NEHRU COLLEGE OF AERONAUTICS AND APPLIED SCIENCES

MODULE 14 PROPULSION ANSWER

1 Gas turbines work on the 2
1) Otto cycle
2) Brayton cycle
3) Diesel cycle
2 From where is manifold pressure taken on a supercharged engine? 3
1) Between the carburetor and the supercharger
2) Between the supercharger and the throttle
3) Between the carburetor and the induction ports
3 On a gas turbine engine, what is the fan driven by? 2
1) HP turbine
2) LP turbine
3) IP turbine
4 What is an engine stage? 1
1) One rotor plus one stator
2) One IGV and one rotor
3) One compressor rotor and one nozzle guide vane
5 A twin spool engine has 3
1) One turbine on one shaft
2) Two turbines on one shaft
3) Two turbines on two shafts
6 A free turbine aircraft engine is most likely to be used on a 3
1) High bypass engine
2) A direct coupled engine
3) A helicopter engine
7 Thrust is generated in a turboprop system by 3
1) Moving a small mass of air quickly
2) Moving a large mass of air quickly
3) Moving a large mass of air slowly
8 Power is adjusted in a variable pitch turboprop aircraft by 2
1) Increasing RPM
2) Increasing fuel flow
3) Increasing pitch
9 The majority of power in a free turbine engine is used to 2
1) Drive the gas generator
2) Drive the free turbine
3) Expel gases through the exhaust
10 The total power in a turboprop engine is the 2
1) SHP
2) ESHP
3) BHP
11 An annular combustion chamber consists of 2
1) An air tube and a flame tube
2) An outer skin and an inner and outer flame skin
3) a series of flame tube in an air annulus
12 A full flow oil system has 3
1) A single fixed minimum oil pressure
2) A hot and cold oil pressure limit
3) A variable oil pressure dependent upon throttle setting
13 Thrust in a high bypass fan engine is indicated by 1
1) N1 RPM or EPR
2) N3 RPM or P1/P4 ratio
3) N1 RPM or N3 RPM
14 On a twin spool engine, the HP compressor is driven by 2
1) Ram air over the compressor
2) Early stages of the turbine
3) Later stages of the turbine
15 In a gas turbine if air is tapped from the H.P bleed 1
1) EPR decreases and EGT increases
2) EPR stays constant and EGT decreases
3) EPR increases and EGT decreases
16 A modular constructed gas turbine engine means that 1
1) Its major assemblies can be removed and replaced
2) All engines have a specific component layout
3) The engine is constructed by the vertical assembly technique
17 The purpose of a high bypass ducted fan engine is to 1
1) Improve efficiency
2) Improve thrust
3) Reduce size
18 Power is adjusted in a gas turbine engine by 3
1) Increasing airflow to the combustion chamber
2) Increasing air and fuel flow
3) Increasing fuel flow
19 The EPR reading is taken from a ratio of 1
1) Jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure
2) Compressor delivery pressure to compressor inlet pressure
3) Turbine inlet pressure to compressor delivery pressure
20 The basic gas turbine engine cycle is 1
1) Induction, compression, combustion, expansion, exhausts
2) Induction, compression, expansion, combustion, exhausts
3) Compression, combustion, induction, expansion, exhausts
21 The high bypass duct 3
1) Drives a cabin air compressor
2) Provides engine cooling
3) Improves propulsive efficiency
22 In a ducted fan engine, the fan is driven by the 2
1) Accessory gearbox
2) Turbine
3) Air passing over the compressor
23 Oil systems consists of 2
1) 2 systems
2) 3 systems
3) 4 systems
24 Propelling nozzle provide 3
1) Pressure thrust
2) Velocity thrust
3) Pressure and velocity thrust
25 How are the combustion chambers cooled? 2
1) By L.P compressor air
2) By H.P compressor air
3) By fan pressure air
26 An aircraft flying at 800mph would typically use 1
1) Turbojet
2) Turbofan
3) Turboprop
27 The inlet of a turbo fan is 1
1) Divergent
2) Convergent
3) Convergent-divergent
28 What is the pressure increase over one stage of a centrifugal compressor? 3
1) 0.20902777778
2) 1.2:1
3) 0.33402777778
29 The bleed valve on an engine at start up is 1
1) Open
2) Closed
3) Modulating
30 EPR is measured between inlet and 1
1) Jet pipe
2) Cold and hot exhaust
3) Front of turbine
31 One stage of a turbine is 1
1) Nozzle Guide Vane then turbine blade
2) Turbine blade then Nozzle Guide Vane
3) Inlet Guide Vane then turbine blade
32 The optimum turbine speed is defined as 1
1) The most efficient speed of the turbine
2) 100% rpm of the engine
3) 95 % rpm of the engine
33 A compressor shaft rotates on 2
1) Sintered bearings
2) Ball and roller bearings
3) Plain bearings
34 The fan on a turbofan engine is turned by 2
1) Induction of the air across the fan into the compressor
2) The turbine section
3) The combustion chamber gases
35 A Gas Turbine`s propulsion force is produced by 1
1) Reaction of the rearward moving gasses
2) Impingement of the gasses on the surrounding air
3) Induced airflow into the engine
36 In a single spool gas turbine engine the compressor rev/min is 3
1) More than the turbine speed
2) Less than the turbine speed
3) Equal to the turbine speed
37 In a twin spool engine 2
1) The HP turbine drives both LP and HP compressors
2) The LP turbine drives the LP compressor and the HP turbine drives the HP compressor
3) The HP turbine drives the LP compressor and the LP turbine drives the HP compressor
38 The cycle of a gas turbine engine is 3
1) Completed in one revolution of engine.
2) Completed in two revolution of the engine.
3) Continuous
39 Engines having two independent moving systems are 2
1) Compound engines
2) Twin spool engines
3) Complex engines
40 Compression ratio of compressor of gas turbine Engine is 1
1) Outlet pressure to Inlet pressure.
2) Measured across all rotor stages of compressor
3) Mass of airflow to combustion
41 The HP compressor is powered by 1
1) The first set of turbines
2) The last set of turbines
3) The intermediate compressor
42 Torque is measured in gas turbine engines 2
1) Never
2) Where there is a free turbine providing the power
3) On small pure jet engines
43 Reverse thrust can only be selected when the throttle is 3
1) 75% power position.
2) Open.
3) At the idle stop
44 During normal running conditions 3
1) Combustion is continuously supported by ignition
2) Combustion is intermittently supported by ignition
3) Combustion is self supporting
45 On a gas turbine engine, what is the fan driven by? 2
1) HP turbine
2) LP turbine
3) IP turbine
46 Type of compressors used in Jet Engines 3
1) Centrifugal type turbines and Axial flow compressor
2) Axial flow compressors and centrifugal flow turbines
3) Centrifugal and Axial flow Compressor
47 Charles Law states that 1
1) Volume and temperature are directly proportional
2) Pressure and Temperature are directly proportional
3) Pressure is inversely proportional to Volume
48 Boyles Law states that 3
1) Volume and temperature are directly proportional
2) Pressure and Temperature are directly proportional
3) Volume is inversely proportional to pressure
49 Mark the correct statement for Turboprop engine 1
1) Turboprop engines are efficient at low speeds
2) Turboprop engines are efficient at max speeds
3) Turboprop engines are efficient at high altitude
50 Mark the correct statement for Turbofan engine 3
1) Turbofan engines are efficient at high speeds
2) Turbofan engines are efficient at high altitude
3) Both (1) and (2)
51 At low speeds, the efficiency of Turbojet engines 3
1) More than Piston engine
2) More than Turbofan engine
3) Less than Turbo propeller engine
52 Torque producing engine is 3
1) Turboprop engines
2) Turbo shaft engine
3) Both (1) and (2)
53 Axial flow compressor made from 2
1) Forged Al alloy
2) Stainless steel
3) Cast iron
54 In Turbojet engine, the combustion occurs at constant 2
1) Velocity
2) Pressure
3) Temperature
55 Which type of engine used in Helicopter? 2
1) Turboprop engine
2) Turbo shaft engine
3) Turbofan engine
56 Mark the correct statement 3
1) Centrifugal compressor is high pressure rise per stage
2) Axial flow compressor is heavy then centrifugal compressor of same compression ratio
3) Both (1) and (2)
57 Mark the correct statement for turbo prop engine 1
1) Turboprop engines are efficient at low speeds
2) Turboprop engines are efficient at max speed
3) Turboprop engines are efficient at high altitude
58 Advantage of turbofan engine is 3
1) Weight falls between turbojet and turboprop
2) Ground clearance less than turboprop
3) Both (1) and (2)
59 Turbojet will have 2
1) Small intake air into high emerging exhaust
2) High TSFC
3) High intake into high exhaust than intake air
60 MTCS about the Centrifugal flow compressor 2
1) Conservation of static pressure energy to the kinetic energy
2) Total compressor is shared between rotor and diffuser
3) Diffuser work on air
61 MTCS about the Turbo propeller aircraft 3
1) High propulsive efficiency, shorter take off roll
2) Lifting heavy load off short and medium length runways
3) Both (1) and (2)
62 Mark the correct statement 3
1) Axial flow compressor is heavier than centrifugal
2) Low tolerance to off design condition
3) Both (1) and (2)
63 Mark the correct statement (TURBOPROP) 3
1) High turbo prop more complicated design and heavier weight than turbojet
2) Have low TSFC than turbojet
3) Both (1) and (2)
64 Mark the correct statement 1
1) Centrifugal flow compressor is having high pressure rise per stage
2) Axial flow is lighter than centrifugal as same compressor ratio
3) Both (1) and (2)
65 Axial flow compressor is having 3
1) Low compressor ratio, low efficiency
2) High compressor ratio, low efficiency
3) Low compressor ratio, high efficiency
66 Turboprop engine has 1
1) High thrust at low speed
2) Low thrust at low speed
3) High thrust specific fuel
67 Engine started initially by rotating the 2
1) LP compressor
2) HP compressor
3) Fan
68 Efficiency of the engine is improved by controlling the following: 3
1) Anti-surge bleed valves
2) Variable-stator vanes
3) Both (1) and (2)
69 Efficiency of the engine is improved by controlling the following: 1
1) Anti surge bleed valve
2) Variable rotor blade
3) Both (1) and (2)
70 Centrifugal compressor consists of 1
1) Impeller and diffuser
2) Stator and rotor
3) Rotor and disc
71 Turbo fan engine is compromise between 1
1) Turbo propeller and Turbo jet engine
2) Turbo shaft and Turbo jet engine
3) Reciprocating and Turbo jet engine
72 Turbo Propeller engine is compromise between 3
1) Turbo propeller and Turbo jet engine
2) Turbo shaft and Turbo jet engine
3) Reciprocating and Turbo jet engine
73 The Brayton cycle is. 2
1) The name given to the intermittent cycling of an electrical de-icing system.
2) The continuous combustion cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine.
3) The constant velocity cycle taking place in a gas turbine engine.
74 What is the purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine engine?. 3
1) To convert pressure to velocity.
2) To reduce pressure and increase velocity.
3) To increase pressure and reduce velocity.
75 What is the primary advantage of an axial flow compressor over a centrifugal compressor? 2
1) High frontal area.
2) Greater pressure ratio.
3) Less expensive.
76 Duplex burners have. 1
1) Two calibrated outlets.
2) Variable orifices.
3) A spring.
77 A duplex burner in a gas turbine engine has 2 orifices. 2
1) One for water injection and one for fuel flow.
2) One for low speed conditions the second used for high speed conditions.
3) One for normal flow conditions and 2nd one to increase normal maximum flow.
78 The three main types of turbine blades are. 3
1) Impulse, vector, and impulse-vector.
2) Reaction, converging, and diverging.
3) Impulse, reaction, and impulse-reaction.
79 A purpose of the shrouds on the turbine blades of an axial flow engine is to. 3
1) Reduce air entrance.
2) Increase tip speed.
3) Reduce vibration.
80 Why Nozzle guide vanes are fitted in turbine engine? 3
1) Pressure increase, velocity decrease.
2) Pressure increase, velocity increase.
3) Pressure decrease, velocity increase.
81 The air data input to the FADEC fails. The result will beà 3
1) A lack of flight data
2) Uncorrected data from hard wired analogue sensors is utilized
3) The FADEC reverts to the failsafe mode
82 A FADEC system consists of à 1
1) HMU sensors and an EEC
2) HMU, ADC and sensors
3) EEC, ADC and sensors
83 In a FADEC, what is the result of Channel A failing to receive information from a sensor? 2
1) Channel B will assume control
2) Channel A will take the information from channel B
3) Channel A will take the information from the backup sensor
84 The purpose of the LP fuel pump is to 3
1) Ensure the fuel flow governor gets enough fuel
2) Pump fuel from the aircraft fuel tanks to the engine
3) Ensure the HP fuel pump does not cavitate
85 The primary purpose of an EEC isà 3
1) To change analogue inputs into digital format to provide glass cockpit information and reduce flight
crew workload
2) To change analogue inputs into digital format to reduce flight crew workload and provide maintenance Information
3) To save fuel, reduce crew workload and reduce maintenance costs
86 In a FADEC engine with a hydro mechanical fuel system, how is fuel flow controlled? 2
1) By fuel pressure
2) By electro-hydraulic servo valves (EHSVs)
3) By oil hydraulics
87 Supervisory EEC sends its output to the 2
1) A fuel valve
2) HMU/FFG
3) EGT thermocouple circuit
88 On a thermocouple circuit on a non FADEC engine, what is the purpose of the ballast resistor? 2
1) To compensate for ambient temperatures
2) To standardize both engine's EGT readings
3) To compensate for altitude
89 An EPR system reads slightly over 1, this would mean 2
1) The transmitter datum point has moved and needs replacing
2) No action required this is normal
3) The indicator needs re-calibrating back to 1
90 In a FADEC system, active control switchover occurs 1
1) On shutdown
2) When channels A and B are healthy
3) On engine startup only
91 With the EEC in control the throttle levers are always 3
1) In fully forward position
2) In fully aft position
3) Anywhere between the fullyfwd an fully aft positions
92 Propelling nozzle of turbine engine is to provide 3
1) Pressure thrust
2) Velocity thrust
3) Pressure and velocity thrust
93 How are the combustion chambers cooled? 1
1) By LP compressor air
2) By HP compressor air
3) By fan pressure air
94 When the full authority fuel control unit is changed, the rating plug 1
1) Stays with the engine
2) Stays with the FAFC
3) Is replaced every time
95 The EEC is powered and able to operate via 3
1) Only a dedicated alternator
2) The aircraft electrical system
3) The EEC is capable of being powered by both independently depending on conditions
96 The EEC uses à 1
1) ARINC 429 formatted data
2) ARINC 629 formatted data
3) Uses neither ARINC 429 or 629 formatted data
97 The fuel metering unit has direct inputs via à 3
1) Only the EEC
 2) The EEC and the fire control handle
3) The EEC, fire control handle and the engine master switch
98 The EEC changes power settings by 2
1) Changing the throttle lever angle
2) Changing the fuel flow input
3) Changing the airflow input
99 A FADEC takes measurements of engine speed 1
1) Temperature and pressure
2) Temperature
3) Pressure
100 The fuel metering valve in the hydro mechanical unit of a FADEC system is operated by 2
1) Hydraulic servo pressure
2) Fuel servo pressure
3) Electrical servo
101 Boost pressure is 3
1) Atmospheric above ambient
2) Atmospheric below ambient
3) The absolute of the manifold chamber
102 On a FADEC engine the EEC 1
1) Has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control unit in all modes
2) Has electronic control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control in some modes
3) Has mechanical control of the hydro-mechanical fuel control system
103 How is fuel flow varied in a variable displacement pressure type pump? 1
1) Alter the cam plate angle
2) Remote servo pressure
3) Direct cable to camp late
104 FADEC has 2
1) Hydro mechanical backup system
2) No Hydro mechanical backup system
3) (A) or (B)
105 The numbers of electrical connection to ECC are 3
1) 5
2) 6
3) 7
106 FADEC gets power supply from 2
1) A/C electrical system
2) AS in A) and permanent magnet alternator (PMA)
3) CSD/ IDG
107 The numbers of channel in EEC are 1
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
108 Fuel metering unit is located at 1
1) Front face of gearbox and attached to front of fuel pump
2) Rear face of gearbox and attached to front of fuel pump
3) Rear face of gearbox and attached to Rear face of fuel pump
109 When removing the EEC from Engine 2
1) Programming plug also remove from engine
2) Programming plug also remains with engine
3) Either a or b
110 The EEC collects data and send to 2
1) FMU (Fuel Unit)
2) Fuel metering valve
3) Fuel qty indicator
111 EEC programming plug is connected to 1
 1) FADEC channel A-only
2) FADEC channel B-only
3) Both A or B
112 EEC use a 3
1) Torque motor drive to control the position of metering valve in the fuel metering unit
2) Use the solenoid drivers to control the function of the FMU
3) Both A or B
113 The power lever resolver of FADEC is 3
1) An electrical device to ensure angular movement
2) An electro-mechanical device to measure linear movement
3) An electro mechanical device to measure angular movement
114 Air data computer gives which data to the FADEC 3
1) Inlet temp
2) Inlet pressure and pressure altitude
3) Both (1) and (2)
115 The-------_____ section of FADEC depends completely on sensor input to EEC to meters the fuel flow 1
1) computing
2) Metering
3) Calculating
116 The air data input to the FADEC fails. The result will be 2
1) a lack of flight data
2) The FEDAC reverts to the fail safe mode
3) Uncorrected data from hard wired analogue sensor is utilized
117 The EEC uses Torque motor driver 1
1) To control the position of metering valve in fuel metering unit
2) To control the function of FMU
3) To control the function of Bleed valve
118 The EEC uses Solenoid driver 2
1) To control the position of metering valve in fuel metering unit
2) To control the function of FMU
3) To control the
119 The fan on turbofan engine is connected to 2
1) First stage turbine
2) First stage compressor
3) Second stage compressor
120 Which type of engine has less noise? 2
1) Turbo jet engine
2) Turbofan engine
3) Turbo propeller engine
121 Engine Pressure Ratio is not measured for 3
1) Turbo jet engine
2) Turbofan engine
3) Turbo propeller engine
122 Turbofan engine propulsive efficiency is determined by 1
1) By pass Ratio
2) Compression Ratio
3) Combustion Ratio
123 The hot section of turbine engine is 1
1) Area past compressor from combustion chamber to exhaust
2) Area from inlet to compressor /diffuser
3) Area from inlet to exhaust
124 The cold section of turbine engine is 2
1) Area past compressor from combustion chamber to exhaust
2) Area from inlet to compressor /diffuser
3) Area from inlet to exhaust
125 The Turbo jet engine and Turbofan engine are 1
1) Thrust producing engine
2) Torque producing engine
3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
126 Turbo propeller and Turbo shaft engines are 2
1) Thrust producing engine
2) Torque producing engine
3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
127 Radiation Pyrometry Technique is used for 1
1) Measuring of actual turbine blade temperature
2) Measuring of actual combustion chamber temperature
3) Measuring of actual exhaust pipe temperature
128 Fuel Heater is the 1
1) Air to Liquid heat exchanger
2) Liquid to Liquid heat exchanger
3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
129 Fuel Oil cooler is the 2
1) Air to Liquid heat exchanger
2) Liquid to Liquid heat exchanger
3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
130 Mark the correct statement about Turbo propeller engine is having 1
1) High propulsive efficiency at low airspeeds
2) Low propulsive efficiency at low airspeeds
3) Highest TSFC
131 Operational reliability of the engine is improved by using ? 3
1) Redundant inputs and outputs
2) An automatic fault-compensation system
3) Both 1 & 2
132 De-icing & Anti-icing system the hot bleed air is taken from ? 2
1) Combustion Chamber
2) HP Compressor
3) Fan Air
133 In turbo super charger location of centrifugal pump ? 2
1) Before Carburetor
2) Between the carburetor and cylinders
3) Crankshaft rotate a supercharger
134 Electronic Engine Control is having 2
1) 2 channels use 2 computers at a time
2) Two Channel in EEC, in failure condition another channel takeover
3) As in A + EEC is independent
135 In gas turbine dual spool engine the air turbine starter rotates 2
1) LP Compressor
2) HP compressor and N1 turbine system
3) Inlet Fan
136 The Brayton cycle is known as the constant. 3
1) Temperature cycle.
2) Mass cycle.
3) Pressure cycle.
137 The principle of jet propulsion is. 3
1) The calorific value of fuel burnt is equal to aircraft.
2) The interaction of fluids and gases.
3) Every action has a equal and opposite reaction.
138 Exhaust Duct of Turbine engine is having 2
1) Low-pressure, low-velocity gas leaving the turbine wheel
2) High-pressure, low-velocity gas leaving the turbine wheel
 3) As in A + increases the swirling the gas while leaving the turbine
139 Brayton cycle is a 2
1) Close cycle
2) Open Cycle
3) As in A+ Constant Temperature Cycle
140 The Turbine engine starting sequence is 1
1) Starting on, Ignition on, Fuel on
2) Ignition on, Fuel on, Starting on
3) Ignition on, Starting on, Fuel on
141 Engine efficiency can be increased by 3
1) Anti surge bleed valve
2) Variable stator valve
3) Both 1 and 2
142 What power supply is required for a thermocouple system to work? 3
1) Direct current
2) Alternating current
3) Neither of the above
143 In a 24 thermocouple system, one thermocouple goes open circuit. What error is detected at indicator? 1
1) None
2) No indication
3) Gauge freezes at last known reading
144 In a thermocouple temperature sensing system, what is the purpose of the resistor? 2
1) To standardize the reading for different engine types
2) To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the cold junction
3) To correct for varying ambient temperatures at the hot junction
145 Propeller speed is measured from 1
1) Slip ring pulse probe
2) Tachometer on the LP turbine shaft
3) Pulse probe at the engine side of the reduction gear
146 How is power indicated on a fixed pitch propeller? 1
1) RPM gauge
2) Torque gauge
3) Horsepower gauge
147 What are the units of manifold pressure on a normally aspirated engine? 3
1) PSI
2) Inches of water
3) Inches of mercury
148 A synchrony pressure measuring system requires 1
1) Alternating current
2) Direct current
3) Either ac or dc
149 A synchro pressure measuring system works on principle of changes in pressure related to changes in 3
1) Frequency
2) Voltage
3) Flux
150 Pure jet engines use 1
1) Stagnation thermocouples
2) Rapid response thermocouples
3) Variable resistance thermocouples
151 Modern oil pressure servo transmitter’s sense 1
1) Differential pressure
2) Absolute pressure
3) HP oil pressure
152 EGT thermocouples are usually made of 3
1) Nickel and platinum
 2) Chromyl and platinum
3) Chromyl and alumel
153 To measure oil temperature, which of the following would most likely be used? 1
1) Resistance temperature measurement
2) Thermocouple measurement
3) Optical pyrometer
154 Strain gauges may be used to measure 2
1) Thrust
2) Torque
3) Pressure
155 Piezo electric transducers convert 3
1) Tensile stress into a current output
2) Pressure input into a resistance output
3) Force input into a voltage output
156 A broadband vibration reading indicates 2
1) The N1 vibration
2) The average vibration
3) The peak allowable vibration
157 Vibration analyzers determine which component is vibrating by analyzing 1
1) Frequency
2) Amplitude
3) Voltage
158 The principle of operation of a DC ratio meter is 3
1) One coil moving in a uniform magnetic field
2) Two coils moving in a uniform magnetic field
3) Two coils moving in a non-uniform magnetic field
159 A thermocouple indicator is basically a 1
1) Mill volt meter
2) Milliohm meter
3) Milliammeter
160 With an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller, what indication has the pilot got of the output power? 3
1) Fuel flow
2) Oil pressure
3) Engine speed indicator
161 If a tachogenerator indicated in reverse, the probable cause is 2
1) Wrong input frequency
2) Two phases cross connected
3) Supply and transmitter cross connected
162 A sensing element goes open circuit in a ratio meter. What will be happen? 2
1) Temperature indicates below ambient
2) Full scale deflection
3) Hairspring takes indicator off scale
163 A thermocouple is constructed of 1
1) Two dissimilar metals welded together
2) Two dissimilar metals with an air gap between them
3) Three dissimilar metals welded together
164 In a multiple probe thermocouple system, what is the effect if one probe fails? 1
1) No noticeable effect
2) Reduction in temp reading
3) Increase in temp reading
165 In a gas turbine if air is tapped from the H.P bleed 1
1) EPR decreases and EGT increases
2) EPR stays constant and EGT decreases
3) EPR increases and EGT decreases
166 When using a test set to test an EGT thermocouple circuit 1
1) No compensation for ambient temperature is required
 2) Only consider ambient temperature compensation if the ambient temperature is over 20Oc
3) Always compensate for ambient temperature
167 Where is EGT measured? 2
1) In the combustion chamber
2) Downstream of the combustion chamber
3) Upstream of the combustion chamber
168 How does a boost gauge compensate for altitude changes? 1
1) Spring sealed bellows
2) Two bellows against atmospheric pressure
3) There is no compensation
169 An EMF is produced by a thermocouple. This is sensed at 2
1) The hot junction
2) At the cold junction
3) Between the hot and cold junctions
170 Ratio meter pointer movement is achieved by 3
1) One coil providing a torque against a permanent magnet
2) Two opposing coils providing a torque in a varying magnetic field
3) Two opposing coils providing a torque in a permanent magnetic field
171 A fuel flow transmitter requires a motor or a synchronous motor to have a 2
1) Constant voltage within small tolerances
2) Constant frequency within small tolerances
3) Low EMF as it is immersed in fuel
172 A boost gauge measures 1
1) Absolute pressure on the inlet port
2) Brake mean effective pressure
3) Gauge pressure at the injector
173 Boost pressure is measured in 1
1) Inches of Hg
2) Inches of water
3) PSI
174 The EPR reading is taken from a ratio of 1
1) Jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure
2) Compressor delivery pressure to compressor inlet pressure
3) Turbine inlet pressure to compressor delivery pressure
175 Manifold pressure is measured 1
1) At inlet port above and below ambient conditions
2) At inlet port above and below standard atmosphere at sea level
3) At inlet port indicating boost pressure
176 A temperature indicating system have a resistance bulb on a selected range has pointer movement 1
1) Proportional to bulb resistance
2) Inversely proportional to bulb resistance
3) Resistance does not affect pointer movement
177 In Turbo propeller engine, the types of thermocouple probes are 1
1) Rapid response
2) Stagnation
3) Surface mounted
178 Fan blade speed is measured by 1
1) Phonic wheel
2) Drag cup and tachometer
3) Eddy currents
179 When a thermocouple fails, the temperature reading will 3
1) Over read
2) Under read
3) Stay the same
180 EPR is measured between inlet and 1
 1) Jet pipe
2) Cold and hot exhaust
3) Front of turbine
181 The fuel flow transmitter is downstream of 3
1) Prsov
2) H.p pump
3) L.p pump
182 The Connection to a Taco generator is 1
1) 3 phase star
2) 3 phase delta
3) 2 phase star
183 Engine oil pressure indication system is the 1
1) Difference between I/P and O/P pressure
2) Pump output pressure plus atmospheric operation
3) Engine monitoring
184 In EICAS, the immediate crew awareness and response is 2
1) Level A
2) Level B
3) Level C
185 If lower display unit false warning automatically 1
1) Amber light illuminate on top left of upper display unit
2) Amber illuminates on upper display
3) Amber light illuminates on lower display
186 Mark the correct statement 3
1) Ratio meter system consist of sensing element in two coils moving
2) Ratio meter system consists of sensing element without two coil moving
3) Conventional types has two coils moving in a permanent magnet
187 Compact of upper EICAS can be cancelled by 1
1) Engine switch
2) Starter switch
3) Even
188 If display select panel fail secondary information can be automatically switch on 1
1) Lower display select panel
2) Upper display select panel
3) Selected display select panel.
189 The Ratio meter pointer movement is achieved by 3
1) One coil providing a torque against a permanent magnet
2) Two opposing coils providing a torque in a varying magnetic field
3) Two opposing coils providing a torque in a permanent magnetic field
190 Thrust in a high bypass fan engine is indicated by 1
1) N1 RPM or EPR
2) N3 RPM or P1/P4 ratio
3) N1 RPM or N3 RPM
191 In the EICAS, the warning comes on: 1
1) Red colour
2) Yellow colour
3) Green colour
192 The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is not measured for 1
1) Turbo propeller
2) Turbofan
3) Turbojet
193 Pure jet engines use 1
1) Stagnation thermocouples
2) Rapid response
3) Variable resistance thermocouples
194 The vane on a vane type fuel flow measuring device becomes stuck. What safety backup is available for 3
 the engine fuel flow?
1) A fuel bleed valve
2) A bypass valve
3) A differential pressure bypass valve
195 How does a boost gauge compensate for altitude changes? 1
1) Spring sealed bellows
2) Two bellows against atmospheric pressure
3) There is no compensation
196 An EPR system reads slightly over 1, this would mean 2
1) The transmitter datum point has moved and needs replacing
2) No action required this is normal
3) The indicator needs re-calibrating back to 1
197 A torque pressure measuring indicator is fed by 1
1) Direct oil pressure
2) Differential pneumatic pressure
3) Servo operated
198 The Taco generator output has 2
1) A fixed frequency
2) A Variable frequency
3) A DC Current output
199 Where is the hot junction of a EGT thermocouple system found? 3
1) In the indicator
2) Upstream of the combustion chamber
3) Downstream of the combustion chamber
200 When terminating connections for a EGT sensing system 3
1) Ensure that the pins and sockets are correctly crimped and brazed
2) Ensure that all connections are silver soldered
3) Ensure that the pins and sockets are of the same material as the leads
201 A Tachometer pointer is moved by 1
1) Drag cup coupling
2) AC servo motor
3) Synchronous motor
202 Relative permeability of fuel is also known as 3
1) Density of the fuel
2) Weight of the fuel
3) Dielectric constant of the fuel
203 Manifold pressure is measured in 3
1) Direct absolute pressure in Bars
2) Differential pressure in millibars
3) Direct absolute pressure in inch of Hg
204 What is the supply voltage to Taco generators? 3
1) 28vdc
2) 115vac
3) It has no supply
205 What are the types of continuous fire detection system? 1
1) Capacitive and resistive
2) Capacitive
3) Inductive and capacitive
206 Taco generator has 3
1) DC, Three Phase, Synchronous type motor
2) AC, Three Phase, Inductor type motor
3) AC, Three Phase, Synchronous type motor
207 In Ratio meter type indication, the basic construction consists of 1
1) Moving coil
2) Hot wire
3) Iron coil
208 Engine oil pressure indication system uses 1
1) Difference between input and output pressure
2) Pump output pressure plus atmospheric pressure
3) Pump pressure plus atmospheric pressure
209 For vibration monitoring unit .the following sensor is used 2
1) Pulse type pick up
2) Accelerometer
3) Probe type pick up
210 In DC ratio meter the pins are shortened, the indication will be 3
1) Full scale reading
2) Zero reading
3) Minimum scale reading
211 The spring in Ratio meter is used to 2
1) To provide voltage supply to coil
2) Return the pointer to original place when supply is removed
3) Provide counter force
212 The Caution Advisory message shown in EICAS is 2
1) Red marking
2) Yellow marking
3) Blue marking
213 The Thermocouples are connected in 1
1) Parallel
2) Series
3) Parallel and Series
214 On an E.G.T thermocouple system, the hot junction is 3
1) Placed up stream of the combustion chamber.
2) Placed in cockpit.
3) Placed downstream of the combustion chamber.
215 On an RPM system using a synchronous generator, the pointer is deflected by. 3
1) Potentiometer.
2) Wheatstone bridge.
3) AC servomotor.
216 The drag cup in a Taco-generator is balanced by. 1
1) Calibrated hairspring.
2) Adjustable counterbalance weights.
3) Adjustment screw.
217 A Bourdon tube may be used to indicate. 2
1) Position and quantity
2) Pressure and temperature.
3) Pressure, temperature, position and quantity.
218 What instrument on jet engine is to be monitored to minimize the possibility of a 'hot' start? 2
1) RPM indicator.
2) Turbine inlet temperature.
3) Torque meter.
219 Instruments that measure relatively high fluid pressures, such as oil pressure gauges, are usually what 1
type?.
1) Bourdon tube.
2) Vane with calibrated spring.
3) Diaphragm or bellows.
220 Instruments that provide readings of low or negative pressure, such as manifold pressure gauges, are 1
usually what type?.
1) Diaphragm or bellows.
2) Vane with calibrated spring.
3) Bourdon tube.
221 In a turbine engine, where is the turbine discharge pressure indicator sensor located?. 2
 1) At a location in the exhaust cone
2) Immediately aft of the last turbine stage.
3) At the aft end of the compressor section.
222 Engine pressure ratio is determined by. 3
1) Dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure.
2) Multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total pressure.
3) Dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total pressure.
223 A red triangle, dot, or diamond mark on an engine instrument face or glass indicates. 1
1) The maximum limit for high transients such as starting.
2) A restricted operating range.
3) The maximum operating limit for all normal operations.
224 What is the primary purpose of the tachometer on an axial compressor turbine engine?. 2
1) Monitor engine RPM during cruise conditions.
2) Monitor engine RPM during starting and to indicate overspeed conditions.
3) It is the most accurate instrument for establishing thrust settings under all conditions.
225 Engine pressure ratio is the total pressure ratio between 2
1) Front of the engine inlet and the aft end of the compressor.
2) Front of the compressor and the rear of the turbine.
3) Aft end of the compressor and the aft end of the turbine.
226 The indicator of a tachometer system is responsive to change in. 2
1) Voltage.
2) Frequency.
3) Current flow.
227 Fuel metering unit uses 1
1) Torque motor
2) Induction motor
3) Series field motor
228 Engine Electronic Control collects data and sends to 1
1) Fuel Metering Unit
2) Fuel Metering Valve
3) Fuel quantity indicator
229 Vibration Monitoring Unit measures 2
1) Angular Velocity
2) Linear Velocity
3) Circular Velocity
230 The color of non-EEC wire and Thermocouple wire are 1
1) Grey and Yellow
2) Red and Yellow
3) Grey and Red
231 The metering valve area is modulated by the ____________, which receives ____________ from the ECU? 2
1) Fuel metering valve
2) Torque motor, which receives variable current
3) Torque motor, which receives constant current
232 Turbo fan Engine starter rotate 1
1) HP compressor
2) LP compressor
3) Inlet fan
233 On dual spool, axial flow engines, 3
1) The low pressure compressor and N1turbine system is only rotated by the starter
2) The high pressure compressor and N2 turbine system is only rotated by the starter
3) The high pressure compressor and Nl turbine system is only rotated by the starter
234 Engine starter rotates till 1
1) Self-sustaining speed
2) Engine idling speed
3) Engine Maximum speed
235 Self-sustaining RPM means that. 3
 1) The engine can accelerate to full power in under 5 seconds.
2) There is sufficient power for ground manoeuvring.
3) The engine will run independently of external help
236 The starter must continue to assist the engine considerably above the self-accelerating speed 3
1) To avoid a delay in the starting cycle,
2) As in 1, this would result in a hot or hung false start or a combination of both
3) Both 1and 2are correct
237 When is ignition used? 1
1) For relight and start up.
2) For continuous relight.
3) At high altitudes.
238 During normal engine running conditions. 2
1) Combustion is intermittently supported by ignition.
2) Combustion is self-supporting
3) Combustion is continuously supported by ignition
239 The basic types of starters that are in current use for gas turbine engines are 1
1) Direct current (DC) electric motor, starter/generators, and the air turbine type of starters.
2) Alternate current (AC) electric motor, starter/generators, and the air turbine type of starters
3) Direct current (DC) electric motor, starter/generators, and cartridge starters
240 Electric starting systems for gas turbine aircraft are of two general types: 1
1) Direct cranking electrical systems and starter generator systems
2) Direct cranking electrical systems and Air turbine starter system
3) Direct cranking electrical systems and Cartridge starter system
241 Mark the correct statement 3
1) The starter generator is permanently engaged with engine shaft through the necessary drive gears
2) The direct cranking starter must employ some means of disengaging the starter from the shaft after
the engine has started
3) Both 1 and 2 are correct
242 Mark the correct statement starter’s generators are 3
1) Strong series generators with heavy shunt windings
2) Strong series generators with series winding
3) Strong shunt generator with an additional heavy series winding
243 Main advantage of starter generator 3
1) Light in weight and less space
2) Consist of two units’ starter and generator
3) Both 1 and 2
244 Starter generator units are desirable from an economic standpoint, since 3
1) One unit performs the functions of both starter and generator.
2) The total weight of starting system components is reduced
3) Both 1 and 2
245 The capacitor in the exciter unit 1
1) Air cooled
2) Oil cooled
3) Sealed
246 HEIU capacitors are located in 2
1) Secondary ignition transformers
2) The exciter unit
3) In the ignition lead
247 The purpose of an undercurrent relay in a starter-generator system is to. 2
1) Keep current flow to the starter-generator under the circuit capacity maximum.
2) Disconnect power from the starter-generator and ignition when sufficient engine speed is reached.
3) Provide a backup for the starter relay
248 The field of the D.C. starter motor used on gas turbine engine is. 3
1) Series only.
2) Shunt or compound.
3) Series or compound
249 Advantages of using starter generator in APU of a turbofan engine and small turbo shaft engine 3
1) Starter generator can be used for starting and power generation purpose
2) Avoid use of separate starters for starting and power generation
3) Both 1 and 2
250 Mark the correct statement 3
1) To perform igniter maintenance, disconnection of igniter lead coupling nuts at exciter end first
2) Insulated tool must be used and coupling nuts or connecting should not touched with bare hand
3) Both 1 and 2.
251 Mark the correct statement about igniter plug 1
1) It withstand a current of much higher energy
2) Electrode gap is smaller than the spark plug
3) Electrode fouling is not minimized.
252 What type of turbine blade is most commonly used in air starter motors? 2
1) Reaction.
2) Impulse.
3) Impulse-reaction.
253 Igniters’ plugs are cleaned by 1
1) Compressed air and brushing lightly with soft brush.
2) Light sand blasting
3) Steel wool.
254 In the ignition exciter can bring injury or death may occur if it is released into the human body. 1
1) Residual high voltage and current
2) High voltage
3) High voltage and current
255 The type of ignition system used on most turbine aircraft engines is. 2
1) Low tension.
2) Capacitor discharge.
3) High resistance
256 Igniter system stores charge in 1
1) Capacitor
2) Inductor
3) Resistor
257 Igniters’ plugs produce ------current as compared to spark plug 2
1) Less
2) More
3) Equal
258 Each discharge circuit incorporates two storage capacitors; both are located in----------------- 1
1) Exciter unit
2) Igniters unit
3) Engine nacelle
259 Bleed air is delivered to the air starter turbine rotor through the 2
1) Pressure valve
2) Start valve
3) Relief valve
260 What will engages automatically the rotor starts to turn, but disengages the drive coupling turns more 1
rapidly than the rotor side.
1) Sprag clutch assembly
2) Stareter clutch
3) Pneumatic clutch
261 The typical air turbine starter consists of 1
1) Axial flow turbine
2) Centrifugal flow turbine
3) Both 1and 2
262 Air starter advantages over electric starters 3
1) Weight of air starter is ¼ to ½ then electric starter
2) High torque compared to electric starter
 3) Both 1and 2
263 Action required when short & voltage arcing occure 2
1) Tighten and secure as required
2) Replace faulty component and wiring
3) Secure, tighten and safety as required
264 The primary advantage of pneumatic starters over comparable electric starters for turbine engines is. 1
1) High power-to-weight ratio.
2) Reduction gearing not required.
3) A decreased fire hazard
265 When reconnecting a H.E.I.U, which cable must be reconnected first? 3
1) It makes no difference
2) L.T before H.T.
3) H.T before L.T
266 The advantage of an air starter system is. 2
1) It provides a more rapid start.
2) It is light, simple and economical.
3) There is no risk of engine fire during starting.
267 Shunt winding in starter generator 2
1) Starter and motor
2) Generator only
3) Generator and motor
268 Precautions while working on igniter circuits. 1
1) Disconnect electrical connectors from exciter units
2) Apply steady pressure with one hand on the hinge handle, the socket in alignment with other hand
3) Disconnect electrical connector from the igniter plug
269 In fuel flow measurement system, the input voltage 115v single phase 400Hz is converted into 1
1) 60v 8Hz two phase output
2) 36v 50Hz
3) 36v 400Hz
270 Mark the correct statement about Igniter plugs are 1
1) Electrode must capable of withstanding current of much higher energy than spark plug electrode
2) Electrode gap much smaller than spark plug
3) Electrode fouling is maximum than spark plug
271 Mark the correct statement 3
1) Air Turbine Starter has weight of¼- ½ electric starters
2) Air Turbine Starter has less weight and more torque
3) Air Turbine Starter has less torque than electric starter
272 The advantage of an air starter system is. 2
1) It provides a more rapid start.
2) It is light, simple and economical.
3) There is no risk of engine fire during starting.
273 Self sustaining RPM means that. 3
1) The engine can accelerate to full power in under 5 seconds.
2) There is sufficient power for ground manoeuvring.
3) The engine will run independently of external help.
274 A 'hot start' with excessive temperatures may be caused by. 2
1) Wrong grade of fuel.
2) Throttle partly open.
3) High electrical power supply.
275 A dry motoring cycle would be required to. 1
1) Clear the engine after a wet start.
2) Check engine run down time.
3) Check the operation of the igniters.
276 An H.E.I.U works by. 1
1) A discharging capacitor.
2) AC bus bar.
 3) A contact breaker.
277 An igniters plug for a large gas turbine takes the form of a. 1
1) Glow' plug.
2) Spark plug.
3) Surface discharge plug.
278 The spark in the High Energy igniters’ is supplied by. 1
1) Capacitor.
2) Contact circuit breaker.
3) AC bus bar.
279 During normal running conditions. 2
1) Combustion is intermittently supported by ignition.
2) Combustion is self supporting
3) Combustion is continuously supported by ignition.
280 The rate of discharge of a H.E.I.U. is. 3
1) 4 discharges per revolution.
2) 60 - 100 per second.
3) 60 - 100 per minute.
281 The type of ignition system used on most turbine aircraft engines is.
1) Low tension.
2) Capacitor discharge.
3) High resistance.
282 Starter Generator is 1
1) Shunt Generator, Series heavy winding
2) Series Generator, Heavy shunt winding
3) Shunt Generator, Shunt heavy winding
283 In Starter Generator 2
1) Series field winding is used for Generator
2) Shunt field winding is used for Generator
3) Both the field is used for Generator
284 The starter must continue to assist the engine above the 2
1) Self Starting speed
2) Self Accelerating speed
3) Idle speed
285 The advantage of using Starter Generator in APU, Turbofan engine and small turbo shaft engine is 3
1) Starter Generator can be used for Starting and Power Generation purpose
2) Avoid using for separate unit for Starting and Power Generation purpose
3) Both 1 and 2
286 Shunt winding is used in Starter Generator for 2
1) Starter mode
2) Generator mode
3) Both Starter mode and Generator mode
287 The Starter Generator is having 1
1) Series winding
2) Parallel winding
3) Compensating winding
288 During Igniter plug maintenance 3
1) Disconnect igniter lead coupling nut at exciter end first
2) Insulated tools must be used
3) Both 1 and 2 plus follow the maintenance procedure
289 Starter generator while starting uses 2
1) C-FIELD, shunt winding and compensating winding
2) C- FIELD, compensating and commutating winding
3) C-FIELD, series winding and compensating winding
290 To prevent Ignition lead from short and damage 1
1) Tighten and Secure
2) Secure as required
 3) Component of bad wiring and lead replaced
291 The starter to provide high starting torque from small light weight sourse is 1
1) Air Turbine Starter
2) Direct cranking electric starter
3) Fuel/Air combustion starter
292 Series C winding used when starter generator used as 1
1) Starter
2) Generator
3) Both Starter and Generator
293 Ignition unit is cooled by 1
1) Air cooled
2) Oil cooled
3) Liquid cooled
294 Synchroscope in 4 engine aircraft how many Motor are there? 1
1) 3 motor
2) 4 motor
3) 2 motor
295 Capacitor type discharge and ignites? 2
1) Abnormal fuel mixture
2) As in A + also burning away any foreign deposits on the plug electrodes
3) Only normal Fuel Mixture
296 The typical air turbine starter consists of an axial flow turbine that turns a drive coupling through a 3
________ and a starter clutch mechanism
1) Engine Shaft
2) Drive Gear
3) Reduction gear train
297 Jet fuel Control Senses 1
1) RPM
2) Surging
3) Rich Blowout and lean die-out
298 In Master warning & Caution if cancel switch is turned pressed what will happen ? 3
1) Warning and caution are turned OFF
2) AMBER light turns off
3) CAUTION message will removed from the display.
299 Starting of Piston Engine by 2
1) Hand Cranking
2) Direct Cranking Electric Starter
3) Inertia Starter
300 EPR measures air pressure at the inlet pressure and ___________of a turbine engine. 1
1) Exhaust pressure
2) Between inlet and exhaust
3) Inlet pressure
301 FADEC, uses electronic sensors for its inputs and controls fuel flow with 3
1) Mechanical
2) Hydraulic
3) Electronic
302 Continuous ignition is used in case the engine were to flame out 1
1) Ignition could relight the fuel and keep the engine from stopping
2) Used during takeoff and some abnormal and emergency situations.
3) Used during landing and some abnormal and emergency situations

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