Question 1. What Is An Object Server?

Answer :

With an object server, the Client/Server application is written as a set of communicating objects.
Client object communicate with server objects using an Object Request Broker (ORB). The client
invokes a method on a remote object. The ORB locates an instance of that object server class, invokes
the requested method and returns the results to the client object. Server objects must provide support
for concurrency and sharing. The ORB brings it all together.

Question 2. What Is Mail Gateway?

Answer :

It is a system that performs a protocol translation between different electronic mail delivery protocols.

Question 3. What Is Rip (routing Information Protocol)?

Answer :

It is a simple protocol used to exchange information between the routers.

Question 4. What Is Nvt (network Virtual Terminal)?

Answer :

It is a set of rules defining a very simple virtual terminal interaction. The NVT is used in the start of a
Telnet session.

Question 5. What Is Source Route?

Answer :

It is a sequence of IP addresses identifying the route a datagram must follow. A source route may
optionally be included in an IP datagram header.

Question 6. What Is Bgp (border Gateway Protocol)?

Answer :

It is a protocol used to advertise the set of networks that can be reached with in an autonomous system.
BGP enables this information to be shared with the autonomous system. This is newer than EGP
(Exterior Gateway Protocol).

Question 7. What Is Gateway-to-gateway Protocol?

Answer :

It is a protocol formerly used to exchange routing information between Internet core routers.

Question 8. What Is A Transaction Server?

Answer :

With a transaction server, the client invokes remote procedures that reside on the server with an SQL
database engine. These remote procedures on the server execute a group of SQL statements. The
network exchange consists of a single request/reply message. The SQL statements either all succeed or
fail as a unit.

Question 9. What Is A Database Server?

Answer :

With a database server, the client passes SQL requests as messages to the database server. The results
of each SQL command are returned over the network. The server uses its own processing power to
find the request data instead of passing all the records back to the client and then getting it find its own
data. The result is a much more efficient use of distributed processing power. It is also known as SQL
engine.

Question 10. What Are The Most Typical Functional Units Of The Client/server Applications?

Answer :

User interface

Business Logic and

Shared data.

Question 11. What Are All The Extended Services Provided By The Os?

Answer :

Ubiquitous communications.

Network OS extension.

Binary large objects (BLOBs).

Global directories and Network yellow pages.

Authentication and Authorization services.

System management.

Network time.

Database and transaction services.

Internet services.

Object- oriented services.

Question 12. What Are Triggers And Rules?

Answer :

Triggers are special user defined actions usually in the form of stored procedures, that are
automatically invoked by the server based on data related events. It can perform complex actions and
can use the full power of procedural languages. A rule is a special type of trigger that is used to
perform simple checks on data.

Question 13. What Is Meant By Transparency?

Answer :

Transparency really means hiding the network and its servers from the users and even the application
programmers.

Question 14. What Are Tp-lite And Tp-heavy Monitors?

Answer :

TP-Lite is simply the integration of TP Monitor functions in the database engines. TP-Heavy are TP
Monitors which supports the Client/Server architecture and allow PC to initiate some very complex
multiserver transaction from the desktop.

Question 15. What Are The Two Types Of Oltp?

Answer :

TP lite, based on stored procedures. TP heavy, based on the TP monitors.

Question 16. What Is A Web Server?

Answer :
This new model of Client/Server consists of thin, protable, "universal" clients that talk to superfat
servers. In the simplest form, a web server returns documents when clients ask for them by name. The
clients and server communicate using an RPC-like protocol called HTTP.

Question 17. What Are Super Servers?

Answer :

These are fully-loaded machines which includes multiprocessors, high-speed disk arrays for interview
I/O and fault tolerant features.

Question 18. What Is A Tp Monitor?

Answer :

There is no commonly accepted definition for a TP monitor. According to Jeri Edwards' a TP Monitor
is "an OS for transaction processing".

Question 19. Tp Monitor Does Mainly Two Things Extremely Well. They Are Process
Management And Transaction Management.?

Answer :

They were originally introduced to run classes of applications that could service hundreds and
sometimes thousands of clients. TP Monitors provide an OS - on top of existing OS - that connects in
real time these thousands of humans with a pool of shared server processes.

Question 20. What Is Meant By Asymmetrical Protocols?

Answer :

There is a many-to-one relationship between clients and server. Clients always initiate the dialog by
requesting a service. Servers are passively awaiting for requests from clients.

Question 21. What Are The Types Of Transparencies?

Answer :

The types of transparencies the NOS middleware is expected to provide are:-

Location transparency

Namespace transparency

Logon transparency
Replication transparency

Local/Remote access transparency

Distributed time transparency

Failure transparency and

Administration transparency.

Question 22. What Is The Difference Between Trigger And Rule?

Answer :

The triggers are called implicitly by database generated events, while stored procedures are called
explicitly by client applications.

Question 23. What Are Called Transactions?

Answer :

The grouped SQL statements are called Transactions (or) A transaction is a collection of actions
embused with ACID properties.

Question 24. What Are The Building Blocks Of Client/server?

Answer :

The client

The server and

Middleware.

Question 25. Explain The Building Blocks Of Client/server?

Answer :

The client side building block runs the client side of the application.

The server side building block runs the server side of the application.

Question 26. The Middleware Buliding Block Runs On Both The Client And Server Sides Of An
Application. It Is Broken Into Three Categories?

Answer :
Transport stack

Network OS

Service-specific middleware.

Question 27. What Are All The Base Services Provided By The Os?

Answer :

Task preemption

Task priority

Semaphores

Interprocess communications (IPC)

Local/Remote Interprocess communication

Threads

Intertask protection

Multiuser

High performance file system

Efficient memory management and

Dynamically linked Run-time extensions.

Question 28. What Are The Roles Of Sql?

Answer :

SQL is an interactive query language for adhoc database queries.

SQL is a database programming language.

SQL is a data definition and data administration language.

SQL is the language of networked database servers

SQL helps protect the data in a multi-user networked environment.

Because of these multifacted roles it plays, physicists might call SQL as "The grand unified theory of
database".

Question 29. What Are The Characteristics Of Client/server?

Answer :

Service

Shared resources

Asymmentrical protocols

Transparency of location

Mix-and-match

Message based exchanges

Encapsulation of services

Scalability

Integrity

Client/Server computing is the ultimate "Open platform". It gives the freedom to mix-and-match
components of almost any level. Clients and servers are loosely coupled systems that interact through
a message-passing mechanism.

Question 30. What Is Structured Query Langauge (sql)?

Answer :

SQL is a powerful set-oriented language which was developed by IBM research for the databases that
adhere to the relational model. It consists of a short list of powerful, yet highly flexible, commands
that can be used to manipulate information collected in tables. Through SQL, we can manipulate and
control sets of records at a time.

Question 31. What Is Remote Procedure Call (rpc)?

Answer :

RPC hides the intricacies of the network by using the ordinary procedure call mechanism familiar to
every programmer. A client process calls a function on a remote server and suspends itself until it gets
back the results. Parameters are passed like in any ordinary procedure. The RPC, like an ordinary
procedure, is synchoronous. The process that issues the call waits until it gets the results.
Under the covers, the RPC run-time software collects values for the parameters, forms a message, and
sends it to the remote server. The server receives the request, unpack the parameters, calls the
procedures, and sends the reply back to the client. It is a telephone-like metaphor.

Question 32. What Are The Main Components Of Transaction-based Systems?

Answer :

Resource Manager
Transaction Manager and
Application Program.

Question 33. What Are The Three Types Of Sql Database Server Architecture?

Answer :

Process-per-client Architecture. (Example: Oracle 6, Informix )

Multithreaded Architecture. (Example: Sybase, SQL server)
Hybrid Architecture.

Question 34. What Are Called Non-gui Clients, Gui Clients And Ooui Clients?

Answer :

Non-GUI Client: These are applications, generate server requests with a minimal amount of human
interaction.

GUI Clients: These are applicatoins, where occassional requests to the server result from a human
interacting with a GUI (Example: Windows 3.x, NT 3.5)

OOUI clients : These are applications, which are highly-iconic, object-oriented user interface that
provides seamless access to information in very visual formats. (Example: MAC OS, Windows 95, NT
4.0)

Question 35. What Is Message Oriented Middleware (mom)?

Answer :

MOM allows general purpose messages to be exchanged in a Client/Server system using message
queues. Applications communicate over networks by simply putting messages in the queues and
getting messages from queues. It typically provides a very simple high level APIs to its services.

MOM's messaging and queuing allow clients and servers to communicate across a network without
being linked by a private, dedicated, logical connection. The clients and server can run at different
times. It is a post-office like metaphor.
Question 36. What Is Meant By Middleware?

Answer :

Middleware is a distributed software needed to support interaction between clients and servers. In
short, it is the software that is in the middle of the Client/Server systems and it acts as a bridge
between the clients and servers. It starts with the API set on the client side that is used to invoke a
service and it covers the transmission of the request over the network and the resulting response.

It neither includes the software that provides the actual service - that is in the servers domain nor the
user interface or the application login - that's in clients domain.

Question 37. What Are The Functions Of The Typical Server Program?

Answer :

It waits for client-initiated requests. Executes many requests at the same time. Takes care of VIP
clients first. Initiates and runs background task activity. Keeps running. Grown bigger and faster.

Question 38. What Is Meant By Symmentric Multiprocessing (smp)?

Answer :

It treats all processors as equal. Any processor can do the work of any other processor. Applications
are divided into threads that can run concurrently on any available processor. Any processor in the
pool can run the OS kernel and execute user-written threads.

Question 39. What Are General Middleware?

Answer :

It includes the communication stacks, distributed directories, authentication services, network time,
RPC, Queuing services along with the network OS extensions such as the distributed file and print
services.

Question 40. What Are Service-specific Middleware?

Answer :

It is needed to accomplish a particular Client/Server type of services which includes:-

Database specific middleware

OLTP specific middleware

Groupware specific middleware

Object specific middleware

Internet specific middleware and

System management specific middleware.

Question 41. What Is Meant By Asymmetric Multiprocessing (amp)?

Answer :

It imposses hierarchy and a division of labour among processors. Only one designated processor, the
master, controls (in a tightly coupled arrangement) slave processors dedicated to specific functions.

Question 42. What Is Oltp?

Answer :

In the transaction server, the client component usually includes GUI and the server components
usually consists of SQL transactions against a database. These applications are called OLTP (Online
Transaction Processing) OLTP Applications typically, Receive a fixed set of inputs from remote
clients. Perform multiple pre-compiled SQL comments against a local database. Commit the work and
Return a fixed set of results.

Question 43. What Is Meant By 3-tier Architecture?

Answer :

In 3-tier Client/Server systems, the application logic (or process) lives in the middle tier and it is
separated from the data and the user interface. In theory, the 3-tier Client/Server systems are more
scalable, robust and flexible.
Example: TP monitor, Web.

Question 44. What Is Meant By 2-tier Architecture?

Answer :

In 2-tier Client/Server systems, the application logic is either burried inside the user interface on the
client or within the database on the server.
Example: File servers and Database servers with stored procedures.

Question 45. What Is Load Balancing?

Answer :

If the number of incoming clients requests exceeds the number of processes in a server class, the TP
Monitor may dynamically start new ones and this is called Load balancing.
Question 46. What Are Called Fat Clients And Fat Servers?

Answer :

If the bulk of the application runs on the Client side, then it is Fat clients. It is used for decision
support and personal software.

If the bulk of the application runs on the Server side, then it is Fat servers. It tries to minimize network
interchanges by creating more abstract levels of services.

Question 47. What Is Meant By Horizontal Scaling And Vertical Scaling?

Answer :

Horizontal scaling means adding or removing client workstations with only a slight performance
impact. Vertical scaling means migrating to a larger and faster server machine or multiservers.

Question 48. What Is Groupware Server?

Answer :

Groupware addresses the management of semi-structured information such as text, image, mail,
bulletin boards and the flow of work. These Client/Server systems have people in direct contact with
other people.

Question 49. What Are The Two Broad Classes Of Middleware?

Answer :

General middleware
Service-specific middleware.

Question 50. What Are The Types Of Servers?

Answer :

File servers
Database servers
Transaction servers
Groupware servers
Object servers
Web servers.

Question 51. What Is A File Server?

Answer :
File servers are useful for sharing files across a network. With a file server, the client passes requests
for file records over network to file server.

Question 52. What Are The Five Major Technologies That Can Be Used To Create Client/server
Applications?

Answer :

Database Servers
TP Monitors
Groupware
Distributed Objects
Intranets.

Question 53. What Is Client/server?

Answer :

Clients and Servers are separate logical entities that work together over a network to accomplish a task.
Many systems with very different architectures that are connected together are also called
Client/Server.

Question 54. List Out The Benefits Obtained By Using The Client/server Oriented Tp Monitors?

Answer :

Client/Server applications development framework.

Firewalls of protection.
High availability.
Load balancing.
MOM integration.
Scalability of functions.
Reduced system cost.

Question 55. What Are The Services Provided By The Operating System?

Answer :

Extended services - These are add-on modular software components that are layered on top of base
service.

Question 56. What Is Acid Property?

Answer :
ACID is a term coined by Andrew Reuter in 1983, which stands for Atomicity, Consistence, Isolation
and Durability.

Question 57. What Are Stored Procedures?

Answer :

A stored procedure is named collection of SQL statements and procedural logic that is compiled,
verified and stored in a server database. It is typically treated like any other database object. Stored
procedures accept input parameters so that a single procedure can be used over the network by
multiple clients using different input data. A single remote message triggers the execution of a
collection of stored SQL statements. The results is a reduction of network traffic and better
performance.

Question 58. What Is Wide-mouth Frog?

Answer :

Wide-mouth frog is the simplest known key distribution center (KDC) authentication protocol.

Question 59. What Is Passive Topology?

Answer :

When the computers on the network simply listen and receive the signal, they are referred to as
passive because they don’t amplify the signal in any way.
Example for passive topology - linear bus.

Question 60. What Is Region?

Answer :

When hierarchical routing is used, the routers are divided into what we call regions, with each router
knowing all the details about how to route packets to destinations within its own region, but knowing
nothing about the internal structure of other regions.

Question 61. What Is Virtual Channel?

Answer :

Virtual channel is normally a connection from one source to one destination, although multicast
connections are also permitted. The other name for virtual channel is virtual circuit.

Question 62. Difference Between The Communication And Transmission?

Answer :
Transmission is a physical movement of information and concern issues like bit polarity,
synchronization, clock etc.
Communication means the meaning full exchange of information between two communication media.

Question 63. What Is The Difference Between Tftp And Ftp Application Layer Protocols?

Answer :

The Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) allows a local host to obtain files from a remote host but
does not provide reliability or security. It uses the fundamental packet delivery services offered by
UDP.

The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the standard mechanism provided by TCP / IP for copying a file
from one host to another. It uses the services offered by TCP and so is reliable and secure. It
establishes two connections (virtual circuits) between the hosts, one for data transfer and another for
control information.

Question 64. What Are The Advantages And Disadvantages Of The Three Types Of Routing
Tables?

Answer :

The three types of routing tables are fixed, dynamic, and fixed central. The fixed table must be
manually modified every time there is a change. A dynamic table changes its information based on
network traffic, reducing the amount of manual maintenance. A fixed central table lets a manager
modify only one table, which is then read by other devices. The fixed central table reduces the need to
update each machine's table, as with the fixed table. Usually a dynamic table causes the fewest
problems for a network administrator, although the table's contents can change without the
administrator being aware of the change.

Question 65. What Is Beaconing?

Answer :

The process that allows a network to self-repair networks problems. The stations on the network notify
the other stations on the ring when they are not receiving the transmissions. Beaconing is used in
Token ring and FDDI networks.

Question 66. What Does The Mount Protocol Do ?

Answer :

The Mount protocol returns a file handle and the name of the file system in which a requested file
resides. The message is sent to the client from the server after reception of a client's request.

Question 67. What Are Digrams And Trigrams?

Answer :

The most common two letter combinations are called as digrams. e.g. th, in, er, re and an.
The most common three letter combinations are called as trigrams. e.g. the, ing, and, and ion.

Question 68. What Is The Hello Protocol Used For?

Answer :

The HELLO protocol uses time instead of distance to determine optimal routing. It is an alternative to
the Routing Information Protocol.

Question 69. What Is The Minimum And Maximum Length Of The Header In The Tcp Segment
And Ip Datagram?

Answer :

The header should have a minimum length of 20 bytes and can have a maximum length of 60 bytes.

Question 70. What Do You Meant By "triple X" In Networks?

Answer :

The function of PAD (Packet Assembler Disassembler) is described in a document known as X.3. The
standard protocol has been defined between the terminal and the PAD, called X.28; another standard
protocol exists between the PAD and the network, called X.29. Together, these three recommendations
are often called "triple X".

Question 71. What Is Attenuation?

Answer :

The degeneration of a signal over distance on a network cable is called attenuation.

Question 72. What Is Protocol Data Unit?

Answer :

The data unit in the LLC level is called the protocol data unit (PDU). The PDU contains of four fields
a destination service access point (DSAP), a source service access point (SSAP), a control field and an
information field. DSAP, SSAP are addresses used by the LLC to identify the protocol stacks on the
receiving and sending machines that are generating and using the data. The control field specifies
whether the PDU frame is a information frame (I - frame) or a supervisory frame (S - frame) or a
unnumbered frame (U - frame).

Question 73. What Are The Data Units At Different Layers Of The Tcp / Ip Protocol Suite?
Answer :

The data unit created at the application layer is called a message, at the transport layer,
the data unit created is called either a segment or an user datagram, at the network layer,
the data unit created is called the datagram, at the data link layer the datagram is encapsulated in to a
frame and finally transmitted as signals along the transmission media.

Question 74. What Is Difference Between Arp And Rarp?

Answer :

The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used to associate the 32 bit IP address with the 48 bit
physical address, used by a host or a router to find the physical address of another host on its network
by sending a ARP query packet that includes the IP address of the receiver.

The reverse address resolution protocol (RARP) allows a host to discover its Internet address when it
knows only its physical address.

Question 75. What Is Mac Address?

Answer :

The address for a device as it is identified at the Media Access Control (MAC) layer in the network
architecture. MAC address is usually stored in ROM on the network adapter card and is unique.

Question 76. What Is Terminal Emulation, In Which Layer It Comes?

Answer :

Telnet is also called as terminal emulation. It belongs to application layer.

Question 77. What Are Major Types Of Networks And Explain?

Answer :

Server-based network,
Peer-to-peer network.

Peer-to-peer network, computers can act as both servers sharing resources and as clients using the
resources.
Server-based networks provide centralized control of network resources and rely on server computers
to provide security and network administration.

Question 78. What Is Sap?

Answer :
Series of interface points that allow other computers to communicate with the other layers of network
protocol stack.

Question 79. What Is Multicast Routing?

Answer :

Sending a message to a group is called multicasting, and its routing algorithm is called multicast
routing.

Question 80. What Is The Difference Between Routable And Non- Routable Protocols?

Answer :

Routable protocols can work with a router and can be used to build large networks. Non-Routable
protocols are designed to work on small, local networks and cannot be used with a router.

Question 81. What Is Rex?

Answer :

Request to Exit (REX) - A signal that informs the controller that someone has requested to exit from a
secure area.

Question 82. What Is Redirector?

Answer :

Redirector is software that intercepts file or prints I/O requests and translates them into network
requests. This comes under presentation layer.

Question 83. What Is Packet Filter?

Answer :

Packet filter is a standard router equipped with some extra functionality. The extra functionality allows
every incoming or outgoing packet to be inspected. Packets meeting some criterion are forwarded
normally. Those that fail the test are dropped.

Question 84. What Is Logical Link Control?

Answer :

One of two sublayers of the data link layer of OSI reference model, as defined by the IEEE 802
standard. This sublayer is responsible for maintaining the link between computers when they are
sending data across the physical network connection.
Question 85. What Is Traffic Shaping?

Answer :

One of the main causes of congestion is that traffic is often busy. If hosts could be made to transmit at
a uniform rate, congestion would be less common. Another open loop method to help manage
congestion is forcing the packet to be transmitted at a more predictable rate. This is called traffic
shaping.

Question 86. What Is Netbios And Netbeui?

Answer :

NETBIOS is a programming interface that allows I/O requests to be sent to and received from a
remote computer and it hides the networking hardware from applications.

NETBEUI is NetBIOS extended user interface. A transport protocol designed by microsoft and IBM
for the use on small subnets.

Question 87. Why Should You Care About The Osi Reference Model?

Answer :

It provides a framework for discussing network operations and design.

Question 88. What Is Proxy Arp?

Answer :

Is using a router to answer ARP requests. This will be done when the originating host believes that a
destination is local, when in fact is lies beyond router.

Question 89. What Is Egp (exterior Gateway Protocol)?

Answer :

It is the protocol the routers in neighboring autonomous systems use to identify the set of networks
that can be reached within or via each autonomous system.

Question 90. What Is Igp (interior Gateway Protocol)?

Answer :

It is any routing protocol used within an autonomous system.

Question 91. What Is Ospf?

Answer :

It is an Internet routing protocol that scales well, can route traffic along multiple paths, and uses
knowledge of an Internet's topology to make accurate routing decisions.

Question 92. What Is Kerberos?

Answer :

It is an authentication service developed at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. Kerberos uses

encryption to prevent intruders from discovering passwords and gaining unauthorized access to files.

Question 93. What Is Slip (serial Line Interface Protocol)?

Answer :

It is a very simple protocol used for transmission of IP datagrams across a serial line.

Question 94. What Is Silly Window Syndrome?

Answer :

It is a problem that can ruin TCP performance. This problem occurs when data are passed to the
sending TCP entity in large blocks, but an interactive application on the receiving side reads 1 byte at
a time.

Question 95. What Is A Multi-homed Host?

Answer :

It is a host that has a multiple network interfaces and that requires multiple IP addresses is called as a
Multi-homed Host.

Question 96. What Is Autonomous System?

Answer :

It is a collection of routers under the control of a single administrative authority and that uses a
common Interior Gateway Protocol.

Question 97. What Is The Difference Between Interior And Exterior Neighbor Gateways?

Answer :

Interior gateways connect LANs of one organization, whereas exterior gateways connect the
organization to the outside world.
Question 98. What Is Mau?

Answer :

In token Ring , hub is called Multistation Access Unit(MAU).

Question 99. Explain 5-4-3 Rule.?

Answer :

In a Ethernet network, between any two points on the network, there can be no more than five network
segments or four repeaters, and of those five segments only three of segments can be populated.

Question 100. What Is Difference Between Baseband And Broadband Transmission?

Answer :

In a baseband transmission, the entire bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a single signal. In
broadband transmission, signals are sent on multiple frequencies, allowing multiple signals to be sent
simultaneously.

Question 101. What Is Icmp?

Answer :

ICMP is Internet Control Message Protocol, a network layer protocol of the TCP/IP suite used by
hosts and gateways to send notification of datagram problems back to the sender. It uses the echo test /
reply to test whether a destination is reachable and responding. It also handles both control and error
messages.

Question 102. What Is Brouter?

Answer :

Hybrid devices that combine the features of both bridges and routers.

Question 103. What Is Frame Relay, In Which Layer It Comes?

Answer :

Frame relay is a packet switching technology. It will operate in the data link layer.

Question 104. What Is External Data Representation?

Answer :
External Data Representation is a method of encoding data within an RPC message, used to ensure
that the data is not system-dependent.

Question 105. What Is Bandwidth?

Answer :

Every line has an upper limit and a lower limit on the frequency of signals it can carry. This limited
range is called the bandwidth.

Question 106. What Protocol Is Used By Dns Name Servers?

Answer :

DNS uses UDP for communication between servers. It is a better choice than TCP because of the
improved speed a connectionless protocol offers. Of course, transmission reliability suffers with UDP.

Question 107. What Is The Range Of Addresses In The Classes Of Internet Addresses?

Answer :

Class A 0.0.0.0 - 127.255.255.255

Class B 128.0.0.0 - 191.255.255.255
Class C 192.0.0.0 - 223.255.255.255
Class D 224.0.0.0 - 239.255.255.255
Class E 240.0.0.0 - 247.255.255.255.

Question 108. What Are The Important Topologies For Networks?

Answer :

BUS topology:
In this each computer is directly connected to primary network cable in a single line.
Advantages:
Inexpensive, easy to install, simple to understand, easy to extend.

STAR topology:
In this all computers are connected using a central hub.
Advantages:
Can be inexpensive, easy to install and reconfigure and easy to trouble shoot physical problems.

RING topology:
In this all computers are connected in loop.
Advantages:
All computers have equal access to network media, installation can be simple, and signal does not
degrade as much as in other topologies because each computer regenerates it.
Question 109. Difference Between Bit Rate And Baud Rate?

Answer :

Bit rate is the number of bits transmitted during one second whereas baud rate refers to the number of
signal units per second that are required to represent those bits.
baud rate = bit rate / N
where N is no-of-bits represented by each signal shift.

Question 110. What Is Anonymous Ftp And Why Would You Use It?

Answer :

Anonymous FTP enables users to connect to a host without using a valid login and password. Usually,
anonymous FTP uses a login called anonymous or guest, with the password usually requesting the
user's ID for tracking purposes only. Anonymous FTP is used to enable a large number of users to
access files on the host without having to go to the trouble of setting up logins for them all.
Anonymous FTP systems usually have strict controls over the areas an anonymous user can access.

Question 111. What Is The Difference Between An Unspecified Passive Open And A Fully
Specified Passive Open?

Answer :

An unspecified passive open has the server waiting for a connection request from a client.
A fully specified passive open has the server waiting for a connection from a specific client.

Question 112. What Is Virtual Path?

Answer :

Along any transmission path from a given source to a given destination, a group of virtual circuits can
be grouped together into what is called path.

Question 113. Explain The Function Of Transmission Control Block?

Answer :

A TCB is a complex data structure that contains a considerable amount of information about each
connection.

Question 114. What Is A Dns Resource Record?

Answer :
A resource record is an entry in a name server's database. There are several types of resource records
used, including name-to-address resolution information. Resource records are maintained as ASCII
files.

Question 115. What Is A Pseudo Tty?

Answer :

A pseudo tty or false terminal enables external machines to connect through Telnet or rlogin. Without
a pseudo tty, no connection can take place.

Question 116. What Is The Network Time Protocol?

Answer :

A protocol that assures accurate local timekeeping with reference to radio and atomic clocks located
on the Internet. This protocol is capable of synchronising distributed clocks within milliseconds over
long time periods. It is defined in STD 12, RFC 1119.

Question 117. What Is Mesh Network?

Answer :

A network in which there are multiple network links between computers to provide multiple paths for
data to travel.

Question 118. What Is Raid?

Answer :

A method for providing fault tolerance by using multiple hard disk drives.

Question 119. What Is A Management Information Base (mib)?

Answer :

A Management Information Base is part of every SNMP-managed device. Each SNMP agent has the
MIB database that contains information about the device's status, its performance, connections, and
configuration. The MIB is queried by SNMP.

Question 120. What Is Cladding?

Answer :

A layer of a glass surrounding the center fiber of glass inside a fiber-optic cable.
Question 121. What Is Subnet?

Answer :

A generic term for section of a large networks usually separated by a bridge or router.

A gateway operates at the upper levels of the OSI model and translates information between two
completely different network architectures or data formats.

Question 122. What Is Point-to-point Protocol?

Answer :

A communications protocol used to connect computers to remote networking services including

Internet service providers.

Question 123. What Are 10base2, 10base5 And 10baset Ethernet Lans ?

Answer :

10Base2—An Ethernet term meaning a maximum transfer rate of 10 Megabits per second that uses
baseband signaling, with a contiguous cable segment length of 100 meters and a maximum of 2
segments
10Base5—An Ethernet term meaning a maximum transfer rate of 10 Megabits per second that uses
baseband signaling, with 5 continuous segments not exceeding 100 meters per segment.
10BaseT—An Ethernet term meaning a maximum transfer rate of 10 Megabits per second that uses
baseband signaling and twisted pair cabling.

Question 124. What Are The Possible Ways Of Data Exchange?

Answer :

(i) Simplex
(ii) Half-duplex
(iii) Full-duplex.

Question 125. What Are The Two Types Of Transmission Technology Available?

Answer :

(i) Broadcast
(ii) point-to-point.

Question 126. How Do I Convert A Numeric Ip Address Like 192.18.97.39 Into A Hostname
Like Java.sun.com?
Answer :

String hostname = InetAddress.getByName("192.18.97.39").getHostName().

Question 127. Where Do You Get Updates On Security?

Answer :

This type of question is meant to see the interest of the candidate in keeping abreast in the field of
network security. If the candidate puts up a blank face, it is time to call next candidate. One can
specify "news alerts" or any website(s) s/he checks out for latest information about security.

Question 128. If You Need To Encrypt And Compress Data For Transmission, How Would You
Achieve It?

Answer :

The candidate may start explaining what is data encryption, how s/he would encrypt the data and then
compress it for transmission. However, the actual answer would be to explain how to compress and
then talk about encryption. Encrypting compressed data often leads to loss of data.

Question 129. What Factors Would You Consider Before Deploying A Web Intrusion Detection
System?

Answer :

An open question, the interviewer is trying to assess the knowledge of candidate in different fields
associated with web intrusion. These include: SSL; HTTP protocol; logging; alert mechanism; and
signature update policies.

Question 130. What Is Cross Site Scripting?

Answer :

Though the answer is straightforward, most candidates are unaware of the term. One of the most
important security issues, cross scripting refers to phishing attempts by a website that employs a java
script that leads to deploying a malware without the knowledge of user.

Question 131. How Does The Http Handle State?

Answer :

The answer is that HTTP cannot handle states. However, there is a hack. It employs use of cookies to
handle the state.
Question 132. In Context Of Public Key Encryption, If You Are Using Both Signature And
Encryption Features, What Key Will You Use For Encryption And Which One Will You Use
For Signing?

Answer :

Answer is simple. One would always sign using their key so the public key is used for encryption.
Most of the candidates tend to name public key for both signing and encryption. They miss out the
point that public key encryption also includes a private key.

Question 133. What Type Of Network Do You Use At Home?

Answer :

Again, this question is employed to assess the skills and networking background of candidates. "I don't
have a network at home but I have handled networks at so and so places" is better than saying "sorry, I
don't have a network at home". The latter would send out a signal that the candidate never had
exposure to networks.

Question 134. What Is Cross Site Request Forgery And How To Defend Against It?

Answer :

The question can also be in two parts, in which case, candidates without knowledge of CSRF would
get lost. If asked combined, candidates can guess that cross site request forgery is something that
relates to malicious scripting with phishing intentions. The question may also be framed as "what is
cross site request". In this case, candidates cannot even guess that it is something malicious as the
word 'forgery' is not there.

Question 135. Name The Port Used By Ping?

Answer :

Always remember that PING does not use any port. As PING is based upon layer 3 protocol, it never
uses any computer port. A simple variation of the question could be: Does PING use UDP? Or Does
PING use TCP? Again remember that UDP and TCP are layer 4 protocols and PING has nothing to do
with them.

Question 136. Security Life Cycle?

Answer :

It can be phrased in many ways: what comes first – vulnerability or threat? How do you design a
system with some options given? The candidate needs to answer these questions using his/her own
experience and opinions. The objective is how best the candidate can explain what you asked.
These are just some of the network security interview questions that are meant to give you an idea of
how a security interview goes. If you wish to share your experience or wish to add anything, please
feel free to share using comments box.

Question 137. Define The Meaning Of An Authentication?

Answer :

Well sir, an Authentication factor is a piece of information and process used to authenticate or verify
the identity of a person or other entity requesting access under security constraints. In other word, it is
a process of proving the identity of a computer or computer user. For users, it generally involves a user
name and password. Computers usually pass a code that identifies that they are part of a network.

Question 138. What Is The Sense Of A Fingerprint?

Answer :

A fingerprint is an impression of the friction ridges on all parts of the finger. A friction ridge is a
raised portion of the epidermis on the palmer (palm) or digits i.e. fingers and toes or plantar or sole
skin, consisting of one or more connected ridge units of friction ridge skin. This is also known as
Epidermal Ridges which is originated by the underlying interface between the dermal papillae of the
dermis and the interpapillary (rete) pegs of the epidermis.

Question 139. What A Security Mean In Your Sense?

Answer :

A security is a fungible, negotiable instrument representing financial value. Securities are generally
sorted out into debt securities such as banknotes, bonds and debentures and equity securities.

For example: common stocks and derivative contracts such as forwards, futures, options and swaps.

Question 140. What Is A Password?

Answer :

A password is a secret word or string of characters that is used for authentication to prove identity or
gain access to a resource. The password must be kept secret from those not allowed access.
For example: An access code is a type of password.

Question 141. What Is A Smart Card Or Chip Card Or Integrated Circuit Card (icc)?

Answer :
A Smart Card or Chip Card or Integrated Circuit Card (ICC) is any pocket-sized card with embedded
integrated circuits which can process data. This implies that it can receive input which is processed by
the way of the ICC applications and delivered as an output.

Question 142. Finally, Who Is A Hacker?

Answer :

A hacker is a person who breaks into computers usually by gaining access to administrative controls.
He uses to access the user id and password without taking the permission. As a result of this article,
you will definitely going to show best performance in the interview.

Question 143. What Is Acid Property In Client Server Environment?

Answer :

ACID is a term coined by Andrew Reuter in 1983, which stands for Atomicity, Consistence, Isolation
and Durability.

ACID property is the basic property for transaction processing.

A - atomicity
C - consistency
I - isolation
D - durability.

Question 144. What Is Meant By 2-tier Architecture In Client Server Environment?

Answer :

In 2-tier Client/Server systems, the application logic is either burried inside the user interface on the
client or within the database on the server.

Example: File servers and Database servers with stored procedures.

Question 145. What Is Meant By Transparency In Client Server Environment?

Answer :

Transparency really means hiding the network and its servers from the users and even the application
programmers.

Question 146. What Is A Web Server In Client Server Environment?

Answer :
This new model of Client/Server consists of thin, protable, "universal" clients that talk to superfat
servers. In the simplet form, a web server returns documents when clients ask for them by name. The
clients and server communicate using an RPC-like protocol called HTTP.

Question 147. What Is A Database Server In Client Server Environment?

Answer :

With a database server, the client passes SQL requests as messages to the database server. The results
of each SQL command are returned over the network. The server uses its own processing power to
find the request data instead of passing all the records back to the client and then getting it find its own
data. The result is a much more efficient use of distributed processing power. It is also known as SQL
engine.

Question 148. What Are Super Servers In Client Server Environment?

Answer :

These are fully-loaded machines which includes multiprocessors, high-speed disk arrays for intervive
I/O and fault tolerant features.

Question 149. What Is Message Oriented Middleware (mom) In Client Server Environment?

Answer :

MOM allows general purpose messages to be exchanged in a Client/Server system using message
queues. Applications communicate over networks by simply putting messages in the queues and
getting messages from queues. It typically provides a very simple high level APIs to its services.

MOM's messaging and queuing allow clients and servers to communicate across a network without
being linked by a private, dedicated, logical connection. The clients and server can run at different
times. It is a post-office like metaphor.

Question 150. What Are The Two Types Of Oltp In Client Server Environment?

Answer :

TP lite, based on stored procedures,

TP heavy, based on the TP monitors.

Question 151. What Is A Tp Monitor In Client Server Environment?

Answer :

There is no commonly accepted definition for a TP monitor. According to Jeri Edwards' a TP Monitor
is "an OS for transaction processing".
TP Monitor does mainly two things extremely well. They are Process management and Transaction
management.

They were originally introduced to run classes of applications that could service hundreds and
sometimes thousands of clients. TP Monitors provide an OS - on top of existing OS - that connects in
real time these thousands of humans with a pool of shared server processes.

Question 152. What Are All The Base Services Provided By The Os In Client Server
Environment?

Answer :

Task preemption
Task priority
Semaphores
Interprocess communications (IPC)
Local/Remote Interprocess communication
Threads
Intertask protection
Multiuser
High performance file system
Efficient memory management and
Dynamically linked Run-time extensions.

Question 153. What Is A Transaction Server In Client Server Environment?

Answer :

With a transaction server, the client invokes remote procedures that reside on the server with an SQL
database engine. These remote procedures on the server execute a group of SQL statements. The
network exchange consists of a single request/reply message. The SQL statements either all succeed or
fail as a unit.

Question 154. What Are The Five Major Technologies That Can Be Used To Create
Client/server Applications In Client Server Environment?

Answer :

Database Servers
TP Monitors
Groupware
Distributed Objects
Intranets.

Question 155. What Are General Middleware In Client Server Environment?

Answer :

It includes the communication stacks, distributed directories, authentication services, network time,
RPC, Queuing services along with the network OS extensions such as the distributed file and print
services.

Question 156. What Are The Two Broad Classes Of Middleware In Client Server Environment?

Answer :

General middleware,
Service-specific middleware.

Question 157. What Is An Object Server In Client Server Environment?

Answer :

With an object server, the Client/Server application is written as a set of communicating objects.
Client object communicate with server objects using an Object Request Broker (ORB). The client
invokes a method on a remote object. The ORB locates an instance of that object server class, invokes
the requested method and returns the results to the client object. Server objects must provide support
for concurrency and sharing. The ORB brings it all together.

Question 158. Why Is Bluetooth Called A Cable Replacement Technology?

Answer :

Bluetooth technology allows the creation of Personal Area Networks without cables or wires that are
usual in home networks.

Question 159. Give A Generic Description Of Bluetooth?

Answer :

Bluetooth is a low-cost, short-range (RF) links between mobile PCs, mobile phones and other portable
devices. Bluetooth can transmit through solid, non-metal objects.

Question 160. Why Can Bluetooth Equipment Integrate Easily In Tcp/ip Network?

Answer :

Because Bluetooth uses wireless LAN standards IEEE for data transmission.

Question 161. Is It Possible To Connect Multiple Bluetooth Hubs?

Answer :
No, only one hub can be used at a time with a computer. USB or Serial devices can be added.

Question 162. What Is Fcc And How Does It Relate To Bluetooth?

Answer :

FCC is Federal Communication Commission, which issues licenses to the stations for specific
frequencies. It also decides who is able to use which frequency for what purpose. Since Bluetooth is
using unlicensed spectrum, FCC has no direct involvement with Bluetooth

Question 163. Under What Frequency Range Does Bluetooth Work?

Answer :

2.45 GHz is the frequency range.

Question 164. Do Bluetooth Devices Need Line Of Sight To Connect To One Another?

Answer :

No.

Question 165. Which Technology Is Used In Bluetooth For Avoiding Interference?

Answer :

Frequency hopping is the technology used in Bluetooth.

Question 166. Bluetooth Signals Do Not Interfere With Our Pcs Or Cordless Phones Or
Portables. Why?

Answer :

Bluetooth uses low-power signals, it plays around in 2.45 GHz range, while most of consumer devices
would be using 900 MHz.

Question 167. What Is Airport?

Answer :

Airport is a wireless communications system, like Bluetooth. It is based on the IEEE 802.11
recommendation. It also uses 2.4 GHz frequency band, but its range is about 45 meters and it boasts a
transmission speed of 11 Mbit/second. It is developed by Lucent Technologies.

Question 168. What Is Piconet?

Answer :

A collection of devices connected through Bluetooth technology in an ad hoc fashion.

Question 169. What Are The Three Main Types Of Connection Used By Bluetooth?

Answer :

Single slave, Master slave, Scatternet .

Question 170. What Is Fec In Bluetooth?

Answer :

Forward Error Correction is a method by which Bluetooth increases its noise immunity. FEC is a
method that enables a receiver to not only detect, but also correct errors in a transmission.

Question 171. Which Method Is Primarily Used For Voice Transfer?

Answer :

Synchronous Connection Oriented (SCO) is a method primarily used for Voice transfer.

Question 172. What Is The Frequency Range Used For Bluetooth In Europe And United States?

Answer :

2402 MHz to 2480 MHz are the frequency ranges used in USA and Europe.

Question 173. List Some Technology Characteristic Of Bluetooth?

Answer :

Omni directional, Adaptive output power to minimize interference, Support Synchronous &
asynchronous services, Fast Frequency Hopping to avoid interference, Short data packets to maximize
capacity during interface.

Question 174. Which Company Originally Conceived And Developed Bluetooth?

Answer :

Ericsson.

Question 175. How Does Bluetooth Use Frequency Hopping For Security?

Answer :
Bluetooth picks a random frequency out of 79 and then hops around the range about 1600 times per
second.

Question 176. What Is A Bluetooth Dongle?

Answer :

A device that hangs outside of a computer, or phone to provide Bluetooth connection.

Question 177. What Are The Other (competing Or Not) Wireless Technologies?

Answer :

Wi-Fi, IrDa, EDGE, UWB (Ultra Wide Band).

Question 178. Which Bluetooth Version Uses Adaptive Frequency Hopping? Why?

Answer :

In Version 1.2 Adaptive frequency hopping method is used, which improves resistance to radio
interference, and provides higher transmission speed.

Question 179. How Many Sco Links Are There In A Piconet?

Answer :

In a piconet, there can be up to three SCO links of 64,000 bits per second each.

Question 180. What Is The Total Number Of Masters And Slaves In A Piconet?

Answer :

1 Master and 7 Slaves.

Question 181. Which Method Is Used For Data Transfer?

Answer :

Asynchronous Connectionless (ACL) is Data transfer method in Bluetooth

Question 182. What Is The Frequency Range Used For Bluetooth In Japan?

Answer :

2472 to 2497 MHz is the frequency range used for Bluetooth in Japan.
Question 183. What Is The Strength Of The Signal Transmitted By Powerful Cell Phones?

Answer :

The powerful cell phones can transmit a signal of 3 watts.

Question 184. Why Is Bluetooth 2.0 Better?

Answer :

The main features of Bluetooth Core Specification Version 2.0 + EDR are:
• 3 times faster transmission speed (up to 10 times in certain cases)
• Lower power consumption through reduced duty cycle
• Simplification of multi-link scenarios due to more available bandwidth
• Backwards compatible to earlier versions
• Further improved BER (Bit Error Rate) performance.

Question 185. Name Few Applications Of Bluetooth?

Answer :

Wireless control of and communication between a cell phone and a hands free headset or car kit. This
is the most popular use.

Wireless networking between PCs in a confined space and where little bandwidth is required.

Wireless communications with PC input devices such as mouses and keyboards and output devices
such as printers.

Transfer of files between devices via OBEX.

Transfer of contact details, calendar appointments, and reminders between devices via OBEX.

Replacement of traditional wired serial communications in test equipment, GPS receivers and medical
equipment.

For remote controls where infrared was traditionally used.

Sending small advertisements from Bluetooth enabled advertising hoardings to other, discoverable,
Bluetooth devices.

Wireless control of a games console, Nintendo’s Wii and Sony’s PlayStation 3 will both use Bluetooth
technology for their wireless controllers.

Sending commands and software to the upcoming LEGO Mindstorms NXT instead of infra red.
Question 186. How Many Devices Can Communicate Concurrently?

Answer :

A Bluetooth device playing the role of the "master" can communicate with up to 7 devices playing the
role of the "slave". This network of "group of up to 8 devices" (1 master + 7 slaves) is called a piconet.
A piconet is an ad-hoc computer network of devices using Bluetooth technology protocols to allow
one master device to interconnect with up to seven active slave devices (because a three-bit MAC
address is used). Up to 255 further slave devices can be inactive, or parked, which the master device
can bring into active status at any time.

Question 187. What Is Pairing?

Answer :

Pairs of devices may establish a trusted relationship by learning (by user input) a shared secret known
as a "passkey". A device that wants to communicate only with a trusted device can cryptographically
authenticate the identity of the other device. Trusted devices may also encrypt the data that they
exchange over the air so that no one can listen in. The encryption can however be turned off and
passkeys are stored on the device’s file system and not the Bluetooth chip itself. Since the Bluetooth
address is permanent a pairing will be preserved even if the Bluetooth name is changed. Pairs can be
deleted at any time by either device. Devices will generally require pairing or will prompt the owner
before it allows a remote device to use any or most of its services. Some devices such as Sony
Ericsson phones will usually accept OBEX business cards and notes without any pairing or prompts.
Certain printers and access points will allow any device to use its services by default much like
unsecured Wi-Fi networks.

Question 188. How Secure A Bluetooth Device Is?

Answer :

Bluetooth uses the SAFER+ algorithm for authentication and key generation. The E0 stream cipher is
used for encrypting packets. This makes eavesdropping on Bluetooth-enabled devices more difficult.

Question 189. What Is Bluetooth Sig?

Answer :

Bluetooth Special Interest Group (SIG), Bluetooth wireless technology is revolutionizing personal
connectivity by providing freedom from wired connections. It is a specification for a small-form factor,
low-cost radio solution providing links between mobile computers, mobile phones, other portable
handheld devices and automobiles, as well as connectivity to the Internet. The Bluetooth SIG,
comprised of leaders in the telecommunications, computing, automotive and consumer electronics
industries, is driving development of the technology and bringing it to market. The Bluetooth SIG
includes Promoter member companies Agere, Ericsson, IBM, Intel, Microsoft, Motorola, Nokia and
Toshiba, and thousands of Associate and Adopter member companies. The Bluetooth SIG, Inc.
headquarters are located in Overland Park, Kansas, U.S.A.

Question 190. What Are The Problems With Older Versions (1.0 And 1.0 B)?

Answer :

Versions 1.0 and 1.0 B had numerous problems and the various manufacturers had great difficulties in
making their products interoperable. 1.0 and 1.0B also had mandatory Bluetooth Hardware Device
Address (BD_ADDR) transmission in the handshaking process, rendering anonymity impossible at a
protocol level, which was a major setback for services planned to be used in Bluetooth environments,
such as Consumerism.

Question 191. What Are Different Classes In Bluetooth?

Answer :

Bluetooth is a radio standard and communications protocol primarily designed for low power
consumption, with a short range (power class dependent: 1 meter, 10 meters, 100 meters) based
around low-cost transceiver microchip in each device.

Bluetooth lets these devices communicate with each other when they are in range. The devices use a
radio communications system, so they do not have to be in line of sight of each other, and can even be
in other rooms, so long as the received power is high enough.

Question 192. What Are Bluetooth Profiles?

Answer :

A profile is a description of how to use a specification to implement a particular function. The

International Standards Organization (ISO) first came up with the idea of profiles. In Bluetooth, there
are several profiles available and they are arranged in a hierarchical fashion. For example, in order to
use the headset profile, a device must also include the lower level profiles such as the serial port and
general access profiles.

Question 193. What Are Some Of The Uses Of Bluetooth?

Answer :

Depending on the Bluetooth profiles included on the device, Bluetooth technology has the capability
to wirelessly synchronize and transfer data among devices. The Bluetooth audio capabilities can be
used for headset and hands free applications. The exact functionality provided by a Bluetooth enabled
device depends on the Bluetooth profiles included.

Question 194. How Does Bluetooth Fit In With Wifi?

Answer :

The 802.11b (WiFi) standard is commonly used for wireless networking. Bluetooth is not a competitor
with 802.11b, but rather a complement to it. While 802.11b is generally a replacement for wired local
area networking, Bluetooth is more commonly used as a replacement for cables between individual
devices. Bluetooth is designed to link devices within a very short range (up to 33 feet ). Bluetooth is
part of the 802.15 standard.

Question 195. What Is The History Of Bluetooth?

Answer :

Bluetooth was initiated by Ericsson, IBM, Intel, Nokia and Toshiba in early 1998. These companies
later formed a special interest group known as the Bluetooth SIG. The Bluetooth 1.0 specifications
were released on July 26, 1999, but the technology has only recently become inexpensive enough for
widespread use.

Question 196. What Is It - A Technology, A Standard, An Initiative, Or A Product?

Answer :

Bluetooth wireless technology is a de facto standard, as well as a specification for small-form factor,
low-cost, short range radio links between mobile PCs, mobile phones and other portable devices. The
Bluetooth Special Interest Group is an industry group consisting of leaders in the telecommunications,
computing, and networking industries that are driving development of the technology and bringing it
to market

Question 197. Is Bluetooth An Ieee Standard, Like Ieee 802.11 And Ethernet?

Answer :

Being an IEEE standard will be a big plus to widespread adoption of Bluetooth, and IEEE 802.15
working group for personal area networks (PAN) announced that they will be adopting Bluetooth as
the IEEE 802.15 standard.

Question 198. What Types Of Companies Are Likely To Adopt Or Promote Bluetooth
Technology?

Answer :

Companies likely to adopt this technology include, but are not limited to, software developers,
network vendors, silicon vendors, peripheral and camera manufacturers, mobile PC and handheld
device manufacturers, consumer electronics manufacturers and more.

Question 199. What Companies Are Involved In The Bluetooth Initiative?

Answer :

Global technology leaders Ericsson, Nokia, IBM, Intel and Toshiba founded the Bluetooth SIG in
1998. These companies are now supported by over 1,000 other organizations with a wide range of
expertise, including Widcomm, Inc.

Question 200. Are Different Brands Of Bluetooth Products Compatible?

Answer :

Yes. They have to. The Bluetooth Logo Certification Program requires Bluetooth products to
interoperate with products manufactured by other vendors; those products that don't interoperate will
not be allowed to use the Bluetooth logo.

Question 201. Is Bluetooth Practical For Use With Mobile Devices?

Answer :

Yes. One concern for mobile computing users is power consumption. Bluetooth radios are very low
power, drawing as little as 0.3mA in standby mode and 30mA during sustained data transmissions.
Bluetooth radios alternate among power-saving modes in which device activity is lowered to
maximize the mobile power supply.

Question 202. What Kind Of Encryption Will Be Used For Bluetooth Security?

Answer :

The Bluetooth specification 1.0 describes the link encryption algorithm as a stream cipher using 4
LFSR (linear feedback shift registers). The sum of the width of the LFSRs is 128, and the spec says
"the effective key length is selectable between 8 and 128 bits". This arrangement allows Bluetooth to
be used in countries with regulations limiting encryption strength, and "facilitate a future upgrade path
for the security without the need for a costly redesign of the algorithms and encryption hardware"
according to the Bluetooth specification. Key generation and authentication seems to be using the 8-
round SAFER+ encryption algorithm. The information available suggests that Bluetooth security will
be adequate for most purposes; but users with higher security requirements will need to employ
stronger algorithms to ensure the security of their data.

Question 203. What Is The Range Of Bluetooth Transmitter/receivers?

Answer :

Bluetooth is designed for very low power use, and the transmission range will only be 10m, about 30ft.
High-powered Bluetooth devices will enable ranges up to 100m (300ft). Considering the design
philosophy behind Bluetooth, even the 10m range is adequate for the purposes Bluetooth is intended
for. Later versions of the Bluetooth spec may allow longer ranges.
Question 204. What Is The Data Throughput Speed Of A Bluetooth Connection?

Answer :

Bluetooth transfers data at a rate of 721 Kbps, which is from three to eight times the average speed of
parallel and serial ports, respectively. This bandwidth is capable of transmitting voice, data, video and
still images

Question 205. Will Bluetooth And Wireless Lan (wlan) Interfere With Each Other?

Answer :

No, both Bluetooth and WLAN can co-exist. Since Bluetooth devices use Frequency Hopping and
most WLANs use Direct Sequence Spreading techniques they each appear as background noise to the
other and should not cause any perceivable performance issues.

Question 206. Will Other Rf (radio Frequency) Devices Interfere With Bluetooth Devices?

Answer :

No. Bluetooth radios operate on the unlicensed 2.4 GHz (Industrial, Scientific and Medical) frequency
band that is shared among other devices (microwave ovens, cordless phones, garage door openers,
etc. ). Bluetooth radios switch frequencies at such a rapid pace (1,600 times per second) and the data
packets are so small that interference from other RF sources is highly unlikely. Bluetooth is a robust
communication system.

Question 207. What Is Frequency-hopping Spread Spectrum (fhss)?

Answer :

Frequency-Hopping Spread-Spectrum (FHSS) is a spread spectrum modulation scheme that uses a

narrowband carrier that changes frequency in a pattern known to both transmitter and receiver.
Properly synchronized, they maintain a single logical channel. To an unintended receiver, FHSS
appears as short-duration impulse noise. More simply, the data is broken down into packets and
transmitted to the receiver of other devices over numerous "hop frequencies" (79 total) in a pseudo
random pattern. Only transmitters and receivers that are synchronized on the same hop frequency
pattern will have access to the transmitted data. The transmitter switches hop frequencies 1,600 times
per second to assure a high degree of data security.

Question 208. How Secure Is A Bluetooth Network?

Answer :

Bluetooth is extremely secure in that it employs several layers of data encryption and user
authentication measures. Bluetooth devices use a combination of the Personal Identification Number
(PIN) and a Bluetooth address to identify other Bluetooth devices. Data encryption (i.e., 128-bit) can
be used to further enhance the degree of Bluetooth security. The transmission scheme (FHSS) provides
another level of security in itself. Instead of transmitting over one frequency within the 2.4 GHz band,
Bluetooth radios use a fast frequency-hopping spread spectrum (FHSS) technique, allowing only
synchronized receivers to access the transmitted data.

Question 209. What Is The Future Direction Of The Bluetooth Standard?

Answer :

At this time, we anticipate the Bluetooth SIG to evolve the Bluetooth technology to provide greater
bandwidth and distances, thus increasing the potential platforms and applications used in the emerging
personal area networking marketplace.

Question 210. How Is Bluetooth Used?

Answer :

Bluetooth can be used to wirelessly synchronize and transfer data among devices. Bluetooth can be
thought of as a cable replacement technology. Typical uses include automatically synchronizing
contact and calendar information among desktop, notebook and palmtop computers without
connecting cables. Bluetooth can also be used to access a network or the Internet with a notebook
computer by connecting wirelessly to a cellular phone.

Question 211. Do You Know About Obex Protocol?

Answer :

IrOBEX (shortly OBEX) is a session protocol developed by the Infrared Data Association (IrDA) to
exchange objects in a simple and spontaneous manner. OBEX, which provides the same basic
functionality as HTTP but in a much lighter fashion, uses a client-server model and is independent of
the transport mechanism and transport API, provided it realizes a reliable transport base. Along with
the protocol itself, the "grammar" for OBEX conversations between devices, OBEX also provides a
model for representing objects and operations. In addition, the OBEX protocol defines a folder-listing
object, which is used to browse the contents of folders on remote device. In the first phase, RFCOMM
is used as sole transport layer for OBEX.

Question 212. What Is Service Discovery Protocol?

Answer :

Discovery services are crucial part of the Bluetooth framework. These services provide the basis for
all the usage models. Using SDP, device information, services and the characteristics of the services
can be queried and after that, a connection between two or more Bluetooth devices can be established.
SDP is defined in the Service Discovery Protocol specification.

Question 213. What Is Link Manager Protocol?

Answer :

The link manager protocol is responsible for link set-up between Bluetooth devices. This includes
setting up of security functions like authentication and encryption by generating, exchanging and
checking of link and encryption keys and the control and negotiation of baseband packet sizes.
Furthermore it controls the power modes and duty cycles of the Bluetooth radio device, and the
connection states of a Bluetooth unit in a piconet.

Question 214. Difference Between The Communication And Transmission?

Answer :

Transmission is a physical movement of information and concern issues like bit polarity,
synchronization, clock etc. Communication means the meaning full exchange of information between
two communication media.

Question 215. Explain Proxy Arp?

Answer :

It is using a router to answer ARP requests. This will be done when the originating host believes that a
destination is local, when in fact is lies beyond router.

Question 216. Explain Ospf?

Answer :

It is an Internet routing protocol that scales well, can route traffic along multiple paths, and uses
knowledge of an Internet's topology to make accurate routing decisions.

Question 217. Explain Kerberos?

Answer :

It is an authentication service developed at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. Kerberos uses

encryption to prevent intruders from discovering passwords and gaining unauthorized access to files.

Question 218. Explain A Multi-homed Host?

Answer :

It is a host that has a multiple network interfaces and that requires multiple IP addresses is called as a
Multi-homed Host.

Question 219. Explain Nvt (network Virtual Terminal)?

Answer :

It is a set of rules defining a very simple virtual terminal interaction. The NVT is used in the start of a
Telnet session.

Question 220. Explain Gateway-to-gateway Protocol?

Answer :

It is a protocol formerly used to exchange routing information between Internet core routers.

Question 221. Explain Bgp (border Gateway Protocol)?

Answer :

It is a protocol used to advertise the set of networks that can be reached with in an autonomous system.
BGP enables this information to be shared with the autonomous system. This is newer than EGP
(Exterior Gateway Protocol).

Question 222. Explain Autonomous System?

Answer :

It is a collection of routers under the control of a single administrative authority and that uses a
common Interior Gateway Protocol.

Question 223. Explain Egp (exterior Gateway Protocol)?

Answer :

It is the protocol the routers in neighboring autonomous systems use to identify the set of networks
that can be reached within or via each autonomous system.

Question 224. Explain Igp (interior Gateway Protocol)?

Answer :

It is any routing protocol used within an autonomous system.

Question 225. Explain Passive Topology?

Answer :

When the computers on the network simply listen and receive the signal, they are referred to as
passive because they don't amplify the signal in any way. Example for passive topology - linear bus.
Question 226. Explain Protocol Data Unit?

Answer :

The data unit in the LLC level is called the protocol data unit (PDU). The PDU contains of four fields
a destination service access point (DSAP), a source service access point (SSAP), a control field and an
information field. DSAP, SSAP are addresses used by the LLC to identify the protocol stacks on the
receiving and sending machines that are generating and using the data. The control field specifies
whether the PDU frame is a information frame (I - frame) or a supervisory frame (S - frame) or a
unnumbered frame (U - frame).

Question 227. Explain Difference Between Baseband And Broadband Transmission?

Answer :

In a baseband transmission, the entire bandwidth of the cable is consumed by a single signal. In
broadband transmission, signals are sent on multiple frequencies, allowing multiple signals to be sent
simultaneously.

Question 228. Explain External Data Representation?

Answer :

External Data Representation is a method of encoding data within an RPC message, used to ensure
that the data is not system-dependent.

Question 229. What Does The Mount Protocol Do?

Answer :

The Mount protocol returns a file handle and the name of the file system in which a requested file
resides. The message is sent to the client from the server after reception of a client's request.

Question 230. Explain A Pseudo Tty?

Answer :

A pseudo tty or false terminal enables external machines to connect through Telnet or rlogin. Without
a pseudo tty, no connection can take place.

Question 231. Explain Anonymous Ftp And Why Would You Use It?

Answer :

Anonymous FTP enables users to connect to a host without using a valid login and password. Usually,
anonymous FTP uses a login called anonymous or guest, with the password usually requesting the
user's ID for tracking purposes only. Anonymous FTP is used to enable a large number of users to
access files on the host without having to go to the trouble of setting up logins for them all.
Anonymous FTP systems usually have strict controls over the areas an anonymous user can access.

Question 232. Explain A Management Information Base (mib)?

Answer :

A Management Information Base is part of every SNMP-managed device. Each SNMP agent has the
MIB database that contains information about the device's status, its performance, connections, and
configuration. The MIB is queried by SNMP.

Question 233. Explain The Difference Between An Unspecified Passive Open And A Fully
Specified Passive Open?

Answer :

An unspecified passive open has the server waiting for a connection request from a client. A fully
specified passive open has the server waiting for a connection from a specific client.

Question 234. Explain Redirector?

Answer :

Redirector is software that intercepts file or prints I/O requests and translates them into network
requests. This comes under presentation layer.

Question 235. Explain Netbios And Netbeui?

Answer :

NETBIOS is a programming interface that allows I/O requests to be sent to and received from a
remote computer and it hides the networking hardware from applications. NETBEUI is NetBIOS
extended user interface. A transport protocol designed by microsoft and IBM for the use on small
subnets.

Question 236. Explain Raid?

Answer :

A method for providing fault tolerance by using multiple hard disk drives.

Question 237. Explain Cladding?

Answer :
A layer of a glass surrounding the center fiber of glass inside a fiber-optic cable.

Question 238. Explain Attenuation?

Answer :

The degeneration of a signal over distance on a network cable is called attenuation.

Question 239. Explain Mac Address?

Answer :

The address for a device as it is identified at the Media Access Control (MAC) layer in the network
architecture. MAC address is usually stored in ROM on the network adapter card and is unique.

Question 240. Difference Between Bit Rate And Baud Rate?

Answer :

Bit rate is the number of bits transmitted during one second whereas baud rate refers to the number of
signal units per second that are required to represent those bits. baud rate = bit rate / N where N is no-
of-bits represented by each signal shift.

Question 241. Explain Bandwidth?

Answer :

Every line has an upper limit and a lower limit on the frequency of signals it can carry. This limited
range is called the bandwidth.

Question 242. Explain Icmp?

Answer :

ICMP is Internet Control Message Protocol, a network layer protocol of the TCP/IP suite used by
hosts and gateways to send notification of datagram problems back to the sender. It uses the echo test /
reply to test whether a destination is reachable and responding. It also handles both control and error
messages.

Question 243. Explain Difference Between Arp And Rarp?

Answer :

The address resolution protocol (ARP) is used to associate the 32 bit IP address with the 48 bit
physical address, used by a host or a router to find the physical address of another host on its network
by sending a ARP query packet that includes the IP address of the receiver. The reverse address
resolution protocol (RARP) allows a host to discover its Internet address when it knows only its
physical address.

Question 244. Explain The Minimum And Maximum Length Of The Header In The Tcp
Segment And Ip Datagram?

Answer :

The header should have a minimum length of 20 bytes and can have a maximum length of 60 bytes.

Question 245. Expand Idea?

Answer :

IDEA stands for International Data Encryption Algorithm.

Question 246. Define The Term "dmz" As It Pertains To Network Security, And Name Three
Different Common Network Devices That Are Typically Found There?

Answer :

It's easy to think of your network as the "inside", and everything else as "outside". However, we've got
a third area when it comes to firewalls - the DMZ.

From an IT standpoint, the DMZ is the part of our network that is exposed to outside networks. It's
common to find the following devices in a DMZ:
• FTP server
• Email server
• E-commerce server
• DNS servers
• Web servers.

Question 247. Does The Cisco Ios Firewall Feature Set Act As A Stateful Or Stateless Packet
Filter?

Answer :

The Cisco IOS Firewall is a stateful filter.

Question 248. What Is The Access List Range For Extended Ip Access List?

Answer :

The access list range is 100 - 199.

Question 249. Name A X.25 Addressing Standard?

Answer :

X.121 is a x.25 layer 3 add. standard.

Question 250. Where Can The Backup Configuration File Be Found?

Answer :

It is stored in the NVRAM.

Question 251. How Can A Router Be Configured?

Answer :

It can be configured by TFTP, Nvram or Console

Question 252. Which Mechanism Takes Place In A Traffic Light?

Answer :

Flow control.

Question 253. What Is Windowing?

Answer :

It is a kind of flow control.

Question 254. Name The Osi Layer Which Helps Ensure Packet Delivery?

Answer :

Network layer.

Question 255. What Is The Number Range Of Ipx Access List?

Answer :

The range is 800-899.

Question 256. How Can You Vary The Routers Boot Sequence?

Answer :

It can be done by boot system commands and config register.

Question 257. Which Hardware Is Necessary For Broadcasts?

Answer :

switch, repeater and bridge.

Question 258. What Is The Use Of Ipx Sap?

Answer :

It stands for Service Advertising Protocol and it is used to advertise services.

Question 259. Which Protocol Helps Test The Connectivity Without Configuration Of Layer 3
Protocols?

Answer :

CDP protocol.

Question 260. What Is The Default Serial Encapsulation?

Answer :

HDLC is the default serial encapsulation.

Question 261. What Is The Use Of Arp?

Answer :

It is used to determine the MAC Address of a workstation.

Question 262. Name The Default Ipx Ethernet Encapsulation?

Answer :

Novell-Ether is the default IPX Ethernet encapsulation.

Question 263. Which Compression Protocols Are Used For Ppp?

Answer :

Stac and Predictor.

Question 264. Which Authentication Method Is Preferred To Set Up A Session?

Answer :
CHAP.

Question 265. What Is The Use Of Multilink Protocol Mp?

Answer :

It is used to provide load balancing across multiple links.

Question 266. What Is Magic Number?

Answer :

It helps avoid frame looping.

Question 267. What Is The Quality Protocol?

Answer :

It monitors data dropped on a link.

Question 268. Which Are The Different Forms Of Wan Services Accessed By Cisco Routers?

Answer :

These are Switched services, Using protocols connecting peer to peer devices and Interface front end
to IBM Enterprise Data center computers.

Question 269. How Can We Convert The User Data From Dte To Wan Service Form?

Answer :

We can use the Modem, CSU/DSU and TA/NT1 for this.

Question 270. Which Service Is Used To Get Data From Multiple Sources And Allocate
Bandwidth On One?

Answer :

TDM or Time Domain Multiplexing.

Question 271. Which Abbrevation Is Used To Tell The Router To Check All Numbers?

Answer :

host.
Question 272. What Happens If We Set A Wildcard Mask Bit To '0' In Cisco Routers?

Answer :

The router checks the corresponding bit value.

Question 273. How Many Access Lists Are Allowed Per Interface?

Answer :

One Access list per port, per protocol is allowed.

Question 274. When Using Access Lists, What Does A Cisco Router Check First?

Answer :

The cisco routers checks whether the packet is routable or bridgeable.

Question 275. What Do You Know About The Udp Datagram Format?

Answer :

Source Port - 16 bits, Destination Port - 16 bits, Length - 16 Bits, Checksum - 16 bits, Data.

Question 276. Cisco Router Has Two Types Of Access Lists?

Answer :

Standard and Extended.

Question 277. What Is The Use Of Ddr On Cisco Routers?

Answer :

It is used for dial on demand routing. DDR provides routing for low volume and periodic traffic.

Question 278. Which Field In The Ip Packet Has Network Testing?

Answer :

The network testing is found in IP Options field.

Question 279. Which Process Is Used To Find An Ip Address From A Mac Address?

Answer :
RARP Process.

Question 280. Which Format Is Useful For Configuring The Subnet Mask For An Ip Address?

Answer :

dotted decimal, hexadecimal and bit count formats can be used.

Question 281. How Many Dns Servers Can Be Specified With One Command?

Answer :

6 DNS Servers can be specified with one command.

Question 282. Important Features Of Ppp Chap Authentication?

Answer :

Authentication messages and local router challenges.

Question 283. Which Is The Ipx Serial Encapsulation By Default?

Answer :

HDLC.

Question 284. Which Hardware Component Is Used To Store Backup Configuration?

Answer :

NVRAM is used for this.

Question 285. What Is The Range Of Extended Ip Access List?

Answer :

The range is 100-199.

Question 286. What Are The Two Important Tcp Socket Classes?

Answer :

Socket and ServerSocket. ServerSocket is used for normal two-way socket communication. Socket
class allows us to read and write through the sockets. getInputStream() and getOutputStream() are the
two methods available in Socket class.
Question 287. What Is The Difference Between Url Instance And Urlconnection Instance?

Answer :

A URL instance represents the location of a resource, and a URLConnection instance represents a link
for accessing or communicating with the resource at the location.

Question 288. What Information Is Needed To Create A Tcp Socket?

Answer :

The Local System's IP Address and Port Number. And the Remote System's IPAddress and Port
Number.

Question 289. What Is A Network Card?

Answer :

A network card is an expansion card installed in a computer that enables the computer to be physically
connected to a network.

Question 290. List The Different Types Of Network Card?

Answer :

The different types of network card are as follows:

Ethernet card.

Wireless network card.

Token Ring network card.

Question 291. What Connectors Are Used In The Ethernet And Wireless Network Cards?

Answer :

Ethernet network cards use the RJ-45 connector; whereas, wireless network cards usually have no
external connections other than an antenna jack.

Question 292. What Are The Different Types Of Connectors?

Answer :

The different types of connectors are DB-9, DB-25, RJ-11, RJ- 45, Bayonet Neill-Concelman (BNC),
PS2/MINI-DIN, and Universal Serial Bus (USB).
Question 293. What Is The Use Of Rj-11 Connector?

Answer :

The RJ-11 connector is generally used to connect standard telephone cord.

Question 294. What Is The Use Of Rj-45 Connector?

Answer :

The FU-45 connector is an industry standard for Ethernet and Fast Ethernet networking. It is used to
attach short cable (patch cable) to connect the computer to wall jack.

Question 295. What Is The Use Of Usb Connector?

Answer :

USB is an external hardware interface and communications standard that is utilized for connecting
varied peripherals to a computer, such as mouse, external drive, digital cameras, memory sticks, and
gaming peripherals.

Question 296. What Type Of Connector Is Used To Connect A Modem To Wall Jack?

Answer :

RJ-11 is used to connect a modem to wall jack.

Question 297. How Many Devices Can Be Connected To One Usb Port?

Answer :

USB hubs can generally extend a USB network to a maximum of 127 ports.

Question 298. What Is The Length Of Usb Cable?

Answer :

Normally, USB cables are limited to 5m; however, hubs can be used as an active USB repeater to
extend the cable length for up to 5m at a time.

Question 299. What Are The Main Types Of Computer Cabling?

Answer :

The following are the main types of computer cabling:

Twisted Pair cable.

Coaxial cable.

Fiber-optic cable.

Question 300. What Is Twisted Pair?

Answer :

Twisted Pair is made up of insulated copper wire twisted around each other to form wire pairs. It helps
in reducing the noise from external sources and crosstalk on multi-pair cables.

Question 301. How Many Classes Of Twisted Pair Are Available?

Answer :

Following two classes of Twisted Pair are available:

1. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP).
2. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP).

Question 302. Category 3 And Category 5 Cables Belong To Which Class Of Twisted Pair?

Answer :

The Category 3 and Category 5 cables belong to UTP class of Twisted Pair.

Question 303. How Many Twisted Pairs Of Copper Wire Are There In Category 5 Cable?

Answer :

The Category 5 cable contains four Twisted Pairs of copper wire that are capable of transmission of up
to 100 Mbps.

Question 304. How Is Stp Cable Different From Coaxial Cable?

Answer :

In STP cable, the twisted pair is wrapped in foil to decrease external interference and electromagnetic
radiations. In coaxial cable, the center cable is insulated by a plastic-foam, a second conductor, a foil
wrap, and an external plastic tube.

Question 305. List The Commonly Used Coaxial Cable?

Answer :
Following are the commonly used Coaxial cables:

10Base5(Ethernet)- RG8 and RG11.

10Base2(Ethernet)-RG58.

Cable TV-RG59.

ARCnet-RG62.

Question 306. What Is Fiber-optic Cable?

Answer :

Fiber-optic cable is used to transmit light signals over long distances. It has the ability to carry large
amount of bandwidth over a greater distance at faster speeds. Fiber- optic cable has the core in the
center, which is the glass fiber that carries the light signals. The cladding layer surrounds the core and
acts as a mirror allowing the light to reflect off it as the light travels. Outermost layer of the cable is
buffer coating, which protects both fiber and cladding, and prevents signals from leaking out of the
cable. It also protects the fiber from damage and moisture.

Question 307. Explain The Function Of Fiber-optic Cable?

Answer :

The fiber-optic cable uses light pulses to carry and transmit data from point to point. Pulses of light are
sent from one end of the cable to the other end. The pulses represent data being transmitted that a
decoder at the other end of the cable can decode into information.

Question 308. What Are The Two Different Types Of Fiber-optic Cables?

Answer :

There are two primary types of fiber-optic cables: single-mode cable and multi-mode cable. Single-
mode cable has one glass fiber strand; whereas, multi-mode cable has two or more strands along the
line. Multi-mode cable fibers are physically larger (up to 100 microns in diameter) when compared to
single-mode fibers, which may be up to 10 microns.

Question 309. How Long Is 10base5 Ethernet Cable?

Answer :

The approximate maximum length of 10Base5 Ethernet cable is 500 meters.

Question 310. What Is High-definition Multimedia Interface (hdmi)?

Answer :

HDMI is an interface standard used for audio-visual equipment, such as high-definition television and
DVD player. It simplifies cabling and provides users with the high-quality home theater experience by
delivering crystal-clear all-digital audio and video through a single cable.

Question 311. What Is The Bandwidth Of Hdmi Cable?

Answer :

HDMI cable can carry a bandwidth of up to five Gigabytes per second.

Question 312. What Is Ethernet Cord Connector?

Answer :

Ethernet cord connector is a device to connect two Ethernet cables. It is a small box that connects two
shorter Ethernet cables.

Question 313. What Types Of Topologies Are Commonly Used For Local Area Network (lan)
And Wide Area Network (wan)?

Answer :

Bus, ring, star, mesh, tree, and cellular topologies are used for LANs; whereas, point-to-point,
multipoint, mesh, and cloud topologies are used for WANs.

Question 314. Explain Tree Topology?

Answer :

A tree topology is a LAN architecture that is similar to the bus topology but with multiple nodes. It
can also be defined as a combination of the bus and star topologies.

Question 315. What Devices Are Commonly Used In Lan Networks?

Answer :

The commonly used devices in a LAN network are repeaters, hubs, LAN extenders, bridges, LAN
switches, and routers.

Question 316. What Is Repeater?

Answer :
A repeater is a device used to interconnect the media segments of an extended network. It enables a
series of cable segments to be treated as a single cable. Repeaters receive signals from one network
segment and amplify, retime, and retransmit those signals to another network segment to prevent
signal deterioration caused by long cable lengths and large numbers of connected devices.

Question 317. What Is Hub?

Answer :

A hub is a device that connects multiple user stations, each through a dedicated cable.

Question 318. Multiple Devices Cannot Communicate On The Network Simultaneously;

Therefore, What Type Of Method Must Be Used To Allow One Device To Access Network
Media At A Time?

Answer :

Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) and token passing.

Question 319. What Is Csma/cd?

Answer :

CSMA/CD is a layer 2 access method in which if a transmitting data station detects another signal
while transmitting a frame, it stops transmitting the frame. Instead of the frame, it transmits a jam
signal, and then waits for a random time interval before trying to send the frame again.

Question 320. What Is Token Passing?

Answer :

A token is a small frame, which is passed from one node to another in a token ring network. If a node
has data to send, it must wait until it receives a token. After the token is received by the node, it seizes
the token, marks it as used, and attaches the data. The frame is then addressed to the destination node
and the node continues passing the data around the ring until it arrives at the destination node. The
destination node copies the data and marks the frame as received. When the sender node receives the
frame, it implies that the data is successfully delivered. The sender node then frees the token to be
used by another node.

Question 321. List The Reasons Of Transmission Failure?

Answer :

Transmission failure can be caused by the following reasons:

1. Bad cabling.
2. Improper termination.
3. Collisions.
4. Improper cable length.

Question 322. How Many Stations Can Be Connected To 10base2, 10baset, And 10base5?

Answer :

Maximum stations that can be connected to 10Base2 are 30 stations.

Maximum stations that can be connected to 10BaseT are 1024 stations per network.

Maximum stations that can be connected to 10Base5 are 100 nodes per segment and maximum
network length of 10Base5 is five segments, that is, approximately 2500 m or 8200 ft.

Question 323. What Is The Maximum Network Length Of 10base2 And 10base5?

Answer :

The maximum network length of 10Base2 is 185 m for each segment and can be extended up to five
segments.

The maximum network length of 10Base5 is 500m for each segment and can be extended up to five
segments.

Question 324. What Is Fiber Distributed Data Interface (fddi)?

Answer :

FDDI is a token-passing dual ring fiber optic LAN specification. It supports higher transmission
speeds across larger distances of around 2 km (1.3 miles) between two stations.

Question 325. What Is Network Binding?

Answer :

A network binding binds a protocol to an adapter to carry traffic using that protocol.

Question 326. What Is Netbios Extended User Interface (netbeui) And Is It Routable?

Answer :

NetBEUI is designed for peer-to-peer network and is a high_speed protocol used on small networks. It
provides a good recovery and error protection. And No, it is not routable.

Question 327. Where Is Ipx/spx Used?

Answer :

IPX/SPX stands for Internetwork Packet Exchange/Sequenced Packet Exchange. It is used in the
Netware environment. IPX runs at the network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI)
model; whereas, SPX runs at the transport layer of the OSI model.

Question 328. What Is Netbios?

Answer :

NetBIOS stands for Network Basic Input / Output System. It is an application interface, which
operates at the session layer. It enables communication between applications with NetBIOS compliant
protocol. NetBIOS applications can be supported over Transmission Control Protocol/Internet
Protocol (TCP/IP) and IPX/SPX.

Question 329. What Is The Role Of Internet Protocol (ip)?

Answer :

IP provides connectionless delivery between computer systems. It does not guarantee the delivery of
the packets.

Question 330. What Is The Role Of Transmission Control Protocol (tcp)?

Answer :

TCP provides acknowledged and connection oriented communication. It provides guaranteed delivery
with proper sequencing of packets and data integrity checks.

Question 331. What Is The Role Of User Datagram Protocol (udp)?

Answer :

UDP is designed for connectionless unacknowledged communications. It adds the information about
the source and destination socket identifiers in the datagram's. However, it provides an unreliable
service and datagram's may arrive out of order, or appear duplicated.

Question 332. What Is The Role Of Address Resolution Protocol (arp)?

Answer :

ARP resolves IP addresses to Media Access Control (MAC) addresses. Physical frames have to be
addressed to hardware MAC address of destination network device.

Question 333. What Is The Role Of Internet Control Message Protocol (icmp)?
Answer :

ICMP controls and manages transmitted information using TCP/IP. It is an error reporting and
diagnostic utility that enables nodes, such as routers, intermediary devices, and hosts, to share error
information with other nodes.

Question 334. What Is Hypertext Transfer Protocol (http) Used For?

Answer :

HTTP is used for transferring web-based information between client and server. It also defines how
information is formatted and transmitted over Internet.

Question 335. What Is File Transfer Protocol (ftp) Used For?

Answer :

FTP is used to transfer files between FTP client and FTP server.

Question 336. What Is Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (smtp) Used For?

Answer :

SMTP is used for sending e-mails between systems in TCP/IP environment. The main objective of this
protocol is to transfer e-mails reliably and efficiently.

Question 337. What Is Domain Name System (dns) Used For?

Answer :

DNS is used to resolve logical names into IP addresses. It also stores information, such as the list of
mail servers that accept e-mail for a given Internet domain.

Question 338. What Is Telnet Used For?

Answer :

Telnet is used to enable a remote terminal session across TCP/IP network. It is primarily used on the
Internet or LANs to provide a communication facility, which is bidirectional, interactive, and text-
oriented, using a remote terminal connection.

Question 339. What Is Serial Line Internet Protocol (slip) Used For?

Answer :
SLIP sends IP datagram's over a serial link and transfers network traffic over dialup connection. It is
often used where very low overhead is required. It is designed to work over serial ports and modem
connections.

Question 340. What Is Point-to-point Protocol Used For?

Answer :

Point-to-Point Protocol is used to transfer network traffic over dialup connection and it supports
compression, security, error checking, and flow control. It supports TCP/IP, IPX/SPX, and NetBEUI.

Question 341. What Is Appletalk Protocol (atp) Used For?

Answer :

ATP is used for Macintosh computers to provide connectivity to other computers.

Question 342. What Is The Use Of Network Services?

Answer :

Network services enable computers to share data, processing power, and devices. Commonly used
network services are file services, print services, and messaging services.

Question 343. What Is The Use Of File Services?

Answer :

File services are used to store and retrieve data files between devices. The different types of
application of file services are file access, file synchronization, file backup, and file security.

Question 344. What Is The Use Of Print Services?

Answer :

Print services are used to share output devices such as print and fax servers.

Question 345. What Are The Services Provided By An Operating System?

Answer :

The main services provided by an operating system are as follows:

Program execution.

I/O operations.
File system manipulation.

Communication.

Error detection.

Question 346. What Is Messaging Services Used For?

Answer :

Messaging services are used for the communication among users, their applications, network
applications, and individual documents. The user of the messaging services can be a user or
application.

Question 347. What Is Electronic Mail?

Answer :

Electronic mail is a set of applications that supports the transfer of information and data between two
network users.

Question 348. What Is Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (dhcp) Used For?

Answer :

DHCP is a configuration protocol that allows a computer to be configured automatically to

communicate with other computers on the network and provides a centralized database to keep track
of computers that have been connected to the network.

Question 349. What Is The Role Of Repeater In A Network?

Answer :

Repeater is used for network interconnection to receive a network signal from one LAN cable segment
and tc regenerate and retransmit the signal in its original strength to another cable segment. In other
words, it amplifies the electronic signals from one network cable segment to another.

Question 350. What Layer Does Repeater Work On?

Answer :

Repeaters work on the physical layer of the OSI model.

Question 351. What Is The Role Of Bridges?

Answer :
Bridges reads the physical address of a device in one network and filters the information before
passing the information to another network.

Question 352. What Layer Does A Bridge Works On?

Answer :

A bridge works on the MAC layer of the data link layer in the OSI model.

Question 353. Can Bridges Connect Networks With Different Architectures?

Answer :

Yes, bridges can connect different types of networks, such as Ethernet and token ring.

Question 354. How Bridges Prevent The Formation Of Loops In A Network?

Answer :

Bridges support the spanning tree algorithm, which helps in communicating with each other and
negotiating which bridge will remain in the blocking state; and therefore, prevent the formation of
loops in the network.

Question 355. What Is The Role Of Router?

Answer :

A router routes the packets between two networks. It reads the information in each packet to determine
where it is going. If the packet is destined for an immediate network to which it has access, then it
strips the outer packet, readdresses the packet to the proper Ethernet address, and transmits it on that
network. If the packet is destined for another network, then it re-packages the outer packet and sends it
to the next router.

Question 356. What Layer Does A Router Works On?

Answer :

A router works on the network layer of the OSI model.

Question 357. What Is The Difference Between Static Router And Dynamic Router?

Answer :

Static router is configured manually; whereas, dynamic router uses the dynamic routing algorithm to
route the packets.
Question 358. What Layer Does Brouters Work On?

Answer :

Brouters work on both the network layer and the data link layer of the OSI model. It works on the
network layer for routable protocols and on the data link layer for non-routabie protocols.

Question 359. What Is The Role Of Gateways?

Answer :

Gateways translate information between different network architectures or network data formats. For
example, it can translate TCP/IP to AppleTalk so that the computers supporting TCP/IP can
communicate with the Apple brand computers.

Question 360. Define Gateways.

Answer :

Gateways are translators comprised of hardware and software. Often they are dedicated servers with
some kind gateway software installed.

Question 361. Which Device Is Used To Divide A Network Into Logical Subnets?

Answer :

Router is used to divide a network into logical subnets.

Question 362. Which Lowest Level Device Can Be Used To Filter The Network Traffic; Thereby,
Reducing Communication Load?

Answer :

Bridges can be used to filter traffic and reduce communication load.

Question 363. What Is Next Generation Tcp/ip Stack?

Answer :

Next Generation TCP/IP stack is a new implementation of Transmission Control Protocol/Internet

Protocol (TCP/IP) functionality for Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) and Internet Protocol version 6
(IPv6) to meet the connectivity and performance needs of today's networking environments and
technologies. The features of the Next Generation TCP/IP stack include support for dual IP layer
architecture for IPv6 and strong host model. In addition, it provides new packet filtering Application
Programming Interfaces (APIs) and mechanisms for protocol stack offload.
Question 364. What Is The Role Of Explicit Congestion Notification (ecn)?

Answer :

When routers become congested, the incoming packets fill the buffer, which in turn begins dropping
packets. In such a case, ECN for TCP/IP provides a way for routers to inform TCP peers that their
buffers are filling due to the congestion in a network and force them to slow their transmission of data
to help prevent packet losses.

Question 365. Can You Uninstall Ipv6 In Windows 2008?

Answer :

No, IPv6 cannot be uninstalled in Windows 2008; however, it can be disabled.

Question 366. Which Component Makes It Possible To Use Multiple Protocols On Computer?

Answer :

Transport Driver Interface makes it possible to use multiple protocols on computer.

Question 367. What Do You Mean By Unbinding The Protocol?

Answer :

Unbinding the protocol prevents a network interface adapter from using one of the installed protocol
modules on the computer.

Question 368. Which Component Connects To The Remote Source Of Data, Downloads The File,
And Passes It Back To Windows?

Answer :

Redirector has the knowledge on how to connect to the remote source of data, download the file, and
pass it back to Windows, which in turn passes it back to the user or the program.

Question 369. What Is The Role Of Server Manager In Windows Server 2008 R2?

Answer :

Server Manager helps administrators through the process of installing, configuring, and managing
server roles and features that are part of Windows Server 2008 R2. It provides a single location for
administrators to change the server's system properties and install or remove roles or features.

Question 370. What Is Windows Powershell?

Answer :

Windows PowerShell is a command-line shell and scripting language to achieve greater productivity
and make control system administration easy. It accelerates automation of system administration tasks
and improves organization's ability to address the unique system-management problems in server
environment.

Question 371. Which Service Helps In Setting Up New Computers By Using A Network-based
Installation?

Answer :

Windows Deployment Service helps in setting up new computers by using a network-based

installation.

Question 372. Name The Tool Used To Monitor And Assess System Performance And Reliability.

Answer :

Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor is the tool used to monitor and assess system
performance and reliability. It provides a graphical interface for customizing performance data
collection and Event Trace sessions.

Question 373. What Is Interrupt Request Line (irq) Used For?

Answer :

IRQs are hardware lines over which hardware devices send the interrupt signals to the microprocessor.

Question 374. What Is Input /output (i/o) Port Address Used For?

Answer :

I/O ports are those sections of memory that the hardware devices use to communicate with the
operating system. When a microprocessor receives an IRQ, the operating system checks the I/O port
address to get the details of the hardware device that has triggered the communication.

Question 375. What Is Direct Memory Access (dma)?

Answer :

DMA is a feature of computers and microprocessors that allows disk drive controllers, graphics cards,
network cards, and sound cards within the computer to access system memory for reading and/or
writing independently of the Central Processing Unit (CPU).

Question 376. How Does A Plug And Play Device Automate The Hardware Installation Process?
Answer :

When a Plug and Play device is connected to the computer, a new hardware is detected by the
computer and it searches for the driver, which is then installed, and configures the hardware to use the
system resources.

Question 377. What Is Device Driver?

Answer :

Device driver is a software component that provides an interface between the hardware of a computer
and its operating system. Hardware, such as keyboards, controllers, and graphics cards, requires device
drivers so that the operating system can detect the devices and handle them effectively and efficiently.

Question 378. What Do You Mean By Client And Server?

Answer :

Client and server are two different machines (physical or virtual) connected in such a manner that
whenever a client posts some request to a server, the server provides an appropriate response to the
client.

Question 379. What Are The New Networking Features In Windows 2008 R2?

Answer :

Following are the new networking features in Windows 2008 R2:

DirectAccess.

VPN Reconnect.

BranchCache.

URL-based Quality of Service (QoS).

Mobile broadband device support.

Multiple active firewall profiles.

NDF, Network Tracing, and Netsh Trace.

Question 380. What Are The Different Service Packs Available For Windows 2003 And
Windows 2008?

Answer :
For both Windows 2003 and Windows 2008, available service packs are SP1 and SP2.

Question 381. What Is The Role Of Directaccess?

Answer :

DirectAccess enables users to access an enterprise network without the extra step of initiating a Virtual
Private Network (VPN) connection.

Question 382. What Is The Role Of Vpn Reconnect?

Answer :

VPN Reconnect automatically re-establishes a VPN connection as soon as Internet connectivity is

restored, saving users from re-entering their credentials and recreating the VPN connection.

Question 383. What Is The Role Of Branchcache?

Answer :

BranchCache enables updated content from file and Web servers on a Wide Area Network (WAN) to
be cached on computers at a local branch office, improving application response time and reducing
WAN traffic.

Question 384. What Is The Role Of Url-based Qos?

Answer :

URL-based QoS enables administrators to assign a priority level to traffic based on the Uniform
Resource Locator (URL) from which the traffic originates.

Question 385. What Is The Role Of Mobile Broadband Device Support?

Answer :

Mobile broadband device support provides a driver-based model for devices that are used to access a
mobile broadband network.

Question 386. What Is The Role Of Multiple Active Firewall Profiles?

Answer :

Multiple active firewall profiles enable the firewall rules most appropriate for each network adapter
based on the network to which it is connected.

Question 387. What Is The Role Of Ndf, Network Tracing, And Netsh Trace?
Answer :

NDF, Network Tracing, and Netsh Trace integrate the Network Diagnostics Framework with Network
Tracing and a new Netsh context, Netsh Trace, to simplify and consolidate network connectivity
troubleshooting processes.

Question 388. What Is Netsh?

Answer :

Netsh is a command-line scripting utility that is used to display or modify the network configuration of
a computer that is currently running. Both remote computers and local computers can be configured by
using the netsh command. Netsh also provides a scripting feature that allows you to run a group of
commands in batch mode against a specified computer.

Question 389. What Is The Role Of Live Migration In Windows 2008 R2?

Answer :

Live migration enables customers to move virtual machines from one host to another with no
perceivable downtime. It facilitates hardware maintenance, and upgrades manual failover and the
consolidation of workloads on fewer servers.

Question 390. What Is The Function Of Hyper-v Processor Compatibility Mode For Live
Migration?

Answer :

Hyper-V Processor Compatibility Mode allows live migration across different CPU versions within
the same processor family, such as Intel Core 2 to Intel Pentium 4 or AMD Opteron to AMD Athlon.
It also enables migration across a broader range of server host hardware.

Question 391. What Is File Classification Infrastructure (fci)?

Answer :

FCI provides a built-in solution to classify and manage files to users and help them to save time and
money. Administrators can automatically classify files based on content and location, generate reports,
and schedule file management tasks to manage data.

Question 392. Explain The Difference Between Windows Server 2008 R2 License And Windows
Server 2008 Cal?

Answer :
The Windows Server 2008 CAL grants the right to a device or user to access the server software;
whereas, the Windows Server 2008 R2 license gives the license holder the right to create, copy, store,
and run the server software.

Question 393. Is Windows Server 2008 A Prerequisite For Windows Server 2008 R2?

Answer :

No, Windows Server 2008 or Windows Server 2003 R2 can be upgraded to Windows Server 2008 R2.

Question 394. What Is The Difference Between A Device Cal And A User Cal?

Answer :

A Windows Server Device CAL permits one device to access or use the server software; whereas, a
Windows Server User CAL permits one user irrespective of a device to access or use the server
software.

Question 395. What Is Volume Licensing?

Answer :

When you acquire licenses from Microsoft and its partners in certain quantities or volumes, they offer
discounts from their retail product prices. Volume Licensing programs offer companies of all sizes an
economical way to buy and manage multiple software licenses for as few as five desktops.

Question 396. What Is Software Assurance (sa)?

Answer :

Software Assurance (SA) is a way for Volume Licensing customers to keep up to date with the latest
and most innovative Microsoft products. Customers acquire the right to install any new release of a
product covered in the agreement during the term of the coverage.

Question 397. What Is Primary And Extended Partition?

Answer :

Primary partition is an active partition where the hardware looks for boot files to start the operating
system. Extended partition is created from whatever free space remains on the disk after creating the
primary partition.

Question 398. What Is Internet Scsi (iscsi)?

Answer :
iSCSI is an industry standard that enables transmission of Small Computer System Interface (SCSI)
block commands over the existing Internet Protocol (IP) network by using the TCP/IP protocol. It
provides the possibility of delivering both messaging traffic and block-based storage over existing IP
networks, without installing a separate and expensive Fibre Channel network.

Question 399. What Is Distributed File System Or Network File System (dfs/nfs)?

Answer :

DFS/NFS is any file system that allows access to multiple users on multiple machines to share files
and storage resources.

Question 400. What Is Scsi?

Answer :

SCSI (pronounced as scuzzy) is a set of standards for physically connecting and transferring data
between peripheral devices and computers.

Question 401. What Technologies Are Used In Dfs?

Answer :

The two technologies used in DFS are DFS Namespaces and DFS Replication.

Question 402. What Is The Role Of Dfs Namespaces?

Answer :

DFS Namespaces enable grouping of shared folders located on different servers into one or more
logically structured namespaces.

Question 403. What Is The Role Of Dfs Replication?

Answer :

DFS Replication keeps the folders synchronized between servers across network connections. It
replaces the File Replication Service as the replication engine for DFS Namespaces, as well as for
replicating the AD DS SYSVOL folder in domains that use the Windows Server 2008 domain
functional level.

Question 404. What Are Shadow Copies For Shared Folders?

Answer :
Shadow Copies for Shared Folders are point-in-time copies of files that are located on shared
resources, such as a file server. Users can view shared files and folders as they existed at points of time
in the past by using Shadow Copies for Shared Folders.

Question 405. What Is The Use Of Shadow Copies?

Answer :

The Shadow Copies can be used for:

Recovery of files that are accidentally deleted.

Recovery of accidentally overwritten file.

Comparing different versions of a file while working.

Question 406. What Is File Server Resource Manager?

Answer :

File Server Resource Manager is a suite of tools for Windows Server that allows administrators to
control, manage, and understand the quantity and type of data stored on their server.

Question 407. What Is Share And Storage Management?

Answer :

Share and Storage Management provides a centralized location to manage the following server
resources:

Folders and volumes that are shared on the network.

Volumes in disks and storage subsystems.

Question 408. What Is The Use Of Storage Explorer?

Answer :

Storage Explorer is used to view and manage the Fibre Channel and iSCSI fabrics that are available in
your Storage Area Network (SAN).

Question 409. What Is The Use Of Storage Manager For Sans?

Answer :
Storage Manager for SANs is used to create and manage Logical Unit Numbers (LUNs) on Fibre
Channel and iSCSI disk drive subsystems that support Virtual Disk Service (VDS) in SAN.

Question 410. What Is Lun?

Answer :

LUN is a logical reference to a portion of a storage subsystem. It consists of a disk, a section of a disk,
a whole disk array, or a section of a disk array in the subsystem.

Question 411. What Is Disk Management?

Answer :

Disk Management is a utility for managing hard disks and the volumes or partitions. It helps in
initializing disks, creating volumes, and formatting volumes with the File Allocation Table (FAT),
FAT32, or New Technology File System (NTFS) file systems.

Question 412. How Many Types Of Dynamic Volumes Are There?

Answer :

Following five types of dynamic volumes are available:

Simple.

Spanned.

Striped.

Mirrored.

RAID-5.

Question 413. What Are Spanned Disk Volumes?

Answer :

Spanned disk volumes combine areas of unallocated space from multiple disks into one logical volume.
They require minimum of two disks; however, you can use up to 32 disks.

Question 414. What Is Striped Disk Volume?

Answer :
Striped disk volumes are made up of stripes of data of equal size written across each disk in the
volume. They are created from equally sized, unallocated areas on two or more disks. If one of the
disks containing a striped volume fails, the entire volume fails, and all data on the striped volume
becomes inaccessible.

Question 415. What Is Mirrored Volume?

Answer :

A mirrored volume provides a copy of a volume on another disk. This is a fault-tolerant volume,
which provides data redundancy by duplicating the information contained on the volume. The two
disks that make up a mirrored volume are known as mirrors.

Question 416. What Is Raid-5 Volume?

Answer :

RAID-5 volumes are available only on computers running the Windows 2000 Server family or
Windows Server 2003. It stripes data and parity across three or more disks. Parity is a calculated value
used to reconstruct data if one disk fails. When a disk fails, Windows Server 2003 continues to operate
by recreating the data that was on the failed disk from the remaining data and parity,

Question 417. Name The Three File Systems For Installation Partition?

Answer :

Three file systems for an installation partition are as follows:

NTFS

FAT

FAT32.

Question 418. What Are The Benefits Of Using Ntfs?

Answer :

The following are the benefits of using NTFS:

Better scalability to large drives.

Active directory to view and control network resources.

Compression features.

File encryption.

Permissions on individual files rather than just folders.

Remote Storage.

Recovery logging of disk activities.

Disk quotas.

Question 419. List The Standard Ntfs Folder Permissions?

Answer :

The standard NTFS folder permissions are as follows:

Full Control.

Modify.

Read and Execute.

List Folder Content.

Read.

Write.

Question 420. List The Standard Ntfs File Permissions?

Answer :

The standard NTFS file permissions are as follows:

Full Control.

Modify.

Read and Execute.

Read.

Write.
Question 421. What Is Access Control List (acl)?

Answer :

ACL is a list of all the user accounts and groups that have been granted or denied access to a file or a
folder. When a user attempts to gain access to a resource, the ACL must contain an access control
entry for the user account or a group to which the user belongs.

Question 422. What Are Effective Permissions For A Resource?

Answer :

Effective permissions for a resource are the sum of the NTFS permissions that you assign to the
individual user account and groups to which the user belongs.

Question 423. Do File Permissions Override Folder Permissions?

Answer :

Yes, NTFS file permissions take priority over NTFS folder permissions.

Question 424. If You Do Not Have The Permission To Access The Folder But Have The
Permission On The File, Then How Will You Access The File?

Answer :

You need to know the full path of the file to access it when you do not have a folder level permission.

Question 425. Does The Deny Permission Override All Permissions?

Answer :

Yes, the Deny permission overrides all the other permissions.

Question 426. Explain Ntfs Permissions Inheritance?

Answer :

NTFS permissions inheritance implies that the permissions assigned to a parent folder are inherited
and propagated to the subfolders and files contained in the parent folder.

Question 427. How Can You Prevent Permission Inheritance?

Answer :
You can prevent permission inheritance by setting an option of preventing inheritance at parent folder
level.

Question 428. Where Do Permissions Assigned To Creator Owner Group Apply?

Answer :

The permissions assigned to the CREATOR OWNER group apply only to the files and the subfolders
in the folder to which permissions are assigned and not to the folder itself.

Question 429. List The Basic Guidelines To Follow While Assigning Ntfs Permissions?

Answer :

Following are the basic guidelines:

Grant users only the level of access they require.

Assign group membership based on access to resources.

Deny permissions only when it is essential.

Question 430. If An Employee Leaves An Organization, What Should Be Done To Transfer The
Ownership Of His/her Files And Folders To Another Employee?

Answer :

You should perform the following steps for this:

Log in as administrator,

Assign ownership permissions to another employee,

Notify the employee that he/she has been given special permissions to take ownership of files and
folders of the ex-employee.

Question 431. Which Special Permission Enables You To Browse Through A Folder, If You Do
Not Have Permission To Access It?

Answer :

If you do not have permission to access a folder, then the Traverse Folder permission enables you to
browse through the folder.

Question 432. Name The Groups You Must Be A Member Of To Share A Folder?
Answer :

You must be a member of the Administrator, Server Operator, or Power Users group to share a folder.

Question 433. What Are The Different Ways In Which A User Can Connect To A Shared Folder?

Answer :

A user can connect to a shared folder by using the following tools:

Map Network Drive Wizard,

Add Network Place Wizard,

The Run command,

My Network Places.

Question 434. Where Does The Administrators Group Share The Folder?

Answer :

The Administrator group shares the folder residing on any computer in the domain.

Question 435. Where Does The Server Operator Group Share The Folder?

Answer :

The Server Operator group shares the folder on domain controllers.

Question 436. Where Does The Power Users Group Share The Folder?

Answer :

The Power Users group shares the folder on the computer where the group is located.

Question 437. List The Steps To Share The Host Drive With Virtual Machines?

Answer :

Perform the following steps to share the host drive with virtual machines:

Click Windows Virtual PC from the Start menu and Open the Virtual Machines folder.

Right-click the name of the virtual machine from the Virtual Machines folder.
Click the Settings option. The Windows Virtual PC Settings window appears.

Click Integration Features In the left pane of the Windows Virtual PC Settings window and then click
Drives on the right pane of the window.

Review the list of drives and click the check box of any drive that you want to share.

Click the OK button.

Question 438. What Is The Function Of Access-based Enumeration?

Answer :

Access-based Enumeration permits the users to view only those files and folders on a file server to
which they have permission to access.

Question 439. What Is A Print Server?

Answer :

Print server is a computer on which the printers associated with local and network print devices resides.

Question 440. Name The Groups You Should Be Member Of To Manager Remote Print Server?

Answer :

You must be a member of the Print Operators, Server Operators, or Local Administrators group on the
remote print server to be able to manage remote print server.

Question 441. What Is Location-aware Printing?

Answer :

Location-Aware Printing allows you to select different default printers for various networks. Therefore,
you can use the same laptop in multiple locations; for example, at work and at home. The laptop can
automatically select the correct default printer, depending on the location of the user.

Question 442. What Is The Role Of Print And Document Services In Windows 2008 R2?

Answer :

Print and Document Services in Windows 2008 R2 enables you to centralize the print server and
network printer management tasks.
It also enables you to receive scanned documents from network scanners, and route the documents to
shared network resource, Windows SharePoint Services site, or e-mail addresses.
Question 443. Which Tool Is Used To Monitor The Performance In Windows Server 2008 R2?

Answer :

The Performance and Reliability Monitor tool is used to monitor the performance in Windows 2008
R2.

Question 444. List The New Features Of The Performance And Reliability Monitor Tool?

Answer :

The new features of Performance and Reliability Monitor are as follows:

Data Collector Sets,

Wizards and templates for creating logs,

Resource View,

Reliability Monitor,

Unified property configuration for all data collection, including scheduling,

User-friendly diagnosis reports.

Question 445. What Is The Role Of Reliability Monitor?

Answer :

Reliability Monitor collects data about the system and calculates a System Stability Index, which is a
report that lists the issues that have made the system less reliable over a period of time. The report also
contains steps that can be taken to troubleshoot the root cause of the issue. Reliability Monitor
provides a graphical interface for customizing performance data collection and Event Trace Sessions.

Question 446. What Is Unified Property Configuration?

Answer :

Unified property configuration is an interface with the ability to create and manage objects from a
single location to significantly reduce the time it takes to set up the monitoring that the users require.

Question 447. What Is The Benefit Of Using The Performance And Reliability Monitor Tool?

Answer :
The Performance and Reliability Monitor tool helps you to monitor, troubleshoot, and diagnose issues
that are occurring or might occur, from a single location. With the use of Resource View in the
Performance and Reliability Monitor tool, you can find out what a specific process is doing or stop a
process, which is using numerous resources.

Question 448. Which Feature Of Performance And Reliability Monitor Adds Counters To Log
Files And Gives The Ability To Set The Start, Stop, And Duration Of Those Counters?

Answer :

Wizards and templates for creating logs add counters to log files and gives the ability to set the start,
stop, and duration of those counters.

Question 449. What Is Authorization Manager?

Answer :

Authorization Manager is a role-based security architecture for Windows and used in applications that
needs role-based authorization, including ASP.NET Web applications, ASP.NET Web services, and
client/server systems based on .NET remoting.

Question 450. What Is Role-based Management Model?

Answer :

Role-based management model enables you to assign users to roles and gives a central place to record
permissions assigned to each role. This model is often called role-based access control.

Question 451. What Are User Authorization Roles?

Answer :

Roles based on a user's job function are called user authorization roles. These roles are used to
authorize access, delegate administrative privileges, or manage interaction with computer-based
resources. For example, you might define a Treasurer role that includes the right to authorize
expenditures and audit account transactions.

Question 452. What Are Computer Configuration Roles?

Answer :

Roles based on a computer's function are called computer configuration roles. These roles are used to
select features that you want to install, to enable services, and to select options.

Question 453. What Is Windows Bitlocker Drive Encryption?

Answer :

Windows BitLocker is a security feature in the Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008 operating
systems that provides protection for the operating system on the computer and to the data stored on the
operating system volume, In Windows Server 2008, BitLocker protection can also be applied to
volumes used for data storage.

Question 454. Which Command Is Used To Install The Bitlocker In Windows 2008?

Answer :

The ServerManagerCmd -install BitLocker -restart command is used to install BitLocker in Windows
2008.

Question 455. What Is Encrypting File System (efs)?

Answer :

EFS is a tool used for encrypting files and folders on client computers and remote file servers. It helps
users to protect their data from unauthorized access by other users or external attackers.

Question 456. Give The Full Forms Of Kra And Dra?

Answer :

KRA stands for Key Recovery Agent and DRA stands for Data Recovery Agent.

Question 457. What Is The Use Of Robocopy Utility?

Answer :

The Robocopy utility, added as a new feature in Windows Server 2008, is used to copy EFS-encrypted
files without needing the decryption key.

Question 458. What New Functionalities Are Added To Efs?

Answer :

The new functionality of EFS is the ability to store encryption certificates on smart cards, per-user
encryption of files in the client-side cache, additional Group Policy options, and a new rekeying
wizard.

Question 459. How And When Smart Card Single Sign-on (sso) Is Triggered?

Answer :
Smart card SSO is triggered whenever a user logs on with a smart card in one of the following
conditions:

1. The user does not have a valid EFS encryption key on the computer, and smart cards are required
for EFS by policy settings.
2. The user has a valid EFS encryption key that resides on the smart card, which is used for logon.
When SSO is triggered, EFS caches the Personal Identification Number (PIN) entered by the user at
the time of logon and uses it for EFS operations as well. Therefore, the user does not see any PIN
prompts from EFS during the session.

Question 460. If The Smart Card Used For The Logon Is Removed From The Smart Card
Reader Before Any Encryption Operations Are Performed, Will The User Be Prompted For A
Smart Card And Pin At The First Efs Operation?

Answer :

Yes, if the smart card used for the logon is removed from the smart card reader before any encryption
operations are performed, then SSO gets disabled and the user will be prompted for a smart card and
PIN at the first EFS operation.

Question 461. What Is The Function Of Applocker?

Answer :

AppLocker defines the rules based on file attributes derived from the digital signature. These rules
specify which files are allowed to run. Files that are not included in rules are not allowed to run.

Question 462. What Is The New Feature Of The Smart Cards Used In Windows 2008 R2?

Answer :

The new feature of the smart card in Windows 2008 R2 is the enhanced support for smart card-related
Plug and Play and the Personal Identity Verification (PIV) standard from the National Institute of
Standards and Technology (NIST).

Question 463. What Is The Use Of User Account Control (uac)?

Answer :

UAC helps protect the network by preventing users from running malicious software.

Question 464. What Is Active Directory?

Answer :
Active Directory is a hierarchical structure that stores information about objects on the network. It is a
centralized system that automates network management of data, security, and distributed resources. It
also allows interoperation with other directories.

Question 465. What Is Active Directory Web Services?

Answer :

In Windows Server 2008 R2, Active Directory Web Services is a new service that provides a Web
service interface to Active Directory domains.

Question 466. What Is The Function Of Active Directory Domain Services?

Answer :

Active Directory Domain Services defines the data structure and those services that provide
organization, management, and security of accounts and resources in a Microsoft network.

Question 467. What Is Forest?

Answer :

Forest contains all the domains, sites, and trusts that are part of Active Directory Domain Services. It
also contains a single domain by default, which is called the forest root domain.

Question 468. What Is Domain Controller?

Answer :

Domain controllers are servers that run on a version of the Windows Server operating system and
hosts Active Directory Domain Services.

Question 469. What Is Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (ldap)?

Answer :

LDAP is a protocol that directory clients use to gain access to data, which is held by directory servers.
It supports bind, unbind, read, and modify operations. It is also responsible for packaging and
interpreting LDAP packets over the network.

Question 470. What Is Active Directory Schema?

Answer :

Active Directory schema is the set of attributes and classes that defines the types of objects and
information about the objects stored in Active Directory Domain Services.
Question 471. What Is The Function Of Windows Time Service?

Answer :

Windows Time service automatically synchronizes the local computer's time with other computers on
the network.

Question 472. What Is Security Accounts Manager (sam)?

Answer :

SAM is a database that has information about user accounts and security descriptors for users on the
local computer.

Question 473. What Is Account Management?

Answer :

Account Management includes creating, modifying, and deleting user accounts and detection of
duplicate accounts and Security Identifiers (SIDs).

Question 474. What Is Relative Identifier (rid) Manager Responsible For?

Answer :

RID manager is responsible for providing numbers that are used to create unique SIDs for each
account in a domain.

Question 475. Name The Policy Used To Manage Trust Relationship Between Domains And
Forests?

Answer :

Local Security Authority (LSA) policy is used to manage trust relationship between domains and
forests.

Question 476. What Is The Role Of Netlogon Service?

Answer :

NetLogon service is used to verify NT LAN Manager (NTLM) logon requests, and registers,
authenticates, and locates domain controllers. It manages replication of the user account database to
back up domain controllers running Windows NT 4.0 and earlier.

Question 477. What Is Global Catalog Server?

Answer :

Global catalog is a distributed data repository to facilitate searches and logons in an Active Directory
forest. The global catalog data is automatically built by the Active Directory replication system. The
domain controllers that host the global catalog are called global catalog servers.

Question 478. What Are The Services Hosted On Domain Controllers?

Answer :

The services that are hosted on domain controllers are as follows:

Kerberos Key Distribution Center (KDC),

NetLogon (Netlogon),

Windows Time (W32time),

Intersite Messaging (IsmServ),

File Replication (NTFRS),

Distributed File System (DFS),

SYSVOL share.

Question 479. What Is The Role Of Administrative Templates?

Answer :

Administrative templates (.ADMX files) are registry-based policy settings that are listed under the
Administrative Templates node of both the Computer and User Configuration nodes.

Question 480. List The Logical Elements That Can Be Combined To Define An Active Directory
Topology?

Answer :

The logical elements that can be combined to define an Active Directory topology are as follows:

Forest,

One or more domains,

One or more Active Directory sites.

Question 481. What Is The Role Of Remote Server Administration Tools (rsat)?

Answer :

The following preference items can be managed by using RSAT in Windows Server 2008 R2 and
Windows 7:

Power Plan,

Scheduled Task,

Immediate Task,

Internet Explorer 8.

Question 482. What Is The Difference Between Local User Account And Domain User Account?

Answer :

In the local user account, users log on to the computer where the account is located and gain access to
resources on that computer. In the domain user account, users log on to the domain and gain access to
resources anywhere on the network.

Question 483. What Is Built-in User Account?

Answer :

Windows XP automatically creates built-in accounts, which are of the following two types:

Administrator —Manages overall computer and domain configurations, such as assigning

permissions and rights to user accounts

Guest —Gives access to resources on a computer or a domain

Question 484. Name The Drivers Used For Ipv4 And Ipv6 Protocol Stacks?

Answer :

The tcpip.sys driver is used for the IPv4 protocol stack; whereas, the tcpip6.sys driver is used for the
IPv6 protocol stack.

Question 485. What Is Teredo?

Answer :
Teredo is a tunnelling protocol that grants IPv6 connectivity to the nodes located behind IPv6-unaware
Network Address Translation (NAT) devices. It describes a way of encapsulating IPv6 packets within
the IPv4 UDP datagrams that can be routed through NAT devices on the IPv4-based Internet.

Question 486. What Is The Structure Of Teredo Ipv6 Addressing?

Answer :

The structure of Teredo IPv6 addressing is as follows:

First 32 bits, that is 0 to 31, are set to the Teredo prefix (normally 2001:0000::/32).

Bits 32 to 63 embed the primary IPv4 address of the Teredo server being used.

Bits 64 to 79 can be used to.define flags.

Bits 80 to 95 contain the obfuscated UDP port number, which is mapped by the NAT devices to the
Teredo client with all the bits inverted.

Bits 96 to 127 contain the obfuscated IPv4 address. This is the public IPv4 address of the NAT
devices with all the bits inverted.

Question 487. What Is Ipv6 Address?

Answer :

IPv6 address is assigned to a network interface of a computer participating in a network using the IP
suite. It is 128 bits long hexadecimal number.

Question 488. What Is Loophack Address For Ipv4 And Ipv6?

Answer :

The loopback address for IPv4 Is 127.0.0.1; whereas, the loopback address for IPv6 is
0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001. The IPv6 loopback address is often expressed as ::1.

Question 489. Do You Need Subnet Mask In Ipv6?

Answer :

IPv6 uses subnets, but the subnet Identifier (ID) is built into the address. First 48 characters of the
address are the network prefix, next 16 characters (which are often all zeros) are the subnet ID, and the
last 64 characters are the interface identifier.

Question 490. How Do You Represent The Sequential Zeros In Ipv6?

Answer :

There are four sequential sections separated by zeros in IPv6. Instead of suppressing the leading zeros,
you can represent all the sequential zeros and replace them with two colons. The two colons inform
the operating system that everything in between them is a zero.

Question 491. Is Domain Name System (dns) Used In Ipv6?

Answer :

Yes, DNS is used in IPv6; instead of Host (A) records, IPv6 uses AAAA resource records, which are
sometimes referred to as Quad A records.

Question 492. Which Domain Is Used For Reverse Hostname Resolution In Ipv6?

Answer :

The ip6.arpa domain is used for reverse hostname resolution.

Question 493. How Do You Make Ipv6 Compatible With Ipv4 Networks?

Answer :

Transition technologies use tunneling to facilitate cross network compatibility. Two such technologies
are Teredo and 6to4 that encapsulate IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets. The tunnel endpoints are
required on both ends to encapsulate and extract the IPv6 packets.

Question 494. What Is Role Special Domain For Ipv6 Address Translation In Microsoft?

Answer :

Microsoft has established a special domain for IPv6 address translation. You can include an IPv6
address within a Universal Naming Convention by replacing the colons with dashes and
appending .ipv6.literal.net to the end of the address; for example, FE80-AB00-200D-
617B.ipv6.literal.net.

Question 495. Which Command Is Used To Check The Ipv6 Address?

Answer :

The ipconfig command is used to check the IPv6 address. You can also use the netsh interface ipv6
show address command to view the IPv6 addresses.

Question 496. What Is Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (dhcp)?

Answer :
DHCP is an Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standard for simplifying management of host IP
configuration. The DHCP servers manage dynamic allocation of IP addresses and other related
configuration details for DHCP-enabled clients on a network.

Question 497. How Does Microsoft Windows 2008 Support Dhcp?

Answer :

Windows support the following three elements of a DHCP infrastructure:

DHCP Client service - Acts as a DHCP client and automatically obtains an IP address configuration
from a DHCP server

DHCP Server service - Acts as a DHCP server and automatically assigns IP address configurations to
DHCP client computers.

Routing and Remote Access service - Acts as a DHCP relay agent, listens for broadcast and unicast
DHCP messages, and relays them between DHCP servers and clients

Question 498. Does The Windows Server 2008 Dhcp Server Service Support Bootp?

Answer :

Yes, the DHCP Server service in Windows Server 2008 supports BOOTP clients through the
configuration of a BOOTP table.

Question 499. What Is Dhcp For Ipv6?

Answer :

DHCPv6 is DHCP for IPv6 networks. The DHCP Server service supports both DHCPv6 stateless and
stateful operations.

Question 500. How Does Dhcp Work?

Answer :

When DHCP clients start up on a network, they discover the DHCP servers on the network and
request IP configuration information. The DHCP servers respond with an offered IP address
configuration. The DHCP client requests the use of a specific IP address configuration from among
those offered, which is acknowledged by the DHCP server that offered it. The DHCP server allocates
an IP address configuration for a specific amount of time known as the lease time; whereas, the DHCP
client must renew the lease time of its IP address configuration on regular basis.

Question 501. What Protocols And Ports Are Used By Dhcp Traffic?
Answer :

DHCP traffic uses the UDP protocol.

Messages from the DHCP client to the DHCP server use UDP source port 68 and UDP destination
port 67.

Messages from the DHCP server to the DHCP client use UDP source port 67 and UDP destination
port 68.

Question 502. List The Different Kinds Of Dhcp Messages?

Answer :

The following messages are used to communicate during the DHCP configuration process:

DHCPDiscover.

DHCPOffer.

DHCPRequest.

DHCPAck.

DHCPNak.

DHCPDecline.

DHCPRelease.

DHCPInform.

Question 503. How Does The Dhcp Server Determine The Originating Subnet Of The Dhcp
Client?

Answer :

DHCP servers store ranges of addresses that can be assigned to hosts on individual subnets. When a
DHCP client starts up and if the DHCP client is on the same subnet as the DHCP server, the DHCP
server can identify the subnet from the interface on which the DHCP messages from the client were
received.

When the DHCP client is on different subnet as that of DHCP server, a DHCP relay agent on the
DHCP client's subnet records the IP address of the interface on which the DHCP message from the
DHCP client was received before forwarding the message to the DHCP server.
Question 504. How Is The Dhcp Server Service Integrated With Active Directory?

Answer :

The DHCP Server service is integrated with Active Directory to provide authorization for DHCP
servers. A DHCP server, which is a domain controller or a member of an Active Directory domain,
queries Active Directory for the list of authorized servers. If its own IP address is not in the list of
authorized DHCP servers, the DHCP Server service does not complete its start up sequence and
automatically shuts down.

For a DHCP server, which is not a member of the Active Directory domain, the DHCP Server service
sends a DHCPInform message. The other DHCP servers on the network respond with a DHCPAck
message, which contains information that the querying DHCP server uses to locate the Active
Directory root domain. The starting DHCP server then queries Active Directory for a list of authorized
DHCP servers and starts the DHCP Server service only if its own address is in the list.

Question 505. How Does The Authorization Process Work For Dhcp Server Computers?

Answer :

The authorization process for DHCP server computers depends on the installed role of the server on
your network. There are following three roles or server types for which each server computer can be
installed:

Domain controller.

Member server.

Stand-alone server.

Question 506. How Does Remote Access Client Uses Dhcp To Obtain An Ip Address
Configuration?

Answer :

The remote access clients use the Internet Protocol Control Protocol (IPCP) to obtain an IP address
configuration.

Question 507. What Is The Use Of Stateless Address Autoconfiguration?

Answer :

Stateless Address Autoconfiguration is used to configure the link-local addresses and additional non-
link-local addresses by exchanging Router Solicitation and Router Advertisement messages with
neighbouring routers.
Question 508. What Is The Use Of Stateful Address Autoconfiguration?

Answer :

Stateful Address Autoconfiguration is used to configure non- link-local addresses by using DHCP.

Question 509. List The Different Types Of Dhcpv6 Messages?

Answer :

The different types of DHCPv6 messages are as follows:

Solicit.

Advertise.

Request.

Confirm.

Renew .

Rebind.

Reply.

Release.

Decline.

Reconfigure.

Information-Request.

Relay-Forward.

Relay-Reply.

Question 510. What Are The Tools Used For Troubleshooting Dhcp?

Answer :

The following tools are used for troubleshooting DHCP servers:

DHCP console.
Event Viewer.

Network Monitor.

System Monitor counters.

Question 511. What Are The Enhanced Web Security Features With Iis 7.0?

Answer :

IIS 7.0 takes the security of a Web server to a level where administrators have absolute control over
which IIS 7.0 components install allowing them to minimize Web server attack surface. The integrated
processing allows form-based authentication to protect all types of content. The built-in request
filtering and support for rules-based URL authorization offers additional layers of security.

Question 512. Explain The Iis 7.0's New Architecture?

Answer :

IIS 7.0 has integrated .NET extensibility that provides ultimate flexibility in extending and
customizing the Web server. It comes with more than forty modules that make up the IIS 7.0 feature
set. You can add, remove, or replace any of these modules because IIS 7.0 was built on public Win32
and .NET extensibility APIs.

Question 513. Why Web Administration Has Become Easier?

Answer :

IIS 7.0 delivers a comprehensive set of administration tools, including a brand new administration
graphical user interface, a new command line tool, and new managed code and scripting Application
Programming Interfaces (APIs) to simplify day-to-day tasks for developers and administrators.

Question 514. List The Different Types Of Authentications In Iis?

Answer :

Following types of authentications are available in IIS:

Anonymous (enabled by default).

Basic.

Digest.

Integrated Windows authentication (enabled by default).

Client certificate mapping.

Question 515. What Is The Use Of Windows Powershell Provider For Iis 7.0?

Answer :

Windows PowerShell Provider for IIS 7.0 allows Web administrators and hosting providers to easily
automate routine and complex IIS 7.0 administration tasks, such as creating websites and managing
configuration and runtime data.

Question 516. What Is The Use Of Appcmd.exe Tool?

Answer :

The Appcmd.exe tool is used for administering the server to read and write configure values, and
access sites and application pool state information from the command prompt.

Question 517. What Is Windows Management Instrumentation (wmi) Provider?

Answer :

WMI provider provides access to configuration and server state information to the VBScipt and
JScript writers. With WMI provider, administrators can easily automate the basic configuration tasks,
such as managing websites and applications.

Question 518. What Are The Two Main Layers Of Iis Architecture?

Answer :

Following are the two layers of IIS architecture:

1. Kernel mode, which includes HTTP.sys.
2. User mode, which includes Web Admin Service, Virtual Directory, and Application Pool.

Question 519. What Is Iis Server Web Farm?

Answer :

After developing an ASP.NET Web application, the application is hosted on IIS server. Small websites
can be hosted on one standalone server; however, websites for big organizations, where there can be
millions of daily user hits, are hosted on multiple servers. This is called Web farms where single
website is hosted on multiple IIS servers and they run behind the Load Balancer.

Question 520. What Is The Role Of Http.sys?

Answer :
HTTP.sys listens for HTTP requests from the network, passes the requests onto IIS for processing, and
then returns processed responses to client browsers.

Question 521. At What Level The Procedure For Configuring Logging Can Be Performed?

Answer :

The procedure for configuring logging can be performed at the following levels in IIS:

Web Server.

Site.

Application.

Physical and virtual directories.

File (URL).

Question 522. What Is Directaccess?

Answer :

With DirectAccess, mobile users are able to access corporate resources, such as e-mail servers, shared
folders, or Intranet websites anytime when they have an Internet connection.

Question 523. What Is The Function Of Unified Access Gateway (uag)?

Answer :

Forefront UAG 2010 delivers comprehensive and secure remote access to corporate resources for
employees, partners, and vendors on mobile devices.

Question 524. What Is The Benefit Of Uag?

Answer :

UAG inflict granular access controls and policies to deliver comprehensive remote access, ensure
security, and reduce management costs and complexities.

Question 525. What Is Remote Desktop?

Answer :

Remote Desktop allows the graphical interface of a remote Windows system to be displayed over a
network onto a local system.
Question 526. Where Is Cisco Internetwork Operating System (ios) Stored?

Answer :

Cisco IOS is stored in flash memory.

Question 527. What Is The Major Release Number In 12.4(24)t ?

Answer :

The major release number in 12.4(24)T is 12.

Question 528. What Does T Stands For In 12.4(24)t?

Answer :

T stands for the Technology train.

Question 529. What Is The Release Number In 12.4(24)t?

Answer :

The release number in 12.4(24)T is 24.

Question 530. What Are The Three Versions Of Ios?

Answer :

The three versions of IOS are as follows:

Rebuilds.

Interim Releases.

Maintenance Releases.

Question 531. What Does The Cisco Ios Software Image Name Represents?

Answer :

The hardware, feature set, format, and other information about the image file is represented in the
Cisco IOS Software image name.

Question 532. What Is The Hardware In Image C3825-entbasek9-mz,124- 22.t.bin?

Answer :
The hardware is 3825 router.

Question 533. What Is The Train Number In Image C3825-entbasek9- Mz.l24-22.t.bin?

Answer :

The train number is 124.

Question 534. What Is The Maintenance Release In Image C3825- Entbasek9-mz.l24-22-t.bin?

Answer :

The maintenance release is 22.

Question 535. What Is The Meaning Of Entbasek9 In Image C3825- Entbasek9-mz.l24-22.t.bin?

Answer :

The meaning of entbasek9 is that the image is Enterprise Base with the Crypto feature set.

Question 536. What Does Mz Signifies?

Answer :

The mz indicates that the memory location is flash memory.

Question 537. Name The Router Ios Packages?

Answer :

The router IOS packages are as follows:

IP Base.

Enterprise Base.

IP Voice.

Advanced Security.

SP Services.

Question 538. Name The Premium Ios Packages.

Answer :
The premium IOS packages are as follows:

Advanced IP Services

Enterprise Services

SP Services

Question 539. Name The Ios Packages For Switches.

Answer :

The IOS packages for switches are as follows:

Layer 2 Base

LAN Base

IP Base

IP Services

Advanced IP Services

Enterprise Services

Advanced Enterprise Services

Question 540. Which Tool Is Used To Quickly Match Cisco Ios Software Releases To Features
To Hardware?

Answer :

The tool used to match Cisco IOS Software releases to features to hardware is Cisco Feature Navigator.

Question 541. Which Command Is Used To Show Ios File And Flash Space?

Answer :

The show flash command is used to show IOS file and flash space.

Question 542. In Which Three Ways You Can Connect To A Router?

Answer :
You can connect to a router using one of the following three ways:
1. Console port
2. Auxiliary port
3. One of the Ethernet ports

Question 543. What Are The Different Ios Trains That Are Made Available By Cisco?

Answer :

The trains are used to map distinct markets or groups of customers that Cisco is targeting. The
different IOS trains are as follows:
1. The mainline train is designed to be the most stable release.
2. The T - Technology train gets new features and bug fixes throughout its life, and is less stable than
the mainline train. Cisco does not recommend this train for production environment.
3. The S - Service Provider train is customized for the Service Provider customers.
4. The E - Enterprise train is customized for implementation in enterprise environments.
5. The B - broadband train supports Internet-based broadband features.

Question 544. If The Command Prompt Shows, Router>, Then In What Mode The Router Is?

Answer :

If the command prompt shows, router>, then the router is in the user EXEC mode.

Question 545. If The Command Prompt Shows, Router#, Then In What Mode The Router Is?

Answer :

If the command prompt shows, router#, then the router is - the privileged EXEC mode.

Question 546. If The Command Prompt Shows, Router(config)#, Then In What Mode The
Router Is?

Answer :

If the command prompt shows, router(config)#, then the router is in the configuration mode.

Question 547. Where Is Start Up Diagnostic Code For Cisco Ios Stored?

Answer :

The start up diagnostic code for Cisco IOS is stored in Cisco Boot ROM.

Question 548. If The Setting Of Configuration Register Is 0x2102, Then Where Is Ios File Stored?

Answer :
The IOS file is stored in flash memory if the setting of configuration register is 0x2102.

Question 549. What Different Lan Interfaces Are Available On Router?

Answer :

The LAN interfaces on router are Ethernet port and fast Ethernet port.

Question 550. What Different Wan Interfaces Are Available On Router?

Answer :

The WAN interfaces on router are Serial, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), and Frame
Relay.

Question 551. Which Command Is Used To Take Back Up Of Startup Configuration To Tftp
Server?

Answer :

The command to take back up of startup configuration to TFTP server is Router#copystartup-

configtftp.

Question 552. Which Command Is Used To Restore The Startup Configuration From Tftp
Server?

Answer :

The command to restore the startup configuration from TFTP server is Router#copytftp: startup-config.

Question 553. Which Two Commands Are Used To Show The Cisco Ios File Name?

Answer :

The following two commands are used to show the Cisco IOS file name:

Show version

Show flash

Question 554. Where Is The Startup Configuration File Stored?

Answer :

The startup configuration file is stored in Nonvolatile Random-Access Memory (NVRAM).

Question 555. What Is The Role Of Ios On A Cisco Device?

Answer :

IOS is an operating system that manages all the functions of routers and switches, and runs on Cisco
routers and Cisco switches only.

Question 556. What Is Open Systems Interconnection (osi) Reference Model?

Answer :

OSI is a layered model with seven layers, where each layer specifies specific network functions.

Question 557. Name The Seven Layers Of Osi Model.

Answer :

The seven layers of OSI model are physical layer, data link layer, network layer, transport layer,
session layer, application layer, and presentation layer.

Question 558. Name The Three Layers Of Cisco Three-layer Hierarchical Model.

Answer :

The three layers of Cisco Three-Layer Hierarchical Model are core layer, distribution layer, and local
access layer.

Question 559. What Is The Main Function Of Core Layer?

Answer :

The main function of the core layer is to provide fault isolation and backbone connectivity.

Question 560. What Is The Main Function Of Distribution Layer?

Answer :

The main functions of the distribution layer are as follows:

Provides routing, filtering, and WAN access

Determines how packets can access the core

Question 561. At What Layer Does Hubs, Repeaters, Network Adapters Work?

Answer :
The hubs, repeaters, and network adapters work at the physical layer of the OSI Reference Model.

Question 562. At What Layer Does Bridges And Switches Work?

Answer :

The bridges and switches work at the data link layer, that is, Layer 2 of the OSI Reference Model.

Question 563. At What Layer Does Router Work?

Answer :

The router works at the network layer of the OSI model.

Question 564. What Is The Role Of Transport Layer?

Answer :

The transport layer ensures the reliable delivery of the complete file or message.

Question 565. What Is Tcp/ip Model?

Answer :

The TCP/IP model describes a set of guidelines and implementation of specific networking protocols
to enable computers to communicate over a network. It has four layers: network, Internet, transport,
and application.

Question 566. At Which Layer Of The Osi Model Bits Are Packaged Into Frames?

Answer :

Bits are packaged into frames at the data link layer of the OSI model.

Question 567. Name The Layers Of The Osi Model From The Top-to-down Manner.

Answer :

Application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical.

Question 568. At Which Layer Does Musical Instrument Digital Interface (midi) And Joint
Photographic Experts Group (jpeg) Work?

Answer :

MIDI and JPEG work at the presentation layer.

Question 569. At Which Layer Does Transmission Control Protocol (tcp) And User Datagram
Protocol (udp) Work?

Answer :

TCP and UDP work at the transport layer.

Question 570. At Which Layer Does Flow Control Takes Place?

Answer :

Flow control takes place at the transport layer.

Question 571. At Which Layer Does Encryption Takes Place?

Answer :

Encryption takes place at the presentation layer.

Question 572. Which Address Is Used By The Network Layer To Route The Data?

Answer :

The network layer uses the logical address to route the data.

Question 573. At Which Layer Does Error Detection And Recovery Take Place?

Answer :

Error detection and recovery take place at the transport layer.

Question 574. Which Layer Establishes, Maintains, And Terminates Communications Between
Applications Located On Different Devices?

Answer :

The session layer establishes, maintains, and terminates communications between applications located
on different devices.

Question 575. At Which Layer Internet Protocol (ip) Is Implemented?

Answer :

At the network layer the IP is implemented.

Question 576. What Is The Difference Between Media Access Control (mac) Sub Layer And
Logical Link Control (llc) Sub Layer?

Answer :

The data link layer has two sub layers: MAC and LLC. The MAC sub layer defines how to transmit
data on the physical layer; whereas, the LLC sub layer logically identifies different protocols and
encapsulates them.

Question 577. Which Layer Handles The Formatting Of Application Data So That It Will Be
Readable By The Destination System?

Answer :

The formatting of application data takes place at the presentation layer.

Question 578. At Which Layer The Packets Are Formed?

Answer :

The packets are formed at the network layer from the frames.

Question 579. At Which Layer The Mac Address Is Translated Into Logical Address?

Answer :

The MAC address is translated into logical address at the network layer.

Question 580. Which Layer Handles Bit Synchronization?

Answer :

Bit synchronization is handled at the physical layer.

Question 581. At Which Layer Packet Sequencing, Acknowledgments, And Requests For
Retransmission Take Place?

Answer :

The packet sequencing, acknowledgments, and requests for retransmission take place at the transport
layer.

Question 582. Why Do We Use Routers?

Answer :
Routers are used to communicate between several networks.

Question 583. What Is The Difference Between Tcp And Udp?

Answer :

TCP is a connection-oriented protocol; whereas, UDP is a connection-less protocol.

Question 584. What Is Address Resolution Protocol (arp)?

Answer :

ARP is a protocol which maps an IP address to a physical machine address that is recognized in the
local network.

Question 585. Give Examples Of Application Layer Protocols.

Answer :

The examples of application layer protocols are SIP, SSI, DNS, FTP, Gopher, HTTP, DHCP, SMTP,
SNMP, Telnet, RIP, and BGP.

Question 586. At Which Layer Does Point-to-point (ppp), Serial Line Internet Protocol (slip),
Point-to-point Tunneling Protocol (pptp), Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (l2tp) Protocols Work?

Answer :

PPP, SLIP, PPTP, L2TP work at the data link layer.

Question 587. What Is The Difference Between A Bridge And A Switch?

Answer :

Question 588. Why Is Switching Implementation Preferred Over Bridging?

Answer :

Switching implementations are preferred over bridging because of superior throughput performance,
higher port density, lower per-port cost, and greater flexibility.

Question 589. What Is A Switch?

Answer :

Switch is a device that enables multiple physical LAN segments to be interconnected into a single
larger network. Switches work at the data link layer of the OSI model.

Question 590. Which Technology Is Used By Switches To Build And Maintain Their Filter Table?

Answer :

The Application Specific Integrated Circuits (ASICs) technology is used by switches to build and
maintain their filter table.

Question 591. Give Some Examples Of Packet Switching Technology.

Answer :

Following are the examples of packet switching technology:

Link Access Procedure

Balanced (LAPB)

Frame Relay

Switched Multimegabit Data Service (SMDS)

X.25

Question 592. Which Table Is Used By Switches To Determine The Segment On Which A
Datagram Needs To Be Transmitted?

Answer :

Switches uses MAC address table to determine the segment on which a datagram needs to be
transmitted.

Question 593. Why Layer 2 Switches Cannot Replace The Routers?

Answer :
Layer 2 switches cannot break the broadcast domain and this causes the performance issues and limits
the size of the network. In addition, switches broadcast and multicast, beside the slow convergence of
spanning tree, which can cause major problems as the network grows.

Question 594. What Is Switching?

Answer :

Switching is the process of taking an incoming frame from one interface and sending the frame out
through another interface.

Question 595. What Is The Difference Between Layer 2 And Layer 3 Switching?

Answer :

Question 596. What Are The Functions Of Layer 2 Switching?

Answer :

The three functions of Layer 2 switching are as follows:

1. Address learning
2. Forward/Filter decision
3. Loop avoidance

Question 597. What Is Spanning Tree Protocol (stp)?

Answer :

STP is a link management protocol that works on Layer 2 and provides path redundancy while
preventing undesirable loops in the network.

Question 598. How Does Spanning Tree Works?

Answer :
Spanning tree uses spanning tree algorithm to find redundant links in the LAN by selecting the best
paths. It puts all the links in either forwarding or blocking state. The links without a redundant link and
the best links with a redundant link would be in the forwarding state. The redundant links that were not
as good as the selected links would be in the blocking state.

Question 599. What Is A Root Bridge?

Answer :

The root bridge is the bridge with the smallest (or lowest) bridge ID in a spanning tree. Each bridge
has a unique ID and a configurable priority number. The bridge ID contains both the numbers.

Question 600. List The Different States Of Spanning Tree Port.

Answer :

The states of spanning tree port are blocking, listening, learning, forwarding, and disabled.

Question 601. Name The Lan Switch Types.

Answer :

The LAN switch types are cut-through, fragment free, and store and forward.

Question 602. What Is Cut-through (real Time) Mode?

Answer :

In the cut-through mode, the switch waits till the destination hardware address is received and verified
with the MAC filter table, before forwarding the frame to the destined interface.

Question 603. What Is Store And Forward Mode?

Answer :

In the store and forward mode, the switch waits till the entire data frame is received, before forwarding
the frame to the destined interface.

Question 604. How Is Interface Represented?

Answer :

The Interface is represented by slot_#/port_#;

for example, FastEthernet 0/1, where 0 is slot_# and 1 is port_#.

Question 605. What Is Collision Domain?

Answer :

A collision domain is that part of the network where each station can view other station's traffic, which
can be both unicast and broadcast.

Question 606. What Is The Role Of Cyclic Redundancy Check (crc)?

Answer :

CRC is an error checking algorithm that detects errors during data transmission.

Question 607. What Do You Understand By Csma/cd?

Answer :

CSMA/CD stands for Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection. It is used to improve
CSMA performance by terminating transmission as soon as a collision is detected.

Question 608. What Is The Difference Between Broadcast Domain And Collision Domain?

Answer :

broadcast domain is a logical network segment in which all nodes can reach to each other by broadcast
at the data link layer. It can be within the same LAN segment or it can be bridged to other LAN
segments.

A collision domain is a physical network segment in which data packets can collide with one another
when being sent on a shared medium, while using the Ethernet networking protocol. A network
collision occurs when more than one device attempts to send a packet on a network segment at the
same time.

Question 609. What Is Broadcast Storm?

Answer :

Broadcast storm is a state in which a message that has been broadcast across a network results in
greater number of responses, and each response results in still more responses. This situation arises
because one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly; thereby, increasing the traffic. A
severe broadcast storm blocks all other network traffic that can lead to network down situation.
Broadcast storms can be prevented by configuring a network to block illegal broadcast messages.

Question 610. What Is Virtual Local Area Network (vlan)?

Answer :
VLAN is a logical grouping of devices or users grouped by function, department, or application,
regardless of their physical segment location. It can be used to reduce collisions by creating separate
broadcast domains in a switched network.

Question 611. What Is Frame Filtering?

Answer :

Frame filtering is used on a Layer 2 switch to provide more bandwidth. A filtering table is developed
for each switch to share the address table information. A switch reads the destination hardware address
of a frame and then looks for this address in the filter table. It then sends the frame to the port where
the destination hardware address is located, and the other ports do not see the frame.

Question 612. What Is Frame Tagging?

Answer :

In frame tagging, each frame is assigned a unique VLAN ID. In other words, the primary function of
frame tagging is to tag a frame with a user-defined VLAN ID. The ID is recognized and examined by
each switch prior to any broadcast to other switches, routers, or end devices. When the frame exits the
network, the switch removes the ID before the frame is transmitted to the target end device.

Question 613. What Are The Different Types Of Vlan Implementation Methods?

Answer :

The different types of VLAN implementation methods are as follows:

a. Port-centric
b. Static
c. Dynamic

Question 614. What Is Vlan Trunking Protocol (vtp)?

Answer :

VTP is a Cisco proprietary Layer 2 messaging protocol, and manages addition, deletion, and renaming
of VLANs. It reduces administration in a switched network.

Question 615. What Is Dynamic Trunking Protocol (dtp)?

Answer :

DTP is a protocol used for the purpose of negotiating trunking on a link between two VLAN-aware
switches. It also negotiates the type of trunking encapsulation to be used.
Question 616. Can You Configure Existing Hubs In A Company As Part Of The Vlan
Architecture?

Answer :

Yes, existing hubs in a company can be configured as a part of the VLAN architecture. If you want to
reassign individual station to VLAN, the station must be relocated to the corresponding hub because a
hub segment connected to a switch port can be assigned to only one VLAN. Hubs can be broken down
into smaller groups to provide greater micro segmentation and VLAN flexibility for assigning
individual users to VLAN groups.

Question 617. Give The Full Forms Of Tcp, Udp, Ip, And Icmp.

Answer :

TCP stands for Transmission Control Protocol

UDP stands for User Datagram Protocol

IP stands for Internet Protocol

ICMP stands for Internet Control Message Protocol.

Question 618. Is Icmp A Layer 2 Or Layer 3 Protocol?

Answer :

ICMP is a Layer 3 protocol because it controls and manages Internet Protocol.

Question 619. Which Layer Of The Osi Model Does Ip, Tcp, And Udp Work On?

Answer :

IP works on the network layer; whereas, TCP and UDP work on the transport layer.

Question 620. What Is The Full Form Of Ftp And Tftp? At Which Layer Do They Work On?

Answer :

FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol and works at the application layer; whereas, TFTP stands for
Trivial File Transfer Protocol and works at the application layer.

Question 621. How Many Tcp Segments Are Exchanged To Establish And Terminate Tcp
Connection?

Answer :
A three-way connection is required to establish the connection and a four-way connection is required
to terminate the TCP connection.

Question 622. What Is The Purpose Of Trace Command?

Answer :

The trace command is used to check the current route to the destination address.

Question 623. Name The Parts Of Ip Address.

Answer :

There are three parts of IPv4 address: network, subnet, and host.

Question 624. What Is Subnet Mask?

Answer :

Subnet mask is a method of dividing a network of IP addresses into groups and is a 32-bit decimal-
based number used for determining which part of the IP address is used for the host and which part is
used by the network.

Question 625. Which Command Is Used To Find The Subnet Mask?

Answer :

The command to check the subnet mask is ipconfig.

Question 626. What Is Network Address Translations (nat)?

Answer :

NAT enables multiple hosts on a private network to access the Internet using a single public IP address.

Question 627. List The Examples Of Private Ip Addresses.

Answer :

The examples of private IP addresses are as follows:

10.0.0.0 ... 10.255.255.255

172.16.0.0 ... 172.31.255.255

192.168.0.0 ... 192.168.255.255

Question 628. What Is The Difference Between Bit Rate And Baud Rate?

Answer :

Bit rate is the number of bits transmitted in one second; whereas, baud rate is the number of signal
units transmitted per second that represent those bits.
Mathematically, baud rate = bit rate / N, where N is the number of bits represented by each signal shift.

Question 629. What Is The Difference Between Interior And Exterior Gateways?

Answer :

Interior gateways connect organization's LAN; whereas, exterior gateways connect the organization to
the outside world.

Question 630. What Is The Difference Between Bit And Byte?

Answer :

A bit is a single numeric value that encodes a single unit of digital information. It can be either 1 or 0.
A sequence of eight bits forms one byte.

Question 631. What Is Routing?

Answer :

Routing is a process of transferring a packet from source to destination.

Question 632. What Is The Role Of Arp?

Answer :

ARP determines which MAC address gets packets for a given IP address.

Question 633. What Is The Difference Between Static And Dynamic Routing?

Answer :

In the static routing, the routes are manually added to the routing table; whereas, in the dynamic
routing, the routes are dynamically added to the routing table with the changes in network topology.

Question 634. When Do You Get The Request Timed Out Error?

Answer :

You get the request timed out error when the packet is lost on the way back to the originating host
Question 635. When Do You Get The Destination Unreachable Error?

Answer :

The destination unreachable error occurs when a router cannot forward the packets because the
destination is unreachable or a service is unavailable.

Question 636. What Is Administrative Distance?

Answer :

Administrative Distance is a method of selecting the best path when there are different routes to the
same destination from two different routing protocols. For example, Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
route with an Administrative Distance of 110 will be chosen over a Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
route with an Administrative Distance of 120.

Question 637. How Does Router Share Information In Distance Vector Routing?

Answer :

In the Distance Vector routing, also known as Bellman-Ford algorithms, the router requests its
neighbouring router to send all or some portion of its routing table, which then combines the received
entries with its own tables to complete the router's routing table.

Question 638. What Is A Hop Count? What Is The Maximum Hop Count For Rip?

Answer :

Hop count is the distance between the source network and the destination network. The maximum hop
count for RIP is 15.

Question 639. Explain Split Horizon.

Answer :

Split horizon is a solution to routing loop, where the routing information cannot be sent back in the
same direction it came from.

Question 640. Explain Route Poisoning.

Answer :

The route poisoning is another solution to routing loops, where a router learns about a bad route,
which has an infinite (oo) route metric. The router informs other routers that a particular route is no
longer reachable and should be removed from their routing tables.
Question 641. Explain Holddown Timer.

Answer :

When a router detects that a network is unreachable and unstable, the holddown timer prevents a
router from receiving the route until the network appears to be stable, that is, until either an interface
stops changing state (flapping) or a better route is learned.

Question 642. What Are The Timers Of Rip, Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (igrp),
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (eigrp), And Ospf Routing Protocols?

Answer :

The timers for routing protocols are as follows:

RIP - 30 seconds

IGRP- 90 seconds

EIGRP- 2 seconds

OSPF-10 seconds

Question 643. What Are The Default Administrative Distances Of Rip, Igrp, Eigrp, And Ospf
Routing Protocols?

Answer :

The default Administrative Distances for the routing protocols are given as follows:

RIP-120

IGRP- 100

EIGRP- 90

OSPF- 110

Question 644. What Is Black Hole?

Answer :

Black hole occurs when a source is not informed that a packet did not reach the destination and the
packet is silently dropped from the network.

Question 645. What Is The Difference Between Ripv1 And Ripv2?

Answer :

RIPv1 uses broadcast and does not support Variable Length Subnet Mask (VLSM); whereas, RIPv2
uses multicast and supports VLSM.

Question 646. What Packet Formats Are Used In Eigrp?

Answer :

The packet formats used in EIGRP are Hello/Acks, Updates, Queries, Replies, and Requests.

Question 647. What Does Ripv2 Uses To Prevent Routing Loops?

Answer :

RIPv2 uses split horizons, route poisoning, and holddown timers to prevent routing loops.

Question 648. When You Use The Debug Ip Rip Command And Get A Metric16, What Does It
Mean?

Answer :

The metric16 equals 16 hops on RIP, which implies that the router is inaccessible, as the maximum
permissible hop for RIP is 15.

Question 649. What Are The Parameters Used By Igrp For Finding The Best Path?

Answer :

The bandwidth and delay of line parameters are used by IGRP to find the best path.

Question 650. Which Route Will The Router Choose By Default When The Table Has Static,
Rip, And Igrp Route?

Answer :

The router will choose the static route by default as it has least administrative distance of count 1.

Question 651. Which Eigrp Information Is Stored In Ram By Using The Hello And Update
Packets?

Answer :

The neighbour, topology, and routing information are stored in RAM by using the hello and update
packets.
Question 652. What Is The Difference Between Eigrp And Igrp?

Answer :

The difference between EIGRP and IGRP is as follows:

EIGRP is a classless routing protocol; whereas, IGRP is a classful routing protocol

EIGRP consumes much less bandwidth; whereas, IGRP consumes comparatively more bandwidth

EIGRP uses a 32 bit value metric; whereas, IGRP uses a 24 bit value metric

Question 653. What Is The Difference Between Classful And Classless Routing Protocol?

Answer :

The classful routing protocol does not send the subnet mask information with routing updates; whereas,
classless routing protocol sends the subnet mask with the routing updates.

Question 654. Give Some Examples Of Classful And Classless Routing Protocols.

Answer :

Classful routing protocols are RIPv1 and IGRP; whereas, classless routing protocols are RIPv2,
EIGRP, OSPF, and Intermediate System To Intermediate System (IS-IS).

Question 655. Which Protocols Supports Vlsm?

Answer :

The classless routing protocols supports VLSM; for example, RIPv2, EIGRP, OSPF, and IS-IS.

Question 656. When Do You Use Bgp, Igrp, Ospf, And Static Route?

Answer :

BGP is used when there are number of routers in a network, such as in an Internet Service Provider
(ISP) network environment

IGRP is used when the network is small, such as in a small company

OSPF is used when there are many departments in a company that need to communicate with each
other

Static route is used for small office or home office environment.

Question 657. Explain Isdn.

Answer :

ISDN is a digital telephony and data-transport service offered by telephone carriers.

Question 658. What Types Of Services Are Associated With Isdn?

Answer :

Basic Rate Interface (BRI) and Primary Rate Interface (PRI) are the two services associated with
ISDN.

Question 659. Explain The Bri Service.

Answer :

The BRI service works with two B-channels and one D- channel (2B+D).

The BRI B-channel service carries user data and operates at 64 kbps.

The BRI D-channel service operates at 16 kbps and carries control and signalling information.

Question 660. Explain Pri Service.

Answer :

The PRI service operates at 23 B-channels and one D-channel in North America and Japan. In Europe,
Australia, and other parts of the world, ISDN PRI services provide 30 B-channels plus one D-channel
at 64 kbps.

Question 661. What Is The Basic Unit Of T-carrier System?

Answer :

The basic unit of T-carrier system is DSO with transmission rate of 64 kbits/sec used for one voice
circuit.

Question 662. What Is T1?

Answer :

T1 is a line from Telecommunication Company with a data transmission rate of 1.544 Mbps.

Question 663. What Is E1?

Answer :

E1 is a line from Telecommunication Company with a data transmission rate of 2.048 Mbps. This is
used in most locations outside North America, Japan, and Korea.

Question 664. What Is Four-wire Circuit?

Answer :

A line with four-wires have two twisted-pair wires. Each pair is used to send signals in one direction;
therefore, making it full-duplex.

Question 665. What Is Two-wire Circuit?

Answer :

Lines with two-wires have one twisted-pair wire. The pair is used to send signals in one direction at a
time; therefore, making it half-duplex.

Question 666. How Many B-channels And D-channels Are Available In Bri, Pri(t1), And Pri(e1)?

Answer :

In BRI, two B-channels and one D-channel are available.

In PRI (Tl), 23 B-channels and one D-channel are available.

In PRI (El), 30 B-channels and one D-channel are available.

Question 667. Which Data Link Protocols Are Valid On Isdn B-channel?

Answer :

High-level Data Link Control (HDLC), PPP, and Link Access Procedure Balanced (LAPB) are valid
on ISDN B-channel.

Question 668. Define The Term Pap And Chap.

Answer :

PAP stands for Password Authentication Protocol and sends password as simple Text. CHAP stands
for Channel Handshake Authentication Protocol and uses MD5 hashing to protect the password
contents.

Question 669. What Do Isdn, Bri, Pri Stands For?

Answer :

ISDN stands for Integrated Service Digital Network

BRI stands for Basic Rate Interface

PRI stands for Primary Rate Interface.

Question 670. What Is Multilink Point-to-point Protocol (mlpp)?

Answer :

MLPP is used to treat multiple B-channels as single link. It fragments packets and balances the traffic
by sending different fragments on multiple links.

Question 671. What Is The Use Of Data Service Unit/channel Service Unit (dsu/csu)?

Answer :

DSU/CSU is used as an interface to the telephone company to attach the routers as clock source.

Question 672. What Is Clock Source?

Answer :

A clock source is a device to which other devices when connected, adjust their transmission speed
using synchronous links.

Question 673. On Which Channel Ldap Is Used On Isdn?

Answer :

LDAP is used on the ISDN D-channel. It delivers signals to local ISDN switch.

Question 674. What Is Spid?

Answer :

SPID stands for Service Profile Identifier, and is an ISDN phone number, which is used in signalling.

Question 675. What Eia/tia Standard Interface Are Used For Serial Cable With Cisco Routers?

Answer :

EIA/TIA-232, EIA/TIA-449, and EIA/TIA-530 are the EIA/TIA standard interface used for serial
cable with Cisco routers.
Question 676. What Is A Security Threat?

Answer :

Security threat is a deliberate attempt or an accidental access to private information of a person or

organization by another person or organization.

Question 677. What Is Security Service?

Answer :

A security service is a service that increases the security of data processing system and confidential
information of a person or organization.

Question 678. What Are Different Categories Of Attack?

Answer :

The attack can be categorized as follows:

Interruption

Interception

Modification

Fabrication

Question 679. What Is Passive Attack?

Answer :

A passive attack is one in which the intention of an attacker is to obtain confidential information of
another person or organization. It can be in the form of eavesdropping or monitoring of the
information.

Question 680. What Is Active Attack?

Answer :

An active attack is one in which the intention of an attacker is to modify or temper the confidential
information. It can be in the form of masquerading (pretending to be a different entity), modification
of message, or denial of service.

Question 681. What Is Denial Of Service Attack?

Answer :

The denial of service attack prevents or prohibits the normal use or management of the communication
facility.

Question 682. What Are The Five Ingredients Of Conventional Encryption Scheme?

Answer :

The five ingredients of the conventional encryption scheme are Plaintext, Encryption algorithm, Secret
key, Cipher text, and Decryption algorithm.

Question 683. What Is A Firewall?

Answer :

Firewall is hardware, software, or combination of both that is used to protect the network from
insecure network. It is a part of computer system designed to block unauthorized access while
permitting authorized communications.

Question 684. What Is The Function Of Firewall?

Answer :

A firewall prevents unauthorized traffic in and out of the network by forcing all traffic to pass through
the firewall.

Question 685. What Is Socket?

Answer :

Socket is an interface to Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) used by programs.

It is an endpoint of TCP connection.

Question 686. What Is Proxy Server?

Answer :

A proxy server is a server that mediates IP traffic between private network and Internet. The Internet
servers only see the application gateway IP address because of proxy servers. The proxy server
operates at the application layer.

Question 687. What Is Cryptography?

Answer :
Cryptography is an art of secret writing. It protects data from theft or alteration and can also be used
for user authentication. There are three types of cryptographic schemes: secret key or symmetric
cryptography, public-key or asymmetric cryptography, and hash functions.

Question 688. What Is Encryption?

Answer :

Encryption is an application of cryptography. It is a process of transforming information (or plaintext)

using an algorithm (or cipher) to make it unreadable to anyone except those possessing a key.

Question 689. What Is Digital Signature?

Answer :

Digital signature is an application of public key cryptography used to authenticate the sender of the
message.

Question 690. What Is Digital Certificate?

Answer :

A certificate issued by a third trusted party called certifying authority that contains the name of party
A and its public key.

Question 691. What Is Message Digest?

Answer :

Message digest is a checksum, which is a fingerprint of a document used to verify the integrity of the
document. Message Digest algorithm 5 (MD5) is widely used for calculating the message digest.

Question 692. What Is Ssl Stands For?

Answer :

SSL stands for Secure Socket Layer and uses HTTPS (port 443). It uses cryptography for encryption,
authentication, and message integrity.

Question 693. How Does A Web Server Get The Digital Certificate From A Certifying Authority?

Answer :

A Web server generates a key pair and sends the public key to a certifying authority. The certifying
authority then validates the server and sends the certificate back by e-mail.
Question 694. What Is Cookie?

Answer :

Cookie is a small piece of information that a Web server can store with a Web browser and later read
back from that browser.

Question 695. What Is Pap?

Answer :

PAP stands for Password Authentication Protocol. It is a program that authenticates a user's encrypted
password.

Question 696. What Is Chap?

Answer :

CHAP stands for Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol. It is a program that verifies a user's
clear-text password.

Question 697. What Is Worm?

Answer :

Worm is a program that attacks the flaws in an operating system. It is developed to use the
communication protocols to spread to other machines without human intervention.

Question 698. What Is Trojan Horse?

Answer :

Trojan horse embeds a piece of code in another code. It is used by crackers to gain the root access to
the computer.

Question 699. What Is Virus?

Answer :

Virus is a self propagating malicious executable code which gets copied from one machine to another
with other executable programs.

Question 700. What Is Antivirus?

Answer :
The programs that detect the virus by scanning the files are called antivirus; for example, Norton
Antivirus, McAfee, and Quick Heal.

Question 701. What Is Wildlist?

Answer :

WildList is a list of all viruses maintained by National Computer Security Association (NCSA)
laboratory.

Question 702. What Is Zoo?

Answer :

Zoo is a list of viruses detected outside the laboratory environment.

Question 703. What Is Security Policy?

Answer :

Security policy is a combination of rules and procedures designed to manage the security of
information throughout an organization. The main aim is to phase out the vulnerability to viruses,
hackers, and snoopers.

Question 704. What Is Spamming?

Answer :

Spamming is an act of sending out an e-mail or news message to multiple e-mail addresses
simultaneously.

Question 705. What Is Junk E-mail?

Answer :

Junk e-mail is an unsolicited and unwanted e-mail.

Question 706. How Can You Avoid Spam And Junk E-mails?

Answer :

You can avoid junk or spam e-mail by requesting removal of your e-mail ID and name from the
mailing list, reporting the offender to an Internet service provider (ISP), and using e-mail filter
program.

Question 707. What Is Auto Responder?

Answer :

Auto responder is an e-mail filtering program designed to distribute prewritten reply automatically as
soon as the e-mail from a sender is received.

Question 708. What Is Secure E-mail?

Answer :

Secure e-mail is an encoded e-mail message that can be read only by the intended recipient.

Question 709. What Is Private Key?

Answer :

A private key is a code or password that is never transmitted over network. It is stored in encrypted
form on user's system only.

Question 710. What Is Public Key?

Answer :

A public key is a code or password that is distributed to encrypt the message. It is available from
public key servers.

Question 711. What Is Pretty Good Privacy?

Answer :

Pretty Good Privacy is used to protect e-mail messages through encryption programs. It is used for
signing, encrypting, and decrypting e-mails to increase the security of e-mail communications.

Question 712. What Is Message Application Program Interface (mapi)?

Answer :

MAPI is a program interface by Microsoft that sends e-mail with an attached document from Widows
application.

Question 713. Who Is Isp?

Answer :

ISP is an organization that maintains gateways to Internet and rents access to customers on service
basis.
Question 714. What Is Ncsa?

Answer :

NCSA is an independent organization that certifies antivirus programs.

Question 715. What Is Sniffer?

Answer :

A sniffer is a device or program that looks for raw data on the network.

Question 716. What Is Telnet?

Answer :

Telnet is a program used for remote logon to another computer.

Question 717. What Is Satan?

Answer :

SATAN stands for Security Analysis Tool for Auditing Networks. It searches for all types of
configuration errors that might be used to break into the system.