AIATS-2021 (OYMCF) Test-04 Offline Code-A Hindi Final

06-12-2020 A
Entrance Exam - 2021
TEST No. 4
(XII Studying Students)
INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES (ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k)

1. Read each question carefully. 7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure
çR;d Z i<Aas+
s ç'u dks è;kuiowd that the test paper contains all pages and no page is missing.
2. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the ç'u&i=k gy djuk ikzjEHk djus ls igys ijh{kkFkhZ Hkyh&Hkkf¡r tkp ¡ yas fd
appropriate circle in the answer sheet. ç'u&i=k eas lHkh i"`B ly
a Xu gS rFkk dkbsZ Hkh i"`B yIqr ugha gAS
mÙkj&i=k eas mi;Dqr oÙ`k dks Hkjus ds fy, uhy@
s dkys cky
W ikbWUV ius dk 8. Each correct answer carries four marks. One mark will be
mi;kxs djuk vfuok;Z gAS deducted for each incorrect answer from the total score.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
çR;d s lgh mÙkj ds fy;s pkj vd a fu/kfZjr gAaS çR;d
s xyr mÙkj ds fy, dy
q
oÙ`k xgjk ,oa i.wkrZ% Hkjk gkusk pkfg,A
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet. ikzIrkd
a kas eas ls ,d vd
a dkV fy;k tk;xskA
mÙkj&i=k eas fdlh Hkh rjg dk dkbsZ jiQ dk;Z u djAas 9. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer candidate should check that Roll No. and Centre Code have
sheet. No change in the answer once marked is allowed. been filled and marked correctly.
mÙkj&i=k eas 'ors noz (white-fluid) ;k fdlh Hkh id
z kj ds dkbsZ vU; feVkus ds i;oZ{skd dks mÙkj&i=k lkiaSus ls igys ijh{kkFkhZ viuk vuØ
q ekd
a rFkk dUsnz
lk/u dk mi;kxs u djAas mÙkj dks ,d ckj fpfUgr djus ds ckn bleas fdlh dkMs Hkyh&Hkkf¡r tkp
¡ yAsa
çdkj ds ifjoruZ dh vueqfr ugha gAS
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other 10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the
material in the examination hall. answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
ijh{kkFkh]Z ijh{kk d{k eas y?kxq.kdh; lkj.kh ,oa x.kd ;k bl çdkj dh vU; ijh{kk le; lekIr gkuss ds rjqUr ckn ijh{kkFkhZ viuk mÙkj&i=k i;oZ{skd dks
fdlh lkexhz dk mi;kxs ugha dj ldrkA lkiaS nAas
Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
uksV : mÙkj i=k esa vuqØekad rFkk ç'u&iqfLrdk dksM fy[kuk vfuok;Z gS] vU;Fkk vkids mÙkj&i=k ij dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA
(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

Test No. 4
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter, Atoms, Nuclei, Semiconductors.

fofdj.k rFkk nzO; dh }Sr izd`fr] ijek.kq] ukfHkd] v)Zpkyd
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Amines, Biomolecules, Polymers,

Chemistry in Everyday Life
,fYMgkbM] dhVksu rFkk dkcksZfDlfyd vEy] ,ehu] tSov.kq] cgqyd] nSfud thou esa jlk;u
Ecosystem, Biodiversity and Conservation, Environmental Issues, Biotechnology:

Principles and Process, Biotechnology and its Applications.
ikfjfLFkfrd ra=] tSofofo/krk o laj{k.k] i;kZoj.kh; eqn~ns] tSo&izkS|ksfxdh% fl)kar ,oa

izØe] tSo&izkS|ksfxdh ,oa mlds mi;ksx
Test-4 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
MM : 720 TEST - 4 Time : 3 Hrs.
[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer : lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft,%
1. Two photons of same frequency moving in same 1. leku ekè;e esa xfreku leku vko`fr ds nks QksVkWuksa
medium must have ds fy,] dkSulk dFku lgh gS\
(1) Same linear momentum and same wave lengths (1) budk leku js[kh; laosx rFkk leku rjaxnS?;Z gksxk
(2) Same linear momentum and same speeds (2) budk leku js[kh; laox s rFkk leku pky gksxh
(3) Same energy and same linear momentum (3) leku ÅtkZ rFkk leku js[kh; laosx gksxk
(4) None of these (4) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
2. The de-Broglie wavelength of a bus moving with 2. v pky ls xfreku ,d cl dh Mh&czksxyh rjaxnS/;Z 
speed v is . Some passengers left the bus at a gSA dqN ;k=h fdlh LVS.M ij cl ls mrj x;sA vc
stopage. Now the bus moves with twice the speed, cl nksxquh pky ls xfr djrh gS] bldh xfrt ÅtkZ
its kinetic energy is found to be twice the initial value.
blds izkjfEHkd eku dh nksxquh ik;h tkrh gSA uohu
The new de-Broglie wavelength will be
Mh&czksxyh rjaxnSè;Z gksxk
(1)  (2) 2
(1)  (2) 2
 
(3) (4)  
2 4 (3) (4)
2 4
3. A proton when accelerated through a potential 3. tc fdlh izksVkWu dks V oksYV foHkokUrj ls Rofjr fd;k
difference of V volt has a de-Broglie wave
tkrk gS] rc blls lEc) Mh&czksxyh rjaxnSè;ZgSA ,d
lengthassociated with it. An –particle in order to
–d.k dh leku Mh&czksxyh rjaxnSè;Z gksus ds fy,] bls
have the same de-Broglie wave length, must be
accelerated through a potential difference of fdrus foHkokUrj ls Rofjr fd;k tkuk pkfg,\
V V
(1) (2) 4V (1) (2) 4V
8 8
V
V (3) 2V (4)
(3) 2V (4) 4
4
4. fdlh /kkfRod lrg ij vkifrr gksus okyk ,dyo.khZ;
4. Monochromatic light incident on a metal surface
emits electrons with kinetic energies from 0 to
izdk'k 0 ls 2.6 eV xfrt ÅtkZ okys bysDVªkWu mRlftZr
2.6 eV. What is the least energy of the incident djrk gSA ;fn izcy :i ls caf/kr bysDVªkWu dks gVkus
photon if the tightly bound electron needs 4.2 eV to ds fy, 4.2 eV dh vko';drk gksrh gS] rc vkifrr
remove? QksVkWu dh U;wure ÅtkZ D;k gS\
(1) 1.6 eV (1) 1.6 eV
(2) From 1.6 eV to 6.8 eV (2) 1.6 eV ls 6.8 eV rd
(3) 6.8 eV (3) 6.8 eV
(4) More than 6.8 eV (4) 6.8 eV ls vf/kd
5. The human eye can barely detect a yellow-orange 5. ,d ekuo us= eqf'dy ls 6600 Å rjaxnSè;Z ds ihys
light of wavelength 6600 Å, that delivers 1.5 × 10–18 ukjaxh izdk'k dks lalwfpr dj ldrk gS] tks jsfVuk dks
W to the ratina. How many photons per second does 1.5 × 10–18 W iznku djrk gSA jsfVuk izfr lsd.M fdrus
the ratina receive? QksVkWu izkIr djrk gS\
(1) 50 (2) 5 (1) 50 (2) 5
(3) 500 (4) 5000 (3) 500 (4) 5000
Aakash Educational Services Limited - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)
6. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of α-particle to 6. ,d α-

d.k rFkk ,d izksVkWu] ftu ij leku pqEcdh;
that of a proton being subjected perpendicular to the {ks= B vkjksfir fd;k x;k gS] dh Mh czksxyh rjaxnS/;Z

same magnetic field B so that the radii of their paths dk vuqikr D;k gksxk] rkfd buds iFk dh f=T;k ,d
are equal to each other is nwljs ds cjkcj gks tk,\
1 1
(1) 1 (2) (1) 1 (2)
4 4
1 1
(3) (4) 2 (3) (4) 2
2 2
7. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The 7. ,d izdkf'kd lsy dh ,uksM oksYVrk dks fLFkj j[kk
wavelength (λ) of the light falling on the cathode is tkrk gSA dSFkksM ij vkifrr gksus okys izdk'k dh
gradually increased. The plate current (i) of the rjaxnS/;Z (λ) /khjs&/khjs c<+rh gSA izdk'k lsy dh IysV
photocell varies according to graph /kkjk (i) fdl vkjs[k ds vuqlkj ifjofrZr gksrh gS\
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
8. A 10 W line source emits monochromatic light of 8. ,d 10 W js[kk lzksr 4000 Å rjaxnS/;Z dk ,dyo.khZ;
wavelength 4000 Å, when placed 1.0 m away from
izdk'k mRlftZr djrk gS] tc bls izdk'k lqxzkgh lrg
a photosensitive surface, it librates photoelectrons
from surface. When the same source is moved
ls 1.0 m nwj j[kk tkrk gS] ;g lrg ls izdk'k bysDVªkWu
2.0 m away from same surface, number of mRlftZr djrk gSA tc leku lzksr dks leku lrg ls
photoelectrons librated reduce by a factor of 2.0 m nwj xfr djk;h tkrh gS] rc fu"dkflr izdk'k
(1) 8 (2) 4 bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k fdl xq.kt }kjk ?kVrh gS\
1 (1) 8 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4)
4 1
(3) 2 (4)
9. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of molecules of 4
hydrogen and helium in two gas jars kept separately 9. nks xSlh; ik=ksa esa gkbMªkt
s u o ghfy;e dks Øe'k% 27°C
at temperatures of 27°C and 127°C respectively is o 127°C ds rkieku ij ,d nwljs ls i`FkDÑr j[kk x;k
2 2 gSA buds v.kqvksa dh Mh&czksxyh rjaxnS/;Z dk vuqikr gS
(1) (2)
3 3 2 2
(1) (2)
3 8 3 3
(3) (4)
4 3 3 8
(3) (4)
10. The work function of a photosensitive material is 4 3
4.2 eV. The wavelength of incident radiation on the
cathode of this material, for which the stopping
10. izdk'klqxzkgh inkFkZ dk dk;ZQyu 4.2 eV gSA bl inkFkZ
potential is 2.0 V lie in the ftldk jksf/kdk foHko 2.0 V gS] ds dSFkksM+ ij vkifrr
(1) X-ray region (2) Ultraviolet region fofdj.k dh rjaxnS/;Z fdl {ks= esa mifLFkr gksxh\
(3) Visible region (4) Infrared region (1) X-fdj.k {ks= (2) ijkcSaxuh {ks=
11. In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelength in (3) n`'; {ks= (4) vojDr {ks=
Balmer series is λ. The shortest wavelength in 11. gkbMªkstu LisDVªe esa] ckWej Js.kh esa y?kqÙke rjaxnSè;Z λ
Brackett series will be gSA cSzdsV Js.kh esa y?kqÙke rjaxnSè;Z gksxh
(1) 2 λ (2) 4 λ (1) 2 λ (2) 4 λ
(3) 9 λ (4) 16 λ (3) 9 λ (4) 16 λ
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12. As the quantum number increases, the difference of 12. DokaVe la[;k c<+us ij] Øfed ÅtkZ vUrjkyksa ds eè;
energy between consecutive energy levels: ÅtkZ vUrj
(1) Decreases (1) ?kVrk gS
(2) Increases
(2) c<+rk gS
(3) Remains same
(3) leku jgrk gS
(4) First decreases then increases
(4) igys ?kVrk gS fQj c<+rk gS
13. The ionization potential of hydrogen atom is
13.6 V. An electron in the ground state of hydrogen 13. fdlh gkbMªkstu ijek.kq dk vk;uu foHko 13.6 V gSA
atom absorbs a photon of energy 12.75 eV. How gkbMªkstu ijek.kq dh vk| voLFkk esa bysDVªkWu 12.75 eV
many different spectral lines can be expected in ÅtkZ dk QksVkWu vo'kksf"kr djrk gSA mRlthZ LisDVªe esa
emission spectrum? fdruh fHkUu&fHkUu LisDVªeh js[kk,a gks ldrh gS\
(1) 1 (2) 4 (1) 1 (2) 4
(3) 2 (4) 6 (3) 2 (4) 6
14. The Lyman series transitions involve the 14. ykbeu Js.kh laØe.k esa lfEefyr gksrk gS
(1) Largest changes of energy (1) ÅtkZ esa vf/kdre ifjorZu
(2) Smallest changes of energy (2) ÅtkZ esa U;wure ifjorZu
(3) Largest changes of potential energy
(3) fLFkfrt ÅtkZ esa vf/kdre ifjorZu
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) (1) rFkk (3) nksuksa
15. For an electron in the second orbit of Bohr hydrogen
atom, the moment of linear momentum is (h is 15. gkbMªkstu ijek.kq esa cksj dh f}rh; d{kk esa fdlh
plank’s constant) bysDVªkWu ds fy,] js[kh; laosx dk vk?kw.kZ gS (h Iykad
(1) 2 ph (2) ph fu;rkad gS)
2h h (1) 2 ph (2) ph
(3) (4)
  2h h
(3) (4)
16. For an ion having single electron following  
wavelength are observed in emission spectrum. The 16. mRltZu LisDVªe esa] ,dy bysDVªkWu okys vk;u ds fy,
missing wavelength x is fuEufyf[kr rjaxnSè;Z izsf{kr fd;s tkrs gSaA yqIr
rjaxnS/;Z x gS
(1) 120 nm (2) 30 nm

(3) 80 nm (4) 20 nm (1) 120 nm (2) 30 nm
17. The ratio of centripetal accelerations of the electron (3) 80 nm (4) 20 nm
in singly ionized helium ion and hydrogen atom (both 17. ,dy vk;fur ghfy;e vk;u rFkk gkbMªkstu ijek.kq
in ground state) is (nksuksa
vk| voLFkk es)a esa bysDVªkWu ds vfHkdsUnzh; Roj.k
(1) 1 (2) 8 dk vuqikr gS
(3) 4 (4) 16 (1) 1 (2) 8
18. A p-n junction photodiode is fabricated from (3) 4 (4) 16
semiconductor with a band gap of 2.5 eV. It can 18. ,d p-n laf/k QksVksMk;ksM dks 2.5 eV cS.M
vUrjky okys
detect a signal of wavelength v/kZpkyd ls fufeZr fd;k tkrk gSA ;g fdruh rjaxnSè;Z
(1) 4000 nm (2) 6000 nm dk flXuy lalfw pr dj ldrk gS\
(3) 4000 Å (4) 5000 Å (1) 4000 nm (2) 6000 nm
19. The Boolean expression for the circuit shown in (3) 4000 Å (4) 5000 Å
figure is 19. fp= esa n'kkZ, x, ifjiFk ds fy, cwfy;u O;atd gS
(1) Y  A  B (2) Y  AB (1) Y  A  B (2) Y  AB

(3) Y  AB (4) Y  A  B (3) Y  AB (4) Y  A  B
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20. The input signal given to common emitter amplifier 20. 150 oksYVrk yfC/k okys mHk;fu"B mRltZd izo/kZd dks
having a voltage gain of 150 fn;k x;k fuos'kh flXuy fuEu gS
Vi = 2sin(15t + 10°)
Vi = 2sin(15t + 10°)
The corresponding output signal is
laxr fuxZr flXuy gS
(1) V = 300cos(15t + 10°)
(1) V = 300cos(15t + 10°)
(2) V = 300cos(15t + 190°)
(2) V = 300cos(15t + 190°)
(3) V = 300sin(15t + 190°)
(3) V = 300sin(15t + 190°)
(4) V = 300sin(15t + 10°)
(4) V = 300sin(15t + 10°)
21. The diagram of a logic circuit is given below.
21. ykWftd ifjiFk dk vkjs[k uhps n'kkZ;k x;k gSA ifjiFk
The output F of the circuit is represented by
dk fuxZr F fdlds }kjk iznf'kZr fd;k x;k gS\
(1) W  (X + Y)
(1) W  (X + Y)
(2) W (X Y)
(2) W (X Y)
(3) W + (X + Y)
(3) W + (X + Y)
(4) W + (X  Y)
(4) W + (X  Y)
22. A sample of radioactive material contains 1018
atoms at a instant. The half life of material is 2.0 22. ,d jsfM;kslfØ; inkFkZ ds uewus esa fdlh {k.k ij 1018
days, then the activity of the sample at that instant ijek.kq gSA inkFkZ dh v/kkZ;q 2.0 fnu gS] rc ml {k.k
is ij uewus dh lfØ;rk gS
(1) 3.5 × 1012 Bq (2) 4.0 × 1012 Bq (1) 3.5 × 1012 Bq (2) 4.0 × 1012 Bq
(3) 3.5 × 1014 Bq (4) 4.0 × 1014 Bq (3) 3.5 × 1014 Bq (4) 4.0 × 1014 Bq
23. In the reaction given below 23. uhps ,d vfHkfØ;k nh xbZ gS
86A
222  84B210 + Energy 222  210 + ÅtkZ
86A 84B
The number of  and  particles emitted are
blesa mRlftZr  o  d.kksa dh la[;k gS
(1) 6, 3  (2) 3, 4
(1) 6, 3  (2) 3, 4
(3) 4, 3 (4) 3, 6
(3) 4, 3 (4) 3, 6
24. The energy spectrum of -particles intensity (I)
versus energy (E), emitted from a radioactive 24. ,d jsfM;kslfØ; uewus ls mRlftZr -d.kksa dh rhozrk
sample is (I) rFkk
ÅtkZ (E) dk ÅtkZ LisDVªe gS
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
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25. The graph shown in figure is a plot of binding energy 25. fp= esa izfr U;wfDyvkWu ca/ku ÅtkZ (Eb) rFkk ukfHkdh;
per nucleon (Eb) and the nuclear mass M. A, B, C, nzO;eku M ds e/; vkjs[k n'kkZ;k x;k gSA A, B, C, D,
D, E and F correspond to different nuclei. Consider
E o F fHkUu&fHkUu ukfHkdksa ds laxr gSaA pkj vfHkfØ;kvksa
four reactions
ij fopkj dhft,A
i. A + B = C + Energy ii. C  A + B + Energy

i. A + B = C + ÅtkZ ii. C  A + B + ÅtkZ
iii. D + E = F + Energy iv. F = D + E + Energy
iii. D + E = F + ÅtkZ iv. F = D + E + ÅtkZ
In which reactions energy will release are
(1) i and iv (2) i and iii dkSu&lh vfHkfØ;kvksa esa] ÅtkZ eqDr gksxh
(3) ii and iv (4) ii and iii (1) i rFkk iv (2) i rFkk iii
26. A nucleus at rest splits into two nuclear parts having (3) ii rFkk iv (4) ii rFkk iii
radii in the ratio 1:2. Their velocities are in the ratio 26. fojke esa fLFkr ,d ukfHkd nks ukfHkdh; Hkkxksa esa foHkDr
(1) 2:1 (2) 4:1 gksrk gS ftudh f=T;kvksa dk vuqikr 1:2 gSA muds osxksa
(3) 6:1 (4) 8:1 dk vuqikr gS
27. To produce an electron-positron pair, the minimum (1) 2:1 (2) 4:1
energy of -ray photon must be (3) 6:1 (4) 8:1
(1) 1.02 MeV (2) 0.51 MeV 27. bysDVªkWu&ikWftVªkWu ;qXe mRiUu djus ds fy,] -fdj.k
(3) 10.2 MeV (4) 5.1 MeV QksVkWu dh U;wure ÅtkZ gksxh
28. A potential barrier of 0.3 V exist across a (p-n) (1) 1.02 MeV (2) 0.51 MeV
junction and width of deplection layer is 1 m. An (3) 10.2 MeV (4) 5.1 MeV
electron approaches this (p-n) junction from 28. ,d (p-n) laf/k ds fljksa ij 0.3 V dk jksf/kdk foHko
n-sides with speed 5 × 105 m/s. mifLFkr gS rFkk gzklh ijr dh pkSM+kbZ 1 m gSA ,d
The speed of electron on entering p–side is bysDVªkWu n-Qydksa ls bl (p-n) laf/k dh vksj 5 × 105
(1) 2.8 ×105 m/s (2) 3.8 ×105 m/s
m/s dh pky ls igq¡prk gSA
(3) 6.8 ×105 m/s (4) 7.8 ×105 m/s
p–Qyd esa izo's k djus ij bysDVªkWu dh pky gS
29. In the given circuit silicon diode and germanium
(1) 2.8 ×105 m/s (2) 3.8 ×105 m/s
diode conduct at 0.7 V and 0.3 V respectively. The (3) 6.8 ×105 m/s (4) 7.8 ×105 m/s
value of V0 and i are 29. fn;s x;s ifjiFk esa flfydkWu Mk;ksM o tesZfu;e Mk;ksM
Øe'k% 0.7 V o 0.3 V ij dk;Z djrs gSaA V0 o i dk eku gS
(1) 11.7 V, 2.26 A (2) 11.3 V, 2.26 A

(3) 11.7 V, 2.34 A (4) 11.3 V 2.34 A (1) 11.7 V, 2.26 A (2) 11.3 V, 2.26 A
(3) 11.7 V, 2.34 A (4) 11.3 V 2.34 A
30. In a full wave rectifier, circuit operating from
30. ,d iw.kZ rjax fn"Vdkjh esa] ifjiFk 50 Hz A.C. esUl ls
50 Hz A.C. mains. The ripple frequency would be
lapkfyr gksrk gSA mfeZdk vko`fr gksxh
(1) 50 Hz (2) 25 Hz (1) 50 Hz (2) 25 Hz
(3) 70.7 Hz (4) 100 Hz (3) 70.7 Hz (4) 100 Hz
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31. In common emitter amplifier the phase difference 31. ,d mHk;fu"B mRltZd izo/kZd esa] fuos'kh flXuy
between input signal voltage and output voltage is oksYVrk rFkk fuxZr oksYVrk ds eè; dykUrj gS

 (1)  (2)
(1)  (2) 2
2

 (3) 0 (4)
(3) 0 (4) 4
4
32. fcanqvksa A o B ds fljksa ij ifjiFk dk rqY; izfrjksèk gS
32. The equivalent resistance of the circuit across points (ekuk Mk;ksM vkn'kZ gaS)
A and B is (Assume didoes are ideal)
(1) dsoy 4  (2) dsoy 13 

(1) 4 only (2) 13  only (3) dsoy 15  (4) ;k rks 4  ;k 13 
(3) 15  only (4) Either 4  or 13  33. vxzfnf'kd ck;flr o i'pfnf'kd ck;flr flfydkWu
33. The dominant mechanism for motion of charge p-n laf/k;ksa esa vkos'k okgdksa dh xfr ds fy, izHkkoh
carriers in forward and reverse biased silicon p-n fØ;kfof/k;k¡ gS%a
junctions are: (1) vxzfnf'kd o i'pfnf'kd ck;l nksuksa esa viogu
(1) Drift in both forward and reverse bias (2) vxzfnf'kd o i'pfnf'kd ck;l nksuksa esa folj.k
(2) Diffusion in both forward and reverse bias (3) vxzfnf'kd ck;l esa folj.k rFkk i'pfnf'kd ck;l
(3) Diffusion in forwards bias and drift in reverse esa viogu
bias (4) vxzfnf'kd ck;l esa viogu rFkk i'pfnf'kd ck;l
(4) Drift in forward bias and diffusion in reverse bias esa folj.k
34. Pure silicon at 300 K has equal electrons (ne) and 34. 300 K ij 'kq) flfydkWu esa bysDVªkWu dh lkanzrk (ne) o
holes (nh) concentration of 1.5 × 1016 per m3. Doping fooj ¼gkWy½ dh lkanzrk (nh) leku gksrh gS ftldk eku
by indium hole concentration increases to 4.5 × 1022
1.5 × 1016 izfr m3 gSA bf.M;e }kjk ekfnr djus ij
per m3. The number of free electrons per m3 in
doped silicon is gkWy lkanzrk 4.5 × 1022 izfr m3 rd c<+rh gSA ekfnr
(1) 9 × 105 (2) 5 × 109
flfydkWu esa izfr m3 eqDr bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k gS
(1) 9 × 105 (2) 5 × 109
(3) 2.25 × 1011 (4) 3 × 1019
(3) 2.25 × 1011 (4) 3 × 1019
35. The radius of germanium (Ge) nuclide is measure to
35. tesZfu;e (Ge) U;qDykbM dh f=T;k 4Be9 dh f=T;k dh
be twice the radius of 4Be9. The number of nucleons
in germanium are
nksxquh ekih x;h gSA tesZfu;e esa U;qfDyvkWuksa dh la[;k
gS
(1) 72 (2) 81
(1) 72 (2) 81
(3) 64 (4) 75
(3) 64 (4) 75
36. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially at rest 36. izkjEHk esa fojke esa fLFkr 220 nzO;eku la[;k okyk ,d
emits an -particle. If the Q-value of reaction is
ukfHkd -d.k mRlftZr djrk gSA ;fn vfHkfØ;k dk
5.5 M eV. The kinetic energy of -particle is
Q-eku 5.5 M eV gS] rc -d.k dh xfrt ÅtkZ gS
(1) 4.4 MeV (2) 5.4 MeV
(1) 4.4 MeV (2) 5.4 MeV
(3) 5.0 MeV (4) 4.8 MeV (3) 5.0 MeV (4) 4.8 MeV
6/31
37. An electron of mass m and charge e initially at rest 37. m nzO;eku o e vkos'k dk ,d bysDVªkWu izkjEHk esa fojke
gets accelerated by a constant electric field E. The esa fLFkr gS] ;g fu;r fo|qr {ks= E }kjk Rofjr gks tkrk
rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of this gSA le; t ij bl bysDVªkWu dh Mh&czksxyh rjaxnSè;Z ds
electron at time t is (Ignore relativistic effect) ifjorZu dh nj gS (lkisf{kdh; izHkko dks ux.; ekusa)
h eht h eht
(1)  (2)  (1)  (2) 
eEt 2 E eEt 2 E
mh h mh h
(3)  (4)  (3)  (4) 
eEt 2 eEt eEt 2 eEt
38. A radioactive sample S1 having an activity of 5 ci 38. 5 ci lfØ;rk okys ,d jsfM;kslfØ; uewus S1 esa ukfHkdksa
has double the number of nuclei as of another dh la[;k] 10 ci lfØ;rk okys vU; uewus S2 esa ukfHkdksa
sample S2 which has an activity of 10 ci. The half dh la[;k ls nksxquh gSA S1 o S2 dh v/kkZ;q gks ldrh gS
life of S1 and S2 can be (1) Øe'k% 20 o"kZ o 5 o"kZ
(1) 20 Years and 5 years respectively (2) izR;sd dh 10 o"kZ
(2) 10 years each (3) Øe'k% 20 o"kZ o 10 o"kZ
(3) 20 years and 10 years respectively (4) izR;sd dh 5 o"kZ
(4) 5 Years each 39. fdlh tsuj Mk;ksM dk mi;ksx fdl :i esa fd;k tk
39. A Zener diode may be used as ldrk gS\
(1) A voltage regulator in forward bias mode (1) vxzfnf'kd ck;l fo/kk esa oksYVrk fu;ked
(2) A voltage regulator in reverse bias mode (2) i'pfnf'kd ck;l fo/kk esa oksYVrk fu;ked
(3) A full wave rectifier (3) iw.kZ rjax fn"Vdkjh
(4) An oscillator in forward bias mode (4) vxzfnf'kd fo/kk esa ,d nksfy=
40. The output Y of combination of gates shown in 40. fp= esa n'kkZ, x, xsVksa ds leatu ds fuxZr Y D;k gksaxs]
figure, when all the three inputs are first high and tc lHkh rhu fuos'kh igys ^mPp* RFkk fQj ^fuEu* gks\
then low will be
(1) 1,0 (2) 1,1

(1) 1,0 (2) 1,1 (3) 0,0 (4) 0,1
(3) 0,0 (4) 0,1 41. fp= esa n'kkZ;k x;k ifjiFk fdlds rqY; gS\
41. The circuit shown in figure is equivalent to
(1) AND xsV (2) NAND xsV

(1) AND gate (2) NAND gate
(3) NOR xsV (4) OR xsV
(3) NOR gate (4) OR gate
42. The peak voltage in the output of half-wave rectifier 42. fcuk fQYVj okys T;koØh; flXuy ls la;ksftr
fed with a sinusoidal signal without filter is 10 V. The v)Z&rjax fn"Vdkjh dh fuxZr f'k[kj oksYVrk 10 V gSA
D.C. component of output voltage is fuxZr oksYVrk dk D.C. ?kVd gS
10 10 10 10
(1) V (2) V (1) V (2) V
2  2 
20 20
(3) 10 V (4) V (3) 10 V (4) V
 
43. In the given circuit the current through Zener diode 43. fn;s x, ifjiFk esa] tsuj Mk;ksM ls xqtjus okyh /kkjk
is gS
(1) 4 mA (2) 5 mA (1) 4 mA (2) 5 mA

(3) 6 mA (4) 7 mA (3) 6 mA (4) 7 mA
7/31
44. A silicon transistor amplifier circuit is as shown in 44. ,d flfydkWu VªkaftLVj izo/kZd ifjiFk fp=kuqlkj gSA
figure. If the current amplification factor  = 100 and ;fn /kkjk izo/kZd xq.kkad  = 100 rFkk vk/kkj o mRltZd
voltage drop between base and emitter is ds e/; oksYVrk iru 0.7 V gSA rc laxzkgd mRltZd
0.7 V. Then collector emitter voltage VCE is
oksYVrk VCE gS
(1) 5 V (2) 4.3 V

(3) 6.3 V (4) 2.7 V (1) 5 V (2) 4.3 V
45. On increasing the impurity level, width of depletion (3) 6.3 V (4) 2.7 V
layer 45. v'kqf) Lrj c<+kus ij] gzklh ijr dh pkSM+kbZ
(1) Increases (2) Remain same (1) c<+rh gS (2) leku jgrh gS
(3) Decreases (4) Will vanish (3) ?kVrh gS (4) fujLr gks tk,xh
[CHEMISTRY]
46. The compound which is most reactive towards 46. ukfHkdLusgh ;ksxkRed vfHkfØ;k ds izfr vR;fèkd
nucleophilic addition reaction is fØ;k'khy ;kSfxd gS
(1)
(1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
47. Most acidic compound among the following is 47. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vR;fèkd vEyh; ;kSfxd gS
(1) C6H5COOH (2) C6H5CH2COOH (1) C6H5COOH (2) C6H5CH2COOH
(3) CH3COOH (4) FCH2COOH (3) CH3COOH (4) FCH2COOH
8/31
48. Consider the following reaction sequence 48. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k vuqØe ij fopkj dhft,
Products B and C are mRikn B rFkk C gSa
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
49. The pair of compounds which cannot be 49. fdl ;qXe ds ;kSfxdksa dks I2/NaOH }kjk foHksfnr ugha
distinguished by I2/NaOH is fd;k tk ldrk gS\
(1) Acetone and methanol (1) ,lhVksu rFkk esFksukWy
(2) Ethanol and benzaldehyde (2) ,FksukWy rFkk csUtSfYMgkbM
(3) Acetophenone and benzophenone (3) ,lhVksQhuksu rFkk csUtksQhuksu
(4) Acetaldehyde and isopropyl alcohol (4) ,lhVSfYMgkbM rFkk vkblksizksfiy ,YdksgkWy
50. In the given reaction sequence product C is 50. uhps fn, x, vfHkfØ;k vuqØe esa mRikn C gS
(1) Aldehyde (2) Ketone (1) ,fYMgkbM (2) dhVksu

(3) Secondary alcohol (4) Carboxylic acid (3) f}rh;d ,YdksgkWy (4) dkcksZfDlfyd vEy
51. The most basic compound among the following is 51. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vR;fèkd {kkjh; ;kSfxd gS
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
9/31
52. Nylon-6,6 is a/an 52. ukbykWu-6,6 gS ,d

(1) Polyamide (2) Polyester (1) ikWfy,ekbM (2) ikWfy,LVj
(3) Elastomer (4) Addition polymer (3) izR;kLFkyd (4) ;ksxt cgqyd
53. Which among the following is monomer of orlon? 53. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vkWjyksu dk ,dyd dkSulk gS\
(1) Acrylonitrile (2) Vinyl chloride (1) ,sfØyksukbVªkby (2) okbfuy DyksjkbM
(3) Styrene (4) Ethene (3) LVkbjhu (4) ,Fkhu
54. Copolymer among the following is 54. fuEufyf[kr esa lgcgqyd gS
(1) Polythene (2) Buna-S
(1) ikWfyFkhu (2) C;wwuk-S
(3) Nylon-6 (4) Teflon
(3) ukbykWu-6 (4) Vs¶ykWu
55. Synthetic biodegradable polymer(s) among the 55. fuEufyf[kr esa ls la'ysf"kr tSofuEuuhdj.kh; cgqyd
following is/are
gS
(1) PHBV (2) Nylon-2-nylon-6
(1) PHBV (2) ukbykWu-2-ukbykWu -6
(3) Cellulose (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) lsyqykst (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
56. Monomers of Bakelite are
(1) Adipic acid and hexamethylenediamine
56. cSdsykbV ds ,dyd gSa
(2) Ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid (1) ,sfMfid vEy rFkk gsDlkesfFkyhuMkbZ,ehu
(3) Phenol and formaldehyde (2) ,fFkyhu XykbdkWy rFkk Vsjs¶FkSfyd vEy
(4) Melamine and formaldehyde (3) QhukWy rFkk QkWesZfYMgkbM
(4) esySehu rFkk QkWesZfYMgkbM
57. Which among the following is a thermosetting
polymer? 57. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d rkin`<+ cgqyd gS\
(1) PVC (1) PVC
(2) ikWfyLVkbjhu
(2) Polystyrene
(3) ikWfyFkhu
(3) Polythene
(4) ;wfj;k QkWesZfYMgkbMjsftu
(4) Urea formaldehyde resins
58. fuEufyf[kr ;kSfxdksa ij fopkj dhft,A
58. Consider the following compounds
dhVks&bukWy pyko;ork fdlds }kjk n'kkZ;h tkrh gS\

Keto-enol tautomerism is shown by
(1) dsoy (i) rFkk (ii) (2) dsoy (i), (ii) rFkk (iii)
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(3) dsoy (i) rFkk (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) rFkk (iv)
(3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
59. czkseQsfujkfeu dk mi;ksx fdl :i esa fd;k tkrk gS\
59. Brompheniramine is used as
(1) izfr&vEy (2) izfrfgLVSfeu
(1) Antacid (2) Antihistamine
(3) izfrtuu {kerk vkS"kfèk (4) iz'kkard
(3) Antifertility drug (4) Tranquiliser
60. fuEufyf[kr esa ls lcls vfèkd ehBk ;kSfxd gS
60. Sweetest compound among the following is
(1) lSdjhu (2) ,sLikVsZe
(1) Saccharin (2) Aspartame
(3) lwØkst (4) lwØkykst
(3) Sucrose (4) Sucralose
61. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldks iwfrjksèkh ds :i esa iz;qDr
61. Which among the following is/are applied as
antiseptic? fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) Furacine (2) Soframicine (1) ¶;wjkflu (2) lksÝkekbflu
(3) Bithional (4) All of these (3) ckbFkk;ksuSy (4) buesa ls lHkh
10/31
62. D-glucose does not react with 62. D-Xywdkst fdlds lkFk vfHkfØ;k ugha djrk\
(1) NaHSO3 (2) Br2/water (1) NaHSO3 (2) Br2/ty
(3) NH2OH (4) Benedict’s solution (3) NH2OH (4) cSusfMDV foy;u
63. The compound which will not undergo mutarotation 63. dkSulk ;kSfxd ifjorhZ èkzqo.k ?kw.kZu ugha n'kkZ,xk\
is/are
(1) lqØkst (2) ekYVkst
(1) Sucrose (2) Maltose
(3) ySDVkst (4) esukst
(3) Lactose (4) Mannose
64. fuEufyf[kr esa ls izdkf'kd fuf"Ø; ,ehuks vEy gSa
64. Optically inactive amino acid among the following is
(1) izksyhu (2) oSyhu
(1) Proline (2) Valine
(3) Xykblhu (4) ykblhu
(3) Glycine (4) Lysine
65. fuEufyf[kr esa ls xyr dFku gS
65. Incorrect statement among the following is
(1) ,sMsuhu rFkk Xokuhu ¶;wjhu {kkjd gaS
(1) Adenine and guanine are purine bases
(2) Thymine is absent in RNA (2) RNA esa Fkk;ehu ugha ik;k tkrk gS
(3) In DNA molecule, the sugar moiety is -D-2- (3) DNA v.kq esa 'kdZjk v/kk±'k bdkbZ -D-2-
deoxyribose MhvkWDlhjkbckst gksrk gS
(4) In RNA molecule, the sugar moiety is -D-ribose (4) RNA v.kq esa 'kdZjk v/kk±'k bdkbZ -D-jkbckst gksrk gS
66. Fat soluble vitamin among the following is 66. fuEufyf[kr esa ls olk esa foys;'khy foVkfeu gS
(1) Thiamine (2) Riboflavin
(1) Fkk;sehu (2) jkbcks¶ysfou
(3) Vitamin-D (4) Vitamin-C
67. Number of chiral carbons present in (3) foVkfeu-D (4) foVkfeu-C
-D-(-)-fructofuranose is 67. -D-(-)- ÝDVks¶;wjSukst esa mifLFkr fdjSy dkcZu dh
(1) 5 (2) 6 la[;k gS
(3) 4 (4) 3 (1) 5 (2) 6
68. The compound which will not give carbylamine (3) 4 (4) 3
reaction is 68. dkSulk ;kSfxd dkfcZy,ehu vfHkfØ;k ugha nsxk\
(1) Aniline (2) Benzylamine (1) ,fuyhu (2) csfUty,ehu
(3) n-propylamine (4) Triethylamine (3) n-izksfiy,ehu (4) VªkbZ,fFky,ehu
69. The product (P) obtained in the following reaction is 69. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k esa izkIr mRikn (P) gS
P P
(1)
(1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
11/31
70. Consider the following reaction sequence 70. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k vuqØe ij fopkj dhft,
Major product C is
eq[; mRikn C gS
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
71. Benzylamine and aniline can be chemically
71. csfUty,ehu ,oa ,sfuyhu dks jklk;fud :i ls fdlds
distinguished by
}kjk foHksfnr fd;k tk ldrk gS\
(1) Hinsberg’s reagent (2) Br2/water
(1) fgUlcxZ vfHkdeZd (2) Br2/ty
(3) Dilute H2SO4 (4) CHCl3|KOH|
(3) ruq H2SO4 (4) CHCl3|KOH|
72. The major product of the given reaction is
72. uhps nh x;h vfHkfØ;k dk eq[; mRikn gS
Major product
eq[; mRikn
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
73. Acetaldehyde when treated with excess methanol in
presence of dry HCl gas then the major product 73. 'kq"d HCl xSl dh mifLFkfr esa esFksukWy ds vkfèkD; ds
obtained is lkFk ,lhVSfYMgkbM dks mipkfjr djus ij izkIr eq[;
mRikn gS
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
74. Consider the following compounds
CH3CO2CH3 ClCH2CO2CH3 CHCl2CO2CH3 74. fuEufyf[kr ;kSfxdksa ij fopkj dhft,
(i) (ii) (iii) CH3CO2CH3 ClCH2CO2CH3 CHCl2CO2CH3
The correct order of the ester hydrolysis in alkaline (i) (ii) (iii)
medium is {kkjh; ekè;e esa ,LVj tyvi?kVu dk lgh Øe gS
(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) (2) (iii) > (ii) > (i) (1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) (2) (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(3) (ii) > (i) > (iii) (4) (ii) > (iii) > (i) (3) (ii) > (i) > (iii) (4) (ii) > (iii) > (i)
12/31
75. Consider the following reaction 75. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k ij fopkj dhft,
Major product P is eq[; mRikn P gS
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
76. dkSulk ;kSfxd vEyh; tyvi?kVu ij izkFkfed ,ehu

76. Which compound on acidic hydrolysis produces
primary amine? nsrk gS\
(1) CH3CH2CN (2) CH3CH2CONH2
(1) CH3CH2CN (2) CH3CH2CONH2
(3) CH3CH2NC (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
(3) CH3CH2NC (4) Both (1) and (2)
77. uhps fn, x, vfHkfØ;k vuqØe ij fopkj dhft,A
77. Consider the following reaction sequence
eq[; mRikn B gS
Major product B is
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
78. fuEufyf[kr esa ls xyr dFku gS

78. Incorrect statement among the following is
(1) ,sfuyhu ÝhMsy&Øk¶V~l vfHkfØ;k ugha nsrk
(1) Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction
(2) csUthuMkbZ,tksfu;e DyksjkbM ,d jaxghu
(2) Benzenediazonium chloride is a colourless
fØLVyh; Bksl gS
crystalline solid
(3) Nitration of aniline gives p-nitroaniline as major

(3) ,sfuyhu ds ukbVªhdj.k ij eq[; mRikn ds :i esa
product p-ukbVªk,
s fuyhu izkIr gksrk gS
(4) Benzenediazonium chloride is water insoluble (4) csUthuMkbZ,tksfu;e DyksjkbM ty esa vfoys;'khy
and is stable at room temperature rFkk d{k rki ij LFkk;h gksrk gS
13/31
79. Major product (B) of the given reaction is 79. uhps nh x;h vfHkfØ;k dk eq[; mRikn (B) gS
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
80. The compound which is most easily decarboxylated

80. dkSulk ;kSfxd xeZ djus ij vfèkd vklkuh ls
on heating is
fodkcksZfDlyhÑr gks tkrk gSA
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
81. Phorone is the condensation product of
(1) Acetaldehyde (2) Acetone 81. QksjkWu fdldk la?kuu mRikn gS\
(3) Acetophenone (4) Propanaldehyde (1) ,lhVSfYMgkbM (2) ,lhVksu
82. Maximum number of enolisable hydrogen present in (3) ,lhVksQhukWu (4) izksisuSfYMgkbM
2-methylcyclohexanone is 82. 2-esfFkylkbDyksgsDlsuksu esa mifLFkr bukWyh; gkbMªkstu
(1) 4 (2) 6
dh vfèkdre la[;k gS
(3) 5 (4) 3
(1) 4 (2) 6
83. In the given reaction sequence the major product (C)
(3) 5 (4) 3
obtained is
83. uhps fn, x, vfHkfØ;k vuqØe esa izkIr mRikn (C) gS
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
84. Acetamide on reaction with LiAlH4 followed by 84. ,lhVSekbM dh LiAlH4 ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k o ckn esa ty
aqueous work-up gives vi?kVu ij izkIr gksrk gS
(1) Methyl amine (2) Ethyl amine (1) esfFky ,ehu (2) ,fFky ,ehu
(3) Methanol (4) Ethanol (3) esFksukWy (4) ,FksukWy
14/31
85. Product obtained when acetaldehyde reacts with 85. ,lhVSfYMgkbM tc lsehdkcsZtkbM ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k
semicarbazide is djrk gS] rks izkIr mRikn gS
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3) (3)
(4) CH3CH = N – NH2
(4) CH3CH = N – NH2
86. uhps fn, x, vfHkfØ;k vuqØe ij fopkj dhft,
86. Consider the following reaction sequence
eq[; mRikn B gS
Major product B is
(1) PhCH2COO–Na+
(1) PhCH2COO–Na+
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
87. bVkMZ vfHkfØ;k esa izkjfEHkd inkFkZ rFkk iz;qDr vfHkdeZd

87. In Etard reaction the starting material and reagent Øe'k% gSa
used are respectively
(1) csUthu rFkk CS2 dh mifLFkfr esa CrO2Cl2
(1) Benzene and CrO2Cl2 in CS2
(2) VkWywbZu rFkk CO, HCl, futZy AlCl3
(2) Toluene and CO, HCl, anh. AlCl3
(3) VkWywbZu rFkk CS2 dh mifLFkfr esa CrO2Cl2
(3) Toluene and CrO2Cl2 in CS2
(4) csUtksukbVªkby rFkk DIBAL – H
(4) Benzonitrile and DIBAL – H
88. The compound which boils at highest temperature is
88. vfèkdre rki ij mcyus okyk ;kSfxd gS
(1) Acetone (2) Acetaldehyde (1) ,lhVksu (2) ,lhVSfYMgkbM
(3) Acetic acid (4) Ethanol (3) ,lhfVd vEy (4) ,FksukWy
89. In the given reaction sequence major product (C) is 89. uhps fn, x, vfHkfØ;k vuqØe esa eq[; mRikn (C) gS
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) PhCH2CHO

(3) (4) PhCH2CHO
90. Butanone is converted to n-butane by which
90. fdl vfHkdeZd }kjk C;wVsuksu] n-C;wVsu esa ifjofrZr gks
reagent? tkrk gS\
(1) Zn-Hg/HCl (2) LiAlH4 (1) Zn-Hg/HCl (2) LiAlH4
(3) NaBH4 (4) NaH (3) NaBH4 (4) NaH
15/31
[BIOLOGY]
91. The largest anthropogenic ecosystem are 91. lcls cM+k ekuotfur ikfjra= gSa
(1) Forests (2) Crop fields (1) ou (2) 'kL; Hkwfe
(3) Lakes (4) Estuaries (3) >hy (4) Tokj uneq[k

92. tytho'kkyk tSls ikfjra= ds lanHkZ esa ge ;g ugha dg
92. About the ecosystem, like an aquarium, we cannot
say that ldrs gSa fd
(1) It possesses self-regulatory mechanism (1) blesa Lo&fu;ked fof/k gksrh gS
(2) ;g ljy [kk| Jà[kyk n'kkZrk gS
(2) It show simple food chain
(3) blesa cgqr de tSo&fofo/krk gksrh gS
(3) It has very little bio-diversity
(4) ;g izkFkfed mRikndrk dks cgqr de n”kkZrk gS ;k
(4) It shows very little or no primary productivity
ugha n'kkZrk gS
93. Edaphic factor of an ecosystem includes
93. ,d ikfjra= ds e`nh; dkjd esa
(1) Humidity of air
(1) ok;q dh vknzZrk gksrh gS
(2) Physical and chemical properties of soil
(2) e`nk dk HkkSfrd o jlk;fud xq.k gksrk gS
(3) Slope of earth surface
(3) i`Foh ds lrg dh <+ky gksrh gS
(4) Wind and air current at that place (4) ml LFkku ij gok o ok;q izokg gksrk gS
94. Some organisms show variant food habits at 94. dqN tho vius thou&pØ ds fofHkUu izkoLFkkvksa ij
different stages of their life-cycle and thus their
various stages are placed at different trophic levels.
fHkUu [kk| vfHkO;fDr dks n'kkZrs gSa blfy, mudh
This feature can be seen in fofHkUu izkoLFkk,sa fHkUu iks"kh Lrj ij fLFkr gksrh gSA ;g
(1) Butterfly (2) Hydra
xq.k fdlesa gks ldrk gS\
(1) frryh (2) gkbMªk
(3) Frog (4) Lizard
(3) es<+d (4) fNidyh ¼fytMZ½
95. In a forest, stratification is seen. It involves vertical
subdivisions of vegetations. Which of the following 95. ou esa LrjfoU;kl gksrk gSA blesa ouLifr;ksa dk mnxz
statements regarding such vegetation is incorrect? mi&izHkkx gksrk gS] bl izdkj ds ouLifr ds lanHkZ esa
(1) Top layer is formed by big tress fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk dFku xyr gS\
(2) Bottom layer includes grasses and herbs (1) 'kh"kZ Lrj cM+s o`{kksa }kjk curk gS
(3) Shrubs form the second layer of the (2) fupys Lrj esa ?kkl o 'kkd lfEefyr gksrs gSa
subdivisions (3) mi&izHkkx dk f}rh; Lrj {kqiksa dk cuk gksrk gS
(4) Upper most layer is composed of autotrophs (4) lcls 'kh"kZ Lrj dsoy Loiks"kh dk cuk gksrk gS
only
96. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdruksa dks fuEu mRiknd ikfjra= ds
96. How many of the following can be considered as
least productive ecosystem?
:i esa ekuk tk ldrk gS\
Tropical rain forest, Desert, Sugarcane field, Coral
m".kdfVca/kh; o"kkZ ou] e:LFky] xUuk dk [ksr] izoky
reef, Grassland, Deep sea fHkfÙk] ?kklLFky] xgjk leqnz
(1) Four (2) Three (1) pkj (2) rhu
(3) One (4) Two (3) ,d (4) nks
97. Some of the water-soluble substances present in 97. vi?kVudkjh vijn esa mifLFkr ty&foys; vdkcZfud
decomposing detritus go down into the soil horizon inkFkZ Hkwfe e`nk laLrj esa izfo’V dj tkrs gSa rFkk ogk¡
and get precipitated there. This process is called vo{ksfir gks tkrs gSa] ;g izfØ;k D;k dgykrh gS\
(1) Anabolism (2) Leaching (1) mip; (2) fu{kkyu
(3) Fragmentation (4) Humification (3) [kaMu (4) g~;welHkou
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98. All of the following factors increase the rate of 98. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds vfrfjDr lHkh dkjd vijn
decomposition of detritus, except ds vi?kVu dh nj dks c<+krs gS\a
(1) Temperature more than 45° (1) 45° ls vf/kd rkieku
(2) Presence of proteins and nucleic acid in the (2) vijn esa izksVhu o U;wfDyd vEy dh mifLFkfr
detritus
(3) vijn esa ty&foys; dkcksZgkbMªVs ~l dh mifLFkfr
(3) Presence of water-soluble carbohydrates in the
detritus (4) ok;oh; fLFkfr
(4) Aerobic conditions 99. ,d [kk| Jà[kyk esa ,d 'kkdkgkjh tarq ftl ikni dks
99. A herbivorous animal in a food chain cannot get the [kkrk gS ml ikni }kjk vo'kksf"kr dh x;h iw.kZ ÅtkZ
complete energy that is trapped by the plant on dks og izkIr ugha dj ldrk] D;ksafd
which the animal feeds. This is because
(1) ÅtkZ dk izokg Å"ekxfrdh ds f}rh; fu;e dk
(1) Energy flow follows the second law of ikyu djrk gS
thermodynamics
(2) tarq ,d ikni ds lHkh Hkkxksa dk miHkksx ugha djrs
(2) Animal does not consume all the parts of a plant gSa
(3) Mode of nutrition in animals are different from (3) tarqvksa esa iks"k.k dh fof/k ikniksa ls fHkUu gksrh gS
that of plants
(4) ÅtkZ dk izokg] Å"ekxfrdh ds izFke fu;e dk
(4) Energy flow follows the first law of
thermodynamics ikyu djrk gS
100. A sugar cube has 10 calories of energy. If this cube 100. ,d phuh ds VqdM+s esa 10 dSyksjh ÅtkZ gS] ;fn 10 phfV;k¡
is consumed by 10 ants and all these ants is eaten phuh ds bl VqdM+s dks [kkrh gS rFkk ,d phVhaHk{kh bu
up by an anteater, then what amount of energy is lHkh phfV;ksa dks [kkrk gS rks bu phfV;ksa ls phVhaHk{kh
gained by the anteater from these ants? }kjk izkIr ÅtkZ dh ek=k D;k gksxh\
(1) 1 calory (2) 0.01 calory (1) 1 dSyksjh (2) 0.01 dSyksjh
(3) 10 calories (4) 0.1 calory (3) 10 dSyksjh (4) 0.1 dSyksjh
101. Standing crop is the amount of 101. [kM+h Qly fdldh ek=k gksrh gS\
(1) All organic and inorganic substances in an (1) ,d ikfjra= ds izfr bdkbZ {ks= esa mifLFkr lHkh
ecosystem per unit area
dkcZfud o vdkcZfud inkFkks± dh
(2) Organic matter present in crop plants only
(2) dsoy Qly ikniksa esa mifLFkr dkcZfud inkFkZ dh
(3) Living material present in different trophic levels
(3) fn, x, le; esa fHkUu iks"kh Lrjksa esa mifLFkr thfor
at a given time
inkFkZ dh
(4) Inorganic substances present in soil per unit
area at a given time
(4) fn, x, le; esa e`nk ds izfr bdkbZ {ks= esa mifLFkr
vdkcZfud inkFkks± dh
102. Which of the following ecological pyramids is not
possible for a tree ecosystem? 102. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ikfjfLFkfrdh; fijkfeM ,d
o`{k ikfjra= ds fy, laHkkfor ugha gS\
(1) Inverted pyramid of number
(1) la[;k dk mYVk fijkfeM
(2) Upright pyramid of energy
(2) ÅtkZ dk lh/kk fijkfeM
(3) Spindle-shaped pyramid of number
(3) la[;k dk rdqZ&uqek fijkfeM
(4) Inverted pyramid of biomass (4) tSoHkkj dk mYVk fijkfeM
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103. Regarding the limitations of ecological pyramids, 103. ikfjfLFkfrdh; fijkfeM dh lhekvksa ds lanHkZ esa
which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk@dkSuls dFku xyr gS@gSa\
a. It can assume food chain as well as food web.
a. bls [kk|&Jà[kyk o [kk| tky eku ldrs gSa
b. Saprophytes are given a place in the pyramids
but microbes do not b. e`rthoh dks fijkfeM esa ,d LFkku fn;k x;k gS
ijUrq lw{etho dks ugha
c. It does not take into account the insectivorous
animals c. blesa dhVHk{kh tarqvksa dk fooj.k ugha gksrk gS
(1) a only (1) dsoy a
(2) All a, b , and c (2) lHkh a, b rFkk c
(3) a, and b, only (3) dsoy a rFkk b
(4) b, and c only (4) dsoy b rFkk c
104. Pioneer community of hydrarch succession are 104. tykjaHkh vuqØe.k ds ewy vUos"kd leqnk; gSa
(1) Phytoplanktons and zooplanktons (1) ikniIyod o tarqIyod
(2) Phytoplanktons and lichens (2) ikniIyod o ykbdsu
(3) Floating and submerged plants (3) Iykoh o fueXu ikni
(4) Floating plants and zooplanktons (4) Iykoh ikni o tarqIyod
105. In which of the following areas, when succession 105. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl {ks= esa tc vuqØe.k vkjaHk gksrk
starts, it is said to be primary succession? gS rks ;g izkFkfed vuqØe.k dgykrk gS\
(1) Farm lands
(1) Ñf"k Hkwfe
(2) Burned forests
(2) tyk gqvk ou
(3) Sand dunes
(3) ckyw dk Vhyk
(4) Lands that have been flooded
(4) ck<+xzLr Hkwfe
106. According to researchers, out of the total cost of
106. [kkstdrkZ ds vuqlkj fofHkUu ikfjra= lsokvksa ds dqy
various ecosystem services, the soil formation
accounts for
ykxr esa ls e`nk fuekZ.k dk fdruk ykxr gksrk gS\
(1) About 50% (2) About 10%

(1) yxHkx 50% (2) yxHkx 10%
(3) Less than 5% (4) About 6% (3) 5% ls de (4) yxHkx 6%
107. In India, occurrence of different strains of rice is an 107. Hkkjr esa /kku ds fofHkUu tkfr;ksa dh mifLFkfr fdldk
example of ,d mnkgj.k gS\
(1) Species diversity (1) tkfr fofo/krk

(2) Genetic diversity (2) vkuqoaf'kd fofo/krk
(3) Ecological diversity (3) ikfjfLFkfrdh; fofo/krk
(4) Community diversity (4) leqnk; fofo/krk
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108. More conservative and scientifically sound estimate 108. jkWcVZ es; }kjk oSf”od tkfr fofo/krk ds fy, vf/kd
for global species diversity is made by Robert May. larqfyr o oSKkfud :i ls “kq) vkdyu fn;k x;k]
According to him the global species diversity is muds fn, x, vkdyu ds vuqlkj oSf”od tkfr
fofo/krk gksrh gS
about
(1) yxHkx 20 fefy;u (2) yxHkx 7 fefy;u
(1) 20 million (2) 7 million
(3) yxHkx 1.5 fefy;u (4) yxHkx 1.8 fefy;u
(3) 1.5 million (4) 1.8 million
109. fofHkUu ikniksa] dod o ykbdsu dh fofo/krk ds
109. Consider the following pie chart of different plants,
fuEufyf[kr ikbZ&pkVZ ij fopkj dhft,A
fungi and lichens diversity.
fn, x, ikbZ&pkVZ ds [kaMksa ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk

Select the statement which is incorrect regarding p;u dhft,
the sectors of given pie chart. (1) [kaM C ijiks"kh thoksa ls lacaf/kr gS
(1) Sector C belongs to the heterotrophic organisms (2) [kaM B FkSyksQkbV~l ls lacfa /kr gS
(2) Sector B belongs to thallophytes (3) [kaM A esa lHkh gjs ikni lfEefyr gSa
(3) Sector A includes all the green plants (4) [kaM A o B ls lacaf/kr tho iks"k.k dh Loiks"kh fof/k
(4) Organisms belong to sectors A and B show n'kkZrs gSa
autotrophic modes of nutrition 110. vestu ds o"kkZ ou esa jgus okys tkfr dh la[;k ds
lanHkZ esa lgh :i ls fu:fir fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
110. Choose the option which is represented correctly
w.r.t. number of species in Amazonian rain forest. (1) ljhlì > eNyh > i{kh
(1) Reptiles > Fishes > Birds (2) Lru/kkjh < i{kh < ljhlì
(2) Mammals < Birds < Reptiles (3) i{kh < Lru/kkjh < eNyh
(3) Birds < Mammals < Fishes
(4) ljhlì < mHk;pj < i{kh
(4) Reptiles < Amphibians < Birds
111. m".kdfVca/k esa tSofofo/krk dh izpqjrk ds dkj.kksa esa ls
111. One of the reasons of the richness of biodiversity in ,d dkj.k gS
tropics is
(1) izkphu le; ls ckj&ckj fgeunu dk gksuk
(1) Frequent glaciations in the past
(2) Being more seasonal and less constant (2) vR;f/kd ekSleh rFkk de fLFkj gksuk
(3) Being more productive for supporting wide (3) tkfr ds foLr`r ijkl dks lgk;rk iznku djus ds
range of species fy, vR;f/kd mRiknudkjh gksuk
(4) High temperature and humidity but receiving (4) vR;f/kd rkieku o vknzZrk dk gksuk ijarq lkSj
less solar radiations fofdj.k de izkIr djuk
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112. Which of the following graph is showing species 112. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk xzkQ vf/kd foLr`r {ks= ds
area relationship on logarithmic scale for very large fy, y?kqx.kdh; iSekus ij tkfr {ks= laca/k n'kkZrk gS\
area?
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4)
113. lgh (T) ;k xyr (F) ds :i esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dh

113. Identify the following statements as true (T) or false igpku dhft, rFkk blds vuqlkj fodYi dk p;u
(F) and choose the option accordingly. dhft,A
A. An ecosystem having stable community does A. fLFkj leqnk; okyk ,d ikfjra= o"kZ nj o"kZ
not show variation in productivity from year to mRikndrk esa fHkUurk ugha n'kkZrk gS
year. B. tSls&tSls tSofofo/krk c<+rh gS rks ikfjra= dh
B. As the biodiversity increases, productivity of the mRikndrk de gksrh tkrh gS
ecosystem decreases.
C. LFkk;h leqnk; fons'kh tkfr;ksa ds vkØe.k ds izfr
C. Stable communities are more resistant to
vf/kd izfrjks/kh gksrs gSa
invasions by alien species.
A B C
A B C
(1) T T F
(1) T T F
(2) F T T
(2) F T T (3) F F T
(3) F F T (4) T F T
(4) T F T
114. ikWy ,gjfyd }kjk izLrkfor fjosV ikWij ifjdYiuk ds
114. According to Rivet popper hypothesis proposed by vuqlkj ok;q;ku dks D;k ekuk tkrk gS\
Paul Ehrlich, aeroplane is considered as
(1) ,d lef"V (2) tkfr
(1) A population (2) Species
(3) ikfjra= (4) dqath tkfr
(3) Ecosystem (4) Key species
115. tc ls i`Foh ij thou dh mRifÙk o fofo/k:is.k gqvk
115. Since the origin and diversification of life, how many
gS rc ls i`Foh ij fdruh ckj tkfr;ksa dk O;kid
episodes of mass extinction of species was there on
foyksiu gqvk gS\
earth?
(1) pkj (2) ik¡p
(1) Four (2) Five
(3) nks (4) rhu
(3) Two (4) Three
116. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. the invasion of 116. fons'kh tkfr;ksa ds vkØe.k o izHkkfor thoksa ds lanHkZ esa
alien species and the affected organisms. vlqefs yr dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Eichhornia –Several terrestrial plants (1) vkbdkWfuZ;k –vusd LFkyh; ikni
(2) Nile perch – Cichlid fish (2) ukby ipZ – flpfyM eNyh
(3) Lantana – Several plant species in forests (3) yS.Vkuk – ouksa esa vusd ikni tkfr
(4) African catfish – Catfishes in our rivers (4) vÝhdu dSVfQ'k – gekjs ufn;ksa esa dSVfQ'k
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117. How many of the following are considered to be 117. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdrus dks ladh.kZ :i ls mi;ksxh
narrowly utilitarian ecosystem services? ikfjra= lsok ekuk tkrk gS\
Oxygen, Pollination, Food, Firewood, Drugs, Flood vkWDlhtu] ijkx.k] [kk|] bZa/ku] vkS"kf/k] ck<+ fu;a=.k]
control, Aesthetic pleasure, Industrial products, lkSUn;kZRed vkuan] vkS|ksfxdh; mRikn] vijnu
Erosion control. fu;a=.k
(1) Two (2) Five (1) nks (2) ik¡p
(3) Four (4) Three (3) pkj (4) rhu
118. Find the odd combination w.r.t. national park and 118. jk"Vªh; m|ku o lanfHkZr tarq ds lanHkZ esa fo"ke la;kstu
concerned animal. dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Tiger – Kanha National Park
(1) ck?k – dkUgk jk"Vªh; m|ku
(2) Elephant – Bandipur National Park
(2) gkFkh – ckanhiqj jk"Vªh; m|ku
(3) Rhino – Khangchendzonga National Park
(3) jkbuks – daputa?kk jk"Vªh; m|ku
(4) Lion – Gir National Park
(4) 'ksj – fxj jk"Vªh; m|ku
119. In order to control environment pollution, the
119. i;kZoj.k iznw"k.k dks fu;af=r djus ds fy, Hkkjr ljdkj
Government of India passed (i) in (ii) to
us gekjs i;kZoj.k dh xq.koÙkk dks mUur djus ds fy,
improve the quality of our environment. (ii) esa (i) dks ikfjr fd;kA
Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) and
fjDr LFkku (i) rFkk (ii) dh iwfrZ ds fy, lgh fodYi dk
(ii).
p;u dhft,A
(i) (ii)
(i) (ii)
(1) Environment (Protection) Act 1986
(1) i;kZoj.k ¼laj{k.k½ vf/kfu;e 1986
(2) Air (Prevention and control of 1981
(2) ok;q ¼iznw"k.k dk jksdFkke o
Pollution) Act
(3) Indian Forest Act 1927
fu;a=.k½ vf/kfu;e 1981
(4) Euro I norms 2000 (3) Hkkjrh; ou vf/kfu;e] 1927
120. Which among the following is secondary air (4) ;wjks I ekud 2000
pollutant? 120. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d f}rh;d ok;q iznw"kd gS\
(1) Sulphur dioxide (2) Carbon monoxide (1) lYQj MkbvkWDlkbM (2) dkcZu eksuksvkWDlkbM
(3) Hydrogen sulphide (4) Ozone (3) gkbMªkt s u lYQkbM (4) vkstksu
121. Aerosols are 121. ,sjkslkWy
(1) Visible suspension of carbon in air (1) ok;q esa dkcZu dh izR;{k fuyacu gSa
(2) The vapour chemicals in the form of (2) ¶ywjksdkcZu ds :i esa ok"i jlk;u gSa
fluorocarbons
(3) 1 m ls cM+s vkdkj okys fuyafcr d.k gSa
(3) Suspended particles with size more than
(4) ,ythZ mRiUu djus okyk tSfod mRikn gSa
1 m
122. fLFkjoS|qr vo{ksid ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u
(4) The allergy causing biological products
122. Select the statement which in not true w.r.t. dhft,A
electrostatic precipitator. (1) vo{ksid esa bysDVªksM~l /kwy d.kksa ds izfr /kukRed
(1) Electrodes in the precipitator give positive vkos'k iznku djrk gS
charge to the dust particles (2) ;g fuokZÙkd esa mifLFkr 99% ls vf/kd df.kdh;
(2) It removes over 99% particulate matter present
inkFkZ dks gVkrk gS
in exhaust
(3) laxzg.kdkjh iV~Vh vkosf'kr /kwy d.kksa dks vkdf"kZr
(3) The collecting plates attract the charged dust
particles djrh gS
(4) It has electrode wires that are maintained at (4) blesa bysDVªksM rkj gksrk gS ftlls gksdj gtkjks
several thousand volts oksYV xqtjrk gS
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123. In the scrubbing mechanism, the chemical that is 123. LØfcax fØ;kfof/k esa dkSulk jlk;u fuokZÙkd ls SO2
responsible to remove SO2 from the exhaust is dks gVkus ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrk gS\
(1) CaSO4 (2) KOH (1) CaSO4 (2) KOH
(3) Na2CO3 (4) CaCO3 (3) Na2CO3 (4) CaCO3
124. Green muffler scheme is for reducing a particular
124. gfjr iV~Vh ;kstuk dk dk;Z fof'k"V izdkj ds iznw"k.k
type of pollution. The unit used to measure the level dks de djuk gS] bl iznw"k.k ds Lrj dks ekius ds fy,
of this pollution is dkSulk bdkbZ iz;qDr gksrk gS\
(1) Dobson (2) Pascal (1) MkWclu (2) ikWLdy
(3) Decibel (4) ppm (3) Mslhcy (4) ppm
125. All of the following are the measures taken by the 125. fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh okgu ds dkj.k
Government to reduce pollution caused due to mRiUu gksus okys iznw’k.k dks de djus ds fy, ljdkj
vehicles, except }kjk fy, x, ekinaM gS\
(1) Use of leaded petrol (1) ysM ;qDr isVªksy dk mi;ksx
(2) Use of low-sulphur petrol and diesel (2) fuEu&lYQj okys isVªksy o Mhty dk mi;ksx
(3) Use of catalytic converters in vehicles (3) okguksa esa mRizsjdh; mRizjs d dk mi;ksx
(4) Application of stringent pollution level norms for (4) okguksa ds fy, l[r iznw"k.k Lrj ekud ykxw djuk
vehicles 126. ok;qeaMy esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdu rRoksa ds ;kSfxd
126. Compound of which of the following elements in the vEy o"kkZ ds eq[; dkj.k gksrs gS\a
atmosphere are the major cause of acid rain? (1) S o N (2) P o S
(1) S and N (2) P and S (3) C o N (4) Cl o C
(3) C and N (4) Cl and C 127. ty esa foys; vkWDlhtu dh ek=k dks fu/kkZfjr djus
127. Factor(s) that determine the amount of dissolved okyk@okys dkjd gS@gSa
oxygen in water is/are a. ty esa mifLFkr lw{etho
a. Microorganisms in water b. ty dk rkieku
b. Temperature of water c. ty esa mifLFkr v&tSofuEuhdj.kh; dkcZfud
c. Non-biodegradable organic matter in water
inkFkZ
d. Animal wastes in water
d. ty esa mifLFkr tarq dk vif'k"V
(1) All a, b, c and d (2) a, b and d
(1) lHkh a, b, c o d (2) a, b o d
(3) a and d only (4) d only
(3) dsoy a o d (4) dsoy d
128. Match the following columns and select the correct
128. fuEufyf[kr dkWyeksa dk feyku dhft, rFkk lgh fodYi
option
dk p;u dhft,A
Column-I Column-II
dkWye I dkWye II
a. Terror of Bengal (i) Excessive
a. caxky dk vkrad (i) ikniIyod dh
growth of
phytoplankton
vR;f/kd o`f)
b. 'kSokyh; izLQqVu (ii) viektZd
b. Algal bloom (ii) Detergent
c. vaM dop dk (iii) DDT
c. Thinning of egg shell (iii) DDT fojyu
d. Source of phosphate (iv) An aquatic d. QkWLQsV iznw"k.k dk (iv) ,d tyh; ikni
pollution plant lzksr
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
22/31
129. Itai-itai is painful skeletal deformity caused due to 129. brkbZ&brkbZ ___ ls] lanwf"kr ty o [kk| ds miHkksx
consumption of water and food contaminated with ds dkj.k mRiUu gksus okyh ihM+knk;d dadkyh; fod`fr gS
(1) Lead (2) Mercury (1) ysM (2) ejdjh
(3) Arsenic (4) Cadmium (3) vklsZfud (4) dSMfe;e
130. Select the statement which is not true for
130. lqiks"k.k ds fy, dkSu&lk dFku lgh ugha gS\
eutrophication.
(1) ;g tyk'k; dk ,d izkd`frd tj.k gS
(1) It is a natural aging of water body
(2) It is due to nutrient enrichment of water (2) ;g ty ds iks"k.k izpqjrk ds dkj.k gksrk gS
(3) It results the lowering of the temperature of the (3) blds dkj.k tyk'k; dk rkieku ?kVrk gS
water body (4) ;g ekuo fØ;kfof/k ds dkj.k gks ldrk gS
(4) It can be due to human activities 131. ÝsaM~l vkWQ vdkZVk ek'kZ (FOAM) fdlls lacaf/kr gS\
131. Friends of the Arcata Marsh (FOAM) is associated (1) rkih; ty iznw"k.k ds fu;a=.k
with
(2) jksx dkjd lw{ethoksa ls lanwf"kr ty ds mipkj
(1) Control of thermal water pollution
(3) ,dhd`r vif'k"V ty ds mipkj
(2) Treatment of water contaminated with disease
causing microbes (4) ,dhd`r ihM+d izca/ku
(3) Integrated waste water treatment 132. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk dk;Z jlk;fud moZjdksa dh
(4) Integrated pest management vko';drk dks de djrk gS\
132. Which of the following acts reduces the need of (1) bdkslSu 'kkSpky; dk iz;ksx
chemical fertilisers? (2) rki 'kfDr la;a= dk iz;ksx
(1) Working of EcoSan toilets (3) bZ&vif'k"V dk izca/ku
(2) Working of thermal power plants (4) HkLed
(3) Management of e-wastes 133. fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh fuoZuhdj.k ds izHkko
(4) Incineration gS\
133. All of the following are the effects of deforestation, (1) ok;qeaMyh; CO2 lkanzrk esa o`f)
except
(2) tSofofo/krk dh gkfu
(1) Increase in atmospheric CO2 concentration
(3) e`nk vijnu
(2) Loss of biodiversity
(4) Hkwfexr ty Lrj esa o`f)
(3) Soil erosion
134. CFCs dk vkstksu Lrj ij LFkk;h o fujarj izHkko cuk
(4) Increase in ground water level
134. CFCs have permanent and continuing affects on
jgrk gS D;ksafd
ozone levels because (1) CFCs izkd`frd izfØ;kvksa }kjk curs gaS
(1) CFCs are formed by the natural processes (2) CFC dk Cl ijek.kq mRizsjd ds :i esa dk;Z djrk
gS rFkk ;g vfHkfØ;k esa miHkqDr ugha gksrk gS
(2) Cl atom of CFC acts as catalyst and is not
(3) CFCs v&fuEuhdj.kh; dkcZfud ;kSfxd gS
consumed in the reaction
(4) vkstksu Lo;a CFC ds fuekZ.k ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrk
(3) CFCs are non-degradable organic compounds
gS
(4) Ozone itself is responsible for the formation of
135. ek¡fVª;y izksVksdkWy ds :i esa Kkr varjkZ"Vªh; le>kSrk
CFC
dks fdlds fu;a=.k ds fy, gLrk{kfjr fd;k x;k Fkk\
135. The international treaty, known as Montreal
(1) oU;&thou ds vR;f/kd nksgu ds fu;a=.k ds fy,
Protocol, was signed to control
(2) vkstksu&vo{k;dkjh inkFkks± ds mRltZu ds fu;a=.k
(1) The over exploitation of wild-life ds fy,
(2) The emission of ozone-depleting substances (3) gfjr x`g xSlksa ds mRltZu dks lhfer djds oSf”od
(3) The global temperature by limiting the emission rkiu fu;a=.k ds fy,
of green house gases (4) ou ds o`{kksa ds dVus ls gksus okyh deh }kjk tyok;q
(4) The climate by reduction in cutting of forest trees ds fu;a=.k ds fy,
23/31
136. A native plasmid is 136. ,d usfVo IykfTeM gksrk gS

(1) Autonomously replicating closed circular extra- (1) Lor% izfrÑfr djus okyk can xksykdkj xq.klw=
chromosomal DNA cká DNA
(2) Single stranded chromosomal DNA (2) ,dy jTtqd xq.klw= DNA
(3) Autonomously replicating vital gene coding DNA
(3) Lor% izfrÑfr djus okyk egRoiw.kZ thu dks dksM
djus okyk DNA
(4) Antibiotic resistance gene containing
chromosomal DNA (4) xq.klw= DNA ;qDr izfrtSfod izfrjksèkh thu
137. Select a palindromic sequence. 137. iSfyUMªksfed vuqØe dk p;u dhft;sA
(1) 5 GAATTC 3 (2) 5 GGATTACC 3 (1) 5 GAATTC 3 (2) 5 GGATTACC 3
3 CTTAAG 5 5 CCTAATGG 3 3 CTTAAG 5 5 CCTAATGG 3

(3) 5 GGCCCTA 3 (4) 5 CCTAATGG 3
(3) 5 GGCCCTA 3 (4) 5 CCTAATGG 3
3 CCGGGAT 5 3 CTACTAGG 5
3 CCGGGAT 5 3 CTACTAGG 5
138. Eco RI esa o.kZ ‘R’ dks fy;k tkrk gS
138. In Eco RI, the letter ‘R’ is derived from the
(1) oa'k ds uke ls
(1) Name of the genus
(2) Name of the viral strain (2) fo"kk.kq izHksn ds uke ls
(3) Name of the bacterial strain (3) thok.kq izHksn ds uke ls
(4) Order of isolation of bacterial strain (4) thok.kq izHksn ds i`FkDdj.k ds Øe ls

139. The stickiness of the ends of overhanging 139. izyach U;wfDy;ksVkbM QSyko ds Nksj dk fpifpikiu
nucleotide stretches facilitates the action of the fdl :i esa oxhZÑr ,atkbe ds dk;Z esa lgk;rk iznku
enzymes categorised as djrk gS\
(1) Lyases (1) yk;stst
(2) DNA ligases
(2) DNA ykbxstt s
(3) Restriction endonucleases
(3) izfrca/ku ,aMksU;wfDy,tst
(4) DNA polymerases
(4) DNA iksyhejstst
140. A circular plasmid was taken and subjected to
restriction digestion with multiple restriction 140. ,d xksykdkj IykfTeM fy;k x;k rFkk dbZ izfrca/ku
enzymes. ,atkbe }kjk bldk izfrca/ku ikpu fd;k x;kA
The resultant mixture was subjected to agarose gel blds ifj.kkeLo:i izkIr feJ.k dks ,sxkjkst tsy
electrophoresis. Observe the figure given below and bysDVªksQksjsfll ds fy, j[kk x;kA uhps fn, x, fp=
choose the incorrect statement dks nsf[k;s rFkk xyr dFku dk p;u dhft;sA
(1) Possibly, completely digested sample is in

(1) laHkor% iw.kZ :i ls ikfpr lSEiy] iFk 4 esa gSa
lane 4
(2) lcls cM+k DNA [kaM dwi ds lcls fudV gS
(2) Largest DNA fragment is closest to the wells
(3) Undigested DNA sample is in lane 2
(3) vikfpr DNA lSEiy] iFk 2 esa gSa
(4) Smallest DNA fragment is closest to anode (4) lcls NksVk DNA [kaM ,suksM ds lcls fudV gS
24/31
141. Match column-I and column-II and choose the 141. dkWye-I rFkk dkWye-II dk feyku dhft;s rFkk lgh
correct option fodYi dk p;u dhft;sA
Column-I Column-II dkWye-I dkWye-II
a. Agarose (i) Extracted from sea a. ,sxkjkst (i) leqnzh; ?kkl ls fudkyk
weeds x;k
b. Elution (ii) Loading dye for b. {kkyu (ii) izksVhu ds fy, yksfMax
proteins jatd
c. Ethidium bromide (iii) Precipitated DNA c. bFkhfM;e czksekbM (iii) vo{ksfir DNA,
(EtBr) wound around a (EtBr) Xykl jkWM ds pkjksa vksj
glass rod dqaMfyr gks tkrk gS
d. Spooling (iv) Staining dye for d. Liwfyax (iv) DNA ds fy, vfHkjatu
DNA
jatd
(v) Extraction of DNA
(v) tsy ds [kaM ls DNA
from gel piece
dk fu"d"kZ.k
(1) a-(ii), b-(v), c-(ii), d-(i)
(1) a-(ii), b-(v), c-(ii), d-(i)
(2) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(v) (2) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(v)
(3) a-(v), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i) (3) a-(v), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(4) a-(i), b-(v), c-(iv), d-(iii) (4) a-(i), b-(v), c-(iv), d-(iii)
142. Bacteriophages have very high copy numbers of

142. thok.kq dksf'kdkvksa ds vanj cSDVhfj;ksQt
s ds thukse dh
their genome within the bacterial cells because izfrÑfr la[;k cgqr vf/kd gksrh gS D;ksafd
(1) budk izfrÑfr;u] xq.klw= DNA ds izfrÑfr;u ls
(1) Their replication is linked to replication of
chromosomal DNA lacaf/kr gksrk gS
(2) Their number per cell is high (2) izfr dksf'kdk budh la[;k vf/kd gksrh gS
(3) Of absence of their own ‘ori’ sequence (3) buesa] buds Lo;a ds ‘ori’ vuqØe vuqifLFkr gksrs gSa
(4) buesa egRoiw.kZ thu dk vHkko gksrk gS
(4) Of lack of vital genes
143. pUC8, pBR322 ls vf/kd ykHkdkjh gksrk gS D;ksafd
143. pUC8 offers an advantage over pBR322 which is
(1) blesa ,afiflfyu izfrjks/kh thu mifLFkr gksrk gS
(1) Presence of ampicillin resistance gene
(2) blesa iqu;ksZxtksa dh igpku ds fy, nks IysVksa] ftlesa
(2) Identification of recombinants requires
fHkUu&fHkUu izfrtSfod gksrk gS] ij lkFk&lkFk
simultaneous plating on two plates having
different antibiotics IysfVax dh t:jr gksrh gS
(3) blesa o.kksZdkRikndh inkFkZ dh mifLFkfr esa jax ds
(3) Ability to distinguish between non recombinants
and recombinants based on production of colour mRiknu ds vk/kkj ij viqu;ksZxtksa ,oa iqu;ksZxtksa
in presence of chromogenic substrate ds chp varj djus dh ;ksX;rk gksrh gS
(4) Larger size of this plasmid (4) blds IykfTeM dk vkdkj cM+k gksrk gS
144. If an alien piece of DNA is inserted at the recognition 144. ;fn ,d fotkrh; DNA ds [kaM dks bZ-dksykbZ Dyksfuax
sequence of Pvu II in the E. coli cloning vector laokgd pBR32 esa Pvu II ds igpku LFky ij fuos'k
pBR322, the recombinants djok;k tkrk gS rks iqu;ksZxt
(1) Will appear blue in color (1) uhys jax ds izdV gksaxs
(2) Become ampicillin sensitive but resistant to (2) ,afiflfyu ds fy, laosnu'khy ijarq VsVªklkbDyhu
tetracycline ds izfr izfrjksèkh cu tk;saxs
(3) Will be ampicillin resistant but tetracycline (3) ,afiflfyu ds izfr izfrjksèkh ijarq VsVªklkbfDyu ds
sensitive fy, laosnu'khy gksaxs
(4) Will not replicate within the E.coli host (4) bZ-dksykbZ ijiks"kh ds vanj izfrÑfr ugha djsaxs
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145. Which of the following has been disarmed and 145. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdls izk.kh dksf'kdkvksa esa okafNr thu
modified into a cloning vector to deliver desirable dks igq¡pkus ds fy, vgkfudkjd cuk;k tkrk gS rFkk
genes in animal cells?
Dyksfuax laokgd esa :ikarfjr fd;k tkrk gS\
(1) pBR322 (2) Bacteriophage (1) pBR322 (2) cSDVhfj;ksQst
(3) pUC8 (4) Retrovirus (3) pUC8 (4) i'pfo"kk.kq
146. Select the divalent cation which increases the 146. thok.kq dh dksf'kdk fHkfÙk esa fNnzkas }kjk DNA izos'k dh
efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium dq'kyrk esa o`f) djus okys f}la;kstd /kuk;u dk p;u
through pores in its cell wall.
dhft;sA
(1) PO24 (2) Zn2+ (1) PO24 (2) Zn2+
(3) Ca2+ (4) Fe2+ (3) Ca2+ (4) Fe2+
147. A vectorless method for transferring the 147. ijiks"kh dksf'kdk esa iqu;ksZxt DNA ds LFkkukarj.k ds fy,
recombinant DNA into the host cell is ,d laokgd jfgr fof/k dk p;u dhft;sA
(1) Biolistics (1) ck;ksfyLVhd
(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (2) ,xzkscSDVhfj;e V~;wfeQsf'k;al
(3) Cosmid (3) dkWfLeM
(4) BAC (4) BAC
148. vuq:irk dks iwjk dhft;sA
148. Complete the analogy
Lysozyme : Bacteria :: Chitinase :______
ykblkstkbe : thok.kq :: dkbfVust :______
(1) Plant cell (2) Fungus (1) ikni dksf'kdk (2) dod
(3) Animal cell (4) Protozoan (3) izk.kh dksf'kdk (4) izksVkstksvk
149. In the given fragment of DNA, what will be the best 149. DNA ds fn, x, [kaM esa fcuk fdlh ¶ysafdax vuqØe
choice of enzymes if only gene C is to be isolated ds ;fn dsoy thu C dks i`FkDÑr fd;k tk,xk rks fdl
without any flanking sequence? ,atkbe dk p;u mfpr gksxk\
(1) Double digestion with Pst I and Sal I (1) Pst I rFkk Sal I ds
lkFk nksgjk ikpu
(2) Single digestion with Hind III (2) Hind III ds lkFk ,dy ikpu
(3) Single digestion with Pst I (3) Pst I ds lkFk ,dy ikpu
(4) Double digestion with Hind III and Sal I
(4) Hind III rFkk Sal I ds lkFk nskgjk ikpu
150. Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is
150. ,xzkscSDVhfj;e V~;wfeQsf'k;al ds Ti IykfTeM dks
disarmed by
vgkfudkjd cuk;k tkrk gS
(1) Insertional inactivation of -galactosidase gene
(1) - xSysDVkslkbMst thu ds fuos'kh fuf"Ø;rk }kjk
(2) Insertional inactivation of antibiotic resistance
(2) çfrtSfod çfrjks/kh thu ds fuos'kh fuf"Ø;rk }kjk
gene
(3) Ti IykfTeM ls MCS dks u, ‘ori’ ds lkFk cnyus
(3) Replacing MCS from the Ti plasmid with new
‘ori’ }kjk
(4) Replacement of ‘T-DNA’ with our gene of (4) gekjs ykÒdkjh thu ds lkFk ‘T-DNA’ ds çfrLFkkiu
interest }kjk
26/31
151. 151.
In the cloning vector pBR322 given above, the Åij fn;s x;s Dyksfuax laokgd pBR322 esa 'X' }kjk
restriction site marked 'X' is possibly ukekafdr çfrca/ku LFky laHkor% gS
(1) Pvu I (2) Pst I (1) Pvu I (2) Pst I
(3) Pvu II (4) Sal I (3) Pvu II (4) Sal I
152. While isolating genomic DNA, purified DNA can be 152. ftuksfed DNA ds i`FkDdj.k ds le; fdls feyus ls
ultimately precipitated out by the addition of 'kksf/kr DNA varr% vo{ksfir gks ldrk gS\
(1) Proteases (2) Ribonucleases
(1) çksfV,tst (2) jkbcksU;wfDy,tst
(3) Chilled ethanol (4) Calcium chloride
(3) nzqr'khfrr ,FksukWy (4) dSfYl;e DyksjkbM
153. Which of the following is not a component of
153. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d ikWfyejst Üka`[kyk
reaction mixture of polymerase chain reaction?
vfÒfØ;k ds vfÒfØ;k feJ.k dk la?kVd ugha gS\
(1) Two sets of small chemically synthesized
(1) NksVs jklk;fud la'ysf"kr vYiU;wfDy;ksVkbM ds nks
oligonucleotides not complementary to regions
leqPp; tks DNA {ks= ds iwjd ugha gksrs gSa ftls
of DNA called probes çksc dgrs gSa
(2) A thermostable DNA polymerase (2) ,d rkiLFkk;h DNA iksfyejst
(3) Deoxynucleotides to extend the new DNA (3) MhvkWDlhsU;wfDy;ksVkbM~l] u, DNA jTtqdksa dks
strands foLr`r djus ds fy,
(4) Small amount of DNA to serve as initial template (4) DNA dh vYi ek=k] çkjfEHkd VsaiysV ds :i esa
154. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Eco RI dk;Z djus ds fy,
154. Eco RI ds lanÒZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Its an endonuclease that breaks sugar-
phosphate backbone of ds DNA (1) ;g ,d ,aMksU;wfDy,t gS tks ds DNA ds
'kdZjk&QkWLQsV vk/kkjLraHkksa dks [kafMr djrk gS
(2) Its an endonuclease that breaks phosphodiester
(2) ;g ,d ,aMksU;wfDy,t gS tks DNA v.kq ds
bonds of a DNA molecule
QksLQksMkb,LVj ca/kksa dks [kafMr djrk gS
(3) Its an exonuclease that cleaves
(3) ;g ,d ,DlksU;wfDy,t gS tks eksuksQksLQks,LVj ca/kksa
monophosphoester bonds dks [kafMr djrk gS
(4) Its a nuclease that recognizes specific (4) ;g ,d U;wfDy,t gS tks fof'k"V iSyhUMªksfed
palindromic sequence vuqØe dh igpku djrk gS
155. Alkaline phosphatase is employed in genetic 155. {kkjh; QksLQVst dk mi;ksx vkuqoaf'kd bathfu;fjax esa
engineering as it helps to fd;k tkrk gS D;ksafd ;g
(1) Remove terminal 3 OH groups of a linear vector (1) js[kh; laokgd ds VÆeuy 3 OH lewgksa ds fu"dklu
(2) Remove single phosphate groups from 5 end of

esa lgk;rk djrk gS
(2) js[kh; DNA v.kq ds 5 Nksj ls ,dy QksLQsV lewgksa
a linear DNA molecules
ds fu"dklu esa lgk;rk djrk gS
(3) Add nucleotides at the 3 OH group of
(3) orqZy DNA ds 3 OH lewg ij U;wfDy;ksVkbM dks
circularised DNA feykus esa lgk;rk djrk gS
(4) Add single phosphate group at 5 end of (4) js[kh; DNA ds 5 Nksj ij ,dy QksLQsV lewg dks
linearised DNA feykus esa lgk;rk djrk gS
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156. The number of segments of amplified DNA obtained 156. PCR ds 8 pØ ds i'pkr~ çkIr çoÆ/kr DNA ds [kaMksa
after 8 cycles of PCR is dh la[;k gksrh gS
(1) 128 (2) 64 (1) 128 (2) 64
(3) 512 (4) 256
(3) 512 (4) 256
157. lrr~ lao/kZu ra=] ?kku fd.ou ¼cSp QesZUVs'ku½ ls fÒUu
157. Continuous culture system differs from batch gksrk gS D;ksafd
fermentation because (1) ?kku fd.ou esa ,dckj fd.ou çkjaHk gks tkus ij ckgj
(1) In latter, set up conditions can be changed from ls ifjfLFkfr;ksa dks ifjoÆrr fd;k tk ldrk gS
outside once fermentation starts (2) lrr~ lao/kZu ra= esa fd.ou çkjEHk gksus ds i'pkr~
(2) In former, no more nutrients are added to the ck;ksfj,DVj esa dksbZ Hkh iks"kd rRo ugha feyk;s tkrs
bioreactor after fermentation has started gSa
(3) In former, the cells are maintained in their (3) lrr~ lao/kZu ra= esa dksf'kdk,¡ vius fØ;kRed :i
physiologically most active exponential phase ls lokZf/kd lfØ; ,DliksusfU'k;y çkoLFkk esa cuh
(4) In latter, the cells are maintained in their most jgrh gSa
active lag phase of growth (4) ?kku fd.ou esa dksf'kdk,¡ o`f) ds vius lokZf/kd
158. The term given to the stages after fermentation in a ysx çkoLFkk esa cuh jgrh gSa
bioreactor when the desired product is separated, 158. tc okafNr mRikn dks i`Fkd ,oa 'kksf/kr fd;k tkrk gS
and purified is rks ck;ksfj,DVj esa fd.ou ds i'pkr~ voLFkkvksa dks fn,
(1) Biosynthetic stage x, uke dk p;u dhft;sA
(2) Downstream processing (1) tSo la'ysf"kr voLFkk
(2) vuqçokg lalk/ku
(3) Protein amplification
(3) çksVhu lao/kZu
(4) Elution
(4) {kkyu
159. Simple stirred tank bioreactor can be distinguished 159. lk/kkj.k foyksMu gkSt ck;ksfj,DVj dks fdl vk/kkj ij
from sparged stirred tank bioreactor based on the naM foyksMd gkSt ck;ksfj,DVj ls vyx fd;k tk
(1) Absence of pH control system ldrk gS\
(2) Presence of sampling ports (1) pH fu;a=.k ra= dh vuqifLFkfr
(2) çfrp;u iz}kjksa dh mifLFkfr
(3) Absence of sparged sterile air bubbles
(3) thok.kq foghu gok ds cqycqyksa ds ços'k dh
(4) Presence of stirrer that facilitates even oxygen
availability
vuqifLFkfr
(4) foyksMd dh mifLFkfr tks vkWDlhtu dh ,dleku
160. Method of introducing gene of interest/ foreign DNA
directly into the nucleus of preferably an animal cell
miyC/krk dk dke djrs gSa
is 160. fdl fof/k esa ykHkdkjh thu@fotkrh; DNA dks lh/ks
tarq dksf'kdk ds dsanzd ds Òhrj ços'k djok;k tkrk gS\
(1) Heat shock method (2) Biolistics
(1) rkiç?kkr fof/k (2) ck;ksfyLVhd
(3) Microinjection (4) Gene gun
(3) lw{e var% {ksi.k (4) thu xu
161. One can see bright A coloured bands of DNA in 161. B vfHkjaftr ,sxkjkst tsy dks UV çdk'k ls
B stained agarose gel exposed to UV light. vuko`Ùk djus ij DNA dh pedhyh A jax dh iV~Vh
Choose the option that fill the blanks correctly fn[kkbZ iM+rh gSA ml fodYi dk p;u dhft, tks fjDr
A B LFkku dh iwÆr lgh ls djrk gSA
(1) Pink Methylene blue A B
(1) xqykch esfFkyhu Cyw
(2) Orange Ethidium bromide
(2) ukjaxh bFkhfM;e czksekbM
(3) Blue X-gal (3) uhys X-xy
(4) Yellow Gram (4) ihys xzke
28/31
162. Agarose is a natural polymer extracted from 162. ,sxkjkst tsy ,d çkÑfrd cgqyd gS ftls fu"dÆ"kr
(1) Fungus (2) Bacteria fd;k tkrk gS
(3) Sea weeds (4) Protozoan (1) dod ls (2) thok.kq ls
163. Read the following statements carefully (3) leqnzh; ?kkl ls (4) çksVkstksvk ls
163. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dks /;kuiwoZd if<+;sA
Statement-A : The native (wild type) E.coli cells do
not carry resistance against any antibiotics dFku-A : usfVo (taxyh çdkj) bZ- dksykbZ dksf'kdk,¡
fdlh Hkh çfrtSfodksa ds fo:) çfrjks/h ugha gksrh gSaA
Statement-B : Lac Z gene in pBR322 is considered
as useful selectable marker for E.coli
dFku-B : pBR322 esa ySd Z thu dks bZ- dksykbZ ds fy,
mi;ksxh oj.k ;ksX; fpUgd ds :i esa ekuk tkrk gSA
Choose the correct option
lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(1) nksuksa dFku xyr gS
(2) Both statements are correct (2) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(4) Only statement B is correct (4) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
164. All of the following are true for genetically modified 164. fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh vkuqoaf'kd :i ls
plants except :ikarfjr ikniksas ds fy, lR; gSa\
(1) Helped to reduce post harvest losses (1) dVkbZ i'pkr~ gksus okys uqdlkuksa dks de djus esa
(2) Reduced efficiency of mineral usage lgk;d
(3) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (2) ikS/kksa }kjk [kfut mi;ksx {kerk esa deh
(3) jklk;fud ihM+duk'kdksa ij de fuÒZj djuk
(4) Enhanced nutritional value of food
(4) [kk| inkFkks± ds iks"kf.kd Lrj esa o`f)
165. ‘Bt’ in ‘Bt’ cotton refers to
165. ‘Bt’ dikl esa ‘Bt’ lacaf/kr gksrk gS
(1) Biopesticide transgene
(1) tSo ihM+duk'kh Vªkalthu ls
(2) -carotene transgene
(2) -dSjksVhu Vªkalthu ls
(3) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) cSlhyl Fkwjhaft,alhl ls
(4) Bacterial toxin
(4) thokf.od tho fo"k ls
166. Select the correct statement w.r.t. Bt toxin. 166. Bt tho fo"k ds lanHkZ esa lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) The toxin gets activated in the cytoplasm of the (1) thok.kq ds dksf'kdknzo esa tho fo"k lfØ; gks tkrk
bacteria gS
(2) The target insect ingests the activated toxin from (2) y{; dhV] ikni ls lfØ; tho fo"k dks [kkrk gS
the plant
(3) çkd~tho fo"k fuf"Ø; gksrk gS rFkk dhV vkar ds
(3) The protoxin is inactive and gets activated in the {kkjh; pH esa lfØ; gks tkrk gS
alkaline pH of insect gut
(4) çkd~tho fo"k lfØ; gksrk gS rFkk dhV ds vkar ij
(4) The protoxin is active and attacks the insect gut vkØe.k djrk gS tc pH vEyh; gksrk gS
when pH is acidic
167. thu cry/Ac }kjk dwVc) çksVhu fu;af=r djrk gS]
167. The protein encoded by gene cry/Ac controls (1) eDdk Nsnd dks (2) dikl eqdqy Ñfe dks
(1) Corn borer (2) Cotton bollworm (3) lw=Ñfe dks (4) fyewyl dks
(3) Nematodes (4) Limulus 168. fdl tSo vkjf{kr ¼ck;ksQkÆVQkWbM½ Qly ds lsou }kjk
168. Deficiency of vitamin A and iron can be cured by foVkfeu A rFkk vk;ju ds vÒko dk mipkj fd;k tk
consuming which biofortified crop? ldrk gS\
(1) Canola (2) Flavr Savr tomato (1) dsuksyk (2) ¶ysoj lsoj VekVj
(3) Golden rice (4) Native Basmati rice (3) xksYMu jkbl (4) usfVo cklerh pkoy
29/31
169. The strategy adopted to prevent the infestation of 169. rackdw ikni dks laØfer djus okys lw=Ñfe ds laØe.k
nematode that infects tobacco plants is dks jksdus gsrq dkSulh ;kstuk dks Lohdkj fd;k x;k gS\
(1) RAPD (2) RNA interference (1) RAPD (2) RNA varj{ksi
(3) SDS-PAGE (4) RFLP (3) SDS-PAGE (4) RFLP
170. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. RNA 170. RNA varj{ksi ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,
interference (1) ;g ,d çkÑfrd :i ls gksus okyh fØ;kfof/k gS
(1) Its a naturally occuring mechanism that leads to ftlls thu dk i'p VªkalfØI'ku fuf"Ø;u gksrk gS
post transcriptional silencing of genes
(2) ;g lÒh ;wdsfj;ksfVd thoksa esa gksrk gS
(2) It takes places in all eukaryotic organisms
(3) blesa iwjd ss RNA dk mi;ksx djrs gq, fof'k"V
(3) It involves silencing of specific tRNA using tRNA dk fuf"Ø;u lfEefyr gksrk gS
complementary ss RNA
(4) iwjd RNA dk L=ksr] RNA thukse ;k ikjkarjsd
(4) The source of complementary RNA could be ¼VªkalikWtku½ ;qDr fo"kk.kq gks ldrk gS
viruses having RNA genome or transposons
171. ifjiDo balqfyu ds fuekZ.k gsrq fuEufyf[kr esa ls
171. To form mature insulin, removal of which of the
fdldk fu"dklu vfuok;Z gksrk gS\
following is essential?
(1) MkblYQkbM ca/k (2) A Üka`[kyk
(1) Disulphide bonds (2) A chain
(3) B Üka`[kyk (4) C Üka`[kyk
(3) B chain (4) C chain
172. rDNA rduhd dk ç;ksx djrs gq, balqfyu ds mRiknu
172. The main challenge for production of insulin using esa eq[; pqukSrh Fkh
rDNA technique was
(1) 'kdZjk v.kq dks feykus ls Vªkalys'ku ds i'pkr~
(1) Its modification after translation by the addition
bldk :ikarj.k
of sugar molecules
(2) b"Vre lfØ;rk ds lkFk balqfyu dks ,df=r dj
(2) Getting insulin assembled into a mature form
ifjiDo :i ls rS;kj djuk
with optimal activity
(3) bl çkd~&balqfyu dk ijiks"kh bZ-dksykbZ esa :ikUrj.k
(3) Transformation of this proinsulin into host E.coli
(4) uhys&'osr p;u }kjk :ikarfjr bZ-dksykbZ dh
(4) Screening of transformed E.coli by blue-white
LØhfuax
selection
173. thu fpfdRlk dk igys igy ç;ksx o"kZ 1990 esa ,d
173. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to
a four year old girl with deficiency of
pkj o"khZ; yM+dh esa fdldh deh dks nwj djus ds fy,
fd;k x;k Fkk\
(1) Alkaline phosphatase
(1) {kkjh; QksLQVst
(2) Glyphosate
(2) XykbQkslsV
(3) Adenosine dehydrogenase
(3) ,Mhukslhu MhgkbMªksftust
(4) Adenosine deaminase
(4) ,Mhukslhu Mh,ehust
174. Choose the incorrect match 174. xyr feyku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Rosie – Cloned cow (1) jksth – DyksUM xk;
(2) Dolly – Cloned sheep (2) MkWyh – DyksUM HksM+
(3) Polly – Transgenic sheep (3) ikWyh – ikjthoh HksM+
(4) ANDi – Transgenic monkey (4) ANDi – ikjthoh canj
30/31
175. Read the statements and choose the option that fill 175. dFkuksa dks if<+;s rFkk ml fodYi dk p;u dhft;s tks
the respective blanks correctly lacaf/kr fjDr LFkkuksa dh iwÆr lgh ls djrk gS
Statement-A : A single stranded DNA or RNA dFku-A : fofdj.k lfØ; v.kq ds lkFk tqM+s DNA ;k
tagged with a radioactive molecule is called (i) . RNA dh ,dy Üka`[kyk dks (i) dgrs gSaA
Statement-B : Over 95% transgenic animals are dFku-B : 95% ls vf/kd ikjthoh çk.kh (ii) gSA
(ii) .
(i) (ii)
(i) (ii) (1)IykfTeM pwgk
(1) Plasmid Mice (2) thu VSDlh ÒsM+
(2) Gene taxi Sheep (3) laijhf{k= pwgk
(3) Probe Mice (4) Vªfs dax jatd cdjh
(4) Tracking dye Goats 176. vlqefs yr dk p;u dhft,A
176. Choose the mismatch (1) -1 ,aVhfVªfIlu – okrLQhfr dk mipkj
(1) -1 antitrypsin – Treat emphysema (2) ikjthoh pwgk – iksfy;ks Vhds dh tkap
(2) Transgenic mice – Test polio vaccine (3) cklerh pkoy – fo'o esa 27 fdLesa
(3) Basmati rice – 27 varieties in world (4) L;wMkseksukl I;wfVMk – rsy ds fjlko dks lkQ
(4) Pseudomonas putida – Clearing oil spills djuk
177. Biopatents are not awarded to inventors if the 177. tSo&,dLo ml vkfo"dkjd dks ugha fn;k tkrk gS
invention is ftldk vkfo"dkj
(1) Non-obvious (1) vli"V gksrk gS
(2) Documented (2) igpkuk x;k gksrk gS
(3) Well- known (3) lqçfl) gksrk gS
(4) Useful for human beings (4) ekuo çtkfr;ksa ds fy, mi;ksxh gksrk gS
178. The organisation which will make decisions 178. dkSulk laxBu GM vuql/a kku dk;ks± dh oS/kkfudrk rFkk
regarding the validity of GM research and safety of tu lsokvksa ds fy, GM thoksa ds lfUuos'k dh lqj{kk ds
introducing GM organisms for public services is ckjs esa fu.kZ; ysrk gS\
(1) RCGM (2) CDRI (1) RCGM (2) CDRI
(3) GEAC (4) Biosafety committee (3) GEAC tSo lqj{kk lfefr
(4)
179. Early diagnosis is possible by using all of the 179. fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh dk mi;ksx dj
following except çkjfEHkd funku laÒo gS\
(1) PCR (2) ELISA (1) PCR (2) ELISA
(3) RDT (4) Serum analysis (3) RDT lhje fo'ys"k.k
(4)
180. Bt brinjal is a transgenic crop that 180. Bt cSaxu ,d ikjthoh Qly gS tks
(1) Provided herbicide tolerance (1) 'kkduk'kh lfg".kqrk çnku djrk gS
(2) Is nutrionally biofortified crop (2) iks"k.k dh n`f"V ls tSo vkjf{kr Qly gS
(3) Provided drought resistance (3) lw[kk ds çfr çfrjks/k çnku djrk gS
(4) Is a biopesticidal plant (4) ,d tSo ihM+duk'kh ikni gS

31/31
Test Booklet Code A
Test No. 3
AKASH TE
A ST
IA
D
SE
IN
RI
AL L
ES
2021
National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET)
Test-3 (Code-A)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2021

TEST - 3 (Code-A)
Test Date : 08/11/2020
ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (1) 73. (2) 109. (1) 145. (2)
2. (4) 38. (2) 74. (4) 110. (2) 146. (3)
3. (1) 39. (4) 75. (1) 111. (3) 147. (2)
4. (4) 40. (3) 76. (2) 112. (2) 148. (1)
5. (2) 41. (2) 77. (3) 113. (2) 149. (3)
6. (1) 42. (1) 78. (4) 114. (2) 150. (2)
7. (3) 43. (4) 79. (3) 115. (1) 151. (2)
8. (1) 44. (1) 80. (1) 116. (3) 152. (1)
9. (3) 45. (3) 81. (3) 117. (4) 153. (4)
10. (2) 46. (1) 82. (3) 118. (2) 154. (3)
11. (4) 47. (3) 83. (1) 119. (2) 155. (2)
12. (3) 48. (3) 84. (3) 120. (4) 156. (1)
13. (2) 49. (3) 85. (3) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (2) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (3)
15. (1) 51. (4) 87. (2) 123. (4) 159. (2)
16. (4) 52. (2) 88. (4) 124. (1) 160. (2)
17. (4) 53. (4) 89. (3) 125. (2) 161. (3)
18. (3) 54. (1) 90. (2) 126. (3) 162. (1)
19. (4) 55. (3) 91. (1) 127. (1) 163. (2)
20. (2) 56. (1) 92. (3) 128. (1) 164. (2)
21. (2) 57. (3) 93. (2) 129. (1) 165. (3)
22. (4) 58. (1) 94. (1) 130. (1) 166. (1)
23. (4) 59. (1) 95. (1) 131. (1) 167. (4)
24. (1) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (2) 168. (2)
25. (2) 61. (3) 97. (4) 133. (1) 169. (4)
26. (3) 62. (2) 98. (2) 134. (3) 170. (1)
27. (1) 63. (2) 99. (4) 135. (1) 171. (4)
28. (4) 64. (3) 100. (1) 136. (4) 172. (3)
29. (2) 65. (3) 101. (4) 137. (1) 173. (1)
30. (1) 66. (2) 102. (1) 138. (2) 174. (3)
31. (3) 67. (1) 103. (2) 139. (3) 175. (1)
32. (1) 68. (4) 104. (1) 140. (3) 176. (1)
33. (1) 69. (3) 105. (2) 141. (4) 177. (2)
34. (2) 70. (3) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (2)
35. (4) 71. (3) 107. (4) 143. (1) 179. (2)
36. (3) 72. (4) 108. (4) 144. (1) 180. (1)
1/35
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (3) 1. mÙkj (3)
1  2 1  2
 0  0
Hint : irms = i dt ladsr : irms = i dt
1 4  2 1 4  2
Sol. : irms = 
 9 2 0 t dt gy : irms = 
 9 2 0 t dt
 
4 t3 4 t3
=  = 
93 3 0 93 3 0
2 2
= A = A
3 3 3 3
i0 i0
Hint : ieffective = irms = ladsr : iizHkkoh = irms =
2 2
1.4A 1.4A
Sol. : i = 1.0 A gy : i= 1.0 A
2 2
V N d Vp Np d
Hint : p = p and V = ladsr : = rFkk V =
Vs Ns dt Vs Ns dt
d d
Sol. : Vp = = 20V gy : Vp = = 20V
dt dt
Ns 4000 Ns 4000
Vs = .Vp =  20 = 800V Vs = .Vp =  20 = 800V
Np 100 Np 100
ladsr : Q = vuuq kn vkof`r
Resonant frequency
Hint : Q =
Bandwidth c.SM pkSM+kbZ
  L r r L
Sol. : Q = r = r = r gy : Q = = = r
  R  R  R R
   
L L
1 1 1 1
Also rL =  Q= rFkk rL =  Q=
r C r RC r C r RC
1 1 L 1 1 L
And r =  Q= rFkk r =  Q=
LC R C LC R C
Hint : Pavg = Vrms irms cos  ladsr : PvkSlr = Vrms irms cos 
100 100  100 100 
Sol. : Pavg =   cos   gy : PvkSlr =   cos  
2 2 6 2 2 6
= 2500 3 W = 2500 3 W
Hint & Sol. : X = XL ~ XC ladsr rFkk gy : X = XL ~ XC
1
At resonance, X = L −
C
=0 vuqukn ij, X = L − 1 = 0
C
2/35
Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

Hint : I0 = 2 Irms ladsr : I0 = 2 Irms
2
V 220  220 V2 220  220
Sol. : R = = gy : R = =
P 100 P 100
= 484  = 484 
Vrms 220 Vrms 220
Irms = = = 0.4545A Irms = = = 0.4545A
R 484 R 484
I0 = 2Irms = 0.64A I0 = 2Irms = 0.64A
Hint : Pavg = Vrms Irms cos 
ladsr : PvkSlr = Vrms Irms cos 
1
Sol. : x = − L gy : x 1
C = − L
C
1
= − 100  20  10−3 1
2  50  100  10−6 = − 100  20  10−3
2  50  100  10−6
= 25.5
= 25.5
Z = 502 + (25.5)2 = 56.12  Z = 502 + (25.5)2 = 56.12 
2
Vrms 144  50 2
Vrms 144  50
Pavg = .R = = 2.286 W P = 2 .R = = 2.286 W
Z2 (3150.25) vkSlr Z (3150.25)
Energy dissipated per second izfr lsd.M O;f;r ÅtkZ
= Pavg × 1  2.3 J = PvkSlr × 1  2.3 J
2
 1   1 
2
Hint : Z = R 2 +   ladsr : Z = R2 + 
 C  
 C 
10 10
Sol. : For 1st term i1 = gy : izFke in ds fy, i1 =
Z1 Z1
10 10
For 2nd term i2 = f}rh; in ds fy, i2 =
Z2 Z2
2
 1   1 
2
where Z1 = R 2 +   tgk¡ Z1 = R 2 +  
 100C   100C 
2 2
 1   1 
Z2 = R +  2
 Z2 = R 2 +  
 500C   500C 
As Z1 > Z2  i1 < i2 pw¡fd Z1 > Z2  i1 < i2
10. Answer (2) 10. mÙkj (2)
1 1
Hint : Average energy density = 0 E02 ladsr : vkSlr ÅtkZ ?kuRo =  E2
2 2 0 0
Sol. : U = uavg × V gy : U = uvkSlr × V
1 1
= 0 E02  A. l =  E 2  A. l
2 2 0 0
1 1 1 1
=  8.85  10−12  50  50  1 =  8.85  10−12  50  50  1
2 4 2 4
= 2.77 nJ = 2.77 nJ
3/35
11. Answer (4) 11. mÙkj (4)

Hint : Use concept of displacement current ladsr : foLFkkiu èkkjk dk fl)kUr iz;qDr djsa
Sol. : For loop M,  B.dl =  0 Id gy : ywi M ds fy,,  B.dl = 0Id
And for loop N,  B.dl =  0 Ic rFkk ywi M ds fy, N,  B.dl = 0Ic
As Id and Ic are non zero during charging of pw¡fd Id o Ic laèkkfj= ds vkos'ku ds nkSjku v'kwU; gSA
capacitor. blfy,  B.dl nksuksa ywiksa ds fy, v'kwU; gksxkA
Hence  B.dl will be non zero for both loop. 12. mÙkj (3)
12. Answer (3) ladsr rFkk gy : pw¡fd EM rjax ds pqEcdh; rFkk fo|qr
Hint and Sol. : As magnetic and electric field {ks= ?kVd T;koØh; gS rFkk blfy, budk vkSlr
components of an EM wave are sinusoidal and eku 'kwU; gksrk gSA pqEcdh; rFkk fo|qr ÅtkZ T;k ;k
hence they have zero average value. The
magnetic and electric energy is square of sine or
dksT;k Qyu dk oxZ gS rFkk blfy, budk vkSlr
cosine function and hence they have non zero eku v'kwU; gS
average value. 13. mÙkj (2)
13. Answer (2) 1
ladsr : I =  E 2C
1 2 0 0
Hint : I = 0E02C
2 3
2
2I 2
2
3 gy : E0 = =
2I 2 0C 0  3  108
Sol. : E0 = =
0C 0  3  108  10−4 
E0 =   N/C
 10−4    
E0 =   N/C  0 
   14. mÙkj (2)
 0 
14. Answer (2) ladsr rFkk gy : pw¡fd xkek fdj.kksa] X-fdj.kksa rFkk
Hint and Sol. : Since the frequencies of gamma vojDr fdj.kksa dh vko`fÙk;k¡ fuEu izdkj lEcfUèkr
rays, X-rays and infrared rays are related as gksrh gSa
 > x > IR, hence IR > x >   > x > IR, blfy, IR > x > 
15. Answer (1) 15. mÙkj (1)
   − 1 2 1 2 − 1
Hint : 2 − 1 = 2 ladsr : − =
v u R v u R
1 1.5 1 − 1.5 1 1.5 1 − 1.5
Sol. : − = gy : − =
v −6 −10 v −6 −10
1 1 1 1− 5 1 1 1 1− 5
= − = = − =
v 20 4 20 v 20 4 20
v = –5 cm v = –5 cm
16. Answer (4) 16. mÙkj (4)
1 1 1
Hint : + = ladsr : 1 + 1 = 1
v u f v u f
1 1 1 1 1 1
Sol. : + = gy : + =
v − 40 40 v − 40 40
1 1 1 1 1 1
= + = +
v 40 40 v 40 40
1 1
1
=
1 =
v 20 v 20
v = 20 cm
v = 20 cm
Image will be behind the mirror at 20 cm i.e.
izfrfcEc niZ.k ds ihNs 20 cm ij vFkkZr èkzqo o Qksdl
between pole and focus. ds eè; gksxkA
4/35
17. Answer (4) 17. mÙkj (4)

2 1 2 − 1 2 1 2 − 1
Hint : − = ladsr : − =
v u R v u R
Sol. : As for upper portion and lower portion on gy : pw¡fd xksyh; lrg ds nk;ha vksj Åijh Hkkx rFkk
right side of spherical surface have different fupys Hkkx ds fy, viorZukad fHkUu&fHkUu gksrs gSa]
refractive index, hence they will have different blfy, budh Qksdl nwjh Hkh fHkUu&fHkUu gksxhA
focal length also. Hence there will be two images
blfy, ;gk¡ nks izfrfcEc gksaxs] ,d I1 ij rFkk nwljk
one at I1 and other at I2.
I2 ijA
18. Answer (3)
18. mÙkj (3)
Hint and Sol. : For erect image by mirror, the
magnification should be positive i.e. possible if
ladsr rFkk gy : niZ.k }kjk lhèks izfrfcEc ds fy,]
object or image, any one should be virtual. vkoèkZu èkukRed gksuk pkfg, vFkkZr lEHko gS ;fn
oLrq ;k izfrfcEc esa ls dksbZ Hkh ,d vkHkklh gksuk
19. Answer (4)
pkfg,A
Hint : P = P1 + P2
19. mÙkj (4)
1
Sol. : = P1 + P2 ladsr : P = P1 + P2
f
1
1 gy : = P1 + P2
f = f
P1 + P2
1
f =
20. Answer (2) P1 + P2
Hint :
1 1 1
− =
20. mÙkj (2)
v u f
1 1 1
ladsr : − =
1 1 1 v u f
Sol. : − =
v u f 1 1 1
gy : − =
v u f
1 1 1
− =
20 10 f 1 1 1
− =
20 10 f
f = –20 cm
f = –20 cm
21. Answer (2)
21. mÙkj (2)
 1
Hint : Apparent shift = t  1 −   1
   ladsr : vkHkklh foLFkkiu = t 1 − 
 
 2
Sol. : Apparent shift = 6  1 −  = 2 cm
 3 gy : vkHkklh foLFkkiu = 6  1 − 2  = 2 cm
 3
Microscope should shift 2 cm upwards. lw{en'khZ Åij dh vksj 2 cm foLFkkfir gksuk pkfg,A
5/35
22. Answer (4) 22. mÙkj (4)

1  2  1 1  1  2  1 1 
Hint : = − 1  −
f  1  R R  ladsr : = − 1  −
 R R 
 1 2  f  1  1 2 
Sol. : Here (2 < 1) i.e. focal length will be gy : ;gk¡ (2 < 1) vFkkZr Qksdl nwjh vc _.kkRed
negative now. Hence it will behave like diverging
lens.
gksxhA blfy, ;g vilkjh ysalksa dh Hkk¡fr O;ogkj
djsxkA
23. Answer (4)
23. mÙkj (4)
1 1 1
Hint : + = 1 1 1
v u f ladsr : + =
v u f
Sol. : If SP1 = SP2 = 2f
gy : ;fn SP1 = SP2 = 2f
Then d = 4f
rc d = 4f
If SP1 = SP2 = f
;fn SP1 = SP2 = f
Then P1P2 = 2f
rc P1P2 = 2f
d = 2f
d = 2f
24. Answer (1)

24. mÙkj (1)
1
Hint : sin c = 1
 ladsr : sin c =

Sol. : For TIR, i > c
gy : TIR ds fy,, i > c
sin(90 – ) > sin c
sin(90 – ) > sin c
1
cos  > 1
 cos  >

3
cos  > 3
2 cos  >
2
cos  > cos 30°
cos  > cos 30°
 < 30°
 < 30°
max = 30° max = 30°
6/35
25. Answer (2) 25. mÙkj (2)

dreal d
Hint : dapparent = ladsr : dvkHkklh = okLrfod
 
Sol. : Since distance between object O and image gy : pw¡fd oLrq O o izfrfcEc I ds eè; nwjh 30 cm gS
I is 30 cm
rc
Then
6 cm + happ = 15 cm
6 cm + happ = 15 cm
happ = 9 cm
happ = 9 cm
12 cm
12 cm = 9 cm
= 9 cm 

12 4
12 4 = =
= = 9 3
9 3
 = 1.33
 = 1.33
26. Answer (3) 26. mÙkj (3)
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Hint : = + + ladsr : = + +
f f1 f2 f3 f f1 f2 f3
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Sol. : = + + …(1) gy : = + + …(1)
15 f1 f2 f3 15 f1 f2 f3
7 1 1 7 1 1
= + …(2) = + …(2)
60 f1 f2 60 f1 f2
From equation (1) and (2) lehdj.k (1) o (2) ls

1 7 1 1 7 1
− = − =
15 60 f3 15 60 f3
4−7 1 4−7 1
= =
60 f3 60 f3
f3 = –20 cm f3 = –20 cm
7/35
27. Answer (1) 27. mÙkj (1)

1 1
Hint : sin c = ladsr : sin c =
 
1
Sol. : sin c = gy : sin c = 1
4/3 4/3
3
sin c = sin c =
3
4 4
3
tan c = 3
7 tan c =
7
r 3
= r 3
2 7 =
2 7
6
r = 6
7 r =
7
22 36
A = . r 2 =  = 16.16 m2
22 36 7 7
A = . r 2 =  = 16.16 m2 28. mÙkj (4)
7 7
28. Answer (4) 1 v
ladsr : sin c = =
1 v
Hint : sin c = =  c
 c  6 
 6     12 
   12  gy : sin c =  30ns = 
Sol. : sin c =  30ns =   0.6   18 
 0.6   18   2ns 
 2ns  2
sin c =
2 3
sin c =
c = sin−1  
3 2
c = sin−1   3
2
3 29. mÙkj (2)
29. Answer (2)
1 1 1 ladsr : 1 = 1 − 1
Hint : = − f v u
f v u gy :
Sol. :
From the symmetry

lefefr ls
For 1st position of lens ysal dh izFke fLFkfr ds fy,
u = –45 cm, v = 90 cm u = –45 cm, v = 90 cm
1 1 1 3 1 1 1 3
= − = = − =
f 90 − 45 90 f 90 − 45 90
f = 30 cm f = 30 cm
8/35
30. Answer (1) 30. mÙkj (1)

1 1 1 1 1 1
Hint : = + + ... ladsr : = + + ...
f f1 f2 f f1 f2
1 1 1 1 1 1
Sol. : = (  − 1)  −  gy : = (  − 1)  − 
f1  R f1  R
1 1 1 1 1 1
= − = − = − = −
2 3 60 2 3 60
1  1 1  1  1 1 
= (1.8 − 1)   +  = (1.8 − 1)   + 
f2  30 30  f2  30 30 
1.6 1.6
= =
30 30
1  1 1 1  1 1
= (1.5 − 1)  −  = (1.5 − 1)  − 
f3  −30   f3  −30  
1 1
=− =−
60 60
1 1 1 1 1 1.6 1 1 1 1 1 1 1.6 1
= + + =− + − = + + =− + −
f f1 f2 f3 60 30 60 f f1 f2 f3 60 30 60
−1 + 3.2 − 1 1.2 −1 + 3.2 − 1 1.2

= = = =
60 60 60 60
f = 50 cm f = 50 cm
31. Answer (3) 31. mÙkj (3)
Hint : For normal adjustment ladsr : lkekU; leatu ds fy,
v D v0  D 
m = − 0   and L = v0 + fe m=− rFkk L = v0 + fe
u0  fe  u0  fe 
1 1 1 1 1 1
Sol. : − = gy : − =
v 0 u0 f0 v 0 u0 f0
1 1 1 1 1 1
+ = + =
v 0 2.4 2 v 0 2.4 2
1 1 1 6−5 1 1 1 6−5
= − = = − =
v 0 2 2.4 12 v 0 2 2.4 12
v0 = 12 cm v0 = 12 cm
v0  D  12  25  v0  D  12  25 
m=− =−   = −25 m=− =−   = −25
u0  fe  2.4  5  u0  fe  2.4  5 
L = v0 + fe = 12 + 5 = 17 cm L = v0 + fe = 12 + 5 = 17 cm
9/35
32. Answer (1) 32. mÙkj (1)

1 1 1 1 1 1
Hint : − = ladsr : − =
v u f v u f
Sol. : As far point is at infinity gy : pw¡fd nwjLFk fcUnq vuUr ij gS
Hence power of the eye-lens will be minimum. blfy, us= ysl a dh {kerk U;wure gksxh
1 1 1 1
i.e. fmax = = = 2.5 cm vFkkZr~ fmax = = = 2.5 cm
Pmin 40 Pmin 40
i.e. Distance of retina from eye-lens is 2.5 cm. vFkkZr us=&ysal ls jsfVuk dh nwjh 2.5 cm gSA
Now if eye is focused at near point the power will vc ;fn us= fudV fcUnq ij Qksdflr gSa] rc {kerk
be maximum i.e. vfèkdre gksxh] vFkkZr
1 5
P = 60D  f = = cm. P = 60D  f =
1 5
= cm.
60D 3 60D 3
1 1 1 1 1 1
Now − = vc − =
v u f v u f
1 1 1 1 1 1
− = − =
2.5 u  5  2.5 u  5 
   
3 3
1 2 3 1 2 3
= − = −
u 5 5 u 5 5
u = –5 cm u = –5 cm
i.e. near point is at 5 cm vFkkZr fudV fcUnq 5 cm ij gS
33. Answer (1) 33. mÙkj (1)
−fo −fo
Hint : m = for normal adjustment ladsr : m = lkekU; leatu ds fy,
fe fe
−100 −100
Sol. : m = = –50 gy : m = = –50
2 2
34. Answer (2) 34. mÙkj (2)
Hint and Sol. : Since prisms are identical so any ladsr rFkk gy : pw¡fd fizTe ,dleku gS blfy, dksbZ
two can produce zero deviation and hence Hkh nks 'kwU; fopyu mRiUu dj ldrs gSa rFkk blfy,
minimum deviation produced will be mRiUu U;wure fopyu gksxk
min = ( – ) + ( – ) +  =  min = ( – ) + ( – ) +  = 
35. Answer (4) 35. mÙkj (4)
Hint and Sol. : Huygen’s principle of secondary ladsr rFkk gy : f}rh;d rjafxdkvksa ds gkbxsu
wavelets is used to explain wave nature of light, fl)kUr dk mi;ksx izdk'k dh d.kh; izÑfr] Lusy
Snell’s law and also to find the new position of
wavefront.
fu;e dh O;k[;k ds fy, rFkk rjaxkxz dh uohu
fLFkfr Kkr djus ds fy, Hkh fd;k tkrk gSA
36. Answer (3)
36. mÙkj (3)
Hint : Wavefront is perpendicular to direction of
propagation of light. ladsr : rjaxkxz izdk'k dh lapj.k fn'kk ds yEcor
Sol. : As light is moving along z-axis, hence wave gSA
front will be in xy plane. gy : pw¡fd izdk'k z-v{k ds vuqfn'k xfr'khy gS]
The general equation of xy plane is blfy, rjaxkxz xy ry esa gksxkA
z=c xy ry dh lkekU; lehdj.k z = c gSA
10/35
37. Answer (1) 37. mÙkj (1)

Hint : Most of light is diffracted in central maxima. ladsr : dsUnzh; mfPp"B esa vfèkdre izdk'k dk foorZu
Sol. : a sin  = +  gksrk gSA
2 2  5  10 −7 gy : a sin  = + 
sin  = =
a 2  10 −4 2 2  5  10 −7
sin  = =
sin     5 × 10–3 rad. a 2  10 −4
38. Answer (2) sin     5 × 10–3 rad.

1.22 38. mÙkj (2)
Hint :  =
d 1.22
ladsr :  =
1.22 d
Sol. : Limit of resolution  =
d 1.22
gy : fo;kstu lhek  =
d
1.22  5.5  10 −7
 = = 2.684  10 −7
1.22  5.5  10 −7
2.5  = = 2.684  10 −7
2.5
  2.7 × 10–7 rad
  2.7 × 10–7 rad
39. Answer (4)
nD
39. mÙkj (4)
Hint : ybright = nD
d ladsr : y
nhIr
=
d
2n − 1 D
and y dark =    2n − 1 D
 2  d rFkk y vnhIr =  

 2  d
7 D
Sol. : y 4,D =
2 d gy : y 4,D = 7 D
2 d
7D 7D
y 7,B = = 7D 7D
d d y 7,B = =
d d
7 D 7 D
Now = 7 D 7 D
d 2d vc =
d 2d
 = 2.0
 = 2.0
40. Answer (3)
40. mÙkj (3)
I
Hint : I = 0 cos2  I0
2 ladsr : I = cos2 
2
I
Sol. : It = 0  cos2 60  cos2 30 I0
2 gy : It =  cos2 60  cos2 30
2
I0 1 3 3I0 I0
=   = 1 3 3I
2 4 4 32 =   = 0
2 4 4 32
41. Answer (2)
41. mÙkj (2)

Hint : 2t cos  = (2n – 1)
2 ladsr : 2t cos  = (2n – 1) 
2
 
Sol. : 2t = (2n – 1) [cos  = 1] gy : 2t = (2n – 1) [cos  = 1]
2 2
4t 4  1.5  0.5  10 −6 4t 4  1.5  0.5  10 −6
= = = =
(2n − 1) (2n − 1) (2n − 1) (2n − 1)
3  10 −6 3  10 −6
= =
(2n − 1) (2n − 1)
11/35
For n = 1,  = 3000 nm n = 1 ds fy,,  = 3000 nm

n = 2,  = 1000 nm n = 2,  = 1000 nm
n = 3,  = 600 nm n = 3,  = 600 nm
n = 4,  = 429 nm n = 4,  = 429 nm
n = 5,  = 333 nm n = 5,  = 333 nm
So, within the visible range 400 nm – 700 nm light blfy, n`'; ijkl 400 nm – 700 nm esa 429 nm rFkk
of wavelength 429 nm and 600 nm will be strongly 600 nm rjaxnSè;Z dk izdk'k izcy :i ls ijkofrZr
reflected. gksxkA
42. Answer (1) 42. mÙkj (1)
Imax (a1 + a2 ) 2
Imax (a1 + a2 )2
Hint : = ladsr : =
Imin (a1 − a2 )2 Imin (a1 − a2 )2
Sol. : a1 = 3a2 gy : a1 = 3a2
Imax ( 3 + 1)2 a22 ( 3 + 1)2 Imax ( 3 + 1)2 a22 ( 3 + 1)2

= = = =
Imin ( 3 − 1)2 a22 ( 3 − 1)2 Imin ( 3 − 1)2 a22 ( 3 − 1)2
 14  14
43. Answer (4) 43. mÙkj (4)
Hint : ( – 1)t = n ladsr : ( – 1)t = n
Sol. : For minimum thickness n = 1 gy : U;wure eksVkbZ ds fy, n = 1
i.e. ( – 1)t =  vFkkZr ( – 1)t = 
600  10 −9 600  10 −9
t= = 1200  10 −9 t= = 1200  10 −9
0.5 0.5
t = 1.2 m t = 1.2 m
44. Answer (1) 44. mÙkj (1)

Hint : arc = R ladsr : pki = R
Sol. :
gy :
Distance between two dots

nks MkWV ds eè; nwjh
2.54
2.54 x= cm
x= cm 500
500
x 2.54
x 2.54 R= =
R= =  500  5  10 −4
 500  5  10 −4
R = 10.16 cm
R = 10.16 cm
45. mÙkj (3)
45. Answer (3)
− v
− v ladsr : =
Hint : =  c
 c
gy : izdk'k esa MkWIyj izHkko ls] ;fn XySDlh i`Foh dh
Sol. : From Doppler’s effect in light if galaxy will
approach wavelength of light will decrease and
vksj gksxh] rc izdk'k dh rjaxnSè;Z ?kVsxh rFkk blfy,
hence it is called blue shift bls uhy l`fr (Blue shift) dgrs gSaA
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[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (1) 46. mÙkj (1)
Hint : Species which involve d-d transition ladsr : d-d laØe.k okyh Lih'kht lkekU;r% jax
generally show colour. n'kkZrh gSA
Sol. : Sc3+ : [Ar] 3d0, no d-d transition gy : Sc3+ : [Ar] 3d0 esa d-d laØe.k ugha gksrk
Mn3+ : Violet, Cr2+ : Blue, Fe2+ : green Mn3+ : cSaxuh, Cr2+ : uhyk, Fe2+ : gjk
47. Answer (3) 47. mÙkj (3)
Hint : Due to presence of stable half filled ladsr : LFkk;h vèkZ iwfjr d-midks'k foU;kl dh
d-subshell configuration Mn has weak metallic mifLFkfr ds dkj.k Mn esa nqcZy èkkfRod caèku gksrs gSa
bonding hence melting point is low. vr% bldk xyukad de gksrk gSA
48. Answer (3) 48. mÙkj (3)
Hint : On moving left to right in 3d series density ladsr : 3d Js.kh esa ck,a ls nk,a pyus ij rRoksa dk
of element generally increase. ?kuRo lkekU;r% c<+rk gSA
Sol. : Sc < Ti < V < Ni gy : Sc < Ti < V < Ni
49. Answer (3) 49. mÙkj (3)
Hint : Tb : [Xe]4f 9 6s2 ladsr : Tb : [Xe]4f 9 6s2
50. Answer (4) 50. mÙkj (4)
Hint : MnO−4 can act as oxidizing agent and ladsr : mnklhu ;k gYds {kkjh; ekè;e esa MnO−4
converted into MnO2 in neutral or faintly alkaline vkWDlhdkjd ds :i esa dk;Z dj ldrk gS rFkk MnO2
medium. esa ifjofrZr gks tkrk gSA
Sol. : gy :
8MnO4− + H2O + 3S2O32− → 8MnO2 + 6SO24− + 2OH− 8MnO4− + H2O + 3S2O32− → 8MnO2 + 6SO24− + 2OH−
51. Answer (4) 51. mÙkj (4)
Hint : Magnetic moment = n(n + 2) BM ladsr : pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ = n(n + 2) BM
(Where n : number of unpaired electrons) (tgk¡ n : v;qfXer bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k)
Sol. : Mn2+ : 3d5 gy : Mn2+ : 3d5

pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ = 5  7 = 35 BM
Magnetic moment = 5  7 = 35 BM
52. mÙkj (2)
52. Answer (2)
ladsr : K2Cr2O7 vEyh; ekè;e esa H2S dks S esa
Hint : K2Cr2O7 oxidize H2S into S, in acidic
vkWDlhÑr dj nsrk gS rFkk Lo;a Cr3+ esa ifjofrZr gks
medium and converts itself into Cr3+
tkrk gSA
Sol. : K2Cr2O7 + H2S → Cr3+ + S
gy : K2Cr2O7 + H2S → Cr3+ + S
Equivalent(s) of K2 Cr2O7 = Equivalent(s) of H2S K2 Cr2O7 ds rqY;kad = H2S ds rqY;kad
Mole of K2Cr2O7× 6 = 0.2 × 2 K2Cr2O7 ds eksy × 6 = 0.2 × 2
0.2 2 1
Mole of K 2Cr2O7 = = = = 0.067 mol K2Cr2O7 ds eksy = 0.2 = 2
=
1
= 0.067 mol
3 30 15 3 30 15
53. Answer (4) 53. mÙkj (4)
Hint : Ac, Cf and No only show +3 Oxidation state ladsr : Ac, Cf rFkk No dsoy +3 vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk
Th shows only +4 and Np show n'kkZrs gSaA Th dsoy +4 rFkk Np, +3,+4,+5,+6 rFkk
+3,+4,+5,+6 and +7 Oxidation states +7 vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk,a n'kkZrk gSA
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54. Answer (1) 54. mÙkj (1)

Hint : Ce : [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2, Eu : [Xe] 4f 7 6s2 ladsr : Ce : [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2, Eu : [Xe] 4f 7 6s2
Tm: [Xe] 4f13 6s2, Yb : [Xe] 4f 14 6s2, Sm : [Xe]4f 6 Tm: [Xe] 4f13 6s2, Yb : [Xe] 4f 14 6s2, Sm : [Xe]4f 6
6s2 6s2
Sol. : Tm2+ :[Xe]4f 13  1 unpaired electron gy : Tm2+ :[Xe]4f 13  1 v;qfXer bysDVªkWu
Ce3+ : [Xe]4f 1  1 unpaired electron Ce3+ : [Xe]4f 1  1 v;qfXer bysDVªkWu
55. Answer (3) 55. mÙkj (3)
Hint : Mischmetal contains around 95% ladsr : fe'k èkkrq esa 95% ySUFksukW;M èkkrq rFkk yxHkx
lanthanoid metal and around 5% iron and traces
5% vk;ju o vYi ek=k esa S, C, Ca rFkk Al gksrs gSaA
of S, C, Ca and Al
56. Answer (1)
56. mÙkj (1)
Hint : Zn2+ = [Ar]3d10 4s0 and Br– is a weak field ladsr : Zn2+ = [Ar]3d10 4s0 rFkk Br– nqcZy {ks= yhxs.M gSaA
ligand.
57. mÙkj (3)

57. Answer (3) ladsr : bpy ,d f}nUrqd mnklhu yhxs.M rFkk ox
Hint : bpy is a bidented neutral ligand and ox is a ,d f}narqd _.kkosf'kr yhxs.M gSA
bidented anionic ligand. gy : x + 2(0) + 0 + 1(–2) + (–2) = 0
Sol. : x + 2(0) + 0 + 1(–2) + (–2) = 0 x = +4
x = +4 58. mÙkj (1)
58. Answer (1)
ladsr :
Hint :
59. mÙkj (1)

59. Answer (1) ladsr : en (,fFkyhuMkbZ,ehu) ,d mnklhu f}narqd
Hint : en (ethylene diamine) is a neutral bidentate yhxs.M gSaA
ligand 60. mÙkj (4)
60. Answer (4) ladsr : yhxs.M dh {ks= lkeF;Z dk Øe : Cl– < H2O
Hint : Order of field strength of ligand : Cl– < H2O < NH3 < CN– gS
< NH3 < CN– gy :
Sol. :
61. mÙkj (3)

61. Answer (3) ladsr : Cr3+ : [Ar]3d3, Co3+ : [Ar]3d6
Hint : Cr3+ : [Ar]3d3, Co3+ : [Ar]3d6 gy : [Cr (H2O)6]3+ rFkk [Cr(CN)6]3– nksuksa esa rhu
Sol. : Both [Cr(H2O)6]3+ and [Cr(CN)6]3– contain v;qfXer bysDVªkWu gSaA
three unpaired electrons
[Co(H2O)6]3+ contains zero unpaired electron [Co(H2O)6]3+ esa 'kwU; v;qfXer bysDVªkWu
[CoF6]3– contains four unpaired electrons [CoF6]3– esa pkj v;qfXer bysDVªkWu
14/35
62. Answer (2) 62. mÙkj (2)

Hint : Ni2+ : [Ar] 3d8 and magnetic moment = ladsr : Ni2+ : [Ar] 3d8 rFkk pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ =
n(n + 2) BM n(n + 2) BM gSaA
Sol. : Ni2+ ion contains two unpaired electrons gy : Ni2+ vk;u esa nks v;qfXer bysDVªkWu gksrs gSaA
Magnetic moment = 2(2 + 2) = 8 BM pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ = 2(2 + 2) = 8 BM
63. Answer (2) 63. mÙkj (2)
ladsr : èkkrq ij _.kkos'k vfèkd gksus ij i'p nku
Hint : Higher is the negative charge on metal,
more is the back donation, larger is the bond vfèkd gksxk] caèk yackbZ vfèkd gksxh rFkk C – O caèk
length and lesser will be the bond order of C – O dk caèk Øe de gksxkA
bond gy : [Co(CO)4]+ esa C–O caèk dk caèk Øe vfèkdre
Sol. : Bond order of C–O will be maximum in gksxkA
[Co(CO)4]+ 64. mÙkj (3)
64. Answer (3) ladsr : [Ni(en)2Cl2] T;kferh; leko;ork n'kkZrk gS
Hint : [Ni(en)2Cl2] shows G. I. In which cis is
ftlesa lei{k izdkf'kd lfØ; tcfd foi{k izdkf'kd
optically active while trans is optically inactive fuf"Ø; gksrk gSA
Sol. : [Pt (NH3)2Cl2] → shows G. I.
gy : [Pt (NH3)2Cl2] → T;kferh; leko;ork n'kkZrk
gSA
[Pd(NH3)3Cl]Br → does not show G. I. or O. I. [Pd(NH3)3Cl]Br → T;kferh; leko;ork ;k vk;uu
[Co(NH3)2(H2O)2ClBr] I → shows both G. I. and O. leko;ork ugha n'kkZrk gSA
I. [Co(NH3)2(H2O)2ClBr] I → T;kferh; rFkk vk;uu
65. Answer (3) leko;ork nksuksa n'kkZrk gSA
Hint : Ionization isomers can be formed by
65. mÙkj (3)
exchange of anions from one sphere to another. ladsr : vk;uu leko;o ,d e.My ls nwljs e.My
Sol. :
esa _.kk;u fofue; ls curs gSaA
gy :
66. Answer (2)

66. mÙkj (2)
Hint : Compounds which form most stable ladsr : vfèkd LFkk;h dkcZèkuk;u cukus okys ;kSfxd
carbocation will undergo fastest SN1 reaction.
SN1 vfHkfØ;k rhozrk ls nsaxsA
Sol. : is most stable carbocation gy : vfèkd LFkk;h dkcZèkuk;u gSA

15/35
67. Answer (1) 67. mÙkj (1)

Hint : Anions are hydrated in polar protic solvent ladsr : _.kk;u èkzqoh; izkfs Vd foyk;d esa ty;ksftr
Sol. : Order of nucleophilicity : I– > Br– > Cl– > F– gksrs gSaA
68. Answer (4) gy : ukfHkdLusfgrk dk Øe : I– > Br– > Cl– > F–
Hint : Compound which does not contain plane of 68. mÙkj (4)
symmetry is optically active. ladsr : ;kSfxd ftuesa lefefr ry ugha gksrk os
izdkf'kd lfØ; gksrs gSaA
Sol. :
gy :
69. Answer (3)

Hint : 69. mÙkj (3)
ladsr :
70. Answer (3)

70. mÙkj (3)
Hint : Electron withdrawing group present at
p-position to halobenzene facilitates nucleophilic ladsr : gSykscsUthu dh p-fLFkfr ij bysDVªkWu vkd"khZ
substitution reaction. lewg dh mifLFkfr ls ukfHkdLusgh izfrLFkkiu
71. Answer (3) vfHkfØ;k lqxe gks tkrh gSA
Hint : Due to partial double bond character of 71. mÙkj (3)
‘C – Cl’ bond in haloarenes, it shows slowest rate ladsr : gSyks,jhu esa ‘C – Cl’ caèk ds vkaf'kd f}caèk
towards nucleophilic substitution reaction.
y{k.k ds dkj.k ;g ukfHkdLusgh izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k
72. Answer (4) ds izfr lcls èkhek osx n'kkZrk gSA
Hint : Compound having only one type of 72. mÙkj (4)
hydrogen atoms will give only one product on
mono chlorination ladsr : dsoy ,d gh izdkj ds gkbMªkstu ijek.kqvksa okyk
73. Answer (2) ;kSfxd eksuksDyksjhuhdj.k ij dsoy ,d mRikn nsxkA
Hint : Reaction follows benzyne mechanism.
73. mÙkj (2)
Sol. :
ladsr : vfHkfØ;k csUtkbu fØ;kfofèk dk ikyu djrh gSA
gy :
16/35
74. Answer (4) 74. mÙkj (4)

Hint : Rearrangement of carbocation takes place ladsr : vfèkd LFkk;h dkcZèkuk;u cukus ds fy,
to generate more stable carbocation. dkcZèkuk;u dk iqufoZU;kl gksrk gS
Sol. : gy :
75. mÙkj (1)

75. Answer (1)
ladsr : ifj.kkeh f}èkzqo vk?kw.kZ lHkh i`Fkd f}èkzqo dk
Hint : Resultant dipole moment is the vector sum
of all individual dipole and dipole moment of Ph –
lfn'k ;ksx gksrk gS rFkk Ph – CI dk f}èkzqo vk?kw.kZ
CI is more than Ph – F Ph – F ls vfèkd gksrk gSA
Sol. : gy :
76. mÙkj (2)

76. Answer (2)
ladsr : NBS (N-czkes kslfDluSekbM) ,d ,fyfyd ;k
Hint : NBS (N-Bromosuccinamide) is a csfUtfyd izfrLFkkiu ds fy, iz;qDr gksus okyk
brominating reagent used for allylic and benzylic
substitution
czkes huhdkjd gSA
gy :
Sol. :
77. mÙkj (3)

77. Answer (3) ladsr : vfHkfØ;k SN1 fØ;kfofèk dk ikyu djrh gSA
Hint : The reaction follows SN1 mechanism. gy : SN1 fØ;kfofèk èkzqoh; izkfs Vd foyk;d tSls
Sol. : SN1 mechanism is accelerated in polar ,FksukWy esa Rofjr gksrh gSA
protic solvent such as ethanol. 78. mÙkj (4)
78. Answer (4) ladsr : Ph – O – Ph, esa vkWDlhtu dk ,dkadh ;qXe
Hint : Lone pair of oxygen is more delocalized in vfèkd foLFkkuhÑr gksrk gS] vr% bls izksVkWuhÑr
Ph – O – Ph, so difficult to protonate djuk dfBu gSA
79. Answer (3) 79. mÙkj (3)
Hint : –OH group attached with primary (or 1°) ladsr : izkFkfed (;k 1°) dkcZu ls tqM+s –OH lewg 1°
Carbon will be 1° alcohol ,YdksgkWy gksxa sA
17/35
80. Answer (1) 80. mÙkj (1)

Hint : In HBO (Hydroboration oxidation) reaction ladsr : HBO (gkbMªkscksjhdj.k vkWDlhdj.k) vfHkfØ;k
addition of water take place as per anti
Markovnikov’s rule.
esa ty dk ;ksx izfrekdksZuhdkWQ fu;e ds vuqlkj
Sol. :
gksrk gSA
gy :
81. Answer (3)

81. mÙkj (3)
Hint : Phenol and its derivatives are generally
ladsr : QhukWy rFkk blds O;qRiUu lkekU;r%
more acidic than aliphatic alcohol
,fyQsfVd ,YdksgkWy ls vfèkd vEyh; gksrs gSaA
Sol. : CH3CH2OH (pka = 15.9), Phenol (pka = 10), gy : CH3CH2OH (pka = 15.9), QhukWy (pka = 10), o
o – cresol (pka = 10.2) – fØlkWy (pka = 10.2)
m-nitrophenol (pka = 8.3) m-ukbVªksQhukWy (pka = 8.3)
82. Answer (3) 82. mÙkj (3)
Hint : In Tertiary alcohol turbidity is produced ladsr : ywdkl vfHkdeZd ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k ij
immediately on reaction with Lucas reagent. r`rh;d ,YdksgkWy rqjUr xanykiu nsrk gSA
Sol. : gy :
83. Answer (1) 83. mÙkj (1)

Hint : H2S2O7 (oleum) is a sulfonating reagent.
ladsr : H2S2O7 (vkWfy;e) ,d lYQksuhdkjd gSA
gy :
Sol. :
84. mÙkj (3)

84. Answer (3)
ladsr : ,YdksgkWy ds foÑrhdj.k esa blesa dqN CuSO4
Hint : In Denaturation of alcohol, it is made unfit (jax nsus ds fy,) rFkk fijhMhu (v#fpdj xaèk okyk
for drinking by mixing in it some CuSO4 (to give nzo) feykdj bls ihus ds fy, v;ksX; cuk;k tkrk
colour to it) and pyridine (a foul smelling liquid) gSA
85. Answer (3) 85. mÙkj (3)
Hint : Carbocation intermediate is formed in ladsr : ,YdksgkWy ds futZyhdj.k esa dkcZèkuk;u
dehydration of alcohol. eè;orhZ curk gSA
Sol. : gy :
18/35
86. Answer (3) 86. mÙkj (3)

Hint : Anisole forms para isomer as major product ladsr : bysDVªkWuLusgh izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k ij
on electrophilic substitution reaction. ,fulkWy eq[; mRikn ds :i esa isjk leko;o cukrk
gSA
Sol. : (major)
gy : (eq[;)
87. Answer (2)

87. mÙkj (2)
ladsr :
Hint :
Electrophile is CO2
88. Answer (4) bysDVªkWuLusgh CO2 gSA

Hint : Electron donating groups activate ring 88. mÙkj (4)
towards electrophilic substitution reaction. ladsr : bysDVªkWu nkrk lewg oy; dks bysDVªkWuLusgh
izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k ds fy, lfØ; djrk gSA
Sol. : +M effect of –OCH3 and –OH groups will
make the benzene ring electron rich which gy :–OCH3 rFkk –OH lewgksa ds +M izHkko csUthu
facilitates electrophilic substitution reaction. oy; dks bysDVªkWu èkuh cukrs gSa tks bysDVªkWuLusgh
izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k dks lqxe cukrk gSA
89. Answer (3)
89. mÙkj (3)
Hint : First step is protonation of ether oxygen
ladsr : izFke in bZFkjh; vkWDlhtu dk izkVs ksuhdj.k
which leads to carbocation formation.
gS ftl dkj.k dkcZèkuk;u curk gSA
Sol. :
gy :
90. Answer (2) 90. mÙkj (2)

Hint : Alkylhalide on reaction with Mg in ladsr : ,fYdy gSykbM bZFkj dh mifLFkfr esa Mg ds
presence of ether forms Grignard reagent. lkFk vfHkfØ;k djds fxzXukMZ vfHkdeZd cukrs gSaA
Sol. : gy :
19/35
[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (1) 91. mÙkj (1)
Hint : Recovery of healthy plants from the ladsr : foHkT;ksÙkd laoèkZu ds }kjk jksxxzLr ikniksa ls
diseased plants is possible by meristem culture. LoLFk ikni dks iqu% izkIr djuk laHko gSA
Sol. : Virus free clones of plants can be obtained gy : ikniksa ds fo"kk.kq eqDr Dyksuksa dks foHkT;ksÙkd
through meristem culture because meristem laoèkZu ds }kjk izkIr fd;k tk ldrk gS D;ksafd
(apical and axillary) is free of viruses due to high foHkT;ksÙkd ('kh"kZ ;k d{kh;) vkWfDlu dh vfèkd
concentration of auxin and rapid rate of cell lkanzrk o dksf'kdk foHkktu dh rhoz nj ds dkj.k
division. fo"kk.kqvksa ls eqDr gksrk gSA
92. Answer (3) 92. mÙkj (3)
Hint : Micro-organisms which can be explored for ladsr : dod] lk;ukscSDVhfj;k o thok.kq og lw{etho
obtaining SCP are fungi, cyanobacteria as well as gSa ftudk SCP izkIr djus ds fy, mi;ksx fd;k tk
bacteria. ldrk gSA
Sol. : SCP is not only obtained from unicellular gy : SCP dks dsoy ,ddksf'kdh; lw{e&thoksa ls ugha
micro-organisms but also from multicellular cfYd cgqdksf'kdh; thoksa ls Hkh izkIr fd;k tk ldrk
organisms. gSA
93. Answer (2) 93. mÙkj (2)
Hint : Somatic hybridisation is the fusion of ladsr : fHkUu fdLeksa] iztkfr;ksa rFkk fHkUu oa'kksa ls lacèa k
protoplast of two plants belonging to different j[kus okys nks ikniksa ds izksVksIykLV dk lay;u dkf;d
varieties, species and even genera. ladj.k dgykrk gSA
Sol. : During somatic hybridisation, the cells are gy : dkf;d ladj.k ds nkSjku izkVs ksIykLV jpuk ds
first treated with pectinase and cellulase for fy, dksf'kdkvksa dks igys iSfDVust o lsywyt s ls
protoplast preparation then the naked protoplasts mipkfjr rFkk mlds ckn fo|qrlay;u ;k jlkslay;u
are fused by electrofusion or chemofusion (lksfM;e ukbVªsV ;k PEG ds }kjk) }kjk uXu
(through sodium nitrate or PEG). It results in izkVs ksIykLVksa dks layf;r fd;k tkrk gSA blls dkf;d
somatic hybrid. IAA and kinetin are ladj dk fuekZ.k gksrk gSA IAA o dkbusfVu ikni
phytohormones. gkeksZu gSaA
94. Answer (1) 94. mÙkj (1)
Hint : Micro-organism are explored for obtaining ladsr : SCP dh izkfIr ds fy, lw{ethoksa dk mi;ksx
SCP and, SCP is alternate source of proteins for fd;k tkrk gS ,oa SCP, tarq o ekuo iks"k.k ds fy,
animals and human nutrition. izkVs hu dk oSdfYid lzkrs gSA
Sol. : Blue green algae (Cyanobacteria) Spirulina gy : uhy&gfjr 'kSoky (lk;ukscSDVhfj;k) Likb:fyuk
are grown in large quantities and these serve as dks vfèkd ek=k esa mxk;k tkrk gS rFkk ;g izkVs hu]
food rich in protein, minerals, fats, carbohydrate [kfut] olk] dkcksZgkbMªVs o foVkfeu ls izpqj [kk|
and vitamins. inkFkZ ds :i esa iz;qDr fd, tkrs gSaA
95. Answer (1) 95. mÙkj (1)
Hint : Cross-hybridisation among selected ladsr : p;fur tudksa ds chp ij&ladj.k] ikni
parents is one of the main steps required in plant iztuu dk;ZØe esa vko';d eq[; pj.kksa esa ls ,d
breeding programme. gSA
Sol. : Plant breeding programme is employed to
gy : Qly dh u;h fdLeksa dks fodflr djus ds
develop new varieties of crop which includes fy, ikni iztuu dk;ZØe dks iz;qDr fd;k tkrk gS
cross hybridisation among selected parents. In ftlesa p;fur tudksa ds chp ij&ladj.k 'kkfey gSA
this step, a cross is made between two genetically bl in esa okafNr Js"B y{k.kksa okyh larfr izkIr djus
diverse parents to obtain a progeny with desired ds fy, nks vkuqoaf'kd :i ls fofoèk tudksa ds chp
superior traits. ladj.k djok;k tkrk gSA
20/35
96. Answer (2) 96. mÙkj (2)

Hint : By application of tissue culture it is possible ladsr : Ård laoèkZu dk iz;ksx djds cgqr gh de
to achieve propagation of large number of plants le; esa gtkjksa ikniksa dk izoèkZu djuk laHko gSA
in very short duration. gy : ÅÙkd laoèkZu }kjk gtkjksa dh la[;k esa ikniksa
Sol. : The method of producing thousands of dks mRiUu djus dh fofèk lw{eizoèkZu dgykrh gSA
plants through tissue culture is called 97. mÙkj (4)
micropropagation. gy : xsgw¡ dh fdLe ,Vyl-66 ftlesa mPp izksVhu va'k
97. Answer (4) gksrk gS] mldk Ñ"; xsg¡w dh mUur'khy fdLe rS;kj
Sol. : Wheat variety Atlas-66 with high protein djus ds fy, nkrk dh rjg ls mi;ksx fd;k tkrk
content has been used as a donor for improving gSA
cultivated wheat. 98. mÙkj (2)
98. Answer (2) ladsr : mRifjorZu iztuu] mUur fdLeksa dks fodflr
Hint : Mutation breeding induces mutations in djus ds fy, ikniksa esa mRifjorZuksa dks izsfjr djrk
plants to develop improved varieties. gSA
Sol. : High-yielding Mexican wheat were originally gy : mPp mRikndrk okyk eSfDldu xsgw¡ ewy&:i
red-grained ls yky nkuksa dk FkkA
Mexican wheat Improved variety eSfDldu xsgw¡ mUur fdLe
1. lksuksjk-64 'kjcrh lksuksjk
1. Sonora-64 Sharbati Sonora
2. yekZ jkstks-64 iwlk yekZ
2. Lerma Rojo-64 Pusa Lerma
99. mÙkj (4)
99. Answer (4)
ladsr : ikjaifjd iztuu esa Qly dh fdLeksa dks dbZ
Hint : In conventional breeding, crop-varieties are izdkj ds dod] thok.kq o fo"kk.kqfod dkjdksa ds izfr
breed by hybridisation and selection for resistance jksx izfrjksèkdrk ds fy, ladj.k rFkk p;u }kjk
to several fungi, bacteria and viral agents.
mxk;k tkrk gSA
Sol. : Pusa Swarnim (Karan Rai) is a variety of gy : iwlk Lof.kZe (dju jkbZ) czsfldk dh ,d fdLe gS
Brassica and is resistant to white rust. rFkk ;g 'osr fdV~V ds izfr izfrjksèkh gksrh gSA
100. Answer (1) 100. mÙkj (1)
Sol. : Pusa Sawani bred by hybridisation and gy : iwlk Lokuh] izjksg o Qy Hksnd ds izfr izfrjksèkdrk
selection for shoot and fruit borer is a variety of fodflr djus ds fy, ladj.k o p;u }kjk iztfur
Okra (Bhindi). While, Pusa sem 2 and Pusa sem vksdjk (fHk.Mh) dh ,d fdLe gSA tcfd iwlk lse 2 o
3 bred by hybridisation and selection for Jassids, iwlk lse 3 tSflM] ,sfQM rFkk Qy Hksnd ds izfr
aphids and fruit borer are varieties of flat bean.
izfrjksèkdrk fodflr djus ds fy, ladj.k o p;u }kjk
101. Answer (4) iztfur ¶ySV chu dh fdLesa gSaA
Hint : Indian Agricultural Research Institute 101. mÙkj (4)
(IARI), New Delhi, has developed many vegetable ladsr : Hkkjrh; Ñf"k vuqlaèkku laLFkku (IARI) ubZ
crops that are rich in mineral and vitamins.
fnYyh us cgqr lh lfCt;ksa dh Qlyksa dks fodflr
Sol. : fd;k gS tks [kfut o foVkfeuksa ls izpqj gSaA
Vitamin-A enriched crops :- Carrot, Pumpkin, gy :
Spinach. foVkfeu-A ls izpqj Qlysa :- xktj] dn~nw] ikyd
Vitamin-C enriched crops :- Bitter gourd, foVkfeu-C ls izpqj Qlysa :- djsyk] cFkqvk] VekVj]
Bathua, Tomato, Mustard. ljlksa
Calcium and Iron enriched vegetable crop :- dSfYl;e o vk;ju ls izpqj lfCt;ksa dh Qlysa :-
Spinach, Bathua. ikyd] cFkqvk
Protein enriched vegetable crop :- Beans izksVhu ls izpqj lfCt;ksa dh Qlysa :- chal (czkWM, ycyc,
(Broad, Lablab, French), and Garden peas. ÝSap) o xkMZu eVjA
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102. Answer (1) 102. mÙkj (1)

Hint : Breeding for disease resistance is carried ladsr : jksx izfrjksèkdrk ds fy, iztuu] ikjaifjd
out by the conventional breeding technique. iztuu rduhdksa }kjk laiUu fd;k tkrk gSA
Sol. : The various sequential steps w.r.t. gy : ikjaifjd iztuu ds lanHkZ esa fofHkUu Øfed in
conventional breeding are :- gSa%&
i. Screening germplasm for resistance sources. i. izfrjksèkdrk lzkr s ksa ds fy, tuunzO; dks Nk¡Vuk
ii. Hybridisation of selected parents. ii. p;fur tudksa dk ladj.k
iii. Selection and evaluation of hybrids. iii. ladjksa dk p;u rFkk ewY;kadu
iv. u;h fdLeksa dk ijh{k.k rFkk ekspu
iv. Testing and release of new varieties.
103. mÙkj (2)
103. Answer (2)
gy : lSdsje vkWfQflusje (Js"B xUuk) esa 'kdZjk dk
Sol. : Saccharum officinarum (noble sugarcane) va'k cgqr vfèkd FkkA 'ks"k lHkh fodYi lgh gSaA
had higher sugar content. Rest of other options
104. mÙkj (1)
are correct.
ladsr : 1960 ds eè; xsg¡w rFkk èkku dh cgqr lh mPp
104. Answer (1)
mRiknu okyh fdLeksa dk fodkl fd;k x;k ftlls
Hint : Development of several high yielding izfr bdkbZ {ks= mRiknu c<+ x;kA
varieties of wheat and rice in mid 1960’s increased
gy : 1960 ls ysdj 2000 rd ds o"kks± ds nkSjku xsgw¡
the yield per unit area.
dk mRiknu 11 fefy;u Vu ls c<+dj 75 fefy;u Vu
Sol. : From 1960 to 2000 wheat production gks x;kA ;g xsg¡w dh vèkZ okeu fdLeksa ds fodflr
increased from 11 million tonnes to 75 million
tonnes. This was due to the development of semi
gksus ds dkj.k gqvk FkkA
105. mÙkj (2)
dwarf varieties of wheat.
gy : xsgw¡ esa ckSuis u ¼okeu½ ds fy, mÙkjnk;h thu
105. Answer (2)
uksfju-10 lcls igys tkiku esa feyk FkkA
Sol. : Gene norin-10, responsible for dwarfing in
106. mÙkj (3)
wheat, was first reported in Japan.
ladsr : v.kq tks thfor ra= esa fØ;kRed gksrs gSa ;k
106. Answer (3) fQj buds ?kVdksa ds lkFk ijLij fØ;k dj ldrs gSa]
Hint : Molecules that are functional in living tSo lfØ; v.kq dgykrs gSaA
system or can interact with their component, are gy : lkbDyksLiksfju-A dk mi;ksx vax izR;kjksi.k esa
bioactive molecules.
izfrj{kk neudkjh dkjd ds :i esa jksfx;ksa esa fd;k
Sol. : Cyclosporin-A is used as an tkrk gS] bldk mRiknu VªkbdksMekZ ikWyhLiksje dod
immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant
ls fd;k tkrk gSA
patients, is produced by the fungus, Trichoderma
polysporum. 107. mÙkj (4)
107. Answer (4) ladsr : dodh; dodrarq] ewy dh oYdqV dksf'kdkvksa
Hint : Fungal hyphae penetrate into cortex cells of esa Hkhrj ?kql tkrs gSa mnkgj.k vkWfdZM] dkWQh o
root e.g., orchids, coffee, and woody plants. dk"Bh; ikniA ;s var%dodewy dgykrs gSaA
These are called as endomycorrhizae. gy : VAM, var%dodewy ls lacfa èkr gSA 'ks"k lHkh
Sol. : VAM refers to endomycorrhizae. Rest of fodYi lqesfyr gSaA
other options are correctly matched. 108. mÙkj (4)
108. Answer (4)
ladsr : iuhj ;k pht ,d izkphu HkksT; inkFkZ gS ftls
Hint : Cheese is one of the oldest food items in rS;kj djus esa lw{ethoksa tSls thok.kq o dod dk
which microbes e.g., bacteria and fungi were mi;ksx fd;k x;k FkkA
used.
gy : cM+& s cM+s fNæksa okys fLol pht dks
Sol. : Large holed Swiss cheese is ripened with
the help of bacterium called Propionibacterium
izkfs ivksfucSDVhfj;e 'kkjeSukbZ dgykus okys thok.kq
sharmanii whereas, Roquefort and camembert dh lgk;rk ls ifjiDo fd;k tkrk gS tcfd
cheese are ripened by fungus Penicillium jkWD;wQksVZ rFkk dSesEcVZ pht dks Øe'k% jkWD;wQkWVhZ
roquefortii and Penicillium camembertii rFkk isuhlhfy;e dSesEcVhZ dod }kjk ifjiDo fd;k
respectively. tkrk gSA
22/35
109. Answer (1) 109. mÙkj (1)

Hint : Dosa and idli are the fermented ladrs : Mkslk o bMyh pkoy o dkys pus dh fdf.or
preparations of rice and black gram, prepared by lkexzh gksrh gSa ftls thok.kq dk mi;ksx djds cuk;k
using bacteria. tkrk gSA
Sol. : Microbes used in such preparations are – gy : thok.kq dh Y;wdksukWLVkWd o LVsªIVksdksdl
Leuconostoc and Streptococcus species of iztkfr;k¡ bl izdkj dh lkexzh esa mi;ksx fd, tkus
bacteria. okys lw{etho gSaA
110. Answer (2) 110. mÙkj (2)
Hint : Bread is prepared from dough, which is ladsr : czsM dks <hys&<kys ¼xqaFks gq;s½ vkVs ls cuk;k
fermented using Baker’s yeast. tkrk gS ftls cSdj ;hLV dk iz;ksx djds fdf.or
Sol. : Puffed up appearance of dough is due to fd;k tkrk gSA
production of CO2 during fermentation. CO2 gas gy : bl vkVs dh Qwyh mHkjh 'kDy fd.ou ds nkSjku
along with ethyl alcohol is formed during baking, CO2 ds xSl ds mRiknu ds dkj.k gksrh gSA cSfdax ds
making bread porous and soft.
nkSjku ,fFky ,YdksgkWy ds lkFk CO2 xSl cuus ls cszM
111. Answer (3) fNnze; o eqyk;e curh gSA
Hint : Certain microbes have ability to convert 111. mÙkj (3)
carbohydrate into organic acid. ladsr : dqN lw{ethoksa esa dkcksZgkbMªVs dks dkcZfud
Sol. : Lactic acid, butyric acid and acetic acid are vEy esa cnyus dh ;ksX;rk gksrh gSA
produced by different bacteria. Whereas, citric gy : ySfDVd vEy] C;qfVfjd vEy o ,lhfVd vEy
acid is commercially produced by Aspergillus
niger (fungus)
fHkUu&fHkUu thok.kqvksa }kjk fufeZr gksrs gSa tcfd
flfVªd vEy O;olkf;d :i ls ,LijftZyl ukbxj
112. Answer (2) (dod) }kjk fufeZr fd;k tkrk gSA
Sol. : Toddy is traditional drink of some parts of 112. mÙkj (2)
South India and is made by fermenting sap from
palm known as Caryota urens.
gy : VkWMh] nf{k.k Hkkjr ds dqN Hkkxksa esa ,d ikjaifjd
is; gS rFkk bls dsj;ksVk ;wjsUl dgykus okys rkM+o`{k
Wine, beer and rum are alcoholic beverages. ds rus ds lzko dks fdf.or dj rS;kj fd;k tkrk gSA
113. Answer (2) okbu] ch;j o je ,YdksgkWyh is; gSaA
Hint : Microbes are used for commercial and 113. mÙkj (2)
industrial production of certain chemicals
(bioactive molecules).
ladsr : dqN fo'ks"k izdkj ds jlk;uksa ¼tSolfØ; v.kq½
ds O;kolkf;d rFkk vkS|ksfxd mRiknu ds fy,
Sol. : lw{ethoksa dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA
Bioactive molecule Source (Microbes) gy :
1. Lipase Candida lipolytica tSolfØ; v.kq lzksr (lw{etho)
2. Streptokinase Streptococcus 1. ykbist dsfUMMk fyiksykbfVdk
3. Amylase Aspergillus 2. LVªsIVksdkbust LVsªIVksdksdl
4. Statins Monascus purpureus
3. ,ek;yst ,LiftZyl
4. LVsfVu eksukLdl ijI;wfjvl
114. Answer (2)
114. mÙkj (2)
Hint : Primary treatment is the initial step of
sewage treatment. ladsr : izkFkfed mipkj] okfgr ey ds mipkj dk
izkjafHkd in gksrk gSA
Sol. : Primary treatment is a physical process
which involves removal of large and small gy : izkFkfed mipkj ,d HkkSfrd izfØ;k gS ftlesa
particles from sewage through filtration and okfgr ey ls cM+s o NksVs d.kksa dks fuL;anu rFkk
sedimentation. volknu }kjk vyx dj fn;k tkrk gSA
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115. Answer (1) 115. mÙkj (1)

Hint : Biogas is a mixture of gases produced by ladsr : tSoxSl] lw{ethoh fØ;k ls mRikfnr xSlksa dk
microbial activity that can be used as fuel. ,d feJ.k gksrk gS ftldk b±èku ds :i esa mi;ksx
Sol. : Major component of biogas is methane (50-
fd;k tk ldrk gSA
gy : tSoxSl dk eq[; ?kVd ehFksu (50-70%) gS tks
70%) which is highly inflammable, rest are CO2
vR;fèkd Toyu'khy gksrh gS 'ks"k CO2 (30-40%) ,oa
(30-40%) and mixture of other gases H2, H2S etc. vU; xSlksa H2, H2S bR;kfn dk feJ.k gSA
116. Answer (3) 116. mÙkj (3)
Hint : Antibiotics are chemical substances, which ladsr : ,afVckW;ksfVd (izfrtSfod) ,d izdkj ds
are produced by some microbes and kill or retard jklk;fud inkFkZ gSa ftudk fuekZ.k dqN lw{ethoksa
}kjk gksrk gS ;g vU; (jksx mRiUu djus okys)
the growth of other (disease-causing) microbes.
lw{ethfo;ksa dh o`f) dks ean vFkok mUgsa ekj ldrs
Sol. : The first antibiotic penicillin was discovered gSaA
by Alexander Fleming. gy : igyh ,afVckW;ksfVd iSuhlhfyu dh [kkst
117. Answer (4) ,ySDtSaMj ¶ySfeax us dh FkhA
Sol. : The technology of biogas production was 117. mÙkj (4)
developed in India mainly due to the efforts of gy : Hkkjr esa tSoxSl mRiknu dh izkS|ksfxdh dk
fodkl eq[;r% Hkkjrh; Ñf"k vuqlaèkku laLFkku (IARI)
Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) and
rFkk [kknh ,oa xzkeh.k m|ksx vk;ksx (KVIC) ds iz;klksa
Khadi and Village Industries commission (KVIC) ds ifj.kkeLo:i gqvkA
118. Answer (2) 118. mÙkj (2)
Sol. : Methanogens grow anaerobically on gy : esFksukstu lsywyksth; inkFkZ ij vok;oh; :i
cellulosic material, produce large amount of ls o`f) djrs gSa rFkk CO2, H2S o H2 ds lkFk cgqr
cM+h ek=k esa ehFksu mRiUu djrs gSaA thok.kq dh
methane along with CO2, H2S and H2.
Y;wdksukWLVkWd rFkk LVsªIVksdksdl iztkfr;ksa dk iz;ksx
Leuconostoc and Streptococcus species of pkoy o dkys pus dh fdf.or lkexzh esa fd;k tkrk
bacteria are used in fermented preparation of rice gSA
and black gram. 119. mÙkj (2)
119. Answer (2) ladsr : tSo moZjd ,d izdkj ds tho gSa tks e`nk dh
iks"k.k xq.koÙkk dks c<+krs gSaA
Hint : Biofertilisers are organisms that enrich the
gy : ,ukchuk] ,tksVkscSDVj o ,tksLikbfjye dk tSo
nutrient quality of soil.
moZjdksa ds :i esa iz;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA
Sol. : Anabaena, Azotobacter and Azospirillum cSlhyl F;qfjufta,fll ,d lw{ethoh tSofu;a=.k
are employed as biofertiliser. dkjd gS ftldk mi;ksx cVj¶ykbZ dsVjfiyj ds
Bacillus thuringiensis is a microbial biocontrol fu;a=.k esa fd;k tk ldrk gSA
agent that can be introduced to control butterfly 120. mÙkj (4)
caterpillars.
ladsr : ikni jksxksa rFkk ihM+dksa ds fu;a=.k ds fy,
tSo oSKkfud fofèk;ksa dk iz;ksx djuk gh tSo fu;a=.k
120. Answer (4) gSA
Hint : Biocontrol refers to the use of biological
methods for controlling plant diseases and pests. gy : dod] VªkbdksMekZ ,d tSo fu;a=.k dkjd gS
Sol. : Fungus, Trichoderma is a biological control ftldk mi;ksx ikni jksxksa ds mipkj esa fd;k tkrk
agent developed for use in treatment of plant gSA VªkbdksMekZ iztkfr ,d eqDrthoh dod gS tks
diseases Trichoderma species are free living fungi ewy&ikfjra= esa lkekU; :i ls ik;k tkrk gS rFkk
that are very common in the root ecosystems and cgqr ls ikni jksxtudksa ds izfr izHkko'kkyh
are effective against several plant pathogens. tSofu;a=.k dkjd gSA
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121. Answer (1) 121. mÙkj (1)

Sol. : Natality refers to birth rate during a given gy : tUenj lef"V esa ,d fn, gq, le; esa tUe
period in the population. ysus okys thoksa dh la[;k ¼tUe nj½ gSA e`R;qnj lef"V
Mortality refers to death rate during a given period
in the population.
esa ,d fn, gq, le; esa ejus okys thoksa dh la[;k
Immigration is the number of individuals of the ¼e`R;q nj½ gSA
same species that have come into the habitat from vkizoklu leku iztkfr ds thoksa dh og la[;k gS tks
elsewhere. vkokl esa dgha vkSj ls vk, gSaA
122. Answer (1) 122. mÙkj (1)
Hint : Amensalism is –, 0 relationship. ladsr : ,esulsfyTe –, 0 lacaèk gSA
Sol. : Amensalism is an interaction between two
organisms of different species in which one gy : ,esulsfyTe fHkUu iztkfr;ksa ds nks thoksa ds chp
species inhibit the growth of other species by gksus okyh og ijLij&fØ;k gS ftlesa ,d iztkfr
secreting certain chemicals. fo'ks"k jlk;uksa dk L=ko dj vU; iztkfr dh o`f)
Competition, Mutualism and Parasitism are also dks jksdrh gSA
different types of population interactions and izfrLièkkZ] lgksidkfjrk o ijthfork Hkh fHkUu izdkj
these can be represented as (–, –), (+, +) and (+,
–) respectively
dh lef"V ijLij&fØ;k,a gSa ftUgsa Øe'k% (–, –),
123. Answer (4) (+, +) rFkk (+, –) }kjk n'kkZ;k tk ldrk gSA
Hint : An age pyramid is a graphic representation 123. mÙkj (4)
of proportion of various age group of population. ladsr : vk;q fijkfeM lef"V ds fHkUu vk;q okys thoksa
Sol. : An age pyramid can be urn-shaped when a ds izfr'kr ¼vuqikr½ dk ,d xzkQh; fu:i.k gSA
population has small number of pre-reproductive gy : vk;q fijkfeM dy'kkdkj gks ldrk gS tc lef"V
individuals followed by a large number of esa tUeiwoZ thoksa dh de la[;k ds ckn tuu{ke thoksa
reproductive individual. dh vfèkd la[;k vkrh gSA
124. Answer (1) 124. mÙkj (1)
Hint : Birth rate can be calculated by following ladsr : fuEufyf[kr lw= ds }kjk tUe nj dh x.kuk
formula: dh tk ldrh gS%
N N
Birth rate =
N t
tUe nj =
N t
Sol. : In the given question, gy : fn, x, iz'u esa]
N = 50, N = 10, t = 1 year N = 50, N = 10, t = 1 o"kZ
10 10 10 10
 Birth rate = = = 0.2 offspring per  tUe nj = = = 0.2 izfro"kZ izfr eNyh
50  1 50 50  1 50
fish per year. ls mRiUu gksus okys cPpsA
125. Answer (2) 125. mÙkj (2)
Hint : Altitude sickness is the physiological ladsr : rqaxrk fcekjh ,d tho dk dkf;Zdh; xq.k gS
attribute of an organism that enables the organism tks mls vius vkokl esa thfor cus jgus ;ksX; cukrk
to survive in its habitat. gSA
Sol. : During altitude sickness, body increases gy : rqaxrk fcekjh ds nkSjku dk; RBCs dk mRiknu
RBCs production. c<+k nsrh gSA
126. Answer (3)
126. mÙkj (3)
Hint : Based upon thermal tolerance, organisms
ladsr : rkih; lgu'khyrk ds vkèkkj ij thoksa dks
are classified into stenothermal and eurythermal.
ruqrkih o i`Fkqrkih esa oxhZÑr fd;k x;k gSA
Sol. : Stenothermal organisms cannot tolerate
large temperature variation e.g., polar bears,
gy : ruqrkih tho rkieku esa gksus okys cM+s ifjorZu
lizards, Abies.
dks lgu ugha dj ldrs mnkgj.k èkzqoh; Hkkyw]
Eurythermal organisms can tolerate large
fNidyh] ,chtA
changes in temperature e.g., most of the i`Fkqrkih tho rkieku esa gksus okys cM+s ifjorZuksa dks lgu
mammals and birds. dj ldrs gSa mnkgj.k vfèkdka'k Lruèkkjh o i{khA
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127. Answer (1) 127. mÙkj (1)

Hint : Conformers cannot maintain a constant ladsr : la:ih fLFkj vkarfjd i;kZoj.k cuk, ugha j[k
internal environment. Their body temperature ldrsA muds 'kjhj dk rkieku ifjos'kh rkieku ds
changes with the ambient temperature vuqlkj cnyrk jgrk gSA
Sol. : Graphical representation of organismic gy : la#ih;ksa ds lanHkZ esa tSfod izfrfØ;k dk xzkQh;
response w.r.t. conformers is fu:i.k gS
128. Answer (1) 128. mÙkj (1)

Hint : The shape of the pyramids reflect the ladsr : fijkfeMksa dk vkdkj lef"V dh o`f) fLFkfr
growth status of the population. dks n'kkZrk gSA
Sol. : The age pyramid appears like a triangle in gy : vk;q fijkfeM ,d f=Hkqt dh rjg fn[kkbZ nsrk
which the population has a very high proportion of gS ftlesa lef"V esa tUeiwoZ thoksa dk vuqikr cgqr
pre-reproductive individuals, the population size vfèkd gksrk gS ,oa le; ds lkFk lef"V vkdkj
will expand with time. Such population shows a c<+sxkA bl izdkj dh lef"V èkukRed o`f) n'kkZrh
positive growth. gSaA
129. Answer (1)

Hint : The salt concentration (measured as 129. mÙkj (1)
salinity in parts per thousand) for water bodies. ladsr : tyk'k;ksa ds fy, yo.k lkanzrk ¼izfr gtkj
Sol. : Hkkx esa yo.krk ds :i esa ekih tkrh gS½ gksrh gS
Water Salinity (Parts per thousand) gy :
bodies
tyk'k; yo.krk (izfr gtkj Hkkx)
Inland water <5 var%LFkyh; <5
Sea 30-35 ty
Hypersaline > 100 leqnz 30-35
lagoons vfr yo.kh; > 100
yxwu
130. Answer (1) 130. mÙkj (1)
Hint : A-Conformers, B-Regulators, C-Partial ladsr : A-la:ih, B-fu;ked, C-vkaf'kd fu;kedA
regulators.
gy : lHkh i{kh o Lruèkkjh rFkk dqN ,d fuEu
Sol. : Regulators are organisms like all birds and d'ks#dh o vd'ks#dh iztkfr;k¡ tSls tho] fu;ked
mammals and a very few lower vertebrate and
gksrs gSa rFkk ;g dkf;Zdh; o O;kogkfjd rjhdksa }kjk
invertebrate species, and able to maintain
leLFkkiu dks cuk, j[kus esa le{k gksrs gSaA
homeostasis by physiological as well as
131. mÙkj (1)
behavioural means.
131. Answer (1) gy : mÙkjh vesfjdk ds e#LFky esa ik;k tkus okyk
Sol. : Kangaroo rat, in North American desert is daxk: pwgk] ikuh dh viuh lHkh vko';drkvksa dh
capable of meeting all of its water requirements iwfrZ viuh vkarfjd olk ds vkWDlhdj.k ¼ftlesa ty
through its internal fat oxidation where water is ,d mi&mRikn ds :i esa eqDr gksrk gS½ }kjk iwjh
released as by-product. djus esa l{ke gksrk gSA
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132. Answer (2) 132. mÙkj (2)

Hint : Logistic growth model is considered as the ladsr : laHkkj o`f) ekWMy dks vfèkd okLrfod o`f)
most realistic one. ekWMy ekuk tkrk gSA
Sol. : Logistic growth model is represented by
gy : lkaHkkj o`f) ekWMy dks flXekWbM oØ }kjk
sigmoid curve and is mathematically described by iznf'kZr fd;k tkrk gS rFkk ;g xf.krh; :i ls bldh
dN  K− N 
= rN 
O;k[;k dN = rN  K − N  lehdj.k }kjk dh tkrh gSA
the equation  dt  K 
dt  K 
133. mÙkj (1)
133. Answer (1)
ladsr : lef"V ikjLifjd&fØ;k nks fHkUu iztkfr;ksa ds
Hint : Population interaction is an interaction chp gksus okyh og ijLij&fØ;k gS ftlesa ikjLifjd
between two different species where interaction fØ;k ‘+’ → ykHknk;d] ‘–‘ → gkfudkjd o ‘0’ →
can be ‘+’ → beneficial, ‘–‘ → detrimental and ‘0’
mnklhu gks ldrh gSA
→ neutral.
gy : izfrLièkkZ dks (–, –)A }kjk n'kkZ;k tk ldrk gS]
Sol. : Competition can be represented by (–, –). ;g ikjLifjd fØ;k dk og :i gS ftlesa nksuksa
Hence, it is a type of interaction in which both of iztkfr;ksa ij ukdkjkRed izHkko iM+rk gSA
the species are negatively affected.
134. mÙkj (3)
134. Answer (3) ladsr : ykbdsu lgksidkfjrk n'kkZrs gSaA
Hint : Lichens show mutualism. gy : ykbdsu] dod rFkk izdk'kla'ys"kh gjs 'kSoky ;k
Sol. : Lichens is a mutualistic relationship lk;ukscSDVhfj;k ds chp dk ,d lgksidkjh lacèa k gSA
between a fungus and photosynthesizing green 'kSoky ('kSokyka'k) izdk'kla'ys"k.k ds }kjk [kk| inkFkZ
algae or cyanobacteria. Algae (Phycobiont) fufeZr djrs gSa rFkk dod (dodka'k) e`nk ls iks"kd
produces food through photosynthesis and fungi rRo vo'kksf"kr djrs gSaA
(mycobiont) absorbs nutrient from soil. 135. mÙkj (1)
135. Answer (1) ladsr : dqN tho 'khrfuf"Ø;rk }kjk ncko ls cprs
Hint : Some organisms avoid the stress by over- gSaA
wintering. gy : 'khr_rq esa Hkkyw 'khrfuf"Ø;k dh izfØ;k }kjk
Sol. : Bear escapes in time during winter by a
le; esa iyk;u djrs gSa tcfd ?kks?a ksa rFkk eNfy;k¡
process called hibernation (over-wintering) vU; fØ;kfofèk xzh"efuf"Ø;rk esa tkdj le; esa
whereas, snails, and fishes escape in time by iyk;u djrs gSaA
another mechanism called aestivation (over 136. mÙkj (4)
summer). ladsr : BCG dk Vhdk bl jksx ds fy, mi;ksx fd;k
136. Answer (4) tkrk gSA
Hint : BCG vaccine is used for this disease. gy : risfnd ,d thokf.od jksx gS tks
Sol. : Tuberculosis is a bacterial disease caused ekbdkscSDVhfj;e V~;wcjD;wyksfll ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Measles, chicken [kljk] fpdu ikWDl vkSj jscht fo"kk.koh; jksx gSaA
pox and rabies are viral diseases. 137. mÙkj (1)
137. Answer (1) ladsr : jDr ifjlapj.k dh [kkstdrkZA
Hint : Discoverer of blood circulation. gy : fofy;e gkosZ us jDr ifjlapj.k dh [kkst dh
Sol. : William Harvey discovered blood circulation rFkk FkekZehVj dk mi;ksx djrs gq, dkys fiÙk okys
and demonstrated normal body temperature in O;fDr;ksa ds 'kjhj dk rkieku izlkekU; n'kkZus ls
person with black bile using thermometer
disproved the ‘Good humor’ hypothesis of health.
LokLF; ds ^vPNs rjy* dh ifjdYiuk dks xyr fl)
Karl Landsteiner discovered blood groups and dj fn;kA dkyZ ySaMLVhuj us jDr lewgksa dh [kkst
Louis Pasteur disproved theory of abiogenesis. dh vkSj yqbZl ik'pj ls vthokr~ tuu ds fl)kUr
Mary Mallon is related with typhoid. dk [kaMu fd;kA eSjh esykWu VkbQkWbM ls lacafèkr gSA
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138. Answer (2) 138. mÙkj (2)

Hint : AIDS is an example to it. ladsr : ,M~l bldk ,d mnkgj.k gSA
Sol. : Diseases which are not easily transmitted gy : jksx tks ,d O;fDr ls nwljs esa vklkuh ls
from one person to another are called non- lapkfjr ugha gksrs gSa vlaØked jksx dgykrs gSaA os
infectious disease. Diseases caused due to jkx tks gsfYeaFkhd laØe.kksa ds dkj.k gksrs gSa] xzlu
helminthic infections are called infestational jksx dgykrs gSa rFkk foVkfeUl ,oa [kfutksa dh deh
diseases and due to deficiency of vitamins and ds dkj.k gksus okys jksxksa dks U;wurk jksx dgrs gSaA
minerals are called deficiency diseases. 139. mÙkj (3)
139. Answer (3) ladsr : eu gekjs LokLF; vkSj izfrj{kk ra= ij izHkko
Hint : Mind influences on our health and immune Mkyrk gSA
system. gy : eu raf=dh; vkSj var%L=koh ra= ds ekè;e ls
Sol. : Mind influences through neural and gekjs izfrj{kk ra= dks izHkkfor djrk gS bl izdkj
endocrine system on our immune system and
thus mental status influences our health.
ekufld voLFkk gekjs LokLF; ij vlj Mkyrh gSA
140. mÙkj (3)
140. Answer (3)
ladsr : jDr esa CO2 ds tek gksus ds dkj.k U;qeksfu;k
Hint : Cyanosis is present in pneumonia due to
accumulation of CO2 in blood. esa lkbuksfll mifLFkr gksrk gSA
Sol. : In severe cases of pneumonia, the lips and gy : U;qeksfu;k dh xaHkhj fLFkfr;ksa esa gksaB vkSj gkFk
finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour. dh maxfy;ksa ds uk[kwuksa dk jax èkwlj ls ysdj uhyk
141. Answer (4) rd gks tkrk gSA
Hint : Aedes mosquito is a vector. 141. mÙkj (4)
Sol. : Both chikungunya and dengue are viral ladsr : ,M+ht ePNj ,d laokgd gSA
diseases transmitted by female Aedes agypti gy : fpduxqfu;k vkSj Msaxw nksuksa eknk ,Mht bftIVh
mosquito. Elephantiasis is caused by a }kjk lapkfjr gksus okyk fo"kk.koh; jksx gSA 'yhin
roundworm and malaria is caused by a protozoan.
,d xksyÑfe ds dkj.k gksrk gS rFkk eysfj;k
Yellow fever is also a viral disease transmitted by
Aedes mosquito.
izkVs kstksvk ds dkj.k gksrk gSA ihr Toj Hkh ,Mht
142. Answer (2)
ePNj }kjk lapkfjr gksus okys fo"kk.koh; jksx gSA
142. mÙkj (2)
Hint : Occurrence of disease is called
pathogenesis ladsr : jksx dk gksuk jksxtuu dgykrk gSA
Sol. : Allergy causing agents are termed as gy : ,ythZ ds dkjdksa dks ,ytZu dgk tkrk gSA
allergens. Any foreign substance which can dksbZ Hkh ckgjh inkFkZ tks 'kjhj dh izfrj{kk vuqfØ;k
activate immune response of the body is called dks lfØ; dj ldrk gS] izfrtu dgykrk gSA
antigen. Interferons are antiviral proteins which baVjQsjkWu ,aVhok;jy izksVhu gS tks fo"kk.kqvksa ds xq.ku
prevent multiplication of viruses.
dks jksdrs gSaA
143. Answer (1)
143. mÙkj (1)
Hint : Disease characterised by loss of memory
ladsr : os jksx tks Le`fr gzkl ls vfHky{kf.kr gksrs gSaA
Sol. : Parkinson’s disease is caused due to
gy : ikfd±lu jksx vkèkkj xqfPNdk esa MksikfeuftZd
degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in basal
U;wjksal ds fo?kVu ds dkj.k gksrk gS rFkk is'kh; daiu
ganglia and is characterised by muscular tremors.
¼Lianu½ ls vfHky{kf.kr gksrk gSA gufVaXVu dksfj;k
Huntington chorea is due to degeneration of
GABA secreting neurons in corpus striatum and
jsf[kr fiaM esa GABA L=kfor djus okys U;wjksl a rFkk
cholinergic neurons of other parts. Myasthenia
vU; Hkkxksa ds dksyhuftZd U;wjksal ds fo?kVu ds dkj.k
gravis is autoimmune disease caused due to
gksrk gSA ekbLFksfu;k xzsfol ,d Loizfrj{kk jksx gS tks
damaging of acetylcholine receptors at raf=dk&is'kh lafèk ij ,flfVydksyhu xzkfg;ksa ds
neuromuscular junction. {kfrxzLr gksus ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
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144. Answer (1) 144. mÙkj (1)

Hint : Disease caused by Salmonella
ladsr : lkYeksusyk ds dkj.k gksus okyk jksx
gy : VkbQkWbM – foMky ijh{k.k
Sol. : Typhoid – Widal test eysfj;k – jDr Leh;j ijh{k.k
Malaria – Blood smear test fM¶Fkhfj;k – f'kd ijh{k.k
Diphtheria – Schick test
Msx
a w – VwuhZdsV ijh{k.k
145. mÙkj (2)
Dengue – Tourniquet test ladsr : ;g ,d Loizfrj{kk jksx gSA
145. Answer (2) gy : Loizfrj{kk ,d vilkekU; vuqfØ;k gS ftlesa
Hint : It is an autoimmune disease 'kjhj dk izfrj{kk ra= viuh gh dksf'kdkvksa vkSj
v.kqvksa dks fjtsDV ¼vLohdkj½ djuk vkjaHk dj nsrk
Sol. : Autoimmunity is an abnormal response in
gSA dHkh&dHkh 'kjhj viuh dksf'kdkvksa ls jksxtud
which the immune system of the body starts
rejecting its own body cells and molecules.
vkSj ckgjh v.kqvksa dks foHksfnr djus dh viuh {kerk
Sometimes body lose its ability to differentiate [kks nsrk gS rFkk viuh gh dksf'kdkvksa ij geyk dj
between pathogen and foreign molecules from nsrk gSA blds ifj.kkeLo:i 'kjhj dks {kfr igq¡prh
self cells and attack self cells. This results in gSA Loizfrj{kk vuqfØ;k Loizfrtuksa ds fo#) gksrh
damage to the body. Autoimmune response is gSA Loizfrj{kk dh n'kk esa izfrj{kh mRikfnr gksrs gSa
against autoantigens. Antibodies are produced rFkk 'kjhj esa Loizfrtuksa ls vr% fØ;k djrs gSaA
and interact with autoantigens in the body in case 146. mÙkj (3)
of autoimmunity.
ladsr : ijthoh dh laØked voLFkk ePNj esa lafpr
146. Answer (3) gksrh gSaA
Hint : Infective stage of parasite are stored in gy : thok.kqt Liks#ys'ku ds nkSjku eknk ,suksQsyht
mosquito. dh vk¡r fHkfÙk esa mRikfnr gksrs gSa rFkk lap;u ds
Sol. : Sporozoites are produced in gut wall of fy, gheksfyaQ ds ekè;e ls ykj xazfFk;ksa esa igq¡prs gSaA
female Anopheles during sporulation and reach tc ePNj dkVrk gS rks ;s bldh ykj ds lkFk&lkFk
into salivary glands through haemolymph for their ekuo jDr esa igq¡p tkrs gSaA
storage. When mosquito bites they reach in
147. mÙkj (2)
human blood along with its saliva.
ladsr : gheksfyaQ esa R.B.Cs ugha gksrh gSaA
147. Answer (2)
gy : ekuo RBCs QVdj eysfj;k VkWfDlu ghekstksbu
Hint : Haemolymph does not contain R.B.Cs. eqDr djrh gS tks eysfj;k ds vkØe.k ds fy,
Sol. : Human RBCs rupture to release malarial mÙkjnk;h gksrk gSA ih- QSYlhisje ds dkj.k nqnZe
toxin hemozoin responsible for paroxysm of Vf'kZ;u eysfj;k gksrk gS ftls izefLr"dh; eysfj;k
malaria. P. falciparum cause malignant tertian Hkh dgrs gSaA thok.kqt RBCs ds Hkhrj ;qXed
malaria also called cerebral malaria. Sporozoites dksf'kdk,¡ mRikfnr djus gsrq ekuo 'kjhj esa vySafxd
reproduce asexually in human body to produce :i ls tuu djrs gSaA uj vkSj eknk ;qXed
gametocytes within RBCs. Male and female
gametocytes are considered as sexual stages
dksf'kdkvksa dks ySafxd voLFkk,¡ ekuk tkrk gS tks na'k
which enter in body of mosquito through bite and }kjk ePNj ds 'kjhj esa izo's k djrh gSa rFkk ;qXed
undergo gametogenesis. tuu ls xqtjrh gSaA
148. mÙkj (1)
148. Answer (1)
ladsr : Roph; jksx ds dkj.k LFkk;h nkx ds fpg~u
Hint : Cutaneous disease causing permanent gksrs gSaA
scar marks.
gy : LekyikWDl oSfj;ksyk fo"kk.kq ds dkj.k gksus okyk
Sol. : Smallpox is a viral disease caused by fo"kk.koh; jksx gS tks Ropk ij LFkk;h nkx fpg~u NksM
Variola virus leaving a permanent scar marks on nsrk gSA ;g jksx vc iw.kZr;k mUewfyr gks pqdk gSA
skin. This disease is completely eradicated now.
HIV, ;Ñr'kksFk–B vkSj ySafxd eLlsa mipkj ;ksX; ugha
HIV, hepatitis–B and genital herpes are not
curable if diagnosed at early stages and treated gS ;fn izkjfEHkd voLFkkvksa ij igpkudj mfpr :i
properly ls bykt Hkh djk;k tk,A
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149. Answer (3) 149. mÙkj (3)

Hint: Common cold is a viral disease.
ladsr: lkekU; tqdke ,d fo"kk.koh; jksx gSA
gy: LVªsIVksdksdl U;qeksuh vkSj gheksfQyl b¡¶yq,Uth
Sol.: Streptococcus pneumoniae and ekuo esa U;qeksfu;k jksx ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrs gSa tks
Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for
Qq¶Qqlksa dh dwfidk dks laØfer djrs gSA
disease pneumonia in human which infect alveoli
of lungs. Microsporum, Trichophyton and
ekbØksLiksje] VªkbdksQkbVkWu vkSj ,fiMeksZQkbVkWu
Epidermophyton are responsible for ringworms. nkn ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gSA Qkbysfj,fll oqpsjsfj;k
Filariasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti and cSaØks¶VkbZ vkSj oq- eSykbZ ds dkj.k gksrk gSA vehch
W. malayi. Amoebic dysentery is caused by vfrlkj ,aVkehck fgLVksfyfVdk ds dkj.k gksrk gSA
Entamoeba histolytica.
150. mÙkj (2)
150. Answer (2) ladsr : baVjQsjkWu vlaØfer dksf'kdkvksa dh lqj{kk
Hint : Interferons protect non-infected cells.
djrs gSaA
gy : ikpu] 'olu vkSj ew=tuu iFk ds vkarfjd
Sol. : Mucus coating present at inner lining of vkLrj ij mifLFkr 'ys"ek vkysi 'kkjhfjd jksèk ds
digestive, respiratory and urinogenital tracts are
oxZ esa lfEefyr gSaA NK dksf'kdk,¡] PMNL vkSj
included in category of physical barriers. NK cells
act as cellular barriers like PMNL and monocytes. eksukslkbV~l tSls dksf'kdh; jksèkksa ds :i esa dk;Z
Immunity present from birth is called innate djrh gSaA tUe ls mifLFkr izfrj{kk dks lgt izfrj{kk
immunity. dgrs gSaA
151. Answer (2) 151. mÙkj (2)
ladsr : dksyksLVªe esa IgA izfrj{kh gksrh gSaA
Hint : Colostrum contains IgA antibodies.
gy : izfrjf{k;ksa dk viuh gh dksf'kdkvksa ij vkØe.k
Sol. : Antibodies attack self cells it is djuk Loizfrj{kk gSA izfrj{kk tks ,d fo'ks"k izfrtu
autoimmunity. Immunity which develops in the ds fo#) 'kjhj esa fufeZr gksrh gS] lfØ; izfrj{kk
body against a particular antigen is called active dgykrh gSA izfrj{kk tks tUe ds le; mifLFkr gksrh
immunity. Immunity, present at the time of birth is
called innate immunity.
gSa] lgt izfrj{kk dgykrh gSA
152. mÙkj (1)
152. Answer (1)
ladsr : os dksf'kdk,¡ tks izfrtu@jksxtu dks
Hint : Cells which are formed to recognize igpkuus ds fy, fufeZr dh tkrh gSA
antigen/pathogen
gy : B-yfldk.kqvksa vkSj T-yfldk.kqvksa dks la'ysf"kr
Sol. : Memory cells for sensitized B-lymphocytes djus ds fy, izkFkfed izfrj{kk vuqfØ;k ds nkSjku
and T-lymphocytes are formed during primary
Le`fr dksf'kdk,¡ fufeZr gksrh gSaA IgM izfrjf{k;k¡
immune response. IgM antibodies are produced
during primary immune response whereas Ig G izkFkfed izfrj{kk vuqfØ;k ds nkSjku mRikfnr gksrh
type of antibodies are produced during secondary gSa tcfd Ig G izdkj dh izfrjf{k;k¡ f}rh;d izfrj{kk
immune response. vuqfØ;k ds nkSjku mRikfnr gksrh gSaA
153. Answer (4) 153. mÙkj (4)
Hint : FC fragment of antibody is situated towards

ladsr : izfrj{kh dk FC [kaM C-VfeZuy dh vksj fLFkr
C-terminal. gksrk gSA
Sol. : Antigen binding site is formed by both light
gy : y?kq o nh?kZ nksuksa Jà[kykvksa }kjk izfrtu caèku
and heavy chains and present towards LFky fufeZr gksrk gS tks N-VfeZuy dh vksj mifLFkr
N-terminal. gksrk gSA
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154. Answer (3) 154. mÙkj (3)

Hint : Smallest antibody ladsr : lcls NksVh izfrj{kh
Sol. : IgG are smallest antibodies present in our
gy : IgG gekjs 'kjhj esa mifLFkr lcls NksVh
body in maximum amount and are responsible for
izfrjf{k;k¡ gSa ftudh la[;k lcls vfèkd gS rFkk 'kjhj
secondary immune response of the body. Ig M is dh f}rh;d izfrj{kk vuqfØ;k ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrh
largest antibody. Being smallest in size, Ig G gSaA Ig M lcls cM+k izfrj{kh gSA vkdkj esa NksVh gksus
antibodies easily cross placenta to reach foetus ds dkj.k Ig G izfrjf{k;k¡ lxHkZrk ds nkSjku vijk dks
during pregnancy. vklkuh ls ikj djds Hkzw.k esa igq¡p tkrh gSaA
155. Answer (2) 155. mÙkj (2)
ladsr : ty dk vo'kks"k.k Na+ ds vo'kks"k.k ls lqxe
Hint : Absorption of water is facilitated with
gksrk gSA
absorption of Na+.
gy : gStk jksx ckjackj izokfgdk ds dkj.k ty vkSj
Sol. : Cholera disease is characterised by loss of [kfutksa dh gkfu }kjk vfHky{kf.kr gksrk gSA Na+
water and minerals due to frequent diarrhoea. Na+ vo'kks"k.k ijklj.k nkc dks c<+krk gS rFkk jDr
absorption increases osmotic pressure and vk;ru ,oa jDr nkc dks cuk, j[kus gsrq ty ds
creates osmotic gradient for absorption of water
lkFk&lkFk Xywdkst o vehuksa vEyksa ds vo'kks"k.k ds
as well as glucose and amino acids to maintain
blood volume and blood pressure.
fy, lkanzrk izo.krk mRiUu djrk gSA
156. mÙkj (1)
156. Answer (1)
ladsr : Loizfrtu RBCs gSaA
Hint : Autoantigens are RBCs. gy : ifuZf'k;l ,uhfe;k ,d Loizfrj{kk jksx gSA
Sol. : Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune ySafxd eLlsa ,d STI gSA Lokbu ¶yw vkSj jscht
disease. Genital warts is an STI. Swine flu and fo"kk.koh; jksx gSA
rabies are viral diseases. 157. mÙkj (4)
157. Answer (4) ladsr : fgLVkfeu ,d izcy okfgdk foLQkjd gSA
Hint : Histamine is a potent vasodilator. gy : i;kZoj.k esa ekStwn dqN izfrtuksa ds izfr izfrj{kk
Sol. : The exaggerated response of immune
ra= dh vfrjaftr vuqfØ;k ,ythZ dgykrh gSA
system to certain antigens present in atmosphere ,ythZ ds nkSjku bvksfluksfQYl vkSj IgE izfrjf{k;k¡
is called allergy. Eosinophils and IgE antibodies c<+ tkrh gSaA ,ythZ dks jksdus ds fy, vkS"kfèk ds :i
are increased during allergy. Histamine is not esa fgLVkfeu mi;ksx ugha dh tkrh gSA
used as a drug to prevent allergy. 158. mÙkj (3)
158. Answer (3) ladsr : izkFkfed ylhdkHk vaxA
Hint : The primary lymphoid organs. gy : os vax tgk¡ vifjiDo ylhdk.kq izfrtu
Sol. : The organs where immature lymphocytes
laons u'khy ylhdk.kqvksa esa foHksfnr gksrh gSa] izkFkfed
differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes ylhdkHk vax dgykrs gaS mnkgj.k&Fkkbel vkSj
are known as primary lymphoid organs eg. vfLFk eTtkA
Thymus and bone marrow. After maturation the ifjiDou ds ckn yfldk.kq f}rh;d ylhdkHk vax
lymphocytes migrate to secondary lymphoid tSls Iyhgk] ylhdk xzafFk;ksa] Vkaflyks]a ifj'ksf"kdk vkSj
organs like spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, NksVh vk¡r ds is;j iSpksa esa pyh tkrh gSaA
appendix and peyer’s patches of small intestine
159. mÙkj (2)
159. Answer (2)
ladsr: var%L=koh vkSj izfrj{kk ra= ds chp dh
Hint: Connecting link between endocrine and la;kstd dM+hA
immune system gy: Fkkbel ,d f}ikfyd var%L=koh xzafFk ds
Sol.: Thymus is a bilobed endocrine gland as well lkFk&lkFk 'kjhj dk yfldkHk Ård Hkh gS tks o{k
as lymphoid organ of the body situated dorsal to vfLFk@mjksfLFk ds i`"B Hkkx esa fLFkr gksrk gSA ylhdk
breast bone/sternum. Lymph nodes trap any xzafFk;k¡ fdlh Hkh ckgjh gkfudkjd inkFkZ dks Qk¡lrh
foreign harmful substances e.g Antigens.
gS mnkgj.k izfrtuA
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160. Answer (2) 160. mÙkj (2)

Hint : Immunosuppressive drugs are used to ladsr : izfrj{kk fujksèkd vkS"kfèk;k¡ fujksi vLohÑfr dks
prevent graft rejection. jksdus ds fy, iz;qDr dh tkrh gSaA
Sol. : Cyclosporin is an immunosuppressive drug gy : lkbDyksLiksfju ,d izfrj{kkfujksèkd vkS"kfèk gS tks
which is used to prevent graft rejection. Grafted fujksi vLohÑfr dks jksdus ds fy, iz;qDr dh tkrh
tissues contain antigens which activates immune gSA fujksfir Årdksa esa izfrtu gksrs gSa tks 'kjhj ds
system of the body, specially T-lymphocytes
which are responsible for damaging of grafted
izfrj{kk ra= fo'ks"kdj T-ylhdk.kqvksa dks lfØ; djrs
tissue gSa tks fujksfir Ård dks {kfr igq¡pkus ds fy,
mÙkjnk;h gksrs gSaA
161. Answer (3)
161. mÙkj (3)
Hint : These cells are also known as platelets
ladsr : bu dksf'kdkvksa dks IysVysV~l Hkh dgrs gSaA
Sol. : Platelets synthesize certain factor for blood gy : IysVysV~l jDr Ldanu ds fy, dqN dkjd
clotting but they are not involved in immune
system of the body.
la'ysf"kr djrh gS fdarq ;s 'kjhj ds izfrj{kk ra= esa
lfEefyr ugha gksrs gSaA
162. Answer (1)
162. mÙkj (1)
Hint : It is prepared by recombinant DNA ladsr : ;g iqu;ksZxt DNA rduhd }kjk rS;kj fd;k
technology
tkrk gSA
Sol. : Hepatitis B vaccine is a second generation gy : ;Ñr'kksFk B dk Vhdk ,d f}rh; ih<+h dk Vhdk
vaccine prepared by recombinant DNA
technology using yeast. It induces active gS tks ;hLV dk mi;ksx djrs gq, iqu;ksZxt DNA
immunity and is given to persons above age of 14 rduhd ls rS;kj fd;k tkrk gSA ;g lfØ; izfrj{kk
years. dks izzsfjr djrk gS rFkk 14 o"kZ dh vk;q ls vfèkd ds
163. Answer (2) O;fDr;ksa dks fn;k tkrk gSA
163. mÙkj (2)
Hint : Tissue present in defence organs of the
body. ladsr : 'kjhj ds lqj{kk vaxksa esa mifLFkr ÅrdA
Sol. : MALT (mucosa associated lymphoid tissue) gy : MALT ('ys"e lac) a ylhdkHk Ård) ikpu]
is associated with mucosa of digestive, 'olu vkSj mRlthZ iFkksa dh E;wdkslk ls lacafèkr gksrk
respiratory and excretory tracts and constitute gS rFkk dqy ylhdkHk Ård dk yxHkx 50% gksrk
about 50% of total lymphoid tissue. Blood is fluid gSA jDr nzo la;ksth Ård gSA MALT raf=dh; Ård
connective tissue. MALT is not associated with ls lacfa èkr ugha gksrk gSA la;ksth Ård ylhdkHk
neural tissue. Connective tissue is specialized to
form lymphoid tissue.
Årdksa ds fuekZ.k esa fof'k"V gksrs gSaA
164. mÙkj (2)
164. Answer (2)
ladsr : eysfj;k izksVkstksvk ds dkj.k gksus okyk jksx
Hint : Malaria is a disease caused by protozoans
gSA
Sol. : Cholera, tetanus, leprosy and diphtheria are gy : gStk] fVVsul] dq"B jksx vkSj fM¶Fkhfj;k
bacterial disease whereas smallpox and measles
are viral diseases.
thokf.od jksx gS tcfd LekyikWDl vkSj [kljk
fo"kk.koh; jksx gSA
165. Answer (3)
165. mÙkj (3)
Hint : Telomerase activity is high in cancer ladsr : Vhyksejst fØ;k dSalj jksfx;ksa esa mPp gksrh gSA
patients
gy : lkekU; dksf'kdk,¡ lLi'kZ laneu ds xq.k ds
Sol. : Normal cells regulate their multiplication
ekè;e ls viuk xq.ku fu;af=r djrh gS tks dSalj
through property of contact inhibition which is lost
in cancer patients. Spread of cancer cells from jksfx;ksa esa u"V gks tkrk gSA dSalj dksf'kdkvksa dk
one place to another place of the body is called 'kjhj ds ,d LFkku ls nwljs LFkku ij QSyuk]
metastasis. Alternation of generation in members esVkLVsfll dgykrk gSA flysUVªsVk la?k ds lnL;ksa esa
of phylum coelenterata is metagenesis. ih<+h ,dkarj.k dks esVkftusfll dgrs gSaA
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166. Answer (1)

166. mÙkj (1)
Hint : Shell is related with molluscs.
ladsr : dop eksyLd ls lacafèkr gksrk gSA
Sol. : Shellfish is a mollusc and used in fishery
industry for catching and selling. Common carp is
gy : 'kSyfQ'k ,d eksyLd gS vkSj idM+us vkSj cspus
ds fy, eRL; m|ksx esa mi;ksx dh tkrh gSA dkeu
freshwater and Hilsa and pomfrets are marine
dkWiZ vyo.kh; ty dh eNyh gS rFkk fgYlk o
edible fishes.
ikeÝSV leqnzh [kkus ;ksX; eNfy;k¡ gSaA
167. Answer (4)
167. mÙkj (4)
Hint : Breeding in between two different species
Sol. : Breeding between two different related ladsr : nks fofHkUu iztkfr;ksa ds eè; iztuuA
species is called hybridization eg. mule, formed gy : nks fHkUu lacafèkr iztkfr;ksa ds eè; iztuu dks
by mating male ass with female horse. Mating ladj.k dgrs gSa tSls [kPpj] uj xèkk vkSj ?kksM+h ds
between closely related individual within same laxe ls fufeZr gksrk gSA ,d gh uLy ds vfèkd
breed is called inbreeding and within same breed
fudVLFk O;f"V;ksa ds chp laxe dks var%iztuu dgrs
gSa rFkk ,d gh uLy ds Hkhrj ftuds mHk; iwoZt u
but having no common ancestors is called out
gks] ds chp laxe dks cfg%ladj.k dgrs gSaA ,d uLy
crossing. Mating between superior male of one
ds Js"B uj dk nwljh uLy ds Js"B eknk ds lkFk
breed with superior female of other breed is called
laxe dks ladj.k dgrs gSaA
cross breeding
168. mÙkj (2)
168. Answer (2)
Hint : Apiary is where beehives kept.
ladsr : ,fivjh ¼eèkqef{k'kkyk½ og LFkku gS tgk¡ NÙkk
isfVdk j[kh tkrh gSaA
Sol. : Rearing of domesticated birds for meat and
their eggs is called poultry. Rearing of silk moth gy : ikyrw dqDdqVkfn dk ekWl vkSj muds vaMksa ds
for silk is sericulture and production of fishes is
fy, ikyu&iks"k.k dqDdqV ikyu dgykrk gSA js'ke
ds fy, js'ke 'kyHkksa dk ikyu iks"k.k lsjhdYpj rFkk
called pisciculture.
eNfy;ksa dk mRiknu eRL; ikyu dgykrk gSA
169. Answer (4)
Hint : This disease is also known as New Castle’s
169. mÙkj (4)
disease. ladsr : bl jksx dks U;w dSly jksx Hkh dgrs gSaA
Sol. : New castle’s disease of poultry is a viral gy : dqDdqV ikyu dk U;w dSly jksx ,d fo"kk.koh;
disease. Pasteurellosis, salmonellosis and jksx gSA ikLpqjy s ksfll] lkYeusyrk vkSj
spirochetosis are bacterial diseases in poultry. LikbjksdhVksfll dqDdqV ikyu ds thokf.od jksx gSaA
170. Answer (1) 170. mÙkj (1)
Hint : Under fur of Kashmiri goats. ladsr : d'ehjh cdfj;ksa ds fupys QjA
Sol. : Pashmina wool is obtained from under fur
gy : i'ehuk Åu] d'ehjh cdjh ds fupys Qj ls
of Kashmiri goat. Shahtoosh wool is obtained
izkIr gksrh gSA 'kkgrw'k Åu frCcrh ,aVhyksi ls izkIr
from Tibetan antelope and Angoora wool is gksrh gS rFkk vaxwjk Åu [kjxks'k ls izkIr gksrh gSA
obtained from rabbit.
171. mÙkj (4)
171. Answer (4)
Hint : HIV has two RNA molecules each having
ladsr : HIV esa nks RNA v.kq gksrs gSa o izR;sd esa ,d
,atkbe fjolZ Vªkla fØIVst gksrk gSA
one enzyme reverse transcriptase.
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Sol. : gy :
172. mÙkj (3)

172. Answer (3) ladsr : X-fdj.ksa vk;udkjh fofdj.k gSaA
Hint : X-rays are ionizing radiation. gy : vk;udkjh fofdj.k tSls x-fdj.ksa vkSj xkek fdj.ksa
Sol. : Ionizing radiations such as x-rays and rFkk vuk;udkjh fofdj.k tSls UV izdk'k vcqZnh;
gamma rays and non-ionizing radiations such as
UV light are responsible for oncogenic
:ikarj.k ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrs gSaA izdk'k ds n`';
transformation. Visible spectrum of light has no LisDVªe esa dksbZ Hkh dSaljtuh izHkko ugha gksrk gSA
carcinogenic effect. 173. mÙkj (1)
173. Answer (1) ladsr : FNAC ,d bUosflo rduhd gSA
Hint : FNAC is an invasive technique gy : MRI dSalj dh tk¡p ds fy, lcls lqjf{kr
Sol. : MRI is safest technique for detection of rduhd gS D;ksafd blesa rst pqacdh; {ks= vkSj ukWu
cancer as it uses strong magnetic field and non-
bUosflo dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gSA X-fdj.ksa vcqZnh;
invasive. X-rays are responsible for oncogenic
transformation and may be harmful. :ikarj.k ds fy, mÙkjnk;h gksrh gS rFkk gkfudkjd
Histopathological studies and FNAC are invasive gks ldrh gSA Ård foÑfr vè;;u vkSj FNAC
techniques. bUosflo rduhd gSaA
174. Answer (3) 174. mÙkj (3)
Hint : Cannabis sativa is not a fungus. ladsr : dSusfol lSVkbok ,d dod ugha gSA
Sol. : Amanita muscaria is a poisonous fungus
gy : vesfuVk eqLdsfj;k ,d fo"kkDr dod gS ftlesa
having hallucinogens. Morchella is edible sac
fungi. Datura, Atropa are hallucinogenic foHkzked inkFkZ gksrs gSaA ekWjdsyk ,d [kk| lSd dod
angiosperms. gSA èkrwjk] ,Vªkis k Hkzkafrtud ,aftvksLieZ gSA
175. Answer (1) 175. mÙkj (1)
Hint : It is also known as heroin. ladsr : bls fgjksbu dgk tkrk gSA
Sol. : Morphine and its derivatives such as gy : ekQhZu vkSj blds O;qRiUu tSls dksMhu vkSj fgjksbu
codeine and heroin has receptors in our CNS and
dh xzkfg;k¡ gekjs CNS vkSj GIT esa gksrh gSaA
GIT. Cannabinoids has receptors mainly in the
brain. Cocaine interferes with the transport of dSukfcukWbM~l dh xzkfg;k¡ eq[; :i ls efLr"d esa gksrh
dopamine. gSaA dksdsu Mksikehu ds ifjogu dks ckfèkr djrk gSA
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176. Answer (1) 176. mÙkj (1)

Hint : Catecholamines are pressure agents ladsr : dSVsdksykehu~l nkc dkjd gksrs gSaA
Sol. : Adrenal medulla synthesizes adrenaline gy : ,Mªhuy eè;ka'k ân;nj vkSj jDr nkc nksuksa dks
and non-adrenaline to increase both heart rate c<+kus ds fy, ,Mªhuyhu vkSj ukj&,Mªhuyhu dks
and blood pressure. Nicotine activates adrenal la'ysf"kr djrk gSA fudksfVu vfèko`Dd eè;ka'k dks
medulla. Pituitary gland and parathyroid glands
lfØ; djrk gSA ih;w"k xzafFk vkSj iSjkFkkbjkWbM xzafFk;k¡
do not show direct effect on blood pressure.
jDr nkc ij izR;{k izHkko ugha n'kkZrh gSaA
177. Answer (2)
177. mÙkj (2)
Hint : Period which starts after puberty.
ladsr : og vofèk tks ;kSoukjaHk ds ckn 'kq: gksrh gSA
Sol. : Adolescence period is bridge linking
gy : fd'kksjkoLFkk vofèk ckY;koLFkk vkSj izkS<+rk dks
between childhood and adulthood and comes
tksM+us okyk iqy gS rFkk 12-18 o"kks± ds chp vkrh gSA
between 12-18 years of age.
178. mÙkj (2)
178. Answer (2)
ladsr : EkkWQhZu 'kked vkSj nnZ fuokjd gSA
Hint : Morphine is sedative and painkiller.
gy : fgjksbu ,d volknd gS rFkk 'kjhj ds izdk;ks±
Sol. : Heroin is a depressant and slow down body dks èkhek djrh gSA èkrwjk] ,Vªkis k vkSj dSukfcukWbM~l
function. Datura, Atropa and cannabinoids have esa Hkzkfa rtud xq.k gksrs gSaA
hallucinogenic property.
179. mÙkj (2)
179. Answer (2) ladsr : bl vkS"kfèk dh xzkfg;k¡ eq[; :i ls efLr"d
Hint : Receptors of this drug are mainly present in esa mifLFkr gksrh gSaA
brain. gy : ;g lajpuk dSukfcukWbM v.kq dks n'kkZrh gSA
Sol. : This structure represents cannabinoid dSukfcukWbM~l ds fy, xzkfg;k¡ eq[; :i ls efLr"d
molecule. Receptor for cannabinoids are mainly esa mifLFkr gksrh gSaA
present in brain. 180. mÙkj (1)
180. Answer (1) ladsr : bl xq.k }kjk eknk Lruèkkjh vfHky{kf.kr gksrh
Hint : Female Mammals are characterised by this gSaA
feature. gy : o{k ¼Lru½ dk c<+uk] iq#"kksa }kjk mip; LVsjkW;M
Sol. : Breast enlargement is an ill effect of use of ds lsou dk vuq"kaxh izHkko gS efgykvksa }kjk lsou
anabolic steroids by males and not by females. djus dk ughaA
❑ ❑ ❑
35/35
Edition: 2020-21

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06-12-2020 A

Entrance Exam - 2021

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES (ijh{kkfFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k)

(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter, Atoms, Nuclei, Semiconductors.

Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids, Amines, Biomolecules, Polymers,

Ecosystem, Biodiversity and Conservation, Environmental Issues, Biotechnology:

ikfjfLFkfrd ra=] tSofofo/krk o laj{k.k] i;kZoj.kh; eqn~ns] tSo&izkS|ksfxdh% fl)kar ,oa

MM : 720 TEST - 4 Time : 3 Hrs.

6. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of α-particle to 6. ,d α-

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

(1) 120 nm (2) 30 nm

(1) Y  A  B (2) Y  AB (1) Y  A  B (2) Y  AB

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

i. A + B = C + Energy ii. C  A + B + Energy

(1) 11.7 V, 2.26 A (2) 11.3 V, 2.26 A

(1) dsoy 4  (2) dsoy 13 

(1) 1,0 (2) 1,1

(1) AND xsV (2) NAND xsV

(1) 4 mA (2) 5 mA (1) 4 mA (2) 5 mA

(1) 5 V (2) 4.3 V

Products B and C are mRikn B rFkk C gSa

(1) Aldehyde (2) Ketone (1) ,fYMgkbM (2) dhVksu

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

52. Nylon-6,6 is a/an 52. ukbykWu-6,6 gS ,d

dhVks&bukWy pyko;ork fdlds }kjk n'kkZ;h tkrh gS\

Major product P is eq[; mRikn P gS

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

76. dkSulk ;kSfxd vEyh; tyvi?kVu ij izkFkfed ,ehu

78. fuEufyf[kr esa ls xyr dFku gS

(3) Nitration of aniline gives p-nitroaniline as major

80. The compound which is most easily decarboxylated

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

87. bVkMZ vfHkfØ;k esa izkjfEHkd inkFkZ rFkk iz;qDr vfHkdeZd

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) PhCH2CHO

(3) Lakes (4) Estuaries (3) >hy (4) Tokj uneq[k

(3) One (4) Two (3) ,d (4) nks

(4) b, and c only (4) dsoy b rFkk c

(1) About 50% (2) About 10%

(3) Less than 5% (4) About 6% (3) 5% ls de (4) yxHkx 6%

(1) Species diversity (1) tkfr fofo/krk

fn, x, ikbZ&pkVZ ds [kaMksa ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk

(1) (2) (1) (2)

113. lgh (T) ;k xyr (F) ds :i esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa dh

(4) Euro I norms 2000 (3) Hkkjrh; ou vf/kfu;e] 1927

136. A native plasmid is 136. ,d usfVo IykfTeM gksrk gS

137. Select a palindromic sequence. 137. iSfyUMªksfed vuqØe dk p;u dhft;sA

(1) 5 GAATTC 3 (2) 5 GGATTACC 3 (1) 5 GAATTC 3 (2) 5 GGATTACC 3

3 CTTAAG 5 5 CCTAATGG 3 3 CTTAAG 5 5 CCTAATGG 3

(3) Name of the bacterial strain (3) thok.kq izHksn ds uke ls

(4) Order of isolation of bacterial strain (4) thok.kq izHksn ds i`FkDdj.k ds Øe ls

(1) Possibly, completely digested sample is in

142. Bacteriophages have very high copy numbers of

(2) Remove single phosphate groups from 5 end of

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2021

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

7. Answer (3) 7. mÙkj (3)

11. Answer (4) 11. mÙkj (4)