1. He discovered the nucleus with his “Gold Foil” b.

Dmitri Mendeleev
experiment. c. John Newlands
a. Eugen Goldstein d. Julius Meyer
b. Ernest Rutherford 11. He formulated the Periodic Law.
c. John Dalton a. Dmitri Mendeleev
d. J.J. Thomson b. John Newlands
2. He is credited with the discovery of electron in an c. Julius Meyer
atom.
d. Johann Wolfgang Doberein
a. Ernest Rutherford 12. A substance that has the ability to dissolve or
b. John Dalton disperse one or more substances?
c. Eugen Goldstein a. Solvent
d. J.J. Thomson b. none of these
3. Which of the following is an intensive property? c. crystal
a. Mass d. solute
b. Density 13. A solution with solute that dissolves until it is unable
c. Volume to dissolve anymore, leaving the undissolved
substances at the bottom.
d. None of these
a. unsaturated solution
4. Which of the following is an extensive property?
b. saturated solution
a. density
c. none of these
b. melting point
d. supersaturated solution
c. weight
14. He is credited with the discovery of electron in an
d. None of these
atom.
5. Brass is an example of ___________. a. Eugen Goldstein
a. Homogenous mixture b. Ernest Rutherford
c. John Dalton
b. Element d. J.J. Thomson
c. Compound 15. A solution that completely dissolves, leaving no
d. Heterogenous remaining substances.
6. Which of the following is not an example of
a. unsaturated solution

observable physical property? b. saturated solution

a. Color c. none of these

b. Texture d. supersaturated solution

16. A solution that contains more undissolved solute than the
c. Mass
saturated solution because of its tendency to crystallize and
d. Odor precipitate.
7. It is the number of proton in nucleus. a. unsaturated solution
a. Atomic mass
b. saturated solution
b. Atomic number
c. none of these
c. Atomic charge
d. Valence
d. supersaturated solution
17. Which of the following is arranged in increasing
8. Atoms of the same element with varying number of
atomic size?
neutrons
a. None of these
a. Mg > Ca > K > Fr
b. Element
b. Mg > Sc > Sr > Ca
c. Isotopes
c. Ca > K> Mg > Fr
d. Ions d. Ca > Mg > K > Sr
9. He arranged the elements in the periodic table in 18. Which of the following elements is more
groups of 3’s or triads also known as “Law of Triad”. electronegative: Cl, S, or Mg?
a. John Newlands a. Cl
b. Dmitri Mendeleev
b. Mg
c. Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner
d. Julius Meyer c. S
10. He arranged the elements in the periodic table in d.None of these
groups of 8’s like from lithium to sodium also known 19. Which of the following elements is more reactive: Li,
as “Law of Octaves”. Rb, or Fr?
a. Johann Wolfgang Doberein a. Fr
 b. Rb b. Suspension
c. Li c. Solution
d. None of these d. All of these

20. The seven horizontal rows in the periodic table are

called __________.
a. Periods
b. Families 29. Sodium carbonate is also known as?

c. Valence
a. caustic potash

d.Groups
b. caustic soda
21. Group 7A is a family of _______ c. baking soda
a. Halogens d. soda ash
30. It is the most ideal gas element.
b. Noble gases
c. Alkaline Metals a. Helium

d. Alkali Metals b. Oxygen

22. Which of the following elements (Br or Cu) has the c. Sulfur
higher ionization energy? d. Neon
a. Both elements 31. What is the molecular formula if the empirical formula
b. None of these of a compound is CH. The molar mass of this
compound is 78 g
c. Br
a. C H2 2

d.Cu
b. C H8 8
23. Which has a larger ionic size ( Na + or Mg 2+)
a. Both ions
c. C6H6
b. Mg 2+
32. What is the molarity of a solution formed from 6.75 g
c. Na + of NaCl (58.4 g/mol) dissolved in water to make a
solution with a total volume of 452 mL?
d. None of these
a. 0.412 M
b. 0.256 M
24. Calculate the % Ca in Ca(OH)2. c. 0.872 M
a. 2.73% d. 0.799 M
b. 54.09% 33. Calculate the molality of a solution prepared from 29.1
g of toluene (92 g/mol) dissolved in 832 g of benzene.
c. 26.7% a. 0.114 M
d. 43.18% b. 0.380 M
25. What is the empirical formula of a compound which c. 0.567 M
d. 0.787 M
contains 2.05% H, 32.65% S, and 65.30% O?
34. If a mixture of gases contains 7.50 g of H2, 3.25 g of
a. HSO 4 O2 and 5.55 g of N2, what is the mole fraction of the
b. H SO
2 4
oxygen gas?
a. 0.925
c. H SO
2
b. 0.0253
d.none of the above c. 0.673
26. What is the empirical formula of a compound which d. 0.049
35. A solution is prepared by dissolving 464 g of NaOH
contains 52.94% Al and 47.06% O?
(40 g/mol) in water and then diluting to 1 L. The
a. Al2O3 density of the resulting density is 1.37 g/mL. What is
b. Al O
3 2
the % mass of NaOH?
a. 12.80%
c. Al O
3
b. 50.33%
d. AlO 2 c. 33.87%
27. A compound is 85.69% C and 14.31% H. If the molar d. 11.60%
mass is 56g/mol, what is the molecular formula of the 36. Part of a molecule where most of its chemical
reactions occur
compound?
a. Functional group
a. CH
4 8 b. Triple covalent
b. CH 4
c. Single covalent
d. Double covalent
c. CH H 4 10
37. When ethyl bromide is treated with sodium in dry
d.
CH 2 ether, the product is
28. Agua regia is a/an ______. a. Butane
b. Propane
a. Colloid
 c. Methylpropane d. 2-propanol
d. Propane

49. Oxidation of isopropyl alcohol with 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 will yield

a. Acetone
38. The following reagents will yield an alkyl halide from b. Acetaldehyde
an alkene EXCEPT c. diethyl ether
a. HBr / peroxide d. acetic acid
b. Br2 / UV or light 50. Reaction of alcohol and a carboxylic acid is known as
c. Br2 in CCl4 ____________.
d. HCl a. Epoxidation
39. Hydrogenation of alkenes in the presence of a b. Saponification
poisoned palladium catalyst produces c. Neutralization
a. Alkyne d. Esterification
b. alkyl halide 51. An unknown ester was hydrolyzed with water and
c. alkane acid to produce an acid, X and alcohol, Y. Oxidation
d. alcohol of the alcohol with hot 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 yielded acid X.
40. How many isomers does xylene have? Oxidation of the alcohol produced acetaldehyde.
a. 3 Name the ester.
b. 4 a. methyl propanoate
c. 2 b. ethyl benzoate
d. 1
41. No carbonyl group is found in c. ethyl ethanoate
a. carboxylic acid d. methyl propanoate
b. aldehyde 52. No carbonyl group is found in
c. ketone a. Ester
d. ether b. Aldehyde
42. Hydrogenation of one mole of allene (CH2=C=CH2) c. Epoxide
with 2 moles of H2 in the presence of Lindlar catalyst d. Ketone
yields 53. Carboxylic acids are reduced by lithium aluminum
a. 2-butene hydride to the corresponding
b. 2-propene a. primary alcohols
c. Propane b. secondary alcohols
d. Propylene c. all of the choices
43. Which of the following is not an alipatic hydrocarbon? d. tertiary alcohols
a. Propylene 54. In Williamson synthesis of methyl isopropyl ether, the
b. Toluene alcohol used is
c. n-octane a. Methanol
d. n-tridecane b. n-propyl alcohol
44. Friedel-Crafts acylation of benzene with acetyl c. isopropyl alcohol
chloride in 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 yields d. ethanol
a. Chlorobenzene 55. 2-methyl-2-butene undergoes hydrochlorination in the
b. Acetophenone presence of benzoyl peroxide to form
c. Cumene a. 2-chloro-3-methylbutane
d. Benzaldehyde b. 1-chloro-3-methylbutane
45. In the Grignard synthesis of an alkane using sec-butyl c. 2-chloro-2-methylbutane
bromide, which of the following alkane will be d. 3-chloro-3-methylbutane
produced? 56. A periodic assessment of the performance of
a. n-butane individual laboratories and groups of laboratories that
b. isobutane is achieved by the distribution by an independent
c. none of these testing body of typical materials of unsupervised
d. isopentane analysis by the participants.
46. Which of the following contains sp-hybridized carbon? a. Quality assurance
a. 𝐶3𝐻6 b. CRM
b. 𝐶5𝐻8
c. Proficiency Testing
c. 𝐶5𝐻8
d. 𝐶6𝐻12 d. Quality Assessment
47. Which of the following carbonyl compounds produces 57. A group of samples which behave similarly with
a secondary alcohol with 𝐿𝑖𝐴𝑙𝐻4? respect to the sampling, or the testing procedures
a. Ester being employed, and which are processed as a unit.
b. carboxylic acid a. Method blank
c. ketone b. Matrix
d. aldehyde c. CRM
48. Addition of methyl magnesium bromide to d. Batch
acetaldehyde produces
a. Ethanol
b. 1-propanol
c. Methanol
 67. Analysis of blanks.
58. A substance that are inserted into the run alongside a. Accuracy
the test materials and subjected to the same b. Precision
treatment. c. Contamination
a. CRM d. Extraction Efficiency
b. Blank 68. To measure the amount of the analytical signal which
c. Matrix spike arises from the dilution solvent.
d. Control materials a. Calibration Blank
59. A program designed to make the measurement b. Sampling Blank
process as reliable as possible. c. Equipment Blank
a. Quality control d. Method Blank
b. Quality assurance 69. A single sample split in the laboratory and measure
c. Matrix laboratory precision based on relative percent
d. Blank difference between the sample and SD.
60. An activity designed to identify and determine sources a. Blank
of error. b. CRM
a. Matrix c. QC sample
b. Blank d. Duplicate
c. Quality assurance 70. Running both a duplicate sample and a blank sample
d. Quality control to compare test results.
61. A system of processes and procedures that a. Quality Assurance
pharmaceutical and medical device manufacturers b. Quality Control
must adhere to in order to ensure that their products c. GLP
are of the highest quality. d. GMP
a. GMP 71. Regularly evaluating standard procedures carried out
b. GLP by lab techs and interns.
a. Internal Quality control
c. Quality Assessment b. Certified reference Material (CRM)
d. Quality Control c. Quality Control
62. A quality system of management controls for research d. Quality Assessment
laboratories and organizations to ensure the 72. Sterilizing equipment and preventing personal
uniformity, consistency, reliability, reproducibility, contamination through the distribution of gloves,
quality, and integrity of products in development for hairnets, and lab coats.
human or animal health (including pharmaceuticals) a. Internal Quality control
through non-clinical safety tests; from physio-
chemical properties through acute to chronic toxicity
b. Certified reference Material (CRM)
tests. c. Quality Control
a. GMP d. Quality Assessment
b. GLP 73. Double-checking bottle labels before starting each
test
c. Quality Assessment
a. Internal Quality control
d. Quality Control
63. It refers to procedures undertaken by laboratory for
b. Certified reference Material (CRM)
continuous monitoring of operations and c. Quality Control
measurement results. d. Quality Assessment
a. Internal Quality control 74. Regularly calibrating equipment and machines.
b. Certified reference Material (CRM) a. Quality Assurance
c. Quality Control b. Quality Control
d. Quality Assessment
64. To detect contamination from reagents, sample c. GLP
handling, and the entire analytical process. d. GMP
a. Sampling Blank 75. Having a system in place where each data entry gets
b. Method Blank approved by two sets of eyes.
c. Calibration Blank a. Internal Quality control
d. Equipment Blank b. Certified reference Material (CRM)
e. c. Quality Control
65. Analysis of reference materials or samples of know
concentration.
d. Quality Assessment
a. Accuracy
76. This type of analysis means that the amount of some
b. Precision
constituents was determined.
c. Contamination
a. complete analysis
d. Extraction Efficiency
b. partial analysis
66. Analysis of matrix spikes.
c. single-component analysis
a. Contamination
d. ultimate analysis
b. Precision
c. Accuracy
d. Extraction Efficiency

77. The molar mass of Na2B4O7•10H20 is

 a. 269.32 mg/mmol New Method: 22.10 20.50 17.65 20.23 19.40 17.99
b. 383.43 mg/mmol Standard: 18.89 19.20 19.00 19.70 19.40
c. 381.42 mg/mmol a. The two methos are significantly different.
d. 201.22 mg/mmol b. The two methos are not significantly different.
78. How many grams of BaCl2:2H2O is needed to prepare 87. Analysis of carbonate in a sample of bottled water
2.00 liters of 0.108 M BaCl2 solution? gives a mean of 11.8 ppm with a standard deviation of
a. 5280 mg 0.70 pm for five replicates. If the standard value of
b. 52.80 g carbonate in bottled water is <11.7 ppm, is there a
c. 52.8 g need for product recall at 90% confidence level?
d. 528 g a. YES
79. Calculate the molality of 25.0 grams of KBr dissolved b. NO
in 750.0 mL pure water. 88. Calculate the molarity of a NaOH solution made by
a. 0.410 m weighing 5.25 g of NaOH using a balance with a
b. 0.120 m standard deviation of +0.05 g and dissolving it in
c. 0.280 m enough water in a 500-mL volumetric flask with a
d. 0.310 m standard deviation of +0.08-mL.
80. These are solid materials added to promote fusing of
metals. a. 0.2085 (+0.040) M
a. Solvents b. 0.2021 (+0.040) M
b. Interferences c. 0.2021 (+0.042) M
c. Fluxes d. 0.2625 (+0.042) M
d. Precipitate 89. In the analysis of 0.7011 g of an impure chloride
81. The results of an analysis are 36.97 grams, compared containing sample, 0.9805 g of AgCl were
with the accepted value of 37.06 grams. What is the precipitated. What is the percentage by mass chloride
relative error in parts per thousand? in the sample?
a. 3.04 ppt a. 25.45%
b. None of the above b. 28.85%
c. 4.12 ppt c. 78.14%
d. 2.43 ppt d. 34.59%
82. Which in the following sets of data is more precise: 90. A 0.4054 g solid organic sample containing covalently
SET A (in mm): 821, 783, 834 and 855 bound bromide and no other halogens was placed in
SET B (in mm): 790, 810, 838 and 855 ? a porcelain crucible with about one gram of fresh
sodium metal. In a process known as sodium fusion,
a. Set B the mixture was heated in a furnace to 450°C which
b. Both Set A and B charred and vaporized the organic portion of the
c. Set A molecule and converted the covalent bromide into
d. None of these sodium bromide. Excess sodium was decomposed by
83. Which of the following is used to express the ppm of a adding small portions of water which also dissolved
solution? the sodium bromide. The clear solution was
a. mg analyte/liter solution x 10 quantitatively transferred to a beaker, acidified with
b. kg analyte/kg sample dilute nitric acid, and diluted to about 50 mL. A 6 mL
c. kg analyte/liter solution quantity of 0.1 M AgNO3 was added to the solution
d. g analyte/g sample × 10 and the mixture heated to about 60°C for an hour to
84. The initial and final reading of a buret in a given age and digest the precipitate. After filtering, the mass
titration are 1.05 and 27.40 mL respectively. If the of the silver bromide produced was determined to be
buret used has a standard deviation of + 0.05 mL, 37.8 mg. What is the percentage by mass bromine in
what is the volume of the titrant used and its the organic compound?
corresponding deviation? a. 3.97%
a. 20.32 (+0.07) ml b. 3.00%
b. 24.10 (+ 0.04) ml c. 2.15%
c. 26.35 (+0.07) ml d. 4.15%
d. 25.30 (+0.05) ml 91. A 0.4960 g sample of a CaCO3 is dissolved in an
85. Which is not true for peptization of colloids? acidic solution. The calcium is precipitated as
a. Wash precipitate with a solution containing an CaC2O4.H2O and the dry precipitate is found to weigh
electrolyte. 0.6186 g. What is the percentage of CaO in the
b. Wash precipitate with distilled water. sample?
c. Electrolyte solution should volatilize when a. 47.78%
precipitate is dried.
d. Coagulated colloids revert to its original b. 30.66%
dispersed state. c. 41.89%
d. 52.10%
92. 0.8 g sample contains has been dissolved. The sulfur
is precipitated as BaSO4. If the weight of the
86. A new gravimetric method is developed for precipitate is 0.3g calculate the percentage of sulfur in
Fe3+ determination and compared with the standard the sample?
precipitation method with ammonia and weighing the a. 4.10%
Fe203. Based on the results, is the new gravimetric b. 5.20%
method comparable with the standard method? c. 7.02%
 d. 6.52% a. Wear safety glasses
93. Calculate the concentration of a solution of a species b. Wear a lab coat
which has an absorbance of 0.494 at 525 nm if the c. Wear gloves
cell path length is 1.00 cm and the molar absorptivity d. All of the choices
of the species is 1.38 × 104. 102. What is the best way to protect yourself from chemical
a. 3.28 X 10 M -5
fumes?
b. 3.58 X 10 M -5
a. None of the choices
c. 3.16 X 10 M -5
b. (b) Work in a well-ventilated area
d. 3.02 X 10 M -5
c. (a) Wear a respirator
94. A 50.00 mL sample of a sodium hydroxide solution is d. Both (a) and (b)
titrated with a 1.605 M solution of sulfuric acid. The 103. What is the best way to protect yourself from chemical
titration requires 24.09 mL of the acid solution to splashes?
reach the equivalence point. What is the molarity of a. (b) Wear goggles
the base solution? b. None of the choices
H2SO4(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l) c. (a) Wear a face shield
a. 1.451 M NaOH d. Both (a) and (b)
b. 1.623 M NaOH 104. What should you do if you feel dizzy or lightheaded in
c. 1.547 M NaOH a chemical laboratory?
d. 1.501 M NaOH a. Get some fresh air
95. It is an ultrapure compound that serves as the b. Sit down and rest
reference material for a titrimetric method of analysis. c. Drink a glass of water
a. secondary standard d. All of the choices
b. none of the above 105. What should you do if you break a glass beaker in a
c. standard solution chemical laboratory?
d. primary standard a. Pick up the broken glass with your hands.
96. Which of the following is an example of substitution in b. Use a dustpan and brush to sweep up the broken
a laboratory? glass
a. Using a less toxic chemical in place of a more c. Use a dustpan and brush to sweep up the broken
toxic chemical. glass
b. Washing your hands after handling chemicals d. Use a wet mop to clean up the broken glass.
c. Wearing gloves to protect against skin contact
with chemicals 106. What should you do if you smell a chemical fume in a
d. Using a fume hood to protect against hazardous chemical laboratory?
fumes a. (b) Leave the area immediately
97. What is the difference between a fire extinguisher and b. Both (a) and (b)
a fire blanket? c. None of the choices
a. A fire extinguisher is used by a person, while a d. (a) Alert the nearest person
fire blanket is used by a team of people. 107. Which of the following is a physical hazard in a
b. A fire extinguisher is a portable device, while a chemical laboratory?
fire blanket is a fixed device. a. Flammable liquids
c. A fire extinguisher is used to put out a fire, while b. Toxic chemicals
a fire blanket is used to smother a fire. c. Biohazardous materials
d. All of the choices d. Corrosive substances
108. Which of the following is a chemical hazard in a
98. Which of the following is an example of an chemical laboratory?
administrative control in a laboratory? a. Contact with an electrical outlet
a. Washing your hands after handling chemicals b. Slipping on a wet floor.
b. Wearing gloves to protect against skin contact c. Inhalation of toxic fumes
with chemicals. d. Exposure to loud noise
c. Posting safety signs and labels 109. Which of the following is an environmental hazard in a
d. Using a fume hood to protect against hazardous chemical laboratory?
fumes. a. Burns from chemical spills
99. Which of the following is the most effective principle of b. Cuts from broken glass
laboratory safety? c. Electric shock from faulty equipment
a. Substitution d. Contamination of water sources
b. PPE
c. Administrative controls
d. Elimination
110. Which of the following is a principle of green
chemistry?
a. Use of non-renewable energy sources
100. What type of gloves should you wear when working b. Use of renewable feedstocks
with chemicals? c. Use of toxic chemicals
a. Vinyl gloves d. Generation of hazardous waste
b. Latex gloves 111. What are the different types of fire extinguisher
c. Rubber gloves ratings?
d. Nitrile gloves a. Class A, B, D
101. What is the best way to protect yourself from chemical b. Class A, B, C
spills? c. Class A, C, D
 d. Class A, B, C, D a. To provide instructions for waste disposal
112. What is the proper way to use a fire extinguisher? b. To identify hazardous waste generators
a. Pull the pin, aim at the side of the fire, and c. To determine the cost of hazardous waste
squeeze the handle. disposal
b. Pull the pin, aim at the top of the fire, and d. To communicate information about hazardous
squeeze the handle. substances
c. Pull the pin, aim at the middle of the fire, and 121. Which of the following is a characteristic of hazardous
squeeze the handle. waste?
d. Pull the pin, aim at the base of the fire, squeeze a. Biodegradability
the handle and sweep. b. Non-toxicity
113. What is the difference between a fire extinguisher and c. Stability
a fire sprinkler? d. Recyclability
a. A fire extinguisher is used to put out a fire, while 122. Which of the following is an example of electronic
a fire sprinkler is used to prevent a fire from waste (e-waste)?
starting. a. Glass Jars
b. All of the choices b. Plastic water bottles
c. A fire extinguisher is used by a person, while a c. Scrap metal
fire sprinkler is activated automatically. d. Used batteries
d. A fire extinguisher is a portable device, while a 123. Which of the following characteristics is used to
fire sprinkler is a fixed device. classify a waste as hazardous?
a. Color
114. What is the purpose of an inventory of chemicals? b. Size
a. To track the quantity of chemicals on hand c. Toxicity
b. To identify the location of chemicals d. Odor
c. All of the choices 124. Which characteristic of hazardous waste refers to its
d. To ensure that chemicals are properly stored ability to catch fire easily?
115. What is the difference between a fire extinguisher and a. Ignitability
a fire blanket? b. Toxicity
a. A fire extinguisher is a portable device, while a c. Reactivity
fire blanket is a fixed device. d. Corrosivity
b. A fire extinguisher is used to put out a fire, while 125. Which characteristic of hazardous waste refers to its
a fire blanket is used to smother a fire. potential to build up in the tissues of organisms over
c. All of the choices time?
d. A fire extinguisher is used by a person, while a a. Reactivity
fire blanket is used by a team of people. b. Bioaccumulation
116. Which Philippine legislation is known as the c. Persistence
"Ecological Solid Waste Management Act" and d. Mobility
promotes proper solid waste management practices? 126. Which of the following is a common source of
a. Republic Act No. 6969 hazardous waste in households?
b. Republic Act No. 8749 a. Glass jars
c. Republic Act No. 9003 b. Food waste
d. Republic Act No. 9729 c. Batteries
117. Which Philippine legislation establishes the policies d. Plastic bottles
and institutional mechanisms for the control and 127. Which sector is a significant source of hazardous
prevention of water pollution? waste due to its production of electronic devices?
a. Republic Act No. 6969 a. Hospitality
b. Republic Act No. 9003 b. Agriculture
c. Republic Act No. 9275 c. Automotive
d. Republic Act No. 8749 d. Information technology

128. Which of the following is a common source of

hazardous waste in the construction industry?
118. Which Philippine law governs the practice of a. Paper documents
chemistry and regulates the registration and licensure b. Wood scraps
of chemists? c. Concrete blocks
a. Republic Act No. 9208 d. Asbestos-containing materials
b. Republic Act No. 754 129. What is the primary purpose of the Globally
c. Republic Act No. 6969 Harmonized System (GHS)?
d. Republic Act No. 10657 a. To harmonize international trade regulations
119. Which of the following is an example of a b. To ensure consistent labeling and classification
characteristic hazardous waste? of chemicals
a. Aluminum cans c. To standardize waste management practices
b. Cardboard boxes globally
c. Used motor oil d. To reduce greenhouse gas emissions
d. Organic food waste 130. What does the GHS use to communicate the hazards
120. What is the purpose of a Material Safety Data Sheet of chemicals?
(MSDS)? a. Hazard Communication Labels
 b. Product Safety Data Sheets (PSDS)
c. Safety Data Sheets (SDS)
d. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
131. Which of the following is a GHS hazard pictogram for
health hazards?
a. Environment
b. Exclamation mark
c. Flame
d. Skull and crossbones
132. Which section of the Safety Data Sheet (SDS)
provides information on first aid measures?
a. Section 3
b. Section 1
c. Section 2
d. Section 4
133. Which type of storage container is commonly used for
flammable liquids?
a. Glass bottles
b. Metal drums
c. Plastic bags
d. Cardboard boxes
134. What is the recommended method for storing
incompatible chemicals?
a. Storing them next to each other for easy access
b. Mixing them together in a single container
c. Storing them in separate, labeled containers
d. Placing them in a plastic bag for containment
135. Which government agency is responsible for the
implementation and enforcement of chemical safety
regulations in the Philippines?
a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
b. Department of Health (DOH)
c. Department of Environment and Natural
Resources (DENR)
d. Occupational Safety and Health Center (OSHC)
 d. A polar stationary phase and a nonpolar mobile
phase
1. The elution power of a mobile phase is determined 9. Which of the following has the correct order of elution
by (first to last) from an HPLC column containing a
a. the nature of the sample components reversed-phase packing?
b. its overall polarity a. acetamide, acetone, dichloroethane
c. the polarity of the stationary phase b. dichloroethane, acetamide, acetone
d. all of the above c. acetone, dichloroethane, acetamide
2. Which of the following statements about columns d. dichloroethane, acetone, acetamide
containing more theoretical plates is TRUE? 10. The following will cause the drift errors in an analytical
a. Columns containing more theoretical plates are balance EXCEPT
better suited to separate a complex mixture. a. Balance door is open
b. Columns containing more theoretical plates b. Temperature of the balance and the sample to be
interact irreversibly with the analyte. weighed is the same.
c. Columns containing more theoretical plates make c. Balance is not levelled.
separations impossible. d. Air currents are present in the laboratory.
d. Columns containing more theoretical plates take 11. Objects cannot be weighed when hot or warm. But if
a long time to perform separations. you were to take a sample out and wait for it to cool it
3. The height equivalent of a theoretical plate (HETP) would pick up moisture so it should be placed in
has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT a/an/at
a. It is defined by the Van Deemter equation. a. Oven
b. This quantity times the column length is equal to b. room temperature
the number of theoretical plates in the column. c. desiccator
c. Equilibrium is attained at each height equivalent. d. fume hood
d. The smaller the value is, the better the separation 12. It is the nominal volume of water (or mercury)
attainable contained, or delivered by an article of volumetric
4. All of the following are common carrier gases from glassware, at its reference temperature.
gas chromatography EXCEPT a. Measurand
a. Oxygen b. Capacity
b. Argon c. Calibration
c. Nitrogen d. Accuracy
d. Helium
5. The following are properties of an open tubular or 13. A student is tasked to measure 12 mL of a liquid as
capillary column EXCEPT precisely as possible. Which measuring device should
a. It contains an enormous number of plates that be selected for this task?
permit rapid separations of closely related a. 25 mL graduated cylinder
species. b. 25 mL conical flask
b. Poor resolution can be obtained. c. 25 mL beaker
c. Only small samples can be applied. d. 25 mL volumetric flask
d. It has a long column length with small inner 14. Determine the volumes of the liquids in these
diameter. graduated cylinders.
6. An air sample is subjected to gas chromatography for
the analysis of Freon-11 (CCIF). The detector that is
most suitable for this analysis is.
a. ECD
b. TSD
c. TCD
d. FID
7. An advantage of HPLC over GC for the separation
and measurement of high molecular weight
compounds is that
a. HPLC systems are always operated under
constant conditions of eluant temp and
composition.
b. The preparation of volatile derivatives is not
necessary in HPLC.
c. The preparation of volatile derivatives is not
necessary in HPLC. a. 6.60mL and 2.00mL
d. HPLC systems are always operated under b. 6.70 mL and 2.30 mL
constant conditions of eluant temp and c. 6.60 mL and 2.30 mL
composition. d. 6.70 mL and 2.30 mL
8. Reversed-phase chromatography refers to which of
the following?
a. A nonpolar stationary phase and a nonpolar 15. A student needs to transfer his precipitant from the
mobile phase beaker to the filter paper. Which of the following
b. A stationary phase and mobile phase of similar would be the best procedure in order to ensure a
polarities quantitative transfer of the precipitate?
c. A nonpolar stationary phase and a polar mobile
phase
 a. Most of the supernatant liquid decanted first, then d. 2.00 x 10−5 M
bulk of the precipitate is transferred through a 22. When exposure to hazards cannot be engineered
stirring rod. The beaker is washed several times completely out of normal operations, this
with small volumes of wash solution. supplementary method of control can be used.
b. Solution is shaken, then immediately filtered; a. use of PPE
b. elimination
beaker is washed with big volumes of wash
solution. c. administrative control
d. substitution
c. Most of the supernatant liquid is decanted then 23. A researcher working in the lab where hazardous
bulk of precipitate is transferred to filter paper liquid chemicals are present. Which of the following is
through a stirring rod, then the beaker is washed NOT considered appropriate PPE for this situation?
with large volumes of wash solution. a. lab coat
d. None of the above. b. wire mesh glove
16. To determine the density of a liquid, which of the c. chemical resistant glove
following should be used? d. chemical splash goggles
a. volumetric flask 24. The reactant which is present in the smallest
b. pipette stoichiometric amount and which limits the amount of
c. pycnometer product that can be formed in a reaction is
d. graduated cylinder. a. the excess reagent
17. Which technique is recommended for determining the b. the limiting reagent
odor of an unknown liquid in the laboratory? c. the reagent with the least number of grams
a. Use a dropper to collect a small quantity of the d. the reagent with the greatest number of grams
vapor and squirt this under the nose while 25. A polar solute usually dissolves in a polar solvent and
inhaling. a nonpolar solute usually dissolves in a nonpolar
b. Hold a test tube of the liquid under the nose and solvent.
inhale the vapor. a. Hund’s rule
c. Use a hand to fan some of the vapor from the b. the “like dissolves like” rule
test tube to the rose and inhale. c. the solubility rule
d. Transfer a few drops of the liquid to the bench d. Henry’s law
top and inhale the vapor from there. 26. A solution is _______ if more solute can dissolve in it.
18. The size of the sample taken for analysis depends on a. Saturated
the/concentration of the b. Supersaturated
a. equipment to be used c. Concentrated
b. analyte d. Unsaturated
c. specific chemical tests 27. The normality of a solution is always ________ the
d. all of the above molarity.
19. Which of the following can cause ERRORS during the a. greater than or equal to
sample preparation? b. greater than
I. Loss of sample during weighing or c. less than or equal to
dissolution. d. less than
II. Contamination by impurities in reagents and 28. Which of the following concentration units is
in the environment. independent of temperature?
III. Changes in mass due to varying humidity a. Normality
and temperature. b. Molarity
IV. Obtaining nonhomogeneous sample from c. percent volume
the bulk. d. molality
29. A solution contains 34.0% by mass HClO4 (100.45). It
a. I, II, and III has a density of 1.242 g/ml. The molarity of the
b. I and II only solution is
c. I, II, III, and IV a. 8.40
d. I, IIl, and IV b. 4.20
20. In an experiment to determine the percentage of c. 0.916
water in a solid hydrate by heating, what is the best d. 5.13
indication that all the water has been removed? 30. The recommended procedure for preparing a very
a. The solid changes color. dilute solution is not to weigh out a very small mass or
b. Successive weighing’s give the same mass. measuring a very small volume of a stock solution.
c. Water vapor no longer appears. Instead it is done by a series of dilutions. sample of
d. The solid melts. 0.8214 g of KMnO4 (158.04) was dissolved in water
and made up to the volume in a 500-ml volumetric
flask. A 2.000-ml sample of this solution was
transferred to a 1000-ml volumetric flask and diluted
to the mark with water. Next, 10.00 ml of the diluted
solution were transferred to a 250-ml flask and diluted
to the mark with water. What is the concentration (in
21. What is the [H3O+] of a 0.100 M solution of HCN at molarity) of the final solution?
25oC? Ka (HCN) = 4.0 x 10−10 a. 0.1039 M
a. 6.32 x 10−6 M
b. 1.58 x 10−8 M b. none of the above
c. 4.00 x 10−11 M c. 8.316 x 10‒7 M
 d. 2.079 x 10‒5 M 39. At 510 nm, the iron orthophenanthroline complex has
31. In this column type, the retention is governed by the a molar absorptivity of 1.2 x 104. What is the
interaction of the polar parts of the stationary phase concentration of iron (in ppm) in a solution which
and solute. gives an absorbance of 0.002 in a 1.00-cm path
a. normal phase length cell?
b. column guard a. 8.3 x 10-3 ppm
c. ion exchange b. 9.3 x 10-3 ppm
d. reverse phase c. 7.3 x 10-3 ppm
32. The HPLC column type in which molecules are
separated according to size. d. 6.3x 10-3 ppm
a. size exclusion 40. The electrical conductivity of water is directly related
b. ion exchange to the concentration of dissolved ionized solids in the
c. normal phase water or
d. reverse phase a. Volatile Solids
33. We have a 5.43 x 10−4 M solution of HNO3 at 25℃. b. Total Solids
What is the [OH−] in this solution? c. Total Suspended Solids
a. 5.43 x 10−4 M d. Total Dissolved Solids
b. 5.43 x 10−10 M 41. The light source used in the visible range to 340-1000
c. 1.84 x 10−11 M nm.
d. 3.67 x 10−6 M a. Tungsten
34. The recommended procedure for preparing a very b. Deuterium
dilute solution is not to weigh out a very small mass or c. Incandescent
measuring a very small volume of a stock solution. d. Nerst blower
Instead, it is done by a series of dilutions. sample of 42. The % T of a solution in a 2.00 cm cell is 50.
0.8214 g of KMnO4 (158.04) was dissolved in water Calculate the %T of this solution in a 1.0 cm cell path
and made up to the volume in a 500-ml volumetric length.
flask. A 2.000-ml sample of this solution was a. 20
transferred to a 1000-ml volumetric flask and diluted b. 19
to the mark with water. Next, 10.00 ml of the diluted c. 27
solution were transferred to a 250-ml flask and diluted d. 71
to the mark with water. Calculate the mass of KMnO4 43. An air sampling canister was evacuated by the local
needed to directly prepare the final solution. fire dep’t and brought to the environmental lab for
analysis. It was said that the sample was taken very
a. 0.4107 g near the site where a rusty 55- gal drum was found by
b. 3.28 x 10‒5 g some children. A reported unpleasant smell near the
c. 6.57 x 10‒5 g site was reported. Results of gravimetric analysis of
the gas in the canister: C – 40%, H- 6.7%, O –
d. 0.2054 g 53.33%. What is the liquid in the drum?
35. Weighing to constant weight means a weighing
difference of ______ using a calibrated analytical a. none of the above
balance. b. CH3OH
a. ±0.01g c. CH3CH2O
b. ±0.01mg d. CH2O
c. ±0.1mg 44. When NH4Cl hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is
d. ±1.0 mg a. Neutral
36. The following are common desiccants except for b. Basic
__________ c. Acidic
a. Magnesium Oxide d. none of the above
b. Calcium Chloride
c. Ammonium Acetate
d. Calcium Sulfate

37. In chromatography, _________ is carried out on glass 45. What is the pH of a 5.82 x 10−3 M solution of NaOH
plates or strips of plastic or metal coated on one side at 25oC?
with a thin layer of adsorbent. a. 2.45
a. GC b. 7.00
b. Paper Chromatography c. 11.76
c. Thin Layer Chromatography d. 4.76
d. HPLC 46. The total volume of a average adult lungs when
38. Conductivity could be determined using the distance expanded is about 6 liters. Calculate the pressure of
between the electrodes and their surface area using oxygen inhaled if 0.05 mole of oxygen is needed to
Ohm's law but, for accuracy, a calibration is employed fully fill a pair of average adult lungs at a normal body
using _________of well-known conductivity. temperature of 370C.
a. basic solution a. 0.0253 atm
b. electrolytes b. 2.58 atm
c. acid solution c. 0.212 atm
d. buffer solution d. 0.308 atm
47. Which of the following is NOT suitable safety attire a. 2
when handling large volume of corrosive liquid? b. 1
a. Lab coat c. 4
b. Chemical resistant gloves d. 3
c. General safety glasses 58. Which of the following functional groups is present in
d. Closed toe shoes the melamine molecule?
48. Ambient laboratory conditions are not the same to a. Alkyne
standard conditions, therefore the volumes dispensed b. Nitrile
in volumetric glassware are often not the same as the c. Amine
manufacturer's specifications, but within some d. Alkene
acceptable limits determined by the manufacturer.
This slight variation in volume will cause a ______ 59. Fatty acid such as lauric acid and palmitic acid and
error that are based on volume-volume or mass- oleic acid are long unbranched carboxylic acids
volume concentrations. consisting of 12 to 20 carbon atoms. Which type of
a. Systematic fatty acid should people avoid ingesting, saturated or
b. Random unsaturated and why?
c. all of the above a. Both fatty acids, because the risk of
cardiovascular disease is increased
d. gross
49. Glass cuvettes are typically for use in the wavelength
b. Saturated, because the risk of cardiovascular
range of visible light, whereas fused quartz tends to disease is increased
be used for ______ applications. c. Unsaturated, because the risk of cardiovascular
a. UV/visible disease is increased
b. none of the above d. Fatty acids are safe to ingest
c. microwave 60. Name the organic compound
d. IR
50. The pH of a 0.20 M NH3 solution is Kb (NH3) = 1.8 x
10‒5
a. 11.28
b. 6.99
c. 0.70
d. 2.73
51. An organic compound formed when an acid reacts
with an alcohol. a. 3,3-dimethyl-2-propene
a. Aldehyde b. 1,1-dimethylpropene
b. Ether c. 2-methyl-2-butene
c. Ester d. 3-methyl-2-butene
d. Ketone 61. Whatever the compound, the gram molecular weight
52. The simplest ketone is _________ contains the same number of molecules, known as
a. Lactone Avogadro’s number. It is expressed as:
b. Cyclohexanone a. 6.02x10^23 atoms per mole
c. Acetone b. 6.02x10^23 ions per mole
d. ethyl methyl ketone c. 6.02x10^23 particles per mole
53. Hydrogenation of an alkene yields _________ d. 6.02x10^23 electrons per mole
a. Aldehyde
b. Alkane
c. Alkyne
d. Alcohol

54. An aldehyde that smells like green apple is ________ 62. Which of the following objects are chiral (assume that
a. Ethanal there is no label or other identifying mark)
b. Butanal a) Pair of scissors
c. Methanal b) Tennis ball
d. Propanal c) Paper clip
55. The acid responsible for the irritating sting of ants. d) Beaker
a. citric acid e) The swirl created in water as it drains out of a sink
b. acetic acid or bathtub
c. lactic acid a. achiral, chiral, chiral, achiral, chiral
d. formic acid b. chiral, achiral, achiral, achiral, chiral
56. Which of the following physical properties differ for c. chiral, chiral, chiral, chiral, chiral
each pair of enantiomers? d. chiral, achiral, achiral, achiral, chiral
a. Index of refraction 63. Propanoic acid and methyl acetate are constitutional
b. Solubility in ethanol isomers, and both are liquids at room temperature.
c. Boiling point and melting point One of these compounds has a boiling point of 141°C;
d. Direction of rotation of plane-polarized light the other has a boiling point of 57°C. Which
57. Number of double bonds in geraniol compound has a higher boiling point?
 a. (1) propanoic acid b. -OR
b. either (1) or (2) c. -NO2
d. -F
c. (2) methyl acetate 74. How many isomers does xylene have?
d. Same a. 3
64. O2 gas effused through a pinhole in 5 sec. How long b. 1
will it take an equivalent amount of CO2 to effuse c. 4
under the same conditions? d. 0
a. 3.8 s 75. Which of the following is a ketone?
b. 2.2 s a. CH3OCH2CH3
c. 5.9 s b. CH3COCH3
d. 4.3 s c. CH3CHO
65. Waxes are d. (CH3)2CHOH
a. Alkyl sulfonates. 76. Hydrogenation of one mole of allene (CH2=C=CH2)
b. Salts of fatty acids with 2 moles of hydrogen gas in the presence of
c. Triglyceride Lindlar catalyst yields
d. Fatty acids alcohol esters a. 2-butene
b. 2-propene
66. The rate of nucleophilic substitution reaction of tert- c. Propylene
butyl bromide with OH– is found to be independent of d. Propane
the concentration of OH– at any instant. It can be 77. All of the following contains carbonyl group EXCEPT
inferred that the reaction is: a. carboxylic acid
A. Second-order (SN2) b. ether
B. Zero-order c. aldehyde
C. Pseudo-first-order d. ketone
D. First-order (SN1) 78. Which of the following is not an aliphatic
67. Reduction of ethyl cinnamate using LiAlH4 produces hydrocarbon?
the alcohol a. Toluene
a. 2-phenylprop-2-en-2-ol b. Propylene
b. 3-phenylprop-2-en-1-ol c. n-tridecane
c. 2-cyclohexylprop-2-en-2-ol d. n-octane
d. 3-cyclohexylprop-2-en-1-ol
68. Styrene undergoes ozonolysis to yield two carbonyl 79. Name the organic compound
compounds. Which of the following pairs is produced
by this reaction?
a. Acetone and benzaldehyde
b. Benzaldehyde and formaldehyde
c. formaldehyde and benzoic acid
d. Benzoic acid and carbonic acid
69. In which reaction of alkyne can keto-enol tautomerism
exist?
a. Ozonolysis
b. Acid-catalyzed hydration
c. Markovnikov hydrohalogenation a. 4-methyl-2-tert-octylphenol
d. Catalytic hydrogenation b. 3-tert-butylphenol
c. 3,5-di-tert-butylphenol
d. none of these
80. Friedel-Crafts acylation of benzene with acetyl
chloride in AlCl3 yields
a. Cumene
70. Which of the following compounds is not aromatic? b. Chlorobenzene
a. Anthracene c. Acetophenone
b. Tetrahydrofuran d. Styrene
c. Penanthrene 81. Which of the following contains sp-hybridized carbon?
d. Hydroquinone a. C4H8
71. Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with b. C6H12
a. 2 double bonds c. C5H8
b. 1 double bond d. C3H6
c. None of these 82. Vinylbenzene is also known as
d. 3 double bonds a. Cumene
72. Reaction of benzene with chlorine gas to produce tri- b. Mesitylene
chlorobenzene exemplifies a/an __________ c. Durene
a. Autocatalytic d. Styrene
b. Elementary 83. Oxidation of isopropyl alcohol with KMnO4 yields
c. Series a. acetic acid
d. Parallel b. acetone
73. All of the following are o- and p- directing substituents c. acetaldehyde
EXCEPT d. diethyl ether
a. -OH
84. Which of the following alcohols will undergo c. Heptadecane
bimolecular nucleophilic substitution? d. none of these
a. 2-propanol 95. In nucleophilic addition reactions of alkenes with HZ
b. 1-propanol in which nucleophile Z attaches to more alkyl-
c. 2-methyl-2-propanol substituted carbon and the H attaches to the carbon
d. all of these that already has the greater number of H atoms, the
85. In Williamson synthesis of methyl isopropyl ether, the rule being followed by the reaction is
alcohol used is
a. Ethanol
a. Markovnikov's rule
b. Linalool b. none of these
c. Methanol c. Huckel rule
d. Isopropanol d. Knoevenagel's rule
96. In the Grignard synthesis of an alkane using sec-butyl
86. Hydrocarbon derivatives used as a main ingredient in bromide, which of the following alkane will be
automobile antifreeze produced?
a. Propylene a. Isopentane
b. Toluene b. Isobutane
c. Isopropanol c. n-butane
d. ethylene glycol d. none of these
87. The following reagents will give an alkyl halide from 97. Addition of hydrazine to carbonyl compounds
an alcohol EXCEPT produces a/an
a. PCl3 a. Semicarbazone
b. NaCl b. Imine
c. SOCl2 c. Oxime
d. PBr3 d. Hydrazone
88. Carbonyl compounds can be obtained by reduction 98. Addition of an alcohol to acyl halides produces
using the following except a. carboxylic acid
a. Amide b. none of these
b. Ester c. carboxamide
c. Nitrile d. ester
d. acyl chloride 99. Cyclic esters are known as
89. Hexanedionic acid is also known as a. Diglyme
a. adipic acid b. Acetals
b. malonic acid c. Osazone
c. succinic acid d. Lactones
d. glutamic acid
90. Reaction of alcohol and a carboxylic acid is known as
a. Epoxidation
b. Neutralization
c. Esterification
d. Esterification

100.In each case, tell whether the bond is ionic, polar

covalent, or nonpolar covalent: Br2, BrCl, HCl,
SrF2, SiH4, CO, N2, CsCl
91. Which of the following alkanes is gas at room a. nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, ionic,
temperature? nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, nonpolar
a. Eicosane covalent, ionic
b. Undecane b. polar covalent, ionic, polar covalent, nonpolar
c. Octane covalent, nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent,
d. Propane polar covalent, polar covalent
92. Hydrogenation of alkenes in the presence of a c. nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, polar
poisoned Pd catalyst produces covalent, ionic, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent,
a. Alkyne nonpolar covalent, ionic
b. Alcohol d. nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent,
c. alkyl halide nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, polar covalent,
d. alkane ionic, polar covalent
93. Same chemical formula but different in
geometric/structural orientation
a. Prism
b. Polymerism
c. Optimism
d. Isomerism

94. Which of the following straight-chain alkanes can be

conveniently prepared by Wurtz reaction?
a. Icosane
b. Nonane