1. The most stable form of cocoa 6.

Degree of flocculation relates

butter is [A] sedimentation volume of
[A] alpha flocculated suspension to
sedimentation volume of
[B] beta suspension when deflocculated
[C] gamma [B] sedimentation volume of
deflocculated suspension to
[D] crystalline sedimentation volume of
suspension when flocculated
2. The metric volume of household
measurement for one tumblerful is [C] sedimentation volume of
flocculated suspension
[A] 120 ml [D] sedimentation volume of
[B] 240 ml deflocculated suspension

[C] 60 ml 7. Amphetamine is a
[A] Schedule G drug
[D] 30 ml
[B] Schedule H drug
3. Excellent powder flow is [C] Schedule X drug
characterized by an angle of [D] Schedule C drug
repose value
8. Stearic acid and potassium
[A] <25 hydroxide are used in the
[B] >40 preparation of
[A] cold cream
[C] 25-30
[B] vanishing cream
[D] 30-40
[C] night cream
4. Reciprocal of viscosity is termed as [D] hand cream

[A] relative viscosity 9. Cyclones are used primarily for

the separation of
[B] specific viscosity
[A] solids from gases
[C] fluidity [B] solids only
[D] kinematic viscosity [C] fluids only
[D] solids from fluids
5. Half-life of a first-order reaction can
be defined as 10. Boiling point diagrams represent
boiling point and equilibrium
a composition relationship of all
[A] t1/2  mixtures at
2k
[A] constant pressure
1 [B] constant temperature
[B] t1/2  [C] constant pH
ak
[D] constant composition
3 1 11. MRT means
[C] t1/2  
2 a 2k [A] Mean Residual Time
[B] Minimum Residual Time
0  693 [C] Mean Residence Time
[D] t1/2 
k [D] Minimum Residence Time
M. Pharma/2 1 [ P.T.O.
12. The kinetics of capacity limited 19. TIFAC stands for
processes is described by [A] Technical Information
[A] Arrhenius equation Formation and Assessment
[B] Noyes-Whitney equation Council
[C] Michaelis-Menten equation [B] Technical Information
[D] Hixson Crowell equation Forecasting and Assessment
Council
13. The approximate filling capacity of
empty size 2 capsule is [C] Technology Implementation
Formation and Assessment
[A] 0·15 ml
Council
[B] 0·75 ml
[C] 0·55 ml [D] Technology Information
Formation and Accreditation
[D] 0·4 ml
Council
14. Propellant 144 means
20. Level 6 of six sigma concept
[A] dichlorotetrafluoroethane represents a percent accuracy of
[B] dichlorodifluoromethane
[A] 93·33
[C] difluoroethane
[B] 69·10
[D] butane
[C] 97·77
15. Long term stability testing is [D] 99·99
carried out for a minimum period
of 21. Dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine is
[A] 6 months a
[B] 12 months [A] glycosphingolipid
[C] 3 months [B] synthetic phospholipid
[D] 9 months [C] sphingolipid
16. Water attack test is conducted for [D] steroid
[A] highly resistant borosilicate
22. Phase separation coacervation
glass
technique is used to prepare
[B] soda lime glass
[A] microsphere
[C] general purpose soda lime
[B] emulsion
glass
[C] suspension
[D] treated soda lime glass
[D] solution
17. MedDRA is assigned under the
23. Glasswares can be sterilized by
category of
dry heat method as per BP at
[A] multidisciplinary guidelines
[A] 116 ºC for 90 mins
[B] quality guidelines
[B] 100 ºC for 90 mins
[C] safety guidelines
[C] 160 ºC for 60 mins
[D] efficacy guidelines
[D] 121 ºC for 60 mins
18. CTD contains
24. MacConkey agar is a/an
[A] 3 modules [A] enriched media
[B] 4 modules [B] selective media
[C] 5 modules [C] indicator media
[D] 6 modules [D] differential media

M. Pharma/2 2
25. The preservative which cannot be 32. Each mericarp of Coriandrum sativum
used in eyedrop as per BPC is fruits transverse section shows _____
[A] phenol glycerin –0·01% number of vittae.
[B] benzalkonium chloride –0·02% [A] four
[C] chlorhexidine acetate –0·01%
[D] phenylmercuric acetate – [B] six
0·002% [C] two
26. X-ray diffraction study is one of [D] twelve
the most powerful method for
[A] determination of number of 33. Which of the following alkaloids are
protons not derived from amino acids and
[B] determination of molecular do not show positive reactions with
weight alkaloidal reagents?
[C] determination of wavelength
[A] Pseudo alkaloids
[D] determination of crystal
lattice [B] True alkaloids
27. Which one of the following is not a [C] Proto alkaloids
method of physical evaluation of [D] Both (a) and (c)
crude drugs?
[A] Sulphated ash 34. Which of the following compounds
[B] UV-visible spectroscopy is involved in the synthesis of
[C] Shinoda test antitussive compound present in
[D] Freezing point opium?
28. Hamamelis leaves are adulterated [A] Morphine
with [B] Phenylalanine
[A] lead shots [C] Tyrosine
[B] xanthium leaves
[D] Thebaine
[C] dandelion leaves
[D] chestnut leaves 35. Isolation of Strychnine from
Ignatius beans was first time
29. Camphor is obtained from the wood
reported by
chips of Cinnamomum camphora by
the process of [A] Sertürner
[A] sublimation [B] Pelletier
[B] fractional crystallisation [C] Derosne
[C] fractional liberation
[D] Keursten
[D] counter-current distribution
36. Pruning and burning are which
30. Uridine triphosphate (UTP) is
method of pest control?
involved in the biosynthesis of
[A] Chemical
[A] alkaloids
[B] glycosides [B] Biological
[C] tannins [C] Mechanical
[D] volatile oils [D] Agricultural

31. The biological source for Cape aloe 37. Which one of the following plant
is hormones do not promote growth?
[A] aloe barbadensis [A] Abscisic acid (ABA)
[B] aloe perryi [B] Cytokinin
[C] Both (a) and (b) [C] Ethylene
[D] aloe ferox [D] Gibberellic acid
M. Pharma/2 3 [ P.T.O.
38. Which one of the following is not a 44. Protection of IPR (Intellectual
direct gene transfer technique? Property Rights) for scientific
[A] Electroporation innovations can be under
[B] Agrobacterium-mediated plant [A] copyright
transformation [B] patent law
[C] Microinjection
[C] trademark
[D] Silicon carbide whiskers
[D] plant breeder’s right
39. Which one of the following is a type
of Unani formulation? 45. Ginkgo biloba has which of the
following adverse effects?
[A] Majoon
[B] Gutika [A] Nephrotoxicity
[C] Bhasma [B] Hepatotoxicity
[D] Arishta [C] Seizures and loss of
consciousness
40. Wheatgrass is used as
nutraceutical for which of the [D] Allergy
below mentioned health benefits?
46. Section 33EEB as per the D & C
[A] Carminative Act, 1940 states the regulations on
[B] Expectorant
[A] manufacture and sale of ASU
[C] Adaptogenic drugs
[D] General tonic
[B] adulterated drugs
41. The interaction caused by [C] misbranded drugs
prescribing cyclosporine along with
[D] spurious drugs
ginseng
[A] leads to additive interactions 47. Triphala churna is a mixture of
[B] leads to synergistic
interactions [A] Embelica officinalis + Terminalia
arjuna + Terminalia chebula
[C] leads to antagonistic
interactions [B] Phyllanthus amarus + Terminalia
[D] nullifies the effect chebula + Terminalia arjuna

42. The term cosmeceuticals was first [C] Embelica officinalis + Terminalia
time referred by bellirica + Terminalia chebula
[A] Albert Kligman [D] Embelia ribes + Terminalia
[B] Galen chebula + Terminalia bellirica
[C] Samuel Hahnemann
[D] Raymond Reed 48. The total phenolic content present
in the plant can be determined by
43. Which one of the following natural
gums/mucilages belongs to [A] aluminium chloride method
‘cationic’ category? [B] Folin–Ciocalteu method
[A] Chitin
[C] 2,4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine
[B] Pectin
method
[C] Guar Gum
[D] Carboxymethyl cellulose [D] Folin-Denis method
M. Pharma/2 4
49. Which of the following drugs 55. The number of bones in cervical
belongs to the family vertebrae is
‘Flacourtiaceae’? [A] 5
[A] Castor oil [B] 6
[B] Wool fat [C] 7
[D] 12
[C] Bees wax
[D] Chaulmoogra oil 56. Diencephalon connects
[A] cerebrum and midbrain
50. The half-life of 14C radioisotope used [B] thalamus and hypothalamus
in biogenetic studies is [C] pons and cerebellum
[A] 12·43 years [D] pons and medulla oblongata
[B] 87·4 days
57. The normal visual acuity score is
[C] 5730 years [A] 6/6
[D] 8·04 days [B] 6/4
[C] 7/7
51. _____ cartilage replaces
[D] 4/6
periosteum on bone surfaces that
forms joint. 58. Lateral movement of eye by lateral
rectus muscle is controlled by
[A] Elastic
[A] occulomotor nerve
[B] Fibrons
[B] abducens nerve
[C] Hyaline
[C] trochlear nerve
[D] Collagen fibers [D] hypoglossal nerve
52. Parotid gland is present in 59. Erythrocytes are formed by
[A] bellow mandible [A] megakaryocyte
[B] bellow acoustic meatus [B] reticulocyte
[C] bellow tongue [C] myelocyte
[D] bellow maxilla [D] lymphocyte

53. DNA replication in cell cycle takes 60. Blood pressure is measured in
place at terms of
[A] S [A] mm
[B] G1 [B] mmHg
[C] G2 [C] mg/dL
[D] M [D] gf

54. Joint between frontal and parietal 61. Centrally acting skeletal muscle
bones of skull is relaxant is
[A] sagittal suture [A] darntrolene
[B] squamous suture [B] hemicholinium
[C] lambdoid suture [C] aluronium
[D] coronal suture [D] tizanidine
M. Pharma/2 5 [ P.T.O.
62. An example for natural 68. Selective COX-1 inhibitor used in
antidepressant agent is osteoarthritis along with
methotrexate is
[A] phenelzine
[A] diclofenac
[B] L-tryptoplan
[B] indomethacin
[C] tranylcypromine
[C] piroxicam
[D] iproniazid
[D] sodium salicylate
63. Guanine analogue used against
69. Hormone secreted by
herpes virus is
somatotrophin is
[A] lamivudine
[A] FSH
[B] zidovudine [B] TSH
[C] acyclovir [C] GH
[D] zanamivir [D] ACTH
64. Non sedative type of antihistamine 70. Oral antibiotic drugs acting at
is muscular level is
[A] promethazine [A] glitazones
[B] diphenhydramine [B] sulfonyl ureas
[C] fexofenadine [C] biguanides
[D] chlorphenirae [D] alpha-glucosidase

65. Nitrates act by 71. Ischemia due to fixed

atheromatous stenosis of one or
[A] reducing afterload more coronory arteries is
[B] reducing preload [A] M1
[C] coronary vasodilation [B] stable angina
[D] All of the above [C] arhythmia
[D] heart failure
66. Atovaquone and antifolate drugs
proguanil in combination gives 72. The right and left hemispheres of
[A] additive effect brain are connected by
[B] synergistic effect [A] internal capsule

[C] antagonistic effect [B] septum pellucidum

[C] corpus collasum
[D] no effect
[D] corpus striatum
67. A peptide antibiotic used by
parenteral route in Tuberculosis is 73. Nicotinic receptors belong to the
class of
[A] Cyclosporine
[A] ligand-gated ion channels
[B] Ethambutol
[B] GPCR
[C] INH
[C] kinase linked receptor
[D] Capreomycin
[D] nuclear receptor
M. Pharma/2 6
74. Imbalance in Dopamine and 81. What is/are the effect(s) of
Acetylcholine neuro transmitters electron releasing groups on the
in brain lead to acidity of phenols?
[A] Alzheimer•’s disease [A] Increases the acidity
[B] Parkinson’s disease [B] Decreases the acidity
[C] Huntington’s disease [C] No effect
[D] Schizophrenia
[D] Both (a) and (b)
75. Which type of tastebud is 82. What is the effect of electron
degenerated in early childhood? releasing groups on basicity of
[A] Vallate papillae amines?
[B] Fungiform papillae [A] Increases the basicity
[C] Filiform papillae [B] Decreases the basicity
[D] Foliate papillae [C] No effect
76. Benzopyrrole is converted into [D] Both (a) and (b)
indigotin in the presence of
83. The common solvents used in
[A] O2 Friedal-Craft reaction are
[B] O3
[A] Aniline and CS2
[C] H2
[D] N2 [B] Nitrobenzene and Liquified CO2

77. Meso compounds are optically [C] Bromobenzene and CS2

[A] active
[B] reactive [D] Nitrobenzene and CS2
[C] highly reactive
84. An example of antifoliate
[D] inactive
anticancer drug is
78. Melting point and stability of cis- [A] Thiotepa
isomers are
[B] Lomustine
[A] lower than trans isomer
[B] higher than trans isomers [C] Methotrexate
[C] same as trans isomers [D] Busulfan
[D] None of the above
85. The principal enzymes involved in
79. Which of the following cycloalkanes catacholamine metabolism are
is having angle very close to the [A] MAO and COMT
tetrahedral angle?
[B] MAR + COMT
[A] cyclopropane
[B] cyclobutane [C] MAO and COET
[C] cyclopentane [D] MAR + COET
[D] Both (a) and (b)
86. The number 450 in cytochrome P450
80. The drying oils are the important refers to its
constituents of
[A]  max
[A] paints
[B] varnishes [B] C max
[C] Both (a) and (b) [C] Isosbestic point
[D] edible fat
[D] Bathochromic shift
M. Pharma/2 7 [ P.T.O.
87. Procaine hydrochloride cannot be 94. The resolution power of a
used in the treatment of monochromator can be determined
arrhythmia due to the hypotensive by the size and dispersing
effect of its metabolite characteristics of
[A] diethylaminoethanol [A] grating
[B] dimethylaminoethanol [B] prism
[C] diethylaminomethanol [C] cuvette
[D] dimethylaminomethanol [D] Both (a) and (b)
88. An example of vitamin K 95. Turbidity of a sample can be
antagonist is measured by using
[A] o-phenylenediamine [A] turbidimetry
[B] guanidine [B] nephelometry
[C] phenindione [C] Both (a) and (b)
[D] oxyphenbutazone [D] colorimetry
96. Systematic errors in analysis are
89. Which of the following
due to
diethylstilbestrol isomers is more
[A] improper instrument
active?
calibration procedure
[A] cis
[B] insufficient purity of reagents
[B] meso
used
[C] racemic
[C] improper operation of the
[D] trans
measuring instrument
90. Prontasil is the prodrug of [D] All of the above
[A] sulfanilamide 97. The molecular formula of Epsom
[B] sulfadiazine salt is
[C] sulfamethoxazole
[A] MgSO4  7H2O
[D] sulfamerazine
91. The simplest conductance cell [B] Na 2S2O3  5H2O
used to measure the conductance [C] CuSO4  H2O
of a liquid in an open container is
[A] dip type conductance shell [D] Na 2CO3  10H2O
[B] dip type conductance cell 98. An example of anticaries agent is
[C] open type conductance cell [A] calcium carbonate
[D] open type conductance shell [B] calcium chloride
92. The IR radiation source Globar is [C] stannous chloride
made up of [D] stannous fluoride
[A] ferrous sulphide 99. Citric acid cycle is also known as
[B] cadmium sulphide [A] tricarboxylic acid cycle
[C] selenium sulphide [B] Krebs cycle
[D] silicon carbide
[C] Both (a) and (b)
93. The atomic and molecular [D] urea cycle
composition of inorganic and
100. _____ is an example of uncoupler of
organic compounds are measured
oxidative phosphorylation.
by using
[A] mass spectrometry [A] 2,4-Dinitrophenol
[B] IR spectroscopy [B] Phenol
[C] NMR spectroscopy [C] Resorcinol
[D] mass spectroscopy [D] 2,4-Diaminophenol
M. Pharma/2 8