Government Of Karnataka

Passing Package

II PUC BIOLOGY

2021-22
KARNATAKA RESIDENTIAL EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS SOCIETY, BENGALURU.

MORARJI DESAI RESIDENTIAL

SCIENCE PU COLLEGES.

II PUC
BIOLOGY

PASSING PACKAGE
FOR 2021-2022

1 KREIS BIOLOGY
 Editorial Board Members

Sri. Manjunath Salagare M.Sc., B.Ed. KSET

Lecturer in Biology, MDR Science PU College. Nidasosi, Belagavi BC-920

Dr. Prashantha Kumar H.G. M.Sc., M.Phil.B.Ed.Ph.D. KSET

Lecturer in Biology, MDR Science PU College, Hosur, Shivamoga BC-908

Sri. Avinash M M.Sc. B.Ed.

Lecturer in Biology, MDR Science PU College, Kolar

Dr. Siddaling M.Sc., B.Ed. M.Phil. Ph.D

Lecturer in Biology, MDR Science PU College Vijayapur, SC-919

Sri. Shivaprasad.S M.Sc., B.Ed. KSET

Lecturer in Biology, MDR Science PU College. Teguru, Chikkamagalur, SC-911

Smt. Ayesha Tharanum M.Sc. B.Ed.

Lecturer in Biology, MDR Science PU College, Miyar,Karkala (T),Udupi BC-917

2 KREIS BIOLOGY
 Contents
============================
UNIT-VI REPRODUCTION

Chapter-1 Reproduction in Organisms

Chapter-2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Chapter-3 Human Reproduction

Chapter-4 Reproductive Health

UNIT-VII GENETICS

Chapter-5 Principles of Inheritance & Variation

Chapter-6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Chapter-7 Evolution

UNIT-VIII BIOLOGY IN HUMAN WELFARE

Chapter-8 Human Health & Disease

Chapter-9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Chapter-10 Microbes in Human Welfare

UNIT-IX BIOTECHNOLOGY

Chapter-11 Biotechnology Principles & Processes

Chapter-12 Biotechnology & Its applications

UNIT-X ECOLOGY

Chapter-13 Organisms & Populations

Chapter-14 Ecosystem

Chapter-15 Biodiversity & Conservation

Chapter-16 Environmental Issues

3 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter 1

Reproduction in Organisms
1 Mark Questions
1. Name the reproductive cycle that occur in non-primates.
Oestrus cycle
2. How many chromosomes are there in meiocytes of human beings?
46
3. Name the part of the flower which develops into fruit after fertilization.
Ovary
4. Define parthenogenesis.
Female gamete undergoes development to form new organism without fertilization
5. Define embryogenesis.
The process of development of embryo from the zygote
6. What are hermaphrodites?
Bisexual animals that possess both male and female reproductive org
7. Name the reproductive cycle that occur in primates.
Menstrual cycle.
8. What are meiocytes?
Diploid mother cells which undergo meiosis to form haploid gametes.
2 Mark Questions
1. What are hermaphrodites? Mention one example.
Bisexual animals that possess both male and female reproductive org
Example: Earthworm / Leech / Sponge / Tapeworm.
2. What are homogametes and heterogametes?
Homogametes are morphologically similar in appearance. Heterogametes are
morphologically distinct in appearance.
3. What is embryogenesis? Mention two important events that occur during
embryogenesis.
The process of development of embryo from the zygote is called embryogenesis.
Cell division and Cell differentiation are two important events that occur during
embryogenesis.
4. Differentiate between pericarp and perisperm.
Pericarp – The ovary develops into fruit which develops a thick wall
called pericarp.or the thick wall of the fruit is called pericarp.
Perisperm – The residual , persistent nucellus is called perisperm.
5. Differentiate seasonal breeders from continuous breeders.
Seasonal breeders Continuous breeders
Animals which reproduce only in a Animals which reproduce continuously
particular season irrespective of season
Eg:Dog, frog Eg:Man
6. Differentiate between menstrual cycle and oestrus cycle.
Menstrual cycle Oestrous cycle
Cyclic changes that occur during Cyclic changes that occur during
reproduction in the ovaries of mammals reproduction in ovaries of non primates

4 KREIS BIOLOGY
 Shedding of endometrium and bleeding No shedding of endometrium and bleeding
occurs occur
7. What is heterothallic condition? Differentiate between staminate and pistillate
flowers.
Unisexual condition of organisms is called as heterothallic condition.
The flowers bearing only stamens are called staminate flowers.
The flowers bearing only stamens are called pistillate flowers.
8. What is parthenogenesis? Give two examples.
Female gamete undergoes development to form new organism without fertilization.
Examples: Honey bee / Rotifers / Bird (Turkey) / Some lizards
9. Differentiate between external fertilization and internal fertilization.
External fertilisation Internal fertilisation
It occurs outside the female body It occur inside the female body
More gametes are produced Less female gametes are produced
External medium like water is needed No medium is needed

5 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter 2
Sexual reproduction in flowering plants
1 Mark Questions
1. Papaya plants exhibit xenogamy only. Why?
Because Papaya plant is dioecious plant / Male and female flowers are developed in
different plants.
2. What is emasculation?
Removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces.
3. What is apomixis?
Apomixis is the production of seeds without fertilization.
4. What is geitenogamy?
Pollination between the flowers borne on same plant is called geitenogamy.
5. What is xenogamy?
Pollination between the flowers of two different plants is called xenogamy.
6. Write the function of filiform apparatus.
Filiform apparatus play an important role in guiding the pollen tubes to penetrate into the
synergid.
7. What is double fertilization?
Two types of fusions, syngamy and triple fusion take place in an embryo sac the
phenomenon is termed as double fertilization.
8. What are false fruits? Give an example.
The fruits develop from the thalamus is called False fruits.
Ex: Apple / Strawberry / Cashew.
9. Write the characteristic features of insect pollinated flowers.
Characteristics of insect pollinated flowers.
The flowers are large, conspicuous, coloured and showy.
When flowers are small, they aggregate in the form of an inflorescence.
The flowers have a fragrance and sweet nectar.
Pollen grains are rough and surrounded by sticky substance called pollen kit.
Flowers are very good places for the insects to lay their eggs.
10. What is megasporogenesis?
The process of formation of megaspores from the megaspore mother cell is called
megasporogenesis.
3/5 Mark Questions
1. Briefly explain the structure of pollen grains.
Pollen grain is the male gametophyte.
Pollen wall is two layered structure containing outer exine and inner intine.
Exine is hard layer, made up of most resistant organic material called as sporopollenin.
Exine has prominent apertures called germ pores.
Intine is inner wall, which is a thin and continuous layer made up of cellulose and
pectin.
Mature Pollen grain contains two cells – Vegetative cell and Generative cells
Vegetative cell is bigger with large irregularly shaped nucleus; generative cell is small
with small nucleus.

6 KREIS BIOLOGY
2. How does pollination achieved in Vallisneria and sea grasses?
In Vallisneria the female flower reaches the surface of water by the long stalk and the
male flower or pollen grains are released on the surface of water. They are carried by
water current and reach the stigma and achieve pollination.
In Sea grasses female flower remain submerged in water and pollen grains are released
inside the water. Some of them reach the stigma through water and achieve pollination.
3. What are cleistogamous flowers? Write their significance.
Cleistogamous flowers which do not open at all leads to compulsory self pollination.
Significance of cleistogamy
1. Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous as there is no chance of allogamy.
2. Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of pollinators.
4. What is artificial hybridization? By which technique it is achieved?
Crossing different species to combine desirable characters to produce commercially
'superior' varieties.
Techniques : Emasculation and bagging.
5. What is pollination? Mention any four feature of wind pollinated flowers.
Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a pistil is termed pollination.
Feature of wind pollinated flowers.
1. The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen when compared to the number of
ovules available for pollination.
2. The pollen grains are light and non-sticky
3. The flower often possesses well-exposed stamens.
4. Stigma is large and feathery.
5. Wind pollinated flowers often have a single ovule in each ovary.
6. Numerous flowers packed into an inflorescence.
6. Write three advantages offered by the seeds to angiosperm.
Seeds offer several advantages to angiosperms.
Since reproductive processes such as pollination and fertilisation are independent of
water, seed formation is more dependable.
Seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitats and help the species
to colonise in other areas.
Seeds have sufficient food reserves, young seedlings are nourished until they are
capable of photosynthesis on their own.
The hard seed coat provides protection to the young embryo.
Being products of sexual reproduction, they generate new genetic combinations leading
to variations.
Seed is the basis of our agriculture.
7. Define Autogamy. Write the two different kinds of flowers that exhibit autogamy.
Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower.
Two different kinds of flowers that exhibit autogamy are chasmogamous flowers and
cleistogamous flowers.
8. Describe the out breeding devices that prevent the autogamy.
Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self pollination and to
encourage cross-pollination these devices or adaptations are called as the out breeding
devices.
 In some species, pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronised. Either the

7 KREIS BIOLOGY
 pollen is released before the stigma becomes receptive or stigma becomes receptive
much before the release of pollen.
 In some other species, the anther and stigma are placed at different positions so that
the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of the same flower.
 Some plants exhibit self-incompatibility. This is a genetic mechanism and prevents
self-pollen (from the same flower or other flowers of the same plant) from fertilising the
ovules by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil.
 Some plants produces unisexual flowers. If both male and female flowers are present
on the same plant such as castor and maize (monoecious), it prevents autogamy but not
geitonogamy. In several species such as papaya, male and female flowers are present on
different plants, that is each plant is either male or female (dioecy). This condition
prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
9. Describe the structure of mature embryo sac of Angiosperm.
 Mature Embryo sac is the female gametophyte of Angiosperm.
 At chalazal end it contains three antipodal cells.
 At middle it contains two polar nuclei or secondary nuclei.
 At micropylar end it has egg apparatus which includes an egg surrounded by two
synergid cells.
 At the base of synergid cell finger like structures called as Filiform apparatus, helps
for pollen tube entry into embryo sac.
 Thus mature embryo sac is 7 celled and 8 nucleated structure.

10. Explain the transverse section of young anther with a labeled diagram.
 Young anther is generally surrounded by four wall layers – the epidermis,
endothecium, middle layers and the tapetum.
 The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence
of anther to release the pollen.
 The innermost wall layer is the tapetum. It nourishes the developing pollen grains.
 When the anther is young, a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells called the
sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium.

8 KREIS BIOLOGY
11. Write the events of development of female gametophyte (embryo sac) in correct
order.
 Inside the ovule initially Megaspore mother cell divide by meiosis to form 4 haploid
cells called as megaspores, out of these megaspores 3 cells disintegrate, only one
functional megaspore is retained.
 Nucleus of this functional megaspore under goes three round of mitosis to form 8
nuclei. This structure with 8 nucleated condition is called as embryo sac or female
gametophyte.
 Out of 8 nuclei 3 goes to chalazal end to form 3 antipodal cells, two remains at center
to form secondary nuclei, 3 nuclei goes to micropyle end, middle one become egg, on
both side they form synergid cells.
 Thus embryo sac is 7 celled / 8 nucleated structure.
12. Explain the structure of megasporangium (Ovule).
(a) Funicle: It is the stalk of the ovule, attaching to the wall of the ovary.
(b) Hilum : It is the region where body of the ovule fuses with funicle.
(c) Chalaza: It is a basal part of ovule. Opposite end of the chalaza is called as
micropylar end.
(d) Integuments: These are ovule membranes, later they become seed coat. At
micropylar end they forms a hole like structure called as micropyle, which helps for entry
of the pollen tube.
(e) Nucellus: It is the tissue provides nutrients to the developing embryo sac.
(f) Embryo Sac: Embryo sac is also called as female gametophyte. An ovule generally
has single embryo sac formed from a megaspore.

9 KREIS BIOLOGY
13. Describe the structure of dicot embryo with the help of a labelled diagram.
 A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons.
 The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl, which
terminates with the plumule or stem tip.
 The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl that terminates at
its lower end in the radical or root tip.
 The root tip is covered with a root cap.

10 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter 03
Human Reproduction
1 Mark Questions
1. What is ovulation?
The release of the secondary oocyte / ovum from the ovary/ Graafian follicle
2. Name the cells that secrete androgens.
Leydig cells / Interstitial cells
3. Name the physical and physiological connection between maternal body and
embryo (foetus)
Placenta
4. Why is oxytocin necessary for parturition?
It causes contraction of uterine muscles.
5. What is menarche?
The first menstruation begins at puberty is called menarche.
6. What is Menopause?
In human beings, menstrual cycles ceases around 50 years of age; that is termed as
menopause.
7. What is colostrum?
The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called colostrum.
8. Ovulation takes place on 14 day of menstrual cycle. Why?
Because of LH surge/maximum level of LH.
9. Mention the function of Sertoli cells of testes.
Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the germ cells.
10. Name the Hormone Secreted by Corpus Luteum.
Progesterone
11. What is Implantation?
Attachment of blastocyst to the endometrium wall of the uterus.
12. What is Foetal ejection reflex?
The signals for parturation originate from the fully developed foetus and the placenta
which induce mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex.
13. Name the hormone released by the ovary in the later phase of pregnancy.
Relaxin
14. Name the layer of the uterus that exhibits strong contraction during parturition.
Myometrium exhibits strong contraction during delivery of the baby.
15. Name the finger like projections on Trophoblast that appear during implantation.
Chorionic villi
16. In which site of fallopian tube does fertilisation take place?
Ampullary isthmus region of fallopian tube.
2 Mark Questions
1. List any four hormones secreted by placenta.
Four hormones secreted by placenta
1) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
2) human placental lactogen (hPL)
3) Estrogens
4) Progestogens

11 KREIS BIOLOGY
2. Mention the accessory ducts of male reproductive system.
The male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas
deferens.
3. Draw a neat labeled diagram of the sectional view of human mammary gland.

5 Marks Questions
1. Draw a neat labelled diagram of human sperm.

2. What is spermatogenesis? Explain the process of spermatogenesis.

Formation of Sperm from the spermatogonium is called as spermatogenesis.
Process of spermatogenesis occurs as below:
 In testis, the spermatogonia present on the inside wall of seminiferous tubules
multiply by mitotic division and increase in numbers. They undergo differentiation to
form Primary spermatocytes.
 Primary spermatocytes under go first meiotic division to produce two equal, haploid
cells called secondary spermatocytes.
 The secondary spermatocytes under go the second meiotic division to produce four

12 KREIS BIOLOGY
 equal, haploid spermatids.
 The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa (sperms) by the process called
spermiogenesis.
3. Draw a neat labeled diagram of sectional view of human female Reproductive
system.

4. Draw a neat labelled diagram of human male reproductive system.

13 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter 4
Reproductive Health
1/ 2 Mark Questions
1. Mention any four Sexually Transmitted Diseases.
Gonorrhoea / Syphilis / Genital herpes / Chlamydiasis / Genital warts / Trichomoniasis /
Hepatitis-B / AIDS.
2. Mention any two natural methods of birth control.
Periodic abstinence / Withdrawal or coitus interruptus / Lactational amenorrhea.
3. Write any two simple principles to prevent sexually transmitted diseases.
(i) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
(ii) Always use condoms during coitus.
(iii) In case of doubt, go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete
treatment if diagnosed with disease.
4. Mention the reasons for population explosion.
A rapid decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality rate
(IMR).
Increase in number of people in reproducible age.
5. Name two hormone releasing IUD‟s.
Progestasert, LNG-20
6. What is medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)? Mention the safe Period for MTP.
Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called medical
termination of pregnancy (MTP).
MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e.,up to 12 weeks of
pregnancy.
7. Name human male and female sterilization procedures.
Sterilisation procedure in the male is called „vasectomy‟ and in the female is called
„tubectomy‟.
3/5 Marks Questions
1. Suggest any three assisted reproductive technologies to overcome Infertility.
In vitro fertilisation - embryo transfer (IVF-ET)
Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
Intra uterine transfer (IUT)
Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI
Artificial insemination (AI)
Intra-uterine insemination (IUI)
2. What is infertility? Give reasons for infertility in hum
Infertility is the inability to produce children in spite of unprotected sexual habitation /
sexual intercourse.
Reasons for infertility: Physical / Congenital / Disease / Drugs /Immunological /
Psychological.
3. List the measures to prevent Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD‟s)
Simple principles to prevent sexually transmitted diseases;
(i) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
(ii) Always use condoms during coitus.
(iii) In case of doubt, go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete
14 KREIS BIOLOGY
 treatment if diagnosed with disease.
4. Write three simple principles to prevent STD's.
Simple principles to prevent sexually transmitted diseases;
(i) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
(ii) Always use condoms during coitus.
(iii) In case of doubt, go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete
treatment if diagnosed with disease.
5. List any three reasons for population explosion
1) A rapid decline in death rate, Maternal mortality rate (MMR)
2) Decline in Infant mortality rate (IMR).
3) Increase in number of people in reproductive age.
6. What are the features of an ideal contraceptive?
An ideal contraceptive should be
User-friendly, easily available, effective
They should be reversible with no or least side-effects.
It also should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire and/or the sexual act of
the user.
7. Mention the natural methods of contraception.
Periodic abstinence
Withdrawal or coitus interruptus
Lactational amenorrhea
8. What are contraceptives? Explain four different non-surgical contraceptive methods.
Contraceptives are methods or devices which help prevent unwanted pregnancies.
Non-surgical contraceptive methods:
1) Natural methods: work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms
meeting. Example: Periodic abstinence, Withdrawal or coitus interruptus / Lactational
amenorrhea.
2) Barrier methods: These act as mechanical obstructers and prevent the entry of semen
in to the fallopian tube.
Example: Condom, Diaphragm, Cervical caps, Vaults
3) Intra-uterine devices (IUDs): Intra uterine device is a small flexible plastic or rubber
of copper object which is inserted into uterus. These Intra Uterine Devices are presently
available as the non-medicated IUDs (e.g., Lippes loop), copper releasing IUDs (CuT,
Cu7, Multiload 375) and the hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert, LNG-20) They bring
about contraception by different ways.
4) Oral contraception (Hormonal methods): This is a contraceptive method in which
„Pills” are taken orally by females. These pills contain progestogen or progestogen-
estrogen combinations that inhibit the secretion of FSH and LH and thus prevent the
maturation of graafian follicle and ovulation.
5) Implants and Injectables: These are progestogen or progestogen-estrogen
combinations that are used under the skin by females. Their function is similar to that of
Oral contraceptives.

15 KREIS BIOLOGY
9. Explain any Five types of assisted reproductive technology.
In vitro fertilization embryo transfer (IVF-ET) - In this method, popularly known as
test tube baby programme, ova from the wife / donor (female) and sperms from the
husband/donor (male) are collected and are induced to form zygote under simulated
conditions in the laboratory.
ZIFT [Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer]
The zygote or very early embryos are transferred into the fallopian tubes.
IUT- [Intra Uterine Transfer]
The embryos more than 8 cells are transferred into uterus to complete their further
development.
GIFT [Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer]
Transfer of an ovum from a donor to a female who cannot produce the ovum, but can
provide a suitable environment for the further growth.
AI- [ Artificial Insemination]
If a male partner is incapable of inseminating or suffering from
azoospermia or oligospermia then AI technique is employed. The semen is collected by
her husband or from the semen bank where donors name is not disclosed and introduced
into the vagina or uterus.
ICSI- [Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection]
When the envelops of secondary oocytes are rigid under such conditions sperms are
directly introduced into the cytoplasm of the ovum. It is a micromanipulation technique.
IUI - [Intra uterine insemination]
The semen collected from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced into the
vagina or into the uterus.

Chapter 5

PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATIONS

16 KREIS BIOLOGY
 Chapter 5
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATIONS

1 Mark Questions
1. What are alleles?
Alternate forms of a gene which occupy the same loci on homologous chromosomes.
2. What is Back cross?
A cross between F1 progeny back to one of their parents
3. What is Test cross?
A cross between the F1 organisms with the recessive parent
4. What is Co-dominance?
When the alleles for two contrasting characters are together in heterozygous
condition, both the alleles express their character together
5. What is Incomplete Dominance
When dominant gene is incompletely dominant over recessive gene, the
phenomemon is known as incomplete dominance.
6. What is linkage?
Physical association of genes on a chromosome.
7. State the “Mendel Law of dominance”
In a cross between two pure breed organisms with contrasting characters only one
character of the pair appears in the F-1 generation and it is called dominant & the
other which is not expressed is called recessive‟.
8. State the Law of Segregation/ Purity of gametes
“When the alleles for two contrasting characters are brought together in F1
generation, they separate or segregate in F2 generation during the formation of
gametes”.
9. State the Law of independent assortment
“When the alleles for more than two contrasting characters are brought together in F1
hybrids they assort independently by one another in F2 generation during the
formation of gametes”.
10. What is pedigree analysis?
Analysis of traits in several of generation of a family is called pedigree analysis
11. What is mutation?
It is defined as the spontaneous permanent inheritable change in the genetic makeup
that can alter the character of an individual.

2 Mark Questions
1. What are multiple alleles? Give an example
More than two alternative forms of a gene occupying same locus on the homologous
chromosome and control a single character is called multiple allele.
Ex: Human blood group is controlled by three alleles( IA IB i)
2. Drosophila melanogaster is a model organism in genetic studies, justify
 Grown on simple synthetic medium in laboratory.
 They complete their life cycle in two weeks
 A single mating could produce large number of progeny
 Clear differentiation of male and female flies

17 KREIS BIOLOGY
3. What is polygenic inheritance? Give an example.
An expression of a trait is controlled by two or more number of genes
Eg: Eye colour / Skin colour, / Height and Weight of human beings
4. Define pleiotrophy.Mention one example.
A single gene influences on two or more unrelated phenotypic expression Example :
Phenylketonuria
5. What is male heterogamety? Give an example.
It is a mechanism of sex determination in which males produce two different types of
gametes.
Example-XX & XY method of sex determination in humans.
6. What is Co-dominance? Give an example
When the alleles for two contrasting characters are together in heterozygous
condition, both the alleles express their character together.
Eg: ABO Blood group in humans, ( IA IB )
7. Write a note on a)α-Thallesamia b)β-Thallesamia
 In α Thalassemia production of α-Globin chain is affected which is controlled
by closely linked genes HBA1 and HBA2
 In β -Thalassemia β -Globin chain is affected which is controlled by single
gene HBB on chromosome 11

3 Mark Questions
1. What is monohybrid test cross? Write its significance
Definition: The cross conducted between a F-1 plants of unknown genotype and its
recessive parent.
Significance of Test cross:
o It helps to know the genotype of an unknown plant.
o It helps to verify the heterozygosity of an hybrid
2. What is phenyl ketonuria? Mention the two symptoms.
Inborn error of metabolism, in which affected individuals lack an enzyme called
„Phenyl alanine hydroxylase‟ that converts the Amino acid Phenyl alanine to
Tyrosine
Symptoms
 Mental retardation
 Because of accumulation of Phenyl pyruvic acid & other derivatives, infants
have lighter skin, hair & eyes than their siblings
3. List the salient features of chromosomal theory of inheritance?
 It was proposed by Walter Sutton and Theodore Bovery in 1902
 The behavior of the chromosomes is parallel to the behavior of genes and
used chromosome movements to explain Mendel‟s law.
 Mendelian genes are located on chromosomes and it is the chromosomes
which assort and segregate independently

18 KREIS BIOLOGY
4. Write the genotype of ABO blood group
Blood type Genotype
A IAIA / IAi
B IBIB / IBi
AB IAIB
O ii
5. Write a note on Phenylketonuria as an example for Mendelian disorder.
 Autosomal recessive trait
 Inborn error of metabolism
 The affected individuals lack one enzyme called Phenyl alanine
hydroxylase that converts the Amino acid Phenyl alanine to Tyrosine
 In the absence of the enzyme phenylalanine accumulated and converted in to
Phenylpyruvic acid and other derivatives
 Accumulation of these results in mental retardation
These derivatives excreted through kidney
6. Mention the cause, symptoms, inheritance of Haemophilia
 In this disease a single protein that is a part of the cascade of proteins Involved
in clotting of blood is affected due to these affected individuals a small cut
results in non stop bleeding can lead to the death.
 Bleeding in joints, gastrointestinal tract, urinary tract
 It is a sex linked(X-linked) recessive disease.
 Disease transmitted from unaffected carrier female to some of the male progeny
Female affected is extremely rare because mother of such a female should be at least
carrier and the father should be haemophilic
7. Mention the cause, karyotype and symptoms of
a) Down‟s syndrome
b) Turner‟s syndrome
a) Down‟s Syndrome: Caused Due To Presence Of An Additional Copy Of
Autosome Of The Chromosome Number 21(21st Trisomy).
 45A+XY For Male And 45A+XX For Female
 Short Stature, With Small Round Head
 Furrowed Tongue
 Partially Opened Mouth
b) Turner‟s Syndrome
Caused due to the absence of one of the X chromosomes i.e sex chromosomal
monosomy results in 45 chromosomes instead of 46 chromosomes
 45 (44A+XO)
 Poorly developed under arm & pubic hair
 Such females are sterile has ovaries rudimentary
8. What are mutagens? Mention the types with example
 These are the agents which causes mutation.
 Physical mutagens: Physical agents like short wave radiations.
Eg: X rays, UV rays etc
 Chemical mutagens: Chemical agents
Eg:Ethyl Methane Sulphonate (EMS), Methyl Methane Sulphonate(MMS),

19 KREIS BIOLOGY
9. Write a short note on types of mutation.
1. Gene mutation / Point mutation:
If the Mutation occurs in the gene level i.e nucleotide sequence of a gene (DNA)
molecule.
E.g: Sickle cell anaemia
2. Chromosomal mutation:
Mutation caused due to the change in the chromosomal number.
Eg: Down‟s syndrome, Turner‟s syndrome etc
3. Frame shift mutation:Addition or deletions of base pairs of DNA

5 Marks Questions
1. Explain the Mendel law of segregation/ Purity of gametes/ Mendel‟s first law
OR
State law of segregation. Explain with reference to inheritance of height of the
pea plant.
Definition: When the alleles for two contrasting characters are brought together in F1
generation, they separate or segregate in F2 generation during the formation of
gametes”.
Monohybrid cross:
 A cross performed between two pure breeding plants which differ in a
single genetic character is called monohybrid cross.
 Hybrid obtained by crossing parents differing in one character is called
monohybrid
 When a homozygous dominant tall pea plant with a genotype TT crossed
with homozygous recessive dwarf pea plant with a genotype tt it produces
all heterozygous dominant tall pea plants with a genotype Tt in the F1
generation.
 When the F1 plants are selfed they produce 3 tall plants and 1 dwarf plant
in the F2 generation.
 Among the 3 Tall plants 1 is homozygous dominant (TT) and 2 are
heterozygous dominant (Tt),
 Phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross is 3:1
 The genotypic ratio is 1:2:1

2
Illustration of law of segregation

20 KREIS BIOLOGY
2. Explain the Law of independent assortment / Dihybrid cross / Mendel‟s second
law OR
State the law of independent assortment. Explain it with reference to colour and
shape of the seed of the pea plant
Definition: “When the alleles for more than two contrasting characters are brought
together in F1 hybrids they assort independently by one another in F2 generation
during the formation of gametes”.
 A cross involving two pairs of contrasting characters is called a dihybrid cross
 Mendel selected round seed coat and yellow colour cotyledons (RRYY) and a
pure breeding plant with wrinkled seed coat and green colour cotyledons
(rryy). In F1 all the plants had round seed coat and yellow coloured
cotyledons.
 This indicates that, alleles for yellow (Y) is dominant over green (y) and
allele for round (R) is dominant over wrinkle (r).
 When the F1 hybrids are self crossed to obtain F2 generation, all the four types
of plants are obtained such as round yellow (9) round green (3) wrinkled
yellow (3) and wrinkled green (1) in the phenotypic ratio of 9:3:3:1 and
genotypic ratio 1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1.

21 KREIS BIOLOGY
3. Explain the incomplete dominance with an example of Snapdragon
 The Dominant gene is incompletely dominant over recessive gene, the
phenomenon is known as incomplete dominance.
 The above phenomenon is explained in Snapdragon plant or Dog flower
(Antirrhinum sp.)
 A pure breeding red flowered plant crossed with pure breeding white flowered
plant.
 All the F1 hybrids produced pink flowers.
 This is because the dominants gene R is responsible for red colour is not able to
suppress the recessive gene completely.
 In F2 generation phenotypic and genotypic ratio obtained was
1 Red : 2 Pink : 1 White

22 KREIS BIOLOGY
4. Explain the cause, symptoms and inheritance pattern of Sickle cell anaemia.
Cause: The defect is caused due to the replacement of an Amino acid i.e., Glutamic
acid by Valine at the sixth position of Beta globin chain of the Haemoglobin
molecule.
 Substitution of amino acid takes place due to the single base substitution at the
sixth codon of the Beta globin gene from GAG to GUG
 The mutant Haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerization under low
oxygen tension causing the change in the shape of the RBC from biconcave
disc to elongated sickle like structure.
Symptoms: Oxygen Carrying capacity reduces.
 Life span of RBC decreases.
 Break down of RBC increases
Inheritance:Transmitted from parent to the offspring when both the parents
are carrier for the gene (Heterozygous)
 This disease is controlled by single pair of allele, HbA gene and HbS
 There are three possible genotypes (HbA,HbA, HbA,HbS and HbS,HbS)
 Only homozygous individuals for Hbs(HbS,HbS)show the diseased phenotype
 Heterozygous (HbA,HbS) individuals appear apparently unaffected but they are
carrier of the disease as there in 50% probability of transmission of the mutant
gene to the progeny.

23 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter 06

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

1 Mark Questions
1. What is Autoradiography?
Hybridized DNA strands on the Nylon sheet are X-ray photographed. It is
known as autoradiography.
2. What are Nucleosides?
Combination of nitrogen base and pentose sugar are called nucleosides.
3. What are Nucleotides?
Combination of nitrogen base and pentose sugar and phosphate are called
nucleotides.
4. What are Polynucleotides?
More than two Nucleotides joined together to form polynucleotide
5. What is Mutation?
A sudden inheritable change in the gene sequence is called mutation.
6. What is Thallassemia?
It is a blood disorder that reduces the production of Haemoglobin
7. Define Transcription
Biosynthesis of m-RNA using DNA Template
8. Define Translation
It is process where coded information present in the triplet codons of
m-RNA is used for the selection of amino acid sequence of a specific protein
molecule
9. What is RNA splicing?
In eukaryotes the entire gene is transcribed in to heterogeneous m-RNA, later non
coding Introns where removed & Exons are joined to form mature m-RNA, the
process is called RNA splicing
10. What is capping ?
„Methyl Guanosine Triphosphate‟ is added at 5‟ end of heterogeneous m-RNA,the
process is called capping.
11. Mention the function of RNA Polymerase –I
It transcribes ribosomal-RNA
12. Mention the function of RNA Polymerase –II
It transcribes precursor of m-RNA & heterogeneous nuclear RNA
13. Mention the function of RNA polymerase –III
It transcribes t-RNA, Small Ribosomal RNA & Small nuclear RNA.
14. Name the enzyme which catalizes Splicing
splicesome.
15. What is Regulator gene?
It regulates the action of Operator gene by producing inhibitors called Repressors
16. What is Operator gene?
Operator gene is a switch to control the expression of structural genes.
17. What is Structural genes? /Cluster genes
These are the Citrons which code for enzymes and proteins.
24 KREIS BIOLOGY
18. State Chargaff „s rule of base equivalence
“Ratio of Purines & Pyrimidines is always a constant.”
19. Mention the function of Topoisomerase.
Concerned with breaking and resealing of DNA
20. Mention the function of Helicases (Unwindases)
Involved in unwinding of DNA helix
21. Mention the function of DNA Polymerase-I
This enzyme joins the Okazaki fragments by utilising ATP
22. Mention the function of DNA Ligase
This enzyme joins the Okazaki fragments by utilising ATP
23. Mention the function of RNA-Primase
It is an enzyme which synthesises RNA primer
24. Mention the function of RNA Primer
Short single stranded RNA with maximum of 10 nucleotides needed for DNA
synthesis.
25. Mention the function of DNA-Template
Single stranded DNA, which provides unpaired nucleotides for base pairing

2 Mark Questions
1. Write the types of nucleic acids?
1. DNA (Deoxyribose Nucleic Acids)
2. RNA (Ribose Nucleic Acids)
2. Mention the Nitrogen bases present in DNA
Purines: Adinine (A),Guanine (G), Pyrimidines:Thymine (T),Cytosine(C)
3. Mention the Nitrogen bases present in RNA
Purines: Adinine (A),Guanine (G), Pyrimidines:Uracil (U),Cytosine(C)
4. Differentiate heterochromatin from euchromatin
Heterochromatin Euchromatin
Highly coiled & condensed region of Loosely coiled regions of chromatin
chromatin is called Heterochromatin. is called euchromatin.

5. DNA is better genetic material than RNA, justify with two reasons.
 Absence of Oxygen atom (Deoxy) in second carbon position of pentose sugar
provides additional stability.
 DNA is structurally more stable , chemically less reactive
 OH group present at second carbon atom of pentose sugar(Ribose sugar) is a
reactive group and makes RNA liable & easily degradable.
 RNA has the catalytic property & highly reactive
 RNA mutate at much faster rate.
Hence DNA is better genetic material than RNA.
6. Differentiate introns from exons
Introns Exons
Eukaryotic gene is split in to several non Eukaryotic gene is split in to several
coding regions called Introns coding regions called Exons

25 KREIS BIOLOGY
7. Mention the methodologies adopted for sequencing HGP
 Expressed sequence tags (ETSs):Identifying all the genes that are expressed
as RNA
 Sequence annotation:Sequencing the whole set of genome & assigning
different regions with functions for genes in the sequence is called sequence
annotation.
8. What is Frame shift mutation? or Deletion mutation? Mention one example
Insertion or deletion of three or its multiples bases
Example: Beta-Thallassemia
9. What is Point mutation? Mention one example
A single nucleotide base is changed, inserted or deleted from a DNA or RNA
sequence of an organism
Example- Sickel Cell Anaemia
10. Mention the nucleosides of DNA
Deoxyadenosine, Deoxyguanosine, Deoxycytidine , Deoxythymidine
11. Mention the nucleosides of RNA
Adenosine, Guanosine, Cytidine, Uridine
12. Mention the nucleotides of DNA
Deoxyadenylic acid, Deoxyguanylic acid,
Deoxycytidylic acid, Deoxythymidylic acid
13. Mention the nucleotides of RNA
Adenylic acid, Guanylic acid, Thymidylic acid, Urydylic acid

3 Mark Questions
1. Write a short note on DNA
DNA is found in all plants, animals, prokaryotes and some viruses
 In eukaryotes it is present in nucleus, chloroplast & mitochondria
 In prokaryotes it is present in the nucleoid.
 DNA is long polymer of Deoxyribonucleotides
 The length of DNA is depended on number of nucleotides
 Length of DNA varies in various organisms, E.coli has 4.6x106 base pairs,Human
DNA has 3.3x109 base pairs
2. Write the salient features of human genome project
 Scientists have identified about 1.4 million locations, where single base DNA
differences (SNP-single nucleotide polymorphism) occurs in humans.
 It established that about 99.9% nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all
people.
 It revealed that less than 2 % of the genome coded for protein.
 Successful to show that at least 50% of the human genome constitutes
 the repeating sequences. They are known as Junk DNA. These are
 helpful in studying chromosome structure, dynamics and evolution
 The human genome contains 3164.7 million base pairs
The average gene consists of 3000 bases, but sizes vary greatly. With the largest
known human gene being Dystrophin at 2.4 million bases.

26 KREIS BIOLOGY
3. List out three applications of DNA fingerprinting.
 DNA fingerprinting technique used the detection of criminals, murderer & rapist
 DNA fingerprinting technique is useful in solving disputed parentage
 It can be used identifying bodies of victims of plane crash, fire breakdowns &
building collapse.
4. Write any three Objectives of HGP
 To identify estimated 20,000 to 25,000 genes of the human genome.
 To construct detailed genetic & physical maps of 3 billion base pairs that makes
human DNA.
 To understand the structure, organization and function of human
DNA.
5. Write a short note on transcription unit
1) Promoter:
o The promoter is said to be located towards 5‟end of the structural gene
o Promoter provides binding site for RNA polymerase
o Presence of a promoter defines the Template strand & Coding strand.
o If Position of the promoter is changed with terminator,
Then coding & template strand will be reversed.
The Structural gene:
o It code for any RNA OR protein product other than a regulatory factor.
o Single stranded DNA with polarity 3‟→5‟ is called Template strand.
o Single stranded DNA with polarity 5‟→3‟ is called Coding strand.
c) A Terminator:
o It is located towards 3‟end of coding strand.
o Terminator terminates (ends) the process of transcription.

6. Differentiate Prokaryotic gene from Eukaryotic gene

Prokaryotic gene Eukaryotic gene
Each gene is continuous stretch of Each gene continuous shows the
DNA and coding type presence of Introns and Exons. So
it is known as Split genes
Gene is Polycistronic Gene is Monocistronic
Codes for many proteins at a time Codes for single protein at a time
7. Mention the function of DNA
Autocatalytic functions
 DNA undergoes self replication to produce its own copy
Heterocatalytic function
 DNA produces all types non genetic RNA i.e m-RNA, t-RNA,
r-RNA
 DNA directs protein synthesis
 It transmits the characters from parents to offsprings

27 KREIS BIOLOGY
 5 Mark Questions
Explain
1 the Griffith‟s transformation experiment which proved that DNA is the
1. genetic material
In 1938 Fredrick Griffith discovered the transforming principle in bacteria
Streptococcus pneumonia. It causes disease Pneumonia in mammals including
humans.This bacterium is found in two forms, namely
a) Smooth Strain (S-Strain): The cells produce a capsule of polysaccharides and the
smooth & shiny colonies. This strain causes disease Pneumonia. (Pathogenic)
b) Rough Strain (R-Strain): The cells lack polysaccharides capsule. And produce dull and
rough colonies, hence the name - Rough strain. This strain is unable to cause disease.(Non
pathogenic).
1. At first he injected S-Strain in to the experimental mice, then mice suffered from
the disease Pneumonia and die.
2. He again injected R – Strain in to the experimental mice, then it remain healthy
(No Pneumonia)
3. He injected heat killed S-Strain in to the experimental mice, then it remain healthy
(No Pneumonia)
4. He injected heat killed S-Strain mixed with living R-Strain in to the experimental
mice, then mice Suffered from the disease Pneumonia and die.
He concluded that R-strain bacteria had somehow been transferred from the heat killed S-
strain, had enabled the R-strain to synthesize a smooth polysaccharide coat and become
virulent.
2. What is genetic code? Explain any four salient features of genetic code
o „Definite sequence of bases transferred from DNA to m-RNA to the definite sequence
of amino acids in a polypeptide is called Genetic code‟.
Features of genetic code
o Triplet nature: Genetic code is a triplet codon. Three adjacent bases together called a
codon. Ex CCC code for Amino acid Proline.
o Genetic code is universal: The genetic code is same in prokaryotes & eukaryotes
Ex:UUU always codes for Phenyl alanine in all organism
o Initiator codons: AUG is the initiator codons in all organisms. It initiates the synthesis
of polypeptide chain. In the absence of AUG, GUG acts as start codon.
o Terminator codons: The three codons UAA, UAG,UGA do not specify any amino
acids are called terminator codon / Stop codon / Non sense codon. These codons stops
the synthesis of polypeptide

28 KREIS BIOLOGY
3. Explain the double helical structure of DNA

Based on the observation of X-ray diffraction data of M.H.F Wilkins (1950) & Franklin
and Gorling(1953),James Watson and Francis crick proposed double helix model to
explain the structure of DNA. DNA is made of two polynucleotide chains.
Salient features of Double helix structure of DNA:
o Sugar and phosphate forms the backbone and bases projected to inside.
o Two chains have anti-parallel polarity.(i.e.5‟→3‟ & 3‟→5‟)
o Two strands are held together by hydrogen bond present in between bases.
o Adenine of one strand pairs with Thymine of another strand by two hydrogen
bonds and vice versa.
o Guanine of one strand pairs with Cytosine of another strand by three hydrogen
bonds and vice versa. A purine comes opposite to a pyrimidine. This generates
approximately uniform distance between the two strands of the helix.
o The two chains are coiled in a right – handed fashion.
o The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm or 34 A0
o There are roughly 10 base pairs (bp) in turn.
o The distance between the bp in a helix is 0.34nm or 3.4 A0.

29 KREIS BIOLOGY
4. Draw a diagram of nucleosome & explain the packaging of DNA in eukaryotes.

Packaging in Eukaryotes:
o In eukaryotes the packaging is more complex.
o There is a set of positively charged, basic protein called Histones.
o Histones are positively charged due to being rich in basic Amino acids like
Lysines and Arginines.
o Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called Histone octamere.
o Octamere consists of two molecules each of H2A,H2B,H3 & H4
o Negatively charged DNA wrapped around positively charged Histone octamere to
form a structure called nucleosome.
o A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix.
o Nucleosome constitutes the repeating unit of a structure in nucleus
called chromatin, thread like stained bodies seen in the nucleus.
o The nucleosomes are seen as „beads-on-string‟ structure when viewed under
electron microscope.
o The chromatin is packaged to form chromatin fibers that are further coiled and
condensed at metaphase stage to form chromosome.
o Packaging at higher level required additional set of proteins called Non-histone
Chromosomal (NHC) proteins.
o In a typical nucleus some loosely coiled regions of chromatin (light stained) is
called euchromatin.
o The chromatin that is highly coiled & condensed is called Heterochromatin.
5. Describe the experiment of Hershey-Chase, which proves that DNA is the genetic
material.
 Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase(1952)worked on bacteriophages (Bacteria
infecting viruses)
 During infection bacteriophage attaches to the bacteria cell wall & penetrates the
genetic material in to the bacterial cell.
 Viral coat remains attached to the bacterial cell wall only (Remains outside)
 Later genetic material injected become integral part of bacterial genome and
synthesises more viruse particle using host machinery.
 Hershey & Chase worked to discover whether the injected material in to the
Bacteria is Protein or DNA ?
 They grew some Bacteriophages on media containing radioactive Phosphorus,
(Here radioactive Phosphorus is accumulated in DNA).Because Phosphorus
present only in DNA not in protein.
 They grew some Bacteriophages on media containing radioactive Sulphur,(Here

30 KREIS BIOLOGY
 radioactive Sulphur is accumulated in protein).Because Sulphur present only in
protein not in DNA.
 Bacteriophages grown on radioactive Phosphorus & Sulphur allowed infecting
Escherichia coli bacteria, after the successful infection the viral coats were
separated from the bacterial cell wall surface by agitating (shaking) in a blender.
 Hence the name „Blenders experiment‟. Similarly injected material is also isolated
from bacteriophage using centrifuge machine.
6. Describe the experiment of Messelson& Stahl that proves that replication of DNA is
semiconservative.
 They grew Escherichia coli (E.coli) bacteria in 15NH4Cl medium for 14 cell
generations.( 15N is a heavy Nitrogen, where as normal Nitrogen is known a 14N).
 As a result all the 15N is incorporated in the DNA & other Nitrogen containing
compounds by replacing 14N.
 Then they transferred the Escherichia coli (E.coli) in to a medium with normal 14N,
that is 14NH4Cl & let them grow. (Escherichia coli (E.coli) divides in every 20
minutes ).
 They took samples in every 20 minutes intervals as the cells multiplied, & exctracted
the DNA that remained as double stranded helices.
 This heavy DNA molecule could be distinguished from normal DNA by centrifugation
in a Cesium Chloride (CsCl).
 After one cell generation (i.e, after 20 minutes)the DNA was extracted from the culture
had a hybrid DNA.(One strand is parental (15N), another strand newly
14
synthesized( N) )
 After second cell generation (i.e, after 40 minutes out of eight strands, two strands
having 15N, remaining six strands are having 14N, The results of Meselson & Stahl‟s
experiment clearly indicate the semiconservative replication of DNA.
7. Write the sequential steps involved DNA fingerprinting.
 Collection of samples: DNA is collected from Blood sample, hair
follicle ,saliva, skin, semen stain, vaginal swabs,
Extraction of DNA: The cells in the collected sample are first homogenized in a mild
Detergent Sodium Dodecyl Sulphate (SDS). The protein debris is digested by
Protease. Then DNA is precipitated in cold ethanol and collected by refrigerated
centrifugation technique.
Separation of DNA fragments:
Collected DNA is treated with a Restriction Endonuclease to break up into small
fragments called restriction fragments of different length.
 Separating the DNA fragments: Depending on their length, molecular weight &
charge density, DNA fragments are separated and arranged on gel slab by
performing Gel Electrophoresis technique. The gel slab is treated with a suitable
alkali like NaOH to separate the two strands of DNA molecules.
 Extraction of DNA (Southern blotting): The single stranded DNA fragments on
the gel slab are now immobilized on a nitrocellulose or nylon sheet by southern
blotting technique.
 DNA hybridization: Single strands of DNA on the Nylon sheet are made to pair
with readily available radioactive single stranded complimentary DNA probes of
known nucleotide sequences. The DNA probe binds to the restriction fragment on

31 KREIS BIOLOGY
 the Nylon sheet. This is known as DNA hybridization. The unpaired bases are
washed off in water.
 Autoradiography: Hybridized DNA strands on the Nylon sheet are
X-ray photographed. It is known as autoradiography. Only
hybridized DNA bands appear dark in the autoradiograph. These are
unique for a person and vary from person to person like fingerprints.
8. What is replication fork? Explain the replication mechanism
 The separation of two strands of DNA results in the formation of Y-shaped structure called
Replication fork
 At the beginning of replication enzyme Helicases, Topoisomerases take part in unwinding
of DNA helix at a specific site called Origin of replication.
 This results in separation of small portion of DNA molecule forming a loop.
 The hydrogen bonds present between two strands are dissolved by enzymes
Topoisomerase & DNA Polymerase-I,
 The separation of two strands of DNA results in the formation of Y-shaped structure called
Replication fork.
 Both the separated strands act as template. On which new strands are synthesized.
 At first RNA primer attaches at 3‟ end of template and start catalyzing the addition of
nucleotides to the DNA template from 5‟→3‟
 After the addition of nucleotides the RNA primer is removed, addition of DNA nucleotides
continues. Forming a continuous strand towards 5‟→3‟ direction & is called Leading
strand, such a type of replication is called continuous replication.
 On the other strand DNA nucleotides are added discontinuously and is called Lagging
strand, such a type of replication is called discontinuous replication. The fragments
formed are called Okazaki fragments.
 Each Okazaki fragments is formed from a single RNA primer. Later RNA primer is
replaced by DNA nucleotides and Okazaki fragments are joined by DNA Ligase.
9. Describe the steps of translation.
It involves following four steps
1) Activation or Charging of amino acids / Charging of t-RNA:
o Inactive amino acids in cytoplasm are activated by enzyme Amino Acyl Synthetase
by utilizing ATP.
o The activated Amino acids bind to the specific t-RNA molecule to form Amino
Acyl-t-RNA (the process is called charging of Amino acids).
2) Initiation of polypeptide chain:
o The formation of polypeptide chain is begins with initiator codon AUG / GUG.
o When the first t-RNA carrying first Amino acid (Methionine) binds to the m-RNA
(m-RNA already binded with smaller Ribosomal subunit), Larger Ribosomal
subunit attaches to the Smaller Ribosomal subunit to form functional Ribosome.
o The Larger sub unit binds to Smaller subunit in such a way that P-site of the larger
subunit exactly Occupies the first Amino acid(Methionine)
o The initiator codon AUG complimentarily pairs with anticodon UAC of first t-
RNA carrying Amino acid (Methionine).
o Another charged t-RNA carrying specific amino acid occupies „A‟ site. Peptide
bond is formed between first Amino acid & second Amino acid.(Peptide bond
exists between carboxylic group of one Amino acid & Amino group of subsequent

32 KREIS BIOLOGY
 Amino acid)This initiates the polypeptide chain synthesis.
3) Elongation of polypeptide chain:
o Functional ribosome shift from one codon to subsequent next codon
(Translocation).
o Because of shifting of Ribosome t-RNA carrying Amino acid shift from „A‟ site to
„P‟ site and vacating the „A‟ site.
o This facilitates the occupation of another t-RNA with Amino acid to „A‟ site
o Now peptide bond formation takes place between Second & Third Amino acids.
This process further Continues as the Translocation takes place.
4) Chain termination :
o When the Ribosome on m-RNA reaches terminator codon (UAA, UAG, UGA) the
process of chain elongation is terminated.
o Polypeptide chain termination is catalized by releasing factors.
o During the process of termination the enzyme Peptidyl synthetase catalyses the
cleavage of polypeptide chain.
o Both subunits of r-RNA dissociates & separates from m-RNA
10. Describe the regulation of Lac operon in E.coli

Positive regulation in Lac Operon (Induction) / Switch on mechanism:

o In the culture medium Lactose acts as an inducer.
o The regulator gene transcribes its information onto m-RNA molecule which
undergoes translation to produce a protein known as „repressor protein‟.
o In the presence of Inducer, the repressor combines with the inducer and forms
„Inducer-Repressor Complex.‟
o This results in structural change in the repressor so that it cannot bind to the
operator gene and the transcription of structural genes takes place immediately.
The m-RNA synthesized by these genes, synthesize enzymes required for Lactose
catabolism. Now the Lac Operon is said to be “switched on” or induced
Negative regulation in Lac Operon (Repression): Switch off mechanism:
o In the absence of Inducer (Lactose or Allolactose) in the medium, Regulator gene
undergoes transcription to produce mRNA.
o This m-RNA after translation produces the repressor protein.
o This protein binds with the operator gene and blocks the transcription of structural
genes (Lac Z, Lac Y and Lac A).
o Now the Lac Operon is said to be “switched off” or repressed.

33 KREIS BIOLOGY
11. Describe the experiment of biochemical nature of Transforming principle of
Fredrick Griffith (Oswald T. Avery, Colin Macleod & Maclyn McCarty experiment)
Oswald T. Avery, Colin Macleod & Maclyn McCarty discovered the biochemical nature of
Transforming principle of Fredrick Griffith
They isolated & purified the biomolecules (Proteins, RNA & DNA) from the heat killed S-
Strain.

1. Heat killed S-strain + Living R-strain + Protease enzyme →Transformation takes

place (In the above Protease enzyme degrade all protein from the heat killed S-
strain)
2. Heat killed S-strain + Living R-strain + RNAse enzyme →Transformation takes
place
(In the above RNAse enzyme degrade all RNA from the heat killed S-strain)
3. Heat killed S-strain + Living R-strain + DNAse enzyme → No Transformation
takes place (In the above DNAse enzyme degrade all DNA from the heat killed S-
strain)
Conclusion of the experiment:
From the above experiment Oswald T. Avery, Colin Macleod & Maclyn McCarty
concluded that the traces of Protein & RNA present in S-strain contents are not responsible
for transformation.
In the another trial they treated S-strain DNA with DNAse enzyme the enzyme digest
DNA before it was mixed with rough strain. Therefore R-strain is not transformed in to S-
strain.

34 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter no. 7

EVOLUTION
1 Mark Questions
1. Who dismissed the spontaneous generation theory ?
Louis Pasteur
2. What are homologous organs?
The organs which are similar anatomically but perform different functions.
3. What are Analogous organs?
The organs which are anatomically different in structure but perform similar
functions.
4. Define Saltation.
Single step large mutation that causes speciation
5. State Hardy-Weinberg law.
The allele frequencies in a population remains constant from generation to generation
unless affected by external factors.
6. What is Gene pool?
The total genes and their alleles in a population

7. What is Genetic drift?

It is the change in allele frequency in a given population which can develop into a
new species
8. Definre founder effect.
The original drifted population becomes founder for the formation of new species.

2 Mark Questions
1. What is adaptive radiation? Give an example
The process of evolution of different species in a geographical area starting from a
point and litterally radiating to other areas of geography is called adaptive radiation.
2. Give two example for homologous organs?
1. Forelimbs of man, bat, whales, cheetah
2. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita.

3. Name the two points of Darwinian theory of evolution.

Branching descent and Natural selection
4. Give two examples for analogous organs?
1.Wings of butterfly and birds
2. Eye of octopus and mammals.

3 Mark Questions
1. Explain Miller‟s experiment with neat labeled diagram.
In 1953 S.L. Miller an American scientist created similar conditions in the laboratory
scale similar to the primitive atmosphere, high temperature, volcanic storms,
reducing atmosphere containing ammonia and methane. He created electric discharge
35 KREIS BIOLOGY
 in a closed flask containing CH4,H2, NH3 and water vapors at 8000C . He observed
formation of ammonia acids.

2. Write the brain capacity of the following.

1. Homo habilis- 650-800 cc
2. Homo erectus- 900cc
3. Neanderthal man-1400cc
3. Name the following.
1. Biggest dinosaur- Tyrannasaurus rex
2. Human-like primate- Homo habilis
3. First fish evolved into amphibian- Coelacanth

5 Mark Questions
1. Explain evolution by natural selection by taking an example of white winged
moth and dark winged moth of the england.
 Before industrialization set in, it was observed that there were more white
winged moths on trees than dark winged moths or melonised moths
 But after industrialization i.e., in 1920, there were more dark winged moths in
the same area i.e., the proportion was reverse.
 The explanation put for this observation was that predators will spot a moth
against a contrasting background.
 During post industrialization period, the tree trunks became dark due to
industrial smoke and soot. Under this condition the white winged moth did
not survive due to predators, dark winged or melonised moth survived.
36 KREIS BIOLOGY
  Before industrialization thick growth of almost white colored lichens covered
the trees- in the background the white winged moth survived but dark colored
moth were picked out by predators.
2. Explain the factors that affect Hardy-Weinberg law.
Five factors are known to affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
 These are gene migration or gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic
recombination and natural selection.
 When migration of a section of population to another place and population
occurs, gene frequencies change in the original as well as in the new
population.

37 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter 08

HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE

1 Mark Questions
1. Name the causative agent of elephantiasis.
Wuchereria bancrofti / Wuchereria malayi / Filarial worm. (any one)
2. What is an allergy?
The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the
environment is called allergy.
3. Mention the cell involved in cell mediated immunity.
T-lymphocytes
4. What is Benign tumor?
Benign tumors normally remain confined to their original location and do not spread
to other parts of the body and cause little damage.
5. Name the causative organism of pneumonia.
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenza are responsible for the disease
pneumonia
6. Name the plant from which cocaine is obtained.
Coca plant / Erythroxylum coca,
7. Name the enzyme by which the HIV genome replicates in the host cell.
Reverse transcriptase

8. Name the disease diagnosed by Widal test.

Typhoid
9. What are Interferons?
Interferons are the proteins, protect non-infected cells from viral infection.
10. Name the Diagnostic Test for AIDS.
Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay (ELISA).
11. From which plant Morphine is extracted?
Poppy plant / Papaver somniferum
12. Name the type of antibodies produced during allergy.
IgE
13. Write the name of toxic substance responsible for fever and chill in Malaria.
Haemozoin
14. Name the disease caused by Haemophilus influenzae.
Pneumonia
15. Mention the type of antibody present in the colostrums.
IgA
16. Write the infectious forms of Plasmodium which enter human body through
mosquito bite.
Sporozoites
17. Mention the role of Alpha interferon in treatment of cancer.
Alpha interferon activates immune system and help in destroying the tumor.

38 KREIS BIOLOGY
 2 Mark Questions
1. Differentiate between active immunity and passive immunity.
Active immunity Passive immunity
Immunity developed in host due to Immunity developed in host due to
entry of pathogen transfer of antibodies
It slow in action It is fast in action
It has no side effect It may cause side effects
It is life time immunity It short time immunity
2. Distinguish between Benign tumor and malignant tumor.
Benign tumor Malignant tumor
Benign tumors normally Malignant tumors normally do not
remain confined to their original remain confined to their original
location location
Benign tumors do not spread to Malignant tumors spread to other
other parts of the body parts of the body
Benign tumors cause little damage. Malignant tumors cause much damage.
3. List any two methods of HIV transmission.
• Sexual contact with infected person.
• Transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products.
• Sharing of infected needles by drug abusers.
• From infected mother to her child through placenta

4. What is Innate Immunity? Mention any two types of Innate immunity barriers.
Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence that is present at the time of birth.
Innate immunity consists of four types of barriers.
(i) Physical barriers (ii) Physiological barriers
(iii) Cellular barriers (iv) Cytokine barriers (Any two barriers )
5. What is an allergy? Name the two chemicals released by mast cells in the body
during allergy.
The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the
environment is called allergy.
Histamine and Serotonin are the two chemicals released by mast cells in the body
during allergy.
3 Mark Questions
1. Mention three types of innate barriers of defence with an example each.
(i) Physical barriers : Example: Skin / Mucus
(ii) Physiological barriers : Example: Acid in the stomach / saliva in the
mouth / tears from eyes
(iii) Cellular barriers : Example: Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-
neutrophils) / monocytes / natural killer cells (type of lymphocytes)
(iv) Cytokine barriers : Example: Interferons
2. What is contact inhibition? Mention the types of tumors.
Contact inhibition is property of normal cells because of this when normal cell
contact with other cells inhibits their uncontrolled growth.
Types of tumors
1) Benign tumors 2) Malignant tumors

39 KREIS BIOLOGY
3. Mention any three characteristics of cancer.
Characteristics of Cancer cell :
1) Cancer cells have lost control on cell growth and differentiation.
2) Cancer cells have no contact inhibition.
3) Cancer cells produce tumors.
4) Cancer cells are neoplastic cell and they damage surrounding tissue.
5) Cancer cells show metastasis.
Any three each carry 1 mark
4. Name the pathogen, vector and symptom of Malaria.
Pathogen for Malaria- Plasmodium vivax / Plasmodium malaria / Plasmodium
falciparum.
Vector for Malaria- Female Anopheles mosquito
Symptom of Malaria
a) Chill and high fever recurring every three to four days.
5. Mention three types of carcinogens with an example for each.
1) Physical agent: X- rays, Gamma rays, UV rays
2) Chemical agent: Chemical present in Tobacco smoke
3) Biological agent: Oncogenic viruses
6. Define allergy.
The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the
environment is called allergy.
7. Sketch the diagrammatic representation of Replication of Retrovirus inside an
animal cell.

40 KREIS BIOLOGY
8. What is biopsy test? Mention any two techniques of cancer detection and
diagnosis.
In biopsy, a piece of the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is stained and
examined under microscope by a pathologist.
• Radiography
• C T Scan
• MRI
• Use of antibodies
• Techniques of molecular biology
5 Mark Questions
1. Name the diseases caused by following organisms:
Rhino virus (b) Epidermophyton (c) Salmonella typhi (d) Wuchereria malayi/
bancrofti (e) Plasmodium vivax f) Haemophilus influenza
(a) Rhino virus : Common cold.
(b) Epidermophyton : Ringworms
(c) Salmonella typhi : Typhoid
(d) Wuchereria malayi : Elephantiasis or filariasis
(e) Plasmodium vivax : Malaria
(f)Haemophilus influenza: Pneumonia.
2. a) Define immunity and name two different types of immunity. (3M)
b) Draw a neat labeled diagram of structure of an antibody molecule. (2 M)
a) It is the overall ability of the host to fight the disease causing organisms by
immune system. (i) Innate immunity and (ii) Acquired immunity.
b) Structure of an antibody molecule.

3. Describe the measures taken to control alcohol and drug abuse in adolescents.
Avoid undue peer pressure - Every child is gifted with special talent. A child has
his or her own choice and personality, which should be respected and nurtured. A
child should be pushed unduly to perform behind his/her threshold limits, deep
studies, sports, and other activities
Education and counseling - Educating and counseling him/her to face problems and
stresses, and to accept disappointments and failures as a part of life. It would also be

41 KREIS BIOLOGY
worthwhile to channelize the child‟s energy to healthy pursuits like sports, reading,
music, yoga and other extracurricular activities.
Seeking help from parents and peers - Help from parents and peers sort
immediately so that they guide appropriately. Help may even be sought from close
and trusted friends. Besides getting proper advice to sort out their problems, they
would help young to vent out their feelings of anxiety and guilt.
Looking for danger signs: Alert parents and teachers need to look for and identify
the danger signs discussed above. Even friends, if they find someone using drugs or
alcohol, should not hesitate to bring to the notice of parents or teacher in the best
interests of the person concerned. Appropriate
measures would then be required to diagnose the malady and the underlying causes.
This would help in initiating proper remedial steps or treatment.
Seeking professional and medical health: A lot of help is available in the form of
highly qualified psychologists, psychiatrists and deaddiaction and rehabilitation
programmes to help individuals who have unfortunately got in the quagmire of drug
or alcohol abuse. With such health, the affected individual with sufficient efforts and
willpower, can get rid of the problem completely and lead a perfectly normal and
healthy life.

42 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter 09
STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION
1 Mark Questions
1. Define the term breed.
Breed 1s a group of animals related by descent and similar in most characters like
general appearance, features, size, configuration, etc.
2. Define inbreeding.
Inbreeding refers to the mating of more closely related individuals within the same
breed for 4-6 generatios.
3. Name the new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaner ewes
and Marino rams.
Hisardale,
4. Expand MOET.
Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology.
5. Define apiculture.
It is the maintenance of hives of honeybees for the production of honey.
6. Name the most common species of honey bee uscd in apiculture.
Apis indica
7. Name the branch of animal husbandry to which the term bluc revolution is
concerned with?
Fisheries
8. What is germplasm collection?
The entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a
given crop is called germplasm collection
9. Name the scientist who developed semi-dwarf wheat?
Norman E. Borlaug.
10. Expand IRRI.
International Rice Research Institute.
11. What is Bio fortification?
Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals, or higher protein and
healthier fat.
12. Define SCP (Single cell protein).
Single Cell Protein (SCP) is Alternate sources of proteins for animal and human
nutrition obtained from microbes like Spirulina
13. Why meristem is preferred in tissue culture?
Meristem is free from virus infection. Hence can be used to produce virus free
plants.
14. What is hidden hunger?
It is the condition where nearly three billion people suffer from micronutrient,
protein and vitamin deficiencies.
15. Define outbreeding.
it is the breeding of the unrelated animals. Which may be between individuals of the
same breed), or between different breeds or different species.
16. What is animal husbandary?

43 KREIS BIOLOGY
 Animal husbandry is the agricultural practice of breeding and raising livestock.
2 Mark Questions
1. Define inbrecding depression. How can be it overcome?
Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and even productivity. This is called
inbreeding depression. Inbreeding depression can be overcome by breeding the
selected animals with superior animals of the same breed but unrelated to the
breeding population.
2. Mention any two economic importance of apiculture.
1. we get honey and bee wax
2. Bees are the pollinators of many of our crop species such as sunflower, brassica,
apple and pear.
3. Which are the important components of poultry farm management?
The important components of poultry farm management include
1. Selection of disease free and suitable breeds,
2. Proper and safe farm conditions,
3. Proper feed and water,
4. Hygiene and health care
4. Name two edible fresh water and marine fishes.
Fresh water fishes Catla, Rohu Marine water fishes-Hilsa, Sardines,
5. Name two high yielding and disease resistant of wheat introduced all over the
wheat-growing belt of India.
Sonalika and KalyanSona.
6. Name two better-yielding semi dwarf varieties of rice developed in India.
Jaya and Ratna
7. Single cell proteins can be used as alternate sources of proteins for human
nutrition. Illustrate with two examples.
Ex 1: Microbes like Spirulina can be grown easily on materials like waste water
from potato processing plants (containing starch), straw, molasses, animal manure
and even sewage, to produce large quantities.
Ex 2: It can serve as food rich in protein, minerals, fats, carbohydrate and vitamins.
8. List out the objectives of Biofortification.
It includes improving:
a. Protein content and quality
b. Oil content and quality
c. Vitamin content and
d. Micronutrient and mineral content.

9. What is interspecific hybridization? Give an example

In this method, male and female animals of two different species are mated. Ex:
Mule
3 Mark Questions
1. Give the examples for the following biofortified plants developed by IARI New
Delhi. a) Vitamin A enriched plant. b) Vitamin C enriched plant. c) Iron and calcium
enriched

a. Vitamin A enriched plant.-Carrot.

44 KREIS BIOLOGY
 b. Vitamin C enriched plant -Bitter gourd.
c. Iron and calcium enriched Spinach.
2. List out the applications of tissue culture.
1. Many important food plants like tomato, banana, apple, etc., have been produced
on commercial scale using this method.
2. Recovery of healthy plants from diseased plants i.e., one can remove the
meristem and grow it invitro to obtain virus-free plants.
3. Production of somatic hybrids.

3. List out the key points for successful bee keeping.

The following points are important for successful bee-keeping:
a. Knowledge of the nature and habits of bees,
b. Selection of suitable location for keeping the beehives,
c. Catching and hiving of swarms (group of bees),
d. Management of beehives during different seasons, and
Handling and collection of honey and of beeswax.
5 Marks Questions
1. List out the processes and systems that increase yield and improve quality of
milk in dairy farm management.
This includes
a. Selection of good breeds having high yielding potential combined with
resistance to diseases.
b. They have to be housed well, should have adequate water.
c. Maintained disease free.
d. Feeding of cattle should be carried out in a scientific manner with special
emphasis on the quality and quantity of fodder.
e. Stringent cleanliness and hygiene (both of the cattle and the handlers) are of
paramount importance while milking, storage and transport of the milk and
its products.
f. Require regular inspections, with proper record keeping. It would also help to
identify and rectify the problems as early as possible.
g. Regular visits by a veterinary doctor would be mandatory.
2. Describe the steps involved in plant breeding.
Five steps are involved in plant breeding. They are
a. Collection of genetic variability: The entire collections of plants/seeds having all
the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop-are collected from wild varieties.
This is called germplasm collection
b. Evaluation and selection of parents: The germplasm are evaluated to identify
plants with desirable combination of characters are multiplied and used in the
process of hybridization.
c. Cross hybridization among selected parents: The desired characters from two
two different selected parents are combined by cross hybridizing the two parents
to produce hybrids from plants. For Ex: High protein quality of one parent 1s
combined with disease resistance from another parent.
d. Selection and testing of superior recombinants: This step consists of selecting,
among the progeny of the hybrids, those plants that have the desired character

45 KREIS BIOLOGY
 combination and these selected plants are self-pollinatcd for several generations
tll they reach a state of uniformity (homozygosity)
e. Testing, release and commercialization of new cultivars:
a. The newly selected lines are evaluated for their yield and other agronomic
traits of quality, disease resistance etc.
b. This evaluation is done by growing these in the research fields followed by
testing the materials in farmers‟ fields, for at least three growing seasons at
several locations in the country and finally the material is released for
farmer‟s use/commercialized.
3. Define the following terms with reference to tissue culture
a) Explant b) Totipotency c) Micro propagation. d) Somaclones e) Somatic hybrids
 Explant: Any part of a plant taken out and grown in a test tube. under sterile
conditions in special nutrient media from which whole plants could be
regenerated during tissue culture.
 Totipotency: The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell/explant is
called totipotency.
 Micro propagation: The method of producing thousands of plants through
tissue culture is called micropropagation
 Somaclones: Each of the plants produced by tissue culture will be genetically
identical to the original plant from which they were grown. Hence these are
called somaclones
 Somatic hybrids: Hybrids obtained by fusion of isolated protoplasts from two
different varieties of plants are called somatic hybrids.

46 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter 10
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
1 Mark Questions
1. Mention the bacterium responsible for the large holes seen in Swiss cheese.
Propionibacterium sharmanii. / P. sharmanii
2. What are bio- fertilizers?
Biofertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil.
3. Mention the use of Cyclosporine A.
Cyclosporin A, is used as an immunosuppressive agent
4. Name the fungus that produce cyclosporine A
Trichoderma polysporum
5. Mention the use of statin.
Statins used as blood-cholesterol lowering agents.
6. Which Bioactive molecule is used as an immunosuppressive agent?
Cyclosporin A
7. Define Biochemical Oxygen Demand.
BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed if all the organic
matter in one liter of water were oxidised by bacteria.
8. Name the microbe used in the production of citric acid.
Aspergillus niger
9. What are flocs?
Flocs are masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like
structures.
10. Mention the role of Methanobacterium in rumen of cattle.
In rumen of cattle, Methanobacterium bacteria help in the breakdown of cellulose.
11. Mention the commercial importance of Monascus purpureus.
Blood-cholesterol lowering agents
12. Write the scientific name of the source organism for citric acid.
Aspergillus niger
13. Which bacteria are commonly found in the anaerobic sludge during sewage
treatment?
Methanobacterium / Methanogens
2 Mark Questions
1. Discuss the role of fungi as biofertiliser.
Fungi like Glomus form symbiotic association (mycorrhiza) – It helps in the
absorption of phosphorus.
Plants with such association of fungi show resistant to root borne pathogens,
tolerance to salinity and drought, overall increase in plant growth and development.
2. Draw a neat labeled diagram of Biogas plant.

47 KREIS BIOLOGY
 5 Mark Questions
1. Briefly describe the role of biological control of pests and diseases.
• The Ladybird beetle is used to control aphids.
• Dragonflies are used to control mosquitoes.
• Dried spores of Bacillus thuringiensis are used to kill Butterfly caterpillars.
• Trichoderma species, a free living fungus in the roots of many plants is used to
control several plant pathogens.
• Baculoviruses like Nucleopolyhedroviruses are species specific and are used as
biocontrol agents against insects and other arthropods.
2. Explain different stages involved in sewage treatment.
Sewage treatment is done in two steps; Primary treatment and Secondary treatment.
• Primary treatment: These treatment steps basically involve physical removal of
particles – large and small – from the sewage through filtration and sedimentation.
• Secondary treatment or Biological treatment : The primary effluent is passed into
large aeration tanks where it is constantly agitated mechanically and air is pumped
into it. This allows vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into flocs.
• While growing, these microbes consume the major part of the organic matter in the
effluent. This significantly reduces the BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) of the
effluent. The sewage water is treated till the BOD is reduced.
• Once the BOD of sewage or waste water is reduced significantly, the effluent is then
passed into a settling tank where the bacterial „flocs‟ are allowed to sediment to form
activated sludge.
• Activated sludge is pumped into large tanks called anaerobic sludge digesters. Due
to anaerobic bacteria activity biogas is formed. The effluent from the secondary
treatment plant is generally released into natural water bodies like rivers and streams.

3. Explain the role of microbes in industrial products.

Role of microbes in 'Industrial Products' :
• Fermented Beverages : Yeast , Saccharomyces cerevisiae used for ethanol.
• Antibiotics: Penicillium notatum is fungus used for production of antibiotic called
Penicillin.
• Chemicals: Aspergillus niger is fungus used for production of Citric acid
OR
Acetobacter aceti is used for production of Acetic acid
OR
Clostridium butylicum is used for production of butyric acid

48 KREIS BIOLOGY
 OR
Lactobacillus is used for production of lactic acid.
• Enzymes : Streptokinase produced by the bacterium Streptococcus , used as a „clot
buster‟ .
• Bioactive molecules: Trichoderma polysporum is used for production of
cyclosporin A, that is used as an immunosuppressive agent.
4. Explain the role of Microbes in House-hold products.
1) Production of Curd: Lactobacillus and other microbes called Lactic acid bacteria
(LAB) are used for the production of curd.
2) Production of Dough: Dough fermented by bacteria, used for making of food
items.
3) Production of Bread: Yeast is used for making bread.
4) Fermentation of Food: Microbes are used to ferment fish, Soya bean, and
Bamboo shoots to make foods.
5) Production of Cheese: Bacteria like Propionibacterium sharmanii is used for the
production of Swiss cheese
5. Describe the role of microbes as biofertilisers.
• The main sources of biofertilisers are bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria which help
to enrich the soil nutrients.
• Rhizobium – A symbiotic bacteria present in root nodules in leguminous plants and
fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms which is used by plants as nutrient.
• Free living soil bacteria like Azospirillum and Azotobacter enrich the nitrogen
content of the soil.
• Mycorrhiza- The symbiotic association of fungi with higher plants. Many members
of the genus Glomus form mycorrhiza.
 They absorb phosphorus from the soil and pass it to the plants.
 Show resistant to root-borne pathogens.
 Increase tolerance to salinity and drought.
Cyanobacteria like Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria etc. fix atmospheric nitrogen and
enriches the fertility of soil and also add organic matter to the soil.
6. A) Explain the role of three organisms as biocontrol agents (3 marks)
B) What is the significance of BOD? (1 mark)
C) Give an example for a fungus found in Mycorrhiza. (1 mark)
A) Role of three organisms as biocontrol agents
• The Ladybird beetle is used to control aphids.
• Dragonflies are used to control mosquitoes.
• Dried spores of Bacillus thuringiensis are used to kill Butterfly caterpillars.
• Trichoderma species, a free living fungus in the roots of many plants is used to
control several plant pathogens.
• Baculoviruses like Nucleopolyhedroviruses are species specific and are used as
biocontrol agents against insects and other arthropods.
B) BOD is a measure of organic matter present in water / sewage OR it indicates
whether the water sample is polluted or not.
C) Glomus

49 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter 11
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes
1 Mark Questions
1. Define polymerase chain reaction.
Polymerase chain reaction is a reaction in which, multiple copies of the gene / DNA is
synthesised in vitro using two sets of primers and the enzyme DNA polymerase.
2. Mention the technique used to separate DNA fragments in rDNA technology.
Gel electrophoresis.
3. Retroviruses are disarmed before using to deliver desirable genes into animal cells.
Why?
To make them nonpathogenic.
4. Name the molecular scissors used in recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology.
Restriction endonuclease /REN/Restriction nuclease enzyme
5. What are Plasmids?
Plasmids are extra nuclear, circular, double stranded DNA present in the cytoplasm of
Bacteria.
6. What is micro-injection?
It is the method of introduction of the rDNA / recombinant DNA directly into nucleus of
animal cell (Host cell).
7. What is downstream processing?
A series of processes before it is ready for marketing as a finished product.
8. Write the restriction site of Eco RI enzyme.
5' GAATTC 3'
3' CTTAAG 5'
9. Mention the importance of selectable markers in plasmids.
It helps in identifying and eliminating non trans formants and selectively permitting the
growth of the transformants.
10. Name the plasmid present in Agrobacterium tumifaciens.
Ti plasmid / Tumor inducing plasmid
11. Name the stain used to visualize DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis.
Ethidium bromide
12. What is elution?
The separated bands of DNA are cut out from agarose gel and extracted from gel piece is
elution.
2 Mark Questions
1. Draw a labelled diagram of stirred tank bioreactor.

50 KREIS BIOLOGY
2. Classify restriction enzymes. Mention the function of each.
a) Endonucleases: They cut at specific positions within the DNA.
b) Exonucleases: They remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA.
3. Draw a neat labeled diagram of typical agarose gel electrophoresis.

4. Mention two techniques to make Host competent in r-DNA technology.

Techniques to make Host competent in r-DNA technology
a) Treating host cells with a specific concentration of Calcium.
b) Incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on ice, followed by placing them briefly
at 420C (heat shock) and then putting them back on ice.
5. What is the significance of selectable marker in cloning vector?
It helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants and selectively permitting the
growth of the transformants
6. Define polymerase chain reaction. Name the enzyme used in it.
Polymerase chain reaction is a reaction in which, multiple copies of the gene / DNA is
synthesised in vitro using two sets of primers and the enzyme DNA polymerase.
Thermostable DNA polymerase / Taq DNA polymerase is the enzyme used in
Polymerase chain reaction.
7. Write the methods to introduce alien DNA into Host cells.
 Recombinant DNA and the bacterial cells are incubated in ice, followed by
placing them briefly at 42oC (heat shock) and then putting them back in ice.
 By microinjection the recombinant DNA directly injected into the nucleus of the
animal cell.
 Plant cells are bombarded with high velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten
coated with DNA in a method known as biolistics or gene gun.
 Disarmed pathogen vectors, which when allowed infecting the cell, transfer the
recombinant DNA into host.

8. What are palindromic nucleotide sequences? Write the restriction site for Eco RI
enzyme.
The Palindrome in DNA is a sequence of base pairs that read the same on the two stands
in 5' → 3' direction and in 3' →5' direction.
Restriction site
5' GAATTC 3'
3' CTTAAG 5'
9. With an example explain the convention for naming restriction endonuclease
scientifically.

51 KREIS BIOLOGY
 EcoRI is a restriction enzyme which was isolated from Escherichia coli RY 13 strains.
• The first letter „E‟ in the name of the restriction enzyme represents genus of bacterium.
i.e Ecsherichia
• Next two letters „co‟ in the name of the restriction enzyme represents species of
bacterium. i.e coli
• „R‟ in the name of the restriction enzyme represents strain of bacterium. i.e RY13
• Roman numbers following the names indicate the order in which the enzymes were
isolated from that strain of bacteria.
10. Write any four tools used in recombinant DNA technology.
1) Restriction Enzymes (2) Polymerase enzymes (3) Ligases
(4) Vectors (5) Host Organism ………………………..….. Any four
3 Mark Questions
1. Mention the different steps of process of recombinant DNA technology.
 Isolation of the genetic material (DNA)
 Cutting of DNA and isolation of desired DNA fragment
 Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell / organism
 Culturing of host cells and obtaining the foreign gene product
 Downstream processing
2. Draw a labeled diagram of Plasmid pBR 322.

3. Explain in brief the separation and isolation of DNA fragments.

 The cutting of DNA by restriction endonuclease results in the fragments of DNA.
These fragments are separated by a technique called gel electrophoresis.
 Since the DNA fragments are negatively charged, they can be separated by forcing
them to move towards anode under an electric field through a medium/matrix.
 Most commonly used matrix is agarose, a natural polymer extracted from sea weed
like Gracilaria and Gelidium.
 DNA fragments separate according to their size through sieving effect provided by the
agarose gel. Hence the smaller the fragment size, farther it moves.
 The separated fragments are visualized by staining them with Ethidium
bromide followed by exposure to UV radiation.
 The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the
gel piece. This step is called elution. (1/2 mark for each point)
4. Write the important use of the following, in r-DNA technology
a) P.C.R b) Ethidium bromide c) Bioreactor
a) P.C.R- It is used to synthesise multiple copies of the gene of interest.
b) Ethidium bromide- It is used to stain separated DNA fragments.
c) Bioreactor -It is used to produce large quantity of products where large volumes of

52 KREIS BIOLOGY
 culture can be processed.
5. a) Mention four tools for required recombinant DNA technology. (2 marks)
b) With reference to gel electrophoresis, what is elution? (1 marks)
a) Tools for required recombinant DNA technology.
1) Restriction Enzymes (2) Polymerase enzymes (3) Ligases
4) Vectors (5) Host Organism.
b) The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the
gel piece. This step is known as elution.
5 Marks Questions
1. (a) Write diagrammatic representation of Recombinant DNA technology. (3 Marks)
(b) Write a note on Downstream processing. (2 Marks)

a. recombinant DNA technology:

b) Down stream processing

 Down stream processing is series of processes before it is ready for marketing as a
finished product. The processes include separation and purification.
 The product has to be formulated with suitable preservatives. Such formulation has to
undergo thorough clinical trials as in case of drugs.
2. Explain the features of cloning vectors.
(i) Origin of replication - This is sequence from where replication starts and any piece
of DNA when linked to this sequence can be made to replicate in the host cells.

53 KREIS BIOLOGY
 (ii) Selectable marker - It helps in identifying and eliminating non transformants and
permits the growth of transformants. Genes encoding resistance to antibiotics such as
ampicillin, tetracycline, chloramphenetol are considered as selectable markers.
iii) Cloning sites -These are recognition sites needed to link alien DNA to vector the
ligation of alien DNA is carried out at restriction site present in one of the two antibiotic
resistance gene.
For eg : We can ligate a foreign DNA at Bam HI site of tetracycline resistance gene of
pBR322.
3. a. Explain the process of denaturation , annealing and extension
with respect to polymerase chain reaction.
b. Define plasmid.
c. Why restriction enzymes are called molecular scissors?
a) Denaturation: Double strand DNA is denatured by using high temperature at 90-98oC
for 15 sec. It results in the separation of two strands. Each strand act as a template for the
DNA synthesis.
Annealing – The two sets of oligonucleotide primers are used to annealing (hybridize) at
low temperature of 40-420C. Along the single strand of DNA 10-18 nucleotides are
formed are called primers. By using magnesium Mg2+ and dNTPs (deoxy nucleotide tri
phosphate)
Extension – The thermostable enzyme Taq (Thermus aquaticus) DNA polymerase can
tolerate high temperature of the reaction that extends the synthesis of DNA from the
primers by adding complementary nucleotides to the template.
- These steps are repeated many times to obtain several copies of DNA. i.e., one billion
copies.
b) Plasmid is an autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA.
c) Restriction enzyme cuts the DNA at specific locations.

54 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter 12

Biotechnology and its Applications

1 Mark Questions
1. Mention a gene that codes for insecticidal protein in Bt cotton.
cryIAc / cryIIAb / Cry genes
2 Mark Questions
1. What is gene therapy? Name the disorder to which clinical gene therapy was given
first.
Gene therapy is the replacement of a faulty gene by a healthy and functional gene.
ADA (Adenosine deaminase Deficiency)
2. Mention any two critical research areas of biotechnology.
1. Providing the best catalyst in the form of improved organism usually a microbe or pure
enzyme.
2. Creating optimal conditions through engineering for a catalyst to act.
3. Downstream processing technologies to purify the protein organic compound.
3 Mark Questions
1. In which ways genetically modified plants are useful.
(i) Genetically Modified crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat).
(ii) Genetically Modified crops reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant
crops).
(iii) Genetically Modified crops helped to reduce post harvest losses.
(iv) Genetically Modified crops increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants (this
prevents early exhaustion of fertilityof soil).
(v) Genetically Modified crops enhanced nutritional value of food, e.g., Vitamin „A‟
enriched rice.
2. How is ADA deficiency cured by gene therapy?
Lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are grown in a culture outside the body.
A functional ADA cDNA is introduced into these lymphocytes using a retroviral vector
and the lymphocytes are introduced back into the patient.
Periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes is given, as these cells are
not immortal.
If the gene isolate from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at early
embryonic stages, it could be a permanent cure.
5 Marks Questions
1. “One of the applications of biotechnology is the production of insect resistant crop
plants.” Justify the statement with reference to Bt-cotton.
The „cry‟ gene – „cryIAc‟ and cryIIAb‟ from Bacillus thuringiensis coding for the toxins
are transferred to cotton plants. The proteins encoded by these genes control the
bollworms.
These Bt cotton plants express the Bt toxin gene by producing the toxin that provides
insect resistance.
Bt toxin is a toxic insecticidal protein formed in the form of protein crystals that kills
certain insects.
It exists as inactive protoxin and once an insect ingests the inactive toxin, it is converted

55 KREIS BIOLOGY
 into an active form of toxin due to the alkaline pH of the gut which solubilise the crystals.
The activated toxin binds to the surface of epithelial cells of the midgut and creates
pores which cause cell swelling and lysis and eventually the death of the insect.
2. a) What is Biopiracy? Explain if with reference to Basmati Rice. (3 M)
b) What are genetically modified organisms? Name two Bt toxin producing plant. (2
M)
a) Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by multinational
companies and other organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and
people concerned without compensatory payment.
Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and flavour and 27 documented
varieties of Basmati are grown in India.
In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the US
Patent and Trademark Office.
This „new‟ variety of Basmati had actually been derived from Indian farmer‟s
varieties. Indian Basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf varieties and claimed as an
invention or a novelty.
b) Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation are
called Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO). Bt toxin producing plants are Bt
cotton, Bt corn, rice, tomato, potato and soyabean etc.
3. a) Development of Bt-cotton has reduced the use of insecticides. Justify
b) Write a note on gene therapy.
(a) Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that kill certain insects. They
are called cry proteins. The genes which produce them are called cry genes. They are
incorporated in the cotton plants by rDNA technology when insects and pests like boll
worms feed on cotton plants they are killed. Thus, development of Bt cotton has reduced
insecticides.
(b) Gene therapy-The technique of replacing a defective gene by a normal gene to correct
a genetic disorder. Adenosine deaminase deficiency is due to deletion of the gene for
adenosine deaminase. This can be cured by gene therapy. Hence immunity is restored.
4. a) What is gene therapy? Give an example.
b) Write a note on biopiracy with reference to Basmati rice.
a) "Replacement of a faulty gene by a healthy and functional gene".
Example : The first clinical trial on gene therapy was attempted on 14th August 1990 on a
young girl suffering from a genetic disease called ADA (Adenosine deaminase
Deficiency).
b) Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use/exploit of patent of biological resources by
multinational companies and other organizations without proper authorization from the
countries and the people concerned without compensatory payment.
Basmati Rice
* In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the US
Patent and Trademark Office.
*This allowed the company to sell a 'new' variety of Basmati, in the US and
abroad.
*This 'new' variety of Basmati had actually been derived from Indian farmer's
varieties. Indian Basmati was crossed with Semi dwarf varieties and claimed as an
invention or a novelty.

56 KREIS BIOLOGY
 *The patent extends to functional equivalents, implying that other people selling
Basmati rice could be restricted by the patent.
5. a) What is biopiracy?
b) How ADA deficiency is cured by gene therapy?
a) Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use/exploit of patent of biological resources by
multinational companies and other organizations without proper authorization from the
countries and the people concerned without compensatory payment.
b) * Lymphocytes from the blood of the patient are grown in a culture outside the body.
• Functioal ADA cDNA is introduced into these lymphocytes using a retroviral
vector and the lymphocytes are introduced back into the patient.
• Periodic infusion of such genetically engineered lymphocytes is given as these
cells are not immortal. If the gene isolate from bone marrow cells producing ADA
is introduced into cells at early embryonic stages, it could be a permanent cure.
6. What is RNA interference ? How does RNA interference helps to develop resistance
in tobacco plant against Nematode infection ?
• The silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds
and prevents translation of mRNA is called RNA interference.
• A nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects the roots of tobacco plants and reduce their
yield.
• Nematode-specific genes were introduced into the host plant using Agrobacterium
vectors.
• The introduced DNA produces both sense and anti-sense RNA in the host cells.
• These two RNA's being complementary to each other formed a double stranded RNA
(dsRNA) that initiates RNAi and silenced the specific mRNA of the nematode.
• The result was that the parasite could not survive in a transgenic host and the transgenic
plant got itself protected from the parasite.
7. List the benefits of transgenic animals.
Study of normal physiology and development: Specifically designed transgenic animals
are used to study gene regulation and its role in the normal functions of the body and its
development.
Study of diseases: Specifically designed transgenic animals are used as models to
understand the role of genes in the development of diseases like cancer, cystic fibrosis,
rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer's.
Production of biological products: Transgenic animals are designed to produce useful
biological products α-1-antitrypsin, and milk enriched with alpha- lactalbumin that is used
in medicines required for the treatment of diseases.
Testing of vaccine safety: Transgenic mice which can replace monkeys are being
developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines like polio vaccine before they are used
on hum
Testing of chemical safety or toxicity/safety testing: Transgenic animals are made that
carry genes which make them more sensitive to toxic substances than non- transgenic
animals. They are then exposed to the toxic substances and the effects are studied.

57 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter 13
ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS
1 Mark Questions
1. Define mortality.
It is the number of deaths in the population during a given period.
2. Define natality.
It is the number of births during a given period in the population.
3. What are eurythermal organisms?
Organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures.
4. How do some species of insects and frogs avoid being detected by the predators?
Cryptically coloured / camouflaged
5. State Gause's Competitive Exclusion Principle'.
Gause‟s „Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that “two closely related species
competing for the same resources cannot co-exist independently and the competitively
inferior one will be eliminated eventually”.
6. State Allen's rule.
Allen’s Rule states that “Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and
limbs to minimise heat loss”.
7. Why mammals of colder climate generally have shorter ears and limbs?
To minimise heat loss from the body.
8. What are Euryhaline organisms?
Organisms are tolerant of a wide range of salinities.
9. The Abington tortoise in Galapagos islands becomes extinct of after goats were
introduced on the island. Mention the type of interaction.
Competition.
2 Mark Questions
1. What is commensalism? Give an example.
The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor
harmed is called commensalism.
Example: An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch
OR
Barnacles growing on the back of a whale
OR
The egret and grazing cattle in close association
OR
Interaction between sea anemone and the clown fish
2. A prey develops defence against a predator. Justify the statement with two examples
in animals.
• Some species of insects and frog are cryptically coloured or camouflaged.
• Monarch butterfly has a chemical acquired during its caterpillar stage which makes it
distasteful.
3. Mention any two mechanisms how human body compensates low oxygen availability
at higher altitude.
• By increasing red blood cell production.

58 KREIS BIOLOGY
 • By increasing the binding affinity of haemoglobin.
• By increasing breathing rate.

4. Write two suspended activities in animals against abiotic stresses with suitable
examples.
• Bears go into hibernation during winter to escape from cold.
• Some snails and fish go into aestivation during summer to escape from heat and
dessication.
5. Mention the four possibilities in which the organism living with stressful conditions
cope up with situation.
1) Regulate
2) Conform
3) Migrate
4) Suspend
3 Mark Questions
1. Explain any three major abiotic factors influencing the life of organisms.
Temperature: Temperature affects the kinetics of enzymes and other physiological
functions of the organism.
Water: Life on earth originated in water and is unsustainable without water. The
productivity and distribution of plants is also heavily dependent on water.
Light: Since plants produce food through photosynthesis, when sunlight is available as
a source of energy. For animals also light affects their foraging, reproductive and
migratory activities.
Soil: Various characteristics of the soil such as soil composition, grain size and
aggregation determine the percolation and water holding capacity of the soils determine
the vegetation in any area.
2. Parasites have evolved special adaptations. List them.
- Loss of unnecessary sense org
- Presence of adhesive organs or suckers to cling on the host
- Loss of digestive system and high reproductive capacity.
5 Marks Questions
1. (a) State "Gauss' competitive exclusion principle".
(b) Mutualism is a method of population interaction. Explain with examples.
a) Gause‟s „Competitive Exclusion Principle' states that “two closely related species
competing for the same resources cannot co-exist independently and the competitively
inferior one will be eliminated eventually”.
b)Mutualism is a type of interaction in which both the interacting species are benefited.
• Lichens represent close relationship between a fungus and an alga or cyanobacteria. The
fungi help the plant in the absorption of essential nutrients from the soil while the alga
provides the fungi with carbohydrates.
• The mycorrhizae are associations, between fungi and the roots of higher plants. The
fungi help the plant in the absorption of essential nutrients from the soil while the plant
provides the fungi with carbohydrates.
• Plants and pollinating animal agents - Animals pollinate the flowers of plants. Plants
provide pollen and nectar for pollinators.
• Plants and seed dispersing animal agents - Animals disperse the seeds of plants. Plants

59 KREIS BIOLOGY
 provide juicy and nutritious fruits for seed dispersers.
• A particular species of fig tree is pollinated by a specific species of wasp only. The wasp
pollinates the fig inflorescence while searching for suitable sites for oviposition (egg-
laying). In return, the fig provides the wasp some of its developing seeds as food for the
developing wasp larvae.

2. Explain Brood parasitism and 'sexual deceit' as an interaction of species with an

example each.
Brood parasitism: A parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host to
incubate. During the course of evolution the eggs of the parasitic bird have changed to
resemble host egg.
Example: Cuckoo and Crow
Sexual deceit: Example Ophrys The Mediterranean orchid and Bee. One petal of flower
resemblance to the female bee in size, colour and markings. The male bee is attracted by
this flower perceives as a female and pseudocopulates. It visits to another flower and
pseudocopulates. Thus pollination is achieved.
3. a) Define the following terms.
i) Commensalism ii) Brood parasitism iii) Mutualism (3 M)
b) Mention four basic processes that fluctuate the density of a population in a given
habitat. (2 M)
i) Commensalism: A population interaction where one species is benefitted and the other
is neither benefitted nor harmed.
ii) Brood parasitism: A population interaction in which the parasite bird lays its eggs in
the nest of its host and let the host to incubate them.
iii) Mutualism: A population interaction where both the interacting species are benefitted
mutually.
b) Four basic processes that fluctuate the density of population in a given habitat.
i. Natality (ii) Mortality (iii) Immigration (iv)Emigration
4. a) What is adaptation? (1 M)
b) Write a cause and symptom of altitude sickness. (2 M)
c) What is brood parasitism? Give an example. (2 M)
a) Adaptation is any attribute of the organism (morphological, physiological, and
behavioural) that enables the organism to survive and reproduce in its habitat.
b) Cause for altitude sickness - Body does not get enough oxygen due to low atmospheric
pressure at high altitudes.
Symptoms of altitude sickness include nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations.
c) Brood parasitism: A parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host and lets the host to
incubate. During the course of evolution the eggs of the parasitic bird have changed to
resemble host egg.
Example: Cuckoo and Crow
5. What is population growth? Explain factors responsible for fluctuating population
density.
Increase in the number of individuals in a population.
Factors responsible for fluctuating population Density are as follows
a) Natality: Natality refers to the number of births during a given period in the
population, due to this factor population size increases.

60 KREIS BIOLOGY
 b) Mortality: Mortality refers to the number of deaths during a given period in the
population, due to this factor population size decreases.
c) Immigration: Immigration is the number of individuals of the same species that have
come into the habitat from elsewhere during the time period under consideration, due to
this factor population size increases.
d) Emigration: Emigration is the number of individuals of the population who left the
habitat and gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration, due to this factor
population size decreases.
6. a) List the responses of living organisms to abiotic factors. (2 M)
b) What is commensalism? Give an example. (2 M)
c) Name the type of interaction between algae and fungi in lichens. (1 M)
a) i) Temperature ii) Water iii) Light iv) Soil
b) The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor
harmed is called commensalism.
Example: An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch
OR
Barnacles growing on the back of a whale
OR
The cattle egret and grazing cattle in close association
OR
Interaction between sea anemone and the clown fish (Any one)
c) Mutualism is the type of interaction between algae and fungi in lichens.
7. a)What are Ectoparasites and Endoparasites? (2M)
b) List any three parasitic adaptations in animals.
a) Ectoparasites parasites that feeds on the external surface of host organisms.
Endoparasites are thoseparasites that live inside the host body at different sites.
b) Parasites evolved following special adaptations
i) Loss of unnecessary sense organs
ii) Presence of adhesive organs or suckers to cling on to the host
iii) Loss of digestive system
iv) High reproductive capacity.
8. a) Write any four factors that influence population density. (2 M)
b) Draw a graph showing exponential growth curve. (2 M)
c) What is sexual deceit? (1 M)
a) Four factors that influence population density are as follows:
i) Natality
ii) Mortality
iii) Immigration
iv) Emigration

b)

61 KREIS BIOLOGY
 c) One petal of Ophrys resembles female bee in size. So male bee pseudocopulates with
the flower. It is known as sexual deceit.
10 a) What is commensalism? Explain with any two examples. (3 M)
b) How does our body overcome altitude sickness? (2 M)
a) The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor
harmed is called commensalism.

Example: An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch

OR
Barnacles growing on the back of a whale
OR
The cattle egret and grazing cattle in close association
OR
Interaction between sea anemone and the clown fish (Any Two)
b) Our body overcome altitude sickness by following methods
• By increasing red blood cell production.
• By increasing the binding affinity of haemoglobin.
• By increasing breathing rate.
11 Mention the population interactions exist among the following: a) Abingdon tortoise
and goats in Galapagos islands b) Cuckoo lays eggs in crow‟s nest c) Sea-anemone
and clown fish d) Wasp laying eggs in fig fruit e) Orchid Ophrys and bees.
a) Abingdon tortoise and goats in Galapagos islands - Competition.
b) Cuckoo lays eggs in crow‟s nest - Brood parasitism.
c) Sea-anemone and clown fish - Commensalism.
d) Wasp laying eggs in fig fruit - Mutualism.
e) Orchid Ophrys and bees – Sexual deceit.

62 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter 14

ECOSYSTEM
1 Mark Questions
1. Define ecosystem.
An ecosystem is a functional unit of nature, where living organisms interact among
themsclves with the surrounding environment.
2. Give an example for man-made ecosystem.
Crop fields and an aquarium is considered as man-made ecosystems
3. Define primary production.
It is the amount of biomass produced per unit area over a time period by plants during
photosynthesis.
4. Define the term „Productivity‟.
The rate of biomass production is called productivity.
5. Define Gross Primary Productivity.
Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter
during photosynthesis.
6. Expand GPP.
Gross primary productivity.
7. Define Net primary productivity.
Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R), is the net primary productivity
(NPP)
8. What is secondary productivity?
Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by
consumers.
9. What is decomposition?
The process of break down complex organic matter into inorganic substances like
carbon dioxide, water and nutrients by decomposers is called decomposition.
10. What is detritus?
Dead plant remains such as leaves, bark, flowers and dead remains of animals, including
fecal matter, constitute detritus.
11. What is the raw material for decomposition?
Detritus is the raw material for decomposition.
12. Name the producers in an ecosystem?
The green plant in the ecosystem-terminology are called producers
13. What are consumers in an ecosystem?
All animals depend on plants (directly or indirectly) for their food needs. They are
hence called consumers and also heterotrophs
14. What is standing crop?
Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the
standing crop
15. Why pyramid of energy is always upright?
Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows
from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always loss as
heat at each step.
63 KREIS BIOLOGY
14. What is Biomass?
It is the amount of organic matter present in living organism
15. What is food web?
The natural interconnection of food chains forms a food web.
16. Expand PAR
Photosynthetically Active Radiation
17. What is ecological succession?
The gradual and fairly predictable change in the species composition of a given area is
called ecological succession.
18. What is primary succession?
Succession is hence a process that starts where no living organisms are there.
19. What is secondary succession?
Succession that occurs in areas that somehow, lost all the living organisms that existed
there.
20. What is stratification?
Vertical distribution different species occupying different levels.
21. What is a pioneer species?
The species that invade a bare area are called pioneer species.
22. Which is the pioneer species of hydrach succession?
Phytoplanktons.
23. Which is the pioneer species of xerarch succession?
Lichens
24. Define „standing state‟
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium, etc., present in
the soil at any given time, is referred to as the standing state.
25. What is nutrient cycling?
The movement of nutrient clements through the various components of an ecosystem is
called nutrient cycling.
26. What is the reservoir for the carbon cycle?
Atmosphere
27. What is the reservoir for the phosphorus cycle?
Earth's crust
2/3 Mark Questions
1. Write a simple grazing food chain
A simple grazing food chain (GFC) is depicted below:
Grass Goat Man
(Producer)  (Primary Consumer)  (Secondary consumer)
2. Give an example of an inverted ecological pyramid and why is it inverted.
Pyramid of biomass of sea. It is inverted because the bio mass of fishes for exceeds that
of phytoplankton.
3. List the two types of nutrient cycles.
Nutrient cycles are of two types:
(a) Gaseous (b) sedimentary.
4. What is the difference between gaseous and sedimentary cycle?
a) Gaseous-Reservoir is atmosphere, Eg Carbon/Nitrogen cycle
b) Sedimentary- Reservoir is soil, Eg:phosphorus cycle
64 KREIS BIOLOGY
5. Define food chain? Give an example
The flow of food energy from one tropic level to other tropic level by eating and being
eaten”.
Eg. GrassInsectsFrogSnakeEagle
6. What are the limitations of ecological pyramids?
(i) Does not take into account same species belonging to two or more trophic levels
(ii) Assumes simple food chain, does not accommodate in food web.
(iii) Saprophytes have not been given any place ecological pyramids
7. Name the four functional components of ecosystem?
Productivity, Decomposition, Energy Flow, and Nutrient Cycling.
8. Differentiate detritus food chain and grazing food chain
Detritus food chain begins from the dead and decaying matter while grazing food chain
starts from the green plants (Producers).
9. Mention the types of plant succession.
Two types-hydrarch and xerarch
10. Differentinte between Sere and Seral communities.
Sere is entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area.
Seral community: Individual transitional community.
11. Explain primary succession which starts on a bare rock and reach climax
community.
 In prmary succession on rocks these are usually lichens will grow & secrete acids to
dissolve rock, helping in weathering and soil formation.
 Later small plants like Bryophytes, will grow they hold little amount of water &soil.
 Later bigger plants, finally a stable climax forest community are formed.
 The climax community remains stable as long as the environment remains
unchanged With time.
12. Explain hydrarch succession.
 In primary succession in water, the pioneers are the small phytoplanktons,
 They are replaced with time by free-floating angiosperms,Then by rooted
hydrophytes, sedges, grasses and finally the trees.
 The climax again would be a forest.
13. Explain the carbon cycle
 Fossil fuel also represents a reservoir of carbon.
 Carbon cycling occurs through atmosphere, ocean and through living and dead
organisms.
 A considerable amount of carbon returns to the atmosphere as CO2 through
respiratory activities of the-producers and consumers.
 Decomposers also contribute substantially to CO2 pool by their processing of waste
materials and dead organic matter of land or oceans.
 Some amount of the fixed carbon is lost to sediments and removed from circulation.
 Buring of wood, forest fire and combustion of organic matter, fossil fuel, and
volcanic activity are additional sources for releasing CO2 in the atmosphere.

65 KREIS BIOLOGY
14. Draw a schematic model of carbon cycle in the biosphere.

15. Draw a schematic model of phosphorus cycle

66 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter 15
BIODIVERSITY AND ITS CONSERVATION
1 Mark Questions
1. How does fragmentation of large habitat due to human activities lead to population
decline?
Mammals and Birds requiring large territories and animals with migrating habits are
badly affected.
2. Define endemism.
It is the phenomenon of a species being confined to a particular area and not found
anywhere else.
3. Mention a biodiversity hot-spot in India.
1) Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
2) Indo-Burma
3) Himalaya
4. Which is the fish caught in South Africa in 1938, which was thought to be extinct?
Coelacanth
2 Mark Questions
1. Introduction of some alien species causes biodiversity loss. Justify the statement
with an example.
• The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria in east Africa led to the extinction of
many species of cichlid fish.
• The introduction of invasive weed species like carrot grass (Parthenium) / Lantana /
water hyacinth (Eicchornia) into India have threatened several native species.
• The introduction of the African catfish / Clarias gariepinus is posing a threat to the
indigenous catfishes in Indian rivers.
2. What are sacred grooves? Mention any two examples.
Sacred groves are large tracts of forests where trees and wildlife within are conserved
due to cultural and religious beliefs.
OR
Sacred groves are forests where all the trees and wildlife are highly respected / revered
and given total protection because of cultural beliefs.
Ex: Khasi Hills / Jaintia Hills / Aravali Hills / Western Ghat / Sarguja area / Chanda area
/ Bastar area
3. List out any two effects of loss of biodiversity.
Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to
(a) Decline in plant production
(b) Lowered resistance to environmental perturbations such as drought
(c) Increased variability in certain ecosystem processes such as plant productivity, water
use, and pest and disease cycles.
4. Define biodiversity. Write any two types biodiversity.
Enormous diversity of life on Earth /Rich variety of living organisms on Earth/The
combined diversity at all the levels of biological organisation.

67 KREIS BIOLOGY
 (i) Genetic diversity
(ii) Species diversity
(iii) Ecological diversity.
5. Name any four recent extinct organisms as per IUCN Red list.
Dodo, Quagga, Thylacine, Stellar's sea Cow and three subspecies of Tiger.
6. What is Ex-situ conservation? Mention two examples.
Ex-Situ conservation is the conservation, where threatened animals and plants are taken
out from their natural habitat and placed in special setting where they can be protected
and given special care.
Example- Zoological Parks, Botanical gardens, Wildlife safari.
7. Define Endemism. Name any two regions of accelerated habitat loss in India.
It is the phenomenon of a species being confined to a particular area and not found
anywhere else.
Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, Indo-Burma and Himalaya are regions of accelerated
habitat loss in India.
8. Name any two species which have become extinct due to over exploitation.
Steller‟s sea cow and Passenger pigeon were two species which have become extinct due
to over exploitation.
9. Mention 'The Evil Quartet' of biodiversity loss.
i) Habitat loss and fragmentation
ii) Over-exploitation
iii) Alien species invasions
iv) Co-extinctions
10. Trophical region has greater biodiversity than temperate region. Justify statement
with three regions.
• Temperate regions have been subjected to frequent glaciations in the past, whereas,
tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years. Therefore,
tropical regions had a long evolutionary time for species diversification.
• Tropical environments are less seasonal, relatively more constant and predictable. Such
constant environments promote niche specialisation and lead to a greater species
diversity.
• There is more solar energy available in the tropics, which contributes to higher
productivity. This in turn might contribute indirectly to greater diversity.
11. Draw a diagrammatic representation showing species- area relationship

68 KREIS BIOLOGY
Chapter 16
ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
1 Mark Questions
1. Define pollution
Pollution is any undesirable change in physical chemical or biological characteristics of
air, land, water or soil.
2. Expand BOD
Biochemical Oxygen Demand
3. Define reforestation.
Reforestation is the process of restoring a forest that once existed but was removed at
some point of time in the past
4. What is eutrophication?
Eutrophication is the natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water.
5. Define Biomagnifications.
Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic
levels.
6. What are EcoSan Toilets?
EcoSan/Ecological sanitation is a sustainable system for handling human excreta, using
dry composting toilets.
7. What is Montreal Protocol?
Control on emission of ozone depleting substances
8. What is pollutant?
The substance which cause pollution is called pollutant
9. What is snow blindness?
Loss of vision due to the effect UV-B radiations causes inflammation of the cornea
10. What is algal Bloom?
Presence of large amountof nutrients in water causes excessive growth of free floating
algae called algal bloom
11. What is Afforrestartion?
A process of Growing of plants in a wasteland to establish a forest
2 Mark Questions
1. CNG is better than diesel give two reasons
a) CNG burns more efficiently unlike petrol or diesel
b) Very little of it is left unburnt
c) It is cheaper than petrol or diesel
d) It cannot siphoned off by thieves and adulterated like petrol or diesel (any two)
2. Mention the effects of air pollution
a) Air pollution cause injury to all living organisms
b) Air pollution reduce the growth and yield of agricultural crops
c) It cause premature death of plants
d) Air pollutants deleteriously affect the respiratory system of humans and animals
3. What are the causes of deforestation?
a) conversion of forest land in to agricultural land.
b) Cutting of forest trees for timber, firewood,-cattle ranching

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 c) Slash and burn agriculture (Jhum cultivation): Farmers cut down the trees of the
forest and burn the plant remains the ash is used as fertilizers, land for farming or cattle
grazing ,then they move from one place to another
4. List the effects of ozone layer depletion
a) UV radiations directly reaching the earth surface leads to damage in DNA
b) It causes mutation
c) Causes aging of skin, damages to skin cells and skin cancer
d) High dose of UV-B radiation causes inflammation of cornea. called snow blindness
& cataract
5. Mention the case study on remedy of plastic waste management
Ahmed Khan, a plastic sack manufacturer developed polyblend, a fine powder of
recycled modified plastic.
This mixture is mixed with the bitumen that is used to lay roads. In collaboration with
RV College of engineering and Bangalore City Corporation, Ahmed Khan proved that
blends of polyblend and bitumen when used to lay roads enhanced the bitumen water
repallent properties and helped to increase road life by a factor of three.
6. List the effects of deforestation
a) enhanced carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphcre
b) Deforestation causes loss of biodiversity due to habitat destruction
c) Disturbs hydrological cycle
d) Causes soil erosion
e) Leads to desertification
7. Write a note on solid wastes
Everything that goes in trash i. e. paper, food wastes, plastics, glass, metals, rubber,
leather, textile etc. are called ass solid wastes.
Burning reduces the volume of wastes although it is generally not burnt to completion
and open dumps often serve as the breeding ground for rats and flies. Sanitary landfills
can be used as substitute for open burning dumps. In a sanitary land fill wastes are
dumped in a depression or trench after compaction, and covered with dirt every day.
A better solution can be separation of wastes in to a) bio-degradable b) recyclable and c)
non biodegradable. The use of eco friendly bags for shopping is better instead of plastic
bags.
8. Write a note on E-wastes
Irreparable electronic goods such as computers, radio etc that goes in trash are called e
wastes. e-wastes are buried in landfills or incinerated. More than half of e-wastes
generated in developed countries are exported to India, China and Pakistan. The metals
like copper, nickel, iron and silicon are recovered during recycling process. Recycling is
the only solution for the treatment of e waste ina environment friendly manner.

5 Mark Questions
1. Write a note on greenhouse effect and global warming
The greenhouse effect is a natural occurring phenomenon that is responsible for heating
of earth‟s surface and atmosphere. The molecules of atmospheric gases like carbon
dioxide, methane etc does not allow the solar radiations like infrared radiations to
escape from the earth surface and absorbs them. This phenomenon repeated many times
resulting in the rise in the temperature of earth surface.

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 Heating of earth surface due to increase in the level of greenhouse gases is known as
global Warming
Effects of global Warming: a)It leads to El Nino effect (i. e. deleterious changes in the
environment and resulting in odd climatic changes)
b) It results in the melting of polar ice caps and Himalayan snow caps
c) It results in the rise in sea level
d)leading to submerge coastal areas
2. Write a note on a)joint forest management b)snow blindness,c) soil erosion, d)El-
nino effect e)Chipko movement
a)Joint forest management: Govt of India introduced the concept of JFM in 1980
where local communities are involved in protection and management of forests. In
return communities get benefit of various forest products eg. fruits, gum rubber,-
medicine etc and thus forest can be conserved in a sustainable manner. b)Snow
blindness: The ozone depletion leads to formation of large thinned ozone layer as seen
in antartica region called ozone hole. This results in entry of UV radiation on the earth
surface causes damage to DNA and skin. In human eye, cornea absorbs UV-B radiation
and a high dose of UV-B cause‟s inflammation of cornea called snow blindness,
cataract, etc
c)El Nino effect: Increase in the tevel of green house gases has led to considerable
heating of earth leading to global warming. The rise in the temperature of earth surface
due to global warming lead to deleterious changes in the environment and resulting in
odd climatic changes called EI- Nino effect.
d)Soil crosion: The removal of fertile top soil due to human activities like over
cultivation, unrestricted grazing. deforestation and poor irrigation practices resulting in
arid patches of land.
e)Chipko movement: In 1974 local women in Garhwal Himalayas showed enormous
bravery in protecting trees from the axe of contractors by hugging them.
3. Explain Electrostatic precipitator with a neat labelled diagram
There are several ways of removing particulate matter; the most widely used of which is
the electrostatic precipitator, which can remove over 99 per cent particulate matter
present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant.it has electrode wires that are
maintained at several thousand volts, which produce a corona that releases electrons.
These electrons attach to dust particles giving them a net negative charge. The
collecting plates are grounded and attract the charged dust particles.The velocity of air
between the plates must be low enough to allow the dust to fall.

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4. Explain Scrubber with a neat labelled diagram
A scrubber can remove gases like sulphur dioxide. In a scrubber, the exhaust is passed
through a spray of water or lime. The particulate matter that are very small and are not
removed by these precipitators,
According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), particulate size 2.5 micrometers
or less in diameter (PM 2.5) are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human
health. These fine particulates can be inhaled deep into the lungs and can cause
breathing and respiratory symptoms, irritation, inflammations and damage to the lungs
and premature deaths.

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