CODE-A

RE-AIPMT – 2015 TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER & SOLUTION

(HELD ON SATURDAY 25th JULY, 2015)
1. 2,3–Dimethyl–2–butene can be prepared by 4. The number of structural isomers possible from the
heating which of the following compounds with a molecular formula C3H9N is :
strong acid ? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
Ans. (3)
(1) (CH3)2C=CH–CH2–CH3
(2) (CH3)2CH–CH2–CH=CH2 Sol. C3H9N : CH3 CH2 CH2 NH2
(3) (CH3)2CH–CH–CH=CH2 CH3 CH CH3 1° amine
–

CH3
NH2
(4) (CH3)3C–CH=CH2
CH3–CH2–NH–CH3 } 2° amine
Ans. (4)
CH3 N CH3
CH3 CH3 3° amine
+ CH3
Sol. H C C CH CH H Å
3 2 H3 C C CH CH3
5. If the equilibrium constant for
CH3 CH3
ˆˆˆ
N (g) + O (g) ‡ˆˆ †ˆ 2NO(g) is K, the equilibrium
2 2
~CH3
1 1 ˆˆˆ
†
constant for N (g) + O2(g) ‡ˆˆˆ NO(g) will
+ Å
2 2 2
H
H3 C C C CH3 H3 C C CH CH3 be :-
CH3 CH3 CH3CH3
1
2. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. It's atomic number (1) K (2) K2 (3) K1/2 (4) K
2
is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic
Ans. (3)
configuration of gadolinium ?
(1) [Xe] 4f75d16s2 (2) [Xe] 4f65d26s2 ˆˆˆ
†
Sol. N2(g) + O2(g) ‡ˆˆˆ 2NO(g); K
(3) [Xe] 4f86d2 (4) [Xe] 4f95s1 1 1 ˆˆˆ
†
N2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) ‡ˆˆˆ NO ( g ) ; K'
Ans. (1) 2 2
Sol. 64 Gd =54 [ Xe] 6s2 4f 7 5d1 when a reaction is multiplied by 1/2 then
K' = (K)1/2
3. The formation of the oxide ion, O2– (g), from oxygen
6. Which one of the following pairs of solution is not
atom requires first an exothermic and then an
an acidic buffer ?
endothermic step as shown below :
(1) H2CO3 and Na2CO3
O(g) + e– ® O-(g) ; DfH = –141 kJ mol–1
(2) H3PO4 and Na3PO4
O–(g) + e– ® O2(g)- ; DfH = +780 kJ mol–1 (3) HClO4 and NaClO4
2–
Thus process of formation of O in gas phase is (4) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
unfavourable even thought O2– is isoelectronic with Ans. (3)
neon. It is due to the fact that, Sol. HClO4 and NaClO4 cannot act as an acidic buffer.
(1) Oxygen is more electronegative 7. Aqueous solution of which of the following
(2) Addition of electron in oxygen results in larger compounds is the best conductor of electric current?
size of the ion (1) Ammonia, NH3
(3) Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained (2) Fructose, C6H12O6
by achieving noble gas configuration (3) Acetic acid, C2H4O2
(4) O– ion has comparatively smaller size than (4) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
oxygen atom Ans. (4)
Sol. Aqueous solution of HCl is the best conductor of
Ans. (3)
electric current because HCl is strong acid, so it
dissociates completely into ions.
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RE-AIPMT-2015
8. Caprolactam is used for the manufacture of : Sol. Given species : O2, O2–1, O2+1, O22–
(1) Terylene (2) Nylon - 6, 6 Total number of electrons
(3) Nylon - 6 (4) Teflon O2 ® 16e-
Ans. (3)
O2-1 ® 17e -
(CH2)5 O2+1 ® 15e -
O
Sol. z O22- ® 18e -
HN C O nH N (CH2)5 C OH
H H
OH
O2+1 O2 O2-1 O2-2
Caprolactum Bond order 2.5 2
O 1.5 1
N (CH2)5 C Stability × B.O.
H
n * Stability order éë O2+1 > O2 > O2-1 > O22- ùû
Nylon-6 12. The number of water molecules is maximum in :-
(1) 18 gram of water
9. On heating which of the following releases CO2 most (2) 18 moles of water
easily ? (3) 18 molecules of water
(1) MgCO3 (2) CaCO3 (4) 1.8 gram of water
(3) K2CO3 (4) Na2CO3 Ans. (2)
Sol. Q 1 mole water = 6.02 × 1023 molecules
Ans. (1) \ 18 mole water = 18 × 6.02 × 1023 molecules
Sol. Thermal stability order so, 18 mole water has maximum number of
K 2 CO3 > Na2 CO 3 > CaCO 3 > MgCO3 molecules.
13. In which of the following pairs, both the species are
Therefore MgCO3 releases CO2 most easily
not isostructural ?
D
MgCO3 ¾¾ ® MgO + CO2 (1) NH3, PH3
10. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to : (2) XeF4, XeO4
+
(3) SiCl4, PCl4
(1) High oxidation state of phosphorus
(4) Dimond, silicon carbide
(2) Presence of two –OH groups and one P–H bond Ans. (2)
(3) Presence of one –OH group and two P–H bonds Sol. (i) Hybridiation of NH3 [s =3, lp=1]
sp3 geometry : tetrahedral
(4) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus
Ans. (3)
Sol. Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 N (pyramidal) P (pyramidal)
All oxy-acid of phosphorus which contain P–H bond HHH HHH
act as reductant.
(ii) Structures of XeF4 is square planar.
O
F F
P OH
H Xe sp3 d2 hybridisation
H
F F
presence of one –OH group and two P–H bonds (square planar)
11. Decreasing order of stability of O2, O2–, O2+ and O22– Structure of XeO4 is tetrahedral
is :-
O
(1) O2 > O2+ > O22– > O2–
Xe
(2) O2– > O22– > O2+ > O2 sp3 hybridisation
O O
(3) O2+ > O2 > O2– > O22– O

(4) O22– > O2– > O2 > O2+ so XeF4 and XeO4 are not isostructural

Ans. (3)

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 CODE-A
(iii) Structure of SiCl4 is tetrahedral 16. Reaction of phenol with chloroform in presence of
Cl dilute sodium hydroxide finally introduces which one
of the following functional group ?
Si (1) –CHCl2 (2) –CHO
sp3 hybridisation
Cl Cl (3) –CH2Cl (4) –COOH
Cl
Ans. (2)
Structure of PCl4+ is tetrahedral
Reimer Tieman reaction
Cl
+ OH OH
P
sp3 hybridisation CHO
Cl Cl
Cl Sol. + CHCl3 + NaOH
(iv) Diamond & SiC both are isostructural because
both have tetrahedral arrangement and central
atom is sp3 hybridised. 17. The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is :
14. In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in (1) 23% (2) 32%
(3) 26% (4) 48%
accordance with the Markovnikov's rule, to give a
Ans. (2)
product 1–chloro–1–methylcyclohexane. The
Sol. Packing efficiency in bcc lattice = 68%
possible alkene is :- \ vacant space in bcc lattice = 100 – 68 = 32%
18. Which of the statements given below is incorrect ?
CH2 CH3 (1) ONF is isoelectronic with O2N–
(1) (A) (2) (B) (2) OF2 is an oxide of fluorine
(3) Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid
(4) O3 molecule is bent
CH3 Ans. (2)
(3) (A) and (B) (4) Sol. (i) No. of electron in ONF = 24
No. of electron in NO2– = 24
both are isoelectronic
Ans. (3)
(ii) OF2 is a fluoride of oxygen not oxide of fluorine
because EN of fluorine is more than oxygen
CH2 CH3
Å Cl OF2 = oxygen difluoride
Sol. H
+
Cl (iii) Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid
D
2HClO 4 ¾¾¾®
- H2 O
Cl 2O7

CH3 ..
CH3 CH3
Å Cl
+ (iv) O3 molecule is bent O bent shape
H Cl
O O

19. The name of complex ion, [Fe(CN)6]3– is :-

15. Assuming complete ionization, same moles of which (1) Tricyanoferrate (III) ion
of the following compounds will require the least (2) Hexacyanidoferrate (III) ion
amount of acidified KMnO4 for complete oxidation? (3) Hexacyanoiron (III) ion
(1) FeC2O4 (2) Fe(NO2)2 (4) Hexacyanitoferrate (III) ion
Ans. (2)
(3) FeSO4 (4) FeSO3
Sol. [Fe(CN)6]–3
Ans. (3)
Hexacyanido ferrate (III) ion

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RE-AIPMT-2015
20. If avogadro n umber N A , is ch anged fr om Ni2+ ® [Ar]18 3d 8 4s 0
6.022 × 1023 mol–1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol–1, this
would change :
3d 4s 4P 4d
(1) the ratio of chemical species to each other in a
balanced equation due to presence of strong field ligand all unpaired
electrons are paired up.
(2) the ratio of elements to each other in a compound
3d 4s 4P 4d
(3) the definition of mass in units of grams
.. .. .. ..
(4) the mass of one mole of carbon
Ans. (4) CN— CN— CN — CN—

Sol. Q mass of 1 mol (6.022 × 1023 atoms) of carbon
= 12g
24.
If Avogadro Number (NA) is changed
than mass of 1 mol (6.022 ×1020 atom) of carbon
Hybridisation of [Ni(CN)4]2– is dsp2
The heat of combustion of carbon to CO 2 is
–393.5 kJ/mol. The heat released upon formation
of 35.2 g of CO2 from carbon and oxygen gas is:

12 ´ 6.022 ´ 1020 (1) –630 kJ (2) –3.15 kJ

= = 12 ´ 10 -3 g
6.022 ´ 1023 (3) –315 kJ (4) +315 kJ
Ans. (3)
Therefore the mass of 1 mol of carbon is changed
Sol. Formation of CO2 from carbon and dioxygen gas
21. Which of the following statements is not correct for can be represented as
a nucleophile ?
C(s) + O2(g) ®CO2(g) ; DfH = –393.5 kJ mol–1
(1) Nucleophiles attack low e– density sites (1 mole = 44 g)
(2) Nucleophiles are not electron seeking Heat released on formation of 44 g CO2
(3) Nucleophile is a Lewis acid = –393.5 kJ mol–1
(4) Ammonia is a nucleophile -393.5kJ mol -1
= ´ 35.2g
Ans. (3) 44g
Sol. Reason : Nucleophiles are electron rich species so = –315 kJ
act as Lewis base.
25. 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample
22. A gas such as carbon monoxide would be most likely decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and
to obey the ideal gas law at : 8.0g magnesium oxide. What will be the percentage
(1) high temperatures and high pressures purity of magnesium carbonate in the sample ?
(2) low temperatures and low pressures (1) 60 (2) 84
(3) high temperatures and low pressures (3) 75 (4) 96
(4) low temperatures and high pressures (At. Wt. : Mg = 24)
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
Sol. Real gases show ideal gas behaviour at high Sol. MgCO3 ( s ) ® MgO ( s ) + CO 2 ( g )
tempratures and low pressures.
23. The hybridization involved in complex [Ni(CN)4]2– 20
moles of MgCO3 = = 0.238 mol
is (At.No. Ni = 28) 84

(1) d2sp2 (2) d2sp3 From above equation

1 mole MgCO3 gives 1 mole MgO
(3) dsp2 (4) sp3
\ 0.238 mole MgCO3 will give 0.238 mole MgO
Ans. (3) = 0.238 × 40 g = 9.523 g MgO
Sol. [Ni(CN)4]2–
oxidation state of Ni is +2 Practical yield of MgO = 8 g MgO
x –4 = 2 8
x = +2 \ % purity = × 100 = 84%
9.523

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 CODE-A
26. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m 30. The following reaction
aqueous solution ?
H
(1) 0.0354 (2) 0.0177 NH2 N
(3) 0.177 (4) 1.770 + Cl NaOH

Ans. (2) O
O
Sol. 1.00 m solution means 1 mole solute is present in
1000 g water. is known by the name :
1000 (1) Acetylation reaction
n H2O = = 55.5mol H2 O
18 (2) Schotten-Baumen reaction
n solute 1 (3) Friedel–Craft's reaction
X solute = =
n solute + n H2 O 1 + 55.5 = 0.0177 (4) Perkin's reaction
Ans. (2)
27. The correct statement regarding defects in Sol. Benzoylation of aniline is an example of Schotten
crystalline solids is :- Bauman reaction.
(1) Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect 31. The sum of coordination number and oxidation
(2) Frenkel defect is found in hallides of alkaline number of the metal M in t he complex
metals [M(en)2(C2O4)]Cl (where en is ethylenediamine) is :-
(3) Schottky defects have no effect on the density (1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 6
of crystalline solids Ans. (3)
Sol. [M(en)2(C2O4)]Cl
(4) Frenkel defects decrease the density of crystalline oxidation state of M = + 3
solids Coordination number of M = 6
Ans. (1) Sum of oxidation state + coordination number
Sol. Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect =3 + 6 = 9
28. The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, 32. Reaction of carbonyl compound with one of the
In and TI increases in the sequence : following reagents involves nucleophilic addition
followed by elimination of water. The reagent is :
(1) TI < In < Ga < Al
(1) hydrocyanic acid
(2) In < TI < Ga < Al
(2) sodium hydrogen sulphite
(3) Ga < In < Al < TI
(3) a Grignard reagent
(4) Al < Ga < In < TI
(4) hydrazine in presence of feebly acidic solution
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)
Sol. Stability of +1 oxidation state due to inert pair effect Sol. Reaction of carbonyl compounds with ammonia
Tl > In > Ga > Al derivatives is an example of Nucleophilic addition
29. Two possible stereo-structures of elimination reaction.
CH3CHOH.COOH, which are optically active, are 33. Which one of the following esters gets hydrolysed
called :- most easily under alkaline conditions ?
(1) Enantiomers OCOCH3
(2) Mesomers (1)
(3) Diastereomers
(4) Atropisomers OCOCH3
(2)
Ans. (1) Cl
Sol. COOH COOH OCOCH3
H OH HO H (3)
O2N
CH3 CH3
Both are enantiomers OCOCH3
(4)
H3CO

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RE-AIPMT-2015
Ans. (3) Ans. (1)
Sol. EWG (electron withdrawing group) increases Sol. [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution reaction. Possible isomers -
(i) Geometrical isomers
–NO2 is strong electron withdrawing group.
34. In an SN1 reaction on chiral centres, there is : Cl
Cl
(1) 100% retention
(2) 100% inversion cis en Co optically active
(3) 100% racemization
(4) inversion more than retention leading to partial en
recemization
Ans. (4) Cl
Sol. SN1 reaction gives racemic mixture with slight
predominance of that isomer which corresponds to
inversion because SN1 also depends upon the trans en Co en optically inactive
degree of 'shielding' of the front side of the reacting
carbon.
35. The rate constant of the reaction A ® B is Cl
0.6 × 10–3 mole per second. If the concentration
(ii) In trans form plane of symmetry present, so trans
of A is 5 M, then concentration of B after
form is optically inactive but cis is optically active.
20 minutes is :-
Total number of stereoisomer = 2+1 =3
(1) 0.36 M (2) 0.72 M
38. The variation of the boiling points of the hydrogen
(3) 1.08 M (4) 3.60 M
halides is in the order HF > HI > HBr > HCl.
Ans. (2)
What explains the higher boiling point of hydrogen
Sol. For zero order reaction :
fluoride ?
x = K.t
= 0.6 × 10–3 × 20 × 60 (1) The bond energy of HF molecules is greater than
x = 0.72 M in other hydrogen halides
36. What is the pH of the resulting solution when equal (2) The effect of nuclear shielding is much reduced
volumes of 0.1 M NaOH and 0.01 M HCl are in fluorine which polarises the HF molecule
mixed ? (3) The electronegativity of fluorine is much higher
(1) 7.0 (2) 1.04 than for other elements in the group.
(3) 12.65 (4) 2.0 (4) There is strong hydrogen bonding between HF
Ans. (3) molecules
Sol. N1V1 – N2V2 = N.V. Ans. (4)
0.1 × 1 – 0.01 × 1 = N × 2 Sol. Due to strong H-bonding in HF molecule, boiling
0.09 point is highest for HF
[OH–] = NR = = 0.045 N
2 HF > HI > HBr > HI
pOH = – log (0.045) = 1.35 39. What is the mass of the precipitate formed when
\ pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 1.35 = 12.65 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is mixed with
37. Number of possible isomers for the complex 50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution ?
[Co(en)2Cl2] Cl will be : (en = ethylenediamine)
(Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na = 23, Cl =35.5)
(1) 3 (2) 4
(1) 7 g (2) 14 g
(3) 2 (4) 1
(3) 28 g (4) 3.5 g

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 CODE-A
Ans. (1) 42. Method by which Aniline cannot be prepared is :-
Sol. 16.9 g AgNO3 is present in 100 mL solution. (1) reduction of nitrobenzene with H2/Pd in ethanol
\ 8.45 g AgNO3 is present in 50 mL solution
(2) potassium salt of phthalimide treated with
5.8 g NaCl is present in 100 mL solution
\ 2.9 g NaCl is present in50 mL solution chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with
aqueous NaOH solution
AgNO3 + NaCl ® AgCl + NaNO3
8.45 2.9 (3) hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with acidic
mol
170 58.5 solution
= 0.049mol = 0.049mol ® 0 0
(4) degradation of benzamide with bromine in
after 0 0 ® 0.049 mol 0.049 mol
reaction alkaline solution
Ans. (2)
mass of AgCl precipitated
= 0.049 × 143.5 g ..
= 7g AgCl :Cl :
40. The oxidation of benzene by V2O5 in the presence
of air produces : Sol.
(1) benzoic acid (2) benzaldehyde
(3) benzoic anhydride (4) maleic anhydride due to resonance C–Cl bond acquires double bond
Ans. (4) character.
O 43. Which of the following reaction(s) can be used for
Sol. Air CH C the preparation of alkyl halides ?
V2O5 O
CH C (I) CH3CH2OH + HCl ¾¾¾¾
anh.ZnCl2
¾
®
O (II) CH3CH2OH + HCl ¾¾®
Maleic anhydride
(III) (CH3)3COH + HCl ¾¾®
41. Which of the following is not the product of
(IV) (CH3)2CHOH + HCl ¾¾¾¾
anh.ZnCl2
¾
®
(1) (IV) only (2) (III) and (IV) only

dehydration of ? (3) (I), (III) and (IV) only (4) (I) and (II) only
OH
Ans. (3)
Sol. (I) and (IV) can be used due to presence of anhydrous
ZnCl2 (III) gives alkyl halide due to formation of more
stable carbocation.
(1) (2) 44. Which is the correct order of increasing energy of
the listed orbitals in the atom of titanium ?
(At. no. Z = 22)
(1) 3s 3p 3d 4s (2) 3s 3p 4s 3d
(3) (4)
(3) 3s 4s 3p 3d (4) 4s 3s 3p 3d
Ans. (4) Ans. (2)
Sol. Ti(22) = 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d2
order of energy is 3s 3p 4s 3d
Å 45. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore,
Sol.
the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of
cuprous oxide with :-
Intermediate carbocation (more stable).
(1) copper(I) sulphide
No rearangement in C+ takes place.
(2) sulphur dioxide
(3) iron(II) sulphide

So product is not possible. (4) carbon monoxide

Ans. (1)
Sol. Self reduction
Cu2S + 2Cu2O ®6Cu + SO2­
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RE-AIPMT-2015
46. Root pressure develops due to : 53. Axile placentation is present in :
(1) Increase in transpiration (1) Argemone (2) Dianthus
(2) Active absorption (3) Lemon (4) Pea
(3) Low osmotic potential in soil Ans. (3)
(4) Passive absorption 54. In which of the following both pairs have correct
Ans. (2) combination :
47. Which one is a wrong statement ?
Gaseous nutrient cycle Sulphur and Phosphorus
(1) Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c, and (1)
Sedimentary nutrient cycle Carbon and Nitrogen
fucoxanthin
(2) Archegonia are found in Bryophyta, Pteridophyta Gaseous nutrient cycle Carbon and Nitrogen
(2)
and Gymnosperms Sedimentary nutrient cycle Sulphur and Phosphorus
(3) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores
Gaseous nutrient cycle Carbon and sulphur
(4) Haploid endosperm is typical feature of (3)
Sedimentary nutrient cycle Nitrogen and phosphorus
gymnosperms
Gaseous nutrient cycle Nitrogen and sulphur
Ans. (3) (4)
48. Which of the following structures is not found in Sedimentary nutrient cycle Carbon and Phosphorus
prokaryotic cells?
Ans. (2)
(1) Plasma membrane
55. In mammalian eye, the 'fovea' is the center of the
(2) Nuclear envelope
visual field, where :
(3) Ribosome
(1) more rods than cones are found.
(4) Mesosome
(2) high density of cones occur, but has no rods
Ans. (2)
(3) the optic nerve leaves the eye
49. Which one of the following animals has two separate
(4) only rods are present
circulatory pathways ?
Ans. (2)
(1) Shark (2) Frog (3) Lizard (4) Whale
56. Choose the wrong statement :
Ans. (4)
(1) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation
50. Most animals that live in deep oceanic waters are: (2) Penicillium is multicellular and produces
(1) Detritivores antibiotics
(2) Primary consumers (3) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical
(3) Secondary consumers genetics
(4) Tertiary consumers (4) Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)
51. An association of individuals of different species 57. Which of the following are not membrane-bound?
living in the same habitat and having functional (1) Mesosomes
interactions is : (2) Vacuoles
(1) Population (2) Ecological niche (3) Ribosomes
(3) Biotic community (4) Ecosystem (4) Lysosomes
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)
52. The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes 58. In which of the following interactions both partners
from water molecules. Which one of the following are adversely affected ?
pairs of elements is involved in this reaction? (1) Mutualism
(1) Magnesium and Chlorine (2) Competition
(2) Manganese and Chlorine (3) Predation
(3) Manganese and Potassium (4) Parasitism
(4) Magnesium and Molybdenum
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
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59. A colour blind man marries a woman with normal 66. A protoplast is a cell :
sight who has no history of colour blindness in her (1) without cell wall
family. What is the probability of their grandson (2) without plasma membrane
being colour blind ? (3) without nucleus
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.5 (4) undergoing division
(3) 1 (4) Nil Ans. (1)
Ans. (4) 67. In which group of organisms the cells walls form two
60. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as : thin overlapping shells which fit together ?
(1) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal (1) Slime moulds (2) Chrysophytes
imbalance (3) Euglenoids (4) Dinoflagellates
(2) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality. Ans. (2)
(3) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus. 68. The DNA molecules to which the gene of interest
(4) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus is integrated for cloning is called :
(1) Carrier (2) Transformer
Ans. (3)
(3) Vector (4) Template
61. Cellular organelles with membranes are :
(1) Lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria Ans. (3)
(2) Nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria 69. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces :
(3) Chromosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic (1) Three sperms
reticulum (2) Two sperms and a vegetative cell
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei (3) Single sperm and a vegetative cell
(4) Single sperm and two vegetative cells
Ans. (1)
62. Cell wall is absent in : Ans. (2)
(1) Nostoc (2) Aspergillus 70. Coconut water from a tender coconut is :
(3) Funaria (4) Mycoplasma (1) Degenerated nucellus
Ans. (4) (2) Immature embryo
63. The term "linkage" was coined by : (3) Free nuclear endosperm
(4) Innermost layers of the seed coat
(1) W.Sutton (2) T.H. Morgan
Ans. (3)
(3) T.Boveri (4) G.Mendel
71. The species confined to a particular region and not
Ans. (2)
found elsewhere is termed as :
64. Which of the following biomolecules does have a
(1) Rare (2) Keystone (3) Alien (4) Endemic
phosphodiester bond ?
Ans. (4)
(1) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide
72. Metagenesis refers to :
(2) Fatty acids in a diglyceride
(1) Presen ce of a segmented bo dy and
(3) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide parthenogenetic mode of reproduction
(4) Amino acids in a polypeptide (2) Presence of different morphic forms
Ans. (1) (3) Alternation of generation between asexual and
65. The primary dentition in human differs from sexual phases of an organism
(4) Occurrence of a drastic change in form during
permanent dentition in not having one of the
post-embryonic development
following type of teeth :
Ans. (3)
(1) Incisors
73. The enzymes that is not present in succus entericus
(2) Canine is :
(3) Premolars (1) lipase (2) maltase
(4) Molars (3) nucleases (4) nucleosidase
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)

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74. Eutrophication of water bodies leading to killing of 79. During biological nitrogen fixation, inactivation of
fishes is mainly due to non-availability of : nitrogenase by oxygen poisoning prevented by :
(1) oxygen (2) food (1) Cytochrome (2) Leghaemoglobin
(3) light (4) essential minerals (3) Xanthophyll (4) Carotene
Ans. (1) Ans. (2)
75. The function of the gap junction is to : 80. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to
(1) stop substance from leaking across a tissue (1) Innate immune response
(2) performing cementing to keep neighbouring (2) Humoral immune response
cells together (3) Cell-mediated immune response
(3) Facilitate communication between adjoining cells
(4) Passive immune response
by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer
Ans. (3)
of ions, small molecules and some large
molecules 81. The body cells in cockroach discharge their
(4) separate two cells from each other. nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in the
Ans. (3) form of :
76. Match the following list of microbes and their (1) Calcium carbonate (2) Ammonia
importance : (3) Potassium urate (4) Urea
(a) Saccharomyces (i) Production of Ans. (3)
cerevisiae immunosuppressive 82. Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of :
agents
(1) Synergids
(b) Monascus (ii) Ripening of Swiss (2) Generative cell
purpureus cheese (3) Nucellar embryo
(4) Aleurone cell
(c) Trichoderma (iii) Commercial
polysporum production of ethanol Ans. (1)
83. Acid rain is caused by increase in the atmospheric
(d) Propionibacterium (iv) Production of blood
concentration of :
sharmanii cholesterol lowering
agents (1) O3 and dust (2) SO2 and NO2
(3) SO3 and CO (4) CO2 and CO
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Ans. (2)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 84. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large,
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) shield-shaped cotyledon known as :
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (1) Coleoptile (2) Epiblast
Ans. (2) (3) Coleorrhiza (4) Scutellum
77. Arrange the following events of meiosis in correct Ans. (4)
sequence : 85. Among china rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, guava,
(a) Crossing over cucumber, onion and tulip, how many plants have
(b) Synapsis superior ovary?
(c) Terminalisation of chaismata (1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Three
(d) Disappearance of nucleolus Ans. (3)
(1) (b), (c), (d), (a) (2) (b), (a), (d), (c) 86. Which of the following is not a function of the
(3) (b), (a), (c), (d) (4) (a), (b), (c), (d) skeletal system?
Ans. (3) (1) Locomotion
78. The cutting of DNA at specific locations became (2) Production of erythrocytes
possible with the discovery of : (3) Storage of minerals
(1) Ligases (2) Restriction enzymes (4) Production of body heat
(3) Probes (4) Selectable markers Ans. (4)
Ans. (2)

10
 CODE-A
87. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant 93. Which of the following events is not associated with
where the incorporated gene is meant for ovulation in human female?
biosynthesis of : (1) LH surge
(1) Vitamin A (2) Decrease in estradiol
(2) Vitamin B (3) Full development of Graafian follicle
(3) Vitamin C (4) Release of secondary oocyte
(4) Omega 3 Ans. (2)
Ans. (1) 94. Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities lined
88. Chromatophores take part in : with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect
(1) Respiration development are the characteristics of phylum :
(2) Photosynthesis (1) Protozoa (2) Coelenterata
(3) Growth (3) Porifera (4) Mollusca
(4) Movement Ans. (3)
Ans. (2) 95. Which one of the following hormones is not involved
89. Select the wrong statement : in sugar metabolism ?
(1) Glucagon (2) Cortisone
(1) Mosaic disease in tobacco and AIDS in human
(3) Aldosterone (4) Insulin
being are caused by viruses
Ans. (3)
(2) The viroids were discovered by D.J. Ivanowski
96. Which of the following diseases is caused by a
(3) W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could be
protozoan ?
crystallized
(1) Blastomycosis (2) Syphilis
(4) The term 'contagium vivum fluidum' was coined
(3) Influenza (4) Babesiosis
by M.W. Beijerinek
Ans. (4)
Ans. (2)
97. Outbreeding is an important strategy of animal
90. A pleiotropic gene :
husbandry because it :
(1) controls multiple traits in an individual
(1) exposes harmful recessive genes that are
(2) is expressed only in primitive plants
eliminated by selection
(3) is a gene evolved during Pliocene
(2) helps in accumulation of superior genes.
(4) controls a trait only in combination with another
(3) is useful in producing purelines of animals.
gene
(4) is useful in overcoming inbreeding depression
Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)
91. Human urine is usually acidic because :
98. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child
(1) hydrogen ions are actively secreted into the through a technique called GIFT. The full form of
filtrate. this technique is :
(2) the sodium transporter exchanges one hydrogen (1) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
ion for each sodium ion, in peritubular (2) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
capillaries. (3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(3) excreted plasma proteins are acidic (4) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer
(4) potassium and sodium exchange generates Ans. (3)
acidity 99. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water and
Ans. (1) whose ammocoetes larvae after metamorphosis
92. Auxin can be bioassayed by : return to the ocean is :
(1) Lettuce hypocotyl elongation (1) Petromyzon
(2) Avena coleoptile curvature (2) Eptatretus
(3) Hydroponics (3) Myxine
(4) Potometer (4) Neomyxine
Ans. (2) Ans. (1)

11
RE-AIPMT-2015
100. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to 108. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is formed
rocks and/or host tissues are : by the polymerisation of :
(1) Holdfast (2) Rhizoids (1) lipoglycans
(3) Fimbriae (4) Mesosomes (2) keratin sulphate and chondroitin sulphate
Ans. (3) (3) D-glucosamine
101. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a (4) N-acetyl glucosamine
person, to which of the following would you look for
Ans. (4)
confirmatory evidence?
109. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter
(1) Serum globulins
and help in mineral cycling belong to :
(2) Fibrinogin in plasma
(3) Serum albumins (1) Ascomycetes
(4) Haemocytes (2) Deuteromycetes
(3) Basidiomycetes
Ans. (1)
102. In human females, meiosis-II is not completed until? (4) Phycomycetes
(1) birth (2) puberty Ans. (2)
(3) fertilization (4) uterine implantation 110. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect
Ans. (3) are :
103. Which of the following layers in an antral follicle is (1) homologous structures and represent convergent
acellular ? evolution
(1) Zona pellucida (2) Granulosa (2) homologous structures and represent divergent
(3) Theca interna (4) Stroma evolution
Ans. (1)
(3) analogous structures and represent convergent
104. In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did
evolution
not use :
(4) phylogenetic structures and represent divergent
(1) Flower position (2) Seed colour
evolution
(3) Pod length (4) Seed shape
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)
105. Which one of the following fruits is parthenocarpic? 111. Flowers are unisexual in :
(1) Banana (2) Brinjal (1) Onion (2) Pea
(3) Apple (4) Jackfruit (3) Cucumber (4) China rose
Ans. (1) Ans. (3)
106. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and 112. Increase in concentration of the toxicant at
megasporogenesis : successive trophic levels is known as :
(1) occur in ovule
(1) Biogeochemical cycling
(2) occur in anther
(2) Biomagnification
(3) form gametes without furthers divisions
(4) involve meiosis (3) Biodeterioration
Ans. (4) (4) Biotransformation
107. A gene showing codominance has : Ans. (2)
(1) both alleles independently expressed in the 113. Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal
heterozygote cord would result in loss of :-
(2) one allele dominant on the other (1) Integrating impulses
(3) alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome (2) Sensory impulses
(4) alleles that are recessive to each other (3) voluntary motor impulses
Ans. (1) (4) Commissural impulses
Ans. (3)

12
 CODE-A
114. Roots play insignificant role in absorption of water 119. Which of the following joints would allow no
in : movement ?
(1) Wheat (2) Sunflower (3) Pistia (4) Pea (1) Ball and Socket joint
Ans. (3) (2) Fibrous joint
115. Match the columns and identify the correct option: (3) Cartilaginous joint
(4) Synovial joint
Column-I Column-II Ans. (2)
120. Which one of the following is not applicable to RNA?
Disc-shaped sacs in
(a) Thylakoids (i) (1) Chargaff's rule
Golgi apparatus
(2) Complementary base pairing
Condensed (3) 5' phosphoryl and 3' hydroxyl ends
(b) Cristae (ii)
structure of DNA
(4) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
Flat membranous Ans. (1)
(c) Cisternae (iii
sacs in stroma 121. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sound;
Infoldings in produced during each cardiac cycle. The second
(d) Chromatin (iv) sound is heard when :
mitochondria
(1) AV node receives signal from SA node
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) AV valves open up
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing of blood
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
from atria
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) Semilunar valves close down after the blood
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
flows into vessels from ventricles
Ans. (3)
Ans. (4)
116. Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic
122. During ecological succession :
material from largest to smallest :
(1) the changes lead to a community that is in near
(1) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
equilibrium with the environment and is called
(2) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
pioneer community
(3) Genome, chromosomes, nucleotide, gene
(2) the gradual and predictable change in species
(4) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
composition occurs in a given area
Ans. (4)
(3) the establishment of a new biotic community is
117. Which one of the following hormones though
very fast in its primary phase
synthesised elsewhere, is stored and released by the
(4) the number and types of animals remain
master gland ?
constant
(1) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(2) Antidiuretic hormone Ans. (2)
(3) Luteinizing hormone 123. In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols
(4) Prolactin represent the affected individuals. Identify the type
Ans. (2) of given pedigree.
118. Read the different components from (a) to (d) in the I
list given below and tell the correct order of the
components with reference to their arrangement II
from outer side to inner side in a woody dicot stem:
(a) Secondary cortex III
(b) Wood
(c) Secondary phloem IV
(d) Phellem (1) X-linked dominant
The correct order is : (2) Autosomal dominant
(1) (d), (c), (a), (b) (2) (c), (d), (b), (a) (3) X-linked recessive
(3) (a), (b), (d), (c) (4) (d), (a), (c), (b) (4) Autosomal recessive
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)
13
RE-AIPMT-2015
124. Balbiani rings are sites of : 131. Pick up the wrong statement :
(1) RNA and protein synthesis
(1) Nuclear membrane is present in Monera
(2) Lipid synthesis
(3) Nucleotide synthesis (2) Cell wall is absent in Animalia
(4) Polysaccharide synthesis (3) Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic
Ans. (1) modes of nutrition
125. Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar
surface area involved in gas exchange is drastically (4) Some fungi are edible
reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls : Ans. (1)
(1) Asthma (2) Pleurisy
(3) Emphysema (4) Pneumonia 132. In photosynthesis, the light-independent reactions
Ans. (3) take place at :
126. Which the following are most suitable indicator of (1) Stromal matrix
SO2 pollution in the environment ?
(2) Thylakoid lumen
(1) Fungi (2) Lichens
(3) Conifers (4) Algae (3) Photosystem - I
Ans. (2)
(4) Photosystem-II
127. Satellite DNA is important because it :
(1) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication Ans. (1)
(2) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle 133. Which of the following immunoglobulins does
(3) Shows high degree of polymorphism in constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
population and also the same degree of
polymorphism in an individual, which is heritable (1) IgG (2) IgD
from parents to children (3) IgM (4) IgA
(4) Does not code for proteins and is same in all
Ans. (4)
members of the population
Ans. (3) 134. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
128. Industrial melanism is an example of : matched?
(1) Neo Lamarckism (2) Neo Darwinism
(3) Natural selection (4) Mutation Mode of Example
Ans. (3) reproduction
129. A column of water within xylem vessels of tall trees
(1) Conidia Penicillium
does not break under its weight because of :
(1) Positive root pressure (2) Offset Water hyacinth
(2) Dissolved sugars in water
(3) Rhizome Banana
(3) Tensile strength of water
(4) Lignification of xylem vessels (4) Binary fission Sargassum
Ans. (3)
130. The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves : Ans. (4)
(1) Allowing the plant roots to stand in water 135. The UN conference of Parties on climate change
(2) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium in the year 2012 was held at :
tumefaciens (1) Warsaw (2) Durban
(3) Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking
(3) Doha (4) Lima
the plants
(4) Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)

14
 CODE-A
136. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest 139. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius R,
wavelength in the Lyman series to the longest one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius r.
wavelength in the Balmer series is : If the speed of the liquid in the tube is V, the speed
of the ejection of the liquid through the holes is :
5 4 9 27
(1) (2) (3) (4) V2R VR 2
27 9 4 5 (1) (2)
nr n2r 2
Ans. (1)
Sol. For Lyman series VR 2 VR 2
(3) (4)
nr 2 n3 r 2
æ 1 ö 2 é 1 1 ù
çè l ÷ø = R(1) ê (1)2 - (2)2 ú Ans. (3)
max L ë û
4 R
(l max )L = Sol.
3R
For Balmer series
æ 1 ö 2 é 1 1 ù Av = constant
çè l ÷ø = R(1) ê (2)2 - (3)2 ú
max B ë û pR2 V = npr 2 v1
36
(l max )B =
5R VR 2
Þ v1 =
(l max )L 4 5R 5 nr 2
= ´ = 140. The Young's modulus of steel is twice that of brass.
(l max )B 3R 36 27
137. The energy of the em waves is of the order of Two wires of same lenght and of same area of cross
section, one of steel and another of brass are
15 keV. To which part of the spectrum does it
suspended from the same roof. If we want the lower
belong?
ends of the wires to be at the same level, then the
(1) g-rays (2) X-rays weights added to the steel and brass wires must be
(3) Infra-red rays (4) Ultraviolet rays in the ratio of :
Ans. (2) (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
Sol. Wavelengh of the ray Ans. (3)

hc Fl Fl
l= Sol. Y = Þ Dl =
E ADl AY
= 0.826 Å (Dl)steel = (Dl)Brans
since l < 100 Å
Ws l WB l
so it is X-ray Þ =
AYs AYB
138. An electron moves on a straight line path XY as
shown. The abcd is a coil adjacent to the path of Ws Y
electron. What will be the direction of current, if any, Þ = s =2
WB YB
induced in the coil ?
a 141. A potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance
r are connected in series with a battery of e.m.f. E0
b d and a resistance r1. An unknown e.m.f. E is balanced
at a length l of the potentiometer wire. The e.m.f.
c Y E will be given by :
X electron LE 0 r L E0 r
(1) No current induced (1) ( r + r ) l (2) l r
1 2
(2) abcd
E 0r l E l
(3) adcd (3) ( r + r ) . L (4) 0
(4) The current will reverse its direction as the 1 L
Ans (3)
electron goes past the coil
Ans. (4) ir E0 r
Sol. Potential gradient x = L = (r + r) L
Sol. First current develops in direction of abcd but when 1

electron moves away, then magnetic field inside loop E 0r r

decreases & current changes its direction. \ e.m.f. E = xl = (r + r ) × L
1
15
RE-AIPMT-2015
142. A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. 145. An automobile moves on a road with a speed of
Its maximum acceleration is a and maximum velocity 54 kmh–1. The radius of its wheels is 0.45 m and
is b. Then, its time period of vibration will be :- the moment of inertia of the wheel about its axis
2pb b2 a b2 of rotation is 3 kgm2. If the vehicle is brought to rest
(1) (2) (3) (4) in 15s, th e magnit ude of average torque
a a2 b a
Ans (1) transmitted by its brakes to wheel is :-
Sol. For S.H.M. (1) 2.86 kg m2s–2
Maximum acceleration = w2A = a (2) 6.66 kg m2s–2
Maximum velocity = wA = b (3) 8.58 kg m2s–2
a 2p 2pb (4) 10.86 kg m2s–2
Þ w= Þ T= = Ans. (2)
b w a
r Sol. Velocity of the automobile
143. If vec tors A = co swt î + sinwt ĵ and
5
r v = 54 ´ =15 m/s
wt wt 18
B = cos ˆi + sin ˆj are fcunctions of time, then
2 2
the value of t at which they are orthogonal to each v 15 100
w0 = = = rad/s
other is : R 0.45 3
p so angular acceleration
(1) t = 0 (2) t =
4w
p p Dw w f - w 0 100
(3) t = (4) t = a= = =- rad/s2
2w w t t 45
Ans (4)
r r
Sol. A × B = 0 100
so Torque = Ia = 3 ´ = 6.66 kg-m2s–2
45
wt wt
cos wt cos + sin wt sin =0
2 2 146. A rectangular coil of length 0.12m and width 0.1m
æ wt ö having 50 turns of wire is suspended vertically in a
cos ç wt - = 0 Þ cos wt = 0
è 2 ÷ø 2 uniform magnetic field of strength 0.2 Weber/m2.
The coil carries a current of 2 A. If the plane of the
wt p p
Þ = Þ t= coil is inclined at an angle of 30° with the direction
2 2 w
144. A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency of the field, the torque required to keep the coil in
100 Hz and an observer O are located at some stable equilibrium will be :
distance from each other. The source is moving with (1) 0.12 Nm (2) 0.15 Nm
a speed of 19.4 ms–1 at an angle of 60° with the (3) 0.20 Nm (4) 0.24 Nm
source observer line as shown in the figure. The Ans (3)
observer is at rest. The apparent frequency observed
by the observer (velocity of sound in air 330 ms–1)
is :-
Vs

A
60°
Sol.
60° B
O
(1) 97 Hz (2) 100 Hz (3) 103 Hz (4) 106 Hz
Ans. (3)
æ v ö æ 330 ö r r r
f0 = fs ç = 100 t = M´B
Sol. ÷ ç 19.4 ÷ » 103 Hz
è v - vs ø r
çè 330 - ÷ |t|= MB sin q = NIAB sin q = 0.20 Nm
2 ø
16
 CODE-A
147. A parallel plate air capacitor has capacity 'C' 150. In the given figure, a diode D is connected to an
distance of separation between plates is 'd' and external resistance R =100 W and an e.m.f of 3.5V.
potential difference 'V' is applied between the plates If the barrier potential developed across the diode
force of attraction between the plates of the parallel is 0.5 V, the current in the circuit will be :
plate air capacitor is : D 100W
R
C2 V2 C2 V2 CV 2 CV 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2d 2 2d 2d d

Ans. (3)
3.5V
Q2
Sol. F= (1) 35 mA (2) 30 mA
2e0 A
(3) 40 mA (4) 20 mA
e0 A Ans. (2)
Q Q = CV and C= Þ e0A = Cd
d Sol. Potential difference on R = 3.5 – 0.5 = 3.0 volt

C2 V 2 CV 2 V 3
So F = = Current in circuit i = = = 30mA
2Cd 2d R 100
148. Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A 151. A remote - sensing satellite of earth revolves in a
and B at the same temperature, the pressure of A circular orbit at a height of 0.25 × 106 m above the
being twice that of B. Under such conditions, the surface of earth. If earth's radius is 6.38 × 106 m
density of A is found to be 1.5 times the density of and g=9.8 ms–2, then the orbital speed of the
B. The ratio of molecular weight of A and B is :
satellite is :
1 2 (1) 6.67 km s–1 (2) 7.76 km s–1
(1) (2)
2 3 (3) 8.56 km s–1 (4) 9.13 km s–1
Ans. (2)
3
(3) (4) 2 Sol. For the satellite revolving around earth
4
Ans. (3) GMe GMe g Re
v0 = = =
Sol. According to ideal gas equation (Re th) æ hö h
R e ç1 + 1+
è R e ÷ø Re
rRT rRT
P= Þ M= substituting the values
M P

M A rA TA PB v 0 = 60 ´ 106 m/s
= . . æ 1ö
so MB rB TB PA = (1.5) (1) çè 2 ÷ø v0 = 7.76 × 103 m/s = 7.76 km/s
r
152. The position vector of a particle R as a function
MA 3
Þ M =4 of time is given by :-
r
B
R = 4 sin(2pt)iˆ + 4 cos(2pt)ˆj
149. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around
Where R is in meters, t is in seconds and î and ĵ
the earth. The mass of the satellite is very small
compared to the mass of the earth. Then, denote unit vectors along x and y-directions,
respectively. Which one of the following statements
(1) the acceleration of S is always directed towards
is wrong for the motion of particle ?
the centre of the earth.
(1) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter
(2) the angular momentum of S about the centre r
of the earth changes in direction, but its (2) Acceleration vectors is along -R
magnitude remains constant. v2
(3) Magnitude of acceleration vector is where
(3) the total mechanical energy of S varies R
v is the velocity of particle.
periodically with time.
(4) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is
(4) the linear momentum of S remains constant in 8 meter/second
magnitude. Ans. (4)
Ans. (1)
17
RE-AIPMT-2015
r The position of point P on rod through which the
Sol. R = 4sin (2pt) î + 4 cos 2pt ĵ
axis should pass so that the work required to set the
r
r dR rod rotating with minimum angular velocity w0 is
v= = 8p cos2p t ˆi – 8p sin 2pt ˆj
dt their centre of mass
r
v =8p 2 m 2L
so m1x = m2 (L–x) Þ x = m + m
1 2
153. A string is stretched between fixed points separated
by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have resonant 155. At the first minimum adjacent to the central
frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no maximum of a single-slit diffraction pattern the
other resonant frequencies between these two. The phase difference between the Huygen's wavelet
lowest resonant frequencies for this string is : from the edge of the slit and the wavelet from the
(1) 105 Hz (2) 155 Hz mid point of the slit is :-
(3) 205 Hz (4) 10.5 Hz p p
(1) radian (2) radian
Ans. (1) 8 4
Sol. Two consecutive resonant frequencies for a string
fixed at both ends will be p
(3) radian (4) p radian
2
nv (n + 1)v
and Ans. (4)
2l 2l
P
(n + 1)v nv
Þ - = 420 - 315 Sol.
2l 2l

v q
= 105 Hz a
2l q
O
Which is the minimum resonant frequency D x1
154. Point masses m1 and m2 are placed at the opposite
ends of a rigid rod of length L, and negligible mass.
The rod is to be set rotating about an axis
Screen
perpendicular to it. The position of point P on this
For first minima at P, a sin q = l
rod through which the axis should pass so that the
work required to set the rod rotating with angular Dx1
So phase difference Df1 = ´ 2p
velocity w0 is minimum, is given by :- l

w0 (a / 2) sin q
= ´ 2p
l
l
Df1 = ´ 2p = p radian
m1 P m2 2l
x r
(L–x) 156. A force F = aˆi + 3jˆ + 6kˆ is acting at a point
r ˆ The value of a for which angular
r = 2iˆ - 6jˆ - 12k.

m 2L m1L momentum about origin is conserved is :

(1) x = m + m (2) x = m + m (1) 1 (2) –1
1 2 1 2

m1 m2 (3) 2 (4) zero

(3) x = m L (4) x = m L Ans. (2)
2 1

Ans. (1) Sol. For conservation of angular momentum about origin

w0
r
Sol. åt net = 0 Þ rr ´ Fr = 0 Þ a = –1
x P
m1 m2
(L-x)
18
 CODE-A
157. Two particles A and B, move with constant velocities s1 s2
r r Sol.
u1 and u2 . At the initial moment their position l l
r r Req = R1 + R2
vectors are r1 and r2 respectively. The condition
for particle A and B for their collision is :- 2l l l 2s1s2
r r r r Þ s A = s A + s A Þ s eq = s + s
r r r r r1 - r2 u2 - u1 eq 1 2 1 2
(1) r1 - r2 = u1 - u2 (2) r r = r r
r1 - r2 u2 - u1 160. Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a metal
r r r r r r r r with work function 2.28 eV. The de Broglie
(3) r1 × u1 = r2 × u2 (4) r1 ´ u1 = r2 ´ u2
wavelength of the emitted electron is :-
Ans. (2)
(1) £ 2.8 × 10–12m (2) < 2.8 × 10–10m
Sol. For two particles to collide, the direction of the
relative velocity of one with respect to other should (3) < 2.8 × 10–9 m (4) ³ 2.8 × 10–9 m
be directed towards the relative position of the other Ans. (4)
particle 12400
r r Sol. Energy of photon (E) = = 2.48 eV
r1 - r2 5000
i.e. rr - rr ® direction of relative position of 1 w.r.t. 2.
1 2 Work function (f0) = 2.28 eV
r r According to eienstein equation
v 2 - v1
& vr - vr ® direction of velocity of 2 w.r.t. 1 E = f0 + (K.E.)max
2 1
Þ 2.,48 = 2.28 + (K.E.)max
so for collision of A & B Þ (K.E.)max = 0.20 eV
r r r r h
r1 - r2 v 2 - v1
r r = r r For electron l = Þ l » 28 Å
r1 - r2 v 2 - v1 2mE

158. A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of So l ³ 2.8 ´ 10-9 m

thorium and helium. Then :- 161. 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP. The
(1) The helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than specific heat capacity of the gas at constant volume
the thorium nucleus is 5.0 JK–1 mol–1 . If the speed of sound in this gas
(2) The helium has more kinetic energy than the at NTP is 952 ms–1, then the heat capacity at
thorium nucleus. constant pressure is
(3) The helium nucleus has less momentum than the (Take gas constant R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1)
thorium nucleus. (1) 8.5 JK–1 mol–1 (2) 8.0 JK–1 mol–1
(4) The helium nucleus has more momentum than –1
(3) 7.5 JK mol –1
(4) 7.0 JK–1 mol–1
the thorium nucleus. Ans. (2)
Ans. (2) Sol. Molecular mass M = 4.0 g
Sol. By COLM :
gRT Mv2
pf = pi = 0 vsound = Þ g= = 1.6
M RT
Þ pHe – pTh = 0 Þ pHe = pTh
So, Cp = gCv = 1.6 × 5.0 = 8.0 J K–1 mol–1
1
but K µ and mHe < mTh So KHe > KTh 162. A series R-C circuit is connected to an alternating
m
voltage source. Consider two situations :-
159. Two metal wires of identical dimensions are (a) When capacitor is air filled.
connected in series. If s1 and s2 are the conductivities (b) When capacitor is mica filled.
of the metal wires respectively, the effective Current through resistor is i and voltage across
conductivity of the combination is :- capacitor is V then :-
(1) Va = Vb (2) Va < Vb
s1s2 2s1s2 (3) Va > Vb (4) ia > ib
(1) s + s (2) s + s
1 2 1 2 Ans. (3)
Sol. When capacitor is filled with mica then capacitance
s1 + s2 s1 + s2
(3) (4) C increases so XC decreases
2s1s2 s1s2
In case (b) X C ¯ so voltage across capacitor
Ans. (2) decreases. so Va > Vb

19
RE-AIPMT-2015
163. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually TL
raised about the other end. As the angle of COP =
TH – TL
inclination with the horizontal reaches 30°, the box
Where TL ® lower Temperature
starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down the plank in 4.0s.
& TH ® Higher Temperature
The coefficients of static and kinetic friction between
the box and the plank will be, respectively : TL
So, 5 = T – T
H L

6 6
Þ TH = TL = (253) = 303.6 K
5 5
mg
166. An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume
q by means of several processes. Which of the process
results in the maximum work done on the gas ?
(1) 0.4 and 0.3 (2) 0.6 and 0.6
(1) Isothermal (2) Adiabatic
(3) 0.6 and 0.5 (4) 0.5 and 0.6
(3) Isobaric (4) Isochoric
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
Sol. Coefficient of static friction, Sol.
Ad
i
ab
1 ­ f Iso
t he a t i c
m s = tan 30° = = 0.6 rm
3 P al
f i
Isobaric
a = gsin30° – mkg cos30°
V/2 V
V®
1 2
S = ut + at work done on the gas
2
Wisochoric = 0
1 é g mk g 3 ù and Wadiabatic > WIsothermal > WIsobaric
Þ 4= ê - ú ´ 16 Þ m k = 0.5
2 êë 2 2 úû
167. A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height
164. Two stones of masses m and 2 m are whirled in of 20 m with an initial velocity u0. It collides with the
r ground, loses 50 percent of its energy in collision
horizontal circles, the heavier one in a radius and and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity
2
the lighter one in radius r. The tangential speed of u0 is : (Take g = 10 ms–2)
lighter stone is n times that of the value of heavier (1) 10 ms–1 (2) 14 ms–1
stone when they experience same centripetal forces. (3) 20 ms–1 (4) 28 ms–1
The value of n is :
Ans. (3)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Sol. Let ball rebounds with speed V so
Ans. (2)
v= 2gh = 2 ´ 10 ´ 20 = 20 m/s
Sol. (FC)heavier = (FC)lighter
Energy just after rebound
2mV 2 m(nV)2
Þ = Þ n2 = 4 Þ n = 2 1
(r / 2) r E= ´ m ´ v 2 = 200 m
2
165. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 50% energy loses in collision means just before
5. If the temperature inside freezer is –20°C, the colliision energy is 400 m
temperature of the surroundings to which it rejects
By using energy conservation
heat is :
(1) 21°C (2) 31°C 1
mv 20 + mgh = 400m
2
(3) 41°C (4) 11°C
1
Ans. (2) Þ mv 20 + m ´ 10 ´ 20 = 400m Þ v0 = 20 m/s
2
Sol. Coefficient of performance of refrigerator
20
 CODE-A
168. On a frictionless surface, a block of mass. M moving 171. The heart of a man pumps 5 litres of blood through
at speed v collides elastically with another block of the arteries per minute at a pressure of 150 mm of
same mass M which is initially at rest. After collision mercury. If the density of mercury be 13.6 ×103 kg/m3
the first block moves at an angle q to its initial and g = 10m/s2 then the power of heart in watt is:
(1) 1.50 (2) 1.70 (3) 2.35 (4) 3.0
v
direction and has a speed . The second block's Ans. (2)
3
Sol. Pressure = 150 mm Hg
speed after the collision is :-
dV 5 ´ 10-3
3 2 2 3 3 Pumping rate = = m3/s
(1) u (2) u (3) u (4) u dt 60
2 3 4 2
dV dV
Ans. (2) Power of heart = P. = rgh ´
dt dt
Sol. In elastic collision energy of system remains same
so. 5 ´ 10-3
= (13.6 × 103 kg/m3) (10) × (0.15) ×
(K.E)before collision = (K.E)After collision 60
Let speed of second body after collision is V' 13.6 ´ 5 ´ 0.15
= = 1.70 watt
2
6
1 1 æ vö 1 2 2 172. A proton and an alpha particle both enter a region
mv 2 + 0 = m ç ÷ + m(v ')2 Þ v ' = v
2 2 è 3ø 2 3 of uniform magnetic field, B, moving at right angles
to the field B. If the radius of circular orbits for both
169. If potential (in volts) in a region is expressed as
the particles is equal and the kinetic energy acquired
V (x,y,z) = 6xy – y + 2yz, the electric field
by proton is 1 MeV, the energy acquired by the
(in N/C) at point (1,1,0) is :
alpha particle will be :-
(1) -(6i$ + 9j$ + k)
$ (2) -(3i$ + 5j$ + 3k)
$
(1) 1 MeV (2) 4 MeV
(3) -(6i$ + 5j$ + 2k)
$ (4) -(2i$ + 3j$ + k)
$ (3) 0.5 MeV (4) 1.5 MeV
Ans. (3) Ans. (1)
r ¶V ˆ ¶V ˆ ¶V ˆ mv 2mK
Sol. E =- i- j- k Sol. R = =
¶x ¶y ¶z qB qB
r
E =- ( 6y ) ˆi - ( 6x - 1 + 2z ) ˆj - ( 2y ) kˆ 4ma k a 4m p K p
Q Ra = Rp \ q 2 B2 = q 2 B2
at point (1,1,0) a p

r
( ˆ
E = - 6 ˆi - 5 ˆj - 2 kˆ = - 6 ˆi + 5 ˆj + 2 k ) Þ
4mp k a
2
=
m p (1MeV )
Þ Ka = 1MeV
170. Two slits in Youngs experiment have widths in the 4e e2
ratio 1 : 25. The ratio of intensity at the maxima 173. The input signal given to a CE amplifier having a

I max æ pö
and minima in the interference pattern, is : voltage gain of 150 is Vi = 2 cos ç 15t + ÷ . The
Imin è 3ø

4 9 121 49 corresponding output signal will be -

(1) (2) (3) (4)
9 4 49 121 æ 4p ö
(1) 300 cos ç 15t +
Ans. (2) è 3 ÷ø
I1 W1 1 I2 25 æ pö
Sol. I = W = 25 Þ I1
=
1 (2) 300 cos çè 15t + ÷ø
2 2 3
2
æ I2 ö 2p ö
æ
( ) ç I +1 ÷
2

Imax I2 + I1 (3) 75 cos çè 15t + ÷ø

= =ç
1 ÷ 3
( I ) ç I2 ÷
2
Imin I2 - 1 ç - 1÷ æ 5p ö
è I1 ø (4) 2 cos çè 15t + ÷ø
6
2 2
æ 5 + 1ö æ 6ö 9
=ç ÷ =ç ÷ = Ans. (1)
è 5 - 1ø è 4ø 4
21
RE-AIPMT-2015
480 ´ 20
p Reff = 40.8 + = 40.8 + 19.2= 60 W
Sol. Input signal vin = 2 cos (15t + ) 480 + 20
3
Veff
Voltage Gain = 150 I= = 0.5 A
R eff
CE amplifier gives phase difference of p between 176. Water rises to height 'h' in capillary tube. If the length
input and output signals of capillary tube above the surface of water is made
less than 'h', then -
V0
Av =
Vin so V0 = A V Vin (1) water does not rise at all.
(2) water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then
p starts overflowing like a fountain.
so V0 = 150 × 2 cos (15t + + p)
3
(3) water rises upto the top of capillary tube and
4p stays there without overflowing.
V0 = 300 cos (15t + )
3
(4) water rises upto a point a little below the top
174. In dimension of critical velocity nc, of liquid following and stays there.
through a tube are expressed as (hx ry rz), where
Ans. (3)
h, r and r are the coefficient of viscosity of liquid,
density of liquid and radius of the tube respectively, 177. In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment
then the values of x, y and z are given by : a straight black line of length L is drawn on inside
part of objective lens. The eye-piece forms a real
(1) 1, 1, 1 (2) 1, –1, –1
image of this line. The length of this image is I. The
(3) –1, –1, 1 (4) –1, –1, –1 magnification of the telescope is :

Ans. (2) L L
(1) (2) +1
I I
Sol. nc µ [hx ry rz]
L L+I
[L1T-1] µ [M1 L–1 T–1]x [M1 L–3 ]y [L1]z (3) -1 (4)
I L-I
[L1T–1] µ [Mx+y] [L–x-3y+z] [T–x] Ans. (1)
taking comparision on both size

x + y = 0, –x – 3y + z = 1, –x = –1 L
Sol.
Þ x = 1, y = –1, z = –1 I
f0 + fe
175. A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of 30 V
and a resistance 40.8 ohm all connected in series. Magnification of telescope,
If the ammeter has a coil of resistance 480 ohm and
a shunt of 20 ohm, the reading in the ammeter will f0
M=
be :- fe

(1) 1 A (2) 0.5 A (3) 0.25 A (4) 2 A fe I

Here =-
Ans. (2) fe + u L

fe I
480W Þ =-
Sol. fe - (f0 + fe ) L
40.8W
fe I
Þ =
f0 L
20W
L
Therefore M =
I
30V
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 CODE-A
178. The value of coefficient of volume expansion of
hc
glycerin is 5 × 10–4 K–1. The fractional change in Sol. KE1 = -f
the density of glycerin for a rise of 40°C in its l
temperature, is :-
hc 2hc
(1) 0.010 KE 2 = -f= -f
l/2 l
(2) 0.015
(3) 0.020 KE2 = 3KE1

(4) 0.025
2hc æ hc ö
Ans. (3) Þ - f = 3ç - f÷
l è l ø
di
Sol. df =
(1 + gDT) hc
Þ 2f =
fractional change l

di - df d hc
= =1- f Þ f=
di di 2l

= 1 – (1 + gDT)–1 180. A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue

colours is incident on a right angled prism. The
= 1 – (1 – gDT)
refractive index of the material of the prism for the
Q (1+x)n » 1 + nx above red, green and blue wavelengths are 1.39,
= gDT 1.44 and 1.47, respectively.
A
= 5 × 10–4 × 40
= 0.020 Blue
Green
179. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively Red
l
by monochromatic light of wavelength l and . If
2
45°
the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted
B C
photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in
the first case, the work function of the surface of The prism will :-
the material is : (1) separate the red colour part from the green and
(h = Plank's constant, c = speed of light) blue colours

(2) separate the blue colour part from the red and
hc
(1) green colours
3l
(3) separate all the three colours from one another
hc
(2) (4) not separate the three colours at all
2l
Ans. (1)
hc
(3)
l 1 1
Sol. m = sin i = = 2 = 1.414
c sin 45°
2hc
(4)
l Q (mred = 1.39) < m, mv > m ; mg > m
Ans. (2) only red colur do not suffer total internal reflection.
23