PRELIMS FITNESS – 2023

TEST 15
EXPLANATION

Q.1) Consider the following statements:

1. It was formed for the first time in 1950.
2. Its membership and chairmanship are limited to Lok Sabha members.
3. It is the largest among the given committees.
4. It suggests alternative policies to improve administrative efficiency and the economy.
Which of the following has the characteristics mentioned above?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimate committee
(c) Committee on Public Sector Undertaking
(d) Business Advisory Committee
EXPLANATION:
The origin of the estimates committee can be traced to the standing finance committee set up in 1921.
The first Estimates Committee in the post-independence era was constituted in 1950 on the
recommendation of John Mathai. The strength of the estimate committee is 30 members, the largest
parliament committee. And all 30 members are elected every year from Lok Sabha only.
Some functions of the estimate committee are:
➢ To report what economies, improvements in organization, efficiency and administrative reform
consistent with the policy underlying the estimates, can be affected.
➢ To suggest alternative policies to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
➢ To examine whether the money is well laid out within the policy's limits implied in the estimates.
So, Option (b) is correct

Q.2) With reference to the No-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. A minimum of 50 members have to accept the motion
2. For the first time in Indian history, the Atal Bihari Vajpayee government was defeated in a no-
confidence vote.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
A Lok Sabha MP moves a no-confidence motion if they feel that the govt in power is not functioning
properly. In that case, the members demand the resignation of that govt. If more than 50 MPs support
the motion, a debate is initiated. The House is put to the vote, where the ruling Government has to prove
its majority. So, Statement 1 is correct
Since independence, 27 no-confidence motions have been introduced in the Lok Sabha. In August 1963,
Parliament witnessed the first "No Confidence Motion" against then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru's
but his Government survived. The first Government defeated by a NO-confidence motion was the Atal
Bihari Vajpayee government in the year 1999. So, Statement 2 is correct.

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Q.3) Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution does not set any deadline for Governor's functions related to passing a bill.
2. The High court has no jurisdiction over the Armed forces tribunal.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Under Article 200, the Governor may (a) grant consent, (b) withholds assent, (c) return for reconsideration
by the Legislature or (d) reserve for the consideration of the President any Bill passed by the State
legislature and presented to him for assent. The Constitution does not mention any deadline for the
Governor to consent. So, Statement 1 is correct.
In January 2020, the Supreme Court made it clear that the verdicts of the Armed Forces Tribunals (AFT)
can be challenged before the high courts. In march 2022, Delhi High Court held that the Armed Forces
Tribunal Act 2007 excludes the administrative supervision of the High Court under Article 227(4) of the
Constitution but "not judicial superintendence" and "certainly not" jurisdiction under Article 226 of the
Constitution. It clarified that the Supreme Court had reinstated the right to challenge verdicts of AFTs
in the High Courts. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Q.4) What purposes did the Constitution's framers intend when they designed the Rajya Sabha's structure
and roles?
1. To secure mature and knowledgeable individuals.
2. To allow the States to express their viewpoints in Parliament effectively.
3. To ensure some consistency in the underlying principles of parliamentary legislation.
4. To ensure the Council of ministers is collectively responsible to Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Need for the Rajya Sabha:
➢ To lend a voice to the states in the legislative things and check the legislation passed in haste.
➢ A federal constitution must give representation to the units of the states.
➢ To secure mature and knowledgeable individuals.
➢ To allow the States to express their viewpoints in Parliament effectively.
➢ To ensure some consistency in the underlying principles of parliamentary legislation
➢ To secure executive accountability through its various committees. Currently, there are 24
Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committees in the Parliament, out of which eight are
functioning under the direction and control of the Chairman, Rajya Sabha. So, statements 1,2,3
are correct.

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 The Council of ministers is collectively responsible to the lower House of the Parliament (Lok Sabha). The
executives are accountable to the Lok Sabha members as the people directly elect them. So, Statement
4 is not correct

Q.5) With reference to Legislative Council in states, consider the following statements:
1. The Government of India Act of 1919 established bicameral legislatures in Indian provinces.
2. The establishment of a second chamber is solely in the hands of the state government.
3. The Constitution limited the Council's membership to two-thirds of the popularly elected
Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Montagu-Chelmsford reforms led to the formation of the Council of State at the national level in
1919. Then the Government of India Act of 1935 set up bicameral legislatures in Indian provinces. So,
Statement 1 is not correct
The Government of India Act of 1919 was enacted and came into force in 1921. This Act is also known
as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms. The feature of this Act was as follows:
➢ Introduced bicameralism and direct elections in the country at the national level.
➢ Three of the six members of the Viceroy's Executive Council (other than the Commander-in-Chief)
were to be Indian.
➢ It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Sikhs,
Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans.
➢ It granted the franchise to a limited number of people based on property, tax or education.
According to the Article 169 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament of India can create or abolish
the State Legislative Council of a state if that State Legislature passes a resolution for that with a special
majority. Hence the state legislature is not the sole authority for establishing the legislative Council. So,
Statement 2 is not correct
Composition of the Legislative Councils under Article 171 states that the total number of members in
the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council shall not exceed one-third of the total number
of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State: Provided that the total number of members in the
Legislative Council of a State shall in no case be less than forty. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.6) Consider the following statements:

1. Article 169 of the Constitution empowers the Governor to create or abolish a Legislative Council
by passing a resolution.
2. Currently, six states, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat and
Karnataka, have a Legislative Council.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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 EXPLANATION:
Article 169 relates to the Abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States. It empowers the
Parliament to Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council or for the creation of
such a Council in a State having no such Council if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a
resolution to that effect by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not
less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting. Hence, the Parliament (not the
Governor) is empowered to create or abolish a legislative council. So, Statement 1 is not correct
Currently (2022), only six states have two Houses (bicameral). These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka. West Bengal, Gujarat, does not have bicameral
legislation. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Q.7) With respect to the process of Inclusion of Communities in the Scheduled Tribes List, consider the
following statements:
1. Only those proposals recommended and justified by the concerned State/UTs can be processed
further.
2. Every State in India has at least one community as a designated Scheduled Tribe.
3. The Lokur Committee is associated with the Scheduled Tribes List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
As per Article 342(1) of the Constitution, the President is the sole authority to notify tribal communities
as Scheduled Tribes; article 342 (2) further provides that the "Parliament may by law include in or
exclude from the list of Scheduled tribes specified in a notification issued under clause(1) any tribe or
tribal community or part of or group within any tribe or tribal community." The criteria presently followed
for the specification of a community as a Scheduled Tribe are:
(I) indications of primitive traits,
(ii) distinctive culture,
(iii) geographical isolation,
(iv) shyness of contact with the community at large,
(v) backwardness.
However, these criteria are not spelled out in the Constitution. According to the Government of India
order dated 15.6.1999, only those proposals recommended and justified by the concerned State
Government / UT Administration can be processed further. After that, it has to concur State Government
/ UT Administration can be processed further. After that, it has to be concurred with by the Registrar
General of India (RGI) and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) for consideration for
amendment of legislation. So, Statement 1 is correct.
No community has been specified as a Scheduled Tribe with the State of Haryana and Punjab and the
Union Territories of Chandigarh, Delhi and Puducherry. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Lokur Committee 1965 was tasked with advising the Government on proposals by the states and
union territories (UTs) to revise existing Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) lists in a
"rational and scientific manner. So, Statement 3 is correct

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Q.8) Under the Constitution, which of the following Parliamentary Privileges are available under Article
105?
1. Freedom of speech in parliamentary proceedings
2. Immunity from arrest in civil and criminal proceedings
3. Right of publication of proceedings
4. Right to exclude strangers from the House
5. Prohibition of disclosure of the proceedings or decisions of a secret sitting of the House
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 3,4 and 5
(c) 1,3,4 and 5
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of
Parliament, their committees and their members. Under Article 105, The privileges belonging to each
House of Parliament member include both collective and individual privileges:
The collective responsibility:
➢ It has the right to publish its reports, debates and proceedings and also the right to prohibit others
from publishing the same.
➢ It can make rules to regulate its procedure and the conduct of its business and to adjudicate upon
such matters.
➢ The courts are prohibited from inquiring into the proceedings of a House or its committee
➢ It can punish members as well as outsiders for breach of its privileges or its contempt by reprimand,
caution or imprisonment (also suspension or expulsion, in case of members)
➢ It can exclude strangers from its proceedings and hold secret sittings to discuss some important
matters
The privileges belonging to the individual members are:
➢ They cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and 40
days after the end of a session. This privilege is available only in civil cases and not in criminal or
preventive detention cases. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
➢ They have freedom of speech in Parliament. No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for
anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or its committees. This freedom is subject to
the provisions of the Constitution and the rules and standing orders regulating the procedure of
Parliament. So, Option (c) is correct

Q.9) Consider the following statements

1. According to the Constitution, any Member of Parliament may propose a no-confidence motion.
2. Unlike censure motions, no-confidence motions are brought against the entire Council of
ministers only.
3. Unlike a no-confidence resolution, a censure motion has no effect on the Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
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 (d) 1,2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
No confidence Motion is a parliamentary motion that demonstrates to the head of a government that the
elected Parliament no longer has confidence in the Council of Ministers. The procedure for moving a no-
confidence motion is outlined in Rule 198 of the rules of Procedure and Conduct of Lok Sabha. No-
confidence motion can be moved only in Lok Sabha (or state assembly, as the case may be). It is not
allowed in Rajya Sabha (or state legislative council). So, Statement 1 is not correct.
A censure motion can be moved against individual ministers or members, whereas a no-confidence
motion is moved against the entire Council of ministers. There is no impact on the Government when a
censure motion is passed, but the Council of ministers has to resign, and Government collapses when a
no-confidence motion is passed. So, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Q.10) With reference to the Adjournment Motion, consider the following statements:
1. It was raised to discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance.
2. It can only be moved with the Speaker's approval.
3. To be adopted, the motion should raise a question of privilege.
4. If it is admitted, it results in the suspension of the House's regular business
5. It involves an element of Censure against the Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2 and 4 only
(b) 1,3 and 5 only
(c) 2,3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
Adjournment Motion
➢ It is the procedure for adjournment of the House's business to discuss a definite matter of urgent
public importance, which can be moved with the consent of the Speaker. So, Statements 1 and
2 are correct.
➢ The Adjournment Motion, if admitted, leads to setting aside the House's normal business for
discussing the matter mentioned in the motion. To be in order, an adjournment motion must
raise a matter of sufficient public importance to warrant the interruption of the normal business
of the House. So, Statement 4 is correct.
➢ The purpose of an Adjournment Motion is to take the Government to task for a recent act of
omission or commission having serious consequences. Its adoption is regarded as a sort of
censure of the Government. So, Statement 5 is correct
The right to move a motion for an adjournment of the business of the House is subject to the following
restrictions.
➢ It should raise a matter which is definite, factual, urgent and of public importance.
➢ It should not cover more than one matter.
➢ It should be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence and not be framed in general
terms.
➢ It should not raise a question of privilege. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
➢ It should not revive discussion on a matter discussed in the same session. So, Option (d) is
correct.

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Q.11) Which of the following circumstances can the President summon a joint sitting in case of an ordinary
bill?
1. When a Bill passed by one House is rejected by the other House.
2. Lok Sabha disagreed with the Rajya Sabha's amendments regarding ordinary bills.
3. The Bill has lapsed because of a dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
4. The Bill has the provision to implement the International Convention/Treaty.
5. If either House of Parliament does not act on the Bill for six months.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2,3,4 and 5
(c) 1,2 and 5
(d) 1,3,4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
Article 108 of the Indian Constitution states about the joint sitting. The Constitution provides
extraordinary machinery to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill. A
deadlock is deemed to have taken place under any one of the following three situations after a bill has
been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House:
1. When a Bill passed by one House is rejected by the other House;
2. If any Houses have finally disagreed as to the amendments to be made in the Bill by other Houses; or
3. If more than six months have elapsed from the date of the receipt of the Bill by the other House without
the Bill being passed by it. In the above three situations, the President can summon both Houses to meet
in a joint sitting to deliberate and vote on the Bill. It must be noted here that the provision of joint sitting
applies to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to Money bills or Constitutional amendment bills.
So, statements 1, 2 and 5 are correct.
When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all business, including bills, motions, resolutions, notices, and
petitions, is pending before it or its committee's lapse. No, joint sitting is preferred. So, statement (3) is
not correct.
LAPSES WHEN DISSOLUTION OF DOES NOT LAPSE WHEN THE DISSOLUTION OF
LOKSABHA LOKSABHA
A bill originated in the Lok Sabha but is A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by
pending in the Lok Sabha the Lok Sabha
A bill originated and passed by the Rajya the President has notified the holding of a joint
Sabha but is pending in Lok Sabha sitting before the dissolution of the Lok Sabha
A bill originated and passed by the Lok Sabha A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of
but is pending in the Rajya Sabha the President
A bill originated in the Rajya Sabha and A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the
returned to that House by the Lok Sabha with President for reconsideration of Rajya Some pending
amendments and is still pending in the Rajya bills and all pending assurances that are to be
Sabha on the date of the dissolution of the Lok examined by the Committee on Government
Sabha Assurances
A joint sitting does not make for the provision to implement the International Convention/Treaty. So,
statement 4 is not correct.
So, Option (c) is correct.

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Q.12) With reference to the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
1. The maximum strength of the House is envisaged by the Constitution.
2. The 104th Amendment Act 2019 affects the Composition of the Lok Sabha but not the Rajya Sabha.
3. In the Lok Sabha total of 542 members are permitted to represent the States
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
EXPLANATION:
According to Indian Constitution, The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at 552. Out of this,
530 members are to be the representatives of the states, and 20 are to be the representatives of the
union territories. So, statement 1 is correct.
The One Hundred and Fourth Amendment of the Constitution of India extends the deadline for the pause
for the reservation of seats for members from Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha
and State Legislative Assemblies by a period of 10 years. The reservation of seats for the Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes was set to expire on 26 January 2020 as mandated by the Ninety-Fifth
Amendment. But, It was extended for another 10 years. Hence, does not affect the Rajya sabha. So,
statement 2 is correct.
Lok Sabha is composed of representatives of people chosen by direct election based on Universal Adult
Suffrage. The maximum strength of the House is 552 members - 530 members to represent the States,
20 members to represent the Union Territories, and 2 members to be nominated by the President from
the Anglo-Indian Community. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, Option (b) is correct.

Q.13) With reference to Constitution Amendment Bills, consider the following statements
1. The Constitution empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution.
2. The motions for the introduction of the Constitution Amendment Bills are adopted by Special
Majority.
3. Amendments to federal features of the Constitution are required to be ratified by not less than
one-half of the State Legislatures.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Article 368 of Part XX of the Indian Constitution mentioned the Power of Parliament to amend the
Constitution and procedure. So, statement 1 is correct.
➢ Article 368 provides for two types of amendments: by a special majority of Parliament and through
the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some other articles provide for the
amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority of Parliament, that is,
a majority of the members of each House present and voting (similar to the normal legislative

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 process). Notably, these amendments are not deemed amendments to the Constitution for Article
368.
➢ The Constitution Amendment Bills can be introduced in either House of Parliament. If sponsored
by a Private Member, the Bill must be examined in the first instance and recommended for
introduction by the Committee on Private Members' Bills and Resolutions before it is included in
the List of businesses. Motions for the introduction of the Bills are decided by a simple majority.
So, statement 2 is not correct.
➢ Suppose the Bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution. In that case, it must
also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of
the House members present and voting. So, statement 3 is correct.

Q.14) With reference to the Speaker, consider the following statements:

1. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, the Speaker is no longer a member of the House.
2. He is widely regarded as the true guardian of parliamentary democracy's traditions.
3. He may resign from office at any time by writing to the President under his or her hand.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Article 94 of the Indian Constitution states the Vacation, resignation and removal from the Speaker and
Deputy Speaker offices.
A member holding office as Speaker of the House of the People (Lok sabha)
➢ The Speaker shall vacate his office if he vacates to be a member of the House of the People. So,
statement 1 is correct.
➢ On the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, although the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House,
they do not vacate their office.
➢ The Speaker may, at any time, resign from office by writing under their hand to the Deputy
Speaker. The Speaker can be removed from office only on a resolution of the House passed by a
majority of all the then members of the House. So, statement 3 is not correct.
➢ Such a resolution has to satisfy some conditions: it should be specific for the charges, and it
should not contain arguments, inferences, ironical expressions, imputations or defamatory
statements, etc. Not only these, discussions should be confined to charges referred to in the
resolution. It is also mandatory to give a minimum of 14 days notice of the intention to move the
resolution.
The Office of the Speaker symbolizes the dignity, honor and power of the House over which they are
presiding. The Speaker is considered the true guardian of the traditions of parliamentary democracy. So,
statement 2 is correct.

Q.15) Which of the following positions can be held by a person who is not a member of either House of
Parliament at the time of their appointment?
1. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
2. The chairman Rajya Sabha
3. The Prime Minister
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 4. The President of India
5. Chairman of Public Account Committee
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 5
(d) 1,2 3,4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members (as soon as may be, after its first
sitting). Whenever the office of the Speaker falls vacant, the Lok Sabha elects another
Member to fill the vacancy. The President fixes the date of the election of the Speaker. The Speaker of
the Lok Sabha should be a member of Lok Sabha at the time of appointment. So, statement 1 is not
correct.
Article 66 in The Constitution Of India states that the Constitution of India lays down that Vice-President
should not be a member of either the House of Parliament or a House of the state legislature. If any such
person is elected Vice-President, he is deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on the date on
which he enters upon his office as Vice-President. Hence, should not have to be a member of either
House of Parliament at the time of their appointment. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Supreme Court held that a person who is not a member of either House of Parliament could be
appointed as Prime Minister for six months, within which he should become a member of either House
of Parliament; otherwise, he ceases to be the Prime Minister. So, statement 3 is correct.
The President shall not be a member of either the House of Parliament or a House of the Legislature of
any state. If any such member is elected President, he shall be claimed to have vacated his seat in that
House on the date he enters office as President. So, statement 4 is correct.
The Speaker appointed the Chairman of the public account committee from amongst its members. Until
1966 - '67, the committee's Chairman belonged to the ruling party. However, since 1967 a convention
has developed whereby the Chairman of the committee is selected invariably from the opposition. So,
statement 5 is not correct.
So, Option (b) is correct.

Q.16) With respect to the Council of States, consider the following statements:
1. The Government of India Act of 1935 established a 'Council of State' as a second chamber of the
Legislature.
2. The seventh Schedule of the Constitution provides allocation of seats to Rajya Sabha and Union
territories.
3. Unlike the Chairman, the Deputy Chairman in Rajya Sabha is a member of the House.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The origin of the second chamber can be traced to the Montague-Chelmsford Report of 1918. The
Government of India Act 1919 provided for the creation of a 'Council of State' as a second chamber of

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 the then Legislature with a restricted franchise which came into existence in 1921. So, statement 1 is
not correct.
The fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for the allocation of seats to the States and Union
Territories in the Rajya Sabha. The allocation of seats is made based on the population of each State.
The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India defines and specifies the allocation of powers and
functions between the Union & States. It contains three lists, i.e., 1) Union List, 2) State List, and 3)
Concurrent List. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Article 89 of the Indian Constitution says that the Vice-President of India shall be ex officio Chairman of
the Rajya Sabha. Article 66 of the Indian Constitution says that the Vice-President shall be elected by
the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. Also, the
Deputy Chairman is a constitutional position created under Article 89 of the Constitution, which
specifies that the Rajya Sabha shall choose one of its MPs to be the Deputy Chairman as often as the
position becomes vacant. The Rajya Sabha itself elects the Deputy Chairman from amongst its members.
Hence, the Deputy chairperson is a member of the House. So, statement 3 is correct.

Q.17) Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution has no provisions for resolving disagreements between the two Houses over a
bill proposing a constitutional amendment.
2. The Ministers may speak and participate in either House of the Parliament, but they may only
vote in the House of which they are members.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Article 108 of the Constitution Of India 1949 mentions the joint sitting of both Houses in certain cases.
But there are two exceptions when a joint sitting cannot be summoned.
➢ Constitution Amendment Bill: According to Article 368, the Constitution can be amended only by
a 2/3rd majority in both Houses. There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of a disagreement
between both Houses over a bill proposing a constitutional amendment. So, statement 1 is
correct.
Article 88 of the Constitution Of India states the Rights of Ministers and Attorney General as respects
Houses. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak and take part in
the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of
which he may be named a member but shall not be entitled to vote. So, statement 2 is correct.

Q.18) In which of the following matters do the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal powers?
1. Election of the President
2. Impeachment of the President
3. Election of the Vice-President
4. Removal of the Vice-President
5. Money bill
6. Approving the proclamation of Emergency
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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 (a) 1, 3 and 5
(b) 2,4 and 6
(c) 1,2,3 and 6
(d) 1, 2,3,4 and 6
EXPLANATION:
➢ In legislative matters, Rajya Sabha enjoys almost equal powers with Lok Sabha. It has equal
powers with the introduction and passage of ordinary bills, the Introduction and passage of
Constitutional amendment bills and the Election and impeachment of the President. Election and
removal of vice president. However, Rajya sabha alone can take the resolution of removal by the
special majority and Lok sabha by simple majority, Approval of Emergency by all three types by
the President, and Approval of Ordinance issued by the President.
➢ Rajya Sabha does not enjoy equal powers with Lok Sabha in the case of Money Bills, where the
latter has overriding powers. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in
the Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill. It should return the Bill to
the Lok Sabha within 14 days, with or without recommendations. The Lok Sabha can either
accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. In both cases, the money
bill is deemed to have been passed by the two Houses. So, statement 5 is not correct.
So, Option (d) is correct.

Q.19) With reference to the Public Accounts Committee, consider the following statements:
1. It was first set up in 1921 in the wake of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms.
2. In accordance with the Constitution, an opposition member of the Lok Sabha will preside over
this committee.
3. As a joint committee, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal representation among their
members.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Committee on Public Accounts was first set up in 1921 in the wake of the Montague-Chelmsford
Reforms. It was the oldest of all the parliamentary committees. The Public Accounts Committee is now
constituted annually under Rule 308 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
So, statement 1 is correct.
The Lok Sabha speaker appoints the Chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee. The term of office
of the members is one year. Currently, the 16th Lok Sabha has no designated leader of the opposition.
However, the Indian National Congress (INC), the largest opposition party, has been responsible for
heading the Public Accounts Committee. Invariably from the Opposition Party (either from LS or RS
member) since 1967. So, statement 2 is not correct.
The Public Accounts Committee consists of not more than twenty-two members, fifteen elected by Lok
Sabha, the lower House of the Parliament, and not more than seven members of Rajya Sabha, the upper
House of the Parliament. The committee members are elected annually by the Parliament from amongst
its members. The principle of Proportional Representation (PR) using Single Transferable Vote (STV.) This

12
 election method gives equal representation to all the members of the Parliament. Hence, it does not have
equal representation among its members. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Q.20) With reference to the Calling Attention, consider the following statements:
1. The Calling Attention procedure is taken from British Parliament
2. The House will not vote on the Calling Attention issue.
3. The matters which are primarily the concern of the Union Government cannot be raised under it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
A calling Attention Motion is introduced in Parliament by a member to call the Attention of a minister to
a matter of urgent public importance and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that matter.
Like zero hours, it is also an "Indian innovation" in the parliamentary procedure and has existed since
1954. However, unlike the zero hours, it is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. So, statement 1 is not
correct.
It's applicable under all houses where democratically elected candidates meet throughout India (Lok
Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and Vidhan Sabha of respective states). Each member gets 2 chances during a
single session for a Calling Attention Motion. Hence, The House will not vote on the Calling Attention
motion. So, statement 2 is correct.
Calling Attention Motion is a parliamentary protocol for an immediate discussion in the purview of public
interests. Only those matters, primarily the Union Government's concern, can be raised through a calling
attention notice. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Q.21) Which one of the following devices can members of Parliament use if they believe the House is not
operating in accordance with the rules and regulations?
(a) Point of Order
(b) The Calling Attention
(c) Adjournment Motion
(d) Censure motion
EXPLANATION:
A member can raise a point of order when the proceedings of the House "do not follow the normal rules
of procedure." A point of order should relate to the interpretation or enforcement of the Rules of the
House or such articles of the Constitution that regulate the business of the House and should raise a
question that is within the cognizance of the Speaker. Opposition members usually raise it to control the
Government. It is an extraordinary device as it suspends the proceedings before the House. No debate is
allowed on the point of order. So, Option (a) is correct.

Q.22) Who among the following is not a Member of Parliament but participates in Parliamentary
proceedings?
1. President of India
2. Vice - President of India

13
 3. Attorney General of India
4. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha
5. Minister who is not a member of the House
6. Nominated member of Lok sabha
7. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,3,5 and 7 only
(b) 1,3,4,5 and 6 only
(c) 1,2,3,4,5,6 and 7
(d) 2,3 and 5 only
EXPLANATION:
The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature of
any state and if any such member is elected President, he shall be claimed to have vacated his seat in
that House on the date on which he enters upon office as President. Hence, The President is Member of
Parliament but participates in Parliamentary proceedings. So, statement 1 is not correct.
The vice president is not a member of the Parliament of India. But, He acts as the ex officio chairman of
the Rajya Sabha. Article 66 of the Constitution of India states the manner of election of the vice president.
Even though Vice President is not a Member of Parliament, he/she participates in Parliamentary
proceedings. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Attorney General has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of
Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he/she may be named a
member but without a right to vote. Hence, Attorney General is not a member of Parliament. But take
part in parliamentary proceedings. So, statement 3 is correct.
A minister can participate in the proceedings of a House of which he is not a member. In other words, a
minister belonging to the Lok Sabha can participate in the proceedings of the Rajya Sabha and vice-
versa. So, statement 5 is correct.
President nominates members of Lok sabha and Rajya sabha. Hence they are members of Parliament.
So, statements 4 and 6 are not correct.
It is the duty of the CAG to report to the Parliament in all such matters which involve revenue sharing
with Government on the country's natural resources. A non-member who participates in the proceedings
in Parliament will not have the right to vote. Only Ministers and the Attorney-General of India have the
right to take part in the proceedings of either House of the Indian Parliament, have the right to speak,
and any joint sitting of the Houses. CAG does not attend the sittings of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and
does not participate in the proceedings of Parliament. So, statement 7 is not correct.

Q.23) With respect to the Money bill, consider the following statements:
1. A money bill is defined in the Constitution of India.
2. Whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the Speaker's decision is final.
3. The Aadhaar Bill was introduced in Lok Sabha as a money Bill.
4. The money bill covers the Imposition of local taxes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1,2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
14
 EXPLANATION:
Article 110 (1) in The Constitution Of India 1949 states the Definition of a Money Bill. The following
provision of the Bill was called a money bill. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Imposition, Abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax,
The regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India or
the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligation undertaken or to be undertaken by
the Government of India,
The custody of the consolidated and the contingency fund, the payment of money or withdrawal of
money from these Funds,
The appropriations of money of the consolidated fund in India,
The declaration of any expenditure charged on the consolidated fund of India or the increment of the
amount of any such expenditure,
The receipt of money on account of the consolidated fund of India or the public account of India or the
custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or the State, or
A bill will not be referred to as a money bill if it mentions only the Imposition of any monetary fines or
penalties or the Imposition of local taxes. So, statement 4 is not correct.
Article 110(3) of The Constitution Of India 1949 states that If any question arises whether a Bill is a
Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the House of the People shall be final. So, statement 2
is correct.
The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 was
rightly passed as a "Money Bill." Hence, Aadhaar Bill was introduced in Lok Sabha as a money Bill. So,
statement 3 is correct.

Q.24) Consider the following statements in relation to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:
1. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are the Presiding Officers of the Lok Sabha.
2. When the Offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant, their duties are
performed by a Member of the Lok Sabha appointed by the President.
3. The Speaker has the power to adjourn or suspend sittings in a house for the lack of quorum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding officer and the highest authority of the Lok Sabha. The
Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the second highest-ranking legislative officer of the Lok Sabha. They
act as the presiding officer in case of leave or absence caused by the death or illness of the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha. So, statement 1 is correct.
When the Offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant, the President appoints a
member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker. So, statement 2 is correct.
The Speaker can adjourn or suspend sittings in a house for the lack of quorum. He can use the
proceeding as Adjournment and Adjournment sine die. So, statement 3 is correct.

Q.25) Consider the following statements:

15
 1. Substantive motion is a motion that by itself has no meaning and cannot state the decision of the
House without reference to the original motion of the House.
2. While all resolutions are substantive motions, all motions need not necessarily be substantive.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
No discussion on a matter of general public importance can take place except on a motion made with
the consent of the presiding officer. Some of the important motions are:
➢ Subsidiary Motion: It is a motion that, by itself, has no meaning and cannot state the decision of the
House without reference to the original motion or proceedings of the House.
➢ Substantive Motion: It is a self-contained, independent proposal dealing with a very important matter
like the impeachment of the President or removal of the Chief Election Commissioner. So, Statement
1 is not correct.
Resolutions differ from motions in the following respects: "All resolutions come in the category of
substantive motions, that is to say, every resolution is a particular type of motion. All motions need not
necessarily be substantive. Further, all motions are not necessarily put to the vote of the House, whereas
all the resolutions are required to be voted upon. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.26) A Bill is to be deemed a 'Money Bill' when it has provisions dealing with which of the following?
1. Imposition, Abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax
2. Appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India
3. Imposing restrictions on Freedom of Trade and Commerce
4. Regulation of giving any guarantee by the Government of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
Article 110 of the Indian Constitution states a Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only
provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters, namely
➢ the imposition, Abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
➢ the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India,
or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken
by the Government of India;
➢ the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of money into
or the withdrawal of money from any such Fund;
➢ the appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India;
➢ the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the
increasing of the amount of any such expenditure;

16
 ➢ the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or
the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or a State
So, Option (d) is correct.
Article 301 empowers the Parliament to restrict the freedom of trade and commerce and intercourse
between the states or within the states in the public interest. A bill for its purpose is not declared as a
money bill. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Q.27) The President has powers to perform which of the following?

1. Terminate a session of the Lok Sabha
2. Terminate a sitting of the Rajya Sabha.
3. Terminate the life of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
A prorogation means the end of the session of the House. The session of the House is terminated by an
order called the "Prorogation Order" made by the President under article 85(2) of the Constitution. The
presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares the House adjourned sine die when the business of a
session is completed. Within the next few days, the President issues a notification for the prorogation of
the session. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Adjournment sine die refers to terminating a House sitting for an indefinite period. In other words, when
the House is adjourned without naming a day for reassembly, it is called adjournment sine die. The
power of terminating the sitting of Rajya Sabha lies with the House's presiding officer(Chairman), not
with the President. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
A dissolution ends the very life of the existing House, and a new House is constituted after general
elections are held. The President is empowered to terminate the life of Lok Sabha under Article 85(2) (b)
of the Constitution. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.28) Consider the following statements:

1. A resolution is one of the procedural devices to raise a discussion in the House on a matter of
general public interest.
2. All the resolutions passed by the House have the force of law and should be complied with.
3. The Houses can pass Resolutions in the matter of control over its own proceedings
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
EXPLANATION:

17
 The members can move resolutions to draw the Attention of the House or the Government to matters of
general public interest. This procedural device, framed in 1954, provides an opportunity for the
Members to raise matters of general public interest. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Resolutions may be broadly divided into three categories:
➢ Resolutions which are an expression of opinion by the House: Since the purpose of such a
resolution is merely to obtain an expression of opinion of the House, the Government is not bound
to give effect to the opinions expressed in these Resolutions
➢ Resolutions that have statutory effect: The notice of a Statutory resolution is given in pursuance
of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament. Such a resolution, if adopted, is
binding on the Government and has the force of law. Not All resolution has the force of law. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.
➢ Resolutions that the House passes in the matter of control over its own proceedings: It has the
force of law, and its validity cannot be challenged in any court of law. The House, by such a
resolution, evolves, sometimes, its own procedure to meet a situation not specifically provided for
in the rules. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.29) Consider the following statements:

1. Ad hoc Committees are constituted from time to time to enquire into and report on specific
subjects.
2. Ad hoc Committees can be constituted by the Presiding Officers of both Houses jointly.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Select/joint Ad-hoc committee on bills is constituted by the House on the specific motion moved by
the Minister in charge of the Bill or any member and adopted by the House to consider and report on
Bills as referred to them from time to time. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The ad hoc Committees are those which are constituted by the House or by the Chairman or by the
Presiding Officers of both Houses jointly to consider and report on specific matters and have no legal
effect as soon as they complete their work. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.30) With reference to the Parliamentary Questions, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. In Lok Sabha, the Parliamentary Questions are guided by the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of
Business.
2. A Parliamentary Question cannot be addressed to a Private Member.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:

18
 Question is one of the important Parliamentary devices available to the Members to seek information on
a matter of urgent public importance subject to conditions imposed by the Rules of Procedure and
Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha and the Directions by the Speaker. A Member may ask questions to
obtain information on a subject matter of public importance within the special cognizance of the Minister
to whom it is addressed. So, Statement 1 is correct.
A parliamentary Question may also be addressed to a Private Member under Rule 40 of the Rules of
Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, which provides that the subject matter of the question
should be related to some Bill, Resolution or other matter connected with the Business of the House for
which that member is responsible. For instance, the Questions related to matters under the purview of
Parliamentary Committees can be addressed to the respective Chairperson. So, Statement 2 is not
correct.

Q.31) Consider the following statements in relation to the Rajya Sabha:

1. The term of a member of the Rajya Sabha is Six years.
2. A member elected in a bye-election serves only for the remainder of the term of the vacancy
caused.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of the
members retire every 2nd year and are replaced by newly elected members. Each member is elected
for a term of 6 years. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Section 151A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 mandates the Election Commission to fill
the casual vacancies in the Houses of Parliament and State Legislatures through bye-elections within
six months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy, provided that the remainder of the term of a
member in relation to a vacancy is one year or more. And the newly elected member will serve only
for the remaining term of the vacancy caused. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.32) Consider the following statements:

1. A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament is convened by the President for resolving the deadlock
between the two Houses for any bills.
2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of the two Houses.
3. So far, joint sittings of the two Houses have taken place only on three occasions.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The President convenes a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve the deadlock between the
two Houses for ordinary bills or financial bills. There is no provision for the joint setting in the case of

19
 constitutional amendment bills and money bills. Hence, the joint sitting is available only for the ordinary
or financial Bill and not for any bills as mentioned in the statement. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Article 118(4) The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses and the Deputy
Speaker in his absence. If the Deputy Speaker is also absent from a joint sitting, the Deputy Chairman
of the Rajya Sabha presides. So, statement 2 is correct.
So far, joint sittings of the two Houses have occurred on three occasions.
➢ The first joint sitting was held on 6 May 1961 following a disagreement between the two Houses
over certain amendments to the Dowry Prohibition Bill 1959. The Bill was passed
➢ The second joint sitting was held on 16 May 1978, following the rejection by the Rajya Sabha of
the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1977, and the Bill was passed.
➢ The third joint sitting was held on 26 March 2002 on the Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002,
seeking to replace the Prevention of Terrorism Ordinance (POTO) as passed by the Lok Sabha
was rejected by the Rajya Sabha. This sitting held to deliberate and vote on the Prevention of
Terrorism Bill 2002, and the Bill was passed.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.33) Consider the following statements:

1. In case any question arises about whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker
of the Lok Sabha is final.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot recommend any amendments to a Money Bill.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
In any case, If any question arises about whether a bill is a money bill or not, the decision of the Speaker
of the Lok Sabha is final. His decision in this regard cannot be questioned in any court of law, the House
of Parliament, or even the President. This provision is mentioned in article 110(3) of the Constitution.
So, statement 1 is correct.
After Lok Sabha passes the money bill, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for consideration. The Rajya
Sabha has restricted power with regard to a money bill. It cannot reject or amend a money bill. It can
only make a recommendation. It must return the Bill to Lok Sabha within 14 days. The Lok Sabha can
either accept or reject all or any recommendation of the Rajya Sabha. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Q.34) Consider the following statements with respect to the Budget:

1. The Budget is presented to the Lok Sabha on the day directed by the President.
2. The Departmentally related Standing Committees decide the statutory grants given to the
Ministries and departments.
3. The Quorum to constitute a sitting of the Lok Sabha is mentioned in the Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
20
 EXPLANATION:
The Budget is the `Annual Financial Statement' or the Statement of the Estimated Receipts and
Expenditures of the Government of India in respect of each financial year, which is presented to the Lok
Sabha on the day directed by the President. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Departmentally related Standing Committees do not decide the statutory grants given to the
Ministries and departments. These committees examine and discuss in detail the statutory grants of the
concerned ministers and prepare a report for them. The statutory grants under Article 275 (both general
and specific) are given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance Commission. So, statement
2 is not correct.
The Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can
transact any business. It is one-tenth of the total number of members in each House, including the
presiding officer. It means that there must be at least 55 members
present in the Lok Sabha under Article 100(3) of the Constitution. So, statement 3 is correct.

Q.35) Consider the following statements:

1. A Minister who is a Member of the Lok Sabha has the right to speak and take part in the
proceedings of the Rajya Sabha.
2. A Minister who is a Member of the Rajya Sabha has no right to vote in Lok Sabha.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
A Minister who is a Member of Lok Sabha has the right to speak in and otherwise to take part in the
proceedings of Rajya Sabha but has no right to vote in Rajya Sabha. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 88 deals with the Rights of Ministers as Respects the Houses. This provision states that Every
Minister shall have the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House, any joint sitting
of the Houses and any Committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member. But he shall not
be entitled to vote. A Minister who is a Member of the Rajya Sabha has no right to vote in Lok Sabha but
take part in the proceeding of Lok Sabha. So, statement 2 is correct.

Q.36) Consider the following statements with respect to question hour:

1. The Speaker decides the admissibility of questions in the Lok Sabha.
2. A question for which an oral answer is desired by a member is called an unstarred question.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The conditions governing the admissibility of questions have been laid down under Rules 41 to 44 of
the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. Direction 10A of the Directions also
determines the admissibility of questions by the Speaker in Lok Sabha. So, Statement 1 is correct.

21
 Unstarred questions do not carry the Asterisk mark and are meant for obtaining a written reply.
Written answers given by the Ministers are deemed to have been laid on the Table of the House at
the end of Question Hour. A minimum of 15 clear days' notice is required for tabling Unstarred
Questions. Starred questions: A question for which a member desires an oral answer is distinguished
by an Asterisk. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Q.37) Which of the following is/are the effects of the dissolution of Lok Sabha?
1. Bills originating in Rajya Sabha, which are still pending, lapse.
2. A bill passed by the two Houses of Parliament and sent to the President for assent does not lapse.
3. Bills originating in the Rajya Sabha and passed by the same and pending in the Lok Sabha lapses.
4. A bill originating in the Lok Sabha and passed by the same and pending in the Rajya Sabha does
not lapse.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Bills originating in the Rajya Sabha, which are still pending in that House, do not lapse on the
dissolution of the Lok Sabha. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
A Bill passed by the two Houses of Parliament and sent to the President for assent does not lapse on
the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Bills originating in the Rajya Sabha, which have been passed by that House and transmitted to the
Lok Sabha and pending their lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Bills originating in the Lok Sabha, which have been passed by that House and transmitted to the
Rajya Sabha and are still pending there on the date of dissolution of the Lok Sabha, bill lapse. So,
statement 4 is not correct.

Q.38) Which of the following is/are correct in relation to the Rajya Sabha?
1. Rajya Sabha is a Permanent House and is not subject to dissolution.
2. Constitution does not specify any qualifications for membership in the Rajya Sabha.
3. Only two of the eight Union Territories have representatives in the Rajya Sabha.
4. The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for the allocation of seats to the States and
Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2, and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4
(d) All of the above.
EXPLANATION:
Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution as nearly as possible; one-third of its members retire every
second year. And so-called continuing chamber or permanent body. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 84 has specified the qualifications for membership in the Rajya Sabha as follows:

22
 He should be a citizen of India above 30 years of age and possess other qualifications as may be
prescribed by the law of Parliament. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
In total, eight members are elected from the Union territories (3 from Delhi, 1 from Puducherry and 4
from Jammu & Kashmir). Other Union territories are not represented in Rajya Sabha. So, Statement 3
is not correct.
The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India provides allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the
states and union territories. So, statement 4 is correct.

Q.39) Consider the following statements:

1. Adjournment sine die refers to the termination of the sitting of the House, which meets again at
the time appointed for the next sitting.
2. A member, with the prior permission of the Chairman, call the attention of a Minister to any
matter of urgent public importance
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Adjournment sine die refers to terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period. The House is
adjourned without naming a day for reassembly. The power of Adjournment sine lies with the office's
presiding officer." Adjournment" is a postponement of the sitting or proceedings of the House from one
time to another specified for the reassembling of the House. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
A member, with any prior permission of the Chairman, calls the Attention of a Minister to any matter of
urgent public importance. The Minister may make a brief statement or ask for time to make a statement
at a later hour or date. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.40) Consider the following statements

1. Kasturba was among the first women to contest elections.
2. Kamaladevi Chattopadhyaya was among the first women satyagrahis.
3. Salt march at Dandi leadership was passed to Sarojini Naidu when Gandhi was arrested.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Kasturbai Mohandas Gandhi was born on April 1869. She was an Indian political activist. She is the
wife of Mahatma Gandhi. With her husband and her eldest son, Harilal, she was involved in the Indian
independence movement in British India. Many satyagraha campaigns led by Gandhiji, from the Non-
Cooperation Movement to Quit India, had widespread participation of women. Among the first women,
satyagrahis was Kasturba. She didn't contest any election. So, statement 1 is not correct.
Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay was born in 1903. She was an Indian social reformer and freedom activist.
She was most remembered for her contribution to the Indian independence movement; for being the

23
 driving force behind the renaissance of Indian handicrafts, handlooms, and theatre in independent India.
She is the first lady in India to stand in elections (contest elections) from Madras Constituency. Although
she lost in the elections, she pioneered the path for women in India. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Sarojini Naidu was born on 1879. She was an Indian political activist, feminist and poet. A proponent of
civil rights, women's emancipation, and anti-imperialistic ideas, she was important in India's struggle
for independence from colonial rule. She was also the first Indian woman to be the president of the Indian
National Congress and to be appointed as governor of an Indian state (United Provinces). When Gandhiji
was arrested, he chose to pass the mantle of leadership of Salt March to Dandi to Sarojini Naidu. So,
statement 3 is correct.

Q.41) Thiruvananthapuram declaration, 2022 is related to

(a) Single-use plastic ban
(b) Clean beaches
(c) Women reservation
(d) 100 % higher education for all
EXPLANATION:
Recently 2022, The first 'National Women Legislators' Conference' held in Thiruvananthapuram
concluded by demanding immediate steps to ensure the passage of the long-pending Women's
Reservation Bill, which envisages 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State legislatures.
Thus, The Thiruvananthapuram Declaration is related to Women's reservation. So, option (c) is correct.

Q.42) The World Bank's Worldwide Governance Indicators is a report on more than 200 countries'
governance since 1996. What are the components of these governance indicators?
1. Political stability
2. Rule of law
3. Corruption control
4. Accountability
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
The Worldwide Governance Indicators (WGI) is a long‐standing research project to develop cross‐country
governance indicators. The WGI consists of six composite indicators of broad dimensions of governance
covering over 200 countries since 1996:
➢ Voice and Accountability
➢ Political Stability
➢ Absence of Violence/Terrorism
➢ Government Effectiveness
➢ Regulatory Quality
➢ Rule of Law and
➢ Control of Corruption.

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 These indicators are based on several hundred variables obtained from 31 different data sources,
capturing governance perceptions as reported by survey respondents, non‐governmental organizations,
commercial business information providers, and public sector organizations worldwide. So, option (d)
is correct.

Q.43) World Press Freedom Index is released by

(a) World Economic Forum
(b) World Justice Project
(c) Justice without borders
(d) Reporters Without Borders
EXPLANATION:
The WPF index calculates the degree of freedom available to journalists in 180 countries by pooling the
responses of experts to a questionnaire devised by RSF (Reporters Without Borders) targeted to media
professionals, lawyers and sociologists.
➢ This qualitative analysis combines quantitative data on abuses and acts of violence against
journalists during the period evaluated.
➢ The criteria considered in the questionnaire are pluralism, media independence, media
environment and self-censorship, legislative framework, transparency, and the quality of the
infrastructure that supports the production of news and information. So, option (d) is correct.

Q.44) With reference to Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF), consider the following
statements
1. G20 nations launched it in association with Asian Development Bank.
2. The partners of this initiative will contribute to cooperation, stability, development, and peace
within the region.
3. There are four dimensions in this framework, and it is designed in such a way that the partners
of IPEF are not forced to join in all the dimensions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
In May 2022, the United States launched the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for prosperity (IPEF)
with Australia, Brunei Darussalam, Fiji, India, Indonesia, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New
Zealand, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam. After the United states withdrew from the
Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP), the IPEF intended to reassert U.S.A economic engagement in a vital
region and provide a U.S.-led alternative to China’s economic statecraft in the region. So, statement 1
is not correct.
This framework is intended to advance resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness, economic growth,
fairness, and competitiveness for our economies. Through this initiative, we aim to contribute to
cooperation, stability, prosperity, development, and peace within the region. So, statement 2 is correct.
The launch began discussions of future negotiations on the following pillars: (1) Trade; (2) Supply Chains;
(3) Clean Energy, Decarbonization, and Infrastructure; and (4) Tax and Anti-Corruption. The IPEF is

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 designed to be flexible, meaning that IPEF partners are not required to join all four pillars. So, statement
3 is correct.

Q.45) Consider the following statements about Green Strategic Partnership

1. It is a mutually beneficial partnership for the advancements in political cooperation, economic
relations and green growth.
2. It will also focus on the circular economy, implementing the Paris Agreement and the UN
Sustainable Development Goals.
3. India has signed this partnership agreement with Australia and France.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The ‘Green Strategic Partnership’ was launched during a virtual summit in September 2020. India and
Denmark agreed on a five-year action plan (2021-2026) to build their “green strategic partnership” and
signed four pacts to boost cooperation in green technologies and to manage natural resources such as
groundwater. The new action plan that the two countries agreed upon lists several specific deliverables
to consolidate green and low-carbon growth. It focuses on renewable energy, water, the environment, the
circular economy and smart cities. So, statement 1 is correct.
The Green Strategic Partnership is a mutually beneficial arrangement to advance political cooperation,
expand economic relations and green growth, create jobs and strengthen cooperation on addressing
global challenges and opportunities, focusing on an ambitious implementation of the Paris Agreement
and the UN Sustainable Development Goals. So, statement 2 is correct.
India and Denmark both have ambitious goals within the climate agenda. India &Denmark agree to work
together on green fuels, including green hydrogen, under this green strategic partnership. So, statement
3 is not correct.

Q.46) Consider the following statements

1. The Nordic nations have the World's highest living standards and leading sustainable innovations.
2. India's first Nordic summit was held in 2022, which sparked the Nordic Sustainable Cities Project,
which helps in India's smart city program.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
India's re-energized foreign relations initiative has found a new regional partnership with the Nordic
countries, comprising Iceland, Sweden, Finland, Norway and Denmark. Relations between the Nordic
nations and India have strengthened over the past years with a steady rise in economic activities,
research and development partnerships and people-to-people exchanges.

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 Against this backdrop, Prime Minister Narendra Modi's recent visit to Sweden's capital, Stockholm, for
the India-Nordic Summit allowed him to sit with the heads of government of all the five Nordic states to
discuss multiple issues of cooperation. The Nordic nations, featuring some of the World's highest living
standards and leading sustainable innovations, and India, a trove of valuable resources, have much to
gain from each other. So, statement 1 is correct.
The first summit was held in 2018 in Sweden. The first India-Nordic summit re-energised the Nordic
Sustainable Cities Project which is aimed at supporting the Smart Cities Program of the Government of
India. 2 nd summit was held in 2022 in Denmark. So, statement 2 is not correct.

Q.47) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) under Article
75(3) of the Constitution. What does it imply?
(a) Rajya Sabha can neither form nor dissolve the Government
(b) The Council of Ministers must resign if a Censure motion is passed against them
(c) If a minister resigns, the entire Council resigns collectively
(d) Lok Sabha has more power than the Rajya Sabha in case of a money bill
EXPLANATION:
Article 75 of the Constitution says that the Council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the
Lok Sabha. It means that the ministry stays in office so long as it enjoys the confidence of the majority
of the members of the Lok Sabha. In other words, the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry from office by
passing a no-confidence motion. The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general
and the Lok Sabha in particular. As a part of collective responsibility, there is an individual
responsibility; that is, each Minister is individually responsible for the efficient administration of the
ministry under their charge. This means that they continue in office so long as they enjoy the confidence
of the majority members in the Lok Sabha. In other words, the Council of ministers can be removed from
office by the Lok Sabha by
passing a no-confidence motion. The ministers are not responsible to the Rajya sabha; a no-confidence
motion is not available to the Rajya sabha. So, Option (a) is correct.

Q.48) Consider the following statements about the International Migration Review Forum
1. The United Nations General Assembly hosted the World's first International Migration Review
Forum in 2022.
2. All the UN member states can participate in this forum.
3. This forum review will take place every year from 2022, which will result in an
intergovernmental agreed Progress Declaration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The first International Migration Review Forum (IMRF) took place at the United Nations Headquarters in
New York on May 2022. The goal is to review the progress made at the local, national, regional and global
levels in implementing the Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM). So,
statement 1 is correct.

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 The quadrennial International Migration Review Forum (Forum) will be held at the highest possible
political level, including Heads of State or Government. It is open to the participation of all UN Member
States and all members of specialized agencies with observer status with the General Assembly. So,
statement 2 is correct.
The International Migration Review Forum will take place every four years beginning in 2022. Each
edition of the International Migration Review Forum will result in an intergovernmental agreed Progress
Declaration. So, statement 3 is not correct.

Q.49) With reference to technical barriers to trade, consider the following statements
1. This agreement is non-discriminatory that ensures technical regulations, standards, and
conformity assessment procedures don't create unnecessary obstacles to trade.
2. This agreement recognizes the World Trade Organisation member's right to the protection of
human health and safety.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) Agreement aims to ensure that technical regulations, standards,
and conformity assessment procedures are non-discriminatory and do not create unnecessary obstacles
to trade. So, statement 1 is correct.
➢ The TBT Agreement strongly encourages members to base their measures on international
standards to facilitate trade. Its transparency provisions also aim to create a predictable trading
environment.
➢ It recognizes WTO members' right to implement measures to achieve legitimate policy objectives,
such as protecting human health and safety or protecting the environment. So, statement 2 is
correct.

Q.50) India's largest gold reserve, amounting to 44 % of total gold reserves in the country, is present in the
Jamui district. It is present in which state?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Odisha
(c) Bihar
(d) Chhattisgarh
EXPLANATION:
The Bihar government has granted permission to explore the "country's largest" gold reserve in the
Jamui district. As per a Geological Survey of India (GSI) survey, around 222.88 million tonnes of the
gold reserve, including 37.6 tonnes of mineral-rich ore, are present in the Jamui district. As per National
Mineral Inventory, the total resources of primary gold ore in the country as of 1.4.2015 are estimated
at 501.83 million tonnes with 654.74 tonnes of a gold metal, and out of this, Bihar is endowed with
222.885 million tonnes (44 percent) of ore containing 37.6 tonnes of metal. So, option (c) is correct.

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