Solutions - AIATS Med-2020 (OYMCF) Test-3 (Code-A & B) - 10-11-2019 PDF

Test-3 (Code-A)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
TEST - 3 (Code-A)
Test Date : 10/11/2019
ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (3) 109. (3) 145. (2)
2. (3) 38. (4) 74. (1) 110. (4) 146. (3)
3. (1) 39. (4) 75. (2) 111. (1) 147. (3)
4. (3) 40. (3) 76. (3) 112. (3) 148. (4)
5. (3) 41. (1) 77. (1) 113. (2) 149. (3)
6. (1) 42. (2) 78. (3) 114. (4) 150. (4)
7. (4) 43. (2) 79. (3) 115. (1) 151. (3)
8. (2) 44. (1) 80. (4) 116. (2) 152. (1)
9. (1) 45. (3) 81. (2) 117. (4) 153. (3)
10. (4) 46. (1) 82. (1) 118. (3) 154. (1)
11. (3) 47. (3) 83. (4) 119. (1) 155. (1)
12. (4) 48. (2) 84. (3) 120. (2) 156. (4)
13. (1) 49. (1) 85. (2) 121. (3) 157. (4)
14. (3) 50. (3) 86. (2) 122. (4) 158. (3)
15. (3) 51. (1) 87. (1) 123. (1) 159. (1)
16. (1) 52. (2) 88. (4) 124. (2) 160. (3)
17. (3) 53. (3) 89. (3) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (3) 54. (3) 90. (2) 126. (1) 162. (2)
19. (4) 55. (1) 91. (2) 127. (2) 163. (1)
20. (4) 56. (4) 92. (1) 128. (1) 164. (3)
21. (2) 57. (4) 93. (4) 129. (4) 165. (2)
22. (3) 58. (2) 94. (4) 130. (1) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (1) 95. (3) 131. (3) 167. (1)
24. (3) 60. (3) 96. (3) 132. (2) 168. (3)
25. (4) 61. (4) 97. (2) 133. (1) 169. (4)
26. (1) 62. (2) 98. (3) 134. (2) 170. (2)
27. (3) 63. (3) 99. (3) 135. (3) 171. (1)
28. (4) 64. (2) 100. (2) 136. (4) 172. (2)
29. (3) 65. (1) 101. (1) 137. (1) 173. (3)
30. (2) 66. (3) 102. (4) 138. (3) 174. (4)
31. (3) 67. (3) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (2)
32. (2) 68. (2) 104. (3) 140. (1) 176. (3)
33. (1) 69. (1) 105. (1) 141. (1) 177. (4)
34. (3) 70. (4) 106. (2) 142. (2) 178. (2)
35. (4) 71. (1) 107. (2) 143. (4) 179. (4)
36. (1) 72. (3) 108. (2) 144. (4) 180. (2)
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS V  R
Hint : Dispersive power 
Y  1
1. Answer (1)
Hint : vIO  vIM  vOM 1.704  1.690
Sol. :  
1.694  1
Sol. : vOM   4i  4 j  m/s 0.014

vIM   4i  4 j  m/s 0.694
 0.02017
vIO   4i  4 j    4i  4 j   0.020
vIO  8i m/s 6. Answer (1)
Hint : Lateral displacement by parallel faced
2. Answer (3)
slab.
Hint : Use Snell’s law
Sol. :
Sol. :
t sin(i  r )
x
cos r
sin30 w
 sin(i  r )
sin r a 55
cos r
1

4 cosr = sin(i – r)
2sin r 3 sin(90° – r) = sin(i – r)
3 90° – r = i – r
sin r  i = 90°
8
7. Answer (4)
1  3 
r  sin     1 1 
8 Hint : 1  (2  1)   
f  1
R R2
3. Answer (1)
Sol. : In air
Hint and Sol. : Lens Maker’s formula is
1  4  1 1 
applicable to thin lenses and paraxial rays which    1 
subtend very small angle with principle axis. f  3   R1 R2 
4. Answer (3) In glass
Hint : For normal adjustment length of the tube 3
L = fe + f0 2   4  3  1  1 
 
f0 f1  3 2   R1 R2 
Sol. : m 
fe 3 4 3

2f1  3 2 
15 
f0  
1  1 
fe  
f  3 
f0 = 15fe
3f 1
80 = fe + 15fe 
2f1 2
fe = 5 cm
f1   3f
80= 5 + f0 Focal length becomes 3f and nature will be
f0  75 cm diverging.
5. Answer (3) 8. Answer (2)
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Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
Hint : Apply Snell’s law and prism formula. Hint : Image formed by both plane mirror and
convex mirror at same point
2 sin i
Sol. : 
1 sin(r ) Sol. :
for minimum deviation

A  m
i
2
A
r 
2
 60  m 
sin   Image formed by plane mirror will be at distance
3
  2 
3 sin30 of 25 cm from plane mirror and 10 cm from the
pole of convex mirror. By mirror formula.
3  60  m  1 1 1
 sin    
2  2  v u f
60  m 1 1 1
 60  
2 10 40 f
m = 60° 4 1 1

9. Answer (1) 40 f
1 1 1 v 40
Hint : Use   and m   f  cm
v u f u 3
Sol. : For virtual image R = 2f
80
m
v I
  cm
u O 3
v = – 2u 11. Answer (3)

Hint : Magnification will be minimum when
1 1 1
  image will formed at infinity.
v u f
v0 D
1 1 1 Sol. : M 
  u0 fe
2u u 10
v0 D
1 1 M 
 u0  fe 
2u 10  
2
u = – 5 cm
= 2M
For real image
12. Answer (4)
1 1 1
  Hint and Sol. : Total internal reflection will occur
v u f if ray travel from denser to rarer medium. Let
1 1 1 refractive index of medium A, B and C are 1, 2
 
2u u 10 and 3 respectively
3 1 1 > 2 > 3

2u 10
C1 < C2 < C 3
u = – 15 cm
13. Answer (1)
x = |–15| – |–5|
Hint : Ray will be undeviated if incident ray and
= 10 cm emergent ray will be parallel to each other.
10. Answer (4)
Sol. : Incident rays and emergent rays will be 1 1 1

parallel if refracted rays from convex lens meet at  
20 v 30
the focus of concave lens.
1 1 1
 
v 20 30
3  2

60
v = – 60 cm
60
m  2
30
17. Answer (3)
x = 30 – 10 Hint and Sol. : Total internal reflection is used in
x = 20 cm optical fiber for transmission of light energy.
Hint and Sol. : Hint : The image of an object at 25 cm, should
form at 50 cm.
Sol. : u = – 25 cm
v = – 50 cm
1 1 1
 
f v u
1 1 1
The rays from the object fall normally on the  
surface of sphere and emerge undeviated. When f 50 25
drawn backwards, they will meet at O. The image f = 50 cm (convex lens)
will form at center itself. 19. Answer (4)
15. Answer (3) Hint : Use Snell’s law
Hint : vIx  mvOx
Sol. :
vIy  m2vOy
Sol. :
At glass water interface
sin30 w
At x = 30 cm  …(i)
m=1 sin r g
vIx  vOx At water air interface
vIy  vOy 1
sin r  …(ii)
w
vOy
tan    Equation (i) and (ii)
vOx
1
tan = – tan30° sin30 
g
 = – 30°
16. Answer (1) 1 1

v 2 g
Hint : m   and
u g = 2
1 1 1
  20. Answer (4)
v u f
1 1 1
1 1 1 Hint : Use  
Sol. :   f f1 f2
f v u
fconvex 2 23. Answer (1)

Sol. : 
fconcave 3 N  0D
Hint : L 
d
1 1 1
  N  0D
f fconvex fconcave Sol. : L 
d
1 1 1
  Ld
30 fconvex 3 N 
f  0D
2 convex
1 1 2 N 
 
30 fconvex 3fconvex
1 1

30 3fconvex
fconvex  10 cm
24. Answer (3)
3 Hint and Sol. : The amount of bending of light
fconcave   fconvex
2 depend upon the size of the obstacle and
3 wavelength of light used.
   10 25. Answer (4)
2
= – 15 cm Hint and Sol. : Huygen's principle is used to
21. Answer (2) prove the laws of reflection and refraction.
26. Answer (1)
I1 b1
Hint : IR  I1  I2  2 I1  I2 cos ,  Hint : When light wave travels from one medium
I2 b2 to another medium wavelength of light will
Sol. : Imax  I  4I  2  2I change while frequency remains same.
I0 = Imax = 9I Sol. : 1 = 
I  
I  0 1 
9 
At  = 60 

1 4
IR  I  4I  4I  3
2
IR = 7I 3

7I0 4
IR  27. Answer (3)
9
1
22. Answer (3) Hint : Resolving power 
nD 
Hint : For maxima x  R  P1 2 6000 Å 4
d Sol. :   
(2n  1)D R  P2 1 4500 Å 3
For minima x  , n  0, 1, 2...
2d 28. Answer (4)
2D Hint : Between two first minima on either side
Sol. : x2B  central maxima will form.
d
9D 2D
Sol. : W 
x5D  d
2d
5D 2  400  109  2
x5D  x2B  W 
2d 2  103
5 100  102 W = 8 × 10–4
5  103    W = 800 × 10–6
2 0.3  103
W = 800 m
 = 6 × 10–7
29. Answer (3)
 = 600 × 10–9
Hint : I1 = Icos2
 = 600 nm
Sol. : After rotating 30° angle between axes of VC = IXC

two polaroids becomes 60°. = 5 × 50
I
I  0 cos2 60 VC  250 V
2
34. Answer (3)
I0
I
 I dt
2
8
Hint : Ir .m.s 
I
%I   100  dt
I0
 I dt
2
1 Sol. : Ir .m.s 
  100
8  dt
= 12.5%
T
30. Answer (2)
 (3t
2 2
) dt
Hint and Sol. : The synthetic material used for
the preparation of polaroids possess the property Im.s  0
T
of dichroism.
31. Answer (3)
 dt
0
Hint :  = tanip T
1 9  t 4dt
Sol. : sin ic 
  0
T
1
 sin60 9 4
  T
5
2
 Ir.m.s  Im.s
3
 2  3 2
i p  tan1    T
 3 5
R Hint : Voltage across inductor leads the current.
Hint : Power factor cos  
Z
Sol. : Z  R 2  ( X c )2
2
 1 
 R2    Sol. :
 C 
R
cos  
2
 1  XL = L
R2   
 C 
= 200 × 100 × 10–3
RC
 = 20 
(RC )2  1 V X 20
33. Answer (1) tan   L  L  1
VR R 20
V
Hint : I  , VC  IXC 
Z 
4
Sol. : Z  R 2  ( XC  XL )2 36. Answer (1)
Hint and Sol. : A choke coil has high inductance
Z  (40)2  (50  20)2
and low resistance.
= 50  37. Answer (2)
250 Hint : At any time(t) voltage drop across the
I
50 capacitor plus voltage drop across the inductor
I=5A will be zero.
V
I
Sol. : R  ( XC )2
2
200
I
(1002  ( XC )2
(100)2 + XC2 = (200)2
XC2 = 40000 – 10000
VL + VC = 0
dI XC  3  100
L  VC  0
dt 1
 3  100
I
dq C
dt 1
C
d 2q q 100  3  100
L 2  0
dt C C = 18 F
d 2q q 40. Answer (3)
2
 0
dt LC V
Hint : I 
38. Answer (4) Z
d P E N Sol. : When L is removed
Hint : Ep  and S  S
dt EP NP X
tan1  C
d R
Sol. : Ep  500 (2  2t )
dt When C is removed
= – 1000 V X
|Ep| = 1000 V tan2  L
R
Es NS Given 1 = 2

E p NP
X L XC
1000 
Es   1000 R R
500 XL = XC this is the condition of resonance
Es  2000 V
So, Z = R
39. Answer (4)
V
1 I
Hint : XC  R
C
100
V2 I
Sol. : R  50
P
I=2A
(100)2
R 41. Answer (1)
100
Hint and Sol. : Direction of propagation of EM
R = 100 
P = VI wave will be in the direction of E  B therefore
100 direction of propagation will be perpendicular to
I both E and B.
100
I=1A 42. Answer (2)
Current in the circuit without capacitor Pt
V Hint : p 
I c
R
20  103  6  109
200 Sol. : pf  pi 
I 3  108
100
I=2A Pf = 40 × 10–20
To reduce the current 1 A capacitor can be Pf = 4.0 × 10–19 kg m/s
added.
43. Answer (2)
Hint : B0 = 0H0 7 2
Sol.: KMnO4 MnSO4
E0
Sol. : B0 
c n factor = 5, hence, E = M/5
E0 51. Answer (1)
  0 H0
c
Hint:   n n  2 BM
00 E0  0H0
Sol.:   n n  2 BM = 5.916 BM
0
H0  E0
0  n=5
44. Answer (1) For, Fe(26) : [Ar]3d64s2
0I Fe3+ : [Ar]3d5 has 5 unpaired electrons
Hint : B  r
2R 2
52. Answer (2)
4  107    0.1 Hint: Acidified K2Cr2O7 oxidises sulphides into
Sol. : B  2
 2  sulphur.
2    2  3
 10  Sol.: Cr2O7  3H2S  8H  2Cr  3S  7H2O
2  106
B 53. Answer (3)
4
Hint:
B = 0.5 × 10–6 3
Cr NH3   Cl3 
In solution
 Cr NH3 6   3Cl
B  5  107 T  6
45. Answer (3) So, 3 moles of AgCl will be precipitated.

dV
Hint : Id  iC  C 54. Answer (3)
dt
Hint: Mn shows +2 to +7 oxidation states.
dV
Sol. : Id  C 55. Answer (1)
dt
= 2 × 10–6 × 104 Hint: Ti4+ has d0 configuration, hence colourless.
= 2 × 10–2 56. Answer (4)
= 20 mA Hint: Lanthanoid hydroxides are less basic than
CHEMISTRY alkali metal hydroxides.
Hint : Brass contains copper and zinc. Hint :
47. Answer (3)
Hint: d0 and d10 configurations do not involve
d–d transition.
– Sol. : EDTA can donate maximum 6 electron
Sol.: In purple coloured MnO4 , Mn has no d pairs, so its maximum number of coordination
electron. So, d–d transition is not possible. All sites is 6.
other three ions are coloured due to d–d
58. Answer (2)
transition. MnO4 shows colour due to charge
Hint : EAN = Z – O. S. + 2 × C.N.
transfer
Sol. : EAN of Cr = 24 – 3 + 2 × 6 = 33
48. Answer (2)
Hint: 59. Answer (1)

2FeSO4 (s) Fe2O3 (s)  SO2 (g)  SO3 (g) Hint: Primary valency is equal to the oxidation
number of the metal in complex.
49. Answer (1)
Hint: In lower oxidation state of metal, oxides Sol.: In [Ni(CO)4] oxidation number of Ni is zero.
show more basic character. 60. Answer (3)
50. Answer (3) Hint : In tetrahedral complex, splitting is lesser as
M compared to octahedral field splitting.
Hint: E 
n  factor 9
Sol. : 0  t
4
61. Answer (4) Sol.: Since C – Cl bond length > C – F bond

Hint : More the charge density on central metal length
and more the chelation, more will be 0. CH3Cl has greater dipole moment than that of
62. Answer (2) CH3F.
70. Answer (4)
Hint: Ziegler Natta catalyst : TiCl4 + (C2H5)3Al.
Hint : The reaction follows benzyne mechanism.
63. Answer (3)
Sol. :
Hint: Square planar complex [Mabcd] has three
geometrical isomers as ligand a may have b, c or
d to its trans position.
64. Answer (2)
Hint : NO2 is an ambidentate ligand.
NO2 can be bonded through either N atom or O

atom.
65. Answer (1)
Hint: Weak field ligand complexes are generally
high spin and outer orbital.
Sol.: In CoF6 
3
, Co3+ ion has 3d6 configuration
and since F is a weak field ligand hence it
acquires sp3d2 hybridisation and is outer orbital 71. Answer (1)
complex. Hint: Swarts reaction

66. Answer (3) R  Cl  AgF  R  F  AgCl
Hint : Fluoroalkanes undergo elimination via
72. Answer (3)
E1CB mechanism.
Hint: Boiling point  Surface area.
Sol. :
Sol. : Primary alkyl group has larger surface area
than that of isomeric secondary and tertiary alkyl
groups.
73. Answer (3)
Hint: Preparation of alkyl benzene from aryl
halide and alkyl halide using Na/dry ether is
known as Wurtz-Fittig reaction.
67. Answer (3)
74. Answer (1)
Hint: Vinylic carbocation is highly unstable.
Hint : C – X bond has partial double bond
 
Sol.: CH2  CH  I  A g  character in vinyl bromide and bromobenzene.
X  CH2  CH AgI
Unstable 
Hence yellow AgI ppt. is not obtained in this case. Sol.:
68. Answer (2)
Hint: Rate of SN1 reaction  Stability of carbocation Also since C – Br bond is weaker than C – Cl
Sol.: Relative stabilities of carbocation is bond, so C – Br bond is weakest in benzyl
bromide.
75. Answer (2)
Hint: Phenol contains acidic hydrogen.
Bridgehead carbocation is least stable. Sol.:

69. Answer (1)
Hint: Dipole moment = Charge × bond length


Hint: 2CHCl3  6Ag  CH  CH  6AgCl Hint: ZnCl2/HCl is Lucas reagent.
Sol. : Lucas reagent reacts fastest with tertiary
Sol. : alcohol.
77. Answer (1)

Hint : Gem-diols are unstable molecules.
Sol. :
78. Answer (3)

Hint : Acetylide ion is a good nucleophile.
Sol. : CH3 – CH2 – Br + NaC  CH 85. Answer (2)
 Hint:
CH3CH2C CH + NaBr
79. Answer (3)
Hint: : CCl2 intermediate is formed in Reimer
Tiemann reaction.
Sol.:
80. Answer (4)
Hint : Cleavage of ether by SN2 mechanism.
86. Answer (2)
Sol. :
Hint: A is a hydroperoxide.
87. Answer (1)

81. Answer (2)
Hint: Reactions in which O – H bond of R – OH Hint:
molecule is broken, exhibits acidic nature.
1
Sol.: ROH  Na RONa  H2  g This is called hydroboration-oxidation reaction.
2 88. Answer (4)
82. Answer (1)
Hint: R  X  R1ONa  R  OR1  NaX
Hint : Grignard reagent on reaction with
formaldehyde followed by hydrolysis gives In this reaction R cannot be vinylic or a 3° alkyl
primary alcohol. group.
89. Answer (3)
Hint: Enantiomers are non-superimposable
Sol. : mirror images.
90. Answer (2)
 
H3O
 CH3  CH2  OMgBr  CH3  CH2  OH Hint : Victor Meyer test is done to distinguish
primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols.
83. Answer (4)
Sol. : Secondary alcohols give blue colouration in
Hint: Order of acidic strength this test.
Phenol > Alcohols
BIOLOGY 100. Answer (2)

Sol. :
91. Answer (2)
a. Totipotency – It is capacity to generate
Hint : A bhindi variety called Parbhani Kranti is
whole plant from any cell
resistant to viral disease.
b. SCP – Spirulina
Sol. : It is resistant to yellow mosaic virus.
92. Answer (1) c. Explant – Plant part which is cultured
Sol. : d. Callus – It is unorganised mass of
cells in culture medium.
Variety Resistant to disease
101. Answer (1)
a. Himgiri – Hill bunt
b. Pusa Komal – Bacterial blight Hint : LAB (Lactic Acid Bacteria) play beneficial
role in our stomach.
c. Karan rai – White rust
Sol. : LAB improve nutritional quality of curd by
d. Pusa sadabahar – Leaf curl increasing vit-B12. Besides this they play
93. Answer (4) beneficial role in checking disease causing
Hint : Major component of biogas is highly microbes in our stomach.
inflammable.
Rest of the statements are true.
Sol. : Methanogens produce methane which
102. Answer (4)
contribute 50-70% of total biogas mixture.
94. Answer (4) Hint : Cyclosporin-A is used during organ-
transplant.
Sol. : Baculoviruses attack insects and other
arthropods hence are pathogens. Sol. : It is used as immunosuppressive agent.
Trichoderma are very common in root 103. Answer (2)
ecosystems. Sol. : Lipases are obtained from yeast Candida
95. Answer (3) lipolytica and Geotrichum candidum.
Sol. : IRRI is situated in Philippines. 104. Answer (3)
96. Answer (3) Hint : Conformers are not able to maintain
Hint : Niche is specific part of habitat occupied homeostasis.
by individuals of a species. Sol. : Maintenance of constancy of internal
Sol. : Ecological niche of an organism environment is called homeostasis. 99% animals
represents the range of conditions that it can and nearly all plants are conformers.
tolerate, the resources it utilises and its functional 105. Answer (1)
role in ecosystem.
Sol. : According to Allen’s rule, mammals from
97. Answer (2) colder climates generally have shorter ears and
Hint : In sigmoid curve of logistic growth initial limbs to minimise heat loss.
lag phase is followed by acceleration and 106. Answer (2)
deceleration and finally an asymptote, where
resources are limited. Hint : Population is number of individuals of a
species in a particular area.
Sol. : An asymptote is shown when population
density reaches the carrying capacity i.e. carrying Sol. : Population includes number of individuals
capacity = population density. of different ages. Plotting of age distribution for a
population is called an age pyramid.
98. Answer (3)
Sol. : In some population interactions neither of 107. Answer (2)
the species is benefitted. In competition both the Hint : Eurythermals are not restricted to narrow
species are harmed (–, –). range of temperatures.
99. Answer (3) Sol. : They can tolerate and grow well in a wide
Hint : It is a tissue which has cells in continuous range of temperature.
state of division. 108. Answer (2)
Sol. : Meristem is free of virus and is used to Sol. : Keolado National Park is situated in
obtain virus free plants. Bharatpur (Rajasthan).
109. Answer (3) Sol. : These cyanobacteria (BGA) can fix

Hint : Per capita death is death rate. nitrogen, thus increase soil fertility. Rhizobium is
a symbiotic N2-fixing bacteria but
Sol. : An individual may have birth and death
Propionibacterium sharmanii bacterium is used in
but birth and death rates and sex ratio are
Swiss cheese production.
characteristics of population not of an organism.
Hence, birth rates, death rates and sex ratio are 119. Answer (1)
population attributes. Hint : Hypersaline and hyposaline terms are
110. Answer (4) used to measure salt concentration of water
bodies.
Sol. : Breeding of crops with higher levels of
vitamins and minerals or higher protein and Sol. : Organisms which are restricted to a
healthier fats is called biofortification. It does not narrow range of salinities are called stenohaline.
include improvement of carbohydrate quality. 120. Answer (2)
111. Answer (1) Sol. : The salt concentration (in parts per
thousand) of sea water may range between
Sol. : Wheat variety Atlas 66 has high protein
30-35.
content.
121. Answer (3)
112. Answer (3)
Hint : Desert lizards lack physiological ability to
Hint : This vitamin is chemically known as cope with extreme temperature. They manage
cyanocobalamin. body temperature by behavioural means.
Sol. : Curd contains number of vitamins Sol. : Ozone layer of stratosphere absorbs
especially B12. UV-C and half of the UV-B radiations.
113. Answer (2) Vegetation in any area is determined by soil
Hint : Large and small particles are removed composition and topography.
from sewage by physical treatment. In a biome, regional and local variations help in
Sol. : Primary sewage treatment is physical formation of wide variety of habitats.
treatment. It includes filtration and sedimentation. 122. Answer (4)
114. Answer (4) Hint : In an age pyramid if small number of pre-
reproductive individuals are followed by a large
Sol. : Azotobacter is a free living N2-fixing
number of reproductive individuals, it shows a
bacteria in soil. declining growth.
115. Answer (1) Sol. : In urn shaped age pyramid small number
Sol. : Mixture of gases such as CH4, H2S and of pre-reproductive individuals are followed by a
CO2 is produced by bacteria in anaerobic sludge large number of reproductive individuals. This
population shows declining growth/negative
digester.
growth.
116. Answer (2) 123. Answer (1)
Hint : BOD is the amount of oxygen that would Hint : Exponential growth occurs when
be consumed if all the organic matter in one litre resources are unlimited.
of water is oxidised by bacteria.
Sol. : At the end of rainy season environmental
Sol. : If more is the organic matter in sewage resistance becomes effective suddenly and
water more will be the BOD. Thus, BOD is the resources (food and space) become depleted
indirect measure of the organic matter present in which are responsible for decline in growth.
water.
124. Answer (2)
117. Answer (4)
Sol. : Integral form of the exponential growth
Sol. : In India, technology of biogas production equation is Nt = N0ert.
was mainly developed by the efforts of Indian
Agriculture Research Institute (IARI) and Khadi 125. Answer (3)
and Village Industries Commission (KVIC). Hint : Some organisms play role as predator in
agricultural field.
118. Answer (3)
Sol. : Due to the ability of predation some
Hint : Oscillatoria and Aulosira are
organisms are used to regulate prey population
cyanobacteria.
e.g. ladybird is useful in controlling aphids.
126. Answer (1) 134. Answer (2)

Hint : Floc includes useful aerobic heterotrophic Sol. : Tertiary sewage treatment is a physico
microbes in aeration tank. chemical process.
Sol. : It is mass of bacteria associated with 135. Answer (3)
fungal filaments. Hint : Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used
in making bread and in production of alcohol.
127. Answer (2)
Sol. : Yeast it is commonly known as baker’s and
Sol. : Ernst Chain and Howard Florey brewer’s yeast.
established penicillin as an effective antibiotic. 136. Answer (4)
They were awarded nobel prize in 1945.
Hint : MOET is not used in amphibians.
128. Answer (1) Sol. : Bony fishes and amphibians exhibit
Hint : Somaclones are produced through a external fertilization, so the fertilized structure is
method of tissue culture, called not transferred into their body. MOET cannot be
micropropagation. used in these cases due to external development
of embryo.
Sol. : Somaclones are produced by mitosis
therefore they are genetically identical to the 137. Answer (1)
original plant from which they were grown. Hint : Antibody present in body fluids.
129. Answer (4) Sol. : Colostrum is a yellowish liquid substance
that a nursing mother produces from her breasts
Sol. : Jaya and Ratna are semi dwarf varieties 25-48 hours after delivery which is very important
of rice. in the transfer of antibodies to the newborn.
130. Answer (1) 138. Answer (3)
Sol. : Green revolution in India occurred during Hint : Smack is diacetylmorphine.
1960s. Sol. : Morphine is extracted from the latex of
131. Answer (3) poppy plant Papaver somniferum. Heroin is
obtained by acetylation of morphine (diacetyl
Hint : Net population after time ‘t’ can be morphine) commonly called smack which is a
expressed as white, odourless and bitter crystalline compound.
Nt = N0 + [(B + I) – (D + E)] Generally, it is taken by snorting or injection. It is
a depressant and slows down body functions.
N0 = 200
139. Answer (2)
B = 150 Hint : Type of breeding to obtain a pureline.
I = 50 Sol. : Inbreeding increases homozygosity.
Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines in any
D = 100 animal and elimination of harmful recessive
E = 20 genes.
Nt = ? 140. Answer (1)
Hint : Action of cyclosporin drug inhibits this
Nt = 200 + [(150 + 50) – (100 + 20)] immune response.
Nt = 200 + [200 – 120] Sol. : Cell-mediated immune response
comprising cytotoxic T cells (killer cells) is chiefly
= 200 + 80 responsible for graft rejection.
Nt = 280 141. Answer (1)
132. Answer (2) Hint : Hygienic conditions are required for good
health.
Hint : It is Anabaena azollae.
Sol. : Awareness about disease and their effects
Sol. : Anabaena is a cyanobacterium. on different bodily functions, vaccination
133. Answer (1) (immunisation) against infectious diseases,
proper disposal of wastes, control of vectors and
Hint : It is a bacterium. maintenance of hygienic food and water
Sol. : Bacillus thuringiensis is used to control resources are necessary for achieving good
butterfly caterpillars. health.
142. Answer (2) 150. Answer (4)

Hint : Disease caused by activation of proto Hint : Outbreeding can involve outcrossing,
oncogenes to oncogenes. crossbreeding and interspecific hybridization.
Sol. : Diseases which are easily transmitted from Sol. : When breeding occurs between animals of
one person to another are called infectious same breed for 4-6 generations it is called
diseases. Some of the infectious diseases like inbreeding. A group of animals related by descent
AIDS are fatal. and similar in most characters like general
appearance, features, size, configuration, etc.,
143. Answer (4) are said to belong to a breed.
Hint : Identify a viral disease. 151. Answer (3)
Sol. : Dysentery, plague, diphtheria etc. are Hint : Identify the connecting link between living
some of the bacterial diseases in man. Common organisms and non-living entities.
cold is a viral disease. Sol. : Interferons are glycoproteins synthesized in
virus infected cells and affect neighbouring cells
144. Answer (4)
by synthesizing translation inhibitory proteins.
Hint : Pneumonia causing pathogens can be Cancer patients are given biological response
bacteria, viruses or fungi. modifiers such as -interferons which activate
Sol. : In pneumonia, the alveoli get filled with fluid their immune system and help in destroying the
leading to severe problems in respiration. tumor.
Symptoms of pneumonia include fever, chills, 152. Answer (1)
cough and headache. Hint : Elephantiasis is also called filariasis.
145. Answer (2) Sol. : Sleeping sickness is a protozoan disease
Hint : Disease spread by contaminated food and and elephantiasis occurs due to helminthic
infection. Aedes serves as vector for dengue and
water.
yellow fever.
Sol. : Salmonella typhi generally enters the small 153. Answer (3)
intestine through contaminated food and water
Hint : Preformed antibodies are transferred in
and migrates to other organs through blood. In
passive immunity.
severe cases death may also occur.
Sol. : When readymade antibodies are directly
146. Answer (3) given to protect the body against a foreign agent,
Hint : Identify the vector of malaria. it is called passive immunity.
Sol. : Plasmodium multiplies within the body of 154. Answer (1)
female Anopheles to form sporozoites that reside Hint : HIV is a retro virus.
in its salivary glands. Sol. : Two identical single stranded RNA filaments
147. Answer (3) are associated with reverse transcriptase in HIV.
155. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify a toxic substance.
Hint : Identify a disease caused by a virus.
Sol. : Schizont has yellowish-brown pigment
Sol. : Vector of chikungunya is a female Aedes
granules of haemozoin which is derived from the
mosquito.
porphyrin part of haemoglobin in the red blood
corpuscles. 156. Answer (4)
Hint : Membrane containing goblet cells.
148. Answer (4)
Sol. : Mucus membrane lining the respiratory,
Hint : Identify the genus of pathogen causing gastrointestinal and urogenital tract are examples
typhoid. of physical barriers of innate immunity. Mucus
Sol. : Many fungi belonging to the genera helps in trapping the microbes entering our body.
Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton 157. Answer (4)
are responsible for ringworm. Hint : Acquired immunity develops due to antigenic
149. Answer (3) stimulus.
Hint : Identify a larvivorous fish. Sol. : Acquired immunity is pathogen specific and
anamnestic secondary response is characterized
Sol. : Gambusia feeds on mosquito larvae and by prior encounter with antigen resulting in
helps control spread of vector borne diseases. formation of memory cells during clonal selection.
158. Answer (3) 165. Answer (2)

Hint : Antibody molecule is represented by H2L2. Hint : Identify the main inflammatory mediator.
Sol. : Each antibody is Y-shaped containing two Sol. : Noradrenaline also quickly reduces the
light and two heavy chains connected with each symptoms of allergy. Histamine is the main
other by disulphide bonds. mediator of inflammation.
166. Answer (4)
159. Answer (1)
Hint : Protected environment will lead to reduced
Hint : N terminal of immunoglobin has the development of acquired immunity.
antigen binding site.
Sol. : Protected environment in early life of
Sol. : One end of the antibody binds to antigen children in metro cities decrease their immunity
(the Fab portion, so called because it is the due to decrease in antigenic stimulus.
fragment of the molecule which is antigen binding 167. Answer (1)
or paratope), and the other end which is
crystallisable and therefore called Fc which is Hint : Connective tissue which is present in bone
responsible for effector function. for hemopoesis.
Sol. : Secondary lymphoid structures are spleen,
160. Answer (3)
lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches of small
Hint : Step taking place after antigen-antibody intestine and appendix.
interaction. 168. Answer (3)
Sol. : Neutralization is conversion of virulent into Hint : Lobed structure which is located near the
non-virulent form of pathogen. Lysis involves the heart.
rupture of plasma membrane of pathogen due to
Sol. : Thymus and bone marrow are primary
attack of antibody.
lymphoid organs, where immature lymphocytes
161. Answer (3) differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes.
Hint : Identify the disease which has been 169. Answer (4)
eradicated. Hint : Graveyard of RBCs.
Sol. : First generation vaccines are whole Sol. : Both bone marrow and thymus provide
organism vaccines, either live, weakened or killed. micro environment for the development and
Vaccine against typhoid, rabies, cholera, maturation of T-lymphocytes.
influenza and Salk polio vaccines are of killed The secondary lymphoid organs provide the site
type. for interaction of lymphocytes with antigens.
Small pox, OPV, BCG, influenza vaccines are 170. Answer (2)
attenuated. Hint. : In human body, nearly half of lymphoid
162. Answer (2) tissue is MALT.
Hint : Organism that is used in fermentation. Sol. : Lymphoid tissue which is located within the
lining of the major tracts (respiratory, digestive
Sol. : Vaccines produced using recombinant and urogenital tracts) is called mucosa
DNA technology allow large scale production and associated lymphoid tissue (MALT). It constitutes
hence, greater availability for immunization. about 50% of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
163. Answer (1) 171. Answer (1)
Hint : Disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica. Hint : A disease present since birth.
Sol. : Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan Sol. : HIV causes deficiency of immune system,
parasite in the large intestine of humans which acquired during the life time of an individual
cause amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery). indicating that it is not a congenital disease. HIV
164. Answer (3) infection may be congenital.
Hint : Identify the Ig found in low amounts in 172. Answer (2)
normal human body. Hint : HIV is mainly present in blood and semen.
Sol. : IgE causes release of histamine from most Sol. : Transmission of HIV generally occurs by
cells. It also increases in number in parasitic transfusion of contaminated blood and blood
infestations. products.
173. Answer (3) Sol. : Marine water fishes are Bombay duck,
Hint : Enzyme that catalyses reverse transcription. Hilsa, Eel, Pomphret, Salmon and sardines which
can be reared in pisciculture.
Sol. : HIV consists of RNA genome with reverse
transcriptase surrounded by protein coat. 178. Answer (2)
Reverse transcriptase can synthesize DNA from HInt. : “A” represent analgesic.
RNA.
174. Answer (4) Sol. : Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the
inflorescence of Cannabis sativa. Morphine is
Hint : Adenoma is tumor of glands. extracted from the latex of Papaver somniferum.
Sol. : Adenoma is a benign tumor of glands.
179. Answer (4)
175. Answer (2)
Hint : Present in beverages like wine.
Hint : The anthrone test is a highly sensitive test
for fructose. Sol. : The chronic use of drugs and alcohol
Sol. : Mantoux test is used for diagnosis of damage the nervous system and liver
tuberculosis and Schick test for diphtheria. respectively.
176. Answer (3) 180. Answer (2)
Hint : Commonly known as sadabahar. Hint : Jersey and Karan Fries are improved
Sol. : Catharanthus roseus is the source of anti- breeds of cattle.
cancer drugs such as vinblastin and vincristin. Sol. : American breed of chickens include New
177. Answer (4) Hampshire and Plymouth Rock.
Hint : Identify an arthropod. Mediterranean breed of chicken is Leghorn.

Test-3 (Code-B)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
TEST - 3 (Code-B)
Test Date : 10/11/2019
ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (1) 73. (3) 109. (4) 145. (1)
2. (1) 38. (2) 74. (2) 110. (2) 146. (2)
3. (2) 39. (4) 75. (4) 111. (1) 147. (4)
4. (2) 40. (1) 76. (3) 112. (4) 148. (3)
5. (1) 41. (3) 77. (1) 113. (2) 149. (1)
6. (3) 42. (3) 78. (2) 114. (3) 150. (4)
7. (4) 43. (1) 79. (4) 115. (1) 151. (2)
8. (4) 44. (3) 80. (4) 116. (4) 152. (3)
9. (2) 45. (1) 81. (1) 117. (3) 153. (1)
10. (1) 46. (2) 82. (3) 118. (2) 154. (2)
11. (4) 47. (3) 83. (3) 119. (2) 155. (3)
12. (3) 48. (4) 84. (2) 120. (2) 156. (3)
13. (1) 49. (1) 85. (1) 121. (1) 157. (1)
14. (2) 50. (2) 86. (3) 122. (3) 158. (3)
15. (3) 51. (2) 87. (1) 123. (2) 159. (4)
16. (2) 52. (3) 88. (2) 124. (4) 160. (4)
17. (3) 53. (4) 89. (3) 125. (1) 161. (1)
18. (4) 54. (1) 90. (1) 126. (2) 162. (1)
19. (3) 55. (2) 91. (3) 127. (3) 163. (3)
20. (1) 56. (4) 92. (2) 128. (3) 164. (1)
21. (4) 57. (3) 93. (1) 129. (2) 165. (3)
22. (3) 58. (3) 94. (2) 130. (3) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (1) 95. (3) 131. (3) 167. (3)
24. (3) 60. (3) 96. (1) 132. (4) 168. (4)
25. (2) 61. (2) 97. (4) 133. (4) 169. (3)
26. (4) 62. (1) 98. (1) 134. (1) 170. (3)
27. (4) 63. (3) 99. (2) 135. (2) 171. (2)
28. (3) 64. (3) 100. (1) 136. (2) 172. (4)
29. (3) 65. (1) 101. (3) 137. (4) 173. (4)
30. (1) 66. (4) 102. (2) 138. (2) 174. (2)
31. (3) 67. (1) 103. (1) 139. (4) 175. (1)
32. (3) 68. (2) 104. (4) 140. (3) 176. (1)
33. (1) 69. (3) 105. (3) 141. (2) 177. (2)
34. (4) 70. (3) 106. (2) 142. (4) 178. (3)
35. (3) 71. (1) 107. (1) 143. (3) 179. (1)
36. (4) 72. (2) 108. (3) 144. (2) 180. (4)
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-3 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS XC
tan1 
R
1. Answer (3)
When C is removed
dV
Hint : Id  iC  C X
dt tan2  L
dV R
Sol. : Id  C Given 1 = 2
dt
= 2 × 10–6 × 104 XL X
 C
= 2 × 10–2 R R
= 20 mA XL = XC this is the condition of resonance
2. Answer (1)
So, Z = R
0I
Hint : B  r V
2R 2 I
R
4  107    0.1
Sol. : B  2 I
100
 2  50
2   
 10  I=2A
2  106 7. Answer (4)
B
4 1
Hint : XC 
B = 0.5 × 10–6 C
B  5  107 T V2
Sol. : R 
3. Answer (2) P
Hint : B0 = 0H0 (100)2
R
E0 100
Sol. : B0 
c R = 100 
E0 P = VI
  0 H0
c 100
I
00 E0  0H0 100
0 I=1A
H0  E0 Current in the circuit without capacitor
0
V
4. Answer (2) I
R
Pt
Hint : p  200
c I
100
20  103  6  109 I=2A
Sol. : pf  pi 
3  108 To reduce the current 1 A capacitor can be
Pf = 40 × 10–20 added.
Pf = 4.0 × 10–19 kg m/s V
I
5. Answer (1) R  ( XC )2
2
Hint and Sol. : Direction of propagation of EM 200

I
wave will be in the direction of E  B therefore (1002  ( XC )2
direction of propagation will be perpendicular to
both E and B. (100)2 + XC2 = (200)2
6. Answer (3) XC2 = 40000 – 10000
Hint : I 
V XC  3  100
Z
Sol. : When L is removed
Test-3 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
1
 3  100
C
1
C
100  3  100 Sol. :
C = 18 F
8. Answer (4)
d P E N XL = L
Hint : Ep  and S  S
dt EP NP = 200 × 100 × 10–3
= 20 
d
Sol. : Ep  500 (2  2t ) V X 20
dt tan   L  L  1
VR R 20
= – 1000 V

|Ep| = 1000 V 
4
Es NS 12. Answer (3)

 I dt
E p NP 2
Hint : Ir .m.s 
Es 
1000
 1000  dt
500
 I dt
2
Es  2000 V Sol. : Ir .m.s 
9. Answer (2)
 dt
T
Hint : At any time(t) voltage drop across the
 (3t
2 2
) dt
capacitor plus voltage drop across the inductor
will be zero. Im.s  0
T
 dt
0
Sol. :
T
9  t 4dt
 0
T
9 4
 T
5
VL + VC = 0 Ir.m.s  Im.s
dI 3 2
L  VC  0  T
dt 5
dq 13. Answer (1)
I V
dt Hint : I  , VC  IXC
Z
d 2q q
L  0 Sol. : Z  R 2  ( XC  XL )2
dt 2 C
d 2q q Z  (40)2  (50  20)2
 0
dt 2 LC = 50 
250
10. Answer (1) I
50
Hint and Sol. : A choke coil has high inductance
I=5A
and low resistance.
VC = IXC
11. Answer (4) = 5 × 50
Hint : Voltage across inductor leads the current. VC  250 V
14. Answer (2) W = 800 × 10–6

Hint : Power factor cos  
R W = 800 m
Z 19. Answer (3)
Sol. : Z  R 2  ( X c )2 Hint : Resolving power 
1

2
 1  R  P1 2 6000 Å 4
 R2    Sol. :   
 C  R  P2 1 4500 Å 3
R
cos   20. Answer (1)
2
 1  Hint : When light wave travels from one medium
R2    to another medium wavelength of light will
 C 
change while frequency remains same.
RC
 Sol. : 1 = 
(RC )2  1

15. Answer (3) 1 

Hint :  = tanip

1 
Sol. : sin ic  4

3
1
 sin60 3
 
4
2
 21. Answer (4)
3 Hint and Sol. : Huygen's principle is used to
 2  prove the laws of reflection and refraction.
i p  tan1  
 3 22. Answer (3)
16. Answer (2) Hint and Sol. : The amount of bending of light
Hint and Sol. : The synthetic material used for depend upon the size of the obstacle and
the preparation of polaroids possess the property wavelength of light used.
of dichroism. 23. Answer (1)
17. Answer (3) N  0D
Hint : L 
Hint : I1 = Icos2 d
Sol. : After rotating 30° angle between axes of N  0D
two polaroids becomes 60°. Sol. : L 
d
I
I  0 cos2 60 Ld
2 N 
I0  0D
I
8 N 
I
%I   100
I0
1
  100
8
= 12.5% 24. Answer (3)
18. Answer (4) nD
Hint : Between two first minima on either side Hint : For maxima x 
d
central maxima will form.
(2n  1)D
2D For minima x  , n  0, 1, 2...
Sol. : W  2d
d
2D
2  400  109  2 Sol. : x2B 
W  d
2  103
9D
W = 8 × 10–4 x5D 
2d
5D
x5D  x2B  Sol. :
2d
5 100  102
5  103   
2 0.3  103
 = 6 × 10–7
 = 600 × 10–9
At glass water interface
 = 600 nm
sin30 w
25. Answer (2)  …(i)
sin r g
I1 b1
Hint : IR  I1  I2  2 I1  I2 cos ,  At water air interface
I2 b2
1
Sol. : Imax  I  4I  2  2I sin r  …(ii)
w
I0 = Imax = 9I Equation (i) and (ii)
I  1
I  0 sin30 
9 g
At  = 60 1 1

1 2 g
IR  I  4I  4I 
2
g = 2
IR = 7I
28. Answer (3)
7I Hint : The image of an object at 25 cm, should
IR  0
9 form at 50 cm.
26. Answer (4) Sol. : u = – 25 cm
v = – 50 cm
1 1 1
Hint : Use   1 1 1
f f1 f2  
f v u
fconvex 2 1 1 1
Sol. :   
fconcave 3 f 50 25
1 1 1 f = 50 cm (convex lens)
  29. Answer (3)
f fconvex fconcave
Hint and Sol. : Total internal reflection is used in
1 1 1 optical fiber for transmission of light energy.
 
30 fconvex 3 30. Answer (1)
f
2 convex Hint : m   and
v
1 1 2 u
  1 1 1
30 fconvex 3fconvex  
v u f
1 1
 Sol. :
1 1 1
 
30 3fconvex f v u
fconvex  10 cm 1
 
1 1
20 v 30
3
fconcave   fconvex 1 1 1
2  
v 20 30
3
  10 3  2
2 
60
= – 15 cm v = – 60 cm
27. Answer (4) 60
Hint : Use Snell’s law m  2
30

Hint : vIx  mvOx Hint and Sol. : Total internal reflection will occur
if ray travel from denser to rarer medium. Let
vIy  m2vOy refractive index of medium A, B and C are 1, 2
and 3 respectively
1 > 2 > 3
Sol. : C1 < C2 < C 3
35. Answer (3)
At x = 30 cm Hint : Magnification will be minimum when
image will formed at infinity.
m=1
v0 D
vIx  vOx Sol. : M 
u0 fe
vIy  vOy v0 D
M 
u0  fe 
vOy  
tan    2
vOx
= 2M
tan = – tan30°
36. Answer (4)
 = – 30° Hint : Image formed by both plane mirror and
32. Answer (3) convex mirror at same point
Hint and Sol. : Sol. :
The rays from the object fall normally on the

surface of sphere and emerge undeviated. When
drawn backwards, they will meet at O. The image Image formed by plane mirror will be at distance
will form at center itself. of 25 cm from plane mirror and 10 cm from the
33. Answer (1) pole of convex mirror. By mirror formula.
Hint : Ray will be undeviated if incident ray and 1 1 1

 
emergent ray will be parallel to each other. v u f
Sol. : Incident rays and emergent rays will be 1 1 1
 
parallel if refracted rays from convex lens meet at 10 40 f
the focus of concave lens.
4 1 1

40 f
40
f  cm
3
R = 2f
80
 cm
3
37. Answer (1)
x = 30 – 10
1 1 1 v
x = 20 cm Hint : Use   and m  
v u f u
Sol. : For virtual image 1  4  1 1 

   1  
v I f 3   R1 R2 
m 
u O In glass
v = – 2u 3
2   4  3  1  1 
1 1 1  
  f1  3 2   R1 R2 
v u f
3 4 3
1 1 1 
  2f1  3 2 
2u u 10  
1  1 
1 1  
 f  3 
2u 10
3f 1
u = – 5 cm 
2f1 2
For real image f1   3f
1 1 1 Focal length becomes 3f and nature will be
 
v u f diverging.
1 1 1 40. Answer (1)
  Hint : Lateral displacement by parallel faced
2u u 10
slab.
3 1

2u 10
u = – 15 cm
x = |–15| – |–5| Sol. :
= 10 cm
38. Answer (2)
Hint : Apply Snell’s law and prism formula.
2 sin i t sin(i  r )
Sol. :  x
1 sin(r ) cos r
sin(i  r )
for minimum deviation 55
cos r
A  m
i cosr = sin(i – r)
2 sin(90° – r) = sin(i – r)
A 90° – r = i – r
r 
2 i = 90°
 60  m  41. Answer (3)
sin   V  R
3
  2  Hint : Dispersive power 
3 sin30 Y  1
1.704  1.690
3  60  m  Sol. :  
 sin   1.694  1
2  2 
0.014
60  m 
 60 0.694
2  0.02017
m = 60°  0.020
  1 1  Hint : For normal adjustment length of the tube
Hint : 1  (2  1)   
f  R1 R2  L = fe + f0
Sol. : In air
f0 47. Answer (3)

Sol. : m 
fe Hint: Enantiomers are non-superimposable
mirror images.
f0
15  48. Answer (4)
fe
Hint: R  X  R1ONa  R  OR1  NaX
f0 = 15fe
In this reaction R cannot be vinylic or a 3° alkyl
80 = fe + 15fe
group.
fe = 5 cm 49. Answer (1)
80= 5 + f0 Hint:
f0  75 cm
43. Answer (1) This is called hydroboration-oxidation reaction.
Hint and Sol. : Lens Maker’s formula is
50. Answer (2)
applicable to thin lenses and paraxial rays which
subtend very small angle with principle axis. Hint: A is a hydroperoxide.
44. Answer (3)
Hint : Use Snell’s law
51. Answer (2)

Sol. : Hint:
sin30 w

sin r a
1 4
 52. Answer (3)
2sin r 3
Hint: ZnCl2/HCl is Lucas reagent.
3
sin r  Sol. : Lucas reagent reacts fastest with tertiary
8
alcohol.
3
r  sin1  
8
45. Answer (1)
Hint : vIO  vIM  vOM
Sol. : vOM   4i  4 j  m/s
vIM   4i  4 j  m/s
vIO   4i  4 j    4i  4 j 
vIO  8i m/s

53. Answer (4)
CHEMISTRY
Hint: Order of acidic strength
46. Answer (2) Phenol > Alcohols
Hint : Victor Meyer test is done to distinguish 54. Answer (1)
primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols. Hint : Grignard reagent on reaction with
Sol. : Secondary alcohols give blue colouration in formaldehyde followed by hydrolysis gives
this test. primary alcohol.
62. Answer (1)

Hint : C – X bond has partial double bond
Sol. : character in vinyl bromide and bromobenzene.
 
H O
 CH3  CH2  OMgBr 
3
 CH3  CH2  OH Sol.:
55. Answer (2)
Hint: Reactions in which O – H bond of R – OH Also since C – Br bond is weaker than C – Cl
molecule is broken, exhibits acidic nature. bond, so C – Br bond is weakest in benzyl
1 bromide.
Sol.: ROH  Na RONa  H2  g
2 63. Answer (3)
56. Answer (4) Hint: Preparation of alkyl benzene from aryl
Hint : Cleavage of ether by SN2 mechanism. halide and alkyl halide using Na/dry ether is
Sol. : known as Wurtz-Fittig reaction.
64. Answer (3)
Hint: Boiling point  Surface area.
Sol. : Primary alkyl group has larger surface area
than that of isomeric secondary and tertiary alkyl
groups.
65. Answer (1)
57. Answer (3) Hint: Swarts reaction

Hint: : CCl2 intermediate is formed in Reimer R  Cl  AgF  R  F  AgCl
Tiemann reaction.
66. Answer (4)
Sol.:
Hint : The reaction follows benzyne mechanism.
58. Answer (3)
Hint : Acetylide ion is a good nucleophile. Sol. :
Sol. : CH3 – CH2 – Br + NaC  CH

CH3CH2C CH + NaBr
59. Answer (1)
Hint : Gem-diols are unstable molecules.
Sol. :
60. Answer (3)


Hint: 2CHCl3  6Ag  CH  CH  6AgCl
Sol. :
67. Answer (1)
Hint: Dipole moment = Charge × bond length
61. Answer (2)
Sol.: Since C – Cl bond length > C – F bond
Hint: Phenol contains acidic hydrogen. length
CH3Cl has greater dipole moment than that of
CH3F.
Sol.: 68. Answer (2)
Hint: Rate of SN1 reaction  Stability of carbocation
Sol.: Relative stabilities of carbocation is 77. Answer (1)

Hint: Primary valency is equal to the oxidation
number of the metal in complex.
Sol.: In [Ni(CO)4] oxidation number of Ni is zero.
78. Answer (2)
Hint : EAN = Z – O. S. + 2 × C.N.
Bridgehead carbocation is least stable. Sol. : EAN of Cr = 24 – 3 + 2 × 6 = 33
Hint: Vinylic carbocation is highly unstable. Hint :
 
Sol.: CH2  CH  I  A g 
X  CH2  CH AgI
Unstable 
Sol. : EDTA can donate maximum 6 electron
Hence yellow AgI ppt. is not obtained in this case. pairs, so its maximum number of coordination
70. Answer (3) sites is 6.
Hint : Fluoroalkanes undergo elimination via 80. Answer (4)
E1CB mechanism. Hint: Lanthanoid hydroxides are less basic than
Sol. : alkali metal hydroxides.
81. Answer (1)
Hint: Ti4+ has d0 configuration, hence colourless.
82. Answer (3)
Hint: Mn shows +2 to +7 oxidation states.
83. Answer (3)
Hint:
71. Answer (1) 3
Cr NH3   Cl3 
In solution
 Cr NH3 6   3Cl
Hint: Weak field ligand complexes are generally  6
high spin and outer orbital. So, 3 moles of AgCl will be precipitated.
Sol.: In CoF6  3
, Co3+ ion has 3d6 configuration 84. Answer (2)
 Hint: Acidified K2Cr2O7 oxidises sulphides into
and since F is a weak field ligand hence it
sulphur.
acquires sp3d2 hybridisation and is outer orbital
complex. Sol.: Cr2O72  3H2S  8H  2Cr 3  3S  7H2O
Hint : NO2 is an ambidentate ligand. Hint:   n n  2 BM
NO2 can be bonded through either N atom or O Sol.:   n n  2 BM = 5.916 BM

atom.  n=5
73. Answer (3) For, Fe(26) : [Ar]3d64s2
Hint: Square planar complex [Mabcd] has three Fe3+ : [Ar]3d5 has 5 unpaired electrons
geometrical isomers as ligand a may have b, c or 86. Answer (3)
d to its trans position.
M
74. Answer (2) Hint: E 
n  factor
Hint: Ziegler Natta catalyst : TiCl4 + (C2H5)3Al.
7 2
75. Answer (4) Sol.: KMnO4 MnSO4
Hint : More the charge density on central metal n factor = 5, hence, E = M/5
and more the chelation, more will be 0.
87. Answer (1)
76. Answer (3) Hint: In lower oxidation state of metal, oxides
Hint : In tetrahedral complex, splitting is lesser as show more basic character.
compared to octahedral field splitting. 88. Answer (2)
9 Hint:
Sol. : 0  t 
4 2FeSO4 (s)  Fe2O3 (s)  SO2 (g)  SO3 (g)

Hint: d0 and d10 configurations do not involve Hint : Somaclones are produced through a
d–d transition. method of tissue culture, called
micropropagation.
Sol.: In purple coloured MnO4 – , Mn has no d
Sol. : Somaclones are produced by mitosis
electron. So, d–d transition is not possible. All
therefore they are genetically identical to the
other three ions are coloured due to d–d
original plant from which they were grown.
transition. MnO4 shows colour due to charge 99. Answer (2)
transfer Sol. : Ernst Chain and Howard Florey
90. Answer (1) established penicillin as an effective antibiotic.
Hint : Brass contains copper and zinc. They were awarded nobel prize in 1945.
BIOLOGY 100. Answer (1)
Hint : Floc includes useful aerobic heterotrophic
91. Answer (3) microbes in aeration tank.
Hint : Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used Sol. : It is mass of bacteria associated with
in making bread and in production of alcohol. fungal filaments.
Sol. : Yeast it is commonly known as baker’s and 101. Answer (3)
brewer’s yeast.
Hint : Some organisms play role as predator in
92. Answer (2) agricultural field.
Sol. : Tertiary sewage treatment is a physico Sol. : Due to the ability of predation some
chemical process. organisms are used to regulate prey population
93. Answer (1) e.g. ladybird is useful in controlling aphids.
Hint : It is a bacterium. 102. Answer (2)
Sol. : Bacillus thuringiensis is used to control Sol. : Integral form of the exponential growth
butterfly caterpillars. equation is Nt = N0ert.
Hint : It is Anabaena azollae. Hint : Exponential growth occurs when
Sol. : Anabaena is a cyanobacterium. resources are unlimited.
95. Answer (3) Sol. : At the end of rainy season environmental
Hint : Net population after time ‘t’ can be resistance becomes effective suddenly and
expressed as resources (food and space) become depleted
Nt = N0 + [(B + I) – (D + E)] which are responsible for decline in growth.
104. Answer (4)
N0 = 200
Hint : In an age pyramid if small number of pre-
B = 150 reproductive individuals are followed by a large
I = 50 number of reproductive individuals, it shows a
D = 100 declining growth.
E = 20 Sol. : In urn shaped age pyramid small number
Nt = ? of pre-reproductive individuals are followed by a
large number of reproductive individuals. This
Nt = 200 + [(150 + 50) – (100 + 20)] population shows declining growth/negative
Nt = 200 + [200 – 120] growth.
= 200 + 80 105. Answer (3)
Nt = 280 Hint : Desert lizards lack physiological ability to
cope with extreme temperature. They manage
96. Answer (1) body temperature by behavioural means.
Sol. : Green revolution in India occurred during Sol. : Ozone layer of stratosphere absorbs
1960s. UV-C and half of the UV-B radiations.
97. Answer (4) Vegetation in any area is determined by soil
Sol. : Jaya and Ratna are semi dwarf varieties composition and topography.
of rice. In a biome, regional and local variations help in
formation of wide variety of habitats.
106. Answer (2) 116. Answer (4)

Sol. : The salt concentration (in parts per Sol. : Breeding of crops with higher levels of
thousand) of sea water may range between vitamins and minerals or higher protein and
30-35. healthier fats is called biofortification. It does not
107. Answer (1) include improvement of carbohydrate quality.
Hint : Hypersaline and hyposaline terms are 117. Answer (3)
used to measure salt concentration of water Hint : Per capita death is death rate.
bodies. Sol. : An individual may have birth and death
Sol. : Organisms which are restricted to a but birth and death rates and sex ratio are
narrow range of salinities are called stenohaline. characteristics of population not of an organism.
108. Answer (3) Hence, birth rates, death rates and sex ratio are
Hint : Oscillatoria and Aulosira are population attributes.
cyanobacteria. 118. Answer (2)
Sol. : These cyanobacteria (BGA) can fix Sol. : Keolado National Park is situated in
nitrogen, thus increase soil fertility. Rhizobium is Bharatpur (Rajasthan).
a symbiotic N2-fixing bacteria but 119. Answer (2)
Propionibacterium sharmanii bacterium is used in Hint : Eurythermals are not restricted to narrow
Swiss cheese production. range of temperatures.
109. Answer (4) Sol. : They can tolerate and grow well in a wide
Sol. : In India, technology of biogas production range of temperature.
was mainly developed by the efforts of Indian 120. Answer (2)
Agriculture Research Institute (IARI) and Khadi Hint : Population is number of individuals of a
and Village Industries Commission (KVIC). species in a particular area.
110. Answer (2) Sol. : Population includes number of individuals
Hint : BOD is the amount of oxygen that would of different ages. Plotting of age distribution for a
be consumed if all the organic matter in one litre population is called an age pyramid.
of water is oxidised by bacteria.
121. Answer (1)
Sol. : If more is the organic matter in sewage
Sol. : According to Allen’s rule, mammals from
water more will be the BOD. Thus, BOD is the
colder climates generally have shorter ears and
indirect measure of the organic matter present in
limbs to minimise heat loss.
water.
122. Answer (3)
111. Answer (1)
Hint : Conformers are not able to maintain
Sol. : Mixture of gases such as CH4, H2S and
homeostasis.
CO2 is produced by bacteria in anaerobic sludge
Sol. : Maintenance of constancy of internal
digester. environment is called homeostasis. 99% animals
112. Answer (4) and nearly all plants are conformers.
Sol. : Azotobacter is a free living N2-fixing 123. Answer (2)
bacteria in soil. Sol. : Lipases are obtained from yeast Candida
113. Answer (2) lipolytica and Geotrichum candidum.
Hint : Large and small particles are removed 124. Answer (4)
from sewage by physical treatment. Hint : Cyclosporin-A is used during organ-
Sol. : Primary sewage treatment is physical transplant.
treatment. It includes filtration and sedimentation. Sol. : It is used as immunosuppressive agent.
114. Answer (3) 125. Answer (1)
Hint : This vitamin is chemically known as Hint : LAB (Lactic Acid Bacteria) play beneficial
cyanocobalamin. role in our stomach.
Sol. : Curd contains number of vitamins Sol. : LAB improve nutritional quality of curd by
especially B12. increasing vit-B12. Besides this they play
115. Answer (1) beneficial role in checking disease causing
Sol. : Wheat variety Atlas 66 has high protein microbes in our stomach.
content. Rest of the statements are true.
126. Answer (2) 135. Answer (2)

Sol. : Hint : A bhindi variety called Parbhani Kranti is
a. Totipotency – It is capacity to generate resistant to viral disease.
whole plant from any cell Sol. : It is resistant to yellow mosaic virus.
b. SCP – Spirulina 136. Answer (2)
c. Explant – Plant part which is cultured
Hint : Jersey and Karan Fries are improved
d. Callus – It is unorganised mass of breeds of cattle.
cells in culture medium.
Sol. : American breed of chickens include New
127. Answer (3)
Hampshire and Plymouth Rock.
Hint : It is a tissue which has cells in continuous
state of division. Mediterranean breed of chicken is Leghorn.
Sol. : Meristem is free of virus and is used to 137. Answer (4)
obtain virus free plants. Hint : Present in beverages like wine.
128. Answer (3) Sol. : The chronic use of drugs and alcohol
Sol. : In some population interactions neither of damage the nervous system and liver
the species is benefitted. In competition both the respectively.
species are harmed (–, –). 138. Answer (2)
129. Answer (2) HInt. : “A” represent analgesic.
Hint : In sigmoid curve of logistic growth initial
Sol. : Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the
lag phase is followed by acceleration and
inflorescence of Cannabis sativa. Morphine is
deceleration and finally an asymptote, where
extracted from the latex of Papaver somniferum.
resources are limited.
Sol. : An asymptote is shown when population 139. Answer (4)
density reaches the carrying capacity i.e. carrying Hint : Identify an arthropod.
capacity = population density. Sol. : Marine water fishes are Bombay duck,
130. Answer (3) Hilsa, Eel, Pomphret, Salmon and sardines which
Hint : Niche is specific part of habitat occupied can be reared in pisciculture.
by individuals of a species. 140. Answer (3)
Sol. : Ecological niche of an organism Hint : Commonly known as sadabahar.
represents the range of conditions that it can
tolerate, the resources it utilises and its functional Sol. : Catharanthus roseus is the source of anti-
role in ecosystem. cancer drugs such as vinblastin and vincristin.
131. Answer (3) 141. Answer (2)
Sol. : IRRI is situated in Philippines. Hint : The anthrone test is a highly sensitive test
132. Answer (4) for fructose.
Sol. : Baculoviruses attack insects and other Sol. : Mantoux test is used for diagnosis of
arthropods hence are pathogens. tuberculosis and Schick test for diphtheria.
Trichoderma are very common in root 142. Answer (4)
ecosystems. Hint : Adenoma is tumor of glands.
133. Answer (4) Sol. : Adenoma is a benign tumor of glands.
Hint : Major component of biogas is highly
143. Answer (3)
inflammable.
Sol. : Methanogens produce methane which Hint : Enzyme that catalyses reverse transcription.
contribute 50-70% of total biogas mixture. Sol. : HIV consists of RNA genome with reverse
134. Answer (1) transcriptase surrounded by protein coat.
Sol. : Reverse transcriptase can synthesize DNA from
RNA.
Variety Resistant to disease
144. Answer (2)
a. Himgiri – Hill bunt
b. Pusa Komal – Bacterial blight Hint : HIV is mainly present in blood and semen.
c. Karan rai – White rust Sol. : Transmission of HIV generally occurs by
d. Pusa sadabahar – Leaf curl transfusion of contaminated blood and blood
products.
145. Answer (1) 153. Answer (1)

Hint : A disease present since birth. Hint : Disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica.
Sol. : HIV causes deficiency of immune system, Sol. : Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan
acquired during the life time of an individual parasite in the large intestine of humans which
indicating that it is not a congenital disease. HIV cause amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery).
infection may be congenital.
154. Answer (2)
146. Answer (2)
Hint : Organism that is used in fermentation.
Hint. : In human body, nearly half of lymphoid
tissue is MALT. Sol. : Vaccines produced using recombinant
Sol. : Lymphoid tissue which is located within the DNA technology allow large scale production and
lining of the major tracts (respiratory, digestive hence, greater availability for immunization.
and urogenital tracts) is called mucosa 155. Answer (3)
associated lymphoid tissue (MALT). It constitutes
Hint : Identify the disease which has been
about 50% of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
eradicated.
147. Answer (4)
Sol. : First generation vaccines are whole
Hint : Graveyard of RBCs. organism vaccines, either live, weakened or killed.
Sol. : Both bone marrow and thymus provide
Vaccine against typhoid, rabies, cholera,
micro environment for the development and influenza and Salk polio vaccines are of killed
maturation of T-lymphocytes. type.
The secondary lymphoid organs provide the site
Small pox, OPV, BCG, influenza vaccines are
for interaction of lymphocytes with antigens.
attenuated.
148. Answer (3)
156. Answer (3)
Hint : Lobed structure which is located near the
heart. Hint : Step taking place after antigen-antibody
interaction.
Sol. : Thymus and bone marrow are primary
lymphoid organs, where immature lymphocytes Sol. : Neutralization is conversion of virulent into
differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes. non-virulent form of pathogen. Lysis involves the
149. Answer (1) rupture of plasma membrane of pathogen due to
attack of antibody.
Hint : Connective tissue which is present in bone
for hemopoesis. 157. Answer (1)
Sol. : Secondary lymphoid structures are spleen, Hint : N terminal of immunoglobin has the
lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches of small antigen binding site.
intestine and appendix. Sol. : One end of the antibody binds to antigen
150. Answer (4) (the Fab portion, so called because it is the
Hint : Protected environment will lead to reduced fragment of the molecule which is antigen binding
development of acquired immunity. or paratope), and the other end which is
Sol. : Protected environment in early life of crystallisable and therefore called Fc which is
children in metro cities decrease their immunity responsible for effector function.
due to decrease in antigenic stimulus. 158. Answer (3)
151. Answer (2) Hint : Antibody molecule is represented by H2L2.
Hint : Identify the main inflammatory mediator.
Sol. : Each antibody is Y-shaped containing two
Sol. : Noradrenaline also quickly reduces the light and two heavy chains connected with each
symptoms of allergy. Histamine is the main other by disulphide bonds.
mediator of inflammation.
159. Answer (4)
152. Answer (3)
Hint : Acquired immunity develops due to antigenic
Hint : Identify the Ig found in low amounts in stimulus.
normal human body.
Sol. : Acquired immunity is pathogen specific and
Sol. : IgE causes release of histamine from most anamnestic secondary response is characterized
cells. It also increases in number in parasitic by prior encounter with antigen resulting in
infestations. formation of memory cells during clonal selection.
160. Answer (4) 168. Answer (4)

Hint : Membrane containing goblet cells. Hint : Identify the genus of pathogen causing
Sol. : Mucus membrane lining the respiratory, typhoid.
gastrointestinal and urogenital tract are examples Sol. : Many fungi belonging to the genera
of physical barriers of innate immunity. Mucus Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
helps in trapping the microbes entering our body. are responsible for ringworm.
161. Answer (1) 169. Answer (3)
Hint : Identify a disease caused by a virus.
Hint : Identify a toxic substance.
Sol. : Vector of chikungunya is a female Aedes
mosquito. Sol. : Schizont has yellowish-brown pigment
granules of haemozoin which is derived from the
162. Answer (1) porphyrin part of haemoglobin in the red blood
Hint : HIV is a retro virus. corpuscles.
Sol. : Two identical single stranded RNA filaments 170. Answer (3)
are associated with reverse transcriptase in HIV.
Hint : Identify the vector of malaria.
163. Answer (3)
Sol. : Plasmodium multiplies within the body of
Hint : Preformed antibodies are transferred in
female Anopheles to form sporozoites that reside
passive immunity.
in its salivary glands.
Sol. : When readymade antibodies are directly
given to protect the body against a foreign agent, 171. Answer (2)
it is called passive immunity. Hint : Disease spread by contaminated food and
164. Answer (1) water.
Hint : Elephantiasis is also called filariasis. Sol. : Salmonella typhi generally enters the small
intestine through contaminated food and water
Sol. : Sleeping sickness is a protozoan disease
and migrates to other organs through blood. In
and elephantiasis occurs due to helminthic
severe cases death may also occur.
infection. Aedes serves as vector for dengue and
yellow fever. 172. Answer (4)
165. Answer (3) Hint : Pneumonia causing pathogens can be
Hint : Identify the connecting link between living bacteria, viruses or fungi.
organisms and non-living entities. Sol. : In pneumonia, the alveoli get filled with fluid
Sol. : Interferons are glycoproteins synthesized in leading to severe problems in respiration.
virus infected cells and affect neighbouring cells Symptoms of pneumonia include fever, chills,
by synthesizing translation inhibitory proteins. cough and headache.
Cancer patients are given biological response 173. Answer (4)
modifiers such as -interferons which activate
their immune system and help in destroying the Hint : Identify a viral disease.
tumor. Sol. : Dysentery, plague, diphtheria etc. are some
166. Answer (4) of the bacterial diseases in man. Common cold is
Hint : Outbreeding can involve outcrossing, a viral disease.
crossbreeding and interspecific hybridization. 174. Answer (2)
Sol. : When breeding occurs between animals of Hint : Disease caused by activation of proto
same breed for 4-6 generations it is called oncogenes to oncogenes.
inbreeding. A group of animals related by descent
and similar in most characters like general Sol. : Diseases which are easily transmitted from
appearance, features, size, configuration, etc., one person to another are called infectious
are said to belong to a breed. diseases. Some of the infectious diseases like
AIDS are fatal.
167. Answer (3)
175. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify a larvivorous fish.
Sol. : Gambusia feeds on mosquito larvae and Hint : Hygienic conditions are required for good
helps control spread of vector borne diseases. health.
Sol. : Awareness about disease and their effects Sol. : Morphine is extracted from the latex of
on different bodily functions, vaccination poppy plant Papaver somniferum. Heroin is
(immunisation) against infectious diseases, obtained by acetylation of morphine (diacetyl
proper disposal of wastes, control of vectors and morphine) commonly called smack which is a
maintenance of hygienic food and water white, odourless and bitter crystalline compound.
resources are necessary for achieving good Generally, it is taken by snorting or injection. It is
health. a depressant and slows down body functions.
176. Answer (1) 179. Answer (1)
Hint : Action of cyclosporin drug inhibits this
Hint : Antibody present in body fluids.
immune response.
Sol. : Cell-mediated immune response Sol. : Colostrum is a yellowish liquid substance
comprising cytotoxic T cells (killer cells) is chiefly that a nursing mother produces from her breasts
responsible for graft rejection. 25-48 hours after delivery which is very important
in the transfer of antibodies to the newborn.
177. Answer (2)
Hint : Type of breeding to obtain a pureline. 180. Answer (4)
Sol. : Inbreeding increases homozygosity. Hint : MOET is not used in amphibians.
Inbreeding is essential to evolve purelines in any
Sol. : Bony fishes and amphibians exhibit
animal and elimination of harmful recessive
genes. external fertilization, so the fertilized structure is
not transferred into their body. MOET cannot be
178. Answer (3) used in these cases due to external development
Hint : Smack is diacetylmorphine. of embryo.


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Test-3 (Code-A)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

for minimum deviation

v = – 2u 11. Answer (3)

Sol. : Incident rays and emergent rays will be 1 1 1

fconvex 2 23. Answer (1)

Sol. : After rotating 30° angle between axes of VC = IXC

45. Answer (3) So, 3 moles of AgCl will be precipitated.

61. Answer (4) Sol.: Since C – Cl bond length > C – F bond

NO2 can be bonded through either N atom or O

Bridgehead carbocation is least stable. Sol.:

76. Answer (3) 84. Answer (3)

77. Answer (1)

78. Answer (3)

87. Answer (1)

BIOLOGY 100. Answer (2)

109. Answer (3) Sol. : These cyanobacteria (BGA) can fix

126. Answer (1) 134. Answer (2)

142. Answer (2) 150. Answer (4)

158. Answer (3) 165. Answer (2)

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

Hint and Sol. : Direction of propagation of EM 200

14. Answer (2) W = 800 × 10–6

31. Answer (3) 34. Answer (4)

The rays from the object fall normally on the

Hint : Ray will be undeviated if incident ray and 1 1 1

Sol. : For virtual image 1  4  1 1 

f0 47. Answer (3)

51. Answer (2)

Sol. : vOM   4i  4 j  m/s

vIM   4i  4 j  m/s

vIO  8i m/s

62. Answer (1)

60. Answer (3)

Sol.: Relative stabilities of carbocation is 77. Answer (1)

NO2 can be bonded through either N atom or O Sol.:   n n  2 BM = 5.916 BM

89. Answer (3) 98. Answer (1)

106. Answer (2) 116. Answer (4)

126. Answer (2) 135. Answer (2)

145. Answer (1) 153. Answer (1)

160. Answer (4) 168. Answer (4)

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