Test-4 (Code-A)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2021

TEST - 4 (Code-A)
Test Date : 06/12/2020

ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (1) 73. (3) 109. (3) 145. (4)
2. (1) 38. (1) 74. (2) 110. (4) 146. (3)
3. (1) 39. (2) 75. (2) 111. (3) 147. (1)
4. (3) 40. (4) 76. (3) 112. (1) 148. (2)
5. (2) 41. (3) 77. (3) 113. (4) 149. (3)
6. (3) 42. (2) 78. (4) 114. (3) 150. (4)
7. (3) 43. (4) 79. (1) 115. (2) 151. (4)
8. (3) 44. (1) 80. (1) 116. (1) 152. (3)
9. (4) 45. (3) 81. (2) 117. (3) 153. (1)
10. (2) 46. (2) 82. (4) 118. (3) 154. (3)
11. (2) 47. (4) 83. (3) 119. (1) 155. (2)
12. (1) 48. (1) 84. (2) 120. (4) 156. (4)
13. (4) 49. (4) 85. (3) 121. (2) 157. (3)
14. (4) 50. (2) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (2)
15. (4) 51. (2) 87. (3) 123. (4) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (1) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (3)
17. (2) 53. (1) 89. (1) 125. (1) 161. (2)
18. (3) 54. (2) 90. (1) 126. (1) 162. (3)
19. Delete 55. (4) 91. (2) 127. (2) 163. (3)
20. (3) 56. (3) 92. (1) 128. (2) 164. (2)
21. (4) 57. (4) 93. (2) 129. (4) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (2) 94. (3) 130. (3) 166. (3)
23. (2) 59. (2) 95. (4) 131. (3) 167. (2)
24. (4) 60. (4) 96. (4) 132. (1) 168. (3)
25. (1) 61. (4) 97. (2) 133. (4) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (1) 98. (1) 134. (2) 170. (3)
27. (1) 63. (1) 99. (1) 135. (2) 171. (4)
28. (2) 64. (3) 100. (1) 136. (1) 172. (2)
29. (3) 65. (4) 101. (3) 137. (1) 173. (4)
30. (4) 66. (3) 102. (4) 138. (3) 174. (1)
31. (1) 67. (3) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (3)
32. (1) 68. (4) 104. (1) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (3) 69. (2) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (2)
34. (2) 70. (1) 106. (1) 142. (2) 178. (3)
35. (1) 71. (2) 107. (2) 143. (3) 179. (4)
36. (2) 72. (2) 108. (2) 144. (4) 180. (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (4) 6. Answer (3)
Momentum is a vector quantity, Its value depends Hint : Radius of path in magnetic field,
on magnitude as well as direction. mv P
=r =
2. Answer (1) qB qB
h Sol. : rp = rα
Hint : λ =
2km
Pp Pα
Sol. : k1 = k, m1 = m =
qB 2qB
h
λ1 = =λ Pα = 2Pp
2km
h
m λ α pα Pp 1
=k2 2k , m2
=
2 = = =
λp h pα 2
h h Pp
λ2 = = =λ
m 2km
2 × 2K × 7. Answer (3)
2
Hint and Sol. : Photoelectric current does not
3. Answer (1) depend upon frequency of incident light. Beyond
Hint : de-Broglie wavelength threshold wavelength, photoelectric current
h h becomes zero.
=λ = 8. Answer (3)
2Km 2qVm
Hint : Photoelectric current ∝ Intensity of light
Sol. : Mass of proton = m
Sol. : In quantum physics
Charge on proton = q
n n
Mass of α-particle = 4 m Intensity,=
I =
At 2πrlt
Charge of α-particle = 2q
1 1
h h I∝ ⇒i ∝
= r r
2qVm 2 × 2q × 4mV ′ 9. Answer (4)
V h
V′ = Hint : λ =
8 3kBTm
4. Answer (3)
h
Hint and Sol. : Tightly bound electron will emit Sol. : λ H2 =
form 0 kinetic energy and loosely bound with 3kB × 300 × 2
maximum energy 2.6 eV. Because radiations are
monochromatic, so energy of radiations are
h
λHe =
E = 2.6 + 4.2 = 6.8 eV 3kB × 400 × 4
5. Answer (2) λ H2 8
hc =
Hint : Energy of photon E = λ He 3
λ
10. Answer (2)
Sol. : Power given by photons
Hint and Sol. :
hc n Energy of incident radiation = 4.2 + 2.0 = 6.2 eV
× = 1.5 × 10 –18
λ t 12400
Wavelength of radiation, λ =
n 1.5 × 10 –18 × 6.6 × 10 –7 Photons 6.2
= –34 8
5
t 6.6 × 10 × 3 × 10 sec = 2000 Å (ultraviolet)

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 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

11. Answer (2) 1 1 1

= +
Hint : For shortest wavelength for any series 40 x 60
n=∞ X = 120 nm
1  1 1 R 17. Answer (2)
=
Sol. : R=  2 – 2
λB  ( 2 ) ∞  4
 v n2
Hint : Centripetal acceleration ac =
For Brackett series rn

1  1 1 R C z
= R= 2 –  Sol. : Speed of electron in nth orbit, v n =
137 n
λ′  ( 4 ) ∞  16

n2
λ′ radius of nth orbit rn = 0.53
= 4 ⇒ λ′= 4λ z
λB
v n2 z3
12. Answer (1) ac = ⇒ ac ∝ 4
rn n
13.6 z 2
Hint and Sol. : As En = − , so on aHe 8
n2 =
aH 1
increasing value of n difference of energy between
consecutive energy level decreases. 18. Answer (3)
13 Answer (4) Hint : For excitation (λ ≤ λ0), where λ0 is threshold
Hint : Energy of nth level in hydrogen atom wavelength.
13.6 12400
En = – 2 eV Sol. : Eg = eV
n λ(Å)
Sol. : Energy given to hydrogen atom = 12.75 eV
Energy of electron in excited state = – 13.6 + 12.75 12400
λ0 = = 4960 Å
= – 0.85 eV 2.5
13.6 So λ = 4000 Å may be detected
= – 0.85 = − 2
n 19. Delete
n = 16
2
20. Answer (3)
n=4
∆Vo
Number of spectral lines in emission Hint : A = and φ0 =φi + 180°
∆Vi
n(n – 1) 4 × 3
= N = = 6 Sol. : ∆V0 = 150 × 2 = 300 V
2 2
14. Answer (4) ∆V0 = 2 × 150 = 300 V
Hint and Sol. : Lyman series transition takes place Φ0 = 10° + 180° = 190°
to energy level n = 1, so there will be maximum V = 300sin(15t + 190°)ׄ
difference of energy
21. Answer (4)
15. Answer (4)
Hint : It is combination of two OR gate and one
Hint : Moment of linear momentum is
AND gate.
nh
mvr = Sol. : Output of upper OR gate = W + X
2π
Output of lower OR gate = W + Y
Sol. : For second orbit n = 2
Net output F = (W + X) (W + Y)
h
mvr = = W + WY + XW + XY
π
(Since WW = W)
16. Answer (1)
Hint : Apply energy conservation F = W(1 + Y) + XW + XY
E31 = E32 + E31 Since (1 + Y) = 1
hc hc hc F = W ⋅ 1 + XW + XY
Sol. : = +
λ 31 λ 32 λ 21 = W (1 + X) + XY = W + XY
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

22. Answer (2) 1.6 × 10 –19 × 3 × 105

= = 5.3 × 1016
Hint : 1 Bq = 1 decay/sec 9.1 × 10 –31
dN 0.6931 v2 = 25 × 1010 – 10.6 × 1010
Sol. : =λN = × 1018 = 4.0 × 1012 Bq
dt 2 × 86400 v = 3.8 × 105 m/s
23. Answer (2) 29. Answer (3)
Hint : and Sol. : On emission of α particle mass Hint : Germanium diode conduct at 0.3 V, both Ge
number decrease by 4 and atomic number by 2, and Si diodes are in parallel, so potential drop
and on emission of β atomic number increase by across both the diodes will remain 0.3 V
1. So 3α and 4β particle will emit. Sol. : Potential drop across load = 12 – 0.3 = 11.7 V
24. Answer (4) V 11.7
Current, i == = 2.34 A
Hint and Sol. : In β-decay, β -particle of all energy R 5
from 0 to a maximum value emit from sample of 30. Answer (4)
same element. Hint and Sol. : In full wave rectifier
25. Answer (1) ∴ Ripple frequency = 2 × frequency of A.C.
Hint and Sol. : Reaction (i) is of fusion and (iv) is 31. Answer (1)
of fission. So energy will release in (i) and (iv).
Hint and Sol. : In common emitter amplifier phase
26. Answer (4) difference between input and output signal is π
Hint : Apply law of conservation of momentum. 32. Answer (1)
3
m1 V1d  R1  1 Hint : It is a balanced Wheatstone bridge.
Sol. : = =  = 
m1 V2d  R2  8 R1R2 6 × 12
Sol : Reff = = = 4Ω
As i.e. where v1 and v2 are volumes and d is the R1 + R2 6 + 12
density of nucleus. 33. Answer (3)
0 = m1v1 – m2v2 Hint and Sol. : The dominant mechanism in
v1 m2 8 forward bias is due to diffusion of majority carrier
= = and in reverse bias it is due to drift of minority
v 2 m1 1
carriers.
27. Answer (1) 34. Answer (2)
Hint : In pair production energy of γ-ray photon
Hint : In a semiconductor, ni2 = ne nh
convert into mass.
Sol. : ne nh = ne′ nh′
Sol. : hν → –1β° + +1β°
Rest Mass of photon = 0 1.5 × 1016 × 1.5 × 1016 = ne′ × 4.5 × 1022
Mass of electron-positron pair = 2 × 9.1 × 10–31 1.5 × 1.5 × 1032
ne′ =
∆E = ∆mC2 4.5 × 1022
= 18.2 × 10–31 kg × 9 × 1016 Joule ne′ = 5 × 109 per m3
= 16.38 × 10–14 J 35. Answer (1)
= 1.02 MeV 1

28. Answer (2) Hint : R = R0 A 3

Hint : Electric field in depletion layer is form n-side 1

to p-side, so when an electron enter from n to P R  A 3

Sol. : Be =  Be 
side it will decelerate RGe  AGe 
Sol. : Electric field in depletion layer 1

 R   9 3
V 0.3 N  2R  =  A 
E= = –6
= 3 × 105    Ge 
d 1× 10 C
Retardation of electron AGe = 8 × 9 = 72

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 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

36. Answer (2) 41. Answer (3)

Hint : Using momentum and energy conservation Hint : It is combination of NOR gate, NAND gate
 A – 4 and Not gate
we get K α =  Q
 A  Sol. :

 A−4 216 A B C D Y
Sol. : K α =  Q = × 5.5 = 5.4 MeV
 A  220 0 0 1 0 1

P2 1 1 0 0 1 0
Kinetic energy=
k ∝
2m m 0 1 0 1 0
1 1 1 1 0 1 0
kN : kα = :
216 4
It is truth table of NOR gate.
216 42. Answer (2)
∴ kα = × 5.5 = 5.4 MeV
220
V0 10
Hint and Sol. : VDC
= = V
37. Answer (1) π π
h 43. Answer (4)
Hint : λ
= = and eE ma
mv Hint and Sol. :

h Current through 1 kΩ, i =

( 25 – 12 ) = 13 mA
Sol. : λ =
mv 1 × 103

dλ h 12
= − a Current in 2 kΩ, = 6 mA
dt m(at )2 2 × 103
Current through Zener, i2 = i – i1
dλ h
= − i2 = 13 – 6 = 7 mA
dt mat 2
44. Answer (1)
dλ h
= − Hint : Use Kirchhoff’s voltage law
dt eEt 2
Sol. : Use K.V.L. in Base-emitter closed circuit
38. Answer (1)
– 8.6 × 103 iB – VBE + 5 = 0
loge 2
Hint : Activity R = λN = N 5 – 0.7
T =iB = 0.5 mA
8.6 × 103
R1 N1 T2 Collector current, ic = βIB
Sol. : =
R2 N2 T1
= 100 × 0.5
T1 N1 R2 2N2 10 4 = 50 mA
= × = × =
T2 N2 R1 N2 5 1 Use K.V.L. in collector emitter circuit
This is satisfied in option (1) ic × 100 – VCE + 10 = 0

39. Answer (2) VCE = 10 – ic × 100

= 10 – 50 × 10–3 × 100
Hint and Sol. : A Zener diode is used in reverse
bias to regulate voltage across load. VCE = 5 V
45. Answer (3)
40. Answer (4)
Hint and Sol. : On increasing impurity level width
Hint and Sol. : Y = ( A ⋅ B ) ⋅ C of depletion layer decrease.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (2) 50. Answer (2)
Hint : Electron withdrawing group present at p- Hint : Benzyl bromide is obtained on reaction of
position to the benzaldehyde makes carbonyl benzyl alcohol with HBr.
carbon electron deficient. Sol. :
Sol. : In p-nitrobenzaldehyde carbonyl carbon is
electron deficient due to strong – R effect of – NO2
group which assists the nucleophile to attack at
carbonyl carbon most easily.

51. Answer (2)

Hint : Electron donating group present at para
position to –NH2 group will increase the basic
nature of amine.
47. Answer (4) Sol. : +R effect of –OCH3 increases electron
Hint : Electron withdrawing group increases the density on nitrogen of NH2 more than
hyperconjugation effect of –CH3 group.
acidic strength of carboxylic acid.
52. Answer (1)
Sol. : – F has strong – I effect hence FCH2COOH
is strongest acid among the given options. The Hint : Nylon-6,6 is prepared by the condensation
acidity order is FCH2COOH > C6H5COOH > polymerisation of hexamethylenediamine with
C6H5CH2COOH > CH3COOH. adipic acid
48. Answer (1) Sol. :
Hint : Acid chloride on hydrogenation over Pd and
BaSO4 forms benzaldehyde.
Benzaldehyde undergoes Cannizzaro reaction in
presence of 50% NaOH solution.
Sol. :

Nylon-6,6 is a polyamide
53. Answer (1)
49. Answer (4)

Hint : Orlon is
Hint : Compounds containing – group or
– group form iodoform by I2/NaOH.
Sol. :
Sol. : Acetaldehyde and isopropyl alcohol both will
form iodoform hence cannot be distinguished by 54. Answer (2)
I2/NaOH. Hint : The polymers made by addition or
condensation polymerisation from two different
monomers are called copolymers.
Sol. :

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 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

55. Answer (4) 63. Answer (1)

Hint : Cellulose is a natural biodegradable Hint : Disaccharide and monosaccharide
polymer. containing free anomeric –OH will show
mutarotation.
Sol. : PHBV and Nylon-2-nylon-6 are synthetic
biodegradable polymers. Sol. :

56. Answer (3)

Hint : Bakelite is made of phenol and
formaldehyde.
57. Answer (4)
Hint : Thermosetting polymers are cross linked
polymers.
58. Answer (2)
Hint : The compounds having enolisable proton
will show keto-enol tautomerism. In sucrose free anomeric – OH is absent
64. Answer (3)
Sol. : Hint : The amino acid which does not contain
chiral centre is optically inactive.
Sol. : Glycine does not contain chiral centre.

65. Answer (4)

Hint : Sugar moiety in RNA is β-D-ribose.
66. Answer (3)
Hint : Vitamin B-complex are water soluble.
Sol. : Thiamine (Vitamin B1) riboflavin (Vitamin B2)
and Vitamin-C are water soluble.
67. Answer (3)

Hint :
59. Answer (2)
Hint : Brompheniramine (Dimetapp) is an
antihistamine.
60. Answer (4) β–D–(–)–Fructofuranose
Hint : Sucralose is 600 times sweeter than cane 68. Answer (4)
sugar (sucrose). Hint : Only primary amines both aliphatic and
61. Answer (4) aromatic give carbylamine reaction.
Hint : Furacine, soframycin and bithional are used Sol. :
as antiseptics. 69. Answer (2)
62. Answer (1) Hint :
Hint : Glucose also has cyclic structure. Nitrobenzene is reduced to hydroazobenzene in
Sol. : NaHSO3 addition does not take place to presence of Zn/NaOH.
glucose because of its cyclic structure. Zn/NaOH
Sol. : PhNO2  → PhNHNHPh

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

70. Answer (1) 76. Answer (3)

Hint : Diazonium salt undergoes coupling reaction Hint : Alkyl cyanide on acidic hydrolysis produces
with phenol in faintly alkaline medium. carboxylic acid.
Sol. : H O+
Sol. : CH3 CH2CN →
3
CH3 CH2COOH

H O+
CH3 CH2CONH2 →
3
CH3 CH2COOH

H O+
CH3 CH2NC →
3
CH3 CH2NH2 + HCOOH

77. Answer (3)

Hint : – NHCOCH3 group is o/p directing group in
electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction.
71. Answer (2) Sol. :
Hint : Hinsberg’s reagent is benzenesulphonyl
chloride.
Sol. : Aniline on reaction with Br2/H2O forms a
white precipitate of 2,4,6-tribronoaniline but benzyl
amine gives no such characteristic reaction with
Br2/H2O
78. Answer (4)
72. Answer (2)
Hint : Benzenediazonium chloride is colourless
Hint : The given reaction is Hofmann degradation
crystalline compound and it is water soluble.
reaction in which amide is converted to primary
amine. 79. Answer (1)
Sol. : Hint : Arenediazonium chloride on reaction with
fluoroboric acid forms arene diazonium
fluoroborate.

73. Answer (3) Sol. :

Hint : Aldehyde on reaction with excess alcohol in 80. Answer (1)
presence of dry HCl gas form acetal. Hint : β-keto acid decarboxylates most easily on
Sol. : heating.

(Acetal)
74. Answer (2)
Sol. :
Hint : – I effect of chlorine increases electrophilic
character of carbonyl carbon of ester.
Sol. : Two chlorine atoms in (iii) has highest – I
effect among the given compounds which
enhances electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon hence
ester hydrolysis in alkaline medium is facilitated.
75. Answer (2)
Hint : The given reaction is known as Hell Volhard 81. Answer (2)
Zelinsky reaction. Hint :
Sol. :
Phorone is 2,6-dimethylhepta-2,5-dien-4-one
HCl
Sol. : 3CH3COCH3  → (CH3)2C = CHCOCH

= C(CH3)3 + 2H2O

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 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

82. Answer (4)

Hint : α-hydrogens in carbonyl compounds are Sol. :
enolisable hydrogens.

Sol. :

The above compound has 3-α-hydrogens.

87. Answer (3)
83. Answer (3)
Hint : Reagent used in etard reaction is CrO2Cl2.
Hint : Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used in the
preparation of primary amine.
Sol. : Sol. :

88. Answer (3)

Hint : Intermolecular hydrogen bonding increases
the intermolecular association hence boiling point
increases.
Sol. : Acetic acid is polar and is associated
extensively by hydrogen bonding.
84. Answer (2)
Hint : Amide on reaction with LiAlH4 forms primary
89. Answer (1)
amine.
Hint : Alkyl cadmium is an alkylating reagent.

Sol. :

85. Answer (3) Sol. :

Hint : is semicarbazide

Sol. :
90. Answer (1)
Hint : Zn – Hg/C ⋅ HCl reduces butanone to
n-butane.

86. Answer (3)

Sol. :
Hint : 2° alcohol is oxidised to ketone in presence
of PCC. (PCC is pyridinium chlorochromate) (Clemmensen reduction)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (2)
Hint : Man-made ecosystem is called
anthropogenic ecosystem.
Sol.: Forest, lakes and estuaries are natural
ecosystem. Crop fields are agroecosystem which
are largest anthropogenic ecosystem.
92. Answer (1)
Hint: Aquarium is an anthropogenic aquatic
ecosystem.
Sol.: Anthropogenic ecosystem (aquarium) does
not possess self-regulatory mechanism. It has
simple food chain and little biodiversity. Crop fields
show high productivity
93. Answer (2)
Hint: Edaphic factor is related to soil.
Sol.: Edaphic factor is concerned with the
composition of soil including its chemical and
physical properties.
94. Answer (3)
Hint: In some organisms, one stage of their life
cycle show herbivorous food habit while the other
stage show carnivorous.
Sol.: Tadpoles are herbivorous and the adult frogs
are carnivorous. Therefore, they are placed at
different trophic levels
95. Answer (4)
Hint: The biotic component of an ecosystem has
both autotrophs and heterotrophs.
Sol.: Many arboreal animals occupy the top layer
of the forest ecosystem.
96. Answer (4)
Hint: Productivity in an ecosystem is the rate of
biomass production.
Sol.: Due to several biotic and abiotic factors, the
productivity of desert and deep sea is very less.
97. Answer (2)
Hint: Water -soluble substances go down the soil
by percolating water.
Sol.: Leaching is the process in which water-
soluble substances present in detritus go down
into the soil and get precipitated as unavailable
salts.
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Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
98. Answer (1)
Hint: Decomposition of detritus is enzymatic
process.
Sol.: An optimum temperature is required for the
activity of enzymes which is around 25°C or little
more. Above 45°, the enzymatic activity becomes
very slow or enzymes become inactive.
99. Answer (1)
Hint: When in a food chain, energy flows from one
trophic level to the next, maximum energy is lost in
the form of heat or other activities.
Sol.: According to second law of thermodynamics,
no transfer of energy occurs unless it is
accompanied by degradation or dissipation.
100. Answer (1)
Hint: At each transfer in a food chain, only 10% of
the total energy is actually available to the next
trophic level.
Sol.: Energy in 10 ants = 10 calories
Energy gained by the anteater
10
=10× = 1 calory .
100
101. Answer (3)
Hint: Standing crop is measured as the mass of
living organisms.
Sol.: Standing crop is the amount of living material
present in different trophic levels at a given time.
102. Answer (4)
Hint: Biomass is the amount of living matter at any
particular trophic level at a given time.
Sol.: For a tree ecosystem, the biomass of a tree
is always more as compared to the organisms at
other trophic levels.
103. Answer (2)
Hint: Ecological pyramids do not include
insectivorous plants.
Sol.: Ecological pyramids assume food chain only.
Saprophytes are also not given a place in the
ecological pyramid.
104. Answer (1)
Hint: Hydrarch succession starts in aquatic
habitat.
Sol.: Pioneer community is first biotic community
that develops in a bare area. Phytoplanktons and
zooplanktons are first biotic community in aquatic
habitat.
 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
105. Answer (3)
Hint: Primary succession starts at barren area,
never having vegetation of any type.
Sol.: Sand dunes are barren areas. In these areas
primary succession starts.
106. Answer (1)
Hint: The maximum cost of ecosystem services
accounts for soil formation.
Sol.: Soil formation accounts for about 50% of the
total cost of ecosystem services.
107. Answer (2)
Hint: Rice is a single species.
Sol.: Different strains of rice show genetic
diversity.
108. Answer (2)
Sol.: According to estimate made by Robert May,
the global species diversity is about 7 million.
109. Answer (3)
Hint: Sector B includes algae
Sol.: Sector A–Angiosperms
Sector C–Fungi
110. Answer (4)
Hint: Number of species of birds is more than that
of reptiles and mammals.
Sol.: Number of species of different groups of
animals in Amazonia rain forest are as follows:
Mammals – 427
Birds – 1300
Reptiles – 378
Amphibians – 427
Fishes – 3000
111. Answer (3)
Hin: Tropics are less seasonal and more constant.
Sol.: Tropics have warm temperature and high
humidity. Due to receiving more solar energy, the
tropical communities are more productive and can
support wide range of species.
112. Answer (1)
Hint: On a logarithmic scale, the species area
relationship shows a straight line.
Sol.: For a very large area, the slope of the line
w.r.t. species area relationship on a logarithmic
scale is much steeper.
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113. Answer (4)
Hint: Increased diversity contribute to higher
productivity.
Sol.: Stable community does not show much
variation in productivity from time to time and it is
more resistant to the invasions of alien species.
114. Answer (3)
Hint: According to Rivet popper hypothesis, rivets
are considered as species.
Sol.: By taking the example of an airplane
(considered as ecosystem), Paul Ehrlich gave
Rivet popper hypothesis to explain the ecosystem
health.
115. Answer (2)
Sol.: During the long period of life on earth, there
were five episodes of mass extinction of species.
116. Answer (1)
Hint: Eichhornia is an aquatic plant.
Sol.: Eichhornia was introduced by Europeans in
India. It clogges water bodies and resulting in
death of several aquatic plants and animals.
117. Answer (3)
Hint: Humans derive many direct economical
benefits from nature which are categorised as
narrowly utilitarian.
Sol.: Food, firefood, drugs and industrial products
are under narrowly utilitarian of ecosystem
services.
118. Answer (3)
Hint: One of the animal belongs to the national
park situated in Sikkim is snow leopard.
Sol.: Rhino is found in Kaziranga National Park.
119. Answer (1)
Hint: To control the pollution, our Government has
passed Environment Act.
Sol.: Our Government has passed Environment
(Protection) Act in 1986 to control the
environmental pollution.
120. Answer (4)
Hint: Secondary pollutants are formed by the
reactions of primary pollutants.
Sol.: Ozone is secondary pollutant which is formed
when heat and sunlight cause chemical reactions
between oxides of nitrogen and hydrocarbons.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
121. Answer (2)
Hint: Aerosols cause ozone depletion.
Sol.: Aerosols are vapour chemicals in the form of
fluorocarbons, chlorofluorocarbons, oxides of
sulphur and nitrogen.
122. Answer (1)
Hint: Electrode wires are negatively charged.
Sol.: The electrons from negatively charged
electrode wires attach to dust particles giving them
a net negative charge.
123. Answer (4)
Hint: The calcium in limestone combines
chemically with sulphur.
Sol.: Calcium in CaCO3 combines with sulphur to
produce CaSO4 which is separately collected.
124. Answer (3)
Hint: One of the methods to reduce noise pollution
is planting trees under green muffler scheme.
Sol.: Noise is measured by a sound meter and is
expressed in a unit called decibel (dB).
125. Answer (1)
Hint: Lead causes pollution.
Sol.: Use of unleaded petrol is one of the
measures taken by the Government to reduce the
pollution.
126. Answer (1)
Hint: Acid rain is a cocktail of H2SO4 and HNO3.
Sol.: Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen combine with
moisture to form H2SO4 and HNO3 respectively.
127. Answer (2)
Hint: Decomposition of organic wastes cause drop
in DO of water.
Sol.: O2 consumption by organisms and
decomposition of organic matter are the factors
which determine the amount of dissolved O2 in
water.
128. Answer (2)
Hint: Eichhornia, an aquatic plant is called ‘Terror
of Bengal’
Sol.: Algal bloom is excessive growth of
phytoplankton. Biological magnification of DDT in
birds causes thinning of egg shell.
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129. Answer (4)
Hint: Minamata and black foot diseases are due to
mercury and arsenic respectively.
Sol.: Itai-itai disease is caused by the consumption
of food and water contaminated with cadmium.
130. Answer (3)
Hint: In a young lake, the water is cold and clear.
Sol.: As the age of lake increase, lake grows
shallower and warmer.
131. Answer (3)
Hint: Town of Arcata is an example of initiating
waste water treatment.
Sol.: The citizens group called Friends Of the
Arcata Marsh (FOAM) are responsible for the
upkeep and safeguarding of the marshes by
integrated waste water treatment.
132. Answer (1)
Hint: Human excreta can be recycled into a
resource.
Sol.: EcoSan toilets are sustainable system for
handling human excreta. The recycled human
excreta is a natural fertiliser which reduces the
need of chemical fertilisers.
133. Answer (4)
Hint: Due to deforestation, water holding capacity
of soil decreases.
Sol.: Due to lack of vegetation, water does not stay
on the ground and run away in the form of flood.
Since, water does not stay on ground, it does not
percolate down the layer of soil and therefore not
added to the ground water.
134. Answer (2)
Hint: UV rays act on CFCs releasing Cl atoms.
Sol.: The Cl atom released from CFC by the act of
UV rays catalyse the conversion of O3 into O2.
135. Answer (2)
Sol.: Montreal protocol was signed to control the
emission of ODS.
136. Answer (1)
Hint : Plasmid has its own ‘ori’
Sol. : Plasmid is an autonomously replicating
closed circular extrachromosomal DNA without
any vital gene.
 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
137. Answer (1)
Hint : Two strands are mirror images with opposite
orientation.
Sol. : The palindrome in DNA is a sequence of
base pairs that reads same on the two strands
when orientation of reading is kept the same.
Eg : 5′ – GAATTC – 3′
3′ – CTTAAG – 5′
138. Answer (3)
Hint : In EcoRI, E is derived from the genus.
Sol. : In Eco RI, E is derived from the genus,
Escherichia, co from the name of the species coli,
roman number ‘I’ indicates the order of isolation
from that strain of bacteria.
139. Answer (2)
Hint : Enzyme forming phosphodiester bonds.
Sol. : Action of restriction endonucleases
produces sticky ends. Lyases catalyse the
breakdown of substrate into two parts without the
use of water.
140. Answer (3)
Hint : Thickest DNA band closest to loading wells.
Sol. : Undigested DNA sample is in lane 1.
141. Answer (4)
Hint : Agarose is a matrix which is a natural
polymer.
Sol. : Agarose is extracted from sea weeds. The
separated bands of DNA are cut out from agarose
gel and extracted from gel piece. This is called
elution. Separated DNA fragments can be
visualized after staining the DNA with ethidium
bromide. While isolating DNA, the precipitated
DNA can be separated out on glass rod, a step
called spooling
142. Answer (2)
Hint : Like plasmids, they are autonomously
replicating.
Sol. : Bacteriophages because of their high copy
number per cell, have very high copy numbers of
their genome within the bacterial cells.
143. Answer (3)
Hint : β-galactosidase
Sol. : Recombinants produce white colonies due
to insertional inactivation of β-galactosidase while
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non-recombinants produce blue colonies.
Ampicillin resistant gene is present in both pUC8
and pBR322.
Identification of recombinants requires single step
i.e. plating onto agar medium containing ampicillin
and X-gal.
pUC8 is 2.7 kb in size while pBR322 is 4.3 kb in
size.
144. Answer (4)
Hint : Pvu II recognises sequence within ‘rop’ of
pBR322
Sol. : Rop codes for the proteins involved in the
replication of the plasmid. When alien DNA is
inserted in the recognition sequence of Pvu II, this
causes insertional inactivation of rop.
Therefore, there will be unavailability of
proteins for replication of plasmid.
145. Answer (4)
Hint : Transform normal cells to cancerous cells.
Sol. : Retroviruses have been disarmed and used
to deliver genes into animal cells.
146. Answer (3)
Hint : Identify a second messenger
Sol. : Calcium chloride treatment is used to make
competent cells take up DNA.
147. Answer (1)
Hint : Gene gun method.
Sol. : Plant cells are bombarded with high velocity
microparticles of gold or tungsten coated with
DNA in a method called gene gun/biolistics.
BAC (Bacterial artificial chromosome), and
Agrobacterium tumefaciens are the vectors used
in vector mediated transfer of DNA.
148. Answer (2)
Hint : Chitin is present in fungi.
Sol. : Isolation of genetic material can be achieved
by treating the cells with enzymes such as
lysozyme (bacteria), cellulose (plant cells) and
chitinase (fungus).
149. Answer (3)
Hint : C gene with flanking sequence is produced
on digestion with Hind III
Sol. :
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
150. Answer (4)
Hint : Transferred DNA
Sol. : β-galactosidase gene and antibiotic
resistance gene are features of pUC8 plasmid. Ti
plasmid has its own ‘origin of replication’ [ori]
gene. Ti plasmid has been disarmed by
replacement of transferred DNA (T-DNA) with our
gene of interest.
151. Answer (4)
Hint : Streptomyces albus
Sol. :
152. Answer (3)
Hint : It does not digest nucleic acids.
Sol. : RNA can be removed by Ribonuclease,
whereas proteins can be removed by treatment
with proteases. Chilled ethanol precipitates
purified DNA. Calcium chloride is used to make
competent cells.
153. Answer (1)
Hint : Primer extension is the last step of PCR.
Sol. : Two sets of primers are added to the
reaction mixture of PCR. These primers are small
chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are
complementary to the region of template DNA.
154. Answer (3)
Hint : It cuts internal bonds.
Sol. : EcoRI cleaves internal phosphodiester
bonds. Its an endonuclease that cleaves specific
palindromic sequence whereas exonucleases
remove nucleotides from the terminal ends of a
DNA molecule.
155. Answer (2)
Hint : Its a dephosphorylating enzyme.
Sol.: Alkaline phosphatase is used for the removal
of single phosphate groups from 5′ ends of linear
vectors to prevent recircularization during cloning
or to dephosphorylate DNA.
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156. Answer (4)
Hint : 1 billion copies are made at the end of 30
PCR cycles.
Sol. : In PCR, Number of fragments amplified = 2(n)
n=8
∴ 2(8) = 256
157. Answer (3)
Hint : Culture of cells in log phase leads to high
yield.
Sol. : In continuous culture system, the used
medium is drained out from one side while fresh
medium is added from other to maintain cells in
their physiologically most active log/exponential
phase and produces a larger biomass leading to
higher yields of desired product.
158. Answer (2)
Hint : Biosynthetic stage is upstream processing.
Sol. : Biosynthetic stage includes the process of
fermentation. Step of cutting and extracting DNA
from the gel piece after gel electrophoresis is
called elution.
159. Answer (3)
Hint : Their names differ based on this difference.
Sol. : Both simple stirred tank and sparged stirred
tank bioreactor have a stirrer that facilitates even
mixing and oxygen availability throughout the
bioreactor, a foam control system, sample port
and pH control system. Sparged stirred tank
bioreactor has a system through which sterile air
bubbles are sparged to increase surface area for
oxygen transfer.
160. Answer (3)
Hint : Microneedles are used.
Sol. : Biolistic/gene gun is suitable for plants. Heat
shock method of transformation requires a brief
42°C temperature treatment that enable bacteria
to take up foreign DNA.
161. Answer (2)
Hint : Blue white selection is done on X-gal
substrate.
Sol. : One can see bright orange coloured bands
of DNA in a EtBr stained gel exposed to UV rays.
Gram staining is done for identifying bacterial
culture.
 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
162. Answer (3)
Hint : Marine flora.
Sol. : Agarose is a commonly used matrix
extracted from sea weeds. Restriction
endonucleases are extracted from bacteria.
163. Answer (3)
Hint : Selectable markers of pBR322.
Sol. : pBR322 has two selectable marker genes
ampR and tetR. The normal E.coli cells do not carry
resistance against any of these antibiotics.
LacZ gene is present in pUC8 plasmid of E.coli.
164. Answer (2)
Hint : This property prevents early exhaustion of
fertility of soil.
Sol. : Genetically modified plants have increased
efficiency of mineral usage that prevents early
exhaustion of soil fertility.
165. Answer (3)
Hint : Name of bacterium.
Soil. : Bt toxin is produced by bacteria called
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt in short).
166. Answer (3)
Hint : Crystallised toxin
Sol. : Bt toxin protein exists as an inactive protoxin
but once an insect ingest the inactive toxin, it is
converted into an active from of toxin due to
alkaline pH of insect gut.
167. Answer (2)
Hint : It is also controlled by cryIIAb gene encoded
protein.
Sol. : Protein encoded by the genes cryIAc and
cryIIAb control the cotton bollworms and that of
cryIAb controls corn borer.
168. Answer (3)
Hint : Its colour is provided by the presence of
precursor of vitamin A.
Sol. : Golden rice is a biofortified crop that
combats vitamin A and iron deficiency as it has the
gene for beta carotene encoded in it.
169. Answer (2)
Hint : A gene subtraction technique
Sol. : RNA interference (RNAi) prevents
infestation of root of tobacco plants by nematode
M. incognita.
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RAPD : Random amplification of
polymorphic DNA.
RFLP : Restriction fragment length
polymorphism.
SDS-PAGE : Sodium dodecyl sulphate and
polyacrylamide gel.
170. Answer (3)
Hint : Sense and anti-sense RNA both are formed
in host cell.
Sol. : RNAi involves silencing of specific RNA due
to formation of dsRNA molecule formed by binding
of complementary RNA (anti-sense RNA)
molecule to original mRNA, thereby preventing
translation of original mRNA.
171. Answer (4)
Hint : Longest extra stretch of polypeptide.
Sol. : C peptide chain is not present in the mature
insulin and is removed during maturation into
insulin.
172. Answer (2)
Hint : Proper folding is an essential step.
Sol. : Chain A and B were produced separately,
extracted and combined by creating disulphide
bonds to form human insulin as the main
challenge was getting it assembled into a mature
form.
173. Answer (4)
Hint : This enzyme is crucial for the immune
system to function.
Sol. : ERT is enzyme replacement therapy that is
used to treat ADA deficiency.
Alkaline phosphatase removes 5′ phosphate
group from DNA molecule.
174. Answer (1)
Hint : Milk contained human alpha-lactalbumin.
Sol. : Rosie was the first transgenic cow.
175. Answer (3)
Hint : These molecules are employed in
autoradiography.
Sol. : Probes are allowed to hybridise to its
complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed
by detection using autoradiography.
176. Answer (3)
Hint : Patent controversy.
Sol. : There are an estimated 200000 varieties of
rice in India alone whereas 27 documented
varieties of basmati rice are grown in India.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

177. Answer (2) 179. Answer (4)

Hint : It should be novel. Hint : A traditional method of diagnosis.
Sol. : Patents are supposed to satisfy three criteria Sol.: Serum and urine analysis are traditional
of ‘novelty’, non obviousness and utility. methods of diagnosis in which early detection is
178. Answer (3) not possible.
Hint : Safety of GMO’s. 180. Answer (4)
GEAC : Genetic Engineering Approval
Hint : Resistance to insects.
Committee
Sol. : Bt toxin provide resistance to insects without
RCGM : Research Committee on Genetic
the need for insecticides in effect created a bio-
manipulation.
pesticides. Golden rice is a biofortified crop.
CDRI : Central Drug Research Institute,
Roundup ready crops are herbicide tolerant crops.
Lucknow, UP.

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