1st Year Pharmacy Guide Solved

Anatomy:
Introduction Terminologies
of Anatomy of Anatomy
Surface Anatomy
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CH # 1:
1. Branch of medical science which deals with the study of structure of different organs and body
parts of human…?
(a) Human Anatomy (b) Physiology
(c) Zoology (d) All of above
2. Study the structure of human body parts without microscopic is called…?

(a) Microscopic Anatomy (b) Macroscopic Anatomy
(c) Applied Anatomy (d) None of these
3. Which branch of anatomy helps in understanding congenital deformities of embryo...?

(a) Histology (b) Applied Anatomy
(c) Regional Anatomy & Embryology (d) Embryology
4. Study of Right Lung is called _________ anatomy…?

(a) Tissue (b) Regional
(c) Histology (d) Systemic
5. Study of Digestive system is called…?

(a) Systemic Anatomy (b) Regional Anatomy
(c) Dissection Anatomy (d) None of These
6. Cytology is the study of…?

(a) Cell & Its Components (b) Cell & Diseases
(c) Cell Biology (d) All of them
7. Applied Anatomy is the study of…?

(a) Physiology (b) Pathology
(c) Pharmacology (d) Diagnosis of Diseases
8. Why we use the techniques of Cross- Section Anatomy…?

(a) Study the one organ (b) Study the Multiple organs
(c) Study the macroscopic organs (d) Study the microscopic organs
9. Study the structure of human body parts by naked eye relates to which anatomy:
(a) Macroscopic (b) Gross
(c) Both a & b (d) Microscopic
10. Study of microscopic parts of cell:

(a) Cytology (b) Histology
(c) Applied Anatomy (d) None of them
11. Regional anatomy relates to which of the following:

(a) Study of parts (b) Study of system
(c) Study of Embryo (d) Study of Tissue
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12. Study the structure of cell and its components:
(a) Histology (b) Applied Anatomy
(c) Cytology (d) Systemic Anatomy
13. Study of Nervous system relates to which of the following anatomy:

(a) Macroscopic (b) Regional
(c) Systemic (d) Histology
14. Study of diagnosis of disease:

(a) Applied anatomy (b) Applied & Cytology
(c) Microscopic (d) All of these
15. Study of multiple organ relates to which:

(a) Cross-section (b) Medial Section
(c) Both a & b (d) none of them
Chapter # 1 Keys:
1 a 4 b 7 d 10 b 13 c
2 b 5 a 8 b 11 a 14 a
3 d 6 a 9 c 12 c 15 a
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CH # 2:
1. Medial line divides the body parts into how many parts:
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
2. Body parts that are present at the front side and back side are called as:
(a) Ventral / Anterior (b) Ventral / Posterior
(c) Ventral / Superior (d) Dorsal / Posterior
3. Body parts that are present at the Upper side and Lower side are called as:
(a) Superior and Inferior (b) Superior and Deep
(c) Superior and Superficial (d) Superior and Lateral
4. Reference point called as a…?

(a) Fixed Point (b) Deep point
(c) Moveable point (d) none of these
5. Two parts of body that present at the same side of body …?

(a) Infro-medial (b) Ipsilateral
(c) Contra-lateral (d) All of above
6. Flexion and Extension are…?

(a) Bending and Extending Movement (b) Upper and Lower Movement
(c) Both of them (d) none of them
7. Abduction and Adduction are the movement of…?

(a) Eyes (b) Neck
(c) Limb (d) None of Them
8. Pronation and Supination are the movement of…?

(a) Arm (b) Fore-Arm
(c) Leg (d) Thigh
9. Inside movement of sole of foot is called …?

(a) Extension (b) Eversion
(c) Inversion (d) Supervision
10. Body parts present upper side and near to back side…?
(a) Ventral/ anterior (b) Dorsal/ Posterior
(c) Superior/ Dorsal (d) Superior/ Inferior
11. Divides the body into two equal parts refers to which of the following…?
(a) Center line (b) Mid line
(c) Divider line (d) Medial line
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12. Body parts that present away from medial line and away from the surface…?
(a) Lateral & Deep (b) Lateral & Superficial
(c) Deep & Proximal (d) Deep & Medial
13. Reference point belongs to which of the following…?

(a) Deep & Distal (b) Deep & Proximal
(c) Proximal & Distal (d) none of them
14. Left arm and Skull are example of …?

(a) Ipsilateral (b) Contra-lateral
(c) Infro-medial (d) None of them
15. Bending the elbow is an example of…?

(a) Flexion (b) Extension
(c) Planter-flexion (d) Dorsi - flexion
16. Extending movement and leg & foot increased distance refers to which…?
(a) Extension (b) Extension & Planter Flexion
(c) Extension & Dorsiflexion (d) Planter Flexion & Dorsiflexion
17. Movement of limb away from the Transverse line is called…?

(a) Adduction (b) Abduction
(c) Both a & b (d) None of them
18. Inside & outside movement of palm is called…?

(a) Inversion (b) Supination
19. Movement of bone towards upper side is called…?

(a) Superior (b) Elevation
(c) Depression (d) Inferior
20. Depression refers to as…?

(a) Bone movement (b) Lower side bone movement
(c) Upper side bone movement (d) fore-arm movement
21. Leg and hand distance decreased refers to as…?

(a) Planter Flexion (b) Dorsi flexion
(c) No one (d) both a & b
Chapter # 2 Keys:
1 b 7 c 13 c 19 b
2 b 8 b 14 d 20 b
3 a 9 c 15 a 21 c
4 a 10 c 16 b
5 b 11 d 17 d
6 a 12 a 18 d
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CH # 3:
1. Physical examination of the body to reach a physical diagnosis called…?
(a) Surface Study (b) Surface Anatomy
(c) Surface Diagnosis (d) Surface Examination
2. How many parts of human skeleton are there…?

(a) 15 (b) 23
(c) 28 (d) 33
3. How many phalanges are there in foot…?

(a) 14 (b) 28
(c) 30 (d) 33
4. Which human body part contains frontal bone…?

(a) Ribs (b) Abdomen
(c) Skull (d) none of them
5. Upper limb contain how many parts…?

(a) 03 (b) 04
(c) 05 (d) 06
6. Humerus is the long bone of which part…?

(a) Arm (b) Fore arm
(c) Thigh (d) Leg
7. Which one is the 2nd bone of Forearm except Radius…?

(a) Femur (b) Tibia
(c) Fibula (d) Ulna
8. Femur is start from ___________ to knee…?

(a) Pelvic girdle (b) Scapula
(c) Clavicle (d) None of Them
9. Patella is also called as…?

(a) Foot Cap (b) Hand Cap
(c) Knee Cap (d) Skull Cap
10. How many metatarsals are there in foot…?

(a) 7 (b) 5
(c) 14 (d) 18
11. How many regular bones are there in vertebral column…?

(a) 13 (b) 23
(c) 33 (d) No one
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12. Which one is the cervical region…?
(a) C1 to C7 (b) C1 to C12
(c) L1 to L5 (d) S1 TO S5
13. Which one is consider the tail vertebra of vertebral column…?

(a) Sacral Region (b) Coccyx 4
(c) Thoracic Region (d) none of them
14. Back Muscles are mostly attached to which vertebra…?

(a) Lumbar (b) Cervical
(c) Sacral (d) Coccyx
15. First part of Pelvic Region is…?

(a) Pubic (b) Ischium
(c) Sacrum (d) None of them
16. In adult, how many bones of pelvic region are finely fused to form a single bone…?
(a) Three (b) Four
(c) Five (d) Six
17. Which one is the accessory organ of digestive system…?

(a) Oral Cavity (b) Pharynx
(c) Liver (d) All of these
18. Which one is not the accessory organ of digestive system…?

(a) Pancreas (b) Liver
(c) Gallbladder (d) Stomach
19. How many glands contain the oral cavity…?

(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
20. Which one of the following organ has 5-6 inches length…?
(a) Pharynx (b) Larynx
(c) Esophagus (d) Liver
21. What is the size of Esophagus…?

(a) 25cm long & 1 cm in diameter (b) 25cm long & 2 cm in diameter
(c) 25cm long & 3 cm in diameter (d) 25cm long & 4 cm in diameter
22. Length of Stomach is …?

(a) 10 inches (b) 20 inches
(c) 30 inches (d) 40 inches
23. What is the length of small intestine in male & female…?

(a) 6.7 m in male & 7.1 m in female (b) 6.8 m in male & 7.1 m in female
(c) 6.9 m in male & 7.1 m in female (d) 6.10 m in male & 7.1 m in female
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24. What is the average length of small intestine…?
(a) 4.6-9.8m (b) 4.7-9.8m
(c) 4.8-9.8m (d) 4.9-9.8m
25. What is the size of duodenum…?

(a) 2.5 to 2.8 m (b) 2.5 to 3.8 m
(c) 2.2 to 3.8 m (d) No one
26. What is the size of Jejunum…?

(a) 2.5 m (b) 2.6 m
(c) 2.7 m (d) 2.8 m
27. Size of large intestine is…?

(a) 1.3 m long (b) 1.4 m long
(c) 1.5 m long (d) 1.7 m long
28. Which one is not the part of upper respiratory tract…?

(a) Nose (b) Pharynx
(c) Associated Structures (d) Trachea
29. What is the role of Epiglottis helps to______ during swallowing…?

(a) Close off the larynx (b) Open the larynx
(c) Both of them (d) .None of them
30. Length of Trachea…?

(a) 7 cm long (b) 10 cm long
(c) 15 cm long (d) 17 cm long
31. Which organ form urine in our urinary system…?

(a) Urethra (b) Ureters
(c) Kidney (d) Bladder
32. What is the basic structural & functional unit of kidney…?

(a) Nephron (b) Ureters
(c) Bladder (d) All of above
33. Kidneys are located mainly in the region…?

(a) Cervical (b) Thoracic
(c) Sacrum (d) Lumbar
34. The outer zone of kidney is called …?

(a) Cortex (b) Bowman’s capsule
(c) Glomerulus (d) Renal Tubules
35. Arterioles are of the small subdivisions of a _______...?

(a) Artery (b) Capillaries
(c) Veins (d) none of them
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36. Which of the following is not related with male reproductive system…?
(a) Testes (b) Penis
(c) Vagina (d) Scrotum
37. Which of the following is the name of male sex hormone …?

(a) Adrenal hormone (b) Testosterone
38. Female external organ are collectively known as …?

(a) Vulva (b) Penis
(c) Vagina (d) Ovaries
39. Which of the following belong to the Uterus weight…?

(a) 30-35gm (b) 30-40gm
(c) 30-45gm (d) 30-50gm
40. GIT stand for…?

(a) Gastro Intestinal Tract (b) Gastro In Tract
(c) Gastric Intestinal Tract (d) Gastro immune Tract
41. Aim of surface anatomy is…?

(a) Visualization (b) Physical examination
(c) Physical diagnosis (d) All of above
42. ______ Anatomy is the basis for the physical examination of the body to reach a physical
diagnosis…?
(a) Gross (b) Surface
(c) Microscopic (d) Applied
43. How many bones are there in forearm…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
44. Mandible is related to which of the following…?

(a) Skull (b) Cheeks
(c) Jaw (d) Eyes
45. Femur is the part of…?

(a) Leg (b) Thigh
(c) Foot (d) Arm
46. Location of ileum bone is…?

(a) Skull Region (b) Chest Region
(c) Pelvic Region (d) All of above
47. Patella is linked with…?

(a) Femur (b) Humerus
(c) Radius (d) Ischium
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48. Sternum is mainly linked with…?
(a) Sacrum (b) Patella
(c) Ribs (d) Clavicle
49. Which part covers the brain…?

(a) Skull (b) frontal bone
(c) Temporal bone (d) Parietal bone
50. Lacrimal bone is related to which of the following…?

(a) Simple fluid (b) Tears Fluid
(c) Carbonated fluid (d) All of above
51. Scapula is related to which of the following…?

(a) Arm (b) Fore arm
(c) Hand (d) Leg
52. Long bone in Arm…?

(a) Femur (b) Radius
(c) Ulna (d) Humerus
53. Ulna is related to which of the following…?

(a) Arm (b) Forearm
(c) Upper limb (d) Both B & C
54. 8 bones in upper limb refer us to which of the following…?

(a) Wrist (b) Hand
(c) Arm (d) forearm
55. Larger bone of Thigh…?

(a) Femur (b) Tibia
(c) Fibula (d) Humerus
56. Which bone is away from medial line in leg…?

(a) Tibia (b) Fibula
(c) Femur (d) Ulna
57. Select the exact quantities of Tarsal’s, Meta-Tarsal’s and

Phalanges in human body…?
(a) 8, 5, 14 (b) 8, 5, 28
(c) 7, 5, 28 (d) 14, 10, 56
58. How many regions of vertebral column…?

(a) 05 (b) 13
(c) 23 (d) 33
59. Which indicates the Thoracic region…?

(a) T1 (b) T12
(c) T1 & T12 (d) All of above
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60. In sacral regions how many bones are fused to form a single bone…?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Five (d) Seven
61. How many accessory organs are there in digestive system…?

(a) Three (b) Five
(c) Seven (d) Nine
62. 5 to 6 inches size related to which of the following…?

(a) Esophagus (b) Pharynx
(c) Oral cavity (d) Stomach
63. How many parts of stomach…?

(a) Four (b) Six
(c) Eight (d) Ten
64. Complete parts of large intestine…?

(a) Two (b) Four
(c) Six (d) Eight
65. The bronchi are formed by the bifurcation of the trachea at the level of ____ vertebrae…?
(a) 5th (b) 6th
(c) 7th (d) 8th
66. In urinary system which organ forms urine in human body…?

(a) Kidney (b) Nephron
(c) Bladder (d) Both a & b
67. Both kidneys contains how many of Nephron…?

(a) 1.4million (b) 2.4 million
(c) 3.4 million (d) 4.4 million
68. 300gm weight refers to which of the following…?

(a) Heart (b) Kidney
(c) Lungs (d) Stomach
69. 250gm relates to which of the following…?

(a) Male Heart (b) Female Heart
70. Tough double layered is…?

(a) Epi cardium (b) Myocardium
(c) Endo cardium (d) Pericardium
71. Prostate gland contains how many robes…?

(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
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72. ______ Are the male organs where spermatozoa are formed and male sex hormone testosterone
are formed…?
(a) Scrotum (b) Testes
(c) Epididymis (d) Urethra
73. How many organs of male reproductive system…?

(a) Three (b) Four
(c) Five (d) Six
74. How many organs of female reproductive system…?

(a) Five (b) Seven
(c) Nine (d) Ten
75. Weights of ovaries are…?

(a) 4 – 8 gm (b) 5- 8 gm
(c) 6 – 8 gm (d) 7 – 8 gm
76. __________ known as wombs…?

(a) Ovaries (b) Uterus
(c) Uterine tubes (d) none of them
77. Its weight is 30-40gm refers to which…?

(a) Uterus (b) Testes
78. __________ are the female gonads…?

(a) Hymen (b) Libia Majora
(c) Libia Minora (d) Ovaries
79. The respiratory system is divided into how many parts…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
80. Nose, Pharynx and associated structures are found in which of the following…?
(a) URT (b) LRT
(c) GIT (d) All of above
81. Lower respiratory tract is consisting of the Larynx, Trachea, and Bronchi also…?
(a) Throat (b) Lungs
(c) Ribs (d) none of them
82. How many organs of respiratory system contains…?

(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Five (d) Six
83. LRT stands for…?

(a) Lower Respiratory Tract (b) Lumber Region
(c) Lower Ribs Tract (d) Lower Renal Tract
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84. The larynx lies in front of the lowest part of the…?
(a) Pharynx (b) Nose
(c) Esophagus (d) Epiglottis
85. Voice Box refers to which of the following…?

(a) Bronchi (b) Trachea
(c) Larynx (d) Nose
86. Largest cartilage in Larynx is…?

(a) Thyroid (b) Epiglottic
(c) Cricoids (d) Arytenoids
87. Epiglottis is attached to which of the following cartilage…?

(a) Arytenoids (b) Corniculate
(c) Cuneiform (d) Thyroid
88. The _________ lies inside the larynx…?

(a) Vocal cords (b) Nose
(c) Alveoli (d) Lungs
89. 10cm long indicates what…?

(a) Nose (b) GIT
(c) Bronchi (d) Trachea
90. _______ are formed by the bifurcation of the trachea at the level of ____ vertebrae…?
(a) Bronchi & 5th (b) Lungs & 5th
(c) Bronchi & 4th (d) Alveoli & 4th
91. Bronchi divide into…?

(a) Trachea (b) Bronchioles
(c) Alveoli (d) Lungs
92. Alveoli are formed from which of the following organs…?

(a) Bronchi (b) Vocal cords
(c) Trachea (d) Bronchioles
93. Alveoli are in close contact with…?

(a) Capillaries (b) Veins
(c) Heart (d) Lungs
94. In alveoli blood comes in direct contact with…?

(a) Water (b) Air
95. Which of the following organs are not involved in the composition of urine…?
(a) Nephron (b) Bladder
(c) Ureters (d) Both b & c
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96. ______ are pair of excretory organs situated on the posterior abdominal wall…?
(a) Lungs (b) Kidneys
(c) Ureters (d) Ribs
97. Bean Shaped refers to which of the following…?

(a) Kidney (b) GIT
(c) Small intestine (d) Large intestine
98. Total parts of Nephron…?

(a) Three (b) Five
(c) Seven (d) Nine
99. _______ convey the urine from kidney to bladder…?

(a) Ureters (b) Bladders
(c) Urethra (d) Kidney
100. The inner zone kidney is called…?

(a) Medulla (b) Nephron
(c) Peritoneum (d) Bladder
101. ________ is a conical hallow muscular organ it is like a closed fist…?

(a) Heart (b) Aorta
(c) Arteries (d) Venules
102. The heart lies in the…?

(a) Pharynx (b) Thorax
(c) Larynx (d) Sternum
103. Middle muscular layer of heart is called…?

(a) Epi cardium (b) Myocardium
(c) Endo cardium (d) none of them
104. How many chambers of heart…?

(a) Two (b) Four
(c) Six (d) Eight
105. Heart maintains the ___________ flow of the blood…?

(a) Unidirectional (b) Multi directional
106. (Between the right atrium and right ventricle) which valve of heart is present…?
(a) Tricuspid (b) Bicuspid
(c) Pulmonic valve (d) Aortic valve
107. Bicuspid valve / Mitral valve b/w the left atrium and __________ …?
(a) Right ventricles (b) right Atrium
(c) Left Atrium (d) Left Ventricle
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108. ____________ is the largest artery in the human body…?
(a) Arterioles (b) Arteries
(c) Aorta (d) Capillaries
109. Aorta distributes __________ blood to all parts of body…?

(a) Oxygenated (b) Deoxygenated
(c) Carbonated (d) All of above
110. Blood vessels which carry deoxygenated blood towards the heart…?
(a) Aorta (b) Veins
(c) Venules (d) Capillaries
111. Which organ conducts urine & semen from the bladder & ejaculatory ducts…?
(a) Prostate Gland (b) Scrotum
(c) Urethra (d) Epididymis
112. Prostate gland is the gland of male reproductive system & ___________...?
(a) Urinary system (b) Respiratory system
(c) Cardio system (d) none of them
113. 2 robes that surround the urethra related to which of the following:
(a) Urethra (b) Prostate Gland
(c) Bladder (d) Scrotum
114. Seminal Vesicle two lobulated sacs situated between the bladder & the_______ …?
(a) Testes (b) Rectum
(c) Urethra (d) Epididymis
115. _________ is divided into two compartments…?

(a) Prostate Gland (b) Scrotum
(c) Ureters (d) Testes
116. Which of the following organ store the spermatozoa…?

(a) Urethra (b) Bladder
(c) Epididymis (d) Testes
117. Testes are the organs where male sex hormone ________ are formed…?
(a) Testosterone (b) Luteinizing
(c) Follicle (d) All of above
118. Which organ is well supplied with blood vessels and nerves…?
(a) Ovaries (b) Uterus
(c) Fallopian tubes (d) Vagina
119. Uterine Tubes also known as___________...?

(a) Renal tubules (b) Collecting tubules
(c) Fallopian tubes (d) Convoluted
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120. Ovaries lie on either side of__________ …?
(a) Uterus (b) Vagina
(c) Hymen (d) Labia Majora
121. Uterus is also known as ___________ …?

(a) Hymen (b) clitoris
(c) Labia Minora (d) Womb
122. Fallopian tubes connect ovaries with___________...?

(a) Uterus (b) Labia Majora
(c) Labia Minora (d) Clitoris
123. Fertilization of ovum takes place in the ___________ …?

(a) Uterine Tube (b) Fallopian Tube
124. ________ lies in pelvis between the rectum & urinary bladder…?
(a) Hymen (b) Clitoris
(c) Ovaries (d) Uterus
Chapter # 3 Keys:
1 b 22 a 43 b 64 d 85 c 106 a
2 b 23 c 44 c 65 a 86 a 107 d
3 a 24 a 45 b 66 d 87 d 108 c
4 c 25 b 46 c 67 b 88 a 109 a
5 a 26 a 47 a 68 a 89 d 110 b
6 a 27 c 48 c 69 b 90 a 111 c
7 d 28 d 49 a 70 d 91 b 112 a
8 a 29 a 50 b 71 a 92 d 113 b
9 c 30 b 51 a 72 b 93 a 114 b
10 b 31 c 52 d 73 d 94 b 115 b
11 d 32 a 53 d 74 c 95 d 116 c
12 a 33 d 54 b 75 a 96 b 117 a
13 b 34 a 55 a 76 b 97 a 118 d
14 a 35 a 56 b 77 a 98 c 119 c
15 d 36 c 57 d 78 d 99 a 120 a
16 a 37 b 58 a 79 b 100 a 121 d
17 c 38 a 59 d 80 a 101 a 122 a
18 d 39 b 60 c 81 b 102 b 123 c
19 c 40 a 61 a 82 d 103 b 124 d
20 a 41 a 62 b 83 a 104 b
21 b 42 b 63 c 84 a 105 a
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Physiology:
Intro of
Blood, CVS,
Physiology &
RPS and Skin
Cell
GIT, Urinary
Endocrinology
System
Nervous
Nerve &
System &
Muscles
Special Senses
17
Chapter # 1 & 2:
1. ______is the science that treats the functions of the living organism and its parts…?
(a) Biology (b) Physiology
(c) Histology (d) Neurology
2. How many types of cells are there…?

(a) One (b) Three
(c) Five (d) Seven
3. What is the composition of water in cell…?

(a) 65 to 80% (b) 70 to 80%
(c) 65 to 90% (d) 75 to 90%
4. How many components are there in cell composition…?

(a) One (b) Three
(c) Five (d) Seven
5. Which of the following is the outer covering of cell…?

(a) Protein membrane (b) Cell membrane
(c) Plasma membrane (d) Both b & c
6. Which of the following have lipid bi-layer structure…?

(a) Plasma membrane (b) water membrane
(c) Electrolytes (d) No one
7. How many zones of cytoplasm…?

(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
8. ________is a clear fluid where all organelles are present this statement relates to which of the
following…?
(a) Mitochondria (b) Ribosome’s
(c) Cytosol (d) Nucleus
9. Series of tubular portion in the cytoplasm relates to which of the following…?

(a) ER (b) UV
(b) Both a & b (d) No one
10. Granular is relates to which of the following…?

(a) RER (b) SER
(c) HER (d) HIV
11. Ribosomes are attached to ___________ of endoplasmic reticulum…?

(a) Inner surface (b) Outer surface
(c) Middle Surface (d) All of above
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12. __________ plays a major role in glycogen metabolism…?
(a) RER (b) SER
(c) API (d) no one
13. Detoxification is the removal of…?

(a) Water (b) Protein
(c) Lipids (d) Toxins
14. Ribosome’s are…?

(a) Small structure (b) Large Structure
(c) Both a & b (d) None
15. Power house of cell is…?

(a) Ribosomes (b) Proteins
(c) Mitochondria (d) Nucleus
16. Size of Mitochondria…?

(a) 0.5 – 1um wide (b) 0.5 – 1nm wide
(c) 0.5 – 1mm wide (d) 0.5 – 1cm wide
17. Length up to 10 um relates to which of the following…?

(a) Golgi body (b) Mitochondria
(c) Ribosome’s (d) Nucleus
18. ATP stands for…?

(a) Adenosine Triphosphate (b) Adenosine to Phosphate
(c) Adenosine total Phosphate (d) Adenosine type Phosphate
19. ________ control center of cell…?

(a) Golgi body (b) Ribosome’s
(c) Cytoplasm (d) Nucleus
20. Nucleus diameter relates to which of the following…?

(a) 4-10 um (b) 4-10 mm
(c) 4-10 cm (d) 4-10 dm
21. How many components are there in nucleus structure…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
22. What is the %age of DNA in nucleus composition…?

(a) 18% (b) 2 %
(c) 20% (d) 80%
23. Wandering cells are come under the heading of…?

(a) Connective tissues (b) Epithelium tissues
(c) Nervous Tissues (d) Muscles Tissues
19
24. Connective tissue fibers are of ________ types…?
(a) One (b) Three
(c) Five (d) Seven
25. Ground substance is composed of macromolecular protein polysaccharide complexes called…?

(a) Peptideglycans (b) Riboglycans
(c) Lipoglycans (d) Proteoglycans
26. _________ is a strong and durable type of connective tissue…?

(a) Bone (b) Kidney
(c) Liver (d) Stomach
27. Property of bone being rigid because it is impregnated with…?

(a) Mineral electrolytes (b) Chemical salts
(c) Mineral Salts (d) Salts
28. What is the chief physical property of bone…?

(a) Hardness (b) Softness
29. Osseous tissue relates to which of the following…?

(a) Nervous cell (b) Connective cells
(c) Bone cells (d) Muscular cells
30. Inorganic components of bone matrix are responsible for…?

(a) Toughness (b) Hardness
(c) Softness (d) Both a & b
Chapter # 1 & 2 Keys:

1 b 16 a
2 c 17 b
3 a 18 a
4 c 19 d
5 d 20 b
6 a 21 d
7 a 22 a
8 c 23 a
9 a 24 b
10 a 25 d
11 b 26 a
12 b 27 c
13 d 28 a
14 a 29 c
15 c 30 d
20
Chapter # 3:
1. Blood is a specialized type of…?
(a) Connective tissue (b) Nervous tissue
(c) Muscles tissues (d) epithelial tissue
2. _________ is Meso dermal in origin…?

(a) Bone (b) Tissues
(c) Blood (d) All of above
3. Blood is made up of how many parts…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
4. Non cellular part of blood is called…?

(a) Plasma (b) RBCs
(c) WBCs (d) Platelets
5. What is the %age of Cellular part in blood…?

(a) 25% (b) 35%
(c) 45% (d) 55%
6. RBCs (Red blood cells) are called…?

(a) Erythrocytes (b) Leucocytes
(c) Lymphocytes (d) All of above
7. WBCs are…?
(a) Neutrophils (b) Lymphocytes
(c) Basophiles (d) All of above
8. What is the %age of Non cellular part of blood…?

(a) 45% (b) 55%
(c) 65% (d) Both a & b
9. Plasma consists of…?

(a) 91 % water & 9% solid (b) 81% water & 19% solid
(c) 65% water & 35% solid (d) 55% water & 45% solid
10. 4.5 – 5.5% in blood relates to which of the following…?

(a) Albumin (b) Fibrinogen
(c) Globulin (d) Pro-thrombin
11. In blood Fibrinogen…?

(a) 0.1% (b) 0.2%
(c) 0.3% (d) 0.4%
21
12. Value of Globulin in blood is…?
(a) 1.3 – 1.8% (b) 1.3 – 1.5%
(c) 1.3 – 1.9% (d) 1.3 – 2%
13. Pro-thrombin relates to which of the following…?

(a) 0.1 % (b) 0.2%
(c) 0.3% (d) 0.4%
14. Plasma complement system consists of how many proteins…?

(a) 20 (b) 30
(c) 40 (d) 50
15. Non-protein nitrogenous substances in blood are Urea, Uric acid, Creatinine and _____...?
(a) Amino acid (b) Enzymes
(c) Lipids (d) Sugars
16. Which of the following is a non Nitrogenous substance…?

(a) Creatinine (b) Uric acid
(c) Urea (d) Glucose
17. Which of the following is not a non- protein nitrogenous substance…?

(a) Phospholipids (b) Galactose
(c) Amino acid (d) Both a & b
18. What is the origin of erythrocytes…?

(a) Mega- Karyotes (b) Red bone marrow
(c) Lymph node (d) Spleen
19. Life span of platelets is…?

(a) 5-9 days (b) 6-9 days
(c) 7-9 days (d) 9-10 days
20. Shape of Leucocytes…?

(a) Biconcave (b) Regular
(c) Irregular (d) disc like
21. Which of the following is the life span of RBCs…?

(a) 120 days (b) 140 days
(c) 160 days (d) 180 days
22. 13 – 20 days life span is in which of the following…?

(a) Leucocytes (b) Erythrocytes
(c) Platelets (d) All of above
23. Spleen is related to which of the following…?

(a) RBCs (b) WBCs
22
24. Which of the following is a nucleated…?
(a) Fragments (b) Erythrocytes
(c) Leucocytes (d) Platelets
25. Which of the following not have a biconcave shape…?

(a) Leucocytes (b) Platelets
(c) Erythrocytes (d) Both a & b
26. 5-5.5 millions/ mm3 refer to which of the following…?

(c) Platelets (d) none of them
27. Count of leucocytes is…?

(a) 3000 – 6000/mm3 (b) 4000 – 7000/mm3
(c) 6000 – 8000/mm3 (d) 7000 – 9000/mm3
28. 150,000 – 450,000/ mm3 refer to which of the following…?

(c) Platelets (d) Plasma
29. Red color of RBCs is due to which of the following…?

(a) Hemoglobin (b) Plasma
(c) Bilirubin (d) Pigment
30. Why leucocytes are white in color…?

(a) Due to lack of O2 (b) Due to lack of CO2
(c) Due to lack of Hb (d) Due to lack of H20
31. Erythrocytes have which of the following type…?

(a) One (b) Granulocytes
(c) A granulocytes (d) All of these
32. The average volume of blood is approximately…?

(a) 5 liters (b) 7 liters
(c) 9 liters (d) 10 liters
33. In new born baby, the volume is approximately…?

(a) 420 ml (b) 430 ml
(c) 440 ml (d) 450 ml
34. Which of the following contain 4.5 liters Blood volume…?

(a) Male (b) Female
(c) New Born (d) All of these
35. Blood is slightly alkaline and its pH in normal condition is…?

(a) 7.4 (b) 7.5
(c) 7.7 (d) 7.9
23
36. How many times blood is more viscous than water…?
(a) 3-times (b) 5-times
(c) 7-times (d) 9-times
37. Which of the following related to male…?

(a) 2.4 million/cumm (b) 3.4 million/cumm
(c) 4.4 million/cumm (d) 5.4 million/cumm
38. Which of the following not have this ratio 6.0 million/ cumm…?
(a) Male (b) female
(c) Animals (d) All of these
39. Mature RBCs do not contain mitochondria and_______ …?

(a) Nucleus (b) Cytoplasm
(c) Ribosome’s (d) Golgi body
40. Water = 65% belong to which of the following…?

(a) Carbohydrates (b) Lipids
(c) Blood (d) Proteins
41. For energy RBCs depend upon…?

(a) Plasma Glucose (b) Glucose
(c) Both a & b (d) None of these
42. Up to the age of ________ year all bones produces RBCs…?

(a) Two (b) Three
(b) Four (d) Five
43. After the age of bone marrow of long bones does not produce RBCs…?
(a) Ten (b) Twenty
(c) Thirty (d) Forty
44. After the age of 25years RBCs are mostly produced in the marrow of ______ …?
(a) Membranous bones (b) Non-Membranous bones
45. Which Vitamin is essential for DNA synthesis…?

(a) Vitamin B2 (b) Vitamin B6
(c) Vitamin B12 (d) All of them
46. In 24 hours how much variations occur in RBCs…?

(a) 3 % (b) 5 %
(c) 7 % (d) 9 %
47. RBCs help to maintain _________ balance by buffering action…?

(a) Acid base (b) Water
(c) Minerals (d) All of above
24
48. 4% heme and globin 96% relates to which of the following…?
(a) Water (b) Hemoglobin
(c) Hb (d) Both b & c
49. SOB stands for…?

(a) Shortness of breath (b) Supply of blood
(c) Surgery of Body (d) Surgery of Brain
50. Which anemia is treated with hydroxyl - cobalamin 1000 micrograms intra-muscular…?
(a) Pernicious (b) Aplastic
(c) Megaloblastic (d) Hemolytic
51. Which anemia is treated by giving daily dose of 5mg of folic acid orally…?
(a) Pernicious (b) Aplastic
(c) Folic Acid (d) Iron deficiency
52. ESR stands for…?

(a) Erythrocytes Sedimentation Rate (b) End Stage Renal Disease
53. Blood is type of which tissue…?

(a) Epithelial Tissue (b) Muscular Tissue
(c) Nervous Tissue (d) None of them
54. Composition of blood is…?

(a) Cellular part (b) formed elements
(c) Plasma (d) All of above
55. What is the ratio of formed elements in blood…?

(a) 40 % (b) 45 %
(c) 50 % (d) 55 %
56. Cellular part contains which of the following…?

(a) RBCs (b) WBCs
(c) Plasma (d) Both a & b
57. What is the composition of non cellular part…?

(a) 45% (b) 50 %
(c) 55 % (d) 60 %
58. What is the percentage of fluid part in plasma…?

(a) Water 91 % (b) 91 %
(c) Water 9 % (d) 9 %
59. % age of Albumin in organic substances is…?

(a) 4.5 to 5 % (b) 4.5 to 5.5 %
(c) 4.5 to 5.8 % (d) 4.5 to 5.9 %
25
60. 0.1 % in organic substances of blood relates to which of the following…?
(a) Fibrinogen (b) Globulin
(c) Pro thrombin (d) none of them
61. Globulin refers to which of the following…?

(a) 1 to 2 % (b) 1 to 3 %
(c) 2 to 3 % (d) 1.3 to 2 %
62. Albumin works in which of the following…?

(a) To decrease the water in abdomen (b) To Increase the water in abdomen
(c) To normalize the water ratio in abdomen (d) .Both a & c
63. Pro thrombin involves in…?

(a) Blood clotting (b) Blood thinning
64. Which of the following is a non - protein nitrogenous substance…?

(a) Albumin (b) Urea
(c) Globulin (d) Glucose
65. Which of the following is not a non-protein nitrogenous substance…?

(a) Phospholipids (b) Ammonia
(c) Fibrinogen (d) Pro thrombin
66. Non- nitrogenous substances refer to…?

(a) Glucose (b) Galactose
(c) Cholesterol (d) All of above
67. Which of the following is an enzyme…?

(a) Amylase (b) Bilirubin
(c) Lipase (d) Both a & c
68. Which of the following refers to inorganic substances…?

(a) Glucose (b) SGPT
(c) Potassium (d) Amino acids
69. Creatinine indicates to what…?

(a) Stomach (b) Kidney
(c) Liver (d) Intestine
70. Origin of Erythrocytes…?

(a) Red Bone marrow (b) Lymph nodes
(c) Spleen (d) Karyotes
71. Spleen refers to…?

(a) RBCs (b) WBCs
26
72. After how many days platelets destroyed…?
(a) 120 days (b) 10 to 20 days
(c) 13 to 20 days (d) 5 to 9 days
73. 13 to 20 days indicates what…?

(a) RBCs (b) WBCs
(c) Leucocytes (d) Both b & c
74. Shape of RBCs…?

(a) Biconcave (b) Regular
(c) Irregular (d) Spherical
75. Role of Platelets is in…?

(a) Clotting the blood (b) Thinning the blood
(c) Blood Sugar level (d) Blood pressure
76. RBCs are in red color due to the…?

(a) Presence of Hb (b) Absence of Hb
(c) Lack of Hb (d) none of them
77. Hb stands for…?

(a) Hemoglobin (b) High blood Level
(c) Heavy breathing (d) High blood Glucose
78. Color of Platelets is…?

(a) Red (b) Purple
(c) White (d) Pink
79. How many types of leucocytes we have…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
80. What is ratio of Hormones, Nutrients and Electrolytes in blood…?

(a) 1 % (b) 2 %
(c) 3 % (d) 4 %
81. Average volume of blood is…?

(a) 3 liters (b) 4 liters
(c) 5 liters (d) 6 liters
82. Why blood volume is less in females as compare to male…?

(a) Due to Thin Blood Vessels (b) Due to Gender difference
83. Blood is more viscous as compare to water b/c it contains…?

(a) RBCs (b) Plasma Proteins
27
84. Count of RBCs in male is…?
(a) 5.4 million/cumm (b) 5.5 million/cumm
(c) 5.7 million/cumm (d) 5.8 million/cumm
85. Mature RBCs contains what…?

(a) Mitochondria (b) Nucleus
(c) Hemoglobin (d) All of above
86. In neonates life span of RBCs is…?

(a) 50 to 70 days (b) 70 to 90 days
(c) 90 to 100 days (d) 120 days
87. From which source RBCs get energy for their self…?
(a) Blood Plasma (b) Mitochondria
(c) Cytoplasm (d) Plasma Glucose
88. In 1st trimester what is the production point of RBCs…?

(a) Yolk sac (b) Lymph nodes
(c) Spleen (d) Bone marrow
89. After the age of 20 which bones are not involved in the RBCs production…?
(a) Short Bones (b) Long Bones
(c) Both b & d (d) Femur
90. Which vitamin is essential for DNA synthesis in a sense of erythropoises…?

(a) Vitamin B1 (b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin D
91. Which organ releases the Erythropoietin…?

(a) Brain (b) Intestine
(c) Liver (d) Kidneys
92. (5 % variations in RBCs occur in how many times)…?

(a) 10 hours (b) 120 days
(c) 24 hours (d) 24 days
93. What is the effect on RBCs count when we have low O2…?
(a) Count Increases (b) Count decreases
(c) Count Normalize (d) Both B & C
94. Repeated X-Ray decrease ___________ production…?

(a) RBCs (b) WBCs
(c) Platelets (d) Leucocytes
95. H2O + CO2 → H2CO3 → H+ complete this…?

(a) + HCO2 (b) + HCO
(c) H3CO (d) + HCO3
28
96. RBCs help to maintain acid base balance by their…?
(a) Acid Action (b) Buffer Action
(c) Alkaline Action (d) Basic Action
97. Which part of blood helps to maintain their viscosity…?

(a) Platelets (b) WBCs
(c) RBCs (d) Lymphocytes
98. What is the composition of Hb…?

(a) Heme (b) Globins
(c) Proteins (d) All of above
99. Normal Hb level in females…?

(a) 12 to 14 gm/100ml (b) 14 to 16 gm/ 100ml
(c) 9 to 10 gm/ 100ml (d) none of them
100. Circulation of RBCs depends on which of the following…?

(a) RBCs Count (b) WBCs Count
(c) Plasma Count (d) Platelets Count
101. Is it true that any conditions or factors that increase or decrease the RBCs count will affect
the hemoglobin concentration…?
(a) Yes (b) No
102. ________ are necessary for the synthesis of globin part of hemoglobin:
(a) Heme (b) Water
(c) Proteins (d) All of above
103. ____________ is essential for hemoglobin synthesis…?

(a) Metals (b) Fe
104. Vitamin B12 and ______ are necessary for hemoglobin synthesis…?
(a) A (b) C
(c) E (d) D
105. Bilirubin refers to which of the following…?

(a) Pigmentations (b) Metals
(c) Vitamins (d) All of above
106. Due to the _______fraction blood acts as a strong buffer…?

(a) Globin (b) Heme
107. Different pigments of bile, stool, urine etc are formed from…?
(a) Hemoglobin (b) Platelets
(c) Creatinine (d) e-GFR
29
108. What is name of hemoglobin when it combines with O2…?
(a) De-oxy hemoglobin (b) Oxy- hemoglobin
(c) Heme with O2 (d) Both a & c
109. Decreased level of Hb% in the blood…?

(a) Hypoxia (b) Anemia
(c) Aplastic Anemia (d) Both a & c
110. Symptoms of Anemia included…?

(a) Palpitations (b) Rapid Heart Rate
(c) Both a & b (d) No one
111. Larger size of Spleen is called…?

(a) Hyper-Spleenism (b) Splenomegaly
112. How many types of diseases or infections we have…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
113. What is meant by Acute Anemia…?

(a) Loss of RBCs (b) Recent Anemia
114. Anemia in Malignancy is a type of which anemia…?

(a) Acute Anemia (b) Pernicious Anemia
(c) Both a & b (d) Chronic Anemia
115. Increase destruction of RBCs indicates what…?

(a) Hemolytic Anemia (b) Aplastic Anemia
(c) Megaloblastic Anemia (d) All of above
116. Anemia due to renal failure called…?

(a) Paired red cell production (b) Impaired red cell production
(c) Proper red cell production (d) both a & c
117. Defective Hb synthesis relates to which of the following…?

(a) Megaloblastic anemia (b) Iron deficiency anemia
(c) Thalassemia (d) Both b & c
118. HBs relates to which of the following…?

(a) Abnormal form of Hb (b) Sickle Cell Anemia
119. The lack of functioning of bone marrow indicated which Anemia…?

(a) Iron Deficiency (b) Aplastic
(c) Sickle Cell (d) All of above
30
120. Congenital deformities are refers to as…?
(a) From Birth (b) To Acquired
(c) Radiations (d) No one
121. Which of the following drug belongs to Aplastic Anemia…?

(a) Paracetamol (b) Ibuprofen
(c) Methotrexate (d) Aspirin
122. How low socioeconomic and educational status can cause Anemia…?
(a) To make someone depressive (b) To make someone hyper active
(c) Can Cause depression (d) .Both a & c
123. Clinical feature included what…?

(a) No Symptoms (b) Symptoms
(c) Signs of Diseases (d) Both b & c
124. Epitaxsis mean…?

(a) Bleeding from Ear (b) Bleeding from Nose
(c) Bleeding from eye (d) oral bleeding
125. Thrombocytopenia refers to as…?

(a) Low RBCs (b) Low WBCs
(c) Low Platelets (d) Low Plasma
126. Which drug category we use in Aplastic Anemia…?

(a) NASAIDS (b) Anti-Biotic
(c) Anti- Pyretic (d) Anti- Inflammatory
127. How we can treat Aplastic Anemia…?

(a) By bone marrow transplantation (b) Regular RBCs conc. transfusion
(c) Platelets transfusion (d) All of above
128. In which type of Anemia RBCs are larger in size…?

(a) Sickle Cell (b) Megaloblastic
(c) Pernicious (d) All of above
129. How many types of Megaloblastic anemia we have…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
130. Vitamin B12 deficiency Anemia relates to which…?

(a) Inadequate intake of diet (b) Impaired absorption
131. Intrinsic factor is found in which of the following body organ…?

(a) Liver (b) Stomach
(c) Kidney (d) Intestine
31
132. Gastrectomy indicates what…?
(a) Partial Stomach Surgery (b) Complete Stomach Surgery
(c) Both a & b (d) Complete Spleen Surgery
133. Congenital absence of intrinsic factor means…?

(a) Defect from any factor (b) Defect from Birth
(c) Defect by Drug (d) Defect by Food
134. Disorder of the terminal ileum belongs to which of the following…?

(a) Tropical Sprue (b) Non- Tropical Sprue
(c) Regional Enteritis (d) All of above
135. Regional Enteritis means…?

(a) Inflammation of Liver (b) Inflammation of Intestine
(c) Inflammation of Spleen (d) Inflammation of Kidney
136. Neoplasm indicates what…?

(a) Abnormal Mass (b) Abnormal Growth
(c) Normal Growth (d) Both a & b
137. Granulomatous disorder means…?

(a) Damage Immune System (b) Damage RBCs
(c) Damage WBCs (d) Damage the Tissues
138. When fish tape worm infestation occurs…?

(a) By eating raw fish (b) By eating cooked fish
139. Can old age have an impact on folic acid deficiency anemia…?
(a) Yes (d) No
140. Which drug category is involved in Megaloblastic anemia…?

(a) Barbiturates (b) Benzodiazepine
(c) NASAIDS (d) Steroids
141. Hematopoiesis is a state of producing new…?

(a) Blood cells (b) Bones
(c) Tissues (d) Muscles
142. Mercaptopurine belongs to which of the following drug category…?

(a) Anti Cancer (b) Anti Diabetics
(c) Anti Emetics (d) Anti fungal
143. Atrophy of gastric mucosa relates to which of the following…?

(a) Pernicious Anemia (b) Aplastic Anemia
(c) Sickle Cell Anemia (d) Hemolytic Anemia
144. Disturbance of Gastric mucosa leads to which of the following…?

(a) Failure of intrinsic factor production (b) Failure of Tissues
(a) Failure of Muscles (d) Failure of Multiple Organs
32
145. Vitamin B12 relates to which of the following…?
(a) Intrinsic factor (b) Acquire factor
(c) Disease (d) Syndrome
146. Atrophy means…?

(a) Degeneration of cells (b) Degeneration of tissues
(c) Degeneration of Muscles (d) Degeneration of Bones
147. Gastric mucosa refers to as…?

(a) Stomach (b) Liver
(c) Spleen (d) Kidney
148. Folate means…?

(a) Iron (b) Folic acid
(c) Zinc (d) Vitamins
149. Dyspnea means…?

(a) SOB (b) COD
(c) DOB (d) No one
150. Syncope means…?

(a) Consciousness (b) un conscious
(c) Loss of consciousness (d) Both b & c
151. What is the color of skin in pernicious anemia…?

(a) Red (b) Pale
(c) White (d) No one
152. What is the condition of tongue in pernicious anemia…?

(a) Atrophic (b) Smooth
(c) Inflamed (d) All of above
153. Pernicious anemia is treated with which one of the following…?

(a) Cobalamin (b) Hydroxy-cobalamin
(c) Vitamins (d) folic acid
154. Which one of the starting dose of pernicious anemia…?

(a) 1000 mg IM (b) 1000 mg IV
(c) 3000 mg IM (d) 4000 mg IM
155. Maximum dose of Hydroxy-cobalamin is…?

(a) 4000 (b) 5000
(c) 6000 (d) 7000
156. When Hydroxy- cobalamin is necessary for the rest of patient life…?
(a) Every three month (b) Every four month
(c) Every Five month (d) every Six month
33
157. Which factor is needed for the absorption of Vitamin B12…?
(a) Acquired (b) Disease
(c) Intrinsic (d) Drug
158. What is the role of Spleen…?

(a) Filtration (b) Production
(c) Distribution (d) Both a & b
159. Process of settling down of RBCs from the specimen called…?

(a) Sedimentation (b) Sedimentation Rate
(c) ESR (d) Rouleaux form
160. RBCs settle because they are heavier than…?

(a) WBCs (b) Water
(c) Plasma (d) All of above
161. Increased rouleaux formation refers to…?

(a) Increased WBCs (b) Increased ESR
(c) Increased RBCs (d) Increased Plasma
162. Normal values of E.S.R in the first hour as Wintrobes method are…?
(a) 0 – 10 mm & 0 – 15 mm M & F (b) 0 – 20 mm & 10 – 20 mm M& F
(c) 5 – 10 mm & 10 – 15 mm M & F (d) 0 – 10 mm & 15 – 20 mm M& F
163. On which Temperature E.S.R will be increased…?

(a) Above 5oC (b) Above 10oC
(c) Above 15oC (d) Above 20oC
164. In pregnancy the E.S.R is about ____ mm in (1st hour)…?

(a) 25 (b) 35
(c) 45 (d) 55
165. ESR reaches to normal level at _____ weeks after delivery…?

(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 - 4 (d) 4 – 5
166. Acute and chronic infections will _____ the ESR…?

(a) Increased (b) Decreased
(c) Fluctuate (d) Slow down
167. Which Anemia does not increased the ESR level…?

(a) HB- S (b) Aplastic
(c) Sickle Cell (d) Both a & c
168. In which of the following conditions E.S.R will be decreased…?

(a) Old Age (b) Polycythemia
(c) Malignancy (d) Burns
169. E.S.R helps us in the diagnosis of disorders and infections…?

(a) Yes (b) No
34
170. E.S.R helps us in prognostic point of view whether medicine is effective or not…?
(a) Yes (b) No
171. Which body cells we can consider the mobile unit of body…?
(a) RBCs (b) WBCs
(c) Platelets (d) Plasma
172. Defender cells of body…?

(a) RBCs (b) Plasma cells
(d) Both a & b (d) WBCs
173. WBCs are of how many types…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
174. How many types of granulocytes we have…?

(a) Three (b) Four
(c) Five (d) Six
175. Lymphocytes and Monocytes are refers to which one of the following…?
(a) Granular leukocytes (b) A granular leukocytes
176. _______ are developing from red bone marrow…?

(a) Granular leukocytes (b) Granulocyte
(c) Both a & b (d) A granulocytes
177. ________ are rich in nucleoproteins…?

(a) RBCs (b) WBCs
178. Life span of WBCs _______ hours in circulating blood…?

(a) 4 – 5 days (b) 4 – 8 days
(c) 4 – 5 hours (d) 4 – 8 hours
179. Which of the following cells remain in the body as per need…?
(a) Lymphocytes (b) Monocytes
(c) Esinophils (d) Basophils
180. Scaling and Fischer in the corner of lips…?

(a) Cheilosis (b) Epistaxis
(c) Both a & b (d) scurvy
181. Mal-absorption due to…?

(a) Achlorhydria (b) Streatorrhoea
(c) Dyspnea (d) Both a & b
182. Metabolic defect in RBCs membrane called…?

(a) Spherocytosis (b) Hemolytic
(c) Cheilosis (d) Epitasis
35
183. Haematuria indicates what in Urine…?
(a) Blood (b) Feces
(c) Stool (d) All of above
184. Blood coagulation is conversion of fibrinogen into…?

(a) Thrombin (b) Fibrin
(c) Both a & b (d) Granules
185. Half life of pro thrombin is…?

(a) 2days (b) 3days
(c) 4 days (d) 5 days
186. Genotype “00” produces ________ with 0 blood groups…?

(a) Agglutination (b) Granulation
(c) A Granulation (d) All of above
187. If father blood group is AA and mother blood group is AB than baby blood group is…?
(a) AB (b) B
(c) A & AB (d) B & AB
188. In delay transfusion Rh positive transfused to…?

(a) Rh Positive (b) Rh Negative
Chapter # 3 Keys:
1 a 41 a 81 c 121 c 161 b
2 c 42 d 82 a 122 d 162 a
3 b 43 b 83 c 123 d 163 d
4 a 44 a 84 a 124 b 164 b
5 c 45 c 85 c 125 c 165 c
6 a 46 b 86 b 126 b 166 a
7 d 47 a 87 d 127 d 167 d
8 b 48 d 88 a 128 b 168 b
9 a 49 a 89 c 129 b 169 a
10 a 50 a 90 b 130 c 170 a
11 b 51 c 91 d 131 b 171 b
12 d 52 c 92 c 132 c 172 d
13 a 53 d 93 a 133 b 173 b
14 a 54 d 94 a 134 d 174 a
15 a 55 b 95 d 135 b 175 b
16 d 56 d 96 b 136 d 176 c
17 d 57 c 97 c 137 a 177 b
18 b 58 a 98 d 138 a 178 d
19 a 59 b 99 a 139 a 179 a
20 c 60 c 100 a 140 a 180 a
21 a 61 d 101 a 141 a 181 d
22 a 62 d 102 c 142 a 182 a
23 b 63 a 103 c 143 a 183 a
24 c 64 b 104 b 144 a 184 b
25 d 65 a 105 a 145 a 185 b
26 a 66 d 106 a 146 a 186 a
27 c 67 d 107 a 147 a 187 c
36
28 c 68 c 108 b 148 b 188 b
29 a 69 b 109 b 149 a
30 c 70 a 110 c 150 d
31 a 71 b 111 b 151 b
32 a 72 d 112 b 152 d
33 d 73 d 113 b 153 b
34 b 74 a 114 d 154 a
35 a 75 a 115 a 155 c
36 b 76 a 116 b 156 a
37 d 77 a 117 d 157 c
38 d 78 b 118 c 158 d
39 a 79 b 119 b 159 a
40 c 80 b 120 a 160 c
37
CH # 4:
1. Smaller branches of arteries are…?
(a) Arterioles (b) Capillaries
(c) Veins (d) Venules
2. Cardiac muscles are…?

(a) Voluntary (b) Involuntary
3. Transfer of cardiac impulse from SA node to…?

(a) AV node (b) Cardiac Muscles
(c) Ventral Muscles (d) Both a & b
4. Already excited muscles cannot re excite called…?

(a) Cardiac Rhythm (b) Refractory Period
(c) Voluntary Period (d) None
5. Cardiac cycle is initiated by action potential produce in…?

(a) SA node (b) SV node
(c) AV node (d) both b & c
6. Cardiac cycle time period is…?

(a) 0.5 sec (b) 0.6 sec
(c) 0.7 sec (d) 0.8 sec
7. Ventricular systole period time is…?

(a) 0.495 sec (b) 0.303 sec
(c) 0.696 sec (d) 0.796 sec
8. 1st heart sound is “LUB” is produce due to…?

(a) Ventricular systole (b) Ventricular dia systole
(c) Atrial Systole (d) None
9. Closure of semi lunar valve sound is called…?

(a) LUB (b) DUB
10. Murmurs are excessive degree of turbulence in…?

(a) Heart chambers (b) Heart Valves
(c) Blood flow (d) Both a & c
11. When depolarization moves toward positive electrode which deflection occur…?
(a) Upwards (b) Downwards
(c) Remain Normal (d) All
38
12. Amplitude of P wave is…?
(a) 1mm (b) 2mm
(c) 3mm (d) 4mm
13. In P Wave the voltage value is…?

(a) 0.1-0.1Mv (b) 0.1-0.2Mv
(c) 0.1-0.3Mv (d) 0.1-0.4Mv
14. Duration of QRS interval is…?

(a) 0.11second (b) 0.12second
(c) 0.13second (d) 0.14second
15. Voltage value of T wave is…?

(a) 0.2-0.3mv (b) 0.3-0.4mv
(c) 0.4-0.5mv (d) 0.5-0.6mv
16. Slow re polarization after T wave occur is…?

(a) U wave (b) T wave
(c) R wave (d) QRS wave
17. What is the duration of waves from SA node to ventricles is…?

(a) 0.12-0.20sec (b) 0.12-0.30sec
(c) 0.12-0.40sec (d) 0.12-0.50sec
18. What is the duration of ST interval is…?

(a) 0.10sec (b) 0.20sec
(c) 0.30sec (d) 0.40sec
19. What is value of systolic blood pressure…?

(a) 80mmHg (b) 120mmHg
(c) 140mmHg (d) 160mmHg
20. Blood pressure is measured by…?

(a) Sphygmometer (b) Viscometer
(c) Gluco-meter (d) manometer
21. During sleep blood pressure is…?

(a) Increases (b) Normal
(c) Decrease (d) Irregular
22. High Blood pressure considers as…?

(a) 120 mmHg (b) 130 mmHg
(c) 140 mmHg (d) 150 mmHg
23. Excitement and emotion increase which blood pressure…?

(a) Systolic (b) Diastolic
39
24. Blood pressure = Cardiac output…?
(a) Peripheral Resistance (b) Ventricular Resistance
(c) Cardiac resistance (d) Systolic Resistance
25. Cardiac output = Stoke volume…?

(a) Blood pressure (b) Ventricular Resistance
(c) Heart Rate (d) All
26. In hypertensive crisis diastolic blood pressure is…?

(a) 160mmHg (b) 150-169mmHg
(c) >110mmHg (d) >140mmHg
27. Pulse rate is no of times of heart beat per…?

(a) Second (b) Min
(c) Hour (d) Day
28. In hemorrhage the word “rhegnumai” means…?

(a) Break forth (b) Break down
(c) Break forcefully (d) All
29. A healthy person can endure the loss of blood is…?

(a) 0 – 10 % (b) 5 – 10%
(c) 10 – 15% (d) 15 – 20%
30. Layers of arteries of tunica…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
Chapter # 4 Keys:
1 c 11 a 21 c
2 a 12 b 22 c
3 b 13 c 23 b
4 b 14 a 24 a
5 b 15 a 25 c
6 d 16 a 26 c
7 b 17 a 27 b
8 a 18 d 28 a
9 b 19 b 29 c
10 d 20 a 30 c
40
CH # 5:
1. Pulmonary ventilation occurs due to _______ gradient…?
(a) Pressure (b) Liquid
(c) Volume (d) No one
2. Principle inspiration muscles are…?

(a) Scalene (b) Sternocleidomastoid
(c) Sterno (d) Both a & b None
3. During inspiration what is the intra-alveolar pressure…?

(a) Decrease (b) Increases
(c) Normal (d) Irregular
4. Muscles of expiration are included __________...?

(a) Internal intercostal (b) Rectus abdominis
(c) Internal costal (d) Both a & b
5. Alveolar pressure in expiration increase from 760mmHg to ___________...?

6. What is the value of tidal volume…?

(a) 300 ml (b) 500 ml
(c) 700 ml (d) 900 ml
7. Residual volume of air is still remaining in the lungs after…?

(a) Inspiration (b) Respiration
(c) Expiration (d) All
8. What is the value of expiratory reserve volume…?

(a) 1000 ml (b) 1100 ml
(c) 1300 ml (d) 1500 ml
9. Total inspiration capacity is the sum of inspiration reserve and________...?

(a) Residual capacity (b) Vital Capacity
(c) Tidal Volume (d) Sum Volume
10. What is the value of vital capacity…?

(a) 1600 ml (b) 2600 ml
(c) 3600 ml (d) 4600 ml
11. What is the total lung capacity…?

(a) Tidal Volume (b) Reserve volume
41
12. The volume of air during first second of force expulsion after maximum inspiration…?
(a) Tidal Volume (b) FEV1
(c) EFV1 (d) Lung Capacity
13. Physiological variation IN FEMALE is less than male…?

(a) 20 % (b) 30 %
(c) 40 % (d) 50 %
14. What are the numbers of alveoli in lungs…?

(a) 250 million (b) 300 million
(c) 450 million (d) 500 million
15. Which of the following is the diameter of an alveolus…?

(a) 0.1mm (b) 0.01mm
(c) 0.2 mm (d) 0.02 mm
16. Average thickness of respiratory membrane refers to…?

(a) 0.6 um (b) 0.7 um
(c) 0.8 um (d) 0.9 um
17. Diffusion pressure from alveoli to blood refers to which…?

(a) 44 mmHg (b) 54 mmHg
(c) 64 mmHg (d) 74 mmHg
18. Partial pressure of O2 in the arterial end of the capillaries is ___ mmHg…?
(a) 95 (b) 105
(c) 115 (d) 125
19. The partial pressure of O2 in interstitial fluid is _____mm Hg…?

(a) 30 (b) 40
(c) 50 (d) 60
20. Oxygen pressure in cell is…?

21. What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in interstitial fluid…?

22. Oxygen diffusion more than nitrogen for how many times…?
(a) 2 times (b) 3 times
(c) 4 times (d) 5 times
23. (97% oxygen carried from lungs through _____) …?

(a) Hemoglobin (b) WBCs
(c) RBCs (d) Salt
42
24. Each 100ml of deoxygenated blood contain how much carbon dioxide…?
(a) 2 ml (b) 4 ml
(c) 6 ml (d) 8 ml
25. What is the amount of carbon dioxide combine with globin…?

(a) 13 % (b) 20 %
(c) 23 % (d) 30 %
26. What is the pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood is…?

(a) 45 mm (b) 55 mm
(c) 66 mm (d) 95 mm
27. The pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial and venous blood is…?
(a) 0.1 ml (b) 0.2 ml
(c) 0.25 ml (d) 0.3 ml
28. Combination of carbon dioxide with hemoglobin is formed…?

(a) Carb amino hemoglobin (b) Oxy hemoglobin
(c) De-oxy hemoglobin (d) All of above
29. The dorsal respiratory group of neuron is located bilaterally in_______...?

(a) Medulla Oblongata (b) Pons
(c) Upper Pons (d) Stem
30. During normal respiration the ventral part is…?

(a) Activated (b) In active
(c) Effected (d) No effect
31. Pneumo toxic center is situated dorsally…?

(a) Medulla oblongata (b) Pons
(c) Brain Stem (d) Spinal Cord
32. The strongest inspiration lasts for____________ …?

(a) 0.01 sec (b) 0.02 sec
(c) 0.5 sec (d) 0.05 sec
33. In expiration the quantity of heat loss is_______...?

(a) More (b) Less
(c) Regular (d) Irregular
34. During the venous return the intra thoracic pressure is related to intra abdominal pressure…?
(a) Increase (b) Decreases
(c) Affective (d) Non Affective
43
Chapter # 5 Keys:
1 a 8 b 15 c 22 a 29 a
2 d 9 c 16 a 23 a 30 b
3 a 10 d 17 c 24 b 31 b
4 d 11 c 18 a 25 c 32 c
5 a 12 b 19 b 26 a 33 a
6 b 13 a 20 c 27 d 34 a
7 c 14 b 21 d 28 a
44
CH # 6:
1. Vital, diverse, complex, and extensive most important organs of body refer to…?
(a) Skin (b) Kidney
(c) Liver (d) Stomach
2. How many types of skin covering we have…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
3. Superficial layer is called…?

(a) Epidermis (b) Dermis
(c) Hypodermis (d) none of them
4. Which layer separates the skin from muscle of the body wall that lie beneath…?
(a) Epidermis (b) Hypodermis
(c) Dermis (d) All of above
5. Which of the following layers of the skin is the body frontier to the outside world protecting the
living tissue within from the ravages of the environment…?
(a) Epidermis (b) Dermis
(c) Hypodermis (d) hyper dermis
6. Epidermis contains how many types of cells…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
7. Which of the following cells belongs to epidermis…?

(a) Keratinocytes (b) Melanocytes
(c) Langerhans Cells (d) All
8. ______ is some time called the True Skin…?

(a) Conium (b) Dermis
9. Which layer binds epidermis to the hypodermis…?

(a) Conium (b) Dermis
10. Papillary layer of dermis is a type of…?

(a) Thin layer (b) Thick layer
(c) Long layer (d) Short layer
11. Thick layer of epidermis refers to as…?

(a) Papillary (b) Reticular
(c) Auxiliary (d) All
45
12. 4 mm thickness of dermis refers to which of the following…?
(a) Soles (b) Palms
(c) Hands (d) All
13. The mechanical strength of the skin is in_____...?

(a) Dermis (b) Hypodermis
(c) Both a & b (d) Epidermis
14. Sweating is the production of moisture by the ______ glands…?

(a) Pituitary (b) Thyroid
(c) Sweat (d) Parathyroid
15. ___________ Glands excretes oil to lubricate and maintain the health of the skin…?
(a) Sebaceous (b) Pituitary
(c) Thyroid (d) No one
16. ____________is the process by which the sweat glands excrete waste materials…?
(a) Perspiration (b) Respiration
(c) Inspiration (d) Expiration
17. ____ending in the skin allows us to feel heat cold touch pleasure pressure and pain…?
(a) Bone (b) Tissue
(c) Nerve (d) Skin
18. The skin produces Vitamin ____in the presence of sunlight…?

(a) D (b) C
(c) B (d) A
19. ____________% or more of this transfer of heat occurs through the skin…?
(a) 70 (b) 80
(c) 90 (d) 100
20. Which of the following refers to heat loss…?

(a) Evaporation (b) Distillation
(c) Crystallization (d) All
21. Granular layer of skin is also called…?

(a) Stratum granulosum (b) stratum corneum
(c) Stratum spinosum (d) All of above
22. Dermis is sometime called as______...?

(a) False Skin (b) Reticular skin
(c) Dead Skin (d) True Skin
23. What is the role of sebaceous gland…?

(a) Excitation (b) Secretion
(c) Respiration (d) Inspiration
46
24. (80% of heat transfer through which organ__________)…?
(a) Hairs (b) Glands
(c) Skin (d) Head
25. Elastic covering of the skin is thinnest on…?

(a) Eyelids, palms (b) Lips, soles
(c) Eyelids, lips (d) Palm, soles
26. Superficial layer of skin is called…?

(a) Epididymis (b) epidermis
(c) Dermis (d) hypodermis
27. Elastic layer of skin is thickest on…?

(a) Eyelids, palms (b) Lips, soles
(c) Eyelids, lips (d) Palm, soles
28. An under layer of fatty tissue separates skin from…. Of body wall beneath…?
(a) Sweat glands (b) Adipose tissue
(c) Muscle (d) arteriole
29. Epidermis contain …. Type of cells…?

(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
30. Which of the following is prickle cell layer of epidermis…?

(a) Stratum Granulosm (b) Stratum spinosm
(c) Basal (d) Stratum lucidum
31. ….. is called as true skin…?

(a) Dermis (b) Epidermis
(c) Hypodermis (d) Endodermis
32. Thicker layer of dermis is called…?

(a) Papillary (b) Sweat layer
(c) Reticular layer (d) Hypodermis
33. Stratum Germinativum is called as…?

(a) Basal layer (b) Prickle cell
(c) Horny layer (d) Granular layer
34. Thickness of dermis on palm and soles is…?

(a) 4mm (b) 3mm
(c) 8mm (d) 5mm
35. How many types of protein fibers are in dermis…?

(a) Three (b) Five
(c) Eight (d) Two
36. Skin regulates body temperature by…?

(a) Secretion (b) Excretion
(c) Sweating (d) Protection
47
37. ______glands excrete oil to lubricate and maintain health of skin…?
(a) Sebaceous gland (b) Sweat glands
(c) Adrenal glands (d) Pituitary glands
38. _____ Produces Vit. D in the presence of sunlight…?

(a) Liver (b) Intestine
(c) Skin (d) Kidney
39. _____% of heat is transferred through skin…?

(a) 50 (b) 80
(c) 60 (d) 70
40. Temperature receptors are in a part of brain called____ that detect temperature changes…?
(a) Cerebellum (b) Medulla oblongata
(c) Hypothalamus (d) Cerebrum
41. Dermis is a sheet of connective tissue that connects epidermis to…?

(a) Hypodermis (b) Dermis
(c) Epidermis (d) Endodermis
42. Thickness of dermis on eyelids is:

(a) 0.4mm (b) 0.5mm
(c) 0.6mm (d) 0.7mm
CH # keys 6:
1 a 19 b 37 A
2 b 20 a 38 C
3 a 21 a 39 B
4 c 22 d 40 C
5 a 23 b 41 A
6 d 24 c 42 B
7 d 25 C
8 c 26 C
9 c 27 D
10 a 28 c
11 b 29 c
12 d 30 b
13 a 31 a
14 a 32 c
15 a 33 a
16 a 34 a
17 c 35 d
18 a 36 c
48
CH # 7:
1. Swallowing is the passage of food from mouth to _______...?
(a) Intestine (b) Liver
(c) Stomach (d) Esophagus
2. Pharyngeal stage in swallowing is which of the following_______...?

(a) Voluntary (b) Involuntary
(c) Automatic (d) Both b & c
3. Duration of primary peristalsis is in standing position…?

(a) 5 – 8 sec (b) 5 – 8 hrs
(c) 6 – 8 sec (d) 6 – 8 hrs
4. Due to distension of esophagus by food retaining…?

(a) Peristalsis (b) Secondary Peristalsis
(c) Primary Peristalsis (d) All
5. Maximum food accommodation in stomach is__________...?

(a) 1.5 L (b) 2.5 L
(c) 3.5 L (d) 4.5 L
6. The mixing occurs due to electrical rhythm produce once in every…?

(a) 10 sec (b) 20 sec
(c) 30 sec (d) 40 sec
7. Velocity of small intestine movement is…?

(a) 0.5-1cm/sec (b) 2-3.5 cm/sec
(c) 4.5-6cm/sec (d) 4.6-6cm/sec
8. Time period required for traveling of chyme entire length of colon…?

(a) 35-45hr (b) 40-45hr
(c) 45-48hr (d) 48-60hr
9. Average carbohydrates intake concentration is_____________...?

(a) 380-800gm/day (b) 380-900gm/day
(c) 400-580gm/day (d) 500-670gm/day
10. Proteins digest by enzyme present in stomach to produce…?

(a) Amino acid (b) Lactic acid
(c) Polypeptide (d) Enzymes
11. What is the average ratio of daily fat intake is_________...?

(a) 25-160g (b) 25-140g
(c) 35-160g (d) 25-180g
49
12. (25-30% stomach fat is digested by which of the following enzymes)…?
(a) Amylase (b) Lipase
(c) Hydrogenise (d) Lactase
13. Micelles contain how many no of molecules…?

(a) 10-20 (b) 20-30
(c) 20-40 (d) 30-40
14. Major gland for saliva production refers to…?

(a) Sublingual (b) Mucoid
(c) Lingual (d) Both a & b
15. Which of the following is the pH of saliva is____________ …?

(a) Slight Acid (b) Base
(c) Neutral (d) Slight Base
16. Which of the following enzyme involve in the starch digestion…?

(a) Lipase (b) Ptylin
(c) Cellulose (d) No one
17. Deficiency of saliva called_________...?

(a) Deglutination (b) Xerostomia
18. Daily amount of gastric juice…?

(a) 2500 ml (b) 1300 ml
(c) 500 ml (d) 1000 ml
19. pH of pancreatic secretion is________...?

(a) 7.1-8.2 (b) 7.2-13
(c) 10-12 (d) 12 – 15
20. Bile juice store in which of the following organ…?

(a) Kidneys (b) Intestine
(c) Gall Bladder (d) Liver
21. Weight of liver is__________...?

(a) 1.5 kg (b) 2.5 kg
(c) 3 – 4 lb (d) Both a & c
22. Gallbladder holds how much bile concentrations…?

(a) 30-50ml (b) 30-60ml
(c) 30-70ml (d) 30-80ml
23. Mucosal folding of gallbladder is_________...?

(a) Stone (b) Rugae
(c) Serous (d) All above
50
CH # 7 Keys:
1 a 7 a 13 b 19 a
2 b 8 c 14 a 20 c
3 a 9 a 15 c 21 d
4 b 10 a 16 b 22 a
5 a 11 a 17 b 23 b
6 b 12 b 18 a
51
CH # 8:
1. Length of kidney is______...?
(a) 5 – 10 cm (b) 8 – 10 cm
(c) 10 – 13 cm (d) 15 – 20 cm
2. Juxta medullary nephrons are present ________in the kidney…?

(a) Upper side (b) Deep
(c) Center (d) On Side
3. Filtration phenomena occurs in________...?

(a) Large intestine (b) Loop of Henle
(c) Bowman’s capsule (d) Small Intestine
4. Volume of urine per day…?

(a) 1000-2000 ml (b) 1000-1500 ml
(c) 1000-3000 ml (d) 1000-4000 ml
5. Regulatory hormones of the urine are…?

(a) ADH (b) Pancreatic
(c) Growth (d) TSH
CH # 8 Keys:
1 c 2 B 3 c 4 a 5 a
52
CH # 9:
1. No of neurons in nervous system…?
(a) 10 million (b) 12 million
(c) 12 Trillion (d) 12 billion
2. If a fiber send impulses from CNS to periphery then it is called:

(a) Afferent (b) Efferent
(c) Portal (d) Cranial
3. Highly branched, cyto plasmic process of the nerve cell body is:
(a) Axon (b) Dendrites
(c) Soma (d) Perikaryon
4. The axon emerges from cell body at a region termed as:

(a) Axon hillock (b) Soma
(c) Axon Terminals (d) Dendrites
5. Retina of eye belongs to:

(a) Polar Neuron (b) Pseudo Polar Neurons
(b) Uni - polar Neurons (d) Bi polar neurons
6. Which of the following is an example of multi polar neurons:

(a) Amacrine cells of retina (b) Retina of eye
(c) Brain and spinal card (d) Inner ear
7. The types of neurons receive afferent fibers responsible for sensation is called:
(a) Motor neurons (b) Sensory neurons
(c) Receptor neurons (d) Both b & c
8. Muscle and glands contain… types of neurons:

(a) Sensory (b) Receptor
(c) Effectors (d) None of these
9. Muscle tissue consists of …% of total body weight:

(a) 20-30 (b) 40-50
(c) 30-40 (d) 50-60
10. …..is the types of cell present on muscle tissue:

(a) Melanocytes (b) keratinocytes
(c) Mono cytes (d) Myocytes
11. There are… forms of myocytes:

(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
53
12. Most of myofilaments are thin(Actin) type ranging from…..diameter:
(a) 3-5mm (b) 4-5mm
(c) 5-7 nm (d) 7-8mm
13. Ability of a muscle to stretch is called:

(a) Excitability (b) Elasticity
(c) Contractibility (d) Extensibility
14. Cardiac muscle are:

(a) Voluntary, Striated (b) Involuntary, Striated
(c) Involuntary, un-striated (d) .None of these
15. Diameter of Actin filament is_________...?

(a) 5-7 nm (b) 5-8 nm
(c) 5-9 nm (d) 5-10 nm
CH # 9 Keys:
1 c 4 a 7 b 10 d 13 d
2 b 5 d 8 c 11 b 14 b
3 b 6 c 9 b 12 c 15 a
54
CH # 10:
1. Cranial nerves have ….. Pairs…?
(a) 11 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 14
2. Nerve that emerges directly from brain…?

(a) Synapses (b) Cranial nerves
(c) Spinal nerves (d) GABA
3. Spinal nerves have ….pairs…?

(a) 31 (b) 32
(c) 33 (d) 12
4. Junctional point of contact between two neurons that transmit impulses…?

(a) Neurotransmitter (b) Cranial nerves
(c) Synapses (d) Spinal Nerves
5. Substances released from pre synaptic terminal into synaptic cleft called…?
(a) Neurotransmitter (b) Cranial nerves
(c) Synapses (d) Spinal Nerves
6. Which of the following is monoamine in nature…?

(a) Dopamine (b) Epinephrine
(c) Nor Epinephrine (d) All of above
7. …..affects learning, attention and emotion…?

(a) Ach (b) Dopamine
(c) GABA (d) Glutamate
8. Which of the following is a soluble gas…?

(a) Ach (b) Serotonin
(c) Nitric oxide (d) GABA
9. A major inhibitory neurotransmitter is…?

(a) GABA (b) Epinephrine
(c) Ach (d) Dopamine
10. …… is a clear, colorless transparent tissue fluid in cerebral vertices…?

(a) CSF (b) Lymph
(c) Cerebrospinal fluid (d) Both A and C
CH # 10 Keys:
1 c 3 a 5 a 7 b 9 a
2 b 4 c 6 d 8 c 10 d
55
CH # 11:
1. There are … types of special senses…?
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
2. The eye ball is … cm in diameter…?

(a) 2.1 (b) 2.2
(c) 2.3 (d) 2.5
3. Which of the following is a nervous layer…?

(a) Retina (b) Iris
(c) Cornea (d) Sclera
4. Which of the following is not a vascular layer…?

(a) Choroid (b) Ciliary body
(c) Iris (d) Cornea
5. ….. Situated in between iris and vitreous body…?

(a) Cornea (b) Lens
(c) Retina (d) Sclera
6. Ear is consist of … parts…?

(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
7. Content of ear is…?

(a) Ossicles (b) Muscle
(c) Ligaments (d) All of above
8. Taste is mediated by ….. .of tongue, mouth and pharynx…?

(a) Chemo Receptors (b) Thermo Receptors
(c) Baro Receptors (d) None of these
9. There are approx. …. Number of taste buds…?

(a) 100 (b) 1000
(c) 10000 (d) 500
10. Sense of smell is … times more sensitive than sense of taste…?

(a) 100 (b) 2000
(c) 10000 (d) 20000
11. Human beings can distinguish between ….. .different odors…?

(a) 100-200 (b) 100-2000
(c) 1000-2000 (d) 2000-4000
56
Chapter # 11 Keys:
1 b 4 d 7 D 10 d
2 d 5 b 8 A 11 d
3 a 6 c 9 C
57
Important Anatomy & Physiology Subjective Question:
Chapter # 1:
1. Explain all branches of anatomy in detail?
Chapter # 2:
1. Write down all terminologies of anatomy?
2. Explain Bone terminologies in detail?
3. Define Combined Terminologies in detail?
Chapter # 3:
1.Define Surface Anatomy?
2.Write down the overall parts name of human skeleton?
3.Explain over view of human skull?
4.Write down the parts name of Upper limb and Lower limb?
5.Write vertebral column in detail?
6.Name the bones involve in anatomy of pelvic region?
7.Write the complete organs name of Anatomy of digestive system along with the explanation of
Esophagus and Stomach?
8.Define Villi?
9.Explain Anatomy of respiratory system in detail?
10. Name the organs of Anatomy of urinary system with the explanation of kidney?
11. Define Nephron and parts name of Nephron?
12. Write down the complete organs name of Anatomy of Cardiovascular system and explain heart
and Aorta?
13. Describe Chamber and Valves of Heart?
14. Define the following:
 Testes
 Prostate Gland
 Scrotum
 Uterus
 Vagina
58
Physiology:
Chapter # 1 & 2:
1. Define the Following:
 Physiology
 Cell
 Cytoplasm
 Cell organelles
2. What is the structure of cell membrane and define functions of Rough Surface Endoplasmic and
Smooth Surface Endoplasmic Reticulum?
3. Difference b/w Ribosome and Golgi apparatus?
4. Write a note detail on mitochondria and nucleus?
5. Define tissue and also write a note on its types?
 Bone
 Bone Matrix
 Joints
7. Name the Types of Bones and Name the Types of Bone Cells?
8. Name the Different Types of Joints?
9. What is the difference between lymph and lymphatic System?
Chapter # 3:
1. Define blood with its composition?
2. What are the factors needed for erythropoises and Hb?
3. Define Megaloblastic anemia with its types?
4. Write Pernicious anemia is detail?
5. Clinical Symptoms and Treatment of Iron deficiency anemia?
6. Difference between hemolytic and Sickle Cell Anemia?
7. Define ESR with its diagnostic and prognostic point of view?
8. Write down the ABO system?
9. What is Rh Incompatibility?
Respiratory System:
1. Define Circulation with the difference of systemic and pulmonary circulation?
2. Difference between Inspiration and Expiration?
3. Define Tidal Volume and Vital Capacities?
4. Name the Physiological Variations of Vital Capacities?
5. Difference between Respiratory Membrane and Respiratory Unit?
6. Name the Layers of Respiratory Membrane?
7. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 Explain Briefly?
8. Name the Parts that are involved in Regulation of Respiration and also name its division?
59
Skin:
1. Name the Types and Functions of Skin?
Gastro Intestinal Tract:

1. What are different stages of Swallowing?
2. Define Peristalsis and Also Primary and Secondary Peristalsis?
3. Write a detail note on Function of Stomach?
4. Difference between Mixing and Propulsive Movements in Small and Large Intestine?
5. Explain the digestion of Carbohydrates in Stomach and Small Intestine?
6. Write a note on Digestion and Absorption of Fat?
7. What is the Formation of Chylo micron by Enterocytes?
8. Write the Value of Daily Secretion and Composition of Saliva?
9. Name the Functions of Saliva?
10. Name the glands which are involved in Gastric Secretions?
11. Name the Function of Gastric Juice?
12. What are Pancreatic Secretions with its daily amount?
13. What are the compositions of Bile Juice?
14. What is the laxative action of Bile Juice?
15. What is Location and Size of Liver with its function?
16. Describe the structure of Gall Bladder mention its function also?
Urinary System:
1. Define Urinary System with its complete organ names?
2. Define Urine with its composition?
3. How Urine is format in our body?
Nerve & Muscle:

 Nerve
 Structure of Neuron
 Cell Body
 Axon
 Dendrites
2. Name the Histological and Physiological Classification of Neuron?
3. Define Muscle along with forms of Myocytes?
4. Define Cardiac Muscles and Cardiac Muscle Fibers?
5. What is Sarcoplasm?
 Excitability
60
 Contractibility
 Extensibility
 Elasticity
Nervous System:
1.Draw a chart of classification of Nervous System?
2.Name the classification of CNS (Central Nervous System)?
3.Name the parts of Peripheral Nervous System?
4.Define Synapses with its classification?
5.Define Neurotransmitters with its types also mention receptors and CSF?
Special Senses:
1. Name all the Special Senses with the structure of Eye Ball?
2. What are the Different parts of Ear?
3. Write down the Mechanism of Hearing?
4. Define Taste with its primary sensations?
5. Mechanism of Stimulation of Taste Buds?
6. Describe the receptors of smell?
7. What is the mechanism of Odour?
Endocrinology:
1. Define the Following:
 Hormones
 Functions of Hormones
 Types of Hormones
a. Name the complete classification of Hormones based on the site of production?
b. Name the hormones based on chemical nature?
c. Explain the following:
 Growth Hormones
 Oxytocin
 Insulin
 Glucagon
61
Pharmaceutics
Pharmacopoeias
Pharmacy &
& History of
Drugs
Pharmacy
Weight & Surface Tension &

Measures Dosage form
Introduction &
Compounding,
Application of
Dispensing &
Various Process
TPN
in Pharmacy
Incompatability
62
Chapter # 1:
1. Pharmacy is a profession dedicated for the appropriate use of medication, devices and services to
achieve optimal…?
(a) Therapeutic out comes (b) Plasma Level
(c) Shelf Level (d) All of above
2. Community pharmacy has how many divisions…?

(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
3. _____________ Pharmacy is the fundamental backbone of pharmacy profession…?

(a) Hospital (b) Industrial
(c) Retail (d) Clinical
4. Due to recent scientific advances ________ machines replace the manual work…?
(a) Semi-Automatic (b) Full-Automatic
5. In which section of pharmaceutical industries medicines are formulated and manufacture

according to specification…?
(a) Ware house (b) QC
(c) Production (d) R & D
6. Raw material and finished products are stored in which of the following section…?
(a) R & D (b) Capsule section
(c) Tablet section (d) Ware house
7. In which section product quality is being checked…?

(a) QA (b) QC
(c) R & D (d) All of above
8. Which department in industrial pharmacy focuses on new developments…?

(a) R & D (b) QA
(c) QC (d) both a & c
9. Which of the following section is the back bone of industrial pharmacy…?

(a) Administration (b) Quality Control
(c) Quality Assurance (d) Research Center
10. What are the main pillars of pharmacy profession…?

(a) Retail Pharmacy (b) Wholesale Pharmacy
(c) Community (d) All of above
11. To provide quality medicine to general public relates to which of the following…?
(a) Community (b) Hospital
(c) Clinical (d) Industrial
63
12. In retail setup from where we collect the medicine…?
(a) Distributor (b) Whole seller
13. In which pharmacy we deal with drug law…?

(a) Industrial (b) Community
(c) Hospital (d) Forensic
14. The pharmacist working in hospital pharmacy is known as __________ pharmacist…?

(a) Hospital (b) Clinical
(c) Retail (d) Industrial
15. Any person who has Registration in Register B is known as __________...?

(a) Pharmacist (b) Assistant Pharmacist
(c) Lab Technician (d) All of above
16. Provincial council of Pakistan enters the name of _____ in register (A)…?
(a) Assistant Pharmacist (b) Pharmacy Tech
(c) Pharmacist (d) OT Technician
17. Provincial council of Pakistan enters the name of _____ in register (B)…?
(a) Pharmacy Assistant (b) Pharmacy Technician
(c) Both a & b (d) Pharmacist
18. TPN stands for…?

(a) Total parenteral nutrition (b) Total Peripheral nutrition
(c) Topical parenteral nutrition (d) Total product number
19. Preparations of sterile solution in hospital pharmacy are the main working area in which of the
following…?
(a) Assistant Pharmacist (b) OT Technician
(c) Lab Technician (d) none of them
20. Study of drugs in contrast with their specific diseases relates to which pharmacy…?
(a) Community (b) Hospital
(c) Clinical (d) Industrial
21. The pharmacist working in the specialty of clinical pharmacy of any hospital is known as
___________ pharmacist…?
(a) Hospital (b) Clinical
(c) Both a & b (d) Retail
22. Drug adverse reaction is the responsibilities of which pharmacist…?

(a) Assistant (b) Hospital
(c) Clinical (d) Community
23. Pharmaco-economic studies concerns with the…?

(a) Cost of medicine (b) Packing of medicine
(c) Labeling of medicine (d) Efficacy of medicine
64
24. Treatment of diseases belongs to which of the following…?
(a) Clinical (b) Hospital
(c) Therapeutic (d) Retail
25. Minimum size of pharmacy should be_______ sq feet…?

(a) 96 (b) 100
(c) 120 (d) 140
26. Minimum size of Medical Store should be_______ sq feet…?

(a) 96 (b) 100
(c) 120 (d) 140
27. Color of Sign board of medical store should be_______...?

(a) Blue (b) Green
(c) Orange (d) Both a & b
28. Color of sign board of Pharmacy should be__________...?

(a) Blue (b) Green
(c) Orange (d) Both a & b
Chapter # 1 Keys:
1 a 11 a 21 b
2 a 12 c 22 c
3 b 13 d 23 a
4 a 14 a 24 c
5 c 15 b 25 d
6 d 16 c 26 a
7 b 17 c 27 a
8 a 18 a 28 b
9 a 19 a
10 d 20 c
65
Chapter # 2:
1. Which of the following class of drug belongs to OTC drugs…?
(a) Ansaid (b) NSAIDS
(c) Steroids (d) Antibiotics
2. Which of the following is a prescription drug…?

(a) Paracetamol (b) Aspirin
(c) Piroxicam (d) Hypoglycemic
3. Digoxin is obtained from…?

(a) Digitalis lanata (b) Digitalis purpura
(c) Rauwolfia Serpentine (d) none of them
4. Reserpine is obtained from…?

(a) Rauwolfia serpentina (b) Cinnamomum loureirii
(c) Digitalis lanata (d) Digitalis purpura
5. On the basis of source drugs can be classify in how many classes…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
6. Which of the following in not an animal source…?

(a) Reserpine (b) Insulin
(c) Sex hormone (d) both b & c
7. Vaccines are obtained from which of the following source…?

(a) Plant (b) Animal
(c) Microbial (d) Mineral
8. In microbial source drugs are prepared by using…?

(a) Bacteria (b) Viruses
(c) Microorganism (d) All of above
9. Which of the following is a mineral source…?

(a) Cinamaldehyde (b) Insulin
(c) Antibiotics (d) Zinc
10. Semi- synthetic drug means…?

(a) Half natural (b) Half synthetic
(c) Full synthetic (d) Both a & b
11. Which of the following is a semi-synthetic drug…?

(a) Amoxicillin (b) Iodine
(c) Ciprofloxacin (d) Aspirin
66
12. Sulphonamide belongs to which of the following class of drug…?
(a) Natural (b) Semi-synthetic
(c) Synthetic (d) Mineral
13. Synthetic drugs are prepared in laboratory by using…?

(a) Chemicals (b) Bacteria
(c) Microorganism (d) Viruses
14. Which name is given to a drug on scientific basis…?

(a) Brand name (b) Trade name
(c) Generic name (d) Chemical name
15. Which of the following is an example of generic name…?

(a) Ibuprofen (b) Brufen
(c) Loprin (d) Panadol
16. Which name is given to a drug on the basis of proprietorship…?

(a) Brand name (b) Trade name
(c) Chemical name (d) Both a & b
17. Why brand name is given to a drug…?

(a) To identify one drug to other drug (b) To identify generic
(c) To identify chemical name (d) to identify brand name
18. Example of brand name is…?

(a) Calpol (b) Paracetamol
(c) Nimsulide (d) Levofloxacin
19. Generic name of Voltral is…?

(a) Diclofenic potassium (b) Diclofenic sodium
(c) Paracetamol (d) Ibuprofen
20. Chemical name of Aspirin is…?

(a) Acetyl Para aminophenol (b) Acetylsalicylic Acid
(c) Salicylic acid (d) Aminophenol
21. A unit of the dosage form indicates the…?

(a) Combination (b) Single dosage form
(c) Strength (d) All of above
22. 250mg ciprofloxacin indicates what…?

(a) Strength (b) Brand name
(c) Generic name (d) Chemical name
23. Digoxin is drug having source…?

(a) Plant (b) Animal
(c) Microbial (d) none of them
67
24. Vaccine source…?
(a) Animal (b) Microbial
(c) Mineral (d) Zinc
25. Aspirin is a ______ drug…?

(a) Natural (b) Plant source
(c) Artificial (d) Microbial
26. Acetyl Para aminophenol is the chemical name of…?

(a) Paracetamol (b) Aspirin
(c) Nimsulide (d) Ibuprofen
Chapter # 2 Keys:
1 b 11 a 21 c
2 d 12 c 22 a
3 a 13 a 23 a
4 a 14 c 24 b
5 c 15 a 25 c
6 a 16 d 26 a
7 c 17 a
8 d 18 a
9 d 19 b
10 d 20 b
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Chapter # 3:
1. How many types of books in pharmacy…?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
2. ______ are the books that are written compile and publish under the strict supervision of
Government agency is known as…?
(a) Official books (b) Non- official books
3. B.P in Pharmacopoeia stands for…?

(a) Blood pressure (b) Bachelor in pharmacy
(c) British Pharmacopeia (d) None of them
4. NON-OFFICIAL BOOKS are the books which are written compile and published…?
(a) On Govt. level (b) On local level
5. Tutorial pharmacy belongs to which of the following…?

(a) Official (b) Non- official
(c) Local (d) both b & c
6. The fundamental responsibility of B.P is on the General Medical Council which was given to it in:
(a) 1858 (b) 1869
(c) 1878 (d) 1888
7. GMC (General Medical Council) and Royal Pharmaceutical society of Great Britain relates to
which of the following…?
(a) B.P (b) B.N.F
(c) U.S.P (d) N.F
8. Which book is used as a text book for registration examination in UAE and in UK…?
(a) N.F (b) I.R
(c) U.N.F (d) B.N.F
9. In which year Great British realized the importance of another Pharmacopoeia…?

(a) 1603 (b) 1703
(c) 1803 (d) 1903
10. Which book is made for medical practitioners and dispensing pharmacists…?
(a) B.P.C (b) B.P
(c) B.N.F (d) U.N.F
11. Which book is written, published and compiled by (WHO)…?

(a) BP (b) USP
(c) IP (d) NF
69
12. WHO stands for…?
(a) World health organization (b) women health organization
(b) Both a & b (d) none of them
13. United State pharmaceuticals convention belongs to which…?

(a) BP (b) BNF
(c) USP (d) IP
14. When the rights of UNF were was given to united state Pharmaceutical Convention…?
(a) 1974 (b) 1976
(c) 1978 (d) 1980
15. When UNF is published with USP –NF…?

(a) 1780 (b) 1880
(c) 1980 (d) 1990
16. Which non- official book contains a detail knowledge regarding all the aspects of pharmacy…?
(a) Remington Pharmaceutical Sciences (b) Applied & clinical pharmacology by Katzung
(c) Tutorial Pharmacy (d) British Pharmacopeia
17. Specialty of Applied and Clinical Pharmacology by Katzung is…?

(a) Drug and their actions (b) Detail knowledge aspects of pharmacy
(c) Knowledge of physical pharmacy (d) All of above
Chapter # 3 Keys:
1 b 7 b 13 c
2 a 8 d 14 a
3 c 9 d 15 c
4 b 10 a 16 a
5 d 11 c 17 a
6 a 12 a
70
Chapter # 4:
1. (801-873 A.D) relates to which…?
(a) AL- KINDI (b) IBN-AL-NAFIS
(c) Al Biruni (d) Abu Ali Sina
2. (1213-1288 A.D) belong to which of the following…?

(a) Jaber Bin Hayan (b) Al Biruni
(c) Abu Ali Sina (d) IBN-AL-NAFIS
3. IBN-ZUHAR relates to which of the following…?

(a) (1091-1161 A.D) (b) (980-1037AD)
(c) (973-1050 AD) (d) (721-815 AD)
4. Who has worked in the development of over 100 drugs…?

(a) IBN-ZUHAR (b) Jaber Bin Hayan
(c) Al Biruni (d) IBN-AL-NAFIS
5. More than 720 herbal drugs belong to which…?

(a) Al Biruni (b) Jaber Bin Hayan
(c) Abu Ali Sina (d) IBN-ZUHAR
6. When was the IBN- ZUHAR pharmacopoeia printed out…?

(a) In 1490 (b) In 1491
(b) In 1492 (d) In 1493
7. Who describe the mania…?

(a) Abu Ali Sina (b) Jaber Bin Hayan
(c) IBN-ZUHAR (d) Al Biruni
8. Phlegm and epilepsy relates to which of the following…?

(a) Al Biruni (b) IBN-AL-NAFIS
(c) AL-KINDI (d) Abu Ali Sina
9. Who describe the capillary and coronary circulation…?

(a) IBN-AL-NAFIS (b) Jaber Bin Hayan
10. Who was considered to be the pioneer of modern anesthesiology…?

(a) AL-KINDI (b) IBN-ZUHAR
(c) Jaber Bin Hayan (d) Abu Ali Sina
11. Who invented more than 20 laboratory equipments…?

(a) AL-KINDI (b) Jaber Bin Hayan
(c) Abu Ali Sina (d) Al Biruni
71
12. Pharmakon meaning is…?
(a) Drug (b) Medicine
13. The Muslim scientist who first describe the Psychological problem…?
(a) Al-KINDI (b) IBN-AL-NAFIS
(c) IBN - ZUHAR (d) No one
14. First person who describe the pulmonary and coronary circulation…?
15. The Muslim surgeon who firstly describe the procedure for dissection and Autopsy…?
16. The great Physician who describe the different Psychiatric diseases.. ?
(a) Abu- Ali- Sina (b) Al Biruni
(c) Jaber Bin Hayan (d) No one
17. The first person who describe the paralysis in detail…?

18. Aqua Regia is discovered by…?

19. Al Saddnafil Tibb was written by…?

20. The Solvent that can dissolve the gold, platinum etc…?
(a) Alcohol (b) Sulphuric Acid
(c) Aqua Regia (d) No of these
21. Composition of Aqua Regia…?

(a) HCL + HNO3 (b) Alcohol + Acetone
(c) HCL + H2SO4 (d) No one
Chapter # 4 Keys:
1 a 8 c 15 c
2 d 9 a 16 a
3 a 10 b 17 a
4 d 11 b 18 c
5 a 12 c 19 b
6 b 13 a 20 c
7 a 14 a 21 a
72
Chapter # 5:
1. The boundary b/w two phases is usually describes as…?
(a) Surface tension (b) Interface
(c) Inter molecular force (d) all of them
2. By increase in temperature the surface tension is…?

(a) Increase (b) Decrease
3. Emulsifying agents______________ the surface tension…?

(a) Increase (b) Decreases
(c) No effect (d) both b & c
4. Increase Hydrogen bonding will________________ the surface tension…?

(a) Increase (b) Decrease
5. Viscometer use to measure…?

(a) Temperature (b) Viscosity
(c) Surface tension (d) All of them
6. Viscosity ______ by increase size of molecules…?

(a) Decrease (b) Increase
(c) Both a & b (d) Maintained
7. The boundary between liquid phase and gaseous phase generally described as an…?
(a) Interface (b) Surface
(c) Viscosity (d) All of above
8. Which one is the 2nd phase in surface tension except Gas or a vapor…?
(a) Liquid (b) Solid
(c) Both a & b (d) All of above
9. Surface tension is denoted with…?

(a) Force per unit area (b) F/A
10. Unit of surface tension is…?

(a) (N/m) (b) (N/m2)
(c) (N/m3) (d) All of above
11. The molecule inside the liquid interacts equally with other molecule from…?
(a) All sides (b) one side
(c) Two sides (d) three sides
73
12. Surface tension increases with the increase…?
(a) Intermolecular forces (b) Hydrogen bonding
(c) Temperature (d) Both a & b
13. Surface tension increases with the decrease in…?

(a) Temperature (b) intermolecular forces
(c) Hydrogen bonding (d) both b & c
14. Internal resistance of the molecules of any liquid to flow is called…?

(a) Viscosity (b) Thinness
(c) Fluidity (d) Both a & c
15. Viscosity is the fundamental tool to check the internal friction of any…?
(a) Liquid (b) Solid
(c) Gas (d) Vapor
16. Viscosity decreases with the increases in…?

(a) Intermolecular forces (b) Hydrogen bonding
(c) Temperature (d) Adhesion
17. Fundamental QC test for syrup, suspension thickness is…?

(a) Viscosity (b) Surface Tension
(c) Wt. balance (d) All of them
18. ATOM is derived from Greek word means…?

(a) Undividable (b) Dividable
19. Atom consists of in how many particles…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
20. Neutrons carrying…?

(a) No charge (b) Positive
(c) Negative (d) Both b & c
21. Fundamental particles of atoms…?

(a) Protons (b) Electrons
(c) Neutrons (d) All
22. Any charged particle is called…?

(a) Atom (b) Ion
23. When cation is being produced…?

(a) When a atom loses an electron (b) When a atom gains an electron
(a) When a atom loses an neutron (d) When a atom gains an neutron
74
24. Electrically neutral atoms or molecules by the removal or addition of electrons are called…?
(a) Ionization (b) Tyndallization
(c) Distillation (d) No one
25. Amount of energy required removing an electron from an atom…?

(a) Electrical energy (b) Mechanical energy
(c) Ionization energy (d) All of them
26. In which year J.J. Thomson conducted the famous discharge tube experiment…?
(a) 1896 (b) 1897
(c) 1898 (d) 1899
27. In J.J experiment Pressure of air in the tube is reduced to ________mm of mercury…?
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.001
(c) 0.003 (d) 0.004
28. Weak organic acids are an example of…?

(a) Acetylsalicylic acid (b) Aspirin
(c) Both a & b (d) Procaine
29. Degree of ionization of a drug has an important effect on its…?

(a) Absorption (b) Distribution
(c) Elimination (d) All of them
30. Ionization radiations are used in medical radiography to make image ___the body…?
(a) Inside (b) Outside
(c) Left side (d) Right side
31. (Two) 2 pH of any compound is considered as…?

(a) Acidic (b) Strong Acidic
(c) Alkali (d) Base
32. Compounds having below then 7 ph refers to which…?

(a) Increase Basicity (b) Decreased Acidity
(c) Increase Acidity (d) Neutral
33. How many types of pH indicators we have…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
34. Example of Acid Base indicators…?

(a) Methyl orange (b) Phenolphthalein
(c) KMnO4 (d) Both a & b
35. Redox Indicator refers to…?

(a) KMnO4 (b) Potassium chromium oxide
(c) K2CrO4 (d) All
75
36. Precipitation Indicators belongs to which one of the following…?
(a) Potassium chromium oxide (b) K2CrO4
37. Blood has a specific pH of…?

(a) 7.1-7.2 (b) 7.3-7.4
(c) 7.3-8.1 (d) 7.3-8.4
38. Technique in which a solution of known concentration is used to determine the concentration of an
unknown solution…?
(a) Titration (b) Crystallization
(c) Distillation (d) Heating
39. Compounds that have ability to resist the change of pH any solution on slight addition of acidic or
basics…?
(a) Buffers (b) Cation
(c) Anion (d) Ion
40. pH of HCl and Sodium Citrate…?

(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 1 to 5 (d) 8
41. Citric acid /Sodium citrate…?

(a) 1.5_____5.6 (b) 2.5_____5.6
(c) 3.5_____5.6 (d) 4.5_____5.6
42. Complete the following equation HCl + NaHCO3 H2CO3 +…?

(a) NaCl2 (b) NaCl
(c) Na2Cl (d) NaCl3
43. Solution with lower osmotic pressure than body fluids called…?
(a) Hypotonic (b) Hypertonic
(c) Isotonic (d) All
44. Solution which have tendency to cause Hemolysis of RBCs called…?

45. Solution which have tendency to cause shrinkage of body tissues called…?
46. Most widely used Iso tonicity modifiers are…?

(a) Dextrose (b) Sodium chloride
(c) Magnesium (d) Both a & b
47. Positive log of hydrogen ions concentration is called…?

(a) Ph (b) Buffer
76
48. Loss of electron during a reaction by atom or molecules is called…?
(a) Reduction (b) Oxidation
(c) Indication (d) None of these
49. Gain of hydrogen and loss of oxygen is called…?

(a) Reduction (b) Oxidation
(c) Indication (d) None of these
50. A hypotonic solution added to body system may cause…?

(a) Hydrolysis (b) Hemolysis
(c) No effect (d) Shrinkage of tissue
51. Force per unit area on the surface of liquid is…?

(a) Viscosity (b) Cohesive force
(c) Surface Tension (d) Adhesive force
52. Dyne second per square centimeter is unit of…?

(a) .pH (b) Surface tension
(c) Viscosity (d) None of these
53. Surface tension increase with…?

(a) .pH (b) Increase temperature
(c) Increase hydrogen bonding (d) No one
54. Negatively charged electrode is called…?

(a) Anion (b) cation
(c) Cathode (d) Anode
55. Negative log of hydrogen ion concentration is called…?

(a) Acidity (b) Alkalinity
(c) pH (d) None of these
56. The pH of water is…?

(a) 5 (b) 7
(c) 7.8 (d) None of these
57. pH 7 is…?
(a) Acidic (b) Basic
(c) Neutral (d) None of these
58. The color of methyl orange in acidic…?

(a) Red (b) Yellow
(c) Blue (d) None of these
59. The color of methyl orange in basic…?

(a) Red (b) Yellow
(c) Blue (d) None of these
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60. The color of phenolphthalein in basic…?
(a) Pink (b) Color less
(c) Yellow (d) Black
61. The color of phenolphthalein in acid…?

(a) Pink (b) Color less
(c) Yellow (d) Black
62. Oxidation is the…?

(a) Addition of oxygen (b) Loss of hydrogen
(c) Loss of electron (d) All of these
63. Reduction is the…?

(a) Addition of oxygen (b) Loss of hydrogen
(c) Loss of electron (d) None of these
64. Reduction is the…?

(a) Addition of hydrogen (b) Removal of oxygen
(c) Gain of electron (d) All of these
65. The pressure responsible to prevent the osmosis is called…?

(a) Atmospheric pressure (b) Osmotic pressure
(c) Isotonic (d) None of these
66. The solution having grater osmotic pressure than body fluid is called…?
(a) Hypertonic (b) Isotonic
(c) Hypotonic (d) None of these
67. The force acting over the surface of the liquid per unit length of the surface is called…?
(a) Viscosity (b) Surface Tension
68. Unit of Viscosity is…?

(a) N/m2 (b) Dyne second per square centimeter
(c) M/sec2 (d) .None of these
69. Any charge particle is called…?

(a) Atom (b) Molecules
(c) Ion (d) Cation
70. Unionized drug are lipid soluble and absorb through membranes…?
(a) Rapidly absorb (b) Not absorb
(c) No Effect (d) All of them
71. pH of Gastric acid is…?

(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) Both a & b (d) 10
78
72. The rounded shape of the drop is due to reason…?
(a) All molecules are being pulled towards center (b) All molecules are being pulled away from center
73. Bile salt ___________ surface tension of fat in the duodenum…?

(a) Reduced (b) Increased
(c) Both a & b (d) All of these
74. The force of attraction b/t d/f substances such as glass and water is called…?
(a) Adhesion (b) Cohesion
(c) Both a & b (d) No of them
75. The force of attraction b/w the molecules of the same substance are called…?
(a) Adhesion (b) Cohesion
76. Methyl cellulose increases the…?

(a) Surface tension (b) Viscosity
(c) Ionization (d) No one
Chapter # 5 Keys:
1 b 17 a 33 c 49 a 65 b
2 b 18 a 34 d 50 b 66 a
3 b 19 c 35 a 51 c 67 b
4 a 20 a 36 c 52 c 68 b
5 b 21 d 37 b 53 c 69 c
6 b 22 b 38 a 54 c 70 a
7 b 23 a 39 a 55 c 71 c
8 d 24 a 40 c 56 b 72 a
9 c 25 c 41 b 57 c 73 a
10 b 26 b 42 b 58 a 74 a
11 a 27 b 43 a 59 b 75 b
12 d 28 c 44 a 60 a 76 b
13 a 29 d 45 b 61 b
14 a 30 a 46 d 62 d
15 a 31 b 47 d 63 d
16 c 32 c 48 b 64 d
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Chapter # 6:
1. Pharmaceutics is the branch of pharmacy that deals with the conversion of to proper dosage
form…?
(a) NCE (b) NES
(c) NDF (d) NCD
2. ____________ converts a drug into a medicine…?

(a) Physiology (b) Pharmaceutics
(c) Pharmacology (d) Microbiology
3. DDS stand for…?

(a) Daily dose system (b) Drug single dose
(c) Drug Delivery System (d) Delayed Drug
4. Dosage form is the ___________ form of a dose of drug…?

(a) Physical (b) Chemical
(c) Mechanical (d) Biological
5. A drug contains which of the following except excipients…?

(a) Flavorants (b) Colorants
(c) APIs (d) Binders
6. The word “Drug” refers to as a _____________ active agent…?

(a) Biological (b) Chemical
(c) Pharmacological (d) All of above
7. Additives are the substances other than the __________ in the formulation…?
(a) Active medicaments (b) Medicinal agents
(c) Drug (d) All of above
8. In a formulation which of the following have pharmacological action…?

(a) APIs (b) Additives
9. Which one of the following is used to give a particular shape to the formulation…?
(a) Additives (b) Excipients
(c) APIs (d) Both a & b
10. Surfactant is an example of…?

(a) Medicaments (b) Drug
(c) Excipients (d) Disintegrant
11. A medium in which the ingredients of a formulation are dissolved are called…?
(a) Diluents (b) Vehicles
(c) Binders (d) Taste Masker
80
12. The word vehicle is generally may be used for…?
(a) Liquids (b) Semi-solids
(c) Solids (d) All of above
13. Which of the following refers to as liquid vehicles for injection…?

(a) Soft paraffin (b) Wool alcohol
(c) Glycerol-gelatin (d) WFI
14. In which of the following drug is incorporated to increase the bulk of formulation…?
(a) Binder (b) Base
(c) Bees wax (d) Both b & c
15. Suppository bases refer to…?

(a) Theo-broma oil (b) Liquid paraffin
(c) Soft paraffin (d) Wool fat
16. _______ are the inert substances which are specially added to increase the bulk of a drug…?
(a) Diluents (b) Binder
(c) Vehicles (d) Colorants
17. For oral preparations __________ is the most suitable diluents…?

(a) Oil (b) Water
(c) Gas (d) All of above
18. Solid diluents are included in the formulation of _________ …?

(a) Liquids (b) Gas
(c) Powders (d) Vapors
19. Potent drugs diluents are…?

(a) Kaolin (b) Lactose
(c) Starch (d) All of above
20. Which of the following substances used to cause adhesion of powder particles in tablet
granulations…?
(a) Binders (b) Glidants
(c) Lubricants (d) Surfactants
21. Which of the following refers to as binders…?

(a) Cellulose (b) Gelatin
(c) Magnesium (d) Silica
22. _________ Antibiotic should not be taken with milk…?

(a) Cephalosporin’s (b) Penicillin’s
(c) Tetracycline’s (d) amino glycosides
23. Which of the following promotes the tablet break up…?

(a) Suspending agents (b) Hydrocolloids
(c) Disintegrant (d) Binders
81
24. Disintegrant relates to which of the following…?
(a) Alginic acid (b) Starch
(c) Magnesium Stearate (d) Both a & b
25. Which additives prevent the tablet ingredient from sticking to punches and dyes…?
(a) Disintegrant (b) Glidants
(c) Binders (d) Lubricants
26. Which of the following have anti-adherent property…?

(a) Magnesium Stearate (b) Starch
(c) Colloidal silica (d) Talc
27. Which of the following is used to improve the flow property of powders…?
(a) Glidants (b) Corn starch
(c) Colloidal silica (d) All of above
28. ________ are used in tablet and capsule formulations to improve the flow properties of powder
mixture…?
(a) Glidants (b) Disintegrant
(c) Lubricants (d) No one
29. Surfactants work as to…?

(a) Lower the interfacial tension b/w 2 phases
(b) Increase the interfacial tension b/w 2 phases
(c) To lower the adhere-ring property of drug
30. Which of the following is used to make two phases become miscible…?
(a) Surfactant (b) Suspending agent
(c) Glidants (d) none of them
31. Why surfactants are being used…?

(a) To dissolve the drug (b) To make drug bulky
(c) To drug effect (d) To drug size
32. Polar and non-polar parts relates to which of the following…?

(a) Binder (b) Glidants
(c) Surfactants (d) Colorants
33. Surfactants have how many classifications…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
34. Which of the following is being used to make high viscous solution…?
(a) Hydrocolloids (b) Suspending agents
(c) Surface active agents (d) Both a & b
35. Acacia is an example of: (HDC = Hydrocolloids)…?

(a) Natural HDC (b) Semi- Synthetic HDC
(c) Synthetic HDC (d) All of above
82
36. Synthetics HDC relates to which of the following…?
(a) Hydroxy-ethyl cellulose (b) Hydroxypropyl cellulose
(c) Carbopols (d) Agar
37. Which of the following increase the stability of the drugs…?

(a) Stabilizer (b) Anti-oxidants
(c) Buffers (d) All of above
38. Ascorbic acid is an example of…?

(a) Anti-oxidants (b) Colorants
(c) Flavorants (d) Binders
39. Edetate disodium is an example of…?
(a) Sweetening agents (b) Chelating agents
(c) Stabilizers (d) Preservatives
40. Peppermint is an example of…?

(a) Colorants (b) Disintegrant
(c) Flavoring agents (d) Glidants
41. Which of the following relates to the sweetening agents…?

(a) Sucrose (b) Ferric oxide
(c) Orange (d) Aspartate
42. Caramel is an example of in drug…?

(a) Binder (b) Surfactants
(c) Glidants (d) Coloring agents
43. Syrups indicate what…?

(a) Liquid dosage form (b) Solid dosage form
(c) Semi- Solid DF (d) All of above
44. Aqueous suspensions of insoluble inorganic drugs are called…?

(a) Elixirs (b) Lotions
(c) Magmas (d) Solutions
45. Which of the following is not an example of Solid dosages form…?

(a) Powders (b) Granules
(c) Capsules (d) Tinctures
46. Which of the following relates with Liquid dosage form…?

(a) Pastes (b) Sprays
(c) Tablets (d) Suppositories
47. Suspension, Emulsion and Magmas are examples of…?

(a) Liquid dosage form (b) Disperse system
(c) Semi- Solid DF (d) Both a & b
83
48. Effervescent granules are an example of…?
(a) Granules (b) Tablets
(c) Capsules (d) Powders
49. Intra-cutaneous or intra-dermal drug ratio is…?

(a) 0.1 to 0.2 ml (b) 1ml or less
(c) Up to 1 ml (d) up to 2 ml
50. Intra muscular dosage form injected into…?

(a) Muscles (b) Beneath the skin
(c) Veins (d) Dermis
51. Trans-dermal means…?

(a) Through muscles (b) Through Skin
(c) Through Veins (d) All of above
52. Nasal Decongestant solutions administered through…?

(a) Oral Route (b) IV route
(c) Inhalation route (d) Ophthalmic
53. Suppositories are inserted through…?

(a) Rectal Route (b) Vaginal Route
(c) Urethral Route (d) All of them
54. Solution may be defined as…?

(a) Homogeneous Single Phase (b) Hetero generous Single Phase
(c) Both a & b (d) .None of them
55. 30–100 indicates what…?

(a) Very soluble (b) Freely soluble
(c) Slightly Soluble (d) sparingly soluble
56. Sweet, Viscous, concentrated aqueous solutions of a sugar refers to which…?

(a) Simple syrups (b) Medicated syrups
(c) Flavored syrups (d) All of them
57. According to BP simple syrup contains the sucrose…?

(a) 66.7% (w/w) (b) 66.7 % (w/v)
(c) 66.7 % (v/v) (d) 66.9 % (w/w)
58. Syrup contain as much as __________ sucrose…?

(a) 65 to 67% (w/w) (b) 60 to 80% (w/w)
(c) 60 to 90% (w/w) (d) 70 to 80% (w/w)
59. What is the ratio of Benzoic acid in syrups as preservatives…?

(a) 0.1 to 1 % (b) 0.1 to 2 %
(c) 0.1 to 0.2 % (d) 0.2 to 2 %
84
60. Colors in syrups should be…?
(a) Water immiscible (b) Reactive
(c) Have high intensity (d) H20 Soluble
61. In general how many method of preparing the syrups…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
62. What is the maximum storage T0C of syrups…?

(a) 300C (b) 350C
(c) 400C (d) 450C
63. ____ are clear sweetened hydro-alcoholic solutions intended for oral administration…?
(a) Syrup (b) Elixirs
(c) Suspension (d) Liniments
64. Main ingredients of elixirs are water and____ but…?

(a) Ethanol (b) Glycerin
(c) Sorbitol (d) Glycol
65. Elixirs contain agents that have ___________ water solubility…?

(a) High (b) Lower
66. Non medicated elixirs are used as…?

(a) Flavoring agents (b) Vehicles for medicaments
(c) Diluting agent (d) All
67. Most official and commercial elixirs contain a ______therapeutic agent…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
68. Minimum proportion of alcohol in elixirs is…?

(a) 2 – 5 % (b) 5 – 10 %
(c) 10 – 12 % (d) 10 – 20 %
69. 10 to 12% of alcohol in elixirs works as…?

(a) Preserving with chemical (b) Preserving with aid
(c) Self-preserving (d) No one
70. Propylene glycol may be used as substitute for both…?

(a) Alcohol (b) Glycerin
71. When two solutions are completely mixed the mixture is made to volume with specified solvent
are called ________ elixir…?
(a) Iso alcoholic (b) Alcoholic
(c) Simple (d) Medicated
85
72. Digoxin elixir contains how much alcohol…?
(a) 5% (b) 7%
(c) 9% (d) 10%
73. Tinctures contain _____ alcohol…?

(a) 10 – 80 % (b) 15 – 80 %
(c) 20 – 80 % (d) 30 – 80 %
74. ___________ are mostly used as internally and topically…?

(a) Tinctures (b) Syrups
(c) Elixirs (d) Ointments
75. In the case of emulsions the dispersed phase is a…?

(a) Liquid (b) Semi - Liquid
(c) Semi - Solids (d) Solids
76. In the case of an aerosol the dispersed phase may be small _____bubbles…?
(a) Liquids (b) Air
(c) Solid (d) Water
77. Particles range in colloidal dispersions is…?

(a) (0.001 nm to 0.5μm) (b) (0.1 nm to 0.5μm)
(c) (1.0 nm to 0.5μm) (d) (2.0 nm to 0.5μm)
78. (0.5 to 10μm) refers to which dispersion…?

(a) Colloidal (b) Fine
(c) Coarse (d) All of them
79. ________ are biphasic liquid dosage form…?

(a) Suspensions (b) Tablets
(c) Capsules (d) No one
80. Particle size of suspension range falls between ____ to 15µm…?

(a) 7 (b) 10
(c) 12 (d) 13
81. The continental dry gum method is also referred to as the…?

(a) 1:2:1 (b) 2:2:1
(c) 4:2:1 (d) 4:2:2
82. 4:4:2 ratios belongs to which one the following method…?

(a) Dry gum (b) Wet gum
(c) Bottle gum (d) All of above
83. Coalescence means to grow together to ______...?

(a) To Fuse (b) To Make large molecules
(c) Both a & b (d) To Separate
86
84. In emulsion defects, the continuous phase we have _____ or _______ movement of dispersed
globules…?
(a) Upward Creaming & Downward Sedimentation
(b) Downward Creaming & Upward Sedimentation
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of them
85. Separation of the internal phase from the emulsion is called…?

(a) Breaking (b) Bonding
(c) Linkage (d) Both b & c
86. Lotions may be used as the following action…?

(a) Protective (b) Cooling
(c) Therapeutic (d) All of them
87. _________ are used for their (Rube-f-a-c-i-e-n-t) action…?

(a) Lotions (b) Emulsions
(c) Liniments (d) Inhalers
88. Oleaginous vehicles are employed in liniments when __________is desired…?

(a) Massage (b) Counter-irritant
(c) Penetrating (d) All of above
89. Liniments are not to be applied to the broken skin because they may produce…?
(a) Excessive irritation (b) Fever
(c) Swelling (d) Pain
90. Pressurized dosage forms refer as…?

(a) Syrups (b) Aerosols
(c) Tinctures (d) All of them
91. Commonly used propellants are…?

(a) Butane (b) Iso-butane
(c) Chlorofluorocarbons (d) All
92. Function of valve assembly is to _____ the expulsion of contents of containers…?

(a) Permit (b) Inhibit
(c) Close (d) No one
93. ______ are valves which allow specific amount of product to come out and then stop
automatically…?
(a) Desired Valve (b) Stopped Valve
(c) Metered Valve (d) All of them
94. MDI stands for…?

(a) Medicinal Dose (b) Metered dose inhaler
87
95. ______are drugs or solutions of drugs administered by the nasal or oral respiratory route…?
(a) Inhalations (b) Suspensions
(c) Tablets (d) Capsules
96. Which liquid preparations containing volatile ingredients…?

(a) Syrups (b) Elixirs
(c) Inhalations (d) Injections
97. Inhalations are used to relieve ______ congestion…?

(a) Nasal (b)Eye
(c) Oral (d) Ear
98. ______are drugs that carried out into nasal passages by their high vapor pressure…?
(a) Inhalants (b) Suspensions
(c) Emulsions (d) Liniments
99. The device in which drug is contained, by which inhalants are administered known as…?
(a) Canister (b) Inhaler
(c) Mouthpiece (d) Dust cap
100. ______ are aqueous or oleaginous solutions in the form of coarse droplets…?
(a) Tinctures (b) Emulsions
(c) Liniments (d) Sprays
101. Sprays are used into mouth for their…?

(a) Laryngitis (b) Pharyngitis
(c) Tonsillitis (d) All of them
102. Suppository is used for…?

(a) Local effect (b) Systemic effect
103. Weight of vaginal suppository is…?

(a) 8g (b) 3g
(c) 5g (d) 4g
104. The diameter of male urethral suppository is…?

(a) 8-10mm (b) 1-2mm
(c) 3-6mm (d) None of these
105. Liquid paraffin is…?

(a) Water soluble base (b) Absorption base
(c) Oleaginous base (d) Emulsion base
106. It has high concentration of insoluble powder in fatty or aqueous base…?

(a) Ointment (b) Cream
(c) Paste (d) Suppository
88
107. The tablet which has prolonged action…?
(a) Enteric coated (b) compressed tablet
(c) Sustained release (d) Film coated
108. Disintegration is not required for…?

(a) Film coated tablet (b) Sugar coated tablet
(c) Chewable tablet (d) Effervescent tablet
109. Soft gelatin capsule is used to pack…?

(a) Aqueous preparation (b) Oily preparation
110. 0 size capsule hold medicament about…?

(a) 1000 mg (b) 400 mg
(c) 500 mg (d) None of these
111. Simple solution of sucrose in water is called…?

(a) Elixir (b) Emulsion
(c) Syrup (d) Tincture
112. Substance that is dissolved in another substance is called…?

(a) Solution (b) Solvent
(c) Solute (d) None of these
113. In very slightly soluble one part of solute is dissolved in _______ part of solvent…?
(a) 100 - 1000 (b) 30 - 100
(c) 1000 - 10000 (d) >1000
114. The concentration of alcohol in elixir varies from…?

(a) 10 – 40% (b) 20 – 50%
(c) 5 – 35% (d) 10 – 12%
115. The proportion of alcohol in tincture…?

(a) 10 – 90% (b) 20 – 80%
(c) 15 – 80% (d) None of these
116. The substances which lower the interfacial tension between two faces are called…?
(a) Surfactant (b) Suspending agents
(c) Hydrocolloids (d) .None of these
117. Bentonite is suspending agents…?

(a) Natural (b) synthetic
(c) Semi synthetic (d) None of these
118. The substance that form stable water-soluble complex with metals is called…?
(a) Antioxidant (b) Chelating agent
(c) Antimicrobial agent (d) Buffering agent
89
119. Elixir is dosage form…?
(a) Semi Solid (b) Oral
(c) External (d) Parental
120. Benzyl konium Chloride is surfactant…?

(a) Anionic (b) Cationic
(c) Non-Ionic (d) none of these
121. Alcoholic or hydro alcoholic solution of nonvolatile drug of vegetable or chemical origin is
called…?
(a) Elixir (b) Tincture
(c) Lotion (d) Liniments
122. Alcoholic/oleaginous preparation of various substances use for external application

generally with friction called…?
123. Liquid aqueous preparation intended for external application without rubbing…?
124. Liquid preparation employed for soothing effect…?

(a) Liniments (b) Tincture
(c) Lotion (d) All of these
125. Alcoholic or oleaginous preparation used for their rubefacient action…?

(c) Lotion (d) All of these
126. Alcoholic or hydro alcoholic vehicles in Liniment are useful for there…?
(a) Rubefacient action (b) Counter irritant
(c) Penetrating action (d) All of these
127. When massage is desired the base used in liniments…?

(a) Alcoholic (b) Hydro alcoholic
(c) Oleaginous (d) .None of these
128. Not applied on the broken skin…?

(c) Lotion (d) None of these
129. Tinctures are mostly used…?
(a) Internally (b) Externally
130. Slow movement and filtering of fluid through porous material is called…?
(a) Maceration (b) Percolation
(c) Decoction (d) None of these
90
131. Glycerin added to elixir…?
(a) To increase solubility of medicinal agent (b) As sweetening agent
132. High alcoholic content elixirs contain alcohol…?

(a) 5-10% (b) 10-15%
(c) 30-35% (d) None of these
133. Propylene glycol may be used in elixir as substitute of…?

(a) Alcohol (b) Glycerin
134. Emulsions are…?

(a) Single phase (b) Bi phase
(c) Tri phase (d) None of these
135. In O/w emulsion the oil is…?

(a) Dispersed phase (b) Discontinuous phase
136. In emulsion preparation when particles of dispersed phase come in contact with each other
to form lose aggregate called…?
(a) Coalescence (b) Flocculation
(c) Creaming (d) Sedimentation
137. Liquid portion of solution in which another substance is dissolved is called…?

(a) Solute (b) Solvent
(c) Solution (d) All of these
138. Solution is a…?

(a) Bi phase (b) Tri phase
(c) Single phase (d) none of these
139. When 1 part of solute is dissolved in 100 – 1000 parts of solvent is called…?
(a) Sparingly Soluble (b) Slightly Soluble
(c) Very Slightly Soluble (d) None of these
140. According to BP the content of sucrose in syrup…?

w
(a) 65% /v (b) 66.7% w/w
(c) 85% w/v (d) none of these
141. According to USP the content of sucrose in syrup…?

w
(a) 65% /v (b) 66.7% w/w
142. The growths of microorganism are retarted when content of sucrose is…?
w
(a) 65% /w (b) 65% w/v
91
143. Benzoic acid is commonly used as preservative in the concentration…?
(a) 0.01-0.05% (b) 0.1-0.2%
(c) 0.5-10% (d) None of these
144. The alcoholic proportion of elixir is…?

(a) 5-35% (b) 30-50%
(c) 1-10% (d) None of these
145. The alcoholic content used as self-preservative…?

(a) 10-12% (b) 12-15%
(c) 20-30% (d) All of these
146. The minimum alcoholic content used as self-preservative…?

(a) 10-12% (b) 12-15%
(c) 20-30% (d) All of these
147. Suspension is…?

(a) Single phase (b) Bi phase
(c) Tri phase (d) none of these
148. The solid particles constitute the_________ in suspension…?

(a) Continuous phase (b) Discontinuous phase
149. The component of aerosol…?

(a) Pro pellent (b) actuator
(c) Product concentrates (d) All of these
150. The part of aerosol which attach the valve properly to the container…?
(a) Stem (b) Gasket
(c) Mounting cap (d) none of these
151. The part of aerosol which is used to bring the formulation from the container…?
(a) Actuator (b) Dip tube
(c) Spring (d) Stem
152. The chemical substances which are responsible for developing the pressure is called…?
(a) Surfactant (b) Solubilizer
(c) Propellants (d) None of these
153. The drug or solution of drug administered by the nasal or oral respiratory tract is called…?
(a) Injection (b) Suppository
(c) Inhalation (d) Spray
154. Inhalations are used to relieve…?

(a) Nasal congestion (b) Inflammation of respiratory tract
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155. An instrument capable of producing fine particles for inhalation is called…?
(a) Humidifier (b) Vaporizer
(c) Nebulizer (d) None of these
156. Must be sterile…?

(a) Eye drop (b) Ophthalmic preparation
(c) Injection (d) All of these
157. Must be sterile and pyrogen free…?

(a) Eye drop (b) Ophthalmic preparation
(c) Injection (d) All of these
158. Formulation of Injection…?

(a) APIs (b) Stabilizer
(c) Iso tonicity adjuster (d) All of these
159. Injection should be…?

(a) Particles free (b) Isotonic
160. Parenteral preparations or inject able are…?

(a) Pyrogen free (b) Sterile
(c) Non-sterile (d) Both a & b
161. Multi-dose injections must contain…?

(a) Preservatives (b) Antigen
(c) Cyto toxin (d) both a & c
162. -------- should be isotonic with body fluids…?

(a) Syrups (b) Capsules
(c) Injections (d) None of these
163. Solutions in volumes from millimeters to 4 liters can be introduced by…?

(a) Oral route (b) Intra theacal route
(c) Nasal route (d) parenteral route
164. Administration of dug through wrong route may prove…?

(a) Beneficial (b) Helpful
(c) Fatal (d) none of them
165. In dissolving or suspending the medicament, most suitable vehicle is…?

(a) Sesame oil (b) Water
(c) Olive oil (d) both a & b
166. Cotton seed oil, Peanut oil, Sesame oil, olive oil are used…?
(a) Reduced the action of toxicity (b) Prolong the duration of action of drug
(c) None of them (d) both a & b
93
167. --------- are used when medicament is insoluble in water…?
(a) Vehicles (b) Base
(c) Oily vehicles (d) both a & b
168. Which of the followings are added substances…?

(a) Stabilizers (b) Buffers
(c) All of them (d) Solubilizing agents
169. Dose can be withdrawn without changing the strength, quality & purity of the remaining
portion…?
(a) Ampoules (b) Multi dose container
(c) Single dose container (d) All
170. Which of the following are intravenous fluids…?

(a) Ringers (b) Manitol injections
(c) Dextrose injections (d) All of them
171. Finally divided dry materials are…?

(a) Syrups (b) Powders
(c) Granules (d) Both a & b
172. Medicated powders used to be as…?

(a) External use (b) Internal use
(c) Both b & c (d) .None of them
173. Generally ------------- drugs are supplied in the form of bulk powder…?
(a) Potent (b) Less Potent
(c) Both a & c (d) Moderate potent
174. Bulk powders are used…?

(a) Internally (b) Externally
(c) Both a & b (d) All of them
175. Powder is divided into…?

(a) Multiple dosing (b) Individual
(c) Both a & c (c) All of them
176. Powders are simple or compound for internal use…?

(a) Yes (b) No
177. --------- are prepared from powders substances…?

(a) Granules (b) Syrups
(c) Elixir (d) Gels
178. --------- Granules contain a medicinal agent in a dry mixture (Sodium Bicarbonate & Citric
Acid)…?
(a) Simple (b) Diluted
(c) Emulsifying (d) Effervescent
94
179. Citric Acid + Sod. Bicarbonate  Sod. Citrate +……:…?
(a) Na (b) CO2
(c) SO4 (d) CaCO3
180. Tablets are the ______ dosage forms of medicinal substances…?

(a) Solid (b) Semi Solid
(c) Liquid (d) No one
181. Tablets are used for ____________ route of administration…?

(a) Oral (b) Buccal
(c) Vaginal & Rectal (d) All of them
182. Advantages of tablets are…?

(a) Ease of administration (b) Surety of accurate dose
(c) Unpleasant taste can be masked by coatings (d) All of them
183. Compressed tablets are the tablets that are made up of ____ compression…?
(a) Single (b) Multiple
184. Paracetamol is an example of which compression…?

(a) Multiple (b) Single
(c) Film Coated (d) SR
185. Multiple layered tablets are manufactured by which compression…?

(a) Single (b) Double
(c) Multiple (d) No one
186. ______ Tablets mask the unpleasant taste of drug…?

(a) Film Coated (b) Sugar Coated
187. To mask the bitter taste of tablets which type of coating is being used…?
(a) Sugar Coated (b) Film Coated
(c) Both a & b (d) Sub- Lingual
188. Which tablets are required to be disintegrated in the intestines and not in the stomach…?
(a) Film Coated (b) Enteric Coated
(c) Sugar Coated (d) No one
189. Enteric Coated tablet are breaks in which of the following medium…?
(a) Acidic (b) Basic
(c) Alkaline (d) Both b & c
190. Tablets are required to be placed below the tongue are called…?
(a) Buccal (b) Sub- Lingual
95
191. Angised is an example of…?
(a) Chewable tablet (b) Sub – Lingual
(c) Oral (d) Both b & c
192. Tablets are required to be broken between the teeth before ingestion…?
(a) Chewable (b) Buccal
(c) Enteric (d) Sugar
193. Antacid is an example of…?

(a) Effervescent Tablets (b) Sustained Tablets
(c) Extended Release (d) Chewable Tablets
194. Tablets after oral administration have prolonged action duration of drug…?
(a) Sustained Release (b) Effervescent Tablet
(c) Enteric (d) No one
195. Which process we use for the Protection of tablet against environmental factors…?
(a) Coating (b) Mixing
196. Which type of coating is used to mask the unpleasant taste and odor…?
(a) Sugar (b) Film
(c) Both a & b (d) Air
197. 3-5 coats required for which of the following coating…?

(a) Compression (b) Sub
(c) Film (d) No one
198. 5-10 coats using thick simple syrup is an example of…?

(a) Smoothing (b) Final Rounding
199. Polishing of a tablet is done with…?

(a) Fabrics (b) carnauba wax
200. tablets are far more resistant to destruction by abrasion than are…?
(a) Film coating (b) Sugar coating
(c) Air Coating (d) All of them
201. For enteric coating which chemical are being used…?

(a) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose phthalate (b) Polyvinyl acetate phthalate
(c) Cellulose acetate phthalate (d) All of them
202. Which types of tablets are placed in a basket for coating…?

(a) Dip coating (b) Gelatin coating
(c) Electrostatic (d) Laminated
96
203. Coated tablets are called as GELCAPS…?
(a) Gelatin (b) Dip
(c) Electrostatic (d) Laminated
204. Capsules are ______ unit dosage form…?

(a) Semi-Solid (b) Solid
(c) Liquid (d) No one
205. Capsules are enclosed in a particular___________ and are used for oral use…?
(a) Tasteless, Soft or Hard Gelatin (b) Tasteless, Hard or Soft Gelatin Shell
(c) Color full Soft Gelatin (d) No One
206. How many types of capsules are used…?

(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 7 (d) 9
207. Hard gelatin capsule is prepared by reacting…?

(a) Sugar (b) Water, Gelatin
(c) Both a & b (d) No One
208. The hard shell of gelatin is…?

(a) Soft Gelatin Capsule (b) More Soft Gelatin Capsule
(c) Hard Gelatin Capsule (d) Both A & B
209. What is the mean of <Cap> in Hard Gelatin Capsules…?

(a) Shorter in diameter but large in length
(b) Slightly large in diameter but shorter in length
210. What is the mean of <Body> in Hard Gelatin Capsules…?

(a) Shorter in diameter and longer in length
(b) Slightly large in diameter but shorter in length
211. How many sizes of hard gelatin capsules are used for human medicine…?
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 8 (d) 10
212. Soft gelatin capsules are…?

(a) Oval (b) Tube Shape
(c) Round (d) All of them
213. Capsules can be______ to protect from light…?

(a) Transparent (b) Colored
214. Suppositories are ______ dosage form…?

(a) Semi-liquid (b) Semi-solid
(c) Solid (d) Both a & b
215. _______ are convenient for administration of drugs which irritate GIT…?
(a) Tablets (b) Capsules
(c) Suppositories (d) Both a & b
97
216. Easily administered to children, old people, and unconscious patients…?
(a) Tablets (b) Capsules
(c) Suppositories (d) Both a & b
217. Rectal suppositories are ______ at one or both ends…?

(a) Tapered (b) Straight
(c) Triangular (d) Both a & b
218. Rectal suppositories size is…?

(a) 11mm in length (b) 23mm in length
(c) 32mm in length (d) No One
219. Rectal suppositories weight in adults…?

(a) 1g (b) 2g
(c) 3g (d) 4g
220. Rectal suppositories weights in children…?

(a) 1g (b) 2g
(c) 3g (d) 4g
221. Pessaries means…?

(a) Rectal suppositories (b) Vaginal suppositories
(c) Urethral suppositories (d) Oral suppositories
222. Vaginal suppositories shape is…?

(a) Oval (b) Rod or Cone Shaped
(c) Both A & B (d) No One
223. Bougies means…?

(c) Urethral suppositories (d) No one
224. ______ are long, thin, pencil shaped rounded from both sides…?
(c) Urethral suppositories (d) All of these
225. Urethral suppositories male size in diameter & length…?

(a) 3-6mm diameter & 140mm length (b) 3-9mm diameter & 130mm length
(c) 3-5mm diameter & 160mm length (d) 3-4mm diameter & 170mm length
226. Urethral suppositories female size…?

(a) 22mm length (b) 40mm length
(c) 70mm length (d) 80mm length
227. Urethral suppositories male weight is…?

(a) 4g (b) 6g
(c) 8g (d) No One
98
228. Urethral suppositories female weight is…?
(a) 2g (b) 4g
(c) 6g (d) 8g
229. Nasal suppositories also known as…?

(a) Bougies (b) Nasal Bougies
(c) Vaginal Bougies (d) Rectal Bougies
230. Angised tablet contain…?

(a) Aspirin (b) Nitroglycerine
(c) Paracetamol (d) Piroxicam
231. Cac 1000 is an example of ___________ tablet…?

(a) Effervescent (b) Liquid
232. The Route beneath the Fatty tissues of the skin is called ____________...?
(a) IM (b) IV
(c) SC (d) ID
233. Voltral is an example of _________ coated tablet…?

(a) Sugar (b) Enteric
(c) Film (d) None
234. Strepsils are an example of _________...?

(a) Sublingual (b) Chewable
(c) Lozenges (d) All
235. Antacid are an example of …?

(a) Enteric Coated (b) Chewable
(c) Buccal Tab (d) All
236. Aspirin is…?

(a) Tablet (b) Syrup
(c) Elixir (d) Cream
237. Benzoic acid can be used as…?

(a) Desiccant (b) Preservative
(c) Diluents (d) Lubricant
238. Which tabs are not absorbs in stomach…?

(a) Sugar coated (b) Effervescent
(c) Sustained Release (d) Enteric Coated
239. Nasal suppositories size & weight is…?

(a) 11mm length / 0.1g (b) 22mm length / 0.5g
(c) 32mm length / 1g (d) 42mm Length / 1.5g
99
240. Aural suppositories also known as…?
(a) Bougies (b) Nasal Bougies
(c) Pessaries (d) Ear Cones
241. Aural suppositories shape is…?

(a) Pencil (b) Oval
(c) Rod (d) Cone
242. Ointments are _______ preparations used for application on the skin or mucous
membrane…?
(a) Soft and hard semi-liquid (b) Soft and greasy semi-solid
(c) Soft and hard (d) No one
243. How many types of ointments…?

(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
244. ________ contains a medicament dissolves, suspended or emulsified in the base…?

(a) Non-Medicated Ointment (b) Medicated Ointment
245. ________ are used for their emollient and protective action to the skin…?
(a) Non-Medicated Ointment (b) Medicated Ointment
246. ________ consist of water insoluble hydrophobic oils and fats…?

(a) Oleaginous bases (b) Absorption Bases
(c) Emulsion bases (d) Water soluble bases
247. ________ absorb large amount of water but still retain their ointment like consistency…?
248. ________ are semi-solid emulsions…?

249. How many types of emulsions bases…?

(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
250. Emulsions bases types are…?

(a) o/w (b) w/o
251. _______ contain only the water soluble ingredients but not the greasy substances…?
(a) Oleaginous bas (b) Absorption Bases
100
252. How many methods are used for the preparations of ointments…?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
253. The base selected for an eye must be…?

(a) Sterile (b) irritating
(c) Non Irritating (d) Pyrogen free
254. Ointment must be carried out under…?

(a) Moisture condition (b) Warm place
(c) Aseptic condition (d) In air
255. Ointments are packed in…?

(a) Vial (b) Jars
(c) Ampoule (d) Jars and collapsible tubes
256. The non greasy viscous liquid is known as…?

(a) Ointment (b) Pastes
(c) Cream (d) Granules
257. How many types of cream…?

(a) 1 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 4
258. W/O emulsions are also called __________ creams…?

(a) Oily (b) vanishing
(c) Watery (d) None
259. In creams for microbial and fungal growth which thing must be added…?
(a) Flavoring agent (b) Buffer
(c) Solubilizing agent (d) Preservative
260. For the packing of creams collapsible tubes are made up of …?

(a) Glass (b) Metal
(c) Plastic (d) Both a & b
261. Which one of the following is a hydrocolloid…?

(a) Alcohol (b) Talc
(c) Glycol (d) Gelatin
262. Pastes are _______ preparations, used for application to the______...?

(a) Semi-solid/ skin (b) Semi-Liquid/ topical
(c) Moderately solid (d) No one
263. ________ are more absorptive than ointments…?

(a) Gels (b) Suppositories
(c) Pastes (d) No one
101
264. _________are difficult to remove so not suitable for application to hairy area…?
(a) Suppositories (b) Pastes
265. _________ is most commonly used an anti-septic paste…?

(a) Zinc (b) Salicylic acid
(c) Lessar’s Paste (d) All of them
266. Which have high concentration of insoluble powder…?

(a) Cream (b) Paste
(c) Ointment (d) All of these
267. Alcohol is present in________...?

(a) Aerosols (b) Elixir
(c) Ointments (d) Pills
268. Mostly antibiotics can be given in the form of ___________...?

(a) Syrup (b) Suspension
269. Aspirin is a ________...?

(a) Weak acid (b) Weak base
(c) Strong acid (d) Strong base
Chapter # 6 Keys:
1 a 93 c 185 c
2 b 94 b 186 c
3 c 95 a 187 c
4 a 96 c 188 b
5 c 97 a 189 d
6 c 98 a 190 b
7 d 99 b 191 b
8 a 100 d 192 a
9 d 101 d 193 d
10 c 102 c 194 a
11 b 103 c 195 a
12 d 104 c 196 c
13 d 105 c 197 b
14 d 106 c 198 c
15 a 107 c 199 c
16 a 108 c 200 a
17 b 109 b 201 d
18 c 110 c 202 a
19 d 111 c 203 a
20 a 112 c 204 b
21 b 113 c 205 b
22 c 114 c 206 a
23 c 115 c 207 c
24 d 116 a 208 c
25 d 117 a 209 b
26 a 118 b 210 a
27 d 119 b 211 c
102
28 a 120 b 212 d
29 a 121 b 213 b
30 a 122 d 214 c
31 a 123 c 215 c
32 c 124 c 216 c
33 c 125 a 217 a
34 d 126 d 218 c
35 a 127 c 219 b
36 c 128 a 220 a
37 d 129 c 221 b
38 a 130 b 222 c
39 b 131 c 223 c
40 c 132 c 224 c
41 a 133 c 225 a
42 d 134 b 226 c
43 a 135 c 227 a
44 c 136 b 228 a
45 d 137 b 229 b
46 b 138 c 230 b
47 d 139 b 231 a
48 a 140 b 232 c
49 a 141 c 233 b
50 a 142 a 234 c
51 b 143 b 235 b
52 c 144 a 236 a
53 d 145 d 237 b
54 a 146 a 238 d
55 d 147 b 239 c
56 d 148 b 240 d
57 a 149 d 241 a
58 a 150 c 242 b
59 c 151 b 243 b
60 d 152 c 244 b
61 d 153 c 245 a
62 a 154 c 246 a
63 b 155 c 247 b
64 a 156 d 248 c
65 b 157 c 249 b
66 d 158 d 250 c
67 a 159 c 251 d
68 b 160 d 252 b
69 c 161 a 253 c
70 c 162 c 254 c
71 a 163 d 255 d
72 d 164 c 256 c
73 b 165 b 257 c
74 a 166 b 258 a
75 a 167 c 259 d
76 b 168 c 260 d
77 c 169 b 261 d
78 d 170 d 262 a
79 a 171 b 263 c
80 b 172 c 264 b
81 c 173 b 265 d
103
82 c 174 c 266 b
83 c 175 b 267 b
84 a 176 a 268 b
85 a 177 a 269 a
86 d 178 d
87 c 179 b
88 a 180 a
89 a 181 d
90 b 182 d
91 d 183 a
92 a 184 b
104
Chapter # 7:
1. In which drug is placed and is in direct contact with a drug…?
(a) Primary container (b) Secondary container
2. The closure seals the container…?

(a) To exclude oxygen (b) To exclude Co2
(c) Prevent the loss of volatile (d) All of these
3. The container which protects the preparation from contamination and to prevent loss of potency is
called…?
(a) Light resistance container (b) Well closed container
(c) Tamper evident container (d) All of these
4. Container used for inject able which does not allow air and other gases to pass through it…?
(a) Single dose container (b) Hermetically sealed container
(c) Well closed container (d) All of these
5. Collapsible tubes are used to pack…?

(a) Solid preparation (b) Liquid preparation
(c) Semi solid preparation (d) All of these
6. Dropper bottle are used to pack…?

(a) Eye drop (b) Ear drop
(c) Nasal drop (d) All of these
7. Strips are used to pack…?

(a) Solid dosage form (b) Liquid dosage form
(c) Semi solid dosage (d) All of these
8. The container which must be strong enough to withstand the pressure evolved at the time of use of
preparation…?
(a) Air tight container (b) Well closed container
(c) Aerosol container (d) .None of these
9. Type II glass is…?

(a) Borosilicate glass (b) Treated soda lime glass
(c) Soda lime glass (d) NP glass
10. Following are the type of plastic…?

(a) Polyvinyl Chloride (b) Poly Isoprene
11. The material composed of network of silicon and oxygen atom is called…?
(a) Plastic (b) Glass
(c) Rubber (d) None of these
105
12. The material used in pharmaceutical container…?
(a) Aluminum (b) Iron
(c) Tin (d) All of these
13. The material which has insignificant role in primary packing and predominant role in secondary
and tertiary packing…?
(a) Glass (b) Paper
(c) Plastic (d) Rubber
14. Material used for closure…?

(a) Glass (b) Plastic
(c) Rubber (d) All of these
15. When there are interrupted threads on closure instead of continuous thread the cap is called…?
(a) Thread screw cap (b) Crimp on cap
(c) Lug cap (d) Bung seal
16. The conical shape closure inserted about half of their length into the neck of container is called…?
(a) Thread screw cap (b) Crimp on cap
(c) Lug cap (d) Bung Seal
17. CRCS is abbreviation of…?

(a) Critical report of CS (b) Child Resistant Container and Closure
18. For Bung closure the excellent material…?

(a) Metal (b) Plastic
(c) Rubber (d) Glass
19. The art and science in preparing of product for transport storage, display and use is called…?
(a) Clinical pharmacy (b) Packaging
(c) Incompatibility (d) .None of these
20. In which drug is placed and is in direct contact with a drug…?

(a) Primary container (b) Secondary container
21. Sterilization performed after filling and sealing the container is called…?
(a) Aseptic process (b) Terminal sterilization
22. Sterilization process in which sterile product is packed in a sterile container is called…?
(a) Aseptic process (b) Terminal sterilization
23. Preparation and supply of sterile product is called…?

(a) Sterilization (b) Aseptic dispensing
(c) Septic dispensing (d) All of these
106
24. Interaction between two or more substance which lead to change in chemical, physical and
therapeutic proportion is called…?
(a) Degradation (b) Physical change
(c) Chemical change (d) Incompatibility
25. The part of prescription which contains the names and quantity of drug is called…?
(a) Superscription (b) Inscription
(c) Subscription (d) sig
26. Reading the prescription is the part of…?

(a) Checking the prescription (b) Compounding of prescription
(c) Receiving of prescription (d) Labeling
𝐴𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
27. Childe dose = 𝐴𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 +12 × adult dose…?
(a) Young’s Rule (b) Clark’s Rule

(c) Fried Rule (d) Counting S scale
28. Best glass which can be used for packing of every type of material…?
(a) Type II treated soda lime glass (b) Type I borosilicate glass
(c) Type III soda lime glass (d) Colored glass
29. Cap of jam bottle is an example of…?

(a) Crimp on (b) Press on
(c) Thread screw cap (d) Lug cap
30. Elasticity is the property of…?

(a) Metal (b) Rubber
(c) Plastic (d) Glass
31. Plasticity is the property of…?

(a) Metal (b) Rubber
(c) Plastic (d) Glass
32. In which technique medicines are supplied to individual patients in response to prescription…?
(a) Dispensing (b) Labeling
(c) Dosage (d) No one
33. Prescription is a written order from a physician dentist or any other registered medical
practitioner…?
(a) Yes (b) No
34. Meaning of Rx in prescription is…?

(a) Give me (b) You take
35. Sig refers to…?

(a) Subscription (b) Inscription
(c) Signatura (d) Refill status
107
36. Pharmacist should receive the prescription from a patient in a…?
(a) Salesman Manner (b) Professional Manner
(c) No one (d) All
37. If a ______ order received, the pharmacist has to transcribe it into written form…?
(a) Verbal (b) Writing format
38. The prescription order should be read carefully from…?

(a) Bottom to Top (b) Top to Bottom
(c) Corner to Corner (d) Front to Back
39. In prescription should not be there ______ regarding the spelling etc…?
(a) Clear word (b) Complete word
(c) Proper word (d) Guess work
40. Handling of prescription contains the…?

(a) Receiving (b) Compounding
(c) Delivering (d) All of these
41. Child dose = Weights in pounds x adult dose…?

150
(c) Fried’s Rules (d) Counting scales
42. Child dose = Child Age in Month x adult dose…?

150
(c) Fried’s Rules (d) Counting scales
43. For compounding material should be collected on which side of the balance…?
(a) Left hand side (b) Right hand side
44. Which of the following belongs to finalized the prescription…?

(a) Packaging (b) Labeling
(c) Rechecking (d) All of them
45. If cost of ingredients is rupees 08 and markup is 10% then the price is equal…?
(a) 8.8 (b) 80
(c) 8 (d) All of them
46. The price charged for filling a prescription must be sufficient to…?
(a) Cover the cost (b) Time required
(c) Professional Service fee (d) All
47. Prescription drug is divided into how many groups…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
108
48. Group A of prescription drug refers to which drugs…?
(a) Very Dangerous (b) Cannot be refilled
(c) Morphine (d) All
49. Which group of drugs is issued without prescription but record is being kept…?
(a) A (b) B
(c) X (d) E
Chapter # 7 Keys:
1 a 11 b 21 b 31 c 41 b
2 d 12 d 22 a 32 a 42 c
3 b 13 b 23 b 33 a 43 a
4 b 14 d 24 d 34 b 44 d
5 c 15 c 25 b 35 c 45 a
6 d 16 d 26 c 36 b 46 d
7 a 17 b 27 a 37 a 47 c
8 c 18 c 28 b 38 b 48 d
9 b 19 b 29 d 39 d 49 c
10 a 20 a 30 b 40 d
109
Chapter # 8:
1. HPN means…?
(a) High Performance Nutrients (b) Height Pressure of Nitrogen
(c) Home Parenteral Nutrition (d) .None of these
2. Large volume of TPN is administered through…?

(a) Peripheral vein (b) Superior Vena Cava
(c) Peripheral artery (d) .None of these
3. Preparation and supply of sterile product is called…?

(a) Sterilization (b) Aseptic dispensing
(c) Sepsis (d) Terminal sterilization
4. TPN stands for…?

(a) Transfer of proton & neutron (b) Total pressure of nitrogen gas
(c) Total Parenteral Nutrition (d) .None of these
5. Inability to absorb nutrients, vitamins and minerals from intestinal tract in to blood stream is
called…?
(a) Ulcerative colitis (b) Mal absorption syndrome
(c) Gastroenteritis (d) Pancreatitis
6. Carbohydrates of choices in dextrose in the form of ______ solution…?

(a) 5 – 80% v/v (b) 5 – 70% w/v
(c) 4 – 90% w/v (d) 6 – 65% v/v
7. Lack of ______ cause poor wound healing interference with body defense mechanism…?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen
(c) Oxygen (d) Carbon
8. _____ increase the uptake of dextrose…?

(a) HPN (b) CPN
(c) TPN (d) BPN
9. _____ is administrated in the form of oil in water emulsion…?

(a) Lipids (b) Fats
(c) Nitrogenous Base (d) No one
10. Fat provide ________ source in low volume…?

(a) High Calories (b) Low Calories
(c) Moderate Calories (d) All of them
11. Which of the following are the electrolytes…?

(a) Mg (b) K
(c) Cl. (d) All of them
110
12. Administering of enough basic nutrients to achieve tissue synthesis and growth via parenteral
route is called…?
(a) Hyper alimentation (b) TPN
(c) Total parenteral nutrition (d) All of these
13. The food component essential to life and health are called….?
(a) Enzyme (b) Vitamins
(c) Antibiotics (d) Nutrients
14. Organic none protein compound that’s binds with enzyme to catalyze a reaction is called…?
(a) Nutrients (b) Trace elements
(c) Co-enzyme (d) Co factor
15. Organic or inorganic in nature compound that do not bind the enzyme to catalyze the reaction are
called…?
(a) Nutrients (b) Trace elements
(c) Co-enzyme (d) Co factor
16. Trace elements are metabolic co factor and required for normal growth in…?
(a) Excess quantity (b) Minute quantity
(c) Not required (d) All of these
17. Solution containing more than 10% dextrose should be given via…?
(a) Peripheral vein (b) Superior vena cava
Chapter # 8 Keys:
1 c 7 a 13 d
2 b 8 c 14 c
3 b 9 b 15 d
4 c 10 a 16 b
5 b 11 d 17 b
6 b 12 d
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Chapter # 9:
1. The direct physical interaction between two or more component is called…?
(a) Chemical incompatibility (b) Therapeutic incompatibility
(c) Solubilization (d) None of these
2. Liquefaction is a type of…?

(a) Chemical incompatibility (b) Physical incompatibility
(c) Therapeutic incompatibility (d) .None of these
3. Hydrolysis is a type of…?

4. Acid-Base reaction is a type of…?

5. Antagonistic combination is a type of…?

6. Incorrect drug administering is a type of…?

7. During prescribing an undesirable product is formed which may affect the safety, purpose,
efficacy or appearance of the preparation is called…?
(a) Pharmaceutical Incompatibility (b) Therapeutic incompatibility
8. Pharmaceutical incompatibility included…?

(a) Physical incompatibility (b) Chemical incompatibility
9. Not included in the pharmaceutical incompatibility…?

(c) Therapeutic incompatibility (d) All of these
10. Example of physical incompatibility…?

(a) Gelatinization (b) Immiscibility
(c) Liquefaction (d) All of these
11. Oxidation, Reduction, Reaction is an example of…?

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12. Example of Chemical incompatibility…?
(a) Combination reaction (b) Hydrolysis
(c) Acid base reaction (d) All of these
13. Over dose and under dose is an example of…?

(a) Physical incompatibility (b) Pharmaceutical incompatibility
14. Example of Therapeutic incompatibility…?

(a) Excessive single dose (b) Excessive daily dose
(c) Synergistic combination (d) All of these
15. Contraindication is the example of…?

16. Therapeutic incompatibility include…?

(a) Insolubility (b) Hydrolysis
(c) Precipitation (d) Wrong dosage form
17. In drug synergy effect of drug 1 + 1 ____ 2…?

(a) < (b) >
(c) = (d) None
18. TDS means…?

(a) Once a day (b) Two Time a day
(c) Three times a day (d) None of them
19. In drug antagonism effect of drug is 1 + 1 = ________...?

(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 0 (d) 11
Chapter # 9 Keys:
1 d 9 c 17 b
2 b 10 d 18 c
3 a 11 b 19 c
4 a 12 d
5 c 13 c
6 c 14 d
7 c 15 c
8 c 16 d
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Chapter # 10:
1. The substance deposited on the surface is called…?
(a) Absorption (b) Adsorbate
(c) Adsorbent (d) Adsorption
2. The substance on the surface of which something is deposited is called…?

3. Penetration into the body of solid is called…?

4. Adsorption and surface area are…?

(a) Inversely proportional (b) Directly Proportional
(c) No effect (d) Both a & b
5. Adsorption and temperature are…?

(a) Inversely proportional (b) Directly proportional
(c) No effect (d) Both a & b
6. Calcinations are the process in which substances are strongly heated is…?
(a) Organic (b) Inorganic
7. Separation of lighter portion of solution, suspension from heavier portion by rotating at high speed
is called…?
(a) Centrifugation (b) Decantation
(c) Distillation (d) Elutriation
8. The speed in ultracentrifugation is…?

(a) 30000 rpm (b) 70000 rpm
(c) 12000 rpm (d) No one
9. Calcinations are used to convert…?

(a) Sucrose to glucose (b) Carbonate to Oxide
(c) Ferrous to ferric oxide (d) Aspirin to acetic acid
10. Organic substances are strongly heated to burn the carbon part and convert into ash in the
process…?
(a) Calcinations (b) Exsiccation
(c) Ignition (d) None of these
11. Inorganic substances are strongly heated to remove the volatile components in the process of…?
(c) Desiccation (d) Incineration
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12. The process of removal of admix water called…?
13. Process of removal of water of crystallization is called…?

(a) Calcination (b) Exsiccation
14. High speed centrifugation machine spun at…?

(a) 13000 rpm (b) 70000 rpm
(c) 30000 rpm (d) None of these
15. Conversion of liquid to solid by evaporation, cooling or precipitation is called…?

(a) Distillation (b) Decantation
(c) Crystallization (d) Precipitation
16. The liquid left behind after crystallization is called…?

(a) Distillate (b) Mother Liquor
(c) Mother tincture (d) Solvent
17. Method of crystallization by lowering the temperature of supersaturated solution is called…?

(a) Evaporation (b) Cooling method
(c) Precipitation (d) .None of these
18. The process of separating out of the impurities form solution is called…?
(a) Crystallization (b) Distillation
(c) Decantation (d) Elutriation
19. The initial process that occurs in formation of crystal from a solution is called…?
(a) Crystal growth (b) Evaporation
(c) Crystal Nucleation (d) Crystallization
20. The process of separating miscible volatile liquid having different boiling point is called…?
(a) Distillation (b) Fractional distillation
(c) Steam distillation (d) Vacuum distillation
21. Distillation at reduced pressure is called…?

(a) Simple distillation (b) Fractional distillation
(c) Steam distillation (d) Vacuum distillation
22. The conversion of liquid into vapor and then condensed back to liquid is called…?
(a) Crystallization (b) Condensation
(c) Evaporation (d) Distillation
23. The liquid collected after cooling the vapors is called…?

(a) Crystal (b) Distillation
(c) Distillate (d) None of these
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24. The liquid which decomposed at their boiling point can be distilled by the process…?
(a) Simple distillation (b) Steam distillation
(c) Vacuum distillation (d) Fractional distillation
25. The apparent outward force on a mass when it is rotated is called…?

(a) Centripetal force (b) Centrifugal force
26. The process of separating out the insoluble impurities from the soluble portion of the solution…?
(c) Elutriation (d) None of these
27. The maximum angular speed in micro centrifuge is…?

(a) 12000 - 13000 rpm (b) 30000 rpm
28. The maximum angular speed in ultra centrifuge is…?

(a) 12000-13000 rpm (b) 30000 rpm
29. Centrifugation is used to separate…?

(a) Solid-liquid (b) Liquid-liquid
30. Separation of different particles size of powder by stirring it with large volume of liquid in which
it is insoluble…?
31. Chalk is produced from native CaCo 3 by the process of…?

32. In Elutriation the upper layer of liquid contains suspension of…?

(a) Fine particle (b) Course particle
(c) Very course particle (d) None of these
33. The process used to remove fat from milk to produce skimmed milk…?
34. Removal of water of crystallization by heating is called…?

(c) Desiccation (d) Evaporation
35. Removal of volatile component from inorganic compound by heating is…?

(c) Desiccation (d) Evaporation
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36. The products that have under gone the desiccation process called…?
(a) Desiccant (b) Desiccated
(c) Desiccators (d) All of these
37. Wet grinding is…?

(a) Trituration (b) Levigation
38. The process of grinding of an insoluble substance to a fine powder while wet is called…?
(a) Trituration (b) Levigation
39. Loss of water of crystallization from hydrated substance in the atmospheric without
Heating is called…?
(a) Efflorescence (b) Exeiciation
40. Removal of water of crystallization by heating is called…?

41. Spontaneous loss of water by a hydrated salt which occurs, when the aqueous vapors pressure of
the hydrated compound is greater the partial pressure of vapor in the air is called…?
42. The property of a compound to convert itself from anhydrous to hydrate form is called…?
(a) Hygroscopicity (b) Hydrophobic
(c) Water of crystallization (d) No one
43. The deliquescence material should be kept in…?

(a) Light resistance container (b) Amber color container
(c) Well closed container (d) .None of these
44. The substances that are used to remove admix water is called…?
(a) Desiccant (b) Desiccate
(c) Desiccators (d) Exsiccated
45. After the complete removal of admix water the product is also called…?
(a) Deliquescence product (b) Dried Product
(c) Exsiccated product (d) None of these
46. Silica gel is a…?

(a) Desiccate (b) Desiccant
(c) Desiccators (d) None of these
47. Desiccation is…?

(a) Increase the stability (b) Facilitate communication
(c) Increase shelf-life (d) All of these
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48. Exsiccation is the process of removing of water…?
(a) Admix water (b) Water of crystallization
49. CUSO4. 5H2O when heated to 100oc it loses…?

(a) One molecule of water (b) Two molecules of water
(c) Three molecules of water (d) Four molecules of water
50. The method of separating the constituents of a liquid by vaporizing the liquid on the basis of their
volatilities…?
(a) Distillation (b) Boiling
51. The purification of liquid by process of heating and cooling is called…?

(a) Evaporation (b) Boiling
(c) Distillation (d) None of these
52. The process which is used to separate the miscible liquid having different boiling point is
called…?
(a) Simple distillation (b) Steam distillation
(c) Fractional distillation (d) All of these
53. The distillation at atmospheric pressure is called…?

(a) Vacuum distillation (b) Simple distillation
54. The distillation which is not performed at atmospheric pressure is called…?

(a) Simple (b) Steam
(c) Fractional (d) Vacuum
55. Which Distillation performed at low temperature than its boiling point is called…?
(a) Simple (b) Steam
(c) Fractional (d) Vacuum
56. Petrol, kerosene, fuel oil, lubricant oil produced by which distillation…?
(a) Simple distillation (b) Steam
(c) Fractional (d) vacuum
57. Transition from the liquid to gas phase is called…?

(a) Melting (b) Evaporation
(c) Sublimation (d) None of these
58. Evaporation takes place…?

(a) At all temperature (b) Only at boiling point
59. Boiling takes place…?

(a) At all temperatures (b) Only at one temperature at give atmospheric pressure
118
60. FeSo4. 7H2O when heated to 100oc it loses…?
(a) Two molecules of water (b) Three molecules of water
(c) Six molecules of water (d) seven molecules of water
61. Average temperature for Calcination…?

(a) 20-150oc (b) 200-400oc
(c) 500-8000c (d) None of these
62. CaCo3 is converted into CaO by the process of…?

(c) Desiccation (d) None of these
63. Calcination is used in…?

(a) Volumetric analysis (b) Gravimetric analysis
64. Exsiccation helps in…?

(a) Increase shelf-life (b) Reduce the bulk and weight
(c) To obtain powder of substance (d) All of these
65. The compound having tendency to convert itself from anhydrous to hydrated form is called…?
(a) Hygroscopic (b) Deliquescence compound
66. The compound which absorbed water from air and convert itself in to liquid is called…?
67. The solid compound which absorbs water from air and not converts into liquid form is called…?
68. The meaning of word deliquescence…?
(a) Hydrated compound (b) Water absorbing
(c) Becoming liquid (d) .None of these
Chapter # 10 Keys:
1 b 15 c 29 c 43 c 57 b
2 c 16 b 30 c 44 a 58 a
3 a 17 b 31 c 45 b 59 b
4 b 18 c 32 a 46 b 60 c
5 a 19 c 33 a 47 d 61 c
6 b 20 c 34 b 48 b 62 a
7 a 21 d 35 a 49 d 63 b
8 b 22 d 36 b 50 a 64 d
9 b 23 c 37 b 51 c 65 c
10 c 24 c 38 b 52 c 66 b
11 a 25 b 39 a 53 b 67 a
12 d 26 b 40 b 54 d 68 c
13 b 27 a 41 a 55 d
14 c 28 c 42 a 56 c
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Chapter # 11:
1. Unit of density is…?
(a) N/m (b) m3
(c) Kg / m3 (d) None
2. The _______of an object is usually taken to be the force on the object due to gravity…?
(a) Weight (b) Measures
(c) Area (d) Length
3. Finding out the size, amount or degree of something by using an instrument…?

(a) Weight (b) Measures
(c) Area (d) Length
4. How many systems of weight and measures are there…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
5. Examples of Imperial measures are…?

(a) Length (b) Area
(c) Weight (d) All of them
6. The most commonly used system of weights and measures in pharmacy is…?
(a) Imperial (b) Metric
7. 1 tsp = __________ ml…?

(a) 10 (b) 5
(c) 20 (d) 22
8. In imperial system volume is measured in __________...?

(a) Fl.Oz (b) tsp
(c) Liter (d) ml
9. Measure of gravitational force acting on the body is called…?

(a) Weight (b) Mass
(c) Measure (d) None of these
10. Inch, yard, Feet and Pound refers to…?

(a) Imperial System (b) Metric System
11. Apothecary and Avoirdupois relates to…?

(a) Imperial System (b) Metric System
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12. Pound in Apothecary…?
(a) 7000 grain (b) 700 grain
(c) 5760 grain (d) No one
13. Pound in Avoirdupois…?

(a) 7000 grain (b) 700 grain
(c) 5760 grain (d) No one
14. Pound in Apothecary…?

(a) 12 ounce (b) 16 ounce
(c) 20 ounce (d) 30 ounce
15. Pound in Avoirdupois…?

(a) 12 ounce (b) 16 ounce
(c) 20 ounce (d) 30 ounce
16. 1 grain =…?

(a) 60mg (b) 65 mg
(c) 70 mg (d) 75 mg
17. How many liters are present in centi liter…?

(a) 100 (b) 1/100
(c) 10 (d) No of these
18. How many microns are present in centi liter…?

(a) 1000 (b) 10,000
(c) 100,000 (d) 100,0000
19. How many meters are present in nano meter…?

(a) 10-6 (b) 10-9
(c) 10+9 (d) 1/100,0000
20. 1 mili is________ times of basic unit…?

(a) 1/1000 (b) 1/10,000
(c) 1 /10 (d) No one
21. 1 deca is ________ time of basic unit…?

(a) 10 (b) 100
(c) 1000 (d) None of them
22. 1 hecto is ________ times of basic unit…?

(a) 10 (b) 100
(c) 1000 (d) None of them
23. 1 deci liter =…?

(a) 0.1 liter (b) 1/10 liter
(c) 100 ml (d) All of these
121
24. Measure of average kinetic energy of general molecules within the material or system is called…?
(a) Temperature (b) Heat
25. In centigrade the boiling point of the water…?

(a) 212 (b) 100
(c) 373 (d) No one
26. In Fahrenheit the boiling point of the water…?

(a) 212 (b) 100
(c) 373.16 (d) No one
27. Freezing point of water is…?

(a) 0oC (b) 32oF
(c) 273.16oK (d) All of these
28. Boiling point of water…?

(a) 100oC (c) 212oF
(c) 373.16oK (d) All of them
29. In Celsius temperature scale there are __________division from freezing to boiling of water…?
(a) 100 (b) 180
(c) 150 (d) No one
30. In Fahrenheit temperature scale there are __________division from freezing to boiling of
water…?
(a) 100 (b) 180
(c) 150 (d) No one
31. Mass of substance per unit volume is called…?

(a) Weight (b) Density
(c) Viscosity (d) No of these
32. Unit of density…?

(a) Kg/m3 (b) kg/m2
33. Measure of the space occupied by an object is called…?

(a) Volume (b) weight
(c) Density (d) All of these
mass/density
34. Volume =_________...?
(a) Weight/ Density (b) Density/ Weight
35. Type of % preparation is…?

(a) w/v (b) w/w
(c) v/v (d) All of these
122
36. 5% w/v solution means…?
(a) 5 gm of solute in 100 ml of solution (b) 5ml of solute in 100ml of solution
(a) 5 gm of solute in 100 gm of solution (d) None of these
Chapter #11 Keys:

1 c 13 a 25 b
2 a 14 a 26 a
3 b 15 b 27 d
4 b 16 b 28 d
5 d 17 b 29 a
6 b 18 b 30 b
7 b 19 b 31 b
8 a 20 a 32 a
9 a 21 a 33 a
10 a 22 b 34 a
11 a 23 d 35 d
12 c 24 a 36 a
123
Important Pharmaceutics Subjective Questions:
Chapter # 1:
1. Define Pharmacy and name the types of Pharmacy also define the Forensic Pharmacy?
2. Write industrial Pharmacy in detail?
3. Difference between Retail and Whole Sale Pharmacy as well as Pharmacist and Pharmacist
Technician?
4. What is the difference between Hospital and Clinical Pharmacist?
5. Define Pharmaco economic studies and Therapeutics?
Chapter # 2:
1. Define Drug and name the classification of drug on the basis of sale?
2. What are the difference between Synthetic and Semi synthetic Drug along Generic name and
Brand name with suitable example?
3. Write about the chemical name and potency of drug?
Chapter # 3:
1. What are Pharmacopoeias also mention the types of Pharmacy Books?
2. Write down the main points of B.P and U.S.P?
3. Describe non-official books in detail?
Chapter # 4:
1. Describe the majors of Al-KINDI and IBN- AL- NAFIS?
2. Explain ABU-ALI-SINA and JABER-BIN-HAYYAN?
Chapter # 5:
1. Explain Surface Tension with the factors that affect Surface Tension?
2. Write about the Viscosity and Types of Viscometers?
3. How size and shape of molecule affect the viscosity?
4. What is the difference between Adhesive and Cohesive forces?
 Atom
 Ion
 Cation
 Anion
 Electrode
6. What is Ionization energy and J.J Thomson Experiment?
124
7. Write about the application of Ionization?
8. Define pH and pH meters and the role of pH meters?
9. Write in detail the application of pH also define Titration?
10. Define Buffers and name the useful buffers mixtures?
11. Write about the Theory of Buffers?
 Isotonicity
 Hypertonic
 Hypotonic
13. What are the effects of Hypertonic and Hypotonic Solutions in our Body?
14. Applications of Isotonic Solution in Pharmacy?
Chapter # 6:
 Diluents
 Binder
 Disintegrant
 Glidants
 Stabilizer
2. Write a note on Surfactants and Hydrocolloids?
3. Classify the dosage form on the basis of Physical form?
4. Explain the types of dosage form on the basis of route of administration?
5. Write a short note on Oral Solution?
6. Differentiate between Syrup, Elixir also give the method of preparation of syrup?
7. Write a note on disperse system also describe the difference between emulsion and suspension?
8. Give the method of preparation of emulsion and differentiate between w/o and o/w emulsion?
9. Differentiate between Lotion and Liniments also write down the defect of emulsion?
10. Write down note on Inhalation and give the different parts of aerosols?
11. Write a comprehensive note on injection?
12. Give the formulation of Tablet and name the different types of tablet?
13. Give the types of coating of tablets and write down the detail of sugar coating?
14. Differentiate between the Hard Gelatin capsule and Soft Gelatin capsule?
15. Give the advantages and disadvantages of inject able preparations?
16. Define Suppositories and write a note on Suppositories base?
17. Differentiate between Ointment, Cream and Paste and give the classification of ointment bases?
Chapter # 7:
1. Write a comprehensive note on prescription and briefly describe the handling of prescription?
2. What is dispensing and compounding also write down the different formulas for the calculation of
Child dose?
3. Give the different type of container and closure; also write a note on material used for container
and closure?
125
Chapter # 8:
1. Write a note on TPN and also differentiate between the following:
 Electrolytes
 Co- Enzyme
 Co- Factor
2. Define the Aseptic dispensing and give the detail of Aseptic process?
Chapter # 9:
1. Define Incompatibility and describe the pharmaceutical incompatibilities?
2. Differentiate between Pharmaceutical and Therapeutical Incompatibilities?
Chapter # 10:
 Adsorption
 Absorption
 Adsorbent
 Adsorbate
2. Differentiate between the following:
 Calcination
 Exsiccation
 Efflorescence
3. Write a note on centrifugation and also give its applications?
4. Give the formulation of crystals and factor affecting the crystallization?
5. Differentiate between Decantation and Elutriation?
6. Write a comprehensive note on desiccation?
7. Define distillation and give its types?
8. Differentiate between Vacuum and Fractional Distillation?
9. Write a short note on:
 Evaporation
 Boiling point
 Fusion
 Sublimation
 Ignition
10. Describe the factors affecting the evaporation?
11. Write a comprehensive note on lyphalization?
12. Differentiate between Levigation and Trituration?
 Nasal Drop
 Gels
 Cachet
 Colloidion
 Draught
14. Differentiate between Insufflations and Irrigation?
126
15. Write a short note on the following:
 Lozenges (Troches)
 Mouthwash
 Pills
 Linctuses
 Poultices
Chapter # 11:
1. Write a note imperial and metric system?
2. Convert 300oC into Fahrenheit?
3. Convert 500oK into Fahrenheit?
4. Convert 450oF into Co Temperature?
5. Prepare 5 liter 5% w/v dextrose solution in normal saline?
6. Prepare 2.5 liter half normal saline solution?
7. Calculate the weight of 30ml solution having density 1.3kg/m3?
127
Microbiology
Introduction Bacteria &

& Scope of Culture
Microbiology Media
Vaccine &
AntiSera Virus
Preparation
Immunology Fungi
Sterlization
128
Chapter # 1:
1. The word microbiology is derived from the__________ Greek words,
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
2. Micron means ________

(a) Small (b) Large
3. Microbiology is the study of __________________:

(a) Plants (b) Humans
(c) Animals (d) Micro- organism
4. Microbe is a term for __________________________:

(a) Tiny creature (b) Large creature
(c) Living creature (d) Non-living creature
5. In which year Robert hook gave deception of microscope and its uses,
(a) 1645 (b) 1655
(c) 1665 (d) 1673
6. In 1670 who was revealed the descriptions of microorganism,

(a) Leven hook (b) Robert hook
(c) Austin hook (d) Schmidt hook
7. In which century Science dominates and microbiology is become one of the newer sciences,
(a) 19th Century (b) 20th Century
(c) 21th Century (d) No one
8. Microbiologist has discovered _____________ for the prevention of disease,

(a) vaccines (b) tablets
(c) Capsules (d) vitamins
9. Microbiologist has discovered the vaccines for in which of the following,

(a) smallpox (b) polio
(c) Both a & b (d) malaria
10. When were the bacteria discovered by Leuven van Hook,

(a) In 1670 (b) In 1674
(c) In 1675 (d) In 1676
11. In which year a Danish scientist Fredrick Muller named the bacteria a Bacilli,
(a) 1770 (b) 1773
(c) 1775 (d) 1779
129
12. In which year French biologist Casmir Bavaine gave the name of Bacteria,
(a) 1840 (b) 1850
(c) 1860 (d) 1870
Chapter # 1 Keys:
1 b 4 a 7 b 10 d
2 a 5 c 8 a 11 b
3 d 6 a 9 c 12 b
130
Chapter # 2:
1. Microscopic, unicellular, prokaryotic organisms characterized by the lack of membrane bound
nucleus and membrane bound organelles relates to which of the following…?
(a) Virus (b) Protozoa
(c) Both a & b (d) Bacteria
2. Size of Bacilli….?
(a) 20µm long (b) 20µm small
(c) 20 µm long & small (d) both b & c
3. Cocci tend to be quite small being only __________ in diameter…?

(a) 0.1µm to 1.0µm (b) 0.3µm to 1.0µm
(c) 0.5µm to 1.0µm (d) 0.7µm to 1.0µm
4. Cocci that remain in pairs after reproduction are called_____________...?

(a) Diplococci (b) Streptococci
(c) Staphylococci (d) None of them
5. Neisseria gonorrhea relates to which of following…?

(a) Staphylococci (b) streptococci
(c) Diplococci (d) None of them
6. Which Cocci remain in chains…?

(a) Streptococci (b) staphylococcus
7. The Cocci which divide randomly and form irregular grapes like cluster of cells is called…?
(a) Staphylococcus (b) Diplococci
(c) Streptococcus (d) All of them
8. ________ are the curved rods that resemble to commas…?

(a) Peptidoglycans (b) Mycoplasma
(c) Spirilla (d) Vibrios
9. Causes of Vibrio cholera…?

(a) Malaria (b) Typhoid
(c) Cholera (d) Both a & b
10. Which of the following are the helical shaped…?

(a) Spirilla (b) Vibrios
(c) Prions (d) Virions
11. Spirillum volutan is an example of…?

(a) Vibrios (b) Spirilla
131
12. With the exception of__________ all bacteria have a cell wall…?
(a) N-glucosamine (b) Peptidoglycans
(c) Mycoplasma (d) Muramic acid
13. Which of the following is an important component of bacterial cell wall…?

(a) Peptidoglycans (b) Carbohydrates
(c) Amino Acids (d) All of them
14. In Gram positive bacteria the peptidoglycans is…?

(a) 3nm (b) 3mm
(c) 25nm (d) 25mm
15. In gram positive the cell wall of peptidoglycans is about…?

(a) 60-90% (b) 60-80%
(c) 50-90% (d) 40-90%
16. Which of the following contain no-Teichoic acid…?

(a) Cell-wall of Gram positive (b) Cell-wall of Gram negative
17. Cell- wall is more complex in which of the following…?

(a) Gram-negative (b) Gram-positive
18. Loose layer of capsule is called…?

(a) Envelope (b) cytoplasm
(c) Both a & b (d) Glycocalyx
19. _________ is semi transparent and semi fluid…?

(a) Chromosome (b) Genes
(c) Cytoplasm (d) all of them
20. Particles of starch, lipids in cytoplasm…?

(a) Inclusion bodies (b) Capsule
(c) Vibrios (d) Volutin
21. _________ is the relationship between two organisms…?

(a) Infection (b) Disease
22. ______ may be conceptualized as any change from the general state of good health…?
(a) Disease (b) Infection
(c) Wound (d) All of them
23. The relationship between the body and its normal flora is an example of…?
(a) Commensalism (b) Mutualism
(c) Symbiosis (d) Parasitism
132
24. Symbiosis is beneficial to both the body and the microorganisms…?
(a) Mutualism (b) commensalism
(c) Infection (d) Disease
25. Which species live in the human vagina…?

(a) Lactobacillus (b) E. coli
(c) Coccus (d) no one
26. In which cases, the symbiosis is beneficial only to the microorganisms…?

(a) Parasitism (b) Commensalism
(c) Both a & b (d) no one
27. Propioni bacterium acnes found in which of the following….?

(a) Skin (b) Oral cavity
(c) Stomach (d) Intestine
28. Neisseria, Leptotrichiafound in which of the following…?

(a) Skin (b) stomach
(c) Vagina (d) Oral cavity
29. Mycoplasnia is found in which of the following…?

(a) URT (b) LRT
(c) GIT (d) none of them
30. Disease occurs if the body defenses are…?

(a) Compromised (b) strong
(c) Weak (d) Both a & c
31. Clostridium spores arefound in which of the following…?

(a) S & L Intestine (b) S intestine
(c) L intestine (d) Vagina
32. Escherichia coli is a well-known resident of the intestine…?

(a) Streptococcus (b) Staphylococcus
(c) E. Coli (d) Mycoplasnia
33. An organism having pathogenicity…?

(a) Virulancy (b) Pathogens
(c) Parasitism (d) All of these
34. The word virulence is used to express the degree of ________ of a parasite…?
(a) Pathogenicity (b) Malignancy
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Chapter # 2 Keys:
1 d 8 d 15 a 22 a 29 a
2 a 9 c 16 b 23 c 30 d
3 c 10 a 17 a 24 a 31 a
4 a 11 b 18 d 25 a 32 c
5 c 12 c 19 c 26 b 33 b
6 a 13 a 20 d 27 a 34 a
7 a 14 c 21 a 28 d
134
Chapter # 3:
1. Agar is a polysaccharide derived from ___________...?
(a) Marine algae (b) Water
(c) Soil (d) Marine species
2. Which of the following cause strep throat…?

(a) Streptococci (b) Virulancy
(c) Marine species (d) All of them
3. To encourage the growth of Neisseria species, blood agar is heated before…?

(a) Liquidation (b) Solidification
(c) Emulsification (d) Sponification
4. Heating disrupts the red blood cells and releases the…?

(a) Platelets (b) WBCs
(c) RBCs (d) Hemoglobin
5. Mannitol Salt Agar is an example of…?

(a) Natural media (b) Synthetic media
(c) Selective media (d) Mixed media
6. ______ Medium makes it easy to distinguish colonies of one organism from colonies of other
organisms on the same plate…?
(a) Differential medium (b) Synthetic media
(c) Selective media (d) Mixed media
7. Mac-Conkey _ agar contains bile salts that inhibit the growth of…?
(a) Gram-positive (b) Gram-negative
(c) Both a & b (d)None one
8. Nature and amount of each component is known in which of the following…?

(a) Natural media (b) Differential media
(c) Synthetic media (d) all of them
9. ________ is used in DNA and RNA synthesis…?

(a) Phosphate (b) Calcium
(c) Magnesium (d) Zinc
10. _______________ maintains a stable internal environment in the cytoplasm…?

(a) Calcium Chloride (b) Magnesium chloride
(c) Sodium chloride (d) Potassium
11. The media about which one cannot be certain of the exact components or their quantity are called
________ for Bacteria…?
(a) Natural Media (b) Synthetic media
(c) Semi synthetic (d) Semi natural
135
12. Pasteur and Koch, used in which of the following media…?
(a) Beef broth (b) Chicken broth
13. The modern form of beef broth medium, called…?

(a) Synthetic broth (b) Nutrient broth
(c) Virus broth (d) Bacteria broth
14. Certain fastidious bacteria may require specially…?

(a) Differential media (b) Synthetic media
(c) Natural media (d) Enriched media
Chapter # 3 Keys:
1 a 4 d 7 a 10 c 13 b
2 a 5 c 8 c 11 a 14 d
3 b 6 a 9 a 12 a
136
Chapter # 4:
1. Virus is a Latin word meaning…?
(a) Poison (b) Drug
(c) Parasite (d) All of above
2. Word “virus” means…?

(a) Toxins (b) Poison
(c) Venom (d) Infectious
3. Viruses are obligate intracellular…?

(a) Bacteria (b) Protozoa
(c) Fungi (d) Parasite
4. Viruses are _____________ infectious agents consist of either DNA or RNA…?

(a) Non cellular (b) Unicellular
(c) Cellular (d) Multi cellular
5. In which year the botanist had been trying to find the cause of tobacco mosaic disease…?
(a) 1500 (b) 1600
(c) 1700 (d) 1800
6. In which year D. iwanowski tried to filter the sap of infected tobacco plants…?
(a) 1692 (b) 1792
(c) 1892 (d) 1992
7. Viruses may appear in…?

(a) One shape (b) Several shapes
8. The helix is a tightly wound coil resembling a corkscrew or _______...?

(a) Spring (b) Rod
(c) Cylinder (d) All of them
9. Viruses of rabies and tobacco mosaic viruses have…?

(a) Symmetry (b) A symmetry
(c) Helical symmetry (d) Both a & b
10. The icosahedrons a polyhedron with…?

(a) 20 triangular faces and 12 corners (b) 20 angular faces and 12 corners
(c) 20 triangular faces and 12 slides (d) 20 biangular faces and 12 corners
11. Which of the following relates to icosahedral symmetry…?

(a) Herpes simplex and polio viruses (b) Herpes simplex and Typhoid viruses
(c) Polio viruses and Malaria viruses (d) Herpes simplex and Measles viruses
137
12. A combination of helical and _____________ is described as complex…?
(a) icosahedral symmetry (b) Icosahedral asymmetry
(c) icosahedral non-symmetry (d) icosahedral multi symmetry
13. Some bacterio-phages have ____________ symmetry…?

(a) Simple (b) Complex
14. All viruses consist of how many basic components…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
15. Acore of nucleic acidis the…?

(a) Envelope (b) Capsule
(c) Genome (d) Capsid
16. Coat of protein known as the…?

17. The genome contains…?

(a) DNA or RNA (b) DNA & RNA
(c) DNA (d) RNA
18. The _________________ occurs in double-stranded or single-stranded form…?

(a) Ribosomes (b) Nucleus
(c) Nucleic acid (d) Cytoplasm
19. The _____________ may be folded, condensed, or coiled…?

(a) Genome (b) Capsid
(c) Envelope (d) No one
20. The _____________ protects the genome…?

(a) Capsule (b) Capsid
21. Which of the following relate it also gives shape to the virus…?
(a) Envelope (b) Genome
(c) Capsid (d) Capsule
22. Generally ________________________ subunits called capsomeres…?

(a) Capsid divided into individual protein
(b) Capsid subdivided into individual protein
(c) Capsule subdivided into individual Protein
(d) Capsule divided into individual protein
23. The number of ________ is characteristic for a particular virus…?

(a) Capsomeres (b) Capsid
(c) Envelope (d) Genome
138
24. Capsid of herpes viruses is made up of _____ Capsomeres…?
(a) 142 (b) 152
(c) 162 (d) 172
25. 1-Capsid of adenoviruses which cause some common colds is made up of ____ capsomeres…?
(a) 122 (b) 132
(c) 152 (d) 252
26. Many viruses are surrounded by a flexible membrane known as _______...?

27. Envelope is composed of …?

(a) Lipids and protein (b) Lipids and water
(c) Lipids and gel (d) no one
28. The spikes often contain _______ to assist the attachment of viruses to host cells…?
(a) Lipids (b) proteins
(c) Enzymes (d) catalyst
29. Viruses may lose their infectivity when the envelope is destroyed relates to which…?
(a) Enveloped (b) Adeno Viruses
(c) Virion (d) Viroids
30. Completely assembled virus outside its host cell related to which of the following…?
(a) Viroids (b) Virions
(c) Prions (d) All of these
31. Viroids are tiny fragments of…?

(a) Cytoplasm (b) Ribosomes
(c) Nucleic acid (d) Genome
32. Prions are infectious particles made of…?

(a) Water (b) Lipids
(c) Gels (d) Proteins
33. Mad Cow disease relates to which of the following…?

(a) Virions (b) Prions
(c) Viroids (d) All of these
34. The genome replication of most _______ viruses takes place in the cell's nucleus…?
(a) DNA (b) RNA
35. These viruses are unique because their genetic information is encoded in RNA relates to which of
the following…?
(a) RNA Viruses (b) DNA Viruses
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36. Replication RNA viruses usually takes place in the…?
(a) Golgi bodies (b) Cytoplasm
(c) Nucleus (d) Ribosomes
37. Positive-sense viral RNA is identical to viral mRNA and thus can be immediately translated by
the…?
(a) RNA (b) DNA
(c) Micro-organism (d) Host cell
38. Negative-sense viral RNA is complementary to mRNA and thus must be converted to positive-
sense RNA by an RNA polymerase before…?
(a) Translation (b) Transcription
39. In which year, André Lwoff, Robert Horne, and Paul Tournier were the first to develop a means of
virus classification…?
(a) 1960 (b) 1961
(c) 1962 (d) 1963
40. This system bases classification on phylum, class, order, family, genus, and…?
(a) Species (b) Kingdom
41. Viruses were grouped according to their shared properties and the type of nucleic acid forming
their…?
(a) Envelope (b) Genomes
(c) Capsule (d) Capsid
42. Reproduction of virus takes place only in…?

(a) Non- living (b) Parasite
(c) Non- renewable (d) Living host cell
43. Where the replication of DNA virus takes place…?

(a) Cytoplasm (b) Nucleus
(c) Mitochondria (d) Cell wall
44. Which one of the following is identical to mRNA…?

(a) DNA virus (b) –ve sense
(c) Coding strand (d) +ve sense
45. Virus is mainly composed of…?

(a) DNA (b) RNA
46. ICTV Stands for…?

(a) International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses
(b) International Council on Taxonomy of Viruses
(c) International Conference on Taxonomy of Viruses
(d) International Committee on Toxicity of Viruses
140
47. They are tailed dsDNA (group I) bacterio-phages, relates to which…?
(a) Mononegavirales (b) Caudovirales
(c) Herpesviraleso (d) Nidovirales
Chapter # 4 Keys:
1 a 11 a 21 c 31 c 41 b
2 b 12 a 22 b 32 d 42 d
3 d 13 b 23 a 33 b 43 b
4 a 14 b 24 c 34 b 44 d
5 d 15 c 25 d 35 d 45 c
6 c 16 d 26 a 36 c 46 a
7 b 17 a 27 a 37 d 47 b
8 a 18 c 28 c 38 a
9 c 19 a 29 a 39 c
10 a 20 b 30 b 40 a
141
Chapter # 5:
1. Fungi were previously were grouped as…?
(a) Allophytes (b) Halophytes
(c) Tilophytes (d) Thalophytes
2. Fungi belong to which of the following kingdom:

(a) Plant kingdom (b) kingdom animal
(c) Kingdom animalia (d) kingdom Monera
3. Thallous is a plant body that has no distinct:

(a) Leave (b) Root
(c) Stem (d) Both b & c
4. About fungal species have been described:

(a) 60,000 (b) 70,000
(c) 80,000 (d) 90,000
5. Rhizopus siolanifei relates to which:

(a) Zygomycetes (b) Ascomycetes
(c) Basidomycetes (d) All of these
6. Chytrids relates to which of the following:

(a) Zygomycetes (b) Ascomycetes
(c) Basidomycetes (d) Chytridiomycetes
7. No. of Chytrids species:

(a) 1000 (b) 2000
(c) 3000 (d) 4000
8. No. of Zygomycetes species:

(a) 100 (b) 500
(c) 1000 (d) 1500
9. No .of Glomeromycetes species:

(a) 140 (b) 160
(c) 180 (d) 200
10. No. of Ascomycetes species:

(a) 65,000 (b) 75,000
(c) 85,000 (d) 95,000
11. No. of Basidomycetes species:

(a) 10,000 (b) 20,000
(c) 30,000 (d) 40,000
142
12. No. of Deuteromycota species:
(a) 5000 (b) 10,000
(c) 15,000 (d) Unknown
13. Fungi are primarily ________ organisms:

(a) Terrestrial (b) Fresh water
(c) Marine water (d) All of above
14. Many fungi are _________ and infect plants and animals:
(a) Pathogenic (b) Virulent
15. Fungi also are found in the _____ portions of many plants:
(a) Lower (b) upper
16. The body or vegetative structure of a fungus is called:

(a) Thallus (b) Vibrios
(c) Glaborous (d) All of these
17. It varies in complexity and size:

(a) Bacteria (b) Virus
(c) Fungi (d) Parasites
18. Puffballs, and mushrooms refers to which of the following:

(a) Fungi (b) Bacteria
(c) Virus (d) Protozoa.
19. Structure of fungus is called…?

(a) Thallus (b) Ellipsoidal
(c) Filamentous (d) None of these
20. How much species of fungus have been described…?

(a) 50,000 (b) 80,000
(c) 90,000 (d) 100000
21. Molds are---------- fungi…?

(a) Unicellular (b) Bi-cellular
(c) Multicellular (d) None of these
22. Coenocytic hyphae are divided by…?

(a) Cross walls (b) Septa
23. Choose sp. of yeast mostly used in baking…?

(a) Candida Albicans (b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Chlorella (d) Chara
143
24. Division oomycota is also called as…?
(a) Club fungi (b) Sac Fungi
(c) Egg fungi (d) Conjugated fungi
25. Cell wall of fungus is made up of

(a) Cellulose (b) Chitin
(c) Both a & b (d) Lipids
Chapter # 5 Keys:
1 d 6 d 11 c 16 a 21 c
2 a 7 a 12 d 17 c 22 c
3 d 8 c 13 a 18 a 23 b
4 d 9 b 14 a 19 a 24 c
5 a 10 a 15 b 20 c 25 b
144
Chapter #6, 7& 8:
1. Most suitable word for Preservatives is…?
(a) Nontoxic (b) Toxic
(c) Carcinogenic (d) Vulnerable
2. Antiseptics are applied on…?

(a) Skin (b) living surface
(c) Nonliving surface (d) Both a & b
3. Soil consists of following constituents…?

(a) Mineral particles (b) Organic residues
(c) Gases (d) All of these
4. Soil particles size is…?

(a) 0.002mm (b) 0.0002 mm
(c) 0.0003mm (d) All of these
5. Bacterial flora of soil consists of…?

(a) Millions/g (b) Billions/g
(c) Hundreds of thousand/g (d) Trillions/g
6. Crumbs structure of soil is due to…?

(a) Bacteria (b) fungi
(c) Protozoa (d) yeast
7. Chlorophyaceae is the family for…?

(a) Fungus (b) Bacteria
(c) Protozoa (d) Algae
8. In which cycle microorganism transform plant residues into CO2…?

(a) C-cycle (b) N-Cycle
(c) Urea cycle (d) water cycle
9. Approximately nitrogen gas is present in atmosphere…?

(a) 78% (b) 79%
(c) 80% (d) 81%
10. Microbial content of indoor air depends upon…?

(a) Ventilation rate (b) Crowding
(c) Individuals (d) All of these
11. Area of the hospital where chronic disease patients are admitted is called as…?
(a) General ward (b) Emergency ward
(c) Peads ward (d) sanatoria
145
12. Sarcina is the example of…?
(a) Bacteria (b) Algae
(c) Fungi (d) Virus
13. Most suitable option for fungus is…?

(a) Nymphea (b) Alternaria
(c) Chlorella (d) Hystolytica
14. Which species of fungi is most abundant on land as well sea…?

(a) Alternaria (b) Botrytis
(c) Cladosporium (d) Lichen
15. Fresh water flora includes…?

(a) Bacteria (b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Algae (d) All of these
16. Cytokinesis is the type of…?

(a) Division of cytoplasm (b) Division nucleus
(c) Division of cell (d) none of these
Chapter # 6, 7 & 8 Keys:

1 a 5 b 9 c 13 b
2 d 6 b 10 d 14 c
3 d 7 d 11 d 15 d
4 a 8 a 12 a 16 a
146
Chapter # 9:
1. Killing or removing of microorganism from any preparation is called as…?
(a) Sterilization (b) Fermentation
(c) Calcinations (d) Tyndallization
2. Physical methods of sterilization include…?

(a) Dry heat sterilization (b) Wet heat sterilization
(c) By Radiation (d) All of these
3. In dry heat sterilization for un-rapped objects how much temperature is required…?
(a) 60oC (b) 90oC
(c) 190oC (d) 120oC
4. Incineration process is used for…?

(a) Hospital waste (b) Infectious materials
(c) Both a & b (d) none of these
5. Bulk quantities of surgical dressings are sterilized by…?

(a) Dry heat sterilization (b) Moist heat sterilization
(c) By Radiation (d) All of these
6. Tyndallization process is named after the name of scientist…?

(a) Smith Tyndall (b) John Tyndall
(c) MacCarty Tyndall (d) Schwann Tyndall
7. Select rays used for sterilization of disposable medical equipments…?

(a) Gamma rays (b) UV rays
(c) IR beam (d) X-rays
Chapter # 9 Keys:
1 a 3 c 5 b
2 d 4 c 6 b
7 a
147
Chapter # 10:
1. Fermentation is a type of…?
(a) Aerobic Respiration (b) Anaerobic respiration
(c) Cellular Respiration (d) Photosynthesis
2. Acetobacter species is used in the fermentation of…?

(a) Vinegar (b) Pickles
(c) Sausage (d) No one
3. Microbial enzymes include…?

(a) Glucose isomerase (b) Pectinase
(c) Streptokinase (d) All of these
4. How many groups of commercially important fermentation…?

(a) 5 (b) 7
(c) 7 (d) 9
Chapter # 10 Keys:
1 b 2 a 3 d 4 a
148
Chapter # 11:
1. Select substance which is responsible for rise in temperature…?
(a) Pyrogen (b) Nematodes
(c) Pests (d) Aphids
2. Following agglutination test is performed to diagnose different diseases…?

(a) Widal test (b) TPA Test
(c) Coombs test (d) All of these
3. In which test reaction takes place between soluble antigen and a solution of its homologous
antibody…?
(a) Agglutination test (b) Precipitation test
(c) Compliment fixation test (d) none of these
4. Immune system is also called…?

(a) Police force (b) Resistance
(c) Dormancy (d) All of these
5. Resistance of the body to a certain disease is called as…?

(a) Auto immunity (b) Natural immunity
(c) Immunity (d) Passive immunity
6. Antibodies are made up of different…?

(a) Organs (b) Cells
(c) Proteins (d) All of these
7. Antibodies are destroyed by…?

(a) Germs (b) Foreign substances
(c) Antigens (d) All of these
8. In Which immunity immune system attacks bodies own tissues or organs…?

(a) Auto immunity (b) Natural immunity
(c) Immunity (d) Passive immunity
9. Substances capable of mobilizing immune system are called…?

(a) Antibodies (b) Antigen
10. The activity area on antigen molecule is called…?

(a) Determinant (b) Epitop
(c) Both a & b (d) none of these
11. Which antigens are found in unrelated species…?

(a) Auto antigens (b) Alloantigens
(c) Heterophiles (d) Both a & b
149
Chapter # 11 Keys:
1 a 4 d 7 d 10 c
2 d 5 c 8 a 11 c
3 b 6 d 9 b
150
Chapter #12:
1. Which antiserum is prepared in horses…?
(a) Scabies (b) Rabies
(c) Polio (d) Influenza
2. Select organism which is not microbe…?

(a) Macro plasma (b) Bacteria
(c) Virus (d) Archea
3. Influenza is caused by…?

(a) Fungi (b) Yeast
(c) Bacteria (d) Virus
4. Insulin is a type of…?

(a) Primary metabolites (b) Secondary metabolites
(c) Recombinant product (d) Bio transformations
Chapter # 12 Keys:
1 b 2 a 3 d 4 c
151
Chapter # 13:
1. Preparations containing antibodies which provide passive immunity to the patient are called...?
(a) Insulin (b) Hormone
(c) Anti sera (d) Antitoxin
2. Which preparation is used as pro phylactically and therapeutically…?

(a) Insulin (b) Hormones
(c) Anti sera (d) Antitoxin
3. Select Example of specific anti sera…?

(a) Anti-toxins (b) anti-bacterial
(c) Anti Virals (d) All of these
4. Which distinct components are present in Y-Globulin…?

(a) IgA (b) IgG
(c) IgM (d) All of these
5. Mostly Globulins are given by..?

(a) Intramuscular (b) Intravenous
(c) Orally (d) none of them
6. Diphtheria antitoxin is an example of…?

(a) Specific anti sera (b) Nonspecific anti sera
(c) Both of these (d) none of these
7. For which bacteria Antibacterial sera is used…?

(a) Endo toxin producing (b) Exo-toxin Producing
(c) Both of these (d) None of these
8. Leptospira antiserum is an example of…?

(a) Nonspecific anti sera (b) Specific anti sera
(c) Antibacterial sera (d) Antiviral sera
Chapter # 13 Keys:
1 c 3 d 5 a 7 a
2 c 4 d 6 a 8 c
152
Biochemistry
153
Chapter # 1& 2:
1. Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes…?
(a) Pernicious Anemia (b) Scurvy
(c) Rickets (d) Beriberi
2. Condition associated with poor absorption of B12 deficiency…?

(a) Gastric Resection (b) Infestation of Tape Worm
(c) Pancreatectomy (d) All of above
3. Recycling of folate pool occurs by…?

(a) Iso merization (b) Protein Synthesis
(c) Trans methylation (d) Synthesis of Methionine
4. Carbohydrates are not essentially made up of…?

(a) Nitrogen (b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon (d) Hydrogen
5. No. of water molecules are ---- no. of carbon in carbohydrates…?

(a) Greater than (b) Less than
(c) Equal (d) Not equal
6. Rhmanose has formula of…?

(a) C6H12O6 (b) C4H12O4
(c) C12 H24 O12 (d) C6 H12 O5
7. Formula of carbohydrate is…?

(a) CnH4O (b) Cn(H2O)n
(c) Cn H2n On (d) Both b & c
8. Carbohydrates of low molecular weight are ----- in taste…?

(a) Sweet (b) Sour
(c) Salty (d) Bitter
9. The functional groups that belong to carbohydrates are…?

(a) Aldehyde (b) Keto
(c) Carboxyl (d) Both a & b
10. Carbohydrates are ------ most occurring substance after water…?

(a) 2nd (b) 3rd
(c) 4th (d) 5th
11. Carbohydrates are prepared by plants by process of…?

(a) Respiration (b) Photosynthesis
(c) Filtration (d) Digestion
154
12. 1g of carbohydrates provides ------- calorie of energy…?
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 8 (d) 10
13. Oxidation of carbohydrates is called…?

(a) Perspiration (b) Respiration
(c) Photosynthesis (d) Mastication
14. Only form of carbohydrates that can be absorbed by blood is…?

(a) Monosaccharide (b) Polysaccharide
(c) Oligosaccharide (d) Disaccharide
15. Form of carbohydrates that cannot be further hydrolyzed…?

(a) Disaccharide (b) Polysaccharide
(c) Oligosaccharide (d) Monosaccharide
16. Normal blood glucose of human at fasting is…?

(a) 80-100g% (b) 80-100mg%
(c) 100-120mg% (d) 100-120g%
17. The most common source of fructose is…?

(a) Galactose (b) Mannose
(c) Sucrose (d) Starch
18. Maltose contain…?

(a) Glucose+ Galactose (b) Glucose + Fructose
(c) Glucose + Glucose (d) Glucose + Lactose
19. Glycogen mainly occurs in…?

(a) Grains (b) Animal muscle + Liver
(c) Seeds (d) Corns
20. Primary building blocks of lipids are…?

(a) Fatty acid and sterols (b) Glycerol
(c) Sphingosine (d) All of these
21. Simple lipids do not include…?

(a) Fats (b) Sulphosides
(c) Waxes (d) Oils
22. Normal Plasma range of Cholesterol is…?

(a) 150mg to 200 mg (b) 150 to 200mg/dl
(c) 150 to 220mg/dl (d) 150 to 220 mg
23. Lipids exert insulating effect on…?

(a) Kidney (b) GIT
(c) Urinary Tract (d) Nervous System
155
24. Amino acids are joined together by…. bond to form proteins…?
(a) Ionic (b) covalent
(c) Hydrogen bonding (d) Dipole interactions
25. The functional group COOH is called…?

(a) Amino group (b) Carboxyl group
(c) Hydroxyl group (d) Amyl group
26. If R=H the amino acid formed will be called…?

(a) Alanine (b) Glycine
(c) Glutamic acid (d) Valine
27. Blood plasma contain…. % of proteins…?

(a) 20 (b) 7
(c) 3.5 (d) 12
28. Enzymes are mainly…. in nature…?

(a) Lipids (b) carbohydrate
(c) Proteins (d) None of these
29. Which one of the following contains tertiary structure…?

(a) Myoglobin (b) hemoglobin
(c) Collagen (d) None of above
30. Each one gram of protein furnishes …. Amount of energy…?

(a) 4.1cal (b) 4.1kcal
(c) 4100kcal (d) 410kcal
31. ………protein is present in muscles…?

(a) Albumin (b) globulin
(c) Casein (d) Actin and myosin
32. Plasma protein exerts osmotic pressure of ….. mmHg…?

(a) 25-30 (b) 30-40
(c) 10-20 (d) 20-30
33. Movement of chromosomes occurs during…. Phase of cell division…?

(a) Telophase (b) metaphase
(c) Anaphase (d) S phase
34._____ proteins are soluble in water…?

(a) Albumin (b) globulin
(c) Histone (d) No one
35. _____proteins only occur only in animals…?

(a) Albumin (b) Sclero-proteins
(c) Prolamines (d) None of these
156
36. Example of derived protein is…?
(a) Lipoproteins (b) elastane
(c) Histone (d) Peptones
37. Hemoglobin of different species differs only with respect to…?

(a) Histidine (b) Globin
(c) Globulin (d) proline
38. Casein protein is present only in…?

(a) Wheat (b) Blood
(c) Milk (d) Muscles

1 a 9 d 17 c 25 b 33 c
2 d 10 a 18 c 26 b 34 a
3 c 11 b 19 b 27 b 35 b
4 a 12 a 20 d 28 c 36 d
5 c 13 b 21 b 29 a 37 b
6 d 14 a 22 c 30 b 38 c
7 d 15 a 23 d 31 d
8 a 16 a 24 b 32 a
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Chapter # 3:
1. …..are the building blocks of proteins…?
(a) Enzymes (b) Amino acids
(c) Polymers (d) Sphingosine
2. How many basic amino acids form different kinds of proteins…?

(a) 30 (b) 20
(c) 10 (d) 15
3. Carbon attached to the functional group is called…?

(a) Beta carbon (b) Gamma carbon
(c) Alpha carbon (d) None of these
4. Amino acid side chain containing Sulphur atom…?

(a) Methionine (b) Aspartic acid
(c) arginine (d) proline
5. GABA occurred in brain and tissue has a role as…?

(a) Receptor (b) Neurotransmitter
(c) Vitamin (d) None of these
6. Beans, nuts, pulses contain …. Percent proteins…?

(a) 10 (b) 30
(c) 20 (d) 15
7. ….. Stored under salt stress condition in plants…?

(a) Histidine (b) methionine
(c) Tryptophan (d) Proline
8. Nucleic acids were first demonstrated in the nuclei of pus cells in…?
(a) 1879 (b) 1869
(c) 1889 (d) 1859
9. Nitrogenous bases that belong to purines include…?

(a) Cytosine (b) uracil
(c) Thymine (d) Adenine
10. ______is nucleoside phosphate…?

(a) Nucleotide (b) Nitrogenous Base
(c) ATP (d) Sugar Group
11. Example of local hormone is…?

(a) ACTH (b) Estrogen
(c) Secretin (d) Progesterone
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12. …. Is a dia betogenic hormone…?
(a) GH (b) Insulin
(c) Testosterone (d) Progesterone
13. GH increases retention of…?

(a) Phosphorous (b) Ca++
(c) Na+ (d) All of above
14. Which one of the following is not included in glycol proteins…?

(a) LH (b) TSH
(c) Erythropoietin (d) Calcitonin
15. ….. Hormone is an amine in nature…?

(a) Ach (b) ADH
(c) LH (d) GH
16. Oxytocin is a ……hormone…?

(a) Anterior pituitary (b) Posterior Pituitary
(c) Adrenal gland (d) none of these
17. In large dose oxytocin causes…?

(a) Vaso-dilation (b) Decrease blood pressure
(c) Both a & b (d) Increases blood pressure
18. Insulin is a small soluble protein containing …. Amino acids…?

(a) 53 (b) 57
(c) 52 (d) 51
19. Oxytocin is a polypeptide containing …. Amino acids…?

(a) 7 (b) 11
(c) 8 (d) 9
20. Oxytocin inhibits…. Secretion…?

(a) ADH (b) Prolactin
(c) Smooth muscle contraction (d) Both a & b
21. Insulin hormone is secreted by.... cells of islets of Langerhans of pancreas…?

(a) Alpha (b) Beta
(c) Gamma (d) None of these
22. Testosterone is …. In nature…?

(a) Purine (b) Amide
(c) Steroid (d) Amine
23. In adults testosterone is secreted by the …cells of testes…?

(a) Leyding cellls (b) Seminal fluid
(c) Male genital duct (d) Placenta
159
24. Testosterone increases growth of hairs on…?
(a) Face (b) Chest
(c) Axilla (d) All of these
25. Testosterone …. Blood urea levels…?

(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Moderates (d) Has no effect on
26. Estrogen is ….beta estradiol…?

(a) 16 (b) 12
(c) 17 (d) 19
27. Vaginal pH becomes…due to effect of estrogen…?

(a) More acidic (b) Less acidic
(c) More basic (d) less basic
28. By effecting uterus estrogen increases…?

(a) Vascularity (b) Glycogen contents
(c) Size of uterus (d) All of these
29. After 24h of ovulation body temperature of female increases due to secretion of…?
(a) Estrogen (b) Progesterone
(c) Testosterone (d) Insulin
30. Progesterone inhibits ovulation by inhibiting release of…?

(a) LH (b) FSH
(c) Both a & b (d) GH
31. Enzymes are called as…?

(a) Physiological catalyst (b) Biological catalyst
(c) Chemical catalyst (d) None of these
32. Enzymes can precipitate in…?

(a) Concentrated alcohol (b) Ammonium sulphate
(c) Tri chloro acetic acid (d) All of these
33. Trypsin act at alkaline pH of…?

(a) 8.75 (b) 8.57
(c) 9.57 (d) 9.75
34. Pepsin will destroy at…pH…?

(a) Alkaline (b) Acidic
(c) Neutral (d) Not effected by pH
35. Enzymes have maximum activity at….degree Celsius…?

(a) 10-20 (b) 50
(c) 35-40 (d) 60
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36. The binding of substrate and enzyme takes place at ….site…?
(a) Active (b) substrate
(c) Catalytic (d) All of these
37. Apo-enzyme and non-protein part together constitute …?

(a) Holo enzyme (b) Prosthetic group
(c) Coenzyme (d) Cofactor
38. …… are called as redox enzymes…?

(a) Transferases (b) isomerases
(c) Hydrolases (d) Oxidoreductases
39. Enzyme that brings about transfer of amino group is called…?

(a) Trans peptidase (b) Trans acylase
(c) Trans methylase (d) Trans aminase
40. Optimum pH for amylase is…?

(a) 6.4-6.9 (b) 6.5-6.9
(c) 6.4-6.9 (d) 6.2-6.7
41. Enzymes involved in digestion are called…?

(a) Amylase (b) Trypsin
(c) Lipase (d) All of these
42. Enzyme used for cancer treatment is called…?

(a) Sucrase (b) amylase
(c) L.Aspargenase (d) Kinase
43. Enzyme causes blood clotting by protein…?

(a) Histone (b) peptone
(c) Albumin (d) Thrombin
44. ______ are used to form alcoholic beverages…?

(a) Amylopectin (b) Amylase
(c) Sucrase (d) lactase
45. Enzymes involved in meat tenderizing…?

(a) Trypsin (b) Pepsin
(c) Papain (d) All of these
46. Daily requirement of vitamin is increased during…?

(a) Growth (b) pregnancy
(c) Lactation (d) All of above
47. Which of the following is thermo-labile…?

(a) B6 (b) B2
(c) B3 (d) B12
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48. Which of the following is not fat soluble vitamin…?
(a) C (b) D
(c) A (d) E
49. Vitamin _____is involved in maintenance of visual process…?

(a) C (b) D
(c) A (d) E
50. Precursor of vitamin A is…?

(a) Retinol (b) Retinoic acid
(c) Retinal (d) Carotene
51. Reduction of retinoic acid results in…?

(a) Retinol (b) Retinal
(c) Carotene (d) Both a & b
52. Which of the following is not a source of vitamin A…?

(a) Vegetable oil (b) cheese
(c) Leafy vegetables (d) Kidney and Muscles
53. Which vitamin facilitates the process of spermatogenesis…?

(a) A (b) C
(c) D (d) E
Chapter # 3 Keys:
1 b 12 a 23 a 34 a 45 d
2 b 13 d 24 d 35 c 46 d
3 c 14 d 25 b 36 d 47 c
4 a 15 a 26 c 37 a 48 a
5 b 16 b 27 a 38 d 49 c
6 c 17 c 28 d 39 d 50 d
7 d 18 d 29 b 40 c 51 b
8 b 19 c 30 c 41 d 52 a
9 d 20 d 31 b 42 c 53 a
10 a 21 b 32 d 43 d
11 c 22 c 33 b 44 b
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Important Microbiology & Biochemistry Subjective Questions
Chapter # 1:
Microbiology & microbes with example
Chapter # 2:
1. Define bacteria with its types?
2. Difference b/w cell wall of Gram positive & Gram Negative bacteria?
 Plasmid
 Capsule
 Cell membrane and its composition
4. Define Fluid Mosaic Model?
5. Difference Mutualism Commensalism and Parasitism?
6. How Microbiology help physicians?
7. Write down the occurrence of normal flora in neonates, oral cavity and Respiratory Tract?
8. D/f b/w Pathogen, Pathogen city infection and diseases?
Chapter # 3:
1. D/f b/w natural and synthetic media?
2. D/f b/w mannitol salt agar and EMB?
3. D/f b/w differential medium and selective medium?
Chapter # 4:
1. Write down viruses in detail?
2. D/f b/w virion, viroids and prions?
3. Explain ICTV and Baltimore Classification in detail?
Chapter # 5:
1. Define fungi, yeast molds and name of fungi types?
2. D/f b/w Myxomycota, Acrasiomycota and Oomycota?
163
Chapter # 6, 7 and 8:
1. What is Turbidity Test explain in detail?
Chapter # 9:
1. Write about sterilization with its types in detail just name?
2. D/f b/w dry and moist heat sterilization with advantages and disadvantages?
3. Define auto clave, autoclaving and its working?
4. What is Tyndallization?
5. Explain sterilization by radiation in detail?
6. D/f b/w anti microbial and anti septic with example?
Chapter # 10:
1. Define fermentation with its uses?
Chapter # 11:
1. D/f b/w passive and active immunity?
2. D/f b/w natural and acquired immunity?
 Antigen
 Antibodies
 Immunogenicity
 Tolerance
 Reactivity
 Auto antigen
 Allo antigens
4. Write down the types of antibodies in detail?
Chapter # 12:
1. Explain the types of vaccine of in detail?
Chapter # 13:
1. Name the types of Anti Sera with examples?
164
Biochemistry:
Ch # 1:
1. Write a brief note on biochemistry?
2. Write down the Role of biochemistry in different branches of medicine?
Ch # 2:
1. Define Carbohydrates along with formula
2. Differentiate b/w Aldoses and ketoses?
3. Draw cyclic and chain structure of carbohydrates (C6H12O6)
4. How carbohydrates are used as energy source?
5. Write down the classification of carbohydrates?
6. Write a detail note on oligosaccharides?
7. Define polysaccharides along with its classification?
Ch # 3:
1. Define lipids including its properties?
2. Differentiate b/w fat and oil?
3. Briefly define waxes?
4. Write note complex lipids?
5. Define fatty acids, how do you classify lipids?
6. What are the functions of lipids?
Ch # 4:
1. Define protein, what are the functions of protein?
2. Write a detailed note structure of proteins?
3. Write down biological roles of proteins?
4. Differentiate b/w globin and globulin?
5. D/f b/w histones and prolamines?
6. What are derived proteins?
7. Define amino acids along with structure?
8. D/f b/w standard and non standard amino acids?
9. Write down the classification of standard amino acids?
10. D/f b/w GABA and iodinated amino acids?
11. What are the functions of amino acids?
12. What are the components of nucleic acids?
13. Write down characteristics DNA and RNA?
14. Write down vatson and crick model of DNA molecules?
15. What are the biological roles of DNA?
16. What are the different types of RNA?
165
17. D/f b/w local and general hormone?
18. Write down classification of hormones?
19. Write the functions of growth hormones?
20. Briefly define Oxytocin
21. What are the effects of insulin?
22. Write down effect of estrogen on secondary sexual characteristics?
23. Define enzymes and briefly explain its properties?
24. What is the mechanism of enzyme action?
25. Write down the factors affecting on enzyme action?
26. D/f b/w oxidoreductase and transferase?
27. What are the functions of enzymes?
Ch # 5:
1. Define vitamins and briefly explain its classification?
2. What are the clinical features of vitamin A deficiency?
3. Write down the chemistry of Vitamin D?
4. D/f b/w Rickets and osteomalacia?
5. What are the functions of vitamin E?
6. What is the chemistry of vitamin K?
7. Write down deficiency of Vitamin K?
8. Briefly explain scurvy?
9. Write down the functions of pyridoxine?
10. Write down the chemistry of vitamin B9
11. How vita b12 is absorbed?
12. How folic deficiency leads to vitamin b12 deficiency?
Ch # 6:
1. Define bio technologies and explain its areas of interest?
2. Write down the applications of biotechnologies?
3. D/f b/w transcriptional and translation?
4. Define genetic engineering? What is the concept of genetic engineering?
5. D/f b/w acidosis and alkalosis?
6. Write detailed on systems for regulation of acid base balance?
7. Define electrolytes including its function human body?
166
Pharmacognosy:
Crude Drug &

Introduction of
Terminologies in
Pharmacognosy
Pharmacognosy
Evaluation of
Extraction &
Crude Drug %
Poisonous Plants
Enzymes
Hypersensitivity
&
Chromatography
167
Chapter # 1 & 2:
1. Pharmacognosy is the study of…?
(a) Crude Drug (b) Semi-Synthetic drug
(c) Synthetic Drug (d) Drug
2. The word "Pharmacognosy" is derived from the Greek words pharmakon means…?
(a) Drug (b) knowledge
(c) Study (d) All of above
3. In which year Schmidt use the term of Pharmacognosy first time…?

(a) 1801 (b) 1811
(c) 1815 (d) 1820
4. Naturally occurring, unrefined substance is called as…?

(a) Drug (b) Crude drug
5. In how many methods we can classify the crude drugs…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four or 5 methods.
6. Which drugs we can obtain from direct plant part…?
(a) Organized (b) un-organized
7. Which of the following is an example of organized drugs…?

(a) Latex (b) Tragacanth
(c) Leaves (d) All of above
8. Which of the following is related to un-organized drugs…?

(a) Collect by incision (b) Collect by extraction
(c) By direct part (d) Both a & b
9. Which of the following drugs containing the cellular tissues…?

(a) Un-organized (b) Organized
(c) Synthetic (d) Semi-synthetic
10. Which of the following is not an example of un-organized drugs…?

(a) Gum acacia (b) Latex
(c) Tragacanth (d) Seeds
11. Hyoscyamus is obtained from which of the following organized drug…?

(a) Leaves (b) Bark
(c) Fruit (d) Root
12. Which of the following drug is obtained from bark…?

(a) Cascara (b) Strophanthus
(c) Aloe (d) Kaolin
168
13. Cinchona is an example of…?
(a) Rhizome (b) Seed
(c) Bark (d) Leaves
14. Flowering parts of organized drugs contain which of the following drugs…?
(a) Cardamom (b) Nux-vomica
(c) Pudina (d) Saffron
15. Fennel is belongs to which of the following…?

(a) Aloe (b) Talc
(c) Fruit (d) Ginger
16. Colocynth is an example of…?

(a) Fruit (b) Bark
(c) Root (d) Seed
17. Bitter Almond belongs to which of the following…?

(a) Leaves (b) Seed
(c) Waxes (d) Gums
18. Rhubarb is an example of…?

(a) Root (b) Rhizomes
(c) Fruit (d) Both a & b
19. Dried latex produces which of the following drug…?

(a) Aloe (b) Opium
(c) Castor (d) Gelatin
20. Aloe produces from which of the following…?

(a) Fixed oil (b) Volatile oil
(c) Dried Juice (d) Minerals
21. Papain is an example of…?

(a) Dried latex (b) Gums
(c) Animal product (d) Resins
22. Dried Juice is belongs to which of the following…?

(a) Kaolin (b) Talc
(c) Almond (d) Aloe
23. From which of the following we can obtain Tragacanth…?

(a) Resins (b) Gums
(c) Waxes (d) Seed
24. Acacia is belongs to which of the following…?

(a) Gums (b) Leaves
(c) Flower (d) Bark
25. Tolu Balsam is obtained from which of the below mention…?

(a) Minerals (b) Waxes
(c) Resins (d) Gums
169
26. Castor can be obtained from which of the following…?
(a) Bark (b) Roots
(c) Fixed oil (d) All of above
27. Waxes are produces what…?

(a) Cod liver oil (b) Kaolin
(c) Talc (d) Bees Wax
28. Cantharides produces from which of the following…?

(a) Animal Products (b) Dried juice
(c) Plant product (d) Resins
29. Talc obtained from…?

(a) Fruits (b) Seed
(c) Minerals (d) Barks
30. In which method drugs are classified according to their natural relationship…?
(a) Biological (b) Taxonomical
(c) Pharmacological (d) Chemical
31. Angiosperms are belongs to which of the drug…?

(a) Almond (b) Agar
(c) Ephedra (d) Aloe
32. Gelidiaceae is the family of…?

(a) Agar (b) Kaolin
(c) Talc (d) Almond
33. Prunus is the Genus of…?

(a) Ephedra (b) Almond
(c) Digitalis (d) Senna
34. Rosaceae belongs to which of the following…?

(a) Rhodophyta (b) Angiosperms
(c) Amygdalus (d) Both b & c
35. Ephedra refers to which…?

(a) Rosales (b) Sinica
(c) Gelidium (d) Prunus
36. In Pharmacological method drugs are classified according to their…?

(a) Therapeutic Effect (b) Plasma Level
(c) Potency (d) Brand Name
37. Which drugs have Anti cancer effect…?

(a) Cinnamon Bark (b) Senna
(c) Digitalis (d) Catechu
38. Castor oil works as…?

(a) To Enhance Bowel Movement (b) To Decrease Bowel Movement
(c) To Increase Appetite (d) .None of them
170
39. Antispasmodic refers to which of the following…?
(a) Aloe (b) Belladona
(c) Tannic acid (d) Gums
40. Catechu works as an…?

(a) Cardio tonic (b) Purgative
(c) Astringent (d) Expectorant
41. Hyoscyamus works as…?

(a) Antispasmodic (b) Anticancer
(c) Expectorant (d) Purgative
42. Which of the following have cardio tonic effect…?

(a) Glycyrrhiza (b) Castor oil
(c) Digitalis (d) Bark
43. Chemical constitutes of Starch is….?

(a) Glycosides (b) Proteins
(c) Alkaloids (d) Carbohydrates
44. Volatile oils contains in which of the following…?

(a) Caraway (b) Benzoin
(c) Gelatin (d) Acacia
45. Which of the following related to Belladona…?

(a) Carbohydrates (b) Alkaloids
(c) Proteins (d) Tannins
46. Asafeotida contain which of the following chemical constituents…?

(a) Fixed oils (b) Volatile oils
(c) Resins (d) Glycosides
47. Protein can be obtained from which of the following drugs…?

(a) Bromelain (b) Papain
(c) Gelatin (d) All of above
48. Black Catechu refers to which of the following…?

(a) Glycosides (b) Tannins
(c) Alkaloids (d) Both a & b
49. How man methods we have to evaluate the crude drug…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
50. Senna is an example of ________drug…?

(a) Root (b) Leaves
(c) Bark (d) Seed
51. Saliva is an example of…?

(a) Analgesic (b) Diuretic
(c) Seed (d) Root
171
52. Book follows alphabetical method…?
(a) USP (b) NF
(c) BP (d) BNF
53. Myrrh refers to which…?

(a) Resin (b) Gum
(c) Volatile (d) Fixed oil
54. Sunflower oil contains…?

(a) Volatile oil (b) Fixed Oil

1 a 13 c 25 c 37 a 49 d
2 a 14 d 26 c 38 a 50 b
3 b 15 c 27 d 39 b 51 b
4 b 16 a 28 a 40 c 52 a
5 d 17 b 29 c 41 a 53 a
6 a 18 d 30 b 42 c 54 b
7 c 19 b 31 a 43 d
8 d 20 c 32 a 44 a
9 b 21 a 33 b 45 b
10 d 22 d 34 d 46 c
11 a 23 b 35 b 47 d
12 a 24 a 36 a 48 b
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Chapter # 3:
1. Needle shaped refer to which…?
(a) Ace rose (b) Acicular
(c) Acute (d) Both a & b
2. Less straight sides along the tip called as…?

(a) Angular (b) Acicular
(c) Acute (d) Capillary
3. Sharpe angles and corners refer to which…?

(a) Angular (b) Basal
(c) Basified (d) Exudates
4. Attached by the base is called…?

(a) Basal (b) Basified
(c) Glabrous (d) Habit
5. Congested means…?
(a) Dentate (b) Gall
(c) Capillary (d) Dense
6. _______________ producing tiny globules of oily substance…?

(a) Glandular (b) Leaflet
(c) Rhizome (d) Ovary
7. Smooth, without hairs…?

(a) Glabrous (b) Angular
(c) Dentate (d) Ace rose
8. Which parts have the ability to producing new stems…?

(a) Gall (b) Vaginate
(c) Rhizomes (d) Xylem
9. _________________ is the water-conducting tissue of vascular plants…?

(a) Leaves (b) Xylem
(c) Flowers (d) Dense
10. Which part act like the plant's plumbing system…?

(a) Root (b) Acute
(c) Leaflet (d) Stems
11. _________ is the reproductive or growth structure found in plants…?

(a) Flower (b) Gall
(c) Rhizome (d) Both a & b
12. Seed-bearing part of a plant is called…?

(a) Roots (b) Fruit
(c) Pulp (d) Bark
173
13. The fleshy or woody __________ are used for medicinal purposes…?
(a) Roots (b) Stem
(c) Bark (d) Both a & b
14. Active ingredients are often found in higher concentrations in the…?

(a) Root (b) Stem
(c) Bark (d) Flowers
15. The hard fibrous material refers to which…?

(a) Wood (b) Rhizome
(c) Gall (d) Glans
16. Fleshy structure comprised of numerous layers of leaf bases is called…?

(a) Leaflet (b) Xylem
(c) Root (d) Bulb
17. _________________ are a mixture of essential oils and terpenes…?

(a) Resins (b) Vaginate
(c) Bark (d) Stem
18. Acaulescent means…?

(a) Stem less (b) Needle Shaped
(c) Stem (d) No one
19. Acerose means…?

(a) Tip Shaped (b) Needle-Shaped
(c) Round Shaped (d) No one
20. Acicular means…?

(a) Needle-shaped (b) Some kinds of foliage
21. _____ tapering to a sharp-pointed apex with more or less straight sides along the tip…?
(a) Acute (b) Acerose
(c) Acicular (d) No one
22. ______having sharp angles or corners, generally used in reference to structures such as stems
to contrast them with rounded stems…?
(a) Acute (b) Acerose
(c) Acicular (d) Angular
23. Axis means…?

(a) The main stem (b) Stem like
(c) Needle like (d) the main point
24. At or near the base, often describing leaves and where they attach…?
(a) Basi-fixed (b) Basal
(c) Gall (d) Glaborous
25. Capillary means…?

(a) Very slender (b) hair like
174
26. Deltoid means…?
(a) Broadly Triangular in Shape (b) Less triangular in shape
27. Congested, describing the disposition of flowers is…?

(a) Dentate (b) Exudates
(c) Dense (d) No one
28. Sharp, outward-pointing teeth on the margin…?

(c) Dense (d) No one
29. A substance exuded or secreted from a plant…?

(c) Dense (d) Habit
30. An abnormal growth on a plant that is caused by insects…?

(a) Glabrous (b) Glans
(c) Glands (d) Gall
31. Glabrous means…?

(a) Smooth (b) Without hairs
(c) Hard (d) .Both a & b
32. A depression or protuberance that exists for the purpose of secreting…?

(a) Gall (b) Glans
(c) Glandular (d) Gland
33. Producing tiny globules of sticky or oily substance…?

(a) Gall (b) Glans
34. A dry dehiscent fruit born in a couple…?

(a) Gall (b) Glans
35. The overall appearance of a plant…?

(a) Habit (b) Habitat
(c) Leaflet (d) No one
36. One segment of a compound leaf is…?

(a) Stem (b) Leaves
(c) Bark (d) Leaflet
37. Basal portion of a pistil where female germ cells develop into seeds after germination…?
(a) Ovary (b) Xylem
(c) Phloem (d) All of them
38. Prefix meaning many …?

(a) Mono (b) Di
(c) Poly (d) No one
175
39. An underground stem capable of producing new stems or plants at its nodes…?
(a) Vaginate (b) Rhizome
(c) Xylem (d) No one
40. Provided with or surrounded by a sheath…?

41. ______ is the water-conducting tissue of vascular plants…?

42. Flattened structures of a higher plant, typically green and blade-like, that are attached to a
stem are called…?
(a) Leafs (b) Leaflet
(c) Seeds (d) Leaves
43. Clove and chamomile is the example of…?

(a) Stem (b) Root
(c) Shoot (d) Flowers
44. The soft, juicy, edible part of a fruit is called…?

(a) Fruit (b) Seed
(c) Pulp (d) No one
45. A small embryonic plant enclosed in a covering called…?

(a) Fruit (b) Seed
(c) Pulp (d) No one
46. The protective outer layer of a tree is…?

(a) Bark (b) Stem
(c) Root (d) Shoot
47. The hard fibrous material that forms the main substance of the plant is called…?
(a) Bark (b) Wood
(c) Root (d) Stem
48. A fleshy structure comprised of numerous layers of leaf bases otherwise known as…?
(a) Stem (b) Apex
(c) Root (d) Bulb
49. Plant that does not form a woody stem, and in temperate climates usually dies…?
(a) Shrubs (b) Tree
(c) Herbs (d) No one
50. ________ are solids that are mixtures of polysaccharides…?

(a) Gums (b) Resins
51. _____ are mixture of essential oils and terpenes that are usually not soluble in water…?
(a) Gums (b) Resins
176
Chapter # 3 Keys:
1 d 12 b 23 a 34 b 45 b
2 c 13 a 24 b 35 a 46 a
3 a 14 c 25 c 36 d 47 b
4 b 15 a 26 a 37 a 48 d
5 d 16 d 27 c 38 c 49 c
6 a 17 a 28 a 39 b 50 a
7 a 18 a 29 b 40 a 51 b
8 c 19 b 30 d 41 c
9 b 20 c 31 d 42 d
10 d 21 a 32 d 43 d
11 a 22 d 33 c 44 c
177
Chapter # 4:
1. Adulteration of drug is checked by which of the following evaluation…?
(a) Organoleptic (b) Physical
(c) Chemical (d) Biological
2. Odor of a drug is checked with the help of which evaluation…?

(a) Organoleptic (b) Physical
(c) Chemical (d) Biological
3. Boiling point refers to which of the following…?

(c) Physical (d) All
4. The average number of stomata per square millimeter of epidermis is known as…?
(a) Stomata (b) Stomata number
(c) Stomatal number (d) Both a & b
5. Which of the following are being used to relieve involuntary muscles of intestine…?
(a) Immunotherapy (b) Anti spasmodic
(c) Relaxant (d) Antibodies
6. Identification of a drug and determination of its quality &purity is called _______of Drug…?
(a) Evaluation (b) Adulteration
7. How many method we have for the evaluation of crude drug…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
8. Evaluate the crude drug by using organ’s senses is called __________ evaluation…?
(a) Organoleptic (b) Chemical
(c) Physical (d) Biological
9. Study of size, shape and external marking is called the study of________ characters…?
(a) Morphological (b) Taxonomical
(c) Botanical (d) All of above
10. As per morphological characters cinnamon refers to as…?

(a) Herbs (b) Barks
(c) Leaves (d) Seed
11. External marking can be studied on the following mentioned terms…?

(a) Annulations (b) Nodules
(c) Projections (d) All of above
12. _______ is also used for a quantitative evaluation of drugs and adulterated powders…?
(a) Microscope (b) Slides
(c) Test Tubes (d) No one
178
13. Elasticity refers to as ________ evaluation…?
(c) Physical (d) All of them
14. Radio Immuno assays indicates what…?

(a) Spectroscopic (b) Chromatography
15. Which of the following are the chromatography techniques…?

(a) HPLC (b) Gas Liquid
(c) Paper (d) All
16. Ester Value and Saponification Value relates to which of the following evaluation…?
(a) Chemical (b) Physical
(c) Biological (d) No one
17. Living organisms are used the assays are called _______ assay…?
(c) Physical (d) All of these
18. How many types of biological evaluation…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
19. Which of the following assay are indicted the Biological assay…?
(a) Matching (b) Interpolation
(c) Multiple (d) All
20. How many techniques of biological assay have…?

(a) Two (b) Three
(c) Four (d) Five
Chapter # 4 Keys:
1 c 5 b 9 a 13 c 17 a
2 a 6 a 10 b 14 a 18 b
3 c 7 d 11 d 15 d 19 d
4 c 8 a 12 a 16 a 20 c
179
Chapter # 5:
1. Enzymes are the _______ catalysts p roduced by the living organisms…?
(a) Organic (b) In 0rganic
2. Function of catalyst is…?

(a) To boost up reaction (b) To speed up reaction
(c) Slow down reaction (d) Both a & b
3. _____ Enzyme in its small amount easily catalyzed the hydrolytic reaction of the sucrose…?
(a) Sucrases (b) Lipase
(c) Ureases (d) hydrolase
4. At which pH Trypsin will destroy…?

(a) 8.57 (b) >8.57
(c) 7 (d) 5
5. At which pH pepsin will destroy…?

(a) 1-2 (b) <2
(c) 7 (d) 10
6. At which temperature enzymatic activity is very little…?

(a) 0oc (b) 10oc to 20oc
(c) 35oc to 40oc (d) 60oc
7. Molecular weight of Bromelain is…?

(a) 25710 mmol (b) 26710 mmol
(c) 2800 mmol (d) 2900 mmol
8. Molecular weight of Papain is…?

(a) 23710 moles (b) 25710 moles
(c) 25810 moles (d) 26710 moles
9. Lipase _____________ Hydrolyzing the…?

(a) Fats (b) water
(c) Sugars (d) Oils
10. Optimum temperature for enzyme activity is ________ oC…?

(a) 35 – 40 (b) 35 – 45
(c) 40 – 45 (d) 45 – 55
11. Trypsin act on which pH…?

(a) Acidic (b) Alkaline
(c) Base (d) Both b & c
12. Pepsin work at ___________ pH…?

(a) 2 (b) 7
(c) 9 (d) 14
180
13. _______ is an anti- platelet agent….?
(a) Bromelain (b) Pepsin
(c) Papain (d) Trypsin
14. ____________ is inactive form of enzyme…?

(a) Zymogens (b) Pepsinogen
15. Hydrolyzing the fat refers to…?

(a) Lipase (b) Cellulase
(c) Sucrase (d) Maltase
16. Cellulase involves in the hydrolyzing of which…?

(a) Sucrose (b) Maltose
(c) Cellulose (d) Pepsin
17. Which of the following group hydrolyzing the lipids…?

(a) Esterases (b) Amindases
(c) Nucleases (d) No one
18. Which enzyme is present in Pancreatic juice of animal and human body…?
(a) Cellulase (b) Lipase
(c) Arginases (d) Ureases
19. Which group of enzymes catalysis ammonia related breakdown reactions…?

(a) Cellulase (b) Carbohydrase
(c) Amindases (d) Nucleases
20. Intestinal mucosa refers to which of the following…?

(c) Both a & b (d) Amindases
21. ______ convert arginine to urea…?

(a) Arginases (b) Ureases
(c) Pepsin (d) Remin
22. Which of the following enzymes involve in the conversion of CO2 from urea…?
(a) Argenases (b) Ureases
(c) Astreases (d) All
23. Which of the following enzyme not involved in the conversion of urea and ammonia…?
(a) Amindases (b) Argenases
(c) Ureases (d) Estreases
24. Nucleases refer to which of the following…?

(a) RNA (b) DNA
25. Which groups of enzymes act on the nucleotide…?

(a) Carbohydrates (b) Proteolytic
(c) Nucleases (d) All
181
26. DNA indicates what…?
(a) De oxy-ribonucleases (b) Nucleases
(c) Both a & b (d) Sucrases
27. Break down of sugar molecules in a biological reaction belongs to…?

(a) Carbohydrase (b) Sucrases
(c) Maltase’s (d) All of them
28. Which of the following enzyme present in intestinal juice…?

(a) Sucrases (b) Maltase’s
(c) Both a & b (d) Rennin
29. Which enzyme involves in the conversion of maltose to glucose…?

(a) Sucrases (b) Maltase’s
(c) Pepsin (d) All of them
30. Hydrolysis of sucrose into ____________ is done by Sucrase…?

(a) Glucose (b) Fructose
(c) Maltose (d) Both a & b
31. Conversion of maltose to glucose belongs to…?

(a) Nucleases (b) Esterase’s
(c) Ribo nucleases (d) No one
32. Proteolytic enzymes are the ___________ digestive enzyme…?

(a) Protein (b) Water
(c) Salt (d) No one
33. Which of the following enzyme catalyze the breakdown of protein…?

(a) Proteolytic (b) Carbohydrase
(c) Nucleases (d) All of them
34. ______ digest the proteins by converting them into peptone…?

(a) Rennin (b) Pepsin
(c) Sucrases (d) Maltase’s
35. Pepsin belongs to…?

(a) Gastric Juice of Animals (b) Curdles of Milk Protein
(c) Both a & b (d) .None of them
36. Which of the following known as milk coagulation enzyme…?

(a) Rennin (b) Pepsin
(c) RNA (d) DNA
37. Pepsin and Rennin refers to which of the following group of enzyme…?
(a) Carbohydrase’s (b) Nucleases
(c) Proteolytic (d) Esterases
38. Sucrase and Sucrose belong to which of the following…?

(a) Nucleases (b) Amindases
(c) Carbohydrase’s (d) All of them
182
39. Curdles of milk is the function of…?
(c) Pepsin (d) Rennin
40. Is it found in liver cells…?

(a) Lipase (b) Ureases
(c) Esterases (d) Nucleases
41. International enzyme commission indicates…?

(a) IEC (b) IE
(c) IC (d) EC
42. The enzyme that acts on the substrate and remove their hydrogen molecule…?
(a) Oxidases (b) Maltase’s
(c) Dehydrogenases (d) Nucleases
43. Which enzyme catalyses the oxidation reaction without any regard of the substrate…?
(a) Dehydrogenases (b) Hydrolase
(c) Oxidases (d) Ligase
44. The enzyme that boosts up the speed of hydrolysis reaction without any regard of substrate
indicates…?
(a) Hydrolases (b) Oxidases
(c) Lipases (d) Maltase
45. ATP stands for…?

(a) Adenosine Tri Phosphate (b) Adenosine Phosphate
(c) Adenosine Phosphorous (d) Adipose Tissues
46. Formation of new bonds with the cleavage of ATP…?

(a) Ligase (b) Synthetase
(c) Both a & b (d) Oxidases
47. Which of the following enzyme not involved in the removal of hydrogen molecules…?
(a) Dehydrogenases (b) Oxidases
(c) Hydrolase (d) Both b & c
48. “Ase” indicates what…?

(a) Enzymes (b) Protein
(c) Water (d) Mineral
49. Hydrolysis means…?

(a) Breakdown (b) Breakdown of water molecules
(c) Breakdown of lipids (d) .Both a & b
50. Which one is not organic compound…?

(a) Carbohydrates (b) Water
(c) Protein (d) Lipids
51. Biological Source of papain is…?

(a) Prunus amygdalus (b) Paper malburry
(c) Carica papaya (d) Palm tree
183
52. Papain is effectively used in…?
(a) Tenderizing of meat (b) Paper factory
(c) Pulp factory (d) Leather Factory
53. Which one is inorganic in nature…?

(a) Enzyme (b) Glucose
(c) Catalyst (d) Lipid
54. Trypsin will………in acidic pH…?

(a) Perform (b) Precipitate
(c) Destroy (d) Digest
55. Select source for ureases…?

(a) Pancreatic Juice (b) Soya Bean
(c) Papaya (d) Gram Seed
Chapter # 5 Keys:
1 a 12 a 23 d 34 b 45 a
2 d 13 a 24 c 35 a 46 c
3 a 14 c 25 c 36 a 47 d
4 d 15 a 26 c 37 c 48 a
5 d 16 c 27 d 38 c 49 b
6 b 17 a 28 c 39 d 50 a
7 c 18 b 29 b 40 b 51 c
8 b 19 c 30 d 41 a 52 a
9 a 20 d 31 d 42 c 53 c
10 b 21 a 32 a 43 c 54 c
11 d 22 b 33 a 44 a 55 a
184
Chapter # 6:
1. Hypersensitivity also called…?
(a) Hypersensitivity reaction (b) undesirable reactions
2. Term allergy was first defined by…?

(a) Von Pirquet (b) Schmidt
(c) Hook (d) All of above
3. When wasterm allergy first introduced…?

(a) 1706 (b) 1806
(c) 1906 (d) 2006
4. Change or altered reaction in the body is called…?

(a) Infection (b) Disease
(c) Allergy (d) Both a & b
5. Allergy is a hypersensitivity disorder of which system…?

(a) Nervous (b) Immune
(c) Cardio (d) Respiratory
6. Causative agent of allergy is called…?

(a) Parasite (b) Microorganism
(c) Both a & b (d) Allergen
7. How many types of allergy we have…?

(a) Four (b) Five
(c) Six (d) Seven
8. Immediate Allergy is which types of allergy in allergic form…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
9. Antibody is a type of…?

(a) Enzymes (b) Amino Acids
(c) Protein (d) Fibers
10. When body immune systems produce antibodies…?

(a) By detect Bacteria (b) By detect Virus
(c) By detect foreign particles (d) All
11. Harmful substance called…?

(a) Antibody (b) Antigen
12. Allergic rhinitis refers…?

(a) Nose (b) Ear
(c) Eye (d) Skin
185
13. Sinuses refer to…?
(a) Allergic rhinitis (b) Allergic sinusitis
(c) Allergic conjunctivitis (d) SOB
14. Dyspnea refers to which…?

(a) Gastro System (b) Ears
(c) Airways (d) Eyes
15. Urticaria refers to…?

(a) Eczema (b) Hives
(c) Rashes (d) All
16. Feeling of fullness belongs to which one of the following…?

(a) Gastro (b) Ears
(c) Both a & b (d) Skin
17. Pollen is a type of…?

(a) Allergen (b) Common Allergen
18. How inhaled allergen infected us…?

(a) By Inhalation (b) By digestion
(c) By Medicine (d) All
19. Smoke is a type of…?

(a) Inhaled Allergens (b) Topical Allergens
(c) Inject able Allergens (d) No one
20. ________________ is the cells of flowering plants…?

(a) Pollen (b) Dust
(c) Perfumes (d) Smoke
21. Hay fever belongs to which…?

(a) Pollen (b) Air
(c) Water (d) All
22. Dust mites are microscopic organisms that can live and thrive throughout homes…?
(a) Yes (d) No
23. Eyes lacrimation refers to which…?

(a) Dust Mites (b) Pollen
(c) Perfumes (d) All
24. The allergic attack due to bad environment is termed as…?

(a) Environmental Allergy (b) Seasonal Allergy
25. _____________ allergens are present in our food stuff…?

(a) Ingested Allergen (b) Pollen Allergen
(c) Inhalant Allergen (d) All
186
26. Food allergy refers to which of the following…?
(a) Milk (b) Eggs
(c) Wheat (d) All
27. Abdominal Cramps is a symptom of…?

(a) Water Allergy (b) Air Allergy
(c) Food Allergy (d) Dust Allergy
28. Loss of consciousness is an example of…?

(a) Inject able Allergens (b) Inhaled Allergens
(c) Both a & b (d) Food Allergens
29. Allergy which is caused b Jewelry called as…?

(a) Food Allergens (b) Contact Allergens
(c) Inject able Allergens (d) No one
30. Four-group of allergic classification was expounded in…?

(a) 1933 (b) 1943
(c) 1953 (d) 1963
31. Asthma related to which of the following mediators…?

(a) IgG (b) IgM
(c) IgE (d) All of them
32. Disorder of Cyto toxic antibody dependent refers to…?

(a) Hay Fever (b) Anaphylaxis
(c) Serum Sickness (d) None of them
33. These occur quickly (Hypersensitivity) after exposure to the allergen…?

(a) Immediate (b) Toxic
(c) Cyto Toxic (d) DTH
34. _____________antibodies present on the surface of the Basophils…?

(a) IgE (b) IgM
(c) IgE & IgM (d) T- cells
35. IgG stands for…?

(a) Immunoglobulin G (b) Immunity G
(c) Immunoglobulin (d) All of them
36. Immunoglobulin E has no effect until and unless they encounter allergens…?
(a) Yes (d) No
37. Granules of which of the following contain a variety of active agents including histamine…?
(a) IgG antibodies (b) IgE antibodies
(c) IgM antibodies (d) T- cells
38. The outer layer of ovary wall is called…?

(a) Corp (b) Endo- Carp
(c) Epi-Carp (d) Endo Sperm
187
39. Allergic response is an attempt to ________body…?
(a) Protect (b) Defect
40. _______ is released from mast cells in allergy…?

(a) HCL (b) Histamine
(c) CO2 (d) H2O
41. Detergent and Cosmetic is an example of which allergen…?

(a) Ingestant (b) Injectant
(c) Inhalant (d) Contact
42. Animal dander produce ________ allergy…?

(a) Ingestant (b) Injectant
(c) Inhalant (d) Contact
43. The result of starch test can be determined after _________ minutes…?
(a) 20 (b) 30
(c) 40 (d) 50
44. T-lymphocytes are involved in producing _____ allergy…?

(a) Anaphylactic (b) Cyto toxic
(c) Delayed (d) None
45. Hypersensitivity refers to…?

(a) Undesirable reactions (b) Desirable reaction
46. Hypersensitivity indicates…?

(a) Undesirable (b) Damaging
(c) Discomforts (d) All
47. Reactions produce by the normal immune system that becomes fatal for us indicates…?
(a) Hypersensitivity (b) Hyposensitive
(c) Low- Sensitive (d) No of them
48. The term allergy was first defined by…?

(a) Von Pirquet (b) Schmidt
(c) Seydler (d) Both b & c
49. Allergy defines the…?

(a) Change reaction (b) Altered reactions
(c) Both a & b (d) New reaction
50. Harmless environmental substances are known as…?

(a) Allergy (b) Allergens
(c) Antibody (d) None of them
51. Body’ immune system produces which protein when it detects the foreign particles…?
(a) Antibody (b) Antigens
188
52. Antibody is a type of…?
(a) Lipids (b) Fats
(c) Carbohydrates (d) Proteins
53. Patches of skin become rough and inflamed with blisters refers to…?
(a) Eczema (b) Sinusitis
(c) Anaphylaxis (d) All of above
54. Which of the following is an acute allergic reactions to an antigens in which body has
become hypersensitive…?
(a) Dermatitis (b) Eczema
(c) Sinusitis (d) Anaphylaxis
55. Toxin which induces an immune response in the body to produce the antibodies…?
(a) Antispasmodic (b) Anti inflammatory
(c) Antigen (d) All
56. Which of the following Produces sleep…?

(a) Inflammatory agents (b) Sedatives
(c) Antigens (d) Antibodies
57. Which of the following a group of disease that results in inflammation of skin…?
(c) Anaphylaxis (d) Dermatitis
58. Loss of sensation refers to…?

(a) Anesthetic (b) Cathartic
(c) Carminative (d) Diuretic
59. Inflammation of nasal sinus refers to…?

(c) Anaphylaxis (d) None of them
60. Immunotherapy prevents diseases with substances that stimulate the immune response…?
(a) Yes (d) No
61. Active purgative producing bowl movements refers to which of the following…?
(a) Carminative (b) Cathartic
(c) Diuretic (d) Both a & c
62. A substance from protective film on mucosa of mouth…?

(a) Emetic (b) Laxative
(c) Allergen (d) Demulcent
63. Which one of the following increases the bowl movements…?

(a) Carminative (b) Cathartic
(c) Both a & b (d) Diuretic
64. Which of the following loosen the bowl substances…?

(a) Anti Emetic (b) Laxative
(c) Antibodies (d) All of above
189
Chapter # 6 Keys:
1 c 14 c 27 c 40 b 53 a
2 a 15 b 28 a 41 d 54 d
3 c 16 b 29 b 42 c 55 c
4 c 17 c 30 d 43 a 56 b
5 b 18 a 31 c 44 c 57 d
6 d 19 a 32 d 45 a 58 a
7 a 20 a 33 a 46 d 59 b
8 a 21 a 34 a 47 a 60 a
9 c 22 a 35 a 48 a 61 b
10 d 23 a 36 a 49 c 62 d
11 b 24 a 37 b 50 b 63 a
12 a 25 a 38 c 51 a 64 b
13 b 26 d 39 a 52 d
190
Chapter # 7:
1. HPLC stand for…?
(a) High Performance Liquid Chromatography (b) High Pressure Liquid Chromatograph
(c) High Partial Liquid Chromatography (d) High Profile Liquid Chromatography
2. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance is the complete form of which of the following…?

(a) NMR (b) .nMR
(c) NM (d) All of above
3. In which chromatography the solvent tends to move upward…?

(a) Ascending (b) Descending
(c) Circular (d) Radial
4. In which chromatography the solvent tends to move downward…?

5. In which chromatography the solvent tends to move in circular form & separated in the form
of rings…?
6. In which chromatography the solvent or mobile phase tends to move in circular form &
separate in the form of arch…?
7. This phase is a component of chromatographic procedure that is non_mobile or fixed…?

(a) Stationary phase (b) Mobile phase
8. The component of chromatography procedure which has ability to move is…?

(a) Stationary phase (b) Mobile phase
9. The most popular mobile phase is used chromatography are…?

(a) Petroleum ether (b) Propanol
(c) Ethanol (d) All
10. The most popular stationary phase is used chromatography are…?

(a) Mg-oxide (b) Al-oxide
(c) Activated charcoal (d) All
11. RF =…?
(a) Distance covered by substance (b) Distance covered by solvent
Distance covered by solvent Distance covered by substance
12. Names of types of chromatography are…?

(a) Paper (b) Thin layer
(c) Column (d) All of them
191
13. The technique of analytical chemistry in which different compounds of mixture are separated
that is…?
(a) Paper chromatography (b) Thin layer chromatography
(c) Column chromatography (d) No One
14. The distance of baseline from the final edge is…?

(a) 2.2cm (b) 2.3cm
(c) 2.4cm (d) 2.5cm
15. How many styles of paper chromatography are…?

(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
16. Paper chromatography is used to separate different kinds of…?

(a) API (b) Excipients
17. _______is used in the identification of poison…?

18. ______ is used in the analysis of different medicine, used in the separation of different body
tissue & used in forensic medicine for investigational purpose…?
19. In paper chromatography which of the following mobile phases are being used…?
(a) Ethanol (b) Water
(c) Acetone (d) All of these
20. ___________ is used in the separation of different body tissue…?

(a) Paper chromatography (b) TLC
(c) HPLC (d) All of these
21. In paper chromatography the distance of baseline from the final edge is…?
(a) 2.5dm (b) 2.5cm
(c) 2.5nm (d) 2.5mm
22. Styles of Thin Layer Chromatography indicate what…?

(c) Circular (d) All of these
23. Detection of pesticides or insecticides in food and water refers to…?

(a) TLC (b) HPLC
(c) Gas (d) All of these
24. _____chromatography in chemistry is a method used to purify individual chemical

compounds from mixtures of compounds…?
(a) Column (b) TLC
(c) Paper (d) No one
192
25. _______ is often used for preparative applications on scales from micrograms up to
kilograms…?
(a) Paper (b) TLC
(c) Column (d) No one
26. Mobile Phase in column chromatography is…?

(a) Ethanol (b) Water
(c) Acetone (d) All of them
27. Parts of chromatography column are…?

(a) Ground Glass Joint (b) Solvent Level
(c) Solvent Bulb (d) All of these
28. The classical preparative chromatography column is a glass tube with a diameter from 50 mm
and a height of ____to_____ with a tap at the bottom…?
(a) 50 cm to 1 m (b) 50 cm to 1 nm
(c) 50 cm to 1 mm (d) 50 cm to 2 m
Chapter # 7 Keys:
1 a 7 a 13 a 19 d 25 c
2 a 8 b 14 d 20 a 26 d
3 a 9 d 15 d 21 b 27 d
4 b 10 d 16 a 22 d 28 a
5 c 11 a 17 a 23 d
6 d 12 d 18 a 24 a
193
Chapter # 8:
1. Specialized type procedure of chemistry that involves the separation of different compounds
on the basis of their relative solubility in two different immiscible solvent / liquids…?
(a) Extraction (b) Distillation
2. The extraction is a complex pharmaceutical procedure in which the ____ is removed from
crude drug…?
(a) (API) (b) Excipients
(c) Binder (d) All of above
3. Liquid that is used in the pharmacy for extractions procedure is called…?

(a) Manstrum (b) Marc
(c) API (d) No one
4. Waste material that left after extraction is called…?

(a) Manstrum (b) Marc
(c) Additives (d) All of above
5. With the advancement in medical treatment technologies the demand of herbal medicine…?
(a) Diminished (b) Mandatory
(c) Reasonable (d) No one
6. Potency can be controlled by extraction…?

(a) Yes (b) No
7. Theory of extraction belongs to which of the following…?

(a) Selection of suitable solvent (b) Supply of appropriate heat
(c) Separation of solvent from marc (d) All of above
8. Which of the following are the extraction techniques…?

(a) Infusion (b) Decoction
(c) Maceration (d) All of above
9. Method of extraction in which hot manstrum (water) is used…?

(a) Infusion (b) Percolation
(c) Digestion (d) No one
10. Apparatus that are used in Infusion…?

(a) Burner (b) Filter paper
(c) Beaker (d) All of them
11. How many techniques of Maceration…?

(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
12. Maceration is done which of the following drugs…?

(a) Organized (b) Un-Organized
194
13. In the maceration of organized drugs after how many days manstrum is separated…?
(a) Five (b) Seven
(c) Nine (d) Ten
14. Multiple maceration very important and effective procedure as for as its ____is concern…?
(a) Accuracy (b) Adulteration
15. Open percolator is used for…?

(a) Non- Volatile solvents (b) Volatile Solvents
Chapter # 8 Keys:
1 a 6 a 11 c
2 a 7 d 12 c
3 a 8 d 13 b
4 b 9 a 14 a
5 a 10 d 15 a
195
Chapter # 9 Poisonous Plants:
1. Select Species for the genus “colocacia”…?
(a) Sativum (b) Indicum
(c) Esculanta (d) Nigrum
2. Loss of voice represented in case of toxicity of plants…?

(a) Arisaema (b) Prunus
(c) Temarindus (d) Accaica
3. _____ is the reason of oral toxicity…?

(a) Calcitonin (b) Potassium Nitrate
(c) Citric Acid (d) Calcium Oxalate
4. Lycorine is present in…?

(a) Narcissus (b) Bromelain
(c) Ficus (d) All of them
5. Select best crude drug responsible for increase in salivation…?

(a) Cannabis (b) Crinum
(c) Cassia (d) Acacia
6. Glycoride is included in…?

(a) Resins (b) Glycosides
(c) Saponin (d) Phenols
7. Peptic and duodenal ulcer is the result of toxicity of…?

(a) Mangifera Indica (b) Solanum Nigrum
(c) Cassia fistula (d) Aseculus Indica
8. Solvent best match for conjunctivitis…?

(a) Nasal Congestion (b) Duodenal Ulcer
(c) Inflammation of eye (d) Headache
9. Abrus Pectorius belong to which family…?

(a) Leguminosae (b) Poaceae
(c) Solanceae (d) Rosaceae
10. Trembling of hands related to which drugs…?

(a) Atropine (b) Hyosine
(c) Terpenes (d) Abrin
11. Dryness of mouth is the symptoms of which crude drug…?

(a) Hyosine (b) Abrin
(c) Atropine (d) Ephedrine
12. Conium maculatum belongs to which family…?

(a) Solanaceae (b) Apiaceae
(c) Asteraceae (d) Poaceae
196
13. Pseudo canohydrine is _______ in native…?
(a) Alkaloids (b) Fats
(c) Resins (d) Protein
14. Select best match for enhance motility of intestine…?

(a) Nicotiana (b) Pericaria
(c) Accacia (d) Conium
15. Gitatoxin is present in…?

(a) Cannabis (b) Aloe Vera
(c) Digitalis (d) Belladona
16. Relate Nerium indicum which one of them…?

(a) Nicotine (b) Abrin
(c) Atropine (d) Karabin
17. Gitatoxin is ______ in nature…?

(a) Acidic (b) Alcoholic
(c) Basic (d) Lipidin
18. Cyanogenocyte is present in_________...?

(a) Cicuto (b) Almond
(c) Cannabis (d) Manihot
Chapter # 9 Keys:
1 c 8 c 15 c
2 a 9 a 16 d
3 d 10 d 17 b
4 a 11 c 18 d
5 b 12 b
6 c 13 a
7 d 14 a
197
Chapter # 10 Glycoside:
1. Select best drug for Anthra – Quinone Glycosides…?
(a) Tolubalsam (b) Myrruh
(c) Digitalis (d) Rhubarb
2. Choose correct genus for specie Senna…?

(a) Carius (b) Accacia
(c) Tinnevenly (d) Nerium
3. Aloe- emodine glycosides present in…?

(a) Aloe-vera (b) Almond
(c) Senna (d) Acacia
4. Cassia Fistula belongs to family…?

(a) Caricaeae (b) Leguminoseae
(c) Rosaceae (d) Poaceae
5. Amaltas cassia fistula is used as _____ agent…?

(a) Purgative (b) Cathartic
(c) Cyanogenetic (d) Spasmodic
6. Drugs that used to reduce uric acid or increase elimination of uric acid are named as…?
(a) Laxative (b) Anti-dot
(c) Anti-Gout (d) Anti-Spasmodic
7. Aloe - Vera belongs to which family…?

(a) Graminaceae (b) Fabaceae
(c) Rosaceae (d) Liliaceae
8. Barbaloin present in…?

(a) Aloe Vera (b) Acacia
(c) Tragacanth (d) Tolu Balsam
9. Liquorine is belongs to which family…?

(a) Liliaceae (b) Rosaceae
(c) Leguminosae (d) Fabaceae
10. Class of drug that used for the treatment of inflammation named as…?
(a) Demulcent (b) Emollient
(c) Astringent (d) Expectorant
11. Which drug is used for “Arrow Poison”…?

(a) Cannabis (b) Datura
(c) Strophantus (d) Digitalis
12. Mesocarp is the part of…?

(a) Fruit (b) Root
(c) Stem (d) Seed
198
13. Kombic acid is present in…?
(a) Strophantus (b) Digitalis
(c) Cassia (d) Manihot
14. Which drug is used as cardiac stimulant….?

(a) Aloe Vera (b) Digitalis
(c) Cardamom (d) Tolu balsam
15. Fox glove is the 2nd name used for…?

(a) Atropa (b) Datura
(c) Strophantus (d) Digitalis
Chapter # 10 Keys:
1 d 6 c 11 c
2 c 7 d 12 a
3 c 8 a 13 a
4 b 9 c 14 b
5 b 10 a 15 d
199
Chapter # 11 Alkaloids:
1. Example of pyridine alkaloid is…?
(a) Areca Nut (b) Peanut
(c) Coconut (d) Pine apple
2. Nux vomica belongs to which alkaloid class…?

(a) Steroidal (b) Indole
(c) Pyridine (d) Quinolone
3. Another name of Rauwolfia is…?

(a) Datura (b) Fox Glove
(c) Chota Chandan (d) Ashwagandha
4. Ajmaline Present is…?

(a) Snake bite (b) Datura
(c) Senna (d) Rauwolfia
5. Drugs which is used for insomnia…?

(a) Anti Gout (b) Cathartic
(c) Astringent (d) Hypnotic
6. Select synonyms for Catharanthus…?

(a) Rauwolfia (b) Chamomile
(c) Snake Root (d) Rattan Jot
7. Vin blastine is present…?

(a) Veronica (b) Aloe Vera
(c) Atropa (d) Catharanthus
8. Drugs that are used to treat cancer…?

(a) Cathartic (b) Anti-Neoplastic
(c) Anti- Spasmodic (d) Anti Gout
9. Drug which is used as Bronchodilator…?

(a) Atropine (b) Hyosine
(c) Ephedrine (d) Cannabiol
10. Analgesic drugs used to provide relief from…?

(a) Inflammation (b) Allergy
(c) Wound (d) Pain
11. Drugs that used to prevent cough are called as…?

(a) Anti-Tussive (b) Anti-Dot
(c) Anti-Septic (d) Anti-Gout
12. Nux vomica is called as…?

(a) Snake Root (b) Poison Nut
(c) Arrow Nut (d) Areca Nut
200
13. Cinchona belongs to which family…?
(a) Rosaceae (b) Rutaceae
(c) Rubiaceae (d) Poaceae
14. Scopolamine is present in…?

(a) Hyoscyamus (b) Cannabis
(c) Fox Gloves (d) Night Shade
15. Drugs that used to dilate pupil are named as…?

(a) Sedative (b) Hypnotic
(c) Tonic (d) Mydriatic
Chapter # 11 Keys:
1 a 6 d 11 a
2 b 7 d 12 b
3 c 8 b 13 c
4 d 9 c 14 a
5 d 10 d 15 d
201
Chapter # 12 Volatile Oil:
1. Types of essential oil that does not leave a stain named as…?
(a) Fixed Oil (b) Coconut
(c) Terpene Oil (d) Volatile Oil
2. Chavicol chemical is present in…?

(a) Saunf (b) Zira
(c) Pudina (d) Ellaichi
3. Drugs that can produce calm from flatulence…?

(a) Stimulant (b) Astringent
(c) Carminative (d) Laxative
4. Eugenol present in…?

(a) Darchini (b) Ellaichi
(c) Zira (d) Clove
5. Cardamomum belongs to which family…?

(a) Lauraceae (b) Loganiaceae
(c) Zingiberaceae (d) Rubiaceae
6. Select plant for family Myrtaceae…?

(a) Clove (b) Jamun
(c) Ellaichi (d) Both a & b
7. Vanillin present in…?

(a) Lung (b) Ellaichi
(c) Caraway (d) Cinamomum
8. Which drug is used to treat Jaundice…?

(a) Turmeric (b) Ginger
(c) Snake Root (d) Atropa
9. Select best drug used for gall stone…?

(a) Turmeric (b) Ginger
(c) Lung (d) Ellaichi
10. Borneol present in…?

(a) Zira (b) Ellaichi
(c) Saunf (d) Lung
Chapter # 12 Keys:
1 d 3 c 5 c 7 a 9 a
2 a 4 a 6 d 8 a 10 b
202
Chapter # 13 Resins:
1. Choose most suitable color for natural Resins…?
(a) Black (b) White
(c) Brown (d) Grey
2. Most of the Resins are exuded from which of the following…?

(a) Coconut (b) Mango
(c) Pines (d) Orange
3. Oleoresins are the mixture of Resins with…?

(a) Volatile Oil (b) Acid
(c) Esters (d) Alcohol
4. Which one relates to gum resins…?

(a) Oleoresins (b) Balsams
(c) Asafeotida (d) Tolu Balsam
5. Which one is the example of oleoresins…?

(a) Asafeotida (b) Ipomoea
(c) Oleoresins (d) Balsams
6. Myroxylon balsam is obtained from which part of the plant…?

(a) Leaf (b) Root
(c) Flower (d) Stem
7. Vanillin is used as…?

(a) Anti-Septic (b) Cure Jaundice
(c) Diuretic (d) All of above
8. Ferulic acid is used as…?

(a) Anti-Septic (b) Anti- Cancer
(c) Muscle Relaxant (d) Diuretic
9. Which drug is used to cure Asthma…?

(a) Umbelliferore (b) Shagaols
(c) Benzoin Acid (d) No one
10. Encircle one substance that is used for the treatment of epilepsy…?
(a) Gingediols (b) Umbelliferore
(c) Cinnamic Acid (d) All of them
Chapter # 13 Keys:
1 c 3 a 5 b 7 a 9 b
2 c 4 c 6 d 8 c 10 b
203
Important Pharmacognosy Subjective Questions
Chapter # 1:
1. Define Pharmacognosy? .Explain how and when pharmacognosy term proposed?
Chapter # 2:
1. Define crude drugs .Explain its two methods to classify these drugs?
2. Explain morphological method to classify crude drugs?
3. D/f b/w organized and unorganized crude drugs with example?
4. Explain pharmacological method to classify crude drugs?
Chapter # 3:
1. Define following;
Acicular
Glands
Leaflets
Vaginated
Bulb
2. D/f B/w Roots and Rhizome with example?
3. D/f B/w Fruit and Flower with example?
4. D/f B/w seeds and bark with example?
Chapter # 4:
1. Explain organoleptic method to evaluate crude drugs?
2. Explain biological evaluation of crude drugs?
3. What do you know about physical evaluation of drugs?
Chapter # 5:
1. Difference between enzymes and catalyst with example?
2. What do you know about the properties of enzymes?
3. How temperatures effect the rate of enzymatic activity?
4. Explain bromelain with its uses?
5. Describe Papain with its uses?
6. Explain new methods used to classify enzyme?
7. Write a brief note on old method to classify enzymes?
204
Chapter # 6:
1. Define allergy and Explain hypersensitivity?
2. Difference between antigen and antibody with example?
3. What is allergy? Define and enlist common allergen?
4. Explain sign and symptoms of Rhinitis, sinusitis and conjunctivitis?
5. What do you know about inhalant allergen?
6. Enlist symptoms of food allergy?
7. Write a note on systemic anaphylaxis?
8. Explain Rh Disease (hemolytic disease of new born baby)?
9. What do you know about Antibody- mediated cytotoxicity?
10. Difference between immediate and DTH (Delayed-Type-hypersensitivity)?
11. How would you explain serum sickness?
12. How we can diagnose allergic reaction or type of allergy?
13. What will happen after 2nd exposure to antigens?
14. Explain and difference between RAST and ELISA techniques?
15. How a person can avoid from getting allergic reactions?
16. Explain pharmaco therapy to control allergy?
17. Write a note on immune therapy to control allergy?
Chapter # 7:
1. Explain general procedure for chromatography?
2. Define chromatography and describe How Rf value can be calculated?
3. Enlist components of chromatography also Enlist general applications of chromatography?
Chapter # 8:
1. Define extraction and explain the theory of extraction?
2. Write a note on maceration?
3. What do you know about infusion?
4. Write procedure of decoction?
5. How organized and un- organized drugs can be macerated?
6. Difference between open and closed percolator with reference to technique(percolation)?
Chapter # 9:
(Poisonous Plants)
1. What is GIT toxicity and explain one plant/crude drugs that can cause GIT?
2. Write botanical name family chemicals and symptom of Datura toxicity?
3. Describe botanical name family toxicology and symptoms of Cannabis toxicity?
4. Describe botanical name family toxicology and symptoms of Tobacco?
205
206
(Glycosides)
1. Define glycosides name its various classes and explain at least one glycosides plant drug?
2. Write down botanical name family chemical class collection and uses of Aloe drug?
3. Write down botanical name family chemical class and uses of Senna?
4. Write down botanical name family chemical class and uses of Caccia (Amaltus)?
5. Write down botanical name family chemical class and uses of Glycrrhiza?
(Alkaloids)
1. Define alkaloids? Enlist name of physiologically active group of alkaloids?
2. Write botanical name family chemical constituents and uses of Ephedra?
3. Write down botanical name family chemical class and uses of Nux-vomica? Also mention
Uses
4. Write down botanical name family chemical class and medicinal uses of Belladonna?
(Volatile Oils)
1. What do you know about volatile oil,Explain all about one volatile Oil containing drug?
2. Write down botanical name family chemical constituentsand medicinal uses of Saunf?
3. Write down botanical name family chemical constituents and medicinal uses of Pudina?
4. Write down botanical name family chemical constituents and medicinal uses of cinnamom?
5. Write down botanical name family chemical constituents and medicinal uses of cardamom?
6. Write down botanical name family chemical constituents and medicinal uses of Clove?
7. Write down botanical name family chemical constituents and medicinal uses of curcuma?
(Resins)
1. Define resins and explain its classification?
2. Write down botanical name family chemical constituents and medicinal uses of colocynth?
3. Write down botanical name family chemical constituents and medicinal uses of Ginger?
(Carbohydrate)
1. Define carbohydrate and explain its classification?
2. Write down botanical name family chemical class and uses of Acaccia?
3. Write down botanical name family chemical class and uses of Tragacanth?
4. What is the biological source of corn starch, how it can be produced?
5. What is the biological source of Rice starch, explain its properties?
6. Explain medicinal uses of starch?
(Tannins)
1. Define tannins and write botanical name family and uses of Catechu?
2. Write botanical name family chemical class and uses of Nut-Gall?
(Fixed Oil)
1. Explain botanical name family chemical constituents and uses of Almond Oil?
206

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Anatomy:

2. Study the structure of human body parts without microscopic is called…?

3. Which branch of anatomy helps in understanding congenital deformities of embryo...?

4. Study of Right Lung is called _________ anatomy…?

5. Study of Digestive system is called…?

6. Cytology is the study of…?

7. Applied Anatomy is the study of…?

8. Why we use the techniques of Cross- Section Anatomy…?

10. Study of microscopic parts of cell:

11. Regional anatomy relates to which of the following:

13. Study of Nervous system relates to which of the following anatomy:

14. Study of diagnosis of disease:

15. Study of multiple organ relates to which:

4. Reference point called as a…?

5. Two parts of body that present at the same side of body …?

6. Flexion and Extension are…?

7. Abduction and Adduction are the movement of…?

8. Pronation and Supination are the movement of…?

9. Inside movement of sole of foot is called …?

13. Reference point belongs to which of the following…?

14. Left arm and Skull are example of …?

15. Bending the elbow is an example of…?

17. Movement of limb away from the Transverse line is called…?

18. Inside & outside movement of palm is called…?

19. Movement of bone towards upper side is called…?

20. Depression refers to as…?

21. Leg and hand distance decreased refers to as…?

2. How many parts of human skeleton are there…?

3. How many phalanges are there in foot…?

4. Which human body part contains frontal bone…?

5. Upper limb contain how many parts…?

6. Humerus is the long bone of which part…?

7. Which one is the 2nd bone of Forearm except Radius…?

8. Femur is start from ___________ to knee…?

9. Patella is also called as…?

10. How many metatarsals are there in foot…?

11. How many regular bones are there in vertebral column…?

13. Which one is consider the tail vertebra of vertebral column…?

14. Back Muscles are mostly attached to which vertebra…?

15. First part of Pelvic Region is…?

17. Which one is the accessory organ of digestive system…?

18. Which one is not the accessory organ of digestive system…?

19. How many glands contain the oral cavity…?

21. What is the size of Esophagus…?

22. Length of Stomach is …?

23. What is the length of small intestine in male & female…?

25. What is the size of duodenum…?

26. What is the size of Jejunum…?

27. Size of large intestine is…?

28. Which one is not the part of upper respiratory tract…?

29. What is the role of Epiglottis helps to______ during swallowing…?

30. Length of Trachea…?

31. Which organ form urine in our urinary system…?

32. What is the basic structural & functional unit of kidney…?

33. Kidneys are located mainly in the region…?

34. The outer zone of kidney is called …?

35. Arterioles are of the small subdivisions of a _______...?

37. Which of the following is the name of male sex hormone …?

38. Female external organ are collectively known as …?

39. Which of the following belong to the Uterus weight…?

40. GIT stand for…?

41. Aim of surface anatomy is…?

43. How many bones are there in forearm…?

44. Mandible is related to which of the following…?