AIRPLANE GENERAL

How is the mask microphone deactivated and the boom microphone activated again (on some
aircraft) after using the oxygen mask?

Select one:
It is required to press one of the transmitter selector switches.
It is necessary to stow the oxygen mask.
Close the left oxygen mask panel door, push RESET/TEST switch.

Question 2

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AIRPLANE GENERAL

When will the Floor Proximity Emergency Escape Path lighting (as installed) automatically
illuminate with the emergency exit lights switch in ARMED?

Select one:
A loss of power on DC bus no. 1 or if AC power is turned off.
Selecting the EVAC switch ON.
A loss of power on either generator bus.

Question 3

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AIRPLANE GENERAL

How can the crew oxygen system pressure be checked?

Select one or more:
When the battery switch is ON, by the oxygen gauge on the aft overhead panel.
By the status of the PASS OXY ON light.
By the gauge on the oxygen bottle in the fwd cargo compartment.

Question 4

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AIRPLANE GENERAL

What is the correct statement regarding the taxi light?

Select one:
On some aircraft the light automatically extinguishes when the gear retracts.
The light will automatically extinguish when becoming airborne.
On all aircraft the light automatically extinguishes when the gear retracts.

Question 5

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AIR SYSTEMS

What is the correct statement regarding engine starting?

Select one:
The engine bleed valve must be open in order to engage the engine's starter motor.
During engine start the DUAL BLEED light should be extinguished.
The isolation valve must be open in order to start engine No. 1 from a pneumatic ground
cart.
Question 6

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AIR SYSTEMS

Under what condition will the overboard exhaust valve close?

Select one:
As soon as the aircraft becomes airborne.
In flight with flaps up.
When cabin differential pressure exceeds a certain preset value.

Question 7

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AIR SYSTEMS

Which systems use the pneumatic system for their operation?

Select one:
Air conditioning, engine start motor, wing anti-ice.
Wing anti-ice, pitot/static heating, engine start motor.
Air conditioning, wing anti-ice, pitot/static heating.

Question 8

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AIR SYSTEMS

Condition: normal operation, in flight. What is the reaction of the isolation valve when a
BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminates?

Select one:
There is no reaction of the isolation valve.
It opens to balance the load of the remaining pack over both engines.
It closes to isolate the problem.

Question 9

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AIR SYSTEMS

What fault condition cannot be reset with the trip reset switch?

Select one:
Pack trip off.
Bleed trip off.
Wing body overheat.

Question 10

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Question text

AIR SYSTEMS

With both engine bleed switches ON, when will the DUAL BLEED light be illuminated?

Select one:
Always when engines and APU are running.
When the isolation valve is open.
When the APU bleed air valve is open.

Question 11

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AIR SYSTEMS

The cabin begins to pressurize automatically when:

Select one:
When airborne.
On ground at higher engine power settings.
All doors are closed.

Question 12

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AIR SYSTEMS

What is the correct statement regarding the trim air system?

Select one:
Trim air reduces the workload on the packs.
Trim air is added to the conditioned air ducts to meet the temperature demand of each
individual zone.
Trim air is supplied to the mix manifold to mix with conditioned air.

Question 13

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AIR SYSTEMS

How can you lower the cabin altitude with the pressurization mode selector in MAN?

Select one:
Reduce thrust.
Move the outflow valve to close.
Move the outflow valve to open.

Question 14

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AIR SYSTEMS

With the cabin temperature selector in the 6 o’clock position:

Select one:
The related air mix valve is controlled manually.
Existing cabin air temperature is maintained.
Closes the associated trim air modulating valve.
Question 15

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AIR SYSTEMS

Under which condition does unbalanced pack operation occur?

Select one:
When the difference in demand temperature between the forward and aft cabin zones
exceeds 4°C.
When the recirculation fans are manually switched OFF.
When the trim air system has failed.

Question 16

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AIR SYSTEMS

During master caution recall the FWD CAB ZONE TEMP light illuminates. When the recall
is reset the light extinguishes. What may be the cause?

Select one:
Failure of the forward cabin zone temperature controller.
The actual temperature in the forward cabin zone deviates more than 5ºC from the
associated temperature selector setting.
There is an overheat in the forward cabin supply duct.

Question 17

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ANTI-ICE, RAIN

What does it mean if the blue COWL VALVE OPEN light is illuminated dim?

Select one:
The engine cowl anti-ice valve is in transit.
The engine cowl anti-ice valve is open.
The engine cowl anti-ice valve is closed.

Question 18

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ANTI-ICE, RAIN

Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates:

Select one:
An overpressure condition exists.
The respective cowl anti-ice valve is in transit, or the cowl anti-ice valve position
disagrees with the respective ENGINE ANTI-ICE switch position.
An overpressure or overtemperature condition exists.

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ANTI-ICE, RAIN

What is the correct statement regarding the wing anti-ice system?

Select one:
The wing anti-ice system is primarily used as an anti-icing system.
The wing anti-ice system is primarily used as a de-icing system.
The wing anti-ice system can be used to de-ice the LE flaps and LE slats.

Question 20

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ANTI-ICE, RAIN

The wing anti-ice switch has positions OFF/ON. What is the correct statement?

Select one or more:

Wing ant-ice is activated on ground with the switch in ON.
Wing anti-ice is available on ground as long as thrust setting is less than the setting for
T/O warning activation.
Wing anti-ice is not available on ground.

Question 21

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Question text

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT

What is the minimum Radio Altitude to engage the second A/P in CMD, for dual A/P
operation in the APP mode?

Select one:
1,500 ft RA.
800 ft RA.
2,000 ft RA.

Question 22

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AUTOMATIC FLIGHT

What are the A/P engagement criteria?

Select one:
No relevant system failures, no force applied to the control wheel and the stabilizer trim
autopilot cutout switch in NORMAL.
The F/D switches are ON, and no force applied to the control wheel.
The F/D bars must be within approximately 1/2 scale of being centered, while no force is
applied to the control wheel.

Question 23

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AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
Condition: Dual A/P operation in the APP mode. FLARE armed should be annunciated
before:

Select one:
500 ft RA.
200 ft RA.
800 ft RA.

Question 24

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AUTOMATIC FLIGHT

In which roll modes is the bank selector effective?

Select one:
HDG SEL and only the VOR mode of VOR/LOC
HDG SEL and VOR/LOC.
HDG SEL and APP.

Question 25

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AUTOMATIC FLIGHT

What statement is correct regarding the V/S mode?

Select one:
Pressing the V/S switch always engages the V/S mode.
 When the V/S mode is engaged, it is possible to select a V/S away from the MCP selected
altitude.
The V/S mode can only be engaged by pressing the V/S switch.

Question 26

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COMMUNICATIONS

Communication to an external interphone jack e.g. near the engines, requires the following
selections:

Select one:
FLT INT transmitter selector pressed; service interphone switch (aft ovhd panel) ON.
SERV INT transmitter selector pressed; service interphone switch (aft ovhd panel) ON.
FLT INT transmitter selector pressed.

Question 27

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COMMUNICATIONS

How can you erase recordings made on the cockpit voice recorder?

Select one:
By pressing the erase switch for 2 seconds as long as the engines are running.
By pressing the erase switch for 2 seconds on the ground with parking brakes set.
By pulling the applicable circuit breaker.
Question 28

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ELECTRICAL

The CAB/UTIL switch (if installed) powers amongst others:

Select one or more:

Water (drain) heaters and water compressor.
Lavatory smoke detection.
Recirculation fans.
Galley power.

Question 29

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ELECTRICAL

After the loss of all generators the fully charged main and auxiliary batteries provide standby
power for a minimum of:

Select one:
30 minutes.
90 minutes.
60 minutes.

Question 30

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ELECTRICAL

What is the power supplier for the DC standby bus in case of alternate operation?

Select one:
It switches to another TR.
AC standby bus.
The batteries.

Question 31

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ELECTRICAL

When does automatic (galley) load shedding occur?

Select one:
Always during engine start.
In case the electrical load design limits are exceeded.
In flight, in case the system is powered by one engine driven generator and the APU
generator.

Question 32

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Question text

ELECTRICAL

What is the power supplier for the AC standby bus in case of alternate operation?

Select one:
The DC system via the static inverter.
It switches to the opposite AC transfer bus.
The batteries via the static inverter.

Question 33

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ELECTRICAL

The TR UNIT light will illuminate:

Select one or more:

In flight, when any TR has failed.
In flight, when TR 1 has failed, or both TR 2 and 3 have failed.
On ground, when any TR has failed.

Question 34

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ELECTRICAL

Condition: Bus Transfer switch AUTO. What is the correct statement if generator 1 fails?
Select one:
AC Transfer Bus 1 will be powered by AC Transfer Bus 2.
AC Transfer Bus 1 will not be powered.
AC Transfer Bus 1 will be powered from Generator Bus 2, various system annunciator
lights will remain illuminated.

Question 35

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ELECTRICAL

Which communication radio is available on standby power when in flight?

Select one:
VHF-1 and VHF-2.
VHF-1 only.
VHF-2 only.

Question 36

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ELECTRICAL

Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates:

Select one:
Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch in the ON position.
The battery charger is inoperative.
The battery bus is not powered.
Question 37

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ELECTRICAL

What is the correct statement regarding the ELEC light?

Select one:
Illumination of the ELEC light indicates a fault exists in the DC or standby power system.
Illumination of the ELEC light indicates a fault exists in the AC power system.
Illumination of the ELEC light indicates a fault exists in any part of the electrical system.

Question 38

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ENGINES, APU

What is the correct statement regarding the amber REV indication?

Select one:
They are inhibited when reverse is selected.
They trigger the Master Caution after 12 sec. of illumination.
They give an indication that the reverser is not in the stowed position.

Question 39

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ENGINES, APU

Engine starter cut-out speed is approximately:

Select one:
46% N2.
36% N2.
56% N2.

Question 40

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ENGINES, APU

What is the maximum allowable EGT during engine start?

Select one:
930° C.
725° C.
895° C.

Question 41

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Question text

ENGINES, APU

What is the correct statement regarding the REVERSER lights (aft overhead panel)?

Select one:
They are inhibited in flight.
They trigger the Master Caution after 12 sec. of illumination.
They are inhibited when reverse is selected.

Question 42

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ENGINES, APU

What will happen when the total load on the APU becomes excessive?

Select one:
The APU will shutdown automatically.
The APU reduces bleed air extraction.
The APU generator will automatically be disconnected.

Question 43

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ENGINES, APU

Before subsequent flights you should select the right igniter for engine start. Why?
Select one:
The right igniter has a better performance in cold temperatures.
To check during engine start if the right igniter functions properly on standby AC power.
To increase the duty-live of the left igniters.

Question 44

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ENGINES, APU

The maximum altitude with APU bleed ON is:

Select one:
10,000 ft.
Maximum operating altitude.
17,000 ft.

Question 45

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ENGINES, APU

When the APU switch is moved to the OFF position while the APU is supplying bleed air, the
APU will shutdown after:

Select one:
90 seconds.
60 seconds.
30 seconds.
Question 46

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ENGINES, APU

Which of the four lights on the APU control panel will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of
the APU when it illuminates?

Select one:
FAULT.
LOW OIL PRESSURE.
MAINT.

Question 47

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ENGINES, APU

The EEC monitors engine parameters to detect impending hot starts, EGT start limit
exceedances, and wet starts during:

Select one:
Inflight starts only.
Ground starts only.
Ground starts and inflight starts.

Question 48

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FIRE PROTECTION

When does an engine fire warning switch extinguish after a fire warning?

Select one:
When the fuel shut off valve on the main engine control is closed.
When the detector loops have cooled down.
When a fire bottle is discharged.

Question 49

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FIRE PROTECTION

Fire/smoke detection and/or protection is provided for:

Select one:
=Engines, APU, wheel well, and the toilets.
Engines, APU, wheel well, cargo compartments, and toilets.
Engines and APU only.

Question 50

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Question text

FIRE PROTECTION

The cargo compartment fire extinguishing system consists of:

Select one:
A single loop smoke detection system.
A dual loop temperature sensing system.
A dual loop smoke detection system.

Question 51

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FIRE PROTECTION

After a lavatory fire, the extinguishing bottle has automatically discharged. Is the fire
extinguishing system at that lavatory still serviceable?

Select one:
No, it is unserviceable.
Yes, it is still serviceable because of a secondary discharge possibility.
Yes, it remains serviceable based on lack of oxygen.

Question 52

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FIRE PROTECTION
Condition: normal operation. During an engine fire test the RH engine fire warning switch
does not illuminate, the FAULT light remains extinguished after the test. What does this
indicate?

Select one:
Both overheat/fire loops of the RH engine are unserviceable.
One of the overheat/fire loops of the RH engine is unserviceable.
The RH extinguisher bottle is empty.

Question 53

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FLIGHT CONTROLS

What is the purpose of the speed trim system?

Select one:
It improves passenger comfort during dual A/P controlled landing or go-around.
It improves flight characteristics under certain conditions during manual flight.
It improves fuel efficiency during A/P controlled cruise flight.

Question 54

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FLIGHT CONTROLS

The Load Alleviation System (LAS), if installed, reduces structural load on the wing:

Select one:
 Only when speed brakes are extended with a combination of a high aircraft weight and
high aircraft speeds.
Always when speed brakes are extended with high aircraft weights.
Always when speed brakes are extended at high speed.

Question 55

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FLIGHT CONTROLS

Using main electrical trim, when will you have a high trim rate?

Select one:
With flaps extended.
With flaps retracted.
With flaps in any position and IAS below 220 kt.

Question 56

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FLIGHT CONTROLS

Is it true that aileron trim input may cause flight spoiler deployment?

Select one:
Yes.
Only true if flaps are not up.
No.
Question 57

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FLIGHT CONTROLS

How is stabilizer trim powered?

Select one:
Hydraulically with electrical backup.
Electrically with manual backup.
Electrically with hydraulic backup.

Question 58

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FLIGHT CONTROLS

A/P A engaged in CMD. The pilot uses the main electric trim to trim the stabilizer. What is
the correct statement?

Select one:
The A/P engaged will revert to CWS.
The A/P engaged will revert to OFF.
After the pilot stops his trim input the A/P will re-trim the stabilizer to the original
position.

Question 59

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FLIGHT CONTROLS

What happens with the spoiler panels during a rejected T/O?

Select one:
They must be deployed by manually pulling the speed brake lever.
They will deploy automatically when the T/O is rejected at speeds greater than 90 kt,
below 90 kt they must be deployed manually.
They will deploy automatically after selecting reverse, when the wheel speed is above 60
kt.

Question 60

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FLIGHT CONTROLS

The trailing edge (TE) flaps are at 15 units. What is the correct indication on the aft overhead
panel for the leading edge (LE) devices?

Select one:
All LE devices EXT lights illuminated.
LE slats EXT lights and LE flaps FULL EXT lights illuminated.
All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated.

Question 61

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FLIGHT CONTROLS

When the FFM (Force Fight Monitor) on the main rudder PCU is activated, the system will:

Select one or more:

Pressurize the standby rudder actuator.
Illuminate STBY RUD ON light.
Illuminate Master Caution lights (FLT CONT).

Question 62

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FLIGHT CONTROLS

What is the correct statement regarding alternate LE/TE flap operation?

Select one:
Leading edge devices can be extended and retracted.
Trailing edge flaps and leading edge flaps can only be extended.
Trailing edge flaps can be extended and retracted.

Question 63

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Question text

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS

Cruise flight at FL 350. What is indicated by the bottom of the black and red barber pole on
the upper side of the speed tape?

Select one:
Maximum gear extension speed.
Mmo.
High speed buffet.

Question 64

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FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS

What is indicated by the pitch limit symbol on the EADI/PFD?

Select one:
Wind shear is imminent.
The pitch attitude corresponding to stick shaker activation.
The pitch attitude corresponding to the maximum rate of climb.

Question 65

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FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS

Do not operate the weather radar:

Select one:
Within 50 ft (15,25 m) of any personnel or a fuel spill.
Within 100 m of a fuel truck.
Close to a building.

Question 66

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FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS

Flaps 5 set. What happens with the indicated minimum maneuver speed at the bottom of the
speed tape when flight spoilers are extended?

Select one:
It remains at the same position as before the spoilers were extended.
It extends upward.
It retracts downward to indicate the speed reduction caused by spoiler extension.

Question 67

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FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS

DSPLY SOURCE appears automatically on the PFD. What does this mean?

Select one:
One of the ADIRU’s is out of limits.
The system has selected a single DEU to drive all displays.
Both DEU’s are powered by the same electrical source.
Question 68

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FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS

Where does the standby altimeter/airspeed indicator receive it's signals from?

Select one:
From ADC #2.
From ADC #1.
From its own pitot and static inputs.

Question 69

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FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS

The message EFIS MODE / NAV FREQ DISAGREE is displayed on the ND if:

Select one:
the MAP mode is selected on the ND with a VOR frequency tuned.
the APP mode is selected on the ND with an ILS frequency tuned.
the APP mode is selected on the ND with a VOR frequency tuned.

Question 70

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FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS

When an ILS/DME has been tuned and the DME is received:

Select one:
The DME distance is displayed on the PFD and on the ND in the MAP mode and in the
APP mode.
The DME distance is displayed on the standby Radio Magnetic Indicator.
The DME distance is displayed on the PFD and on the ND in the APP mode only.

Question 71

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FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS, DISPLAYS

Flaps 5 set. A hollow yellow bar extends upward from the red and black bar at the lower side
of the speed tape. What is indicated by the top of this hollow yellow bar?

Select one:
Stick shaker speed for flaps 1.
1.2Vstall for the actual configuration.
The minimum maneuver speed.

Question 72

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FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION

Condition: A/P and A/T engaged. What are the requirements for an automatic start of
descent?

Select one:
VNAV engaged, lower altitude selected in the CRZ page.
Lower altitude on MCP and on CRZ page selected.
VNAV engaged, lower altitude in MCP window.

Question 73

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FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION

What happens with IRS 2 when it loses its normal AC power source?

Select one:
It will go into the "degraded" mode until normal AC power is restored again.
It continues to operate on back-up DC power until the battery is depleted.
It continues to operate on back-up DC power for five minutes.

Question 74

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Question text

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION

In the FMC the message “RW/APP TUNE DISAGREE” appears. What does this mean?

Select one:
The manual tuned approach frequency does not match the selected course on the MCP.
The selected runway in the FMC does not match the selected approach.
The manual tuned approach frequency does not match the active flight plan.

Question 75

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FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION

Which statement regarding the Multiscan Weather Radar (if installed) is true?

Select one or more:

With weather radar in AUTO mode, Captain’s and F/O’s displays are updated
simultaneously and tilt is automatically controlled.
Radar returns are being displayed with Navigation Display in any mode.
Even when WXR is not selected on the ND, predictive windshear is active.

Question 76

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FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION

To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, which FMC climb mode should be used?
Select one:
MAX ANGLE.
ECON.
MAX RATE.

Question 77

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FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION

Is the wind direction, on all FMC pages where it is displayed, referenced to true north?

Select one:
No. It is always referenced to magnetic north.
No. PROGRESS page 3/3 displays wind referenced to magnetic north.
Yes.

Question 78

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FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION

Which one of the following factors is not considered in the TRIP ALT computation? (PERF
INIT page.)

Select one:
Reserve fuel.
Minimum cruise time (5 min.).
Cost index.
Question 79

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FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION

After performing the FMC/CDU pre-flight actions, the flight crew notices that the active nav
data base is expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the nav data
base change?

Select one:
Same, no action required.
Blank, requiring reloading.
Route discontinuities will be gone, everything else the same.

Question 80

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FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION

Is it possible to delete the active waypoint on the RTE LEGS page?

Select one:
Yes, but only if LNAV is not engaged.
Yes, always.
No.

Question 81

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FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION

What is a possible cause of a flashing IRS ALIGN light?

Select one:
Wrong present position entered, or no position entered at all.
The IRS data base is out of date.
The primary AC power source is not available.

Question 82

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FUEL

Random fuel imbalance must not exceed:

Select one:
350 kg.
550 kg.
453 kg.

Question 83

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Question text

FUEL

What is the purpose of the manual defuelling valve?

Select one:
It enables normal refuelling.
To defuel the aircraft and transfer fuel between tanks.
To dump fuel in flight.

Question 84

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FUEL

During preflight the center tank pumps are off and there is 1000 kg of fuel in the center tank.
The CDS will display:

Select one:
A "CONFIG" indication prior to engine start.
A "CONFIG" indication after engine start.
A "LOW PRESS" indication after engine start.

Question 85

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FUEL

What is indicated by illumination of the fuel FILTER BYPASS light?

Select one:
The corresponding engine will probably flame out within minutes.
Impending or actual fuel filter by-pass due to a contaminated filter.
The fuel flow is limited due to a contaminated filter.

Question 86

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FUEL

The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when:

Select one:
The center tank is about ⅔ full.
Both center tank fuel pump switches are selected OFF.
The No. 1 main fuel tank is about ½ full.

Question 87

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FUEL

How is ventilation of the fuel tanks accomplished?

Select one:
Via one center surge tank, with a vent in each wing tip for dynamic pressure.
Via a surge tank in each wing tip.
By pneumatic air.
Question 88

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HYDRAULICS

Which systems can use the standby hydraulic system?

Select one:
Alternate brakes, rudder and thrust reversers.
LE devices, rudder and thrust reversers.
Alternate brakes, LE devices and thrust reversers.

Question 89

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HYDRAULICS

What happens with the hydraulic systems if the No. 2 engine fire warning switch is pulled?

Select one:
Shuts off fluid to the engine driven pump in system B, and deactivates the associated
LOW PRESSURE light.
Shuts off fluid to the electric pump in system B, and deactivates the associated LOW
PRESSURE light.
Shuts off fluid to the electric pump in system A, and deactivates the associated LOW
PRESSURE light.

Question 90

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HYDRAULICS

Condition: System A FLT CONTROL switch in STBY RUD. What should be the status of
the respective FLT CONTROL LOW PRESSURE light?

Select one:
Illuminated, indicating the FLT CONTROL switch is not in ON
Extinguished, indicating that the hydraulic pump switches are OFF.
Extinguished, indicating that the Standby hydraulic system operates normally.

Question 91

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HYDRAULICS

The landing gear normally uses hydraulic system:

Select one:
A.
B.

Question 92

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HYDRAULICS

What is the indication that pressurization of the hydraulic reservoirs is possibly lost?

Select one:
Hydraulic pressure fluctuations.
A slight decrease in system A and B quantity.
Hydraulic OVERHEAT light will illuminate.

Question 93

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LANDING GEAR

Which brake system(s) use(s) the auto brake system?

Select one:
The normal brake system only.
The normal brake system and the alternate brake system.
The normal brake system and the brake accumulator.

Question 94

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LANDING GEAR

What happens if after a total hydraulic system A failure the gear is selected up?
Select one:
The gear will go up, powered via the landing gear transfer unit.
The gear will go up but very slowly.
Nothing, the gear will stay down.

Question 95

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LANDING GEAR

What is the power source for normal nose wheel steering?

Select one:
Hydraulic system B.
Manual input via cables direct to the nose wheel.
Hydraulic system A via the nose gear down line.

Question 96

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LANDING GEAR

Impact fittings located in the opening of each main gear wheel well:

Select one:
Allow the landing gear transfer unit to use hydraulic system B pressure to retract the gear
if system A fails.
Prevent a spinning tire with loose tread from entering the wheel well.
Provide automatic braking to the main gear wheels during retraction.
Question 97

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LANDING GEAR

The alternate brake system is powered by:

Select one:
The brake accumulator.
Hydraulic system A.
Hydraulic system B.

Question 98

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WARNING SYSTEMS

The terrain display shows terrain in green. This means:

Select one:
Terrain is above current airplane altitude.
Terrain is more than 2000’ below current airplane altitude.
Terrain is at least 250’ below current airplane altitude.

Question 99

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WARNING SYSTEMS

A single GPS receiver failure has occurred. What is the correct statement?

Select one:
The GPS light automatically illuminates.
The GPS light will only illuminate upon Master Caution recall and will extinguish when
the Master Caution is reset.
=An IRS NAV ONLY message will be presented in the CDU scratch pad.

Question 100

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WARNING SYSTEMS

Above which cabin altitude does the cabin altitude warning horn sound?

Select one:
14,000 ft.
10,000 ft.
12,000 ft.