Arjuna NEET (2024)

PRACTICE TEST - 10

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 19/11/2023 M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : mechanical properties of solid
Chemistry : IUPAC nomenclature.
Biology : (Botany) : Photosynthesis in Higher Plants (Full syllabus), Respiration in Plants, Respiration in Plants
Glycolysis, Glycolysis and Anaerobic Respiration, Anaerobic Respiration and Aerobic Respiration
(Zoology) : Chemical coordination and integration (Full Chapter)

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each
subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all compulsory) and
Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
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any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
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[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 9. The diagram shows a force - extension graph for a
1. The property of a body by virtue of which it tends rubber band. Consider the following statements:
to regain its original size and shape when the I. It will be easier to compress this rubber than
applied force is removed is called. expand it.
(1) elasticity (2) plasticity
II. Rubber does not return to its original length
(3) rigidity (4) compressibility
after it is stretched.
III. The rubber band will get heated if it is
2. Which of the following materials is most elastic?
(1) Steel (2) Rubber stretched and released.
(3) Copper (4) Glass

Extension
3. When forces are applied on a body such that it is
still in static equilibrium, then the extent to which
the body gets deformed, depends on-
(1) Nature of the material
(2) Magnitude of deforming force
(3) Both (1) & (2) Force
(4) None of these Which of these can be deduced from the graph?
(1) III only
4. The restoring force per unit area is known as (2) II and III
(1) strain (3) I and III
(2) elasticity
(4) I only
(3) stress
(4) plasticity
10. The correct increasing order of coefficient of
5. The ratio of the lengths of two wires A and B of elasticity of Copper, Steel, Glass and Rubber is
same material is 1 : 2 and the ratio of their (1) Steel, Rubber, Copper, Glass
diameter is 2 : 1. They are stretched by the same (2) Rubber, Copper, Glass, Steel
force, then the ratio of increase in length will be (3) Rubber, Glass, Steel, Copper
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (4) Rubber, Glass, Copper, Steel
(3) 1 : 8 (4) 8 : 1

6. Young's modulus of a wire of length L and radius r 11. If the length of a wire is reduced to half, then it can
is Y N/m2. If the length and radius are reduced to hold the
L/2 and r/2, then its Young's modulus will be (1) half load
(1) Y/2 (2) Y (2) same load
(3) 2Y (4) 4Y (3) double load
(4) one fourth load
7. Calculate the work done, if a wire is loaded by
'Mg' weight and the increase in length is 'l'
(1) Mgl 12. The ratio of shearing stress to the corresponding
(2) Zero shearing strain is called
(3) Mgl/2 (1) Bulk modulus
(4) 2Mgl (2) Young's modulus
(3) Modulus of rigidity
8. A wire is suspended by one end. At the other end a (4) None of these
weight equivalent to 20 N force is applied. If the
increase in length is 1.0 mm, the increase in energy
13. The Young's modulus of a perfectly rigid body is
of the wire will be
(1) 0.01 J (1) unity
(2) 0.02 J (2) zero
(3) 0.04 J (3) infinity
(4) 1.00 J (4) some finite non-zero constant
[2]
14. Match column – I and column – II. 20. The modulus of elasticity is dimensionally
Column-I Column -II equivalent to
(1) Surface tension (2) Stress
A Young’s modulus of I Rubber
(3) Strain (4) None of these
elasticity
B Hooke’s law II Solids 21. Assertion: Solids are least compressible and gases
C Hydraulic stress III Sraight line arc most compressible.
Reason: Solids have definite shape and volume
D Elastomers IV Solids, liquids but gases do not have either definite shape or
& gases definite volume.
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not a correct explanation of
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect.
15. The Young's modulus of the material of a wire is
(4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct.
6 × 1012 N/m2 and there is no transverse strain in it,
then its modulus of rigidity will be 22. Assertion: Rubber is more elastic than lead.
(1) 3 × 1012 N/m2 Reason: lf same load is attached to lead and
(2) 2 × 1012 N/m2 rubber, then the strain produced is much less in
(3) 1012 N/m2 lead than in rubber.
(4) None of the above (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
16. The elastic energy stored in a wire of Young's (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
modulus Y is Reason is not a correct explanation of
Assertion.
Strain 2
(1) Y  (3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect.
Volume
(4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct.
(2) Stress × Strain × Volume
Stress2  Volume 23. Assertion: Hollow shaft is found to be stronger
(3)
2Y than a solid shaft made of same equal material.
1 Reason: Torque required to produce a given twist
(4) Y × Stress × Strain × Volume
2 in hollow cylinder is greater than that required to
twist a solid cylinder of same length and material.
17. The ratio of Young's modulus of the material of (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
two wires is 2 : 3. If the same stress is applied on
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
both, then the ratio of elastic energy per unit
Reason is not a correct explanation of
volume will be
Assertion.
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect.
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3 (4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct.

18. According to Hook's law of elasticity, if stress is 24. Assertion: Bulk modulus of elasticity (k)
increased, the ratio of stress to strain represents incompressibility of the material.
(1) Increases (2) Decreases Reason: Bulk modulus of elasticity is proportional
(3) Becomes zero (4) Remains constant to change in pressure.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
19. Why the spring is made up of steel in comparison Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
of copper (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
(1) Copper is more costly than steel Reason is not a correct explanation of
(2) Copper is more elastic than steel Assertion.
(3) Steel is more elastic than copper (3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect.
(4) None of the above (4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct.
[3]
25. Assertion: Stress is the internal force per unit area 32. A ball falling in a lake of depth 200 m shows 0.1%
of a body. decrease in its volume at the bottom. What is the
Reason: Rubber is less elastic than steel. bulk modulus of the material of the ball.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and (1) 19.6 × 108 N/m2 (2) 19.6 × 10–10 N/m2
Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion. (3) 19.6 × 1010 N/m2 (4) 19.6 × 10–8 N/m2
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not a correct explanation of 33. The Bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is
Assertion. (1) Zero (2) Unity
(3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect. (3) Infinity (4) Between 0 to 1
(4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct.
34. The ratio of lengths of two rods A and B of same
26. If the ratio of radii of two wires of same material is material is 1 : 2 and the ratio of their radii is 2 : 1,
2 : 1 and ratio of their lengths is 4 : 1, then the then the ratio of modulus of rigidity of A and B
ratio of the normal forces that will produce the will be
same extension in the length of two wires is (1) 4 : 1 (2) 16 : 1
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 8 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1
35. Which of the following is the graph showing
27. A and B are two wires. The radius of A is twice stress-strain variation for elastomers?
that of B. They are stretched by the same load.

Stress
Then the stress on B is
(1) equal to that on A (1)
(2) four times that on A
(3) twice that on A
(4) half that on A Strain
Stress

28. An iron bar of length  cm and cross section A cm2

is pulled by a force of F dynes from ends so as to (2)
produce an elongation  cm. Which of the
following statement is correct? Strain
(1) Elongation is inversely proportional to length
Stress

(2) Elongation is directly proportional to cross

section area
(3) Elongation is inversely proportional to cross- (3)
section
(4) Elongation is directly proportional to Young's Strain
modulus
Stress

29. A 2 m long rod of radius 1 cm which is fixed from

one end is given a twist of 0.8 radians. The shear
strain developed will be (4)
(1) 0.002 (2) 0.004
(3) 0.008 (4) 0.016
Strain
30. Shearing stress causes change in
SECTION – B
(1) Length (2) Breadth
(3) Shape (4) Volume
36. A steel wire is stretched with a definite load. If the
Young's modulus of the wire is Y. For decreasing
31. When strain is produced in a body within elastic
the value of Y.
limit, its internal energy
(1) Radius is to be decreased
(1) Remains constant
(2) Radius is to be increased
(2) Decreases
(3) Length is to be increased
(3) Increases
(4) None of the above
(4) None of the above
[4]
37. If the density of the material increase, the value of 42. Which of the following is not a type of stress?
Young’s modulus (1) Tensile stress
(1) Increases (2) Compressive stress
(2) Decreases (3) Hydraulic stress
(3) First increases, then decreases (4) None of these
(4) First decreases, then increases
43. If the load is increased beyond the _____ point, the
38. A graph is shown between stress and strain for a strain increases rapidly for even a small change in
metal. The part in which Hooke's law holds good the stress.
is
(1) elastic point (2) yield point
(3) plastic point (4) fracture point
Stress

A C
D 44. What is the phenomenon of temporary delay in
B regaining the original configuration by an elastic
O body, after the removal of a deforming force?
Strain
(1) Elastic fatigue (2) Elasticity
(1) OA (2) AB (3) Plasticity (4) Elastic after effect
(3) BC (4) CD
45. Which of the following types of stress causes no
39. The substances having very short plastic region change in shape?
are- (1) Compressive stress
(1) Ductile (2) Brittle (2) Hydraulic stress
(3) Malleable (4) All of these (3) Shearing stress
(4) None of these
40. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two
materials A and B are as shown in the figure. If YA
46. Which of the following elastic moduli is used to
and YB are the Young‘s moduli of the materials,
describe the elastic behaviour of object as they
then
Y respond to the deforming forces acting on them?
(1) Young's modulus (2) Shear modulus
A
(3) Bulk modulus (4) All of these
Stress

B 47. If a mass M produces an elongation of L in a wire

60°
of radius r and length L, then the young's modulus
30° of the material of the wire is given by
X
O Strain Mg
(1) Y =
(1) YB = 2YA (2) YA = YB ( r  L)
2

(3) YB = 3YA (4) YA = 3YB

Mg  L
(2) Y =
41. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of ( r 2  L)
the same material is shown in the figure. The
Mg  L
(3) Y =
( r2 L)
thickest wire is represented by the line

M  L
(4) Y =
( r 2  L)
48. Which is relevant only for solids?
(1) Young's modulus
(2) Shear modulus
(1) OD (2) OC (3) Bulk modulus
(3) OB (4) OA (4) Both (1) & (2)

[5]
49. When a fluid compresses an object, then the 50. Consider the following statements and select the
Hooke's law is expressed as correct statements from the following.
(1) F = kV I. A material which stretches to a lesser extent
for a load is more elastic.
V
(2) P = II. A material which undergoes compression is
V
most elastic.
 V 
(3) P = B   III. A material which stretches to greater extent is
 V  more elastic.
 V  (1) I only (2) II and III
(4) F = B  
 V  (3) I and III (4) I, II and III

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 58. The correct IUPAC name of the alkane
51. How many  and  bonds are present in
CH3COOH ?
is:
(1) 1, 7
(2) 5, 2
(3) 7, 1 (1) 2-Ethyl-4-methylhexane
(4) 3, 2 (2) 5-Ethyl-3-methylhexane
(3) 3,5-Dimethylheptane
52. A vicinal diol has two alcoholic groups:
(4) 3,5-Dimethylhexane
(1) On the same carbon
(2) On adjacent carbon atoms
(3) On alternate carbon atoms 59. IUPAC name of (CH3 )2 CHCH (CH3 )2 is:
(4) Anywhere along the carbon chain (1) 2,2-Dimethylbutane
53. The IUPAC name of glycerine is- (2) 2,3-Dimethylbutane
(1) Glycerol (3) 2,4-Dimethylbutane
(2) 1, 2-Ethanediol (4) 1-Methylpentane
(3) Propane-1,2,3-triol
(4) 1, 2, 3-Trihydroxypropane
60. IUPAC name of tert-butyl chloride is:
(1) 2-chloro-2-methylbutane
54. Phenol is also called: (2) chlorobutane
(1) salicylic acid (3) 2-chlorobutane
(2) benzyl alcohol
(3) carbolic acid (4) 2-chloro-2-methylpropane
(4) salol
61. What is the correct chemical formula for 1,2-
55. Picric acid is a yellow coloured compound. Its dichloro tetrafluoroethane?
chemical name is:
(1) Trinitrobenzene F F
| |
(2) 2,4,6-Trinitrophenol (1) Cl − C − C − H
(3) Trinitrotoluene | |
(4) Trinitroaniline Cl Cl
F F
56. CH3 − CH = CH − C  CH has IUPAC name: | |
(2) H − C − C − F
(1) Pent-2-en-4-yne (2) Pent-4-yn-2-ene | |
(3) Pent-1-yn-3-ene (4) Pent-3-en-1-yne Cl Cl
Cl F
57. Write IUPAC name of the following compound: | |
CH3 (3) F − C − C − Cl
| | |
CH3 − CH − CH2 − CH3 F F
(1) 2-Methyl propane F Cl F
| | |
(2) 2, 2-Dimethyl propane (4) F − C − C − C − F
(3) 2-Methyl butane | | |
(4) 2, 2-Dimethyl butane Cl H F

[6]
62. The correct structure of 6-ethyl-2,3,5- 66. The correct IUPAC name of the given
trimethylnonane is: compound is:
I − C = C − C  C − OCH3
| |
F Cl
(1) (1) 3-Chloro-1-fluoro-1-iodo-4-methoxybut-1-
en-3-yne
(2) 4-Methoxy-2-chloro-1-fluoro-1-iodobutenyne
(3) 3-Chloro-4-fluoro-4-iodo-1-methoxybutenyne
(4) 2-Chloro-1-fluoro-1-iodo-4-methoxybutenyne
(2)

67. IUPAC name of

CH3 − CH 2 − CH − C = CH 2 is:
| |
(3) CH2 CH3
|
CH3
(1) 2-Methyl-3-ethyl-1-pentene
(2) 3-Ethyl-4-methyl-4-pentene
(4) (3) 3-Ethyl-2-methyl-1-pentene
(4) 3-Methyl-2-ethyl-1-pentene

63. The correct IUPAC name of the following 68. In which of the following, cyclic chain is the
compound is: main chain?
H NO2 (1)
| |
F − C − C − Et
| |
I Br
(2)
(1) 1-Bromo-1-ethyl-2-fluoro-2-iodo-1-nitroethane
(2) 3-Bromo-4-fluoro-4-iodo-3-nitrobutane.
(3) 2-Bromo-1-fluoro-1-iodo-2-nitrobutane (3)
(4) 1-Fluoro-1-iodo-2-bromo-2-ethyl-2-nitroethane.

(4)
64. Select the structure with correct numbering in
the chain:
7 4 3 2 1
(1) CH2 = CH − CH2 − C  C H 69. Identify the compound in which acyclic part is
parent chain?
1 2 3 4 5 6
(2) CH3 − CH = CH − CH2 − C  C H
(1)
7 6 5 4 3 2 1
(3) CH2 = CH − CH = CH − CH2 − C  CH
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(4) CH2 = CH − CH = CH − CH2 − C  CH
(2)
65. The correct IUPAC name of the compound
C2H5
| (3)
CH2 = CH − CH2 − CH − CH3 is:
(1) 4-Ethylpent-1-ene
(2) 2-Ethylpent-4-ene
(4)
(3) 4-Methylhex-1-ene
(4) 3-Methylhex-1-ene
[7]
 76. The IUPAC name of the following compound

70. IUPAC name for is: is

(1) 3-Methylbut-2-en-1-oic acid

(1) (1-Methylpropyl)cyclobutane
(2) 3-Methylbut-3-en-1-oic acid
(2) 2-(n-Butyl)cyclobutane
(3) 2-Methylbut-1-en-4-oic acid
(3) 2-Cyclobutylbutane
(4) 3-Methylenebutan-1-oic acid
(4) 1-Cyclobutylbutane
77. The IUPAC name of the compound
71. The correct IUPAC name of CH3CH = CH − CH2 − CH − CH 2COOH is:
|
NH2
is:
(1) 3-Aminohept-5-enoic acid
(1) 1-Cyclopentyl-1, 1-dimethylbutane (2) 5-Aminohex-2-enecarboxylic acid
(2) 2-Cyclopentyl-2-methylpentane (3) 3-Aminohept-4-enoic acid
(4) 5-Aminohept-2-enoic acid
(3) 2-Methyl-2-cyclopropylpentane
(4) 1, 1-Dimethyl-1-cyclopentylbutane

72. IUPAC name of the compound 78. is named as:

CH = CH − CHCH2CH3 is:
| (1) 2, 3-Dimethylenebutanal
CH3 (2) 3-Methyl-2-methylenebut-3-enone
(3) 3-Methyl-2-methylenebut-3-enal
(1) 1-Cyclohexyl-3-methylpent-1-ene (4) 2, 3-Dimethylenebutanone
(2) 3-Methyl-5-cyclohexylpent-1-ene 79. The correct IUPAC name of compound
(3) 1-Cyclohexyl-3-ethylbut-1-ene
(4) 1-Cyclohexyl-3,4-dimethylbut-1-ene
is:
73. The correct IUPAC name of the compound

is: (1) 1-Chloropentane-1, 4-dione

(2) 4-Chlorocarbonylbutan-2-one
(3) 4-Oxopentanoyl chloride
(1) 1-Ethenylcyclohexa-2, 4-diene (4) 3-Oxobutanecarbonyl chloride
(2) 5-Ethenylcyclohexa-1, 3-diene
(3) 6-Ethenylcyclohexa-1, 3-diene
80. The IUPAC name of is:
(4) Cyclohexa-2, 4-dienylethene

74. The IUPAC name of

Br (1) Ethoxymethanone
| (2) Ethyl-2-methylpropanoate
CH3 − CH − CH 2 − CH2 − CH2 − C − CH3 is:
| | (3) Ethoxypropanone
OH Br (4) 2-Methylethoxypropanone
(1) 6, 6-Dibromoheptan-2-ol
81. Ethyl ethanoyloxyethanoate is :
(2) 2, 2-Dibromoheptan-6-ol
(3) 6, 6-Dibromoheptan-2-al
(4) None of these (1)

75. Which of the following represents neopentyl (2)

alcohol?
(1) CH3CH (CH3 )CH 2CH 2OH
(3)
(2) (CH3 )3 C.CH 2OH
(3) CH3CH 2CH 2CH 2OH
(4) CH3CH 2CH (OH )CH3 (4)

[8]
 88. Identify the compound which is homocyclic,
aromatic, and unsaturated:

82. Find IUPAC name of : (1) (2)

(1) Methylbenzene.
(2) Isopropylbenzene. (3) (4)
(3) Dimethylbenzene.
(4) 1-Phehylethane.
89. Indicate the following as 2º alcohol:
83. Write the correct IUPAC name of

(1) (2)

(3) (4) All of these

(1) Cyclohexylbenzene
(2) 4-Bromo-3, 6-diphenyloctane
90. Which of the following is a primary alkyl
(3) 1, 2-Dichloro-4-ethyl-5-nitrobenzene
halide?
(4) 4-Chloro-1-nitro-2-propylbenzene
(1) C6 H5CH (Cl )CH3
(2) CH3CH (Cl )CH 2CH3
84. The IUPAC name of CH3COCH (CH3 )2 is:
(3) (CH3 )2 CHCH 2Cl
(1) Isopropylmethyl ketone
(4) (CH3 )3 CCl
(2) 2-Methyl-3-butanone
(3) 4-Methylisopropyl ketone
91. Identify the 3º amine:
(4) 3-Methyl-2-butanone
(1)
85. The correct IUPAC name of the compound

(2)
is:

(3)
(1) 4-Methoxy-2-nitrobenzaldehyde
(2) 4-Formyl-3-nitro anisole
(3) 4-Methoxy-6-nitrobenzaldehyde (4)
(4) 2-Formyl-5-methoxy nitrobenzene

92. The IUPAC name of the compound

SECTION - B CH 2 − CH − CH 2 is:
| | |
86. The alicyclic compound is: CN CN CN
(1) Cyclohexane (1) 1,2,3-Tricyanopropane
(2) Benzene (2) 3-Cyanopentane-1, 5-dinitrile
(3) Pyrrole (3) Propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile
(4) Propane-1,2,3-tricarbylamine
(4) Hexane
93. The IUPAC name of
87. The group of heterocyclic compounds is: OHC − CH = C − CH2 − CH = CH2
|
(1) Phenol, Furan CH2CH2CH2CH3
(2) Furan, Thiophene (1) 5-Vinyloct-3-en-1-al
(3) Thiophene, Phenol (2) 3-Butylhexa-2,5-dien-1-al
(4) Furan, Aniline (3) 5-Vinyloct-5-en-8-al
(4) 3-Butyl-1,4-hexadien-6-al
[9]
94. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct 97. A student named a certain compound as 2, 3-
option. diethylbutane. Its correct IUPAC name is:
List-I List-II
(Trivial name) (IUPAC name) (1) 2, 3-Dimethylhexane
(I) Isohexane (A) 2-Methylpropanal (2) 3, 4-Dimethylhexane
(II) Isooctane (B) 2-Methyl pentane
(3) 2-Ethyl-3-methylpentane
(III) Isobutyraldehyde (C) 2,2,4-Trimethyl
pentane (4) 2-Ethylbutane
(IV) Isobutylene (D) 2-Methyl propene
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(1) (A) (B) (D) (C) 98. Ethoxyethene is written as H 2C =
(2) (B) (C) (A) (D) CH − O − CH 2 − CH3 . The structure of 2-
(3) (B) (A) (D) (C)
(4) (D) (C) (B) (A) chloro-1-ethoxyethene (incorrect name) with
correct numbering will be:
95. The IUPAC name of the following compound is: 1 2
(1) H2C = CH − O − CH2 − CH2 − Cl
1 2
(2) CH 2 = CH − O − CH − CH3
|
Cl
2 1
(1) 5-Bromo-3-hydroxybenzenecarbaldehyde (3) H 2C = C − O − CH 2 − CH 2 − Cl
|
(2) 3-Bromo-5-formylphenol Cl
(3) 3-Bromo-5-hydroxybenzenecarbaldehyde 1 2
(4) 1-Bromo-3-formyl-5-hydroxybenzene (4) Cl − CH = CH − O − CH2 − CH3

96. Assertion(A): The correct IUPAC name of

99. The homologue of ethyne is:
(1) C2H2
compound is (2) C2H6
(3) C3H8
1-methylcyclohexane.
Reason(R): It is a derivative of cyclohexane (4) C3H4
because the number of C-atoms in the ring is
more than the side chain.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
true, and Reason (R) is a correct
explanation of Assertion (A). 100. IUPAC name of is:
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
(1) 3-Methyl cyclohexene.
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is (2) 1-Methyl cyclohex-2-ene.
false. (3) 6-Methyl cyclohexene.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is (4) 1-Methyl cyclohex-5-ene.
true.

SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION-A (1) Aspergillus
(2) Saccharomyces
101. The first phase in the breakdown of glucose, in
(3) Pseudomonas
animal cell is;
(1) fermentation. (2) krebs cycle. (4) Penicillium
(3) glycolysis. (4) E.T.S.
104. The end products of fermentation are;
(1) O2 and C2H5OH.
102. At the end of glycolysis, six carbon compound
(2) CO2 and acetaldehyde.
ultimately changes into;
(3) CO2 and O2.
(1) ethyl alcohol. (2) acetyl Co-A.
(3) pyruvic acid. (4) ATP. (4) CO2 and C2H5OH.
103. The organism used for alcohol fermentation, is:
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105. How many ATP molecules will be produced in 113. The pigment molecules responsible for
muscles by aerobic oxidation of one molecule of photosynthesis are located in the;
glucose? (1) cytoplasm of the cell.
(1) 2 (2) 4 (2) matrix of the mitochondira.
(3) 36 (4) 34 (3) thylakoid membrane of the chloroplast.
(4) all of these.
106. In which one of the following processes CO2 is
not released? 114. Mohl half leaf experiment proves that ____ is
(1) Aerobic respiration in plants. essential for photosynthesis to takes place.
(2) Aerobic respiration in animals. (1) Chlorophyll (2) CO2
(3) Alcoholic fermentation. (3) Light (4) H2O
(4) Lactate fermentation.

107. Which of the following biomolecules is common 115. The energetically costly but most efficient cycle
to respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, of dark reaction in plants adapted to dry tropical
carbohydrates and proteins? regions is;
(1) Glucose-6-phosphate. (1) C3-cycle.
(2) Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate. (2) C4-cycle.
(3) Pyruvic acid. (3) CAM-cycle.
(4) Acetyl CoA. (4) photorespiration.

108. During the formation of bread, it becomes porous 116. What is the site of RuBisCO for potato and
due to release of CO2 by the action of; Sorghum (Respectively)?
(1) yeast. (2) bacteria. (1) Mesophyll only
(3) virus. (4) protozoans. (2) Bundle sheath only
(3) Bundle sheath; Mesophyll
109. Yeast poison themselves to death when the (4) Mesophyll; Bundle sheath
concentration of alcohol reaches about:
(1) 6% (2) 13% 117. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the
(3) 12% (4) 1% correct option w.r.t. chloroplast.
List-I List-II
A. Light reaction I Enzymatic process
110. Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity during aerobic
B. Dark reaction II Synthesis of
respiration requires;
NADPH and ATP
(1) magnesium. III RuBisCO
(2) calcium. A B
(3) iron.
(1) I II
(4) cobalt.
(2) II, III I
111. The NADP reductase is: (3) II I, III
(i) Located on stroma side of thylakoid (4) I III
membrane.
(ii) Associated with non cyclic 118. Primary pigment of photosynthesis;
photophosphorylation (1) forms reaction center of photosystems.
(iii) Associated with PS-II (2) forms light harvesting complex.
The incorrect statement(s) are: (3) absorbs only short wavelength of light.
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii) (4) both (1) and (3)
(3) Only (ii) (4) Only (iii)

112. The first CO2 acceptor molecule in wheat and 119. Maximum photosynthesis takes place in the ___
sugarcane has ___ (A) ___ and ___ (B) ____ light of spectrum.
carbons. (respectively) (1) Red and far red
(1) (A) 5, (B) 3 (2) Blue and violet
(2) (A) 3, (B) 3 (3) Green
(3) (A) 3, (B) 4 (4) Blue and red
(4) (A) 5, (B) 5
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120. Where is the physical location of water splitting 126. Consider the following statements and state true
complex? (T) or false (F).
(1) In the lumen of thylakoid membrane; with (A) Respiratory pathway is better to consider as
amphibolic pathway
PS-I
(B) Saccharomyces is used in alcoholic
(2) Towards the stroma side of thylakoid fermentation.
membrane; with PS-II (C) The correct sequence of electron acceptor in
(3) Towards the lumen side of thylakoid ETS is cyt c, cyt b, cyt a and cyt a3.
membrane; with PS-II A B C
(4) On the outer side of membrane of thylakoid; (1) T F F
(2) F T T
with PS-I
(3) T T F
(4) F F T
121. In ETS the movement of electron is downhill in
terms of redox potential scale i.e. 127. Read the given statements and choose the correct
(1) low to high potential. option:
(2) high to low potential. (A) Yeasts poison themselves to death when the
concentration of alcohol reaches about 10%
(3) low to low potential.
(B) During glucose activation phase of
(4) high to high potential. glycolysis, 2 ATP are consumed.
(1) Only (A) is correct.
122. Which the following is not a function of (2) Only (A) is incorrect.
accessory pigment? (3) Both (A) and (B) are correct.
(1) Absorption of short wavelength of light (4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.
spectrum
128. How many ATP molecules will be formed from
(2) Enable to trap a wider range of wavelength complete oxidation of two molecules of 3-PGAL
(3) Protection of chlorophyll-a in an eukaryotic cell?
(4) Release of electron on absorption of light (1) 34
(2) 40
(3) 36
123. Cyclic photophosphorylation normally occurs in; (4) 42
(1) stroma. 129. In electron transport system of respiration, which
(2) matrix. enzyme complex is odd w.r.t. electron carrier?
(3) grana lamellae. (1) Complex I
(2) Complex III
(4) stroma lamellae. (3) Complex IV
(4) Complex V
124. Z- scheme is:
130. Maximum energy is released during conversion of;
(I) Cyclic photophosphorylation (1) glucose into pyruvic acid;
(II) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation (2) glucose into ethyl alcohol and CO2.
(III) Circulation of electron within the (3) pyruvic acid into acetyl CoA.
photosystem (4) pyruvic acid into CO2 and H2O.
(1) Only (I)
131. Match List I with List II to find out the correct
(2) Only (II) option.
(3) Both (I) and (III) List-I List-II
(4) Both (II) and (III) A. Glycolysis I Synthesis of FADH2
B. ETS II. Cytoplasm
C. Krebs cycle III. Inner mitochondrial
125. Which of the following is not the requirement of membrane
chemiosmosis?
A B C
(1) Thylakoid membrane
(1) II I III
(2) Proton pump
(2) II III I
(3) More protons in stroma than in lumen (3) II II I
(4) F0 – F1 particle (4) I II III
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132. During both lactic acid and alcoholic fermentation 139. Select the Incorrectly matched pair:
A. Less than 7% of the energy in glucose is (1) Primary CO2 fixation - PGA
released. product in C3 cycle
(2) Primary CO2 fixation - OAA
B. CO2 is released. product in C4 cycle
C. All the released energy gets trapped as high (3) Primary CO2 acceptor - Phosphoenol
energy bonds of ATP. in C4 plants pyruvate
(1) Only A is correct. (4) Primary CO2 - Malic acid
acceptor in C3 plants
(2) All A, B and C are correct.
(3) Only B and C are correct.
140. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation;
(4) Only B is correct.
(1) occurs in stroma lamellae only.
133. Select the option that correctly states the RQ of (2) results in the formation of ATP, NADPH and
fat acids, proteins and carbohydrates, respectively. evolution of O2.
Fattyacid Proteins Carbohydrates (3) involves two photosystems that work in
(1) 0.7 1.33 0.9 series, first PS I and then PS II.
(2) 1.33 0.9 1 (4) is not associated with splitting of water.
(3) 0.7 0.9 1
(4) 0.7 1 0.9 141. Photorespiration;
(1) is a useful process for plants.
134. Which of the following elements combines with (2) produce only ATP not NADPH.
protons to form metabolic water during ETS? (3) does not produce ATP or NADPH.
(1) Carbon (4) occurs usually when there is high
(2) Oxygen concentration of CO2.
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Phosphorus 142. Match List I with List II to find out the correct
option.
135. During aerobic respiration which of the following List-I List-II
conversions shows substrate level A. RuBP I. C4 acid
phosphorylation? B. PEP case II. First CO2 acceptor of
C3 cycle
(1) Oxalosuccinic acid : -Ketoglutaric acid
C. OAA III. A product of
(2) Fumaric acid : Malic acid photorespiration
(3) Succinyl CoA : Succinic acid D. Phosphoglycolate IV. Present in mesophyll
(4) Citric acid : Cis-Aconitic acid cells of C4 plants
A B C D
SECTION- B (1) II III I IV
136. In C3 cycle, fixation of one CO2 requires
(1) 5ATP + 2NADPH (2) II I IV III
(2) 5ATP + 3NADPH (3) II IV I III
(3) 3ATP + 3NADPH (4) IV II III I
(4) 3ATP + 2NADPH
143. Identify the conditions at which C3 plants show
137. The primary CO2 acceptor molecule during C3 high rate of CO2 fixation.
cycle is a;
(A) High light intensity
(1) five carbon keto-sugar.
(2) five carbon aldo-sugar. (B) High CO2 concentration
(3) three carbon keto-sugar. (C) Low light intensity
(4) three carbon aldo-sugar. (D) Low CO2 concentration
(1) A and B (2) C and D
138. Which of the following scientist concluded by his (3) A and D (4) B and C
experiments that green plant parts play a role in
purifying the noxious air only in the presence of 144. How many components listed below are not
sunlight? directly associated with Calvin cycle?
(1) Priestley PEP, 3PGA, PEPcase, RuBisCO, PSI, PSII, RuBP,
NADPH
(2) Ingenhousz
(3) Sachs (1) Two (2) Four
(4) Engelmann (3) Six (4) Three

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145. Pigment system II is; 148. Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the
(1) not associated with splitting of water. formation of;
(2) found in grana lamellae only. (1) ATP and NADPH.
(3) involved in both cyclic and non-cyclic flow (2) ATP, NADPH and O2.
of electron. (3) ATP.
(4) found on the outer surface of the thylakoids. (4) NADPH.

146. What is the number of carbons in the primary CO2 149. In leaves of C4 plants malic acid synthesis during
acceptor in C3 and C4 plants, respectively? CO2 fixation occurs in;
(1) 2 and 3 (2) 5 and 3 (1) guard cells. (2) epidermal cells.
(3) 5 and 7 (4) 3 and 4 (3) mesophyll cells. (4) bundle sheath.

147. Kranz anatomy is one of the characteristics of the 150. Photosynthetic Active Radiation (PAR) has the
leaves of; following range of wavelengths:
(1) potato. (2) wheat. (1) 400 – 700 nm (2) 450 – 950 nm
(3) sugarcane. (4) mustard. (3) 340 – 450 nm (4) 500 – 600 nm

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A 156. Which of the following is an inhibitory
hormone?
151. Which of the following is a steroid hormone?
(1) GnRH
(1) Insulin
(2) Somatostatin
(2) Epinephrine (3) TSH
(3) Pituitary (4) MSH
(4) Estradiol
157. How many of the following hormones are
152. Which of the following statement is incorrect? released by pars nervosa?
(1) Insulin acts mainly on cells of adipose TSH,LH,FSH,ADH,PRL
tissue. (1) 4
(2) The outer layer of adrenal cortex is zona (2) 3
fasciculata. (3) 1
(3) Catecholamines stimulate the breakdown of (4) 5
glycogen.
(4) Cortisol stimulates lipolysis. 158. Which hormone stimulates leydig cells of testis?
(1) FSH (2) ICSH
153. Thymosin plays an important role in: (3) ACTH (4) GH
(1) differentiation of T-lymphocyte.
159. Oxytocin is synthesised in;
(2) increasing Ca2+ level in blood.
(1) adenohypophysis
(3) regulating metabolic rate of body.
(2) neurohypophysis
(4) All of these.
(3) hypothalamus
(4) adrenal gland
154. Which of the following pair is mismatched?
(1) Thyrocalcitonin = increasing blood Ca2+ 160. Which endocrine gland is associated with
level. diencephalon part of brain?
(2) Thyroid hormone = RBCs formation. (1) Cerebral aqueduct
(3) Vasopressin= resorption of water from DCT (2) Hypothalamus
(4) Melatonin – influence metabolism. (3) Thymus gland
(4) Thyroid gland
155. Thyroid gland is composed of;
161. Which hormone is not produced by pars distalis?
(1) follicles
(1) Androgen
(2) stromal tissue.
(2) Prolactin
(3) adipocytes
(3) Somatotrophin
(4) both (1) & (2) (4) TSH
[14]
162. Glycosuria and ketonuria is associated with 169. Assertion (A): A man with a disfigured face
(1) Diabetes insipidus have acromegaly.
(2) Diabetes mellitus Reason (R): Gigantism is due to hypersecretion
(3) Acromegaly of T3
(4) Cretinism (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct
explanation of Assertion (A).
163. Which hormone increase blood sugar level?
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(1) Insulin true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
(2) Cortisol explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Gastrin (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is
(4) Prolactin false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is
164. Statement I: Estrogen caused appearance of true.
female secondary sex characters and female
sexual behaviour 170. Which hormone helps in regulation of 24 hours
Statement II: FSH stimulates development of (diurnal) rhythm of our body, managing sleep-
wake cycle?
follicles in pancreas
(1) Melanin (2) Melatonin
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are
(3) MSH (4) Thymosin
correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is 171. Which hormone help in reabsorption of Na+ from
incorrect. filtrate into blood in nephrons of kidney?
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (1) ANF (2) Aldosterone
correct. (3) ACTH (4) DHEA
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect. 172. Stunted growth, mental retardation, low IQ,
deafness and mutism infants and children are
165. Erythropoietin is secreted by symptoms of
(1) Cretenism (2) Grave’s disease
(1) Liver
(3) Dwarfism (4) Gigantism
(2) Kidney
(3) Brain 173. Which hormone’s deficiency may cause diabetes
(4) Heart insipidus?
(1) Insulin
166. Deficiency of iodine in our diet results in; (2) Glucagon
(1) hyperthyroidism (3) Vasopressin
(2) hypothyroidism (4) Growth hormone
(3) acromegaly
174. Zone fasciculata secretes hormone
(4) diabetes insipidus
(1) Aldosterone (2) Glucocorticoids
(3) Sex corticoids (4) Mineralocorticoids
167. The location of adrenal gland is
(1) One at the anterior part of each kidney 175. Match List-A and List-B and choose the correct
(2) One at the posterior part of each kidney option.
(3) One at the anterior and other at the posterior List -A List-B
part of kidney (I) Hypothalamus (A) Thyroid glands
(4) Only one adrenal gland is present on the
(II) Pituitary (B) Cortisol
posterior side of one kidney
gland

168. _____ hormone influences the menstrual cycle (III) TSH (C) Nuclei
as well as our defence capability. (IV) ACTH (D) Sella tursica
(1) thyroxine
(2) triiodothyronine (1) (I)→(C); (II)→(B); (III)→(A); (IV)→(D)
(2) (I)→(A); (II)→(D); (III)→(C); (IV)→(B)
(3) melatonin
(3) (I)→(C); (II)→(D); (III)→(A); (IV)→(B)
(4) luteinizing
(4) (I)→(B); (II)→(C); (III)→(A); (IV)→(D)
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176. Which hormone stimulates the mammary glands 184. Which of the following statement/(s) is/are
and helps on milk formation? correct?
(1) Oxytocin I. Pineal gland is located on the ventral side of
(2) Estrogen forebrain.
(3) Prolactin II. Oxytocin acts on smooth muscles of our
(4) Progesterone body and stimulate their contraction.
III. FSH stimulates development of the ovarian
177. Which hormone acts on CNS and influence follicles.
libido (male sexual behaviour)? (1) I & II only
(1) Androgens (2) II & III only
(2) Aldosterone (3) Only III
(3) Testosterone (4) Only I
(4) Both (1) and (3)
185. Exophthalmic goitre is a form of;
178. Which of the following is a function of (1) hypothyroidism
catecholamine? (2) hyperthyroidism
(1) Water retention in body (3) acromegaly
(2) Spermatogenesis (4) addison’s disease.
(3) Female sexual behaviour
(4) Pupillary dilation SECTION-B
186. Which of the following option is correct?
179. Deficiency or under production of hormones by I. Androgens regulate the development of
adrenal cortex may lead to male accessory sex organs.
(1) Cretenism II. Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum.
(2) Addison’s disease III. Atrial wall of our heart secretes ADH.
(3) Myxoedema (1) I & II only (2) II & III only
(4) Gigantism (3) only II (4) only III

180. Which hormone is administered in case of organ 187. Which of the following hormone produces
transplantation? anabolic effects on protein and carbohydrate
(1) Cortisol metabolism?
(2) Adrenaline (1) Growth hormone (2) Prolactin
(3) GH (3) Androgens (4) Oxytocin
(4) Aldosterone
188. There are about __A
___ Islets of Langerhans in
181. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Hormones are non-nutrient chemical, which normal human pancreas. __B ___ cell secrete
act as intracellular messengers. __C
___ hormone, which is a hyper glycaemic
(2) The posterior pituitary is under the direct hormone. Identify A, B and C.
neural regulation of the hypothalamus. (1) A) 1 to 2 thousands, B)-β-cells, C)- Insulin
(3) Pars intermedia is the portion of
(2) A) 1 to 2 million, B)-α -cells, C)- Insulin
adenohypophysis
(4) Pars intermedia secretes only one hormone (3) A) 1 to 2 thousands, B)-β-cells, C)-
called MSH. Glucagon
(4) A) 1 to 2 millions, B)- α-cells, C)- Glucagon
182. Which of the following hormone regulates
spermatogenesis? 189. Glucocorticoids stimulates;
I. FSH (1) lipolysis
II. LH (2) proteolysis
III. Androgens
(3) inhibit cellular uptake of amino acids.
(1) I & II only (2) I only
(3) I & III only (4) III only (4) All of these

183. Which of the following hormone reduces the loss 190. Hormone that helps in the maintenance of
of water through urine? electrolyte, osmotic pressure, blood pressure.
(1) ADH (2) Oxytocin (1) Cortisol (2) Aldosterone
(3) Melatonin (4) ANF (3) Oxytocin (4) Thymosine
[16]
191. The source of somatostatin is same as that of 196. Which of the following four secretions is
(1) thyroxine and calcitonin correctly matched with its source, target and
(2) insulin and glucagon nature of action?
(3) somatotropin and prolactin Secretion Source Target Action
(4) vasopressin and oxytocin (1) Gastrin Stomach Oxyntic Productio
lining cell n of HCl
192. Which one of the following four glands is
correctly matched with the accompanying (2) Inhibin Sertoli cells Hypothal Inhibition
description? amus of
(1) Thyroid- hyperactivity in young children secretion
causes creatinism of
(2) Thymus- Starts undergoing atrophy after gonadotro
puberty pin
releasing
(3) Parathyroid-secreted parathormone which
promotes movements of calcium ions from hormone
blood into bones during calcification (3) Enterokina Duodenum Gall Release
(4) Pancreas- Delta cells of the Islets of se bladder of bile
Langerhans secrete a hormone which juice
stimulates glycolysis in liver.
(4) Atrial Atrial wall Juxtra Inhibition
Natriuretic of heart glomerul of release
193. What is the effect of GnRH produced by factor ar of renin
hypothalamus? (ANF) apparatus
(1) stimulates the synthesis and secretion of (JGA)
androgens.
(2) stimulates secretion of milk in mammary
glands 197. Which part of body secretes the hormone
(3) stimulates foetal ejection reflex secretin?
(4) stimulates synthesis of carbohydrate from (1) Ileum (2) Duodenum
non-carbohydrates in liver. (3) Stomach (4) Oesophagus

194. Assertion (A): LH and FSH stimulate gonadal 198. Which of the following does not secrete any
activity. hormone?
Reason (R): FSH stimulate synthesis and (1) Ovary (2) Testis
secretion of androgens in male. (3) Liver (4) Pancreas
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, and Reason (R) is a correct 199. Which of the following disease results from
explanation of Assertion (A). endocrine disorder?
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (1) Pneumonia
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct (2) Typhoid
explanation of Assertion (A). (3) Goitre
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is (4) Jaundice
false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is 200. Statement I: Hormones are similar to enzymes
true. in their action & chemical nature.
Statement II: Hormones and enzyme are
195. Which of the following hormone is amino acid proteinaceous in nature and act as informational
derivative? molecules.
(1) Epinephrine (2) Insuline (1) Statement I and Statement II both are
(3) Estradiol (4) Glucagon correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.
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