄𝑛1.85 1 2 𝐷𝑖 𝑄𝑛 𝑄𝑖 𝑄𝑛
4.87 × 𝑄𝑛
𝐷𝑛
𝑲𝒊 𝑸𝟐𝒊 𝑸 𝟎.𝟓𝟖
∴ = ( 𝒏) [4.5]
𝑲𝒏 𝑸𝟐𝒏 𝑸𝒊
Finally (summary)
To determine diameters (𝐷𝑖 ) for various pipe branched in an open pipe network apply
the following equation
𝑸 𝒚𝑳
(𝒉𝟎 − 𝒉𝒋 ) = 𝑲𝒏 𝑳𝒏 𝑸𝒙𝒏 [∑𝒏−𝟏 𝒏
𝒊=𝟏 [( 𝑸 ) 𝑳𝒏
𝒊
]+ 𝟏] [3.6]
𝒊
1
𝑥 = 2 and 𝑦 = 2; when applying Darcy-Weisbach formula
𝑥 = 1.85 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = 0.58; when applying Hazen-William’s formula
ℎ0 = piezometric pressure head at the supply point
ℎ𝑗 = piezometric pressure head at a particular 𝑗 𝑡ℎ outlet point (where 𝑗 = 1,2, … . 𝑁)
𝑖 = 1,2, … . , 𝑛 the designation of branches from the supply point O to the last branch
of the pipe network.
39
Example
Consider a design problem in Fig 3.16: given a pipe-network such that the pizometric
head at the supply point O is ℎ0 = 0. Determine the diameters needed to get the
40
From
10.65
𝐾= ; 𝐷 = 0.193 𝑚 ~200 𝑚𝑚
𝐶 1.85 𝐷4.87 2
(b) For the second outlet (𝑖. 𝑒. 𝑗 = 2)
The pipeline between the reservoir supply and point O and outlet point B
𝑛−1
𝑄𝑛 𝑦 𝐿𝑖
(ℎ0 − ℎ𝑗 ) = 𝐾𝑛 𝐿𝑛 𝑄𝑛𝑥 [∑ [( ) ] + ⋯ .1]
𝑄𝑖 𝐿𝑛
𝑖=1
Where 𝑗 = 𝐵; 𝑛 = 5𝑡ℎ branch, x = 1.85 (applying hazen − Williams Eq)
𝑛−1
1.85
𝑄5 0.58 𝐿1 𝑄5 0.58 𝐿3
∴ (ℎ0 − ℎ𝐵 ) = 𝐾5 𝐿5 𝑄5 [∑ [( ) +( ) ] + 1]
𝑄1 𝐿5 𝑄3 𝐿5
𝑖=1
(0 − (−5)) = 𝐾2 × 200
𝑛−1
1.85
0.012 0.58 300 0.012 0.58 150
× 0.012 [∑ [( ) × +( ) × ] + 1]
0.069 200 0.022 200
𝑖=1
𝐾5 = 0.0934, use 𝐶 = 130
From
10.65
𝐾= ; 𝐷 = 0.113 𝑚 ~120 𝑚𝑚
𝐶 1.85 𝐷4.87 5
(c) For the 3rd outlet (𝑖. 𝑒. 𝑗 = 3)
The pipeline between the reservoir supply and point O and outlet point A
𝑛−1
𝑄𝑛 𝑦 𝐿𝑖
(ℎ0 − ℎ𝑗 ) = 𝐾𝑛 𝐿𝑛 𝑄𝑛𝑥 [∑ [( ) ] + ⋯ .1]
𝑄𝑖 𝐿𝑛
𝑖=1
Where 𝑗 = 𝐴; 𝑛 = 4𝑡ℎ branch, x = 1.85 (applying hazen − Williams Eq)
𝑛−1
𝑄4 0.58 𝐿1 𝑄4 0.58 𝐿3
∴ (ℎ0 − ℎ𝐴 ) = 𝐾4 𝐿4 𝑄41.85 [∑ [( ) +( ) ] + 1]
𝑄1 𝐿4 𝑄3 𝐿4
𝑖=1
(0 − (−4)) = 𝐾4 × 100
𝑛−1
1.85
0.010 0.58 300 0.010 0.58 150
× 0.01 [∑ [( ) × +( ) × ] + 1]
0.069 100 0.022 100
𝑖=1
𝐾4 = 𝑆𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑒 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝐾4 , use 𝐶 = 130
From
10.65
𝐾= ; 𝐷4 = 0.107 𝑚 ~120 𝑚𝑚
𝐶 1.85 𝐷4.87
𝑄 𝑄 𝑄 𝑄
From the condition 𝑉1 = 𝐷12 = 𝑉2 = 𝐷22 and 𝑉3 = 𝐷32 = 𝑉4 = 𝐷42
1 2 3 4
𝑄1 𝑄2 𝑄1
2 = 2 ; 𝐷1 = (𝐷2 √𝑄 ) 𝑆𝑢𝑏𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔, 𝐷1 = 0.234 𝑚~250 𝑚𝑚
𝐷1 𝐷2 2
41
𝑄3 𝑄4 𝑄3
2 = 2 ; 𝐷3 = (𝐷4 √𝑄 ) 𝑆𝑢𝑏𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔, 𝐷3 = 0.159 𝑚~160 𝑚𝑚
𝐷3 𝐷4 4
Note:-
i) The D values should be rounded off to suit the commercial available sizes
ii) A check must be made and adjustments made to ensure that the velocity of flow in
each pipe (branch) lies within the permissible extreme limits i.e. Min and max
velocities to ensure non-silting/scouring velocities.
iii) After the design procedure, a simulation (analysis) is necessary to check the discharge
distribution for the given pizometric heads at the outlets or to check the pizometric
heads for the given discharges at the outlets.
Analysis
Pipe 𝐿 Node/ 𝑅𝐿 𝐷 𝑄 𝑉 𝑣 2 /2𝑔 ℎ𝑓
𝐸𝐺𝐿 𝐻𝐺𝐿 ℎ𝑎 (𝑚)
Pipeline
No. (𝑚) Outlet (𝑚) (𝑚) (𝑚3 /𝑠) (𝑚/𝑠) (m) (𝑚)
Tank WSL 0.00 6.00
2𝑔 = 19.62
O-outlet 0.25 0.069 1.406 0.101 0.050 -0.050 -0.151 5.849
ODC
42
3.8.3 Looped pipe network
In this type of pipe network, any point can be reached from a supply point along more
than one path. This enhances the reliability of the water supply (e.g. in the case that
one pipe is shut off due to a failure or rehabilitation or inspection etc.
Note:
If 𝑙 = number of loops
“ 𝑏 = number of branches
“ 𝑚 = number of nodes
“ 𝑚′ = number of nodes at constant head
Then, 𝑙 = 𝑏 − 𝑚 + 𝑚′
A group of interconnected pipes forming several loops or circuits as shown in Fig.
3.17 is called looped network of pipes. Such networks of pipes are commonly used for
municipal water distribution system in cities. The main problem in a pipe network is
to determine the distribution of flow through the various pipes of the network such
that all the conditions of flow are satisfied and all the circuits are then balanced. The
solution of any network problem must satisfy the following conditions throughout the
network:-
(a) According to the principle of continuity, the flow into each junction must be equal to the
flow out of the junction likewise the net flow rate into any junction (node) must be zero
(∑ 𝑄 = 0).
(b) In each loop, the loss of head due to flow in clockwise direction must be equal to the loss
of head due to flow in anticlockwise direction likewise the net head loss around any single
loop of the network must be zero (∑ ℎ𝑙 = 0)
43
(c) The Darcy–Weisbach equation must be satisfied for flow in each pipe. Minor losses maybe
neglected if the pipe lengths are large. However if the minor losses are large, they may be
taken into account by considering them in terms of the head loss due to friction in
equivalent pipe lengths.
44
0.083𝑓
𝐾= ; 𝑥 = 2 (for Darcy weisbach formula, 𝑓
𝐷5
= Darcy weisbach friction factor)
- Hard-cross method (head balance method or unknown flow approach): involves
balancing heads by correcting assumed flows (discharge)
- R.J Cornish Method (Quantity balancing or unknown head approach): This involves
balancing flows (discharges) by correcting assumed heads.
ii) Compute the head losses (ℎ𝑓 ) for each pipeline using Eq. 3.39
iii) Divide the pipe network into a number of closed circuits (loops) so as to include every
pipe in at least one circuit.
iv) Determine the algebraic sum of head losses for each circuit made under step (iii) and
satisfy the condition ∑ ℎ𝑓 = ∑ 𝑟𝑄 𝑥 = 0. The losses in clockwise (+) and losses in
anticlockwise (-). Now, if the sum of head losses in circuit is not zero, the assumptions
for the flows made under (i) above are not correct.
v) Since the sum of the head losses in circuit is generally not zero, apply correction ∆𝑄
to make this sum equal to zero. Then
45
vi) If by applying correction, the sum of head losses in each circuit do not again become
equal to zero, then repeat the procedure until the correction become negligible.
Derivation of the correction ∆𝑸
ℎ𝑓 = 𝑟𝑄 𝑥
= 𝑟(𝑄0 + ∆𝑄)𝑥
∆𝑄 𝑥
= 𝑟𝑄0𝑛 (1 + )
𝑄0
Expanding by binomial theorem
𝑥
∆𝑄 𝑥(𝑥 − 1) ∆𝑄 2
ℎ𝑓 = 𝑟𝑄0 [1 + 𝑥 ( ) + ( ) + ⋯.]
𝑄0 2! 𝑄0
Assuming ∆𝑄 is small compared to 𝑄0 ; then third and the succeeding terms maybe
neglected, then
∆𝑄
ℎ𝑓 = 𝑟𝑄 𝑥 (1 + 𝑥 ( ))
𝑄0
And for a circuit ∑ ℎ𝑓 = 0
∑ 𝑟𝑄0𝑥
∴ ∑ 𝑟𝑄0𝑥 + 𝑥∆𝑄 ∑ 𝑟𝑄0𝑥−1 = 0 𝑜𝑟 ∆𝑄 = − ( )
𝑥 ∑ 𝑟𝑄0𝑥−1
Or
− ∑ 𝒓𝑸𝒙
𝟎 ∑ 𝒉𝒇
∆𝑸 = [𝒙 ∑ 𝒓𝑸𝒙−𝟏 ] = −[ 𝒉𝒇 ] [3.8]
𝟎 𝒙 ∑( )
𝑸𝟎
Generally in practice
𝑥 = 1.85 for Hazen − William formula and 𝑥 = 2 for Darcy − Weisbach foumula
∑(𝒓𝑸𝒙 )
𝟎
∆𝑸 = − [𝒙 ∑(𝒓𝑸𝒙−𝟏 ] [3. 9]
𝟎 )
Note:
- Hazen – William’s 𝑉 = 0.85𝐶1 𝑅 0.63 𝑆 0.54 where 𝑉 = mean velocity of flow (𝑚/𝑠), 𝑅 =
hydraulic radius (𝑚), 𝑆 = Hydraulic gradient, 𝐶 = Hazen William constant (depending
on roughness of pipe)
- In equation (iv) the numerator is the algebraic sum of the head losses in the circuit with
due regard for sign i.e. +ve for clockwise head losses and –ve for anticlockwise head losses.
The denominator is taken as absolute sum without regard to the sign of individual item in
the summation.
- The correction (∆𝑄) must be applied in the same sense to each pipe in the loop. If
clockwise direction is assumed as +ve, then ∆𝑄 is added algebraically to the assumed flow
𝑄0 in clockwise direction and is subtracted from flows in the counter-clockwise direction.
46
Example
If the flow of 400 L/s enters the loop at junction A, what will be the flow rate 𝑄1 in
branch AIB and 𝑄2 in branch AIIB?
Solution
𝑙
From the continuity of flow 𝑄 = 400 𝑠 = 𝑄1 + 𝑄2 since AIIB is longer and narrower
than AIB, it thus offers more resistant to flow. Hence, it is reasonable the flow rate in
AIIB be less than in AIB.
𝑙
i) Assume 𝑄1 = 300 𝑠 and 𝑄2 = −100 𝑙/𝑠 (Note: clockwise flow are +ve and
anticlockwise flow are –ve). If the assumption for flow rate is correct then the head
losses in AIB and AIIB should be equal in magnitude but opposite in sign; thus,
summing up to zero. Applying Hazen-Williams equation to check this
𝑙
• Pipe AIB: for 𝑄0 = 300 𝑠 = 0.3 𝑚3 ; 𝐷 = 300 𝑚𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶 = 100, 𝐿 = 500 𝑚
10.65
ℎ𝑓 = 𝐾𝐿𝑄1.85 = ( ) 𝐿𝑄1.85
𝐶 1.85 𝐷4.87
10.65 × 500 × 0.31.85
= = +40.31 𝑚
1001.85 0.34.87
Similarly
𝑙
• Pipe AIIB: for 𝑄0 = 100 𝑠 = 0.1 𝑚3 ; 𝐷 = 200 𝑚𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐶 = 100, 𝐿 = 1500 𝑚
10.65
ℎ𝑓 = 𝐾𝐿𝑄1.85 = 𝐿𝑄1.85
𝐶 1.85 𝐷4.87
10.65 × 1500 × 0.11.85
= = −114.37 𝑚
1001.85 0.24.87
Since ∑ ℎ𝑓 = 40.31 + (−114.31) = −74.06 𝑚 which is less (not equal to) zero; then
the loop is not balanced. Thus, the assumptions are not correct.
ii) Now use the Hard-Cross correction formula
∑ ℎ𝑓 74.06 74.06
∆𝑄1 = − = −[ ]=
ℎ𝑓 40.31 114.37 1.85(0.1344 + 1.1437)
𝑥 ∑ (𝑄 ) 1.85 ( 300 + 100 )
0
= 31.32 𝑙/𝑠
Add the flow correction i.e. 𝑄 = 𝑄0 + ∆𝑄
47
𝑙
• Pipe (AIB): 𝑄1 = 300 + 31.32 = 331.32 𝑠 = 0.33132 𝑚3 /𝑠
𝑙
• Pipe (AIIB): 𝑄2 = −100 + 31.32 = −68.68 𝑠 = −0.068 𝑚3 /𝑠
48
3rd AIB 0.3 500 0.748 + 0.336 +49.71 147.95
Trial AIIB 0.2 1500 5.387 - 0.064 -49.99 781.05
Sum -0.28 929
3
𝑚
∆𝑄3 = 0.000163 (very small; negligible)
𝑠
𝒎𝟑 𝒎𝟑
Therefore, adopt 𝑸𝟏 = 𝟎. 𝟑𝟑𝟔 𝒔
𝒐𝒓 𝟑𝟑𝟔 𝒍/𝒔 and 𝑸𝟐 = − 𝟎. 𝟎𝟔𝟒 𝒔
𝒐𝒓 𝟔𝟒 𝒍/𝒔
49
3.9 Hydraulic transients
Hydraulic transient refer to any unsteady flow condition in an open channel or closed
conduit i.e. a situation where flow conditions are continuously varying with time or a
transition flow between two steady state conditions. Hydraulic transient can be
divided (according to the rate of change of velocity) into:-
i) Surges
ii) Water hammer
During surge, the velocity changes slowly with time and the entire body of fluid can
be considered as moving as a solid body. In the case of water hammer, the velocity in
a closed conduit changes rapidly. For example, when a valve is rapidly closed a force
needed to destroy the original momentum of the flowing fluid causes a high pressure
which is transmitted through the conduit at the acoustic wave speed and can rapidly
subject the entire pipe to an increased pressure.
50
However, it is not economical to design pipes which could withstand such pressure;
therefore, safety devices are employed.
When the valve is suddenly closed, the fluid’s kinetic energy is converted into
internal energy with rise in pressure. Thus, a sudden pressure pulse forms at the valve
and then this pulse travels backwards at the speed of sound setting up reflected
pulses. This behaviour of flow is termed as unsteady flow.
𝒑𝒊 𝑽𝑳
𝐈𝐧𝐞𝐫𝐭𝐢𝐚 𝐩𝐫𝐞𝐬𝐬𝐮𝐫𝐞 𝐡𝐞𝐚𝐝 = = [3. 11]
𝒘 𝒈𝒕
51
concluded that in the derivation of Eq. 3.21 certain essential factors have been
omitted. These factors are
i) The compressibility of the liquid; and
ii) The elasticity of the pipe material;
These factors make it impossible for the liquid column to be stopped instantaneously
even if it was possible to close the valve instantaneously. By adopting the same
procedure as indicated earlier, the expression for the inertia pressure is obtained as
𝑽
𝒑𝒊 = [3. 12]
𝒈 𝟏 𝑫
√ ( + )
𝒘 𝑲 𝑻𝑬
This is more than the recommended pressure; thus, the pipe will burst.
52
3.9.7 Surge tank
A surge tank is a
storage reservoir
fitted at some
opening made on
a long pipeline
(penstock) of
hydraulic power
plant to receive
the rejected flow
when the pipeline
is suddenly closed
by a valve fitted at
its steep end. The
Figure 3.5: Layout for surge tank location
sudden reduction
of the rate of flow in the penstock may lead to setting up of water hammer in the pipe,
which may cause excessive inertia pressure in the pipeline due to which the pipe may
burst.
i) It eliminate the positive water hammer effect by admitting in a large mass of water
which otherwise would have flown out of the pipeline, but returns to the tank due to
closure of pipe end.
ii) It also serves the purpose of supplying suddenly an additional flow whenever required
by the hydraulic prime-movers at any instant.
Surge tanks are mostly employed in water power plant or in a large pumping
plant to control the pressure resulting from rapid changes in the flow. Surge tanks are
employed in the case of high and medium head hydropower plants where the
penstock is very long.
There are mainly three types of surge tanks as shown in Fig 3.14 i.e.
a) Simple conical surge tank: Its working is similar to cylindrical tank
53
b) A tank with an internal bell-mouthed spillway: permits the overflow to be easily disposed
of.
c) A differential type of surge tank: Has the advantage that for the same stabilising effect,
the capacity of the tank is less than that of a cylindrical tank. When the pressure in the
conduit rises a small quantity of water enters the surge tank through ports. However, the
bulk of water rises to the top of the riser and then spills. Thus, a considerable retarding
head is immediately available whereas in cylindrical tank the head builds up gradually.
d) Another type of a differential surge tank: Suitable when appropriate earth or rock
excavation can be carried out. Two galleries are provided, the upper gallery stores extra
water when the load falls and the lower gallery supplies extra water in the case of
increased demand. A small vertical shaft connects the two galleries.
54
3.10 HYDRAULIC TRANSMISSION OF POWER
During those days (before 19th century) when there was no electric power, the flow of water
under pressure in a pipeline was used as a method of power transmission. Modern use of
hydraulic transmission is for working hydraulic appliances such as hydraulic press, hydraulic
jack, etc.
A nozzle is a tapering (converging) mouthpiece, generally, used to have a high velocity of
water, as it converts pressure head into kinetic head at its outlet. It is fitted to the outlet end
of a pipe or hose to produce high velocity of water required in fire fighting, mining and power
transmission. In water turbines, water from a reservoir under high hydrostatic head is
conveyed through a large pipeline (generally called a “Penstock”) to operate a hydraulic
turbine (an impulse type e.g. Pelton wheel). Water discharges out of nozzle fitted at the end
of a pipeline in the form of a free impact jet which impinges on the buckets of the wheel.
Consider a nozzle BC fitted at the outlet end of a pipeline AB through which water is flowing. Let:-
𝑳 = Length of the pipe AB; 𝑫 = Diameter of the pipe AB; 𝒗𝒇 = Flow velocity in the pipe AB;
𝒇 = Darcy’s coefficient of friction, for the pipe AB; 𝒗 = velocity of water through the nozzle;
𝑯= Head of water under which the flow takes place (Hydraulic head). C/S area of the pipeline, 𝑨 =
𝜋 𝜋
𝐷2 and that of the nozzle, 𝒂 = 𝑑2 .
4 4
Since the water is continuously flowing through the pipe and nozzle: 𝑨. 𝒗𝒇 = 𝑎𝑣 (i.e. equation
𝒂
of continuity) or 𝒗𝒇 = 𝑨 𝒗. By Darcy-Weisbach equation, friction head loss in pipe AB: 𝒉𝒇 =
𝑳𝒗𝟐𝒇 𝒗𝟐
𝒇 𝟐𝒈𝑫 and head loss due to velocity at outlet, 𝒉𝒎 = 𝟐𝒈.
Assuming that the total available head of water is lost while flowing through the pipe and
𝒂 𝟐 𝒂 𝟐
𝑳𝒗𝟐𝒇 𝒗𝟐 𝑳( 𝒗)
𝑨 𝒗𝟐 𝒗𝟐 𝑳( )
𝑨
nozzle only, then: 𝑯 = 𝒉𝒇 + 𝒉𝒎 = 𝒇 𝟐𝒈𝑫 + 𝟐𝒈 = 𝒇 + = [𝒇 + 𝟏].
𝟐𝒈𝑫 𝟐𝒈 𝟐𝒈 𝑫
𝟐𝒈𝑯
Therefore, velocity through the nozzle, 𝒗 = √ 𝑳 𝒂 𝟐
………………...………………..1.7(i)
[𝟏 + 𝒇( )( ) ]
𝑫 𝑨
55
EXAMPLES-1.10
Q A pipe 3.2 km long and of 90 cm diameter if fitted with a nozzle of 20 cm diameter at its discharge
end. Find the velocity of water through the nozzle if the head of water is 50 m. Take 𝒇 = 0.024.
Solution:-
Given: Length of pipe, 𝑳 = 3.2 km = 3,200 m; and its diameter, 𝑫 = 90 cm = 0.9 m.
𝜋 𝜋
Thus, its c/s area, 𝐴 = 𝑫𝟐 = (0.9)𝟐 = 0.6362 m2
4 4
𝜋 𝜋
Nozzle diameter, 𝒅 =20 cm = 0.2 m; its c/s area, 𝑎 = 𝒅𝟐 = 4 (0.2)𝟐 =0.0314 m2
4
Head of water, 𝑳 = 50 m and Coefficient of friction of pipe, 𝒇 = 0.024.
If 𝒗 is the velocity of water through the nozzle, applying eqn. 1.7(i) we get:-
𝟐𝒈𝑯 𝟐 𝒙 𝟗.𝟖𝟏 𝒙 𝟓𝟎
𝒗 =√ 𝑳 𝒂 𝟐
=√ 𝟑,𝟐𝟎𝟎 𝟎.𝟎𝟑𝟏𝟒 𝟐
= 68.3 m/s
[𝟏 + 𝒇( )( ) ] [𝟏 + 𝟎.𝟎𝟐𝟒 ( )( ) ]
𝑫 𝑨 𝟎.𝟗 𝟎.𝟔𝟑𝟔𝟐
EXAMPLES-1.12
Q. A pipe 10 cm in diameter has a nozzle attached to it at the discharge end. The diameter of the
nozzle is 5 cm. The rate of discharge of water through the nozzle of 20 𝒍/𝒔 and pressure of the
base of the nozzle is 60 kN/m2. Assuming the base of the nozzle and the outlet of the nozzle are
of the same elevation, calculate the coefficient of discharge.
Solution:-
𝜋 𝜋
Given: Diameter of pipe, 𝑫 = 10 cm = 0.1 m. Thus, its c/s area, 𝐴 = 𝑫𝟐 = (0.1)𝟐 m2
4 4
𝜋 𝜋
Nozzle diameter, 𝒅 = 5 cm = 0.05 m; its c/s area, 𝑎 = 𝒅𝟐 = 4 (0.05)𝟐 m2
4
Pressure at the base of the nozzle, 𝒑𝟏 = 60 kN/m2;
𝒑𝟏 𝟔𝟎
Therefore, pressure head, 𝑯 = = 𝟗.𝟖𝟏 = 6.12 m
𝜸
Head of water, 𝑳 = 50 m and Coefficient of friction of pipe, 𝒇 = 0.024.
Let 𝑪𝒅 = coefficient of discharge; 𝒗 = theoretical velocity of the jet; and 𝒗𝒇 = theoretical
velocity of water in the pipe.
𝜋 𝜋
Since the discharge is continuous, then A𝒗𝒇 = 𝒂𝒗; i.e (0.1)𝟐 𝒗𝒇 = (0.05)𝟐 𝒗
4 4
Therefore, 𝒗𝒇 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟓𝒗
Using Bernoulli’s equation at the base of the nozzle and outlet of the nozzle (Taking base of
the nozzle as section 1, and outlet of the nozzle as section 2):
𝒑𝟏 𝒗𝟐 𝒑𝟐 𝒗𝟐
𝒛𝟏 + + 𝟐𝒈𝟏 = 𝒛𝟐 + + 𝟐𝒈𝟐 (Neglecting Losses)
𝜸 𝜸
𝒛𝟏 = 𝒛𝟐 = z; 𝒗𝟏 = 𝒗𝒇 ; 𝒗𝟐 = 𝑣; and 𝒑𝟐 =
0
Therefore, 𝑂𝑛 𝑠𝑢𝑏𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑡𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛, we have:
𝒗𝟐𝒇 0 𝒗𝟐 𝒗𝟐 (𝟎.𝟐𝟓)𝟐 𝒗𝟐 𝒗𝟐
z + 6.12 + 𝟐𝒈 = z + 𝜸 + 𝟐𝒈 OR 6.12 = 𝟐𝒈 − = (1 − 0.0625) 𝟐𝒈
𝟐𝒈
56
2 x 9.81 x 6.12
Therefore, 𝒗 = √ (1 − 0.0625) = 11.32 m/s
𝑨𝒄𝒕𝒖𝒂𝒍 𝒅𝒊𝒔𝒄𝒉𝒂𝒓𝒈𝒆, 𝑸 𝑸 𝟎.𝟎𝟐
The coefficient of discharge, 𝑪𝒅 = 𝑻𝒉𝒆𝒐𝒓𝒆𝒕𝒊𝒄𝒂𝒍 𝒅𝒊𝒔𝒄𝒉𝒂𝒓𝒈, = 𝒂𝒗 = 𝜋(0.05)𝟐 = 0.91
𝑸𝒕𝒉 𝒙 𝟏𝟏.𝟑𝟐
4
𝒂 𝟐
𝑳𝒗𝟐𝒇𝒗𝟐 𝑳(𝑨𝒗) 𝒗𝟐
We have seen in art. 1.7.1 above that: 𝑯 = 𝒇 𝟐𝒈𝑫 + 𝟐𝒈 =𝒇 𝟐𝒈𝑫
+ 𝟐𝒈. Therefore,
𝒗𝟐 𝒇𝑳 𝒂 𝟐
= 𝑯 − (𝟐𝒈𝑫) . (𝑨 𝒗) ………………...……….………………….1.7(ii)
𝟐𝒈
But, the kinetic energy of the water jet through the nozzle:-
𝒗𝟐
𝑲. 𝑬. = 𝜸𝑸 (𝟐𝒈) kN-m/sec. (= power)
But, 𝑸 = 𝑎𝑣; then ower available at the outlet of the jet:
𝒗𝟐 𝒗𝟐
𝑷 = 𝜸𝑸 (𝟐𝒈) = 𝜸(𝒂𝒗) (𝟐𝒈)………………………………….……..1.7(iii)a
𝒗𝟐
On substitution of value for into this equation we get:
𝟐𝒈
𝒇𝑳 𝒂 𝟐
𝑷 = 𝜸𝒂𝒗 [𝑯 − (𝟐𝒈𝑫) . (𝑨 𝒗) ] kW .………………………………………………..1.7(iii)b
EXAMPLE-1.13
Q A hydro-electric plant is supplied water at the rate of 500 l/s under a head of 250 m through a
pipe line 3.2 km long and 500 mm diameter. The pipeline terminates in a nozzle, which has a
diameter of 200 mm. Find the power that can be transmitted if Darcy’s coefficient for the pipe is
0.04.
Solution:-
Given: Supply of water, 𝑸 = 500 l/s = 0.5 m3/s; Head of water, 𝑯 = 250 m
Length of pipe, 𝑳 = 3.2 km = 3,200 m; Diameter of pipe, 𝑫 = 500 mm = 0.5 m.
𝜋 𝜋
C/s area, 𝐴 = 𝑫𝟐 = (0.5)𝟐 = 0.1963 m24 4
𝜋 𝟐 𝜋
Nozzle diameter, 𝒅 = 200 mm = 0.2 m; its c/s area, 𝒂 = 𝒅 = (0.2)𝟐 = 0.0314 m2
4 4
𝑄 0.5
Velocity of water at outlet, 𝒗 = = 0.0314 = 15.92 m/s
𝑎
Darcy’s coefficint, 𝒇 = 0.04; and if 𝑷 = power that can be transmitted,
𝒇𝑳 𝒂 𝟐 0.04 x 3,200 0.0314 2
𝑷 = 𝜸𝒂𝒗 [𝑯 − ( ) . ( 𝒗) ] = (9.81 x 0.0314 x 15.92) [250 − ( ).( x 15.92) ]
𝟐𝒈𝑫 𝑨 2 x 9.81 x 0.5 0.1963
= 4.904 x [250 − (13.048 x 6.485)] = 4.904 x 165.384 ≈ 811 kW
57
3.10.3 EFFICIENCY OF POWER TRANSMISSION THROUGH A NOZZLE
Consider a nozzle fitted at one end of the pipeline through which water is flowing. Let:
𝑳 = Length of the pipe; 𝑯 = head of water under which the flow takes place; 𝒇 = Darcy’s
coefficient of friction for the pipe;
𝑫 = Diameter of the pipe; 𝒗𝒇 = velocity of water in the pipe; and 𝑨 = C/s area of the pipe.
𝒅, 𝒗, and 𝒂 = Corresponding values for the nozzle at outlet.
𝒗𝟐 𝒇𝑳 𝒂 𝟐
We have seen that: ………………….. 𝟐𝒈 = 𝑯 − (𝟐𝒈𝑫) . (𝑨 𝒗) …… {𝐫𝐞𝐟: eqn … . .1.7(ii)} and also the
power available at the outlet of the nozzle:
𝒗𝟐 𝒇𝑳 𝒂 𝟐
𝑷𝒐𝒖𝒕 = 𝜸𝑸
𝟐𝒈
= 𝜸𝒂𝒗 [𝑯 − (𝟐𝒈𝑫 ) . ( 𝒗) ].
𝑨
𝑷𝒊𝒏 = 𝜸𝑸𝑯
𝒗𝟐
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝐴𝑣𝑎𝑖𝑙𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑎𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑙𝑒𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑖𝑝𝑒, 𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝜸𝑸
𝟐𝒈
Therefore, efficiency of transmission, 𝜂 = =
𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝐴𝑣𝑎𝑖𝑙𝑎𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑎𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑙𝑒𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑖𝑝𝑒, 𝑃𝑖𝑛 𝜸𝑸𝑯
𝒗𝟐
𝜼= …………………………………………………………………1.7(iv)
𝟐𝒈𝑯
Alternatively:-
𝜸𝑸(𝐻−ℎ𝑓 ) (𝐻−ℎ𝑓 )
Power at the outlet of the pipe, 𝑃𝑜𝑢𝑡 = 𝛾𝑄(𝐻 − ℎ𝑓 ); thence 𝜂 = = .
𝜸𝑸𝑯 𝑯
𝒉𝒇
Therefore, 𝜼=𝟏− ………………………………………………………..1.7(v)
𝑯
Where; 𝒉𝒇 = friction head losses from the pipe inlet to its outlet.
𝒇𝑳 𝒂 𝟐 𝒇𝑳 𝒂 𝟐
𝑑{𝜸𝒂𝒗[𝑯−( ).( 𝒗) ]} 𝑑{𝜸𝒂[𝑯𝒗−( ).( ) 𝒗𝟑 ]} 𝒇𝑳 𝒂 𝟐
𝟐𝒈𝑫 𝑨 𝟐𝒈𝑫 𝑨
Thus, = 𝟎 or = 𝟎; thus, 𝐻 − 3 (𝟐𝒈𝑫) . (𝑨) 𝒗𝟐 = 0
𝑑𝑣 𝑑𝑣
𝒂
which on substituting 𝒗𝒇 for 𝑨 𝒗 ……………………..(because 𝑎𝐴 𝑣 = 𝑣𝑓 ).
𝒇𝑳 𝒂 𝟐 𝒇𝑳𝒗𝟐𝒇 𝒇𝑳𝒗𝟐𝒇
So, 𝐻 − 3 (𝟐𝒈𝑫) . (𝑨) 𝒗𝟐 = 𝐻 − 3 ( 𝟐𝒈𝑫 ) = 𝑯 − 𝟑𝒉𝒇 = 0 ………………..(because 𝟐𝒈𝑫 = ℎ𝑓 ).
Therefore, when solving for 𝒉𝒇 we get:-
𝟏
𝒉𝒇 = 𝟑 𝑯 ……………………………………………………..1.7(vi)
58
This means that the power transmitted through the nozzle, is maximum when the head lost
due to friction in the pipe is equal to 1/3rd of the total supply head.
Also, “efficiency of transmission”:
𝟏
𝒉𝒇 𝑯
𝟑
𝜼=𝟏− = 𝟏 − ( 𝑯 ) = 0.6667 (or 66.67%)
𝑯
EXAMPLES-1.14
Q. A pipe 75 mm diameter and 250 m long has a nozzle of 25 mm fitted at the discharge end. If the
total head of water is 40 m, find the maximum power transmitted. Assume f = 0.04.
Solution:-
Given: Supply of water, 𝑸 = … m3/s; Head of water, 𝑯 = 40 m
Length of pipe, 𝑳 = 250 m; Diameter of pipe, 𝑫 = 75 mm = 0.075 m.
Nozzle diameter, 𝒅 = 25 mm = 0.025 m; 𝒇 = 0.04.
Let 𝑷𝒎𝒂𝒙 = Maximum power transmitted through the nozzle.
𝟏 40
We know that, for maximum transmission of power, 𝒉𝒇 = 𝟑 𝑯 = ( 3 ).
𝟎.𝟎𝟖𝟑𝒇
But, frictional head loss, 𝒉𝒇 = ( ) 𝑳𝑸𝟐 . Now, on substitution of the values we get:-
𝑫𝟓
40 0.083 x 0.04
=[ ] x 250 𝑥 𝑸𝟐
3 (0.075)5
40 (0.075)5
So the discharge through the pipe/nozzle, 𝑸 = √ 3 x (0.083 x 0.04 x 250) = 0.0061 m3/s
Maximum power transmitted through the nozzle, 𝑷𝒎𝒂𝒙 = 𝜸𝑸(𝐻 − ℎ𝑓 )
40
= 9.81 x 0.0061 x (40 − ) = 1.6 kW (Ans)
3
In this section, we are to obtain the condition for the diameter of the nozzle for the maximum
transmission of power. Now, consider a nozzle fitted at the end of a pipeline, theough which
the water is flowing. Let:
𝑳 = Length of the pipe; 𝑯 = head of water under which the flow takes place; 𝒇 = Darcy’s
coefficient of friction for the pipe;
𝑫 = Diameter of the pipe; 𝒗𝒇 = velocity of water in the pipe; and 𝑨 = C/s area of the pipe.
𝒅, 𝒗, and 𝒂 = Corresponding values for the nozzle at outlet.
We have already derived the power transmitted through the nozzle as:
𝒗𝟐 𝟏
𝑷𝒐𝒖𝒕 = 𝜸𝒂𝒗
𝟐𝒈
= 𝜸 (𝝅𝟒 𝒅𝟐 ) (𝟐𝒈 ) 𝒗𝟑 ………[Ref: eqn. 1.7(iii)a]
Also, we have seen that the velocity of water through the nozzle:
𝟐𝒈𝑯
𝒗=√ 𝑳 𝒂 𝟐
………[Ref: eqn. 1.7(i)]
[𝟏 + 𝒇( )( ) ]
𝑫 𝑨
59
Now, substituting the 𝒗-value in the equation [1.7(𝑖𝑖𝑖)𝑎] above and simplifying the expression
is finally obtained as:-
𝝅 𝟑/𝟐 𝒅𝟐 𝒅𝟐
𝑷𝒐𝒖𝒕 = 𝜸(𝟐𝒈𝑯𝑫𝟓 ) = 𝑲.
𝟖𝒈 (𝑫𝟓 + 𝒅𝒇𝑳𝟒 )𝟑/𝟐 (𝑫𝟓 + 𝒇𝑳𝒅𝟒 )𝟑/𝟐
𝝅 𝟑/𝟐
Where K is a constant, whose value is: 𝟖𝒈 𝜸(𝟐𝒈𝑯𝑫𝟓 )
𝒅𝟐
d[𝑲. 𝟑/𝟐 ]
d(𝑷𝒐𝒖𝒕 ) (𝑫 +𝒅𝒇𝑳𝟒 )
𝟓
Power transmitted is a maximum when: = = 0; which finally gives the
d(𝑑) d(𝒅)
equation: 𝐷5 + 4𝑓𝐿𝑑 4 = 6𝑓𝐿𝑑 4 or 2𝑓𝐿𝑑 = 𝐷5 . Therefore,
4
𝟏/𝟒
𝑫𝟓
𝒅 = (𝟐𝒇𝑳) ………………….……………………1.7(vii)
EXAMPLES-1.15
Q. Find the diameter of the nozzle and the maximum power transmitted by a jet of water discharging
freely out of a nozzle, fitted to a pipe 300 m long and 10 cm diameter with coefficient of friction
as 0.04. The available head at nozzle is 90 m.
Solution:-
Given: Head of water, 𝑯 = 90 m; Length of pipe, 𝑳 = 300 m; Diameter of pipe, 𝑫 =10 cm =
0.10 m; Coefficient of friction, 𝒇 = 0.04
Diameter of a nozzle for maximum power:
Let 𝒅 = Diameter of the nozzle foe maximum power. Then applying eqn. 1.7(vii) we have:
𝟏/𝟒 1/4
𝑫𝟓 (0.1)5
𝒅 = (𝟐𝒇𝑳) = (2 ) = 0.0254 m or 2.54 cm (Ans).
x 0.04 x 300
Q1. Prove that in case of transmission of power by means of water under pressure, the maximum
power transmitted when the frictional loss of head in the pipe is one-third of the total head
supplied
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The pressure at the inlet of a pipe is 7000 kN/m2 and the pressure drop is 700 kN/m2. The
pipeline is 15 km. If 74 kW is to be transmitted over this line, find the diameter of the pipe and
efficiency of transmission. (use f = 0.024)
Q2. The total head available to be utilized for constructing a hydro-electric plant is 510 m. The water
is to be fed to the turbine by means of a pipe line 3.2 km long. The diameter of the pipe is 90
cm. The pipe terminates in a nozzle having a 20 cm diameter jet, at a level of 10 m above the
tailrace water surface. Find the power of the jet. Assume the coefficient of velocity of water
coming out of the nozzle as 0.98 and the coefficient of friction of the pipe as 0.024.
Q3. With hydraulic pressure 400 kN/m2 nozzle at the same level as hydrant, what is the volume of
flow through 90 m of high quality rubber lined 6.5 cm hose having a nozzle with tip 2.2 cm
diameter?
Q5. Oil is pumped along a horizontal 15 cm diameter and 200 m long pipe. The specific gravity of
the oil is 0.89, its kinematic viscosity is 1.3 x 10 -4 m2/s and the flow is laminar. It takes 18.4 kW
to drive the pump which has an overall efficiency of 65%. Find the quantity of oil flowing
through the pipe (in 𝒍/𝒎𝒊𝒏).
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APPENDICES
APPENDIX: 1.1
62
1.0.1 APPENDIX: 1.2
Note:-
This Nomogram is constructed for 𝑪 = 100, and the results obtained can be readily corrected
for other 𝑪-values (say 𝑪𝟏 ) by using the following equations:-
63
(a) Given flow (𝑸) and diameter (𝑫):
Determine the flow 𝑺𝟏𝟎𝟎 from the Nomogram then compute the required slope (𝑺) when
𝑪 = 𝑪𝟏 :-
𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝟏.𝟖𝟓
𝑺𝑪 𝟏 = 𝑺𝟏𝟎𝟎 ( )
𝑪𝟏
𝑳 𝐿 100 1.85
Total friction head loss, (𝒉𝒇 ) = (𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎) 𝑺𝑪𝟏 = [(1000) 𝑆100 ] . ( 𝑪 )
𝑪𝟏 𝟏
𝐿 𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝟏.𝟖𝟓
But [(1000) 𝑆100 ] = (ℎ𝑓 )100 and putting ( 𝑪 ) = 𝑲𝟏 we get:
𝟏
140
𝑪𝟏 70 80 90 100 110 120 130
𝐶1 1.4
0.7 0.8 0.9 1.0 1.1 1.2 1.3
𝑲𝟐 = ( )
100
𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝟎.𝟑𝟖
𝑫𝑪𝟏 = 𝑫𝟏𝟎𝟎 ( 𝑪 ) ………………………………………………….(v)
𝟏
64
APPENDIX: 1.3
65
APPENDIX: 1.4
66
APPENDIX: 1.5
Note:-
This Nomogram is constructed for Manning’s roughness coefficient 𝒏 = 0.013 for the pipe
flowing full; and the results obtained can be readily corrected for other 𝒏-values (say 𝒏𝟏 ) as
follows:-
67
(a) Given Diameter 𝑫, and slope 𝑺, for any 𝑛-value (say 𝒏𝟏 )
Determine the velocity, 𝒗𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝟑 (or discharge, 𝑸𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝟑 ) from the chart for 𝑛 = 0.013; then
0.013
multiply that velocity (or discharge) by ( )
𝑛
Thus, the velocity, 𝒗𝒏𝟏 (or discharge, 𝑸𝒏𝟏 ) for 𝑛 = 𝒏𝟏 :
0.013
𝒗𝒏 𝟏 = ( ) 𝒗𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝟑 ……………………………………………..(vi)
𝑛
0.013
𝑸𝒏𝟏 = ( ) 𝑸𝟎.𝟎𝟏𝟑 ………………..…………………………(vii
𝑛
Similarly;
68