All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test – 2 (Code-A)_(Answers)

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

TEST - 2 - Code-A
Test Date : 15/09/2019

ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (2) 73. (1) 109. (1) 145. (1)
2. (1) 38. (2) 74. (1) 110. (3) 146. (1)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (3) 111. (4) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (4) 76. (3) 112. (4) 148. (2)
5. (3) 41. (1) 77. (2) 113. (1) 149. (1)
6. (1) 42. (2) 78. (2) 114. (1) 150. (3)
7. (3) 43. (2) 79. (3) 115. (4) 151. (3)
8. (2) 44. (2) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (2)
9. (3) 45. (1) 81. (1) 117. (3) 153. (4)
10. (1) 46. (2) 82. (2) 118. (2) 154. (1)
11. (2) 47. (1) 83. (1) 119. (3) 155. (2)
12. (1) 48. (4) 84. (2) 120. (1) 156. (4)
13. (1) 49. (2) 85. (3) 121. (2) 157. (3)
14. (3) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (4) 158. (4)
15. (4) 51. (3) 87. (4) 123. (1) 159. (2)
16. (1) 52. (3) 88. (2) 124. (3) 160. (4)
17. (2) 53. (1) 89. (4) 125. (4) 161. (3)
18. (2) 54. (2) 90. (4) 126. (1) 162. (1)
19. (2) 55. (2) 91. (2) 127. (2) 163. (3)
20. (4) 56. (1) 92. (4) 128. (1) 164. (4)
21. (1) 57. (3) 93. (3) 129. (4) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (1) 94. (1) 130. (3) 166. (3)
23. (4) 59. (1) 95. (2) 131. (2) 167. (1)
24. (3) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (1) 168. (4)
25. (4) 61. (2) 97. (3) 133. (2) 169. (1)
26. (3) 62. (2) 98. (2) 134. (3) 170. (1)
27. (2) 63. (1) 99. (1) 135. (4) 171. (4)
28. (2) 64. (3) 100. (4) 136. (2) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (3) 101. (4) 137. (3) 173. (4)
30. (4) 66. (4) 102. (3) 138. (2) 174. (2)
31. (2) 67. (1) 103. (1) 139. (4) 175. (4)
32. (4) 68. (4) 104. (2) 140. (4) 176. (3)
33. (1) 69. (4) 105. (1) 141. (1) 177. (1)
34. (3) 70. (4) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (1)
35. (1) 71. (1) 107. (4) 143. (3) 179. (4)
36. (4) 72. (2) 108. (2) 144. (2) 180. (2)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

Sol. : At any points on line y = x the point will
PHYSICS
be equidistant from both wires and magnetic
1. Answer (4) fields are in opposite direction.
  

Hint : F m  q v  B  7. Answer (3)
Sol. : As magnetic force is normal to velocity of Hint : Use Ampere‟s circuital law.
charged particle. Hence kinetic energy of  
particle remains constant but momentum  a B.dl  0  2l  l   0l
Sol. : 
changes.  
2. Answer (1)  b B.dl  0.2l
 
Hint : Application of Biot-Savart‟s law.
 c B.dl  0  2l  2l   0
 
Sol. :
 d B.dl  0  6l  2l   0 4l
Hence d, b, a, c
8. Answer (2)

Sl
 i Hint : Sv 
B0  0  sin   sin   R
4d
   NBA
3  0 .3 3 Sol. : Current sensitivity   
Bnet  3B0   sin60  sin60  I  
3
4  
2    NBA
Voltage sensitivity   
V  R
= 1.8  106 T
3. Answer (2)    NBA
V 
   R  1
0 i
Hint and Sol. : Blong wire     NBA R
2r I 
  
4. Answer (1)
9. Answer (3)
Hint : Two current carrying wires exert a force
on each other. Hint : Use Biot-Savart‟s law
Sol. : The net magnetic force on loop is Sol. : B0 = B1 + B2
repulsive. Hence loop will move away from the
0 i  i
wire.   0 .
4a 4a
5. Answer (3)
   0 i  i 

Hint : Fm  q v  B  B0   0 
4a 4a 2

  
Sol. : Fm  1 106  106  iˆ  2 ˆj  2 ˆj 
 
0 i 0 i

4a 8a
 
 2kˆ N
0 i   
 . 1 
6. Answer (1) 4a  2 
Hint : Magnetic field due to long current 10. Answer (1)
carrying wire.   
Hint : F m  i eff  B 
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 Test - 2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

Sol. : i = 1 A 13. Answer (1)


B  2kˆ Hint : Use Biot-Savart‟s law.
2
y = 4x
y 2
 Sol. :
eff  4 ˆj


F m  1 4 jˆ  2kˆ  0 l 
B 

 8 ˆj  kˆ  2a 2
3
 8iˆ 
2
11. Answer (2)
   0 l 3
B 

Hint : F  q v 0  B0  2a 2  2

Sol. : Arc length AB = distance travelled in 30l

B
magnetic field. 8a
14. Answer (3)
mv
Hint : Use r 
qB

mv 2mqV
Sol. : r  
qB qB

m
r
 q
 3 T
Time t =  
 2 6 r  2rp
T
m  r2  r1 2  10 2 cm 

3qB0 15. Answer (4)
12. Answer (1) Hint and Sol. :
  
Hint : F m  i dL  B    C 
I  
 NBA 
 y
Sol. : B  B0  1   kˆ
 
  i  
Now for line AD 16. Answer (1)
 
 0
 l
 
F 1  iB0  1     jˆ  iB0jˆ M
Hint : Use  
q

L 2m
For line BC
   q mr 2 qr 2
F 2  iB0  1   jˆ  2iB0jˆ Sol. : M  . 
  2m 4 4
The forces due to line AB and CD are equal 4  106  102  2
M  2  108 Am2 
and opposite. Hence net force will be 4
  
Fnet  F2  F1   iB0  iB0  jˆ  iB0jˆ 17. Answer (2)
    
Fnet  iB0jˆ Hint : Use   M  B and M  NI A 

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)


 
Sol. : M  ia2 kˆ 20. Answer (4)
Hint and Sol. : The current i is divided equally

B  B cos 45  iˆ   B sin45   jˆ 
0 0
in both branches, hence at the centre the
magnetic field due to both branch is equal and
   B0ia2 ˆ ˆ
  M B 
2
j i   opposite. Hence Bnet at centre of loop is zero.
21. Answer (1)
 

  B0a2 iˆ  jˆ     q v  r 
Hint : B  0
4 r 3
18. Answer (2)
0ia2
Hint : Baxis, Ring  3


2 x 2  a2  2 Sol. :

  qv sin90
 
Sol. :
B 0 kˆ
4 r2
107  2  109  2  106
0 ia2 
3 4
BP


2 x 2  a2  2 
 
B  1010 kˆ T
BC 0 i
2a 22. Answer (2)
Hint : Use vector addition rule.
1 a3
 3 Sol. : Mnet  M 2  M 2  2M 2 cos60
x 
27 2
 a2 2
 3M 2  M 3
1

 x 2  a2 2   3a 23. Answer (4)

Hint : Use BH = Becos
2 2 2
x + a = 9a
Be 1
2
x = 8a
2 Sol. :   sec 
BH cos 
x  2 2a
24. Answer (3)
19. Answer (2) Hint and Sol. : Since diamagnetic substances
0ni are weakly repelled by the field so if they are to
Hint : Bloop, centre 
2a move, they tend to move away from stronger
0 i 1 field.
Sol. : B  , where a  and n  1 25. Answer (4)
2a 2
B
B
0 i 0 i
 Hint : Use m   r  1 and  
2.l  I  H
2     B
Sol. : r  
0 0 H
0 .  3i  1
B  , where a 
2.a 3.  2  m 
B
1
0H
0 .3i  i
 9 0 26. Answer (3)
2.l l 
6 
  Bv
Hint : Use BH  BH cos  and tan  
B  9B BH

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 Test - 2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

tan  BM  BH
Sol. : tan  
cos  0 M

3 4 r 3
tan37 4 3
   2.40
cos 60 1 2 3  105  107 
2 r3
3 1000 1
  tan1    3
2 8 r
27. Answer (2) 10 1

2 r
l
Hint : Use T  2 r = 0.2 m
MBH
30. Answer (4)
60 l 0 2M
Sol. :  2 Hint : Use Baxial 
30 MBe1 cos30 4 r 3

60 l Sol. : Since Meq  M 2

 2
20 MBe1 cos60 Now point P will be on axial position
0 2Meq
2 Be2 cos60 Hence Baxial 
 4 r 3
3 Be1 cos30
0 2 2M
Baxial 
4 Be2 1 4 x03

9 Be1 3 31. Answer (2)
Be1 tan 

9

3 3 Hint : Use tan  
Be2 4 cos 
4 3
tan 
28. Answer (2) Sol. : tan  
     cos 
Hint : Use   M  B and U  M.B
tan  tan 
Sol. : W  MB  cos 1  cos 2  Then, tan   
cos  90    sin 
 3  sin2   cos2   1
5  MB  1  
 5
tan2  tan2 
5 5  1
MB  tan2  tan2 
2
1 1 1
5 5 4  
Now   MB sin    2 5 Nm tan  tan  tan2 
2 2
2 5
cot 2   cot 2   cot 2 
29. Answer (2)
0 M 32. Answer (4)
Hint : Use B   
4 r 3 Hint : Use B  B.S
 

Sol. : B  B.S  2iˆ  4 ˆj . 1kˆ  0  
33. Answer (1)
dA
Sol. : B
Hint : i  dt
R

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol. :    l  vt  bB 36. Answer (4)

 t 
 d Hint : Use i  i0  1  e  
  
dt  
E L
Sol. : i0  and  
R R
    
t
q   idt   i0  1  e   dt
 
0 0  
i0 

  vbB e
E L
vbB .
i  R R
R e
EL
q
eR 2
37. Answer (2)
di
Hint : e  L
dt
34. Answer (3) T
Sol. : For time 0 to , i t
T 3
E 2
d
Hint : Use H   dt and E 
R dt di
0 Hence,   c e = – constant
dt
Sol. :   2t T  t 
T 2T
For time t  , i = constant
d 3 3
Induced emf E   2 T  2t 
dt i.e. e = 0

4 T  2t  2T
2
 t  T , i   a  bt 
T T
E2 For time
H   dt   dt 3
0
R 0
R
i.e. e = + constant
3
4T 38. Answer (2)
R 3
Hint : Use KVL and eL  L di
3 dt
4T
H –3 4
3R Sol. : VP – 4 × 4 – 10 – 5 × 10 × 10 – VQ = 0
35. Answer (1) VP – VQ = 76 V
39. Answer (3)
L1L2
Hint : Use LP  and LS  L1  L2
L1  L2 1 d
Hint : i 
R dt
L1L2
Sol. : LP   L1L2  4.8  20  96 
LS Sol. : i 
1 d

10 dt

3t 2  8t  2  t 0.5
2 2
(L1 – L2) = (L1 + L2) – 4L1L2
1
= 400 – 4 × 96 = 16   6t  8  t 0.5
10
L1 – L2 = 4 mH 5
  0.5 A
Hence, L1 = 12 mH and L2 = 8 mH 10

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 Test - 2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

40. Answer (4) 44. Answer (2)

   
Hint : Use M  and    B.dA Hint : Use e  Blv and i 
i Req.
a b
0 i
Sol. : Since B   B  cdr   cdr
2r
a Sol. :
0ic ab
 In r a
2
0ic  a  b  1  Blv1  1 0.1 4  0.4 V

2  a 
In
2  Blv 2  1 0.1 5
 0 c  b 
M  In 1   0.5 V
i 2  a 
eq 1 2
41. Answer (1)  
req r1 r2
  

Hint :   v  B .I 
0.4 0.5
eq    0.45 V
2 2

0.45
i  0.045 V
Sol. : 9 1

i  45 mA

AC  2  4  3
45. Answer (1)
 24 V
  dB
CB  4  2  4 Hint : Use  .d   A dt
 32 V Sol. : B = 40 t
AB   AC  CB  56 V dB
E.2r  r 2.
dt
42. Answer (2)
r dB
Hint :   L
di E
dt 2 dt

d 2  10–2
Sol. :   L  3t sin t  
2
 40
dt
  L  3sin t  3t cos t  = 0.4 N/C

    CHEMISTRY
  2  3  sin  3  cos 
 2 2 2
46. Answer (2)
  6 V
Hint : Physisorption involves weak van der
 6V Waals forces so reversible in nature.
43. Answer (2) 47. Answer (1)
Hint and Sol. : Among the given options, Hint : Increase in surface area, increases the
Nickel has minimum Curie temperature (631 K). rate of adsorption of gases on solid surface.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

48. Answer (4) 59. Answer (1)

Hint : Gases having high critical temperature Hint : Leaching of bauxite ore is done by
will easily liquify and more easily adsorb. Baeyer‟s process using NaOH as solvent.
Sol. : Tc : NH3 > CO2 > CH4 > H2 60. Answer (4)
49. Answer (2) Hint : Mg with BaO2 is used as ignition mixture
Hint : If reactants and catalyst are in same in Goldschmidt alumino thermite process.
phase then process is known as homogenous 61. Answer (2)
catalysis. Hint : Iron has impurity of SiO2 which combines
50. Answer (4) with CaO and forms slag of CaSiO3.
Hint : Au, gelatin and Sb2S3 sols are negatively 62. Answer (2)
charged sols. Hint : Poling process is used to refine Cu and
51. Answer (3) Sn containing impurities of their metal oxides.
Hint : Peptization is the method used for the 63. Answer (1)
preparation of colloids. Hint : van Arkel process is used for refining of
52. Answer (3) Ti, Zr, etc.
Hint : Size of colloidal particles ranges from 64. Answer (3)
1 nm to 1000 nm (or 10 Å to 10000 Å). Hint : In metallurgy of Ag and Au, complexes
– –
53. Answer (1) formed are [Ag(CN)2] , [Au(CN)2] and
2–
Hint : Electrolyte of highest coagulating power [Zn(CN)4]
has lowest flocculating value. 65. Answer (3)
Sol. : Fe(OH)3 is a positively charged sol and Hint : After roasting of copper pyrites, copper is
for its coagulation, order of flocculating value of obtained in the form of copper matte.
given electrolytes is KCl > K2SO4 > K3[Fe(CN)6] Sol. : Copper matte : (Cu2S and FeS)
54. Answer (2) 66. Answer (4)
Hint : Emulsions show Tyndall effect. Hint : Cast iron has impurity of carbon, sulphur,
55. Answer (2) silicon and phosphorus.
Hint : Coagulation and electrophoresis depend Sol. : Impurities present in cast iron are
on charge present on colloids. oxidised by haematite (oxidizing agent).
Sol. : Tyndall effect depends on the size of Fe2O3  3C  2Fe  3CO
colloidal particles.
67. Answer (1)
56. Answer (1)
Hint : In liquation impurities of high melting
Hint : As2S3 sol is formed by double
points are removed from metal.
decomposition method.
Sol. : Refining is based on difference in melting
Double
As2O3  3H2S  As2S3  sol   3H2O
decomposition points of metal and impurities.
68. Answer (4)
57. Answer (3)
Hint : Concentration of white bauxite is done by
Hint : Foam : Gas dispersed in liquid.
Serpeck‟s method in the presence of coke and
Sol. : Cell fluids is an example of sol. N2(g)
58. Answer (1) Sol. :
Hint : Copper glance : Cu2S Al2O3 . 2H2O + N2 + 3C  2AIN + 3CO + 2H2O
Sol. : Zincite : ZnO
AIN + 3H2O Al(OH)3 + NH3
Malachite : CuCO3Cu(OH)2
2Al  OH3 

 Al2O3  3H2O
Copper pyrites : CuFeS2

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 Test - 2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

69. Answer (4) 77. Answer (2)

Hint : CuFeS2 has impurity of FeS, which is Hint :
converted into FeSiO3 as slag.
Sol. : Froth floatation process is generally used
for the concentration of sulphide ores.
70. Answer (4) Number of S – S bonds is 8
78. Answer (2)
Hint :
Hint : linkage is known as peroxy
Element N P As Bi linkage.

3
Sol. :
Density (g/cm ) 0.879 1.823 5.778 9.808

71. Answer (1)

Hint : More the electron density on central
atom, more will be the basic nature.
Sol. : NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(Basicity order)
72. Answer (2)

Hint : NH4 2 Cr2O7 N2  Cr2O3  4H2O



Sol. : • 2NaN3  3N2  g  2Na



• NH4Cl  aq.  NaNO2 aq.  NH4NO2 aq.

NaCl  aq. 79. Answer (3)

• 2NH4Cl  Ca  OH2  2NH3  g  2H2O  CaCl2
73. Answer (1)
Hint : NO2 and N2O5 are acidic oxides.
80. Answer (2)
Sol. : NO and N2O are neutral oxides
NO is paramagnetic
Hint : Due to H-bonding present in „HF‟, it has
highest boiling point among the hydrides of
group 17 elements.
Sol. : HF > HI > HBr > HCl (Boiling point).
Hint : Au dissolves in aqua regia (HCl + HNO3)
– – –
Sol. : Au + 4H + NO3 + 4Cl  AuCl4 + NO
+

N2O is diamagnetic + 2H2O

81. Answer (1)
74. Answer (1)
Hint : Xe made similar type of compound as
Hint : Laboratory grade nitric acid contains ~ prepared by O2 with PtF6.
68% HNO3 by mass. Sol. :
75. Answer (3) Species O2 Xe N2 I F
Hint : PH3 becomes inflammable due to Ionization energy 1175 1170 1503 1008 1680
presence of impurity of P2H4 or P4 vapours. (in kJ/mol)
76. Answer (3) 82. Answer (2)
Hint : PCl5  4H2O  H3PO4  5HCl Hint : XeF6 on partial hydrolysis forms XeO2F2
and XeOF4.
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Sol. : XeF6 + H2O  XeOF4 + 2HF
XeOF4 + H2O  XeO2F2 + 2HF
XeO2F2 + H2O  XeO3 + 2HF
83. Answer (1)
Hint : Phosphinic acid : H3PO2
Phosphonic acid : H3PO3
Sol. :
84. Answer (2)
Hint : Due to presence of two P – H bonds,
H3PO2 is a strong reducing agent.
Sol. : 4AgNO3 + 2H2O + H3PO2  4Ag + 4HNO3
+ H3PO4
85. Answer (3)
Hint : PH3 is slightly soluble in water.
Sol. : The solution of PH3 in water decomposes
in light and gives red phosphorus and H2(g).
86. Answer (3)
Hint : Minimum and maximum covalency of
halogen is 1 and 7 respectively.
Sol. : XX′ : Minimum halogen atoms = 2
XX′7 : Maximum halogen atoms = 8
87. Answer (4)
Hint : HBrO2 is least likely to exist among the
given compounds
88. Answer (2)
Hint : Monoclinic sulphur is -sulphur.
Sol. : Monoclinic sulphur has m.p. 393 K and
m.p. of rhombic sulphur is 385.8 K.
89. Answer (4)
Hint : CIF3 is a colourless gas
Sol. : CIF3 : Bent-T-shaped
ClF3 + 2H2O  HClO2 + 3HF
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90. Answer (4)
Hint : H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te : Bond angle
Sol. :
 H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S : (Melting point
and boiling point)
H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O : (Dissociation
constant)
BIOLOGY
91. Answer (2)
Hint : Recombination of genetic material
occurs in sexual reproduction.
Sol. : Reproduction through leaf buds is a type
of vegetative reproduction. In such type of
reproduction, there is neither meiosis nor fusion
of gametes and thus least or no genetic
variation will occur in the next generations.
92. Answer (4)
Hint : Recessive phenotypes appear only in
homozygous condition.
Sol. : Terminal position of flowers and wrinkled
seed shape in pea plant are recessive traits.
So, they appear phenotypically only in
homozygous condition.
93. Answer (3)
Hint : All prokaryotes and eukaryotes have
both RNA and DNA.
Sol. : Some viruses do not have DNA so in
these viruses, RNA acts as genetic material.
94. Answer (1)
Hint : The length of DNA in viruses is much
smaller than that of prokaryotes and
eukaryotes.
Sol. :  × 174 bacteriophage – 5386
nucleotides Bacteriophage lambda – 48502 bp
6
E. coli – 4.6 × 10 bp
9
Human genome – 3.3 × 10 bp
95. Answer (2)
Hint : Yellow seed colour, violet flower colour
and inflated pod shape are the dominant traits
in pea plant
Sol. : Only solitary flowers are present in pea
plant.
 Test - 2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
96. Answer (3)
Sol. : Punnett square was developed by a
British geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.
97. Answer (3)
Hint : On the basis of X-ray diffraction pictures
of DNA, the earlier scientists suggested that
DNA was sort of helix with 3.4 Å periodicity.
Sol. : On the basis of X-ray diffraction pictures
of DNA, the Watson and Crick proposed a very
simple but famous double helix model for the
structure of DNA.
98. Answer (2)
Hint : In a nucleotide, a phosphate group is
linked to OH of 5C of nucleoside.
Sol. : When a phosphate group is linked to OH
of 5C of a nucleoside through phosphoester
linkage, a corresponding nucleotide is formed.
99. Answer (1)
Hint : A tall pea plant may be homozygous
dominant or heterozygous for alleles
responsible for stem height.
Sol. :
100. Answer (4)
Hint : In heterozygous condition for the genes
which show incomplete dominance, the
intermediate phenotype is produced.
Sol. : Test cross is done to know the genotype
of individual that shows dominant phenotype of
the trait which follows Law of Dominance.
101. Answer (4)
Hint : In viruses, the genetic material is either
DNA or RNA.
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Sol. : 5-methyl uracil is another name of
thymine. RNA lacks thymine and DNA lacks
uracil.
102. Answer (3)
Hint : In dsDNA, purines of one strand are
paired with pyrimidines of corresponding strand
by formation of hydrogen bonds.
Sol. : Adenine forms two H-bonds with thymine
and guanine is bonded with cytosine with three
H-bonds.
103. Answer (1)
Hint : Some viruses produce an enzyme
reverse transcriptase which can synthesize
DNA over RNA template.
Sol. :
104. Answer (2)
Hint : The phenotype is effected if the
responsible allele produces non-functional
enzyme or no enzyme.
Sol. : If the modified allele produces normal or
less efficient enzyme then it is said to be
equivalent to the unmodified allele.
105. Answer (1)
Hint : Regarding ABO blood groups, total
number of genotypes in human is six.
Sol. : Regarding ABO blood types in human
beings
Total number of : Total number of
genotypes phenotypes
= 6 : 4
= 3 : 2
106. Answer (3)
Sol. : The negatively charged DNA is wrapped
around the positively charged histone octamer
to form a structure called nucleosome.
107. Answer (4)
Hint : S-strain of Pneumococcus is virulent and
cause pneumonia.
Sol. : In the experiment conducted by Griffith,
the R-strain bacteria had been transformed by
the heat killed S-strain bacteria.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

108. Answer (2) Sol. :

Hint : A single gene product can produce more
than one effect when there is interrelationship
between the metabolic pathways that contribute
towards different phenotypes.
Sol. : In pleiotropy, a single gene product may
produce more than one effect or control several
phenotypes depending on its position.
109. Answer (1)
Hint : True breeding lines show homozygous
condition for the characters  Out of eight individuals, two produce white
flowers, i.e., 25%
Sol. : In Mendel‟s dihybrid cross, the true
114. Answer (1)
breeding lines in F2 generation are RRYY,
RRyy, rrYY and rryy. Sol. : On the template strand of DNA with
polarity 5 3 DNA synthesis is discontinuous
110. Answer (3)
in the form of Okazaki fragments. These
Hint : Sulphur is present in proteins whereas
fragments are joined by the enzyme DNA
phosphorus is present in genetic materials.
ligase.
Sol. : Only genetic material of bacteriophage 115. Answer (4)
enters the bacteria and the protein coat of the 6
Hint : DNA of E. coli has 4.6 × 10 bp.
virus is synthesised inside the bacteria will not
Sol. : The rate of polymerisation in E. coli
contain radioactive sulphur. But the genetic
material of bacteriophage formed inside the 4.6  106
will be bp/second
bacteria will have radioactive phosphorus. 38  60
111. Answer (4) = 2000 bp/second
Hint : Two terminal phosphates in a 116. Answer (2)
deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates are high Hint : The probability of beings first child a girl
energy phosphates. 1
is .
Sol. : In addition to acting as substrate 2
deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates also provide
energy for polymerisation. Sol. :

112. Answer (4)

Hint : For being suitable experimental material
in genetics, the specimen should have smaller
number of chromosomes which should be
morphologically distinct.
Sol. :Breeding throughout the year, production 1
Probability of blood group A is .
of large number of offsprings in single mating 2
and easily visible hereditary variations in Therefore, the probability of being first child a
organism are some of the properties which 1 1 1
make it suitable as experimental material in girl with blood group A   
2 2 4
genetics.
117. Answer (3)
113. Answer (1)
Hint : The human female with Turner‟s
Hint : For flower colour, snapdragon plant
syndrome has only one X-chromosome in her
shows incomplete dominance.
cells.

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Sol. : The females inflicted with Turner‟s
syndrome are sterile as ovaries are
rudimentary including lack of other secondary
sexual characters.
118. Answer (2)
Hint : The DNA dependent DNA polymerase
catalyse polymerisation only in one direction
that is 5 3.
Sol. : The replication is continuous on one
template strand with polarity 3 5and is
known as leading daughter strand.
119. Answer (3)
Hint : To maintain the ploidy of the cell, the
replication of DNA and cell division cycle
should be highly coordinated.
Sol. : A failure in cell division after DNA
replication results into polyploidy.
120. Answer (1)
Hint : According to law of independent
assortment, the genes controlling different
characters get assorted independent to each
other.
Sol. : Law of independent assortment is correct
if the genes are present on two different
chromosomes, may also by their segregation
through crossing over if they are present on the
same chromosome.
121. Answer (2)
Hint : RNA transcription starts from 3 end of
the template strand of the transcription unit.
Sol. : Promoter sequences are present towards
5 end of the structural gene, i. e., with respect
to the polarity of coding strand.
122. Answer (4)
Hint : If we switch the position of promoter with
terminator in the transcription unit, the template
strand becomes coding strand and the coding
strand becomes template strand.
Sol. : By switching the positions of promoter
with terminator, the template strand will be
5-G C C T A T A G G T T A-3 template strand
 Hint : Amino acid gets attached to the 3 end of
3-C G G A U A U C C A A U-5- mRNA
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123. Answer (1)
Hint : Brown body, red eyes and normal wings
are the wild type traits in Drosophila.
Sol. : In an experiment conducted by Morgan
red eyed and miniature winged and white eyed
and brown bodied Drosophila are recombinant
type.
124. Answer (3)
Hint : Polygenic traits are controlled by two or
more genes.
Sol. : There are 3 pairs of genes may be
involved in controlling the skin colour in human
beings. Therefore it is an example of polygenic
inheritance
125. Answer (4)
Hint : Transcription is copying genetic
information from one strand of the DNA into
RNA.
Sol. : The DNA sequence coding for tRNA or
rRNA molecules also define a gene.
126. Answer (1)
Hint : rRNAs synthesised in eukaryotes are 5S,
5.8S, 18S and 28S.
Sol. : RNA polymerase I – 5.8S, 18S, and 28S
rRNAs
RNA polymerase II – hnRNA
RNA polymerase III – tRNA, ScRNA, 5S rRNA
and SnRNA.
127. Answer (2)
Hint : Male honey bees have only one set of
chromosomes.
Sol. : Unfertilized egg of honey bee develops
into male bee.
128. Answer (1)
Hint : ZW-ZZ type of sex determination is
found in birds.
Sol. : Hens are heterogametic and thus they
produce two types of eggs, i.e., (A + Z) and
(A + W). Therefore, females are responsible to
determine the sex of the chicks.
129. Answer (4)
tRNA.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
Sol. : At the 3 end of tRNA, unpaired –CCA
sequence is present. Amino acid gets attached
at this end only.
130. Answer (3)
Hint : In lac operon, operator gene interacts
with a protein molecule or regulator molecule,
which prevents the transcription of structural
genes.
Sol. :
Operator gene – Interacts with regulator
molecule
Promoter gene – Provides attachment site for
RNA polymerase
Structural gene – Transcribe mRNA
polypeptide synthesis
Regulator gene – Controls the activity
operator gene
131. Answer (2)
Hint : Haemophilia is X-linked recessive trait.
Sol. :
132. Answer (1)
Hint : Individuals inflicted with Klinefelter‟s
syndrome are sterile males with overall
masculine development and some female
characteristics.
Sol. : Klinefelter‟s syndrome is caused due
to chromosome complement 44 + XXY. This
results by the union of an abnormal egg
(22 + XX) and a normal sperm (22 + Y) or normal
egg (22 + X) and abnormal sperm (22 + XY).
133. Answer (2)
Hint : Minisatellites are VNTRs.
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Sol. : VNTRs show very high degree of
polymorphism. The size of VNTR varies from
0.1 to 20 kb.
134. Answer (3)
Hint : In phenylketonuria, accumulation of
phenylpyruvic acid and other derivatives of
phenylalanine occur in brain.
Sol. :Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
recessive trait while Down‟s syndrome
develops due to aneuploidy. Mental retardation
occurs in both the disorders.
135. Answer (4)
Hint : Sex-linked traits include X-linked traits.
for
Sol. : Haemophilia and colour blindness are
sex linked disorders.
of
Thalassemia, sickle-cell anaemia and myotonic
distrophy are autosomal disorders.
Turner‟s syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
136. Answer (2)
Hint : Sterilisation procedure is the terminal
method of family planning.
Sol. : Saheli is a non-steroidal contraceptive
drug.
Condoms are used to prevent the meeting of
egg and sperm. They also provide protection
against STIs.
Cu7 is copper releasing IUD which suppresses
sperm motility and fertilising capacity of
sperms.
137. Answer (3)
Hint : Teenagers are more vulnerable to STIs.
Sol. : Persons with 15-24 years of age group
are more vulnerable to STIs.
138. Answer (2)
Hint : The average failure rate of natural
methods of contraception is 20-30%.
Sol. :
Contraceptive method Average failure
rate
Rhythm (natural) method – 20-30%
Oral contraceptives – 2-3%
Barrier methods – 10-15%
Coitus interruptus – 20%
 Test - 2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
139. Answer (4)
Hint : Syphilis is a STI caused by bacterium
Treponema pallidum.
Sol. :
STI Causative agent
Genital herpes Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Gonorrhoea Neisseria gonorrhoeae
AIDS HIV
140. Answer (4)
Hint : IUI is Intra uterine insemination.
Sol. : ICSI = Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
In ICSI, the partner‟s sperm is placed inside the
egg with a microscopic needle.
141. Answer (1)
Hint. : The population growth rate was
20/1000/year.
Sol. : According to the 2011 census report, the
population growth rate was less than 2%, while
it was around 1.7% as per 2001 census.
142. Answer (2)
Hint : During lactation period, the level of FSH
is low.
Sol. : In actively lactating mothers, the level of
prolactin is high, which suppresses the release
of gonadotrophin i.e. FSH and LH due to
inhibitory effect on GnRH.
143. Answer (3)
Hint : Select an ART.
Sol. : GIFT stands for Gamete intra fallopian
transfer.
144. Answer (2)
Hint : Select the STI caused by bacteria.
Sol. : Except for hepatitis B, genital herpes and
HIV infections, most STIs are completely
curable if detected early and treated properly.
145. Answer (1)
Hint : Technique used to diagnose genetic
disorders in the foetus.
Sol. : Amniocentesis is used to detect genetic
disorders like Down‟s syndrome.
A rapid decrease in MMR and IMR are possible
reasons for population explosion.
Saheli was discovered at CDRI, Lucknow, UP.
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Family planning programmes were initiated in
1951 in India.
146. Answer (1)
Hint : Failure of testes to descend into scrotum.
Sol. : Infertility in a female can occur due to
various reasons such as:
(i) Anovulation
(ii) Oligoovulation
(iii) Inadequate growth of corpus luteum
(iv) Fibroid uterus
(v) Defective vaginal growth etc.
147. Answer (3)
Hint : Shedding of endometrial wall.
Sol. : The possible ill effects of using
contraceptive devices are nausea, abdominal
pain, breakthrough bleeding, irregular
menstrual bleeding or even breast cancer.
148. Answer (2)
Hint : ZIFT is Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer.
Sol. : In GIFT i.e. Gamete Intra Fallopian
Transfer, fertilization of sperm and egg occurs
inside the female body, i.e. in vivo, while in
ZIFT, the fertilization of sperm and egg occurs
in a petridish in a laboratory i.e. in vitro.
149. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify a marsupial.
Sol. : Flying phalanger, marsupial mole and
Tasmanian wolf are Australian marsupials.
150. Answer (3)
Hint : Extra terrestrial origin of life.
Sol. : According to Panspermia, life was
transferred from one planet to other in the form
of small units called spores or seeds or sperms.
According to the theory of Biogenesis, life
arose from some pre-existing life.
According to the theory of Abiogenesis, life
originated from non-living matter.
151. Answer (3)
Hint : Age of Earth is estimated to be 4.5
billion years.
Sol. : The “Big bang theory” attempts to explain
the origin of universe. Origin of Earth occurred
around 4.5 billion years ago.
152. Answer (2)
Hint : Radioactive dating is used to determine
the age of rocks on Earth.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol. : According to the theory of special 158. Answer (4)

creation, given by Father Suarez, Earth is
about 4000 years old.
153. Answer (4)
Hint : This region comprises present day
Indonesia, Philippines and East Timor.
Sol. : Naturalist “Alfred Wallace”, worked in
Malay Archipelago. Like Darwin, he also talked
about the fitness of organisms. He also came to
the similar conclusion that those organisms
which can adapt better in their environment are
selected by nature.
154. Answer (1)
Hint : Its function is to collect the sound waves.
Sol. : Vestigial organs are those organs which
Hint : Animals which live on land.
Sol. : Mesozoic era is the age of reptiles and in
Jurassic period dinosaurs became dominant.
159. Answer (2)
Hint : This horse evolved in Pliocene epoch.
Sol. : Pliohippus had one complete finger and
one complete toe and two splints hidden
beneath the skin, hence was considered to be
the first one toed horse.
160. Answer (4)
Hint : Hardy Weinberg principle.
2 2
Sol. : p + q + 2pq = 1
2
Frequency of MM individual is p = (0.6) =
2

are non-functional in humans for eg. Nictitating 0.36 or 36%

membrane, wisdom tooth, vermiform appendix, 2 2
Frequency of NN individual is q = (0.4) = 0.16
nipples and dense body hair in males etc.
or 16%
155. Answer (2)
Frequency of MN individual is 2pq = 2 × 0.6 ×
Hint : Archaeopteryx is a missing link between
0.4 0.48 or 48%
birds and reptiles.
161. Answer (3)
Sol. : Forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and
human show homology, hence exemplify Hint : Sugar glider and Bandicoot have
divergent evolution. common ancestor.
Sweet potato is modified underground root, Sol. : As they have a common ancestor, they
while potato is modified underground stem. exhibit divergent evolution.
Their origin is different, but function is same i.e. 162. Answer (1)
storage of food. Hint : Coelacanth is called lobe finned fish.
156. Answer (4) Sol. :
Hint : Select the basic amino acid. Neopilina : Connecting link between
Sol. : Lysine is a basic amino acid, with extra annelids and arthropods.
amino group and was not obtained during Chimaera : Connecting link between
Miller‟s initial experiment. cartilaginous and bony fishes.
157. Answer (3) Peripatus : Connecting link between
Hint : Epoch of tertiary period. annelids and arthropods.

Sol. : Latimeria : Connecting link between fishes

(Coelacanth) and amphibians.
Period Epoch Age
163. Answer (3)
(million of years)
Hint : Biogenetic law.
Pliocene 5
Sol. : According to Biogenetic law, Ontogeny
Tertiary Miocene 23
recapitulates Phylogeny.
Oligocene 34
Presence of gills in tadpole of frog indicate that
Eocene 57 frogs have evolved from gilled ancestors i.e.
Paleocene 65 fishes.

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 Test - 2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
164. Answer (4)
Hint : Single step large mutations are
saltations.
Sol. : According to Darwin, variations or
changes are slow, continuous and occur in a
directional manner.
165. Answer (3)
Hint : It is also called genetic drift.
Sol. : Sewall Wright effect/genetic drift is the
change in gene frequency by chance in a small
population.
Gene migration/gene flow : When genes are
exchanged between two different populations
of a species frequently.
Gene pool : The total collection of genes and
their alleles in a population.
166. Answer (3)
Hint : It is also known as diversifying selection.
Sol. : Disruptive selection is observed when
selection does not favour the mean character
value, rather favours both the peripheral
character values.
Directional selection is seen when selection
acts to eliminate one extreme form and
supports the other extreme, the peak shifts in
the direction which is selected by nature.
167. Answer (1)
Hint : Sulphur containing compound.
Sol. : S. L. Miller created electric discharge in a
closed flask containing CH4, H2, NH3 in 2 : 2 : 1
ratio and water vapour at 800°C.
168. Answer (4)
Hint : Neanderthal man.
Sol. : Neanderthal man buried his dead with
flowers, not Dryopithecus.
169. Answer (1)
Hint : Substances released by them inhibit
implantation.
Sol. : Intra uterine device is one of the most
widely accepted method of contraception in
India.
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CuT  Copper releasing IUD
Femidom  Female condom (Barrier method)
Diaphragm  Barrier method.
170. Answer (1)
Hint : Levonorgestrel
Sol. : The hormone releasing IUDs make the
uterus unsuitable for implantation and cervix
hostile to sperms.
171. Answer (4)
Hint : Cro-Magnon man.
Sol. : The cranial capacity of Homo sapiens
fossilis i.e. Cro-Magnon is 1650 cc.
172. Answer (2)
Hint : Lamarck‟s theory is also known as theory
of use and disuse of organs.
Sol. : It is based upon the inheritance of
acquired characters, hence Lamarck‟s theory is
often called theory of inheritance of acquired
characters.
173. Answer (4)
Hint : 1000 million years form a billion.
Sol. : Origin of Earth occurred 4.5 billion years
ago. Coacervates as the model of protocells
were presented by Oparin. Oparin and Haldane
gave the theory of chemical evolution of life.
174. Answer (2)
Hint : Darwin gave the theory of Natural
Selection.
Sol. : The phrase “Survival of fittest” was first
used by Herbert Spencer. The same context
was asserted by Darwin as “Natural selection”.
175. Answer (4)
Hint : Brachiosaurus had long neck and long
tail.
Sol. : Statement B is incorrect because
Stegosaurus had big kite like plates on its back
for protection.
176. Answer (3)
Hint : Saltations occur suddenly.
Sol. : According to mutation theory, mutations
are large, discontinuous changes and can
appear suddenly in any direction.
17/18
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

177. Answer (1) Sol. : Mechanical isolation : The structural

Hint : Chlorophyte ancestors were the aquatic differences in genitalia of individuals belonging
green algae that possibly gave rise to all green to different animal species interfere with
plants. mating.
Sol. :
179. Answer (4)

Hint : Biogeographical evidence.

Sol. : Restriction distribution of pouched

mammals in Australia support biogeographical
evidences, while remaining options support
embryological evidences.

180. Answer (2)

Hint : Artificial selection.

Sol. : Artificial selection is the selective

breeding of plants and animals for desired traits
by humans.

178. Answer (1) e.g  Evolution of wild mustard

Hint : Hybrid inviability and hybrid breakdown
 Variation among breeds of domestic
are post zygotic mechanisms of reproductive
pigeon.
isolation.



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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test – 2 (Code-B)_(Answers)

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

TEST - 2 - Code-A
Test Date : 15/09/2019

ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (3) 73. (1) 109. (3) 145. (4)
2. (2) 38. (2) 74. (2) 110. (2) 146. (1)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (2) 111. (4) 147. (1)
4. (2) 40. (1) 76. (4) 112. (1) 148. (4)
5. (1) 41. (3) 77. (1) 113. (1) 149. (1)
6. (4) 42. (1) 78. (1) 114. (4) 150. (3)
7. (3) 43. (2) 79. (3) 115. (4) 151. (3)
8. (2) 44. (1) 80. (1) 116. (3) 152. (4)
9. (2) 45. (4) 81. (2) 117. (1) 153. (3)
10. (4) 46. (4) 82. (2) 118. (2) 154. (1)
11. (1) 47. (4) 83. (1) 119. (4) 155. (3)
12. (3) 48. (2) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (4)
13. (1) 49. (4) 85. (3) 121. (1) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (3) 86. (4) 122. (2) 158. (4)
15. (2) 51. (3) 87. (2) 123. (1) 159. (3)
16. (4) 52. (2) 88. (4) 124. (3) 160. (4)
17. (2) 53. (1) 89. (1) 125. (4) 161. (2)
18. (2) 54. (2) 90. (2) 126. (4) 162. (1)
19. (2) 55. (1) 91. (4) 127. (1) 163. (4)
20. (3) 56. (2) 92. (3) 128. (2) 164. (2)
21. (4) 57. (3) 93. (2) 129. (3) 165. (3)
22. (3) 58. (2) 94. (1) 130. (3) 166. (3)
23. (4) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (2) 167. (1)
24. (2) 60. (3) 96. (3) 132. (1) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (3) 97. (4) 133. (3) 169. (3)
26. (4) 62. (1) 98. (1) 134. (4) 170. (1)
27. (2) 63. (1) 99. (2) 135. (2) 171. (1)
28. (2) 64. (2) 100. (1) 136. (2) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (1) 101. (4) 137. (4) 173. (3)
30. (1) 66. (4) 102. (3) 138. (1) 174. (2)
31. (4) 67. (4) 103. (1) 139. (1) 175. (1)
32. (3) 68. (4) 104. (4) 140. (3) 176. (4)
33. (1) 69. (1) 105. (2) 141. (4) 177. (4)
34. (1) 70. (4) 106. (1) 142. (2) 178. (2)
35. (2) 71. (3) 107. (3) 143. (4) 179. (3)
36. (1) 72. (3) 108. (2) 144. (2) 180. (2)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

   
PHYSICS   2  3  sin  3  cos 
 2 2 2
1. Answer (1)
  6 V
  dB
 .d   A dt
Hint : Use   6V
Sol. : B = 40 t 5. Answer (1)
  
E.2r  r 2.
dB
dt

Hint :   v  B .I 
r dB
E
2 dt
2  10–2 Sol. :
  40
2
= 0.4 N/C
2. Answer (2) AC  2  4  3
  24 V
Hint : Use e  Blv and i 
Req.
CB  4  2  4

 32 V
Sol. :
AB   AC  CB  56 V
6. Answer (4)
1  Blv1  1 0.1 4  0.4 V   
Hint : Use M  and    B.dA
i
2  Blv 2  1 0.1 5
a b
 0.5 V 0 i
Sol. : Since B   B  cdr   cdr
2r
eq 1 2 a
 
req r1 r2 0ic ab
 In r
2 a
0.4 0.5
eq    0.45 V 0ic  a  b 
2 2 
2  a 
In
0.45
i  0.045 V
9 1  0 c  b
M  In  1  
i  45 mA i 2  a

3. Answer (2) 7. Answer (3)

Hint and Sol. : Among the given options, 1 d
Hint : i 
Nickel has minimum Curie temperature (631 K). R dt

 
4. Answer (2) 1 d
Sol. : i   3t 2  8t  2
di 10 dt t 0.5
Hint :   L
dt
1
d   6t  8  t 0.5
Sol. :   L  3t sin t  10
dt
5
  L  3sin t  3t cos t    0.5 A
10

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8. Answer (2) = 400 – 4 × 96 = 16

L1 – L2 = 4 mH
Hint : Use KVL and eL  L di
dt Hence, L1 = 12 mH and L2 = 8 mH
–3 4
Sol. : VP – 4 × 4 – 10 – 5 × 10 × 10 – VQ = 0 12. Answer (3)
VP – VQ = 76 V T
E2 d
Hint : Use H   dt and E 
9. Answer (2) R dt
0

Sol. :   2t T  t 
di
Hint : e  L
dt
d
T Induced emf E   2 T  2t 
Sol. : For time 0 to , i t dt
3
4 T  2t 
T T 2
E2
Hence,
di
  c e = – constant H dt   dt
dt 0
R 0
R

T 2T 4 T3
For time t  , i = constant
3 3 R 3
i.e. e = 0 4T 3
H
2T 3R
For time  t  T , i   a  bt 
3 13. Answer (1)
i.e. e = + constant dA
B
Hint : i  dt
10. Answer (4) R
 Sol. :    l  vt  bB
t 
Hint : Use i  i0  1  e  
 
   d

E L dt
Sol. : i0  and  
R R
    
t
q   idt   i0  1  e   dt
 
0 0  

i0 

e
  vbB
E L
.
vbB
 R R i
e R
EL
q
eR 2
11. Answer (1)
L1L2
Hint : Use LP  and LS  L1  L2
L1  L2
14. Answer (4)
LL  
Sol. : LP  1 2  L1L2  4.8  20  96  Hint : Use B  B.S
LS
 
2
(L1 – L2) = (L1 + L2) – 4L1L2
2   
Sol. : B  B.S  2iˆ  4 ˆj . 1kˆ  0

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

15. Answer (2) 10 1


tan  2 r
Hint : Use tan  
cos  r = 0.2 m
tan  18. Answer (2)
Sol. : tan  
cos      
Hint : Use   M  B and U  M.B
tan  tan 
Then, tan    Sol. : W  MB  cos 1  cos 2 
cos  90    sin 

 sin2   cos2   1  3
5  MB  1  
 5
tan2  tan2 
 1 5 5
tan2  tan2  MB 
2
1 1 1
  5 5 4
tan2  tan2  tan2  Now   MB sin    2 5 Nm
2 5
cot 2   cot 2   cot 2 
19. Answer (2)
16. Answer (4)
l
 2M Hint : Use T  2
Hint : Use Baxial  0 3 MBH
4 r
Sol. : Since Meq  M 2 60 l
Sol. :  2
30 MBe1 cos30
Now point P will be on axial position
0 2Meq 60 l
Hence Baxial   2
4 r 3 20 MBe1 cos60
0 2 2M
Baxial  2 Be2 cos60
4 x03 
3 Be1 cos30
17. Answer (2)
0 M 4 Be2 1
Hint : Use B  
4 r 3 9 Be1 3

Be1 9 3 3
 
Be2 4 3 4

Sol. : 20. Answer (3)

Bv
Hint : Use BH  BH cos  and tan  
BH

BM  BH tan 
Sol. : tan  
cos 
0 M

4 r 3 3
tan37 4 3
2.40   
3  105  107  cos 60 1 2
r3 2
1000 1 3
 3   tan1  
8 r 2

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21. Answer (4) 0 i 1

Sol. : B  , where a  and n  1
B 2a 2
Hint : Use m   r  1 and  
H 0 i 0 i
B 
 B 2.l  I 
Sol. : r  
0 0 H 2   

B 0 .  3i  1
m  1 B  , where a 
0H 2.a 3.  2 
22. Answer (3) 0 .3i  i
Hint and Sol. : Since diamagnetic substances  9 0
2.l l 
are weakly repelled by the field so if they are to 6 
 
move, they tend to move away from stronger
field. B  9B
23. Answer (4) 28. Answer (2)
Hint : Use BH = Becos 0ia2
Hint : Baxis, Ring  3

 
Be 1
Sol. :   sec  2 x 2  a2 2
BH cos 
24. Answer (2)
Hint : Use vector addition rule.
Sol. :
Sol. : Mnet  M 2  M 2  2M 2 cos60

 3M 2  M 3 0 ia2
25. Answer (1) 3
 
  q v  r  BP


2 x 2  a2  2

Hint : B  0 0 i
4 r 3 BC
2a
1 a3
 3

 
27
Sol. : x 2  a2 2

  qv sin90
x 2
 a2  2  3a
B 0
4 r2
kˆ   2
x + a = 9a
2 2

2 2
x = 8a
107  2  109  2  106
 x  2 2a
4

B  10 10
 
kˆ T 29. Answer (2)
   
Hint : Use   M  B and M  NI A 
26. Answer (4) 
Hint and Sol. : The current i is divided equally Sol. : M  ia2 kˆ  
in both branches, hence at the centre the 
magnetic field due to both branch is equal and B  B0 cos 45 iˆ  B0 sin45  jˆ   
opposite. Hence Bnet at centre of loop is zero.
   B0ia2 ˆ ˆ
27. Answer (2)   M B 
2
j i  
0ni
Hint : Bloop, centre 
2a

  B0a2 iˆ  jˆ  
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

 y
 
30. Answer (1)
 Sol. : B  B0  1   kˆ
M  
q
Hint : Use    Now for line AD
L 2m

q mr 2 qr 2
 0
 l
 
F 1  iB0  1     jˆ  iB0jˆ
Sol. : M  . 
2m 4 4 For line BC
4  10 6
 10 2
2   
M  2  108 Am2  F 2  iB0  1   jˆ  2iB0jˆ
4  
31. Answer (4) The forces due to line AB and CD are equal
Hint and Sol. : and opposite. Hence net force will be
  
 C  Fnet  F2  F1   iB0  iB0  jˆ  iB0jˆ
I  
 NBA  
Fnet  iB0jˆ
i   35. Answer (2)
  
32. Answer (3)

Hint : F  q v 0  B0 
mv
Hint : Use r  Sol. : Arc length AB = distance travelled in
qB
magnetic field.
mv 2mqV
Sol. : r  
qB qB

m
r
q

r  2rp

 r2  r1 2  10 2 cm 

33. Answer (1)  3 T
Time t =  
Hint : Use Biot-Savart‟s law.  2 6
T
m

Sol. : 3qB0
36. Answer (1)
  
B
0 l 


Hint : F m  i eff  B 
2a 2 Sol. : i = 1 A
3 
 B  2kˆ
2 2
y = 4x
0 l 3 y 2
B 
2a 2  2 
eff  4 ˆj
30l
B 
8a 
F m  1 4 jˆ  2kˆ 
34. Answer (1)
   
 8 ˆj  kˆ 
Hint : F m  i dL  B 
 8iˆ

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
37. Answer (3)
  
Sol. : Fm  1 106  106  iˆ  2 ˆj  2 ˆj 

Hint : Use Biot-Savart‟s law
Sol. : B0 = B1 + B2  
 2kˆ N

0 i  i 42. Answer (1)

  0 .
4a 4a Hint : Two current carrying wires exert a force
0 i  i  on each other.
B0   0 
4a 4a 2 Sol. : The net magnetic force on loop is
0 i 0 i repulsive. Hence loop will move away from the
  wire.
4a 8a
43. Answer (2)
0 i   
 . 1 
4a  2  0 i
Hint and Sol. : Blong wire 
2r
38. Answer (2)
44. Answer (1)
S
Hint : Sv  l Hint : Application of Biot-Savart‟s law.
R
   NBA Sol. :
Sol. : Current sensitivity   
I  

   NBA
Voltage sensitivity   
V  R

   NBA
V  0 i
   R  1 B0   sin   sin 
4d
   NBA R
I  
  3  0 .3 3
Bnet  3B0   sin60  sin60 
3
39. Answer (3) 4  
2
Hint : Use Ampere‟s circuital law.
  = 1.8  106 T
 a B.dl  0  2l  l   0l
Sol. : 
45. Answer (4)
    
 b B.dl  0.2l 
Hint : F m  q v  B 
 
 c B.dl  0  2l  2l   0 Sol. : As magnetic force is normal to velocity of
  charged particle. Hence kinetic energy of
 d B.dl  0  6l  2l   0 4l particle remains constant but momentum
changes.
Hence d, b, a, c
40. Answer (1) CHEMISTRY
Hint : Magnetic field due to long current
46. Answer (4)
carrying wire.
Hint : H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te : Bond angle
Sol. : At any points on line y = x the point will
be equidistant from both wires and magnetic Sol. :
fields are in opposite direction.  H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S : (Melting point
41. Answer (3) and boiling point)
  

Hint : Fm  q v  B  H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O : (Dissociation
constant)
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47. Answer (4) Sol. : XeF6 + H2O  XeOF4 + 2HF

XeOF4 + H2O  XeO2F2 + 2HF

Hint : CIF3 is a colourless gas XeO2F2 + H2O  XeO3 + 2HF

55. Answer (1)
Hint : Xe made similar type of compound as
Sol. : CIF3 : Bent-T-shaped prepared by O2 with PtF6.
ClF3 + 2H2O  HClO2 + 3HF Sol. :
48. Answer (2) Species O2 Xe N2 I F
Hint : Monoclinic sulphur is -sulphur.
Ionization energy 1175 1170 1503 1008 1680
Sol. : Monoclinic sulphur has m.p. 393 K and (in kJ/mol)
m.p. of rhombic sulphur is 385.8 K.
56. Answer (2)
49. Answer (4)
Hint : Au dissolves in aqua regia (HCl + HNO3)
Hint : HBrO2 is least likely to exist among the
– – –
Sol. : Au + 4H + NO3 + 4Cl  AuCl4 + NO
+
given compounds
50. Answer (3) + 2H2O
Hint : Minimum and maximum covalency of 57. Answer (3)
halogen is 1 and 7 respectively. Hint : Due to H-bonding present in „HF‟, it has
Sol. : XX′ : Minimum halogen atoms = 2 highest boiling point among the hydrides of
XX′7 : Maximum halogen atoms = 8 group 17 elements.
51. Answer (3) Sol. : HF > HI > HBr > HCl (Boiling point).
Hint : PH3 is slightly soluble in water. 58. Answer (2)
Sol. : The solution of PH3 in water decomposes Hint : linkage is known as peroxy
in light and gives red phosphorus and H2(g). linkage.
52. Answer (2) Sol. :
Hint : Due to presence of two P – H bonds,
H3PO2 is a strong reducing agent.
Sol. : 4AgNO3 + 2H2O + H3PO2  4Ag + 4HNO3
+ H3PO4
53. Answer (1)
Hint : Phosphinic acid : H3PO2
Phosphonic acid : H3PO3
Sol. :

59. Answer (2)

Hint :
54. Answer (2)
Hint : XeF6 on partial hydrolysis forms XeO2F2
and XeOF4.

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Number of S – S bonds is 8 AIN + 3H2O Al(OH)3 + NH3

60. Answer (3)
2Al  OH3 

 Al2O3  3H2O
Hint : PCl5  4H2O  H3PO4  5HCl
69. Answer (1)
61. Answer (3) Hint : In liquation impurities of high melting
Hint : PH3 becomes inflammable due to points are removed from metal.
presence of impurity of P2H4 or P4 vapours. Sol. : Refining is based on difference in melting
62. Answer (1) points of metal and impurities.
Hint : Laboratory grade nitric acid contains 70. Answer (4)
~ 68% HNO3 by mass. Hint : Cast iron has impurity of carbon, sulphur,
63. Answer (1) silicon and phosphorus.
Hint : NO2 and N2O5 are acidic oxides. Sol. : Impurities present in cast iron are
Sol. : NO and N2O are neutral oxides oxidised by haematite (oxidizing agent).
NO is paramagnetic Fe2O3  3C  2Fe  3CO
N2O is diamagnetic 71. Answer (3)
64. Answer (2) Hint : After roasting of copper pyrites, copper is
obtained in the form of copper matte.
Hint : NH4 2 Cr2O7 

N2  Cr2O3  4H2O
Sol. : Copper matte : (Cu2S and FeS)
Sol. : • 2NaN3  3N2  g  2Na

72. Answer (3)
Hint : In metallurgy of Ag and Au, complexes
• NH4Cl  aq.  NaNO2 aq.  NH4NO2 aq. – –
formed are [Ag(CN)2] , [Au(CN)2] and
NaCl  aq.
2–
[Zn(CN)4]
73. Answer (1)
• 2NH4Cl  Ca  OH2  2NH3  g  2H2O  CaCl2
Hint : van Arkel process is used for refining of
65. Answer (1) Ti, Zr, etc.
Hint : More the electron density on central 74. Answer (2)
atom, more will be the basic nature. Hint : Poling process is used to refine Cu and
Sol. : NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3 Sn containing impurities of their metal oxides.
(Basicity order) 75. Answer (2)
66. Answer (4) Hint : Iron has impurity of SiO2 which combines
Hint : with CaO and forms slag of CaSiO3.
Element N P As Bi 76. Answer (4)
3 Hint : Mg with BaO2 is used as ignition mixture
Density (g/cm ) 0.879 1.823 5.778 9.808
in Goldschmidt alumino thermite process.
67. Answer (4) 77. Answer (1)
Hint : CuFeS2 has impurity of FeS, which is Hint : Leaching of bauxite ore is done by
converted into FeSiO3 as slag. Baeyer‟s process using NaOH as solvent.
Sol. : Froth floatation process is generally used 78. Answer (1)
for the concentration of sulphide ores.
Hint : Copper glance : Cu2S
68. Answer (4)
Sol. : Zincite : ZnO
Hint : Concentration of white bauxite is done by
Malachite : CuCO3Cu(OH)2
Serpeck‟s method in the presence of coke and
Copper pyrites : CuFeS2
N2(g)
Sol. : 79. Answer (3)
Al2O3 . 2H2O + N2 + 3C  2AIN + 3CO + 2H2O Hint : Foam : Gas dispersed in liquid.
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Sol. : Cell fluids is an example of sol. Hint : Increase in surface area, increases the
rate of adsorption of gases on solid surface.
80. Answer (1)
90. Answer (2)
Hint : As2S3 sol is formed by double
decomposition method. Hint : Physisorption involves weak van der
Double
Waals forces so reversible in nature.
As2O3  3H2S 
decomposition
 As2S3  sol   3H2O
BIOLOGY
81. Answer (2)
91. Answer (4)
Hint : Coagulation and electrophoresis depend
on charge present on colloids. Hint : Sex-linked traits include X-linked traits.
Sol. : Tyndall effect depends on the size of Sol. : Haemophilia and colour blindness are
colloidal particles. sex linked disorders.
82. Answer (2) Thalassemia, sickle-cell anaemia and myotonic
Hint : Emulsions show Tyndall effect. distrophy are autosomal disorders.
Turner‟s syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
83. Answer (1)
92. Answer (3)
Hint : Electrolyte of highest coagulating power
has lowest flocculating value. Hint : In phenylketonuria, accumulation of
phenylpyruvic acid and other derivatives of
Sol. : Fe(OH)3 is a positively charged sol and phenylalanine occur in brain.
for its coagulation, order of flocculating value of
given electrolytes is KCl > K2SO4 > K3[Fe(CN)6] Sol. : Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
recessive trait while Down‟s syndrome
84. Answer (3) develops due to aneuploidy. Mental retardation
Hint : Size of colloidal particles ranges from occurs in both the disorders.
1 nm to 1000 nm (or 10 Å to 10000 Å).
93. Answer (2)
85. Answer (3)
Hint : Minisatellites are VNTRs.
Hint : Peptization is the method used for the
Sol. : VNTRs show very high degree of
preparation of colloids.
polymorphism. The size of VNTR varies from
86. Answer (4) 0.1 to 20 kb.
Hint : Au, gelatin and Sb2S3 sols are negatively 94. Answer (1)
charged sols.
Hint : Individuals inflicted with Klinefelter‟s
87. Answer (2) syndrome are sterile males with overall
Hint : If reactants and catalyst are in same masculine development and some female
phase then process is known as homogenous characteristics.
catalysis. Sol. : Klinefelter‟s syndrome is caused due to
88. Answer (4) chromosome complement 44 + XXY. This
results by the union of an abnormal egg
Hint : Gases having high critical temperature (22 + XX) and a normal sperm (22 + Y) or
will easily liquify and more easily adsorb. normal egg (22 + X) and abnormal sperm (22 +
Sol. : Tc : NH3 > CO2 > CH4 > H2 XY).

89. Answer (1) 95. Answer (2)

Hint : Haemophilia is X-linked recessive trait.

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Sol. : Sol. : Unfertilized egg of honey bee develops

into male bee.
100. Answer (1)
Hint : rRNAs synthesised in eukaryotes are 5S,
5.8S, 18S and 28S.
Sol. : RNA polymerase I – 5.8S, 18S, and 28S
rRNAs
RNA polymerase II – hnRNA
RNA polymerase III – tRNA, ScRNA, 5S rRNA
and SnRNA.
101. Answer (4)
Hint : Transcription is copying genetic
information from one strand of the DNA into
RNA.
96. Answer (3)
Sol. : The DNA sequence coding for tRNA or
Hint : In lac operon, operator gene interacts rRNA molecules also define a gene.
with a protein molecule or regulator molecule,
102. Answer (3)
which prevents the transcription of structural
genes. Hint : Polygenic traits are controlled by two or
more genes.
Sol. :
Sol. : There are 3 pairs of genes may be
Operator gene – Interacts with regulator
involved in controlling the skin colour in human
molecule
beings. Therefore it is an example of polygenic
Promoter gene – Provides attachment site for inheritance
RNA polymerase
103. Answer (1)
Structural gene – Transcribe mRNA for
Hint : Brown body, red eyes and normal wings
polypeptide synthesis
are the wild type traits in Drosophila.
Regulator gene – Controls the activity of
Sol. : In an experiment conducted by Morgan
operator gene
red eyed and miniature winged and white eyed
97. Answer (4) and brown bodied Drosophila are recombinant
Hint : Amino acid gets attached to the 3 end of type.
tRNA. 104. Answer (4)
Sol. : At the 3 end of tRNA, unpaired –CCA Hint : If we switch the position of promoter with
sequence is present. Amino acid gets attached terminator in the transcription unit, the template
at this end only. strand becomes coding strand and the coding
98. Answer (1) strand becomes template strand.
Hint : ZW-ZZ type of sex determination is Sol. : By switching the positions of promoter
found in birds. with terminator, the template strand will be
Sol. : Hens are heterogametic and thus they 5-G C C T A T A G G T T A-3 template strand
produce two types of eggs, i.e., (A + Z) and

(A + W). Therefore, females are responsible to
determine the sex of the chicks. 3-C G G A U A U C C A A U-5- mRNA

99. Answer (2) 105. Answer (2)

Hint : Male honey bees have only one set of Hint : RNA transcription starts from 3 end of
chromosomes. the template strand of the transcription unit.

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Sol. : Promoter sequences are present towards 1

Probability of blood group A is .
5 end of the structural gene, i. e., with respect 2
to the polarity of coding strand. Therefore, the probability of being first child a
106. Answer (1) 1 1 1
girl with blood group A   
Hint : According to law of independent 2 2 4
assortment, the genes controlling different 111. Answer (4)
characters get assorted independent to each 6
Hint : DNA of E. coli has 4.6 × 10 bp.
other.
Sol. : Law of independent assortment is correct Sol. : The rate of polymerisation in E. coli
if the genes are present on two different 4.6  106
will be bp/second
chromosomes, may also by their segregation 38  60
through crossing over if they are present on the = 2000 bp/second
same chromosome.
112. Answer (1)
107. Answer (3)
Sol. : On the template strand of DNA with
Hint : To maintain the ploidy of the cell, the
polarity 5 3 DNA synthesis is discontinuous
replication of DNA and cell division cycle
in the form of Okazaki fragments. These
should be highly coordinated.
fragments are joined by the enzyme DNA
Sol. : A failure in cell division after DNA
ligase.
replication results into polyploidy.
113. Answer (1)
108. Answer (2)
Hint : For flower colour, snapdragon plant
Hint : The DNA dependent DNA polymerase
shows incomplete dominance.
catalyse polymerisation only in one direction
that is 5 3. Sol. :
Sol. : The replication is continuous on one
template strand with polarity 3 5and is
known as leading daughter strand.
109. Answer (3)
Hint : The human female with Turner‟s
syndrome has only one X-chromosome in her
cells.
Sol. : The females inflicted with Turner‟s
syndrome are sterile as ovaries are
rudimentary including lack of other secondary  Out of eight individuals, two produce white
sexual characters. flowers, i.e., 25%
110. Answer (2) 114. Answer (4)
Hint : The probability of beings first child a girl Hint : For being suitable experimental material
1 in genetics, the specimen should have smaller
is .
2 number of chromosomes which should be
morphologically distinct.
Sol. :
Sol. :Breeding throughout the year, production
of large number of offsprings in single mating
and easily visible hereditary variations in
organism are some of the properties which
make it suitable as experimental material in
genetics.

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115. Answer (4) Total number of : Total number of

Hint : Two terminal phosphates in a genotypes phenotypes
deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates are high
= 6 : 4
energy phosphates.
= 3 : 2
Sol. : In addition to acting as substrate
deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates also provide 122. Answer (2)
energy for polymerisation. Hint : The phenotype is effected if the
116. Answer (3) responsible allele produces non-functional
Hint : Sulphur is present in proteins whereas enzyme or no enzyme.
phosphorus is present in genetic materials. Sol. : If the modified allele produces normal or
Sol. : Only genetic material of bacteriophage less efficient enzyme then it is said to be
enters the bacteria and the protein coat of the equivalent to the unmodified allele.
virus is synthesised inside the bacteria will not 123. Answer (1)
contain radioactive sulphur. But the genetic Hint : Some viruses produce an enzyme
material of bacteriophage formed inside the reverse transcriptase which can synthesize
bacteria will have radioactive phosphorus. DNA over RNA template.
117. Answer (1) Sol. :
Hint : True breeding lines show homozygous
condition for the characters
Sol. : In Mendel‟s dihybrid cross, the true
breeding lines in F2 generation are RRYY,
RRyy, rrYY and rryy. 124. Answer (3)
118. Answer (2) Hint : In dsDNA, purines of one strand are
Hint : A single gene product can produce more paired with pyrimidines of corresponding strand
than one effect when there is interrelationship by formation of hydrogen bonds.
between the metabolic pathways that contribute Sol. : Adenine forms two H-bonds with thymine
towards different phenotypes. and guanine is bonded with cytosine with three
Sol. : In pleiotropy, a single gene product may H-bonds.
produce more than one effect or control several 125. Answer (4)
phenotypes depending on its position.
Hint : In viruses, the genetic material is either
119. Answer (4) DNA or RNA.
Hint : S-strain of Pneumococcus is virulent and Sol. : 5-methyl uracil is another name of
cause pneumonia. thymine. RNA lacks thymine and DNA lacks
Sol. : In the experiment conducted by Griffith, uracil.
the R-strain bacteria had been transformed by 126. Answer (4)
the heat killed S-strain bacteria.
Hint : In heterozygous condition for the genes
120. Answer (3)
which show incomplete dominance, the
Sol. : The negatively charged DNA is wrapped intermediate phenotype is produced.
around the positively charged histone octamer
Sol.: Test cross is done to know the genotype
to form a structure called nucleosome.
of individual that shows dominant phenotype of
121. Answer (1) the trait which follows Law of Dominance.
Hint : Regarding ABO blood groups, total 127. Answer (1)
number of genotypes in human is six.
Hint : A tall pea plant may be homozygous
Sol. : Regarding ABO blood types in human
dominant or heterozygous for alleles
beings
responsible for stem height.

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Sol. :
128. Answer (2)
Hint : In a nucleotide, a phosphate group is
linked to OH of 5C of nucleoside.
Sol. : When a phosphate group is linked to OH
of 5C of a nucleoside through phosphoester
linkage, a corresponding nucleotide is formed.
129. Answer (3)
Hint : On the basis of X-ray diffraction pictures
of DNA, the earlier scientists suggested that
DNA was sort of helix with 3.4 Å periodicity.
Sol. : On the basis of X-ray diffraction pictures
of DNA, the Watson and Crick proposed a very
simple but famous double helix model for the
structure of DNA.
130. Answer (3)
Sol. : Punnett square was developed by a
British geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.
131. Answer (2)
Hint : Yellow seed colour, violet flower colour
and inflated pod shape are the dominant traits
in pea plant
Sol. : Only solitary flowers are present in pea
plant.
132. Answer (1)
Hint : The length of DNA in viruses is much
smaller than that of prokaryotes and
eukaryotes.
Sol. :  × 174 bacteriophage – 5386
nucleotides Bacteriophage lambda – 48502 bp
6
E. coli – 4.6 × 10 bp
Human genome – 3.3 × 10 bp
9 mating.
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133. Answer (3)
Hint : All prokaryotes and eukaryotes have
both RNA and DNA.
Sol. : Some viruses do not have DNA so in
these viruses, RNA acts as genetic material.
134. Answer (4)
Hint : Recessive phenotypes appear only in
homozygous condition.
Sol. : Terminal position of flowers and wrinkled
seed shape in pea plant are recessive traits.
So, they appear phenotypically only in
homozygous condition.
135. Answer (2)
Hint : Recombination of genetic material
occurs in sexual reproduction.
Sol. : Reproduction through leaf buds is a type
of vegetative reproduction. In such type of
reproduction, there is neither meiosis nor fusion
of gametes and thus least or no genetic
variation will occur in the next generations.
136. Answer (2)
Hint : Artificial selection.
Sol. : Artificial selection is the selective
breeding of plants and animals for desired traits
by humans.
e.g  Evolution of wild mustard
  Variation among breeds of domestic
pigeon.
137. Answer (4)
Hint : Biogeographical evidence.
Sol. : Restriction distribution of pouched
mammals in Australia support biogeographical
evidences, while remaining options support
embryological evidences.
138. Answer (1)
Hint : Hybrid inviability and hybrid breakdown
are post zygotic mechanisms of reproductive
isolation.
Sol. : Mechanical isolation : The structural
differences in genitalia of individuals belonging
to different animal species interfere with
 Test - 2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)
139. Answer (1)
Hint : Chlorophyte ancestors were the aquatic
green algae that possibly gave rise to all green
plants.
Sol. :
140. Answer (3)
Hint : Saltations occur suddenly.
Sol. : According to mutation theory, mutations
are large, discontinuous changes and can
appear suddenly in any direction.
141. Answer (4)
Hint : Brachiosaurus had long neck and long
tail.
Sol. : Statement B is incorrect because
Stegosaurus had big kite like plates on its back
for protection.
142. Answer (2)
Hint : Darwin gave the theory of Natural
Selection.
Sol. : The phrase “Survival of fittest” was first
used by Herbert Spencer. The same context
was asserted by Darwin as “Natural selection”.
143. Answer (4)
Hint : 1000 million years form a billion.
Sol. : Origin of Earth occurred 4.5 billion years
ago. Coacervates as the model of protocells
were presented by Oparin. Oparin and Haldane
gave the theory of chemical evolution of life.
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144. Answer (2)
Hint : Lamarck‟s theory is also known as theory
of use and disuse of organs.
Sol. : It is based upon the inheritance of
acquired characters, hence Lamarck‟s theory is
often called theory of inheritance of acquired
characters.
145. Answer (4)
Hint : Cro-Magnon man.
Sol. : The cranial capacity of Homo sapiens
fossilis i.e. Cro-Magnon is 1650 cc.
146. Answer (1)
Hint : Levonorgestrel
Sol. : The hormone releasing IUDs make the
uterus unsuitable for implantation and cervix
hostile to sperms.
147. Answer (1)
Hint : Substances released by them inhibit
implantation.
Sol. : Intra uterine device is one of the most
widely accepted method of contraception in
India.
CuT  Copper releasing IUD
Femidom  Female condom (Barrier method)
Diaphragm  Barrier method.
148. Answer (4)
Hint : Neanderthal man.
Sol. : Neanderthal man buried his dead with
flowers, not Dryopithecus.
149. Answer (1)
Hint : Sulphur containing compound.
Sol. : S. L. Miller created electric discharge in a
closed flask containing CH4, H2, NH3 in 2 : 2 : 1
ratio and water vapour at 800°C.
150. Answer (3)
Hint : It is also known as diversifying selection.
Sol. : Disruptive selection is observed when
selection does not favour the mean character
value, rather favours both the peripheral
character values.
Directional selection is seen when selection
acts to eliminate one extreme form and
supports the other extreme, the peak shifts in
the direction which is selected by nature.
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2 2
151. Answer (3) Sol. : p + q + 2pq = 1
2 2
Hint : It is also called genetic drift. Frequency of MM individual is p = (0.6) =
Sol. : Sewall Wright effect/genetic drift is the 0.36 or 36%
2 2
change in gene frequency by chance in a small Frequency of NN individual is q = (0.4) = 0.16
population. or 16%
Gene migration/gene flow : When genes are Frequency of MN individual is 2pq = 2 × 0.6 ×
exchanged between two different populations 0.4 0.48 or 48%
of a species frequently. 157. Answer (2)
Gene pool : The total collection of genes and Hint : This horse evolved in Pliocene epoch.
their alleles in a population. Sol. : Pliohippus had one complete finger and
152. Answer (4) one complete toe and two splints hidden
Hint : Single step large mutations are beneath the skin, hence was considered to be
saltations. the first one toed horse.

Sol. : According to Darwin, variations or 158. Answer (4)

changes are slow, continuous and occur in a Hint : Animals which live on land.
directional manner. Sol. : Mesozoic era is the age of reptiles and in
153. Answer (3) Jurassic period dinosaurs became dominant.

Hint : Biogenetic law. 159. Answer (3)

Sol. : According to Biogenetic law, Ontogeny Hint : Epoch of tertiary period.

recapitulates Phylogeny. Sol. :
Presence of gills in tadpole of frog indicate that Period Epoch Age
frogs have evolved from gilled ancestors i.e. (million of years)
fishes. Pliocene 5
154. Answer (1) Tertiary Miocene 23
Hint : Coelacanth is called lobe finned fish. Oligocene 34
Sol. : Eocene 57
Neopilina : Connecting link between Paleocene 65
annelids and arthropods. 160. Answer (4)
Chimaera : Connecting link between Hint : Select the basic amino acid.
cartilaginous and bony fishes. Sol. : Lysine is a basic amino acid, with extra
Peripatus : Connecting link between amino group and was not obtained during
annelids and arthropods. Miller‟s initial experiment.
Latimeria : Connecting link between fishes 161. Answer (2)
(Coelacanth) and amphibians. Hint : Archaeopteryx is a missing link between
155. Answer (3) birds and reptiles.

Hint : Sugar glider and Bandicoot have Sol. : Forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and
common ancestor. human show homology, hence exemplify
divergent evolution.
Sol. : As they have a common ancestor, they
exhibit divergent evolution. Sweet potato is modified underground root,
while potato is modified underground stem.
156. Answer (4)
Their origin is different, but function is same i.e.
Hint : Hardy Weinberg principle. storage of food.

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162. Answer (1)
Hint : Its function is to collect the sound waves.
Sol. : Vestigial organs are those organs which
are non-functional in humans for eg. Nictitating
membrane, wisdom tooth, vermiform appendix,
nipples and dense body hair in males etc.
163. Answer (4)
Hint : This region comprises present day
Indonesia, Philippines and East Timor.
Sol. : Naturalist “Alfred Wallace”, worked in
Malay Archipelago. Like Darwin, he also talked
about the fitness of organisms. He also came to
the similar conclusion that those organisms
which can adapt better in their environment are
selected by nature.
164. Answer (2)
Hint : Radioactive dating is used to determine
the age of rocks on Earth.
Sol. : According to the theory of special
creation, given by Father Suarez, Earth is
about 4000 years old.
165. Answer (3)
Hint : Age of Earth is estimated to be 4.5
billion years.
Sol. : The “Big bang theory” attempts to explain
the origin of universe. Origin of Earth occurred
around 4.5 billion years ago.
166. Answer (3)
Hint : Extra terrestrial origin of life.
Sol. : According to Panspermia, life was
transferred from one planet to other in the form
of small units called spores or seeds or sperms.
According to the theory of Biogenesis, life
arose from some pre-existing life.
According to the theory of Abiogenesis, life
originated from non-living matter.
167. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify a marsupial.
Sol. : Flying phalanger, marsupial mole and
Tasmanian wolf are Australian marsupials.
168. Answer (2)
Hint : ZIFT is Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer.
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Sol. : In GIFT i.e. Gamete Intra Fallopian
Transfer, fertilization of sperm and egg occurs
inside the female body, i.e. in vivo, while in
ZIFT, the fertilization of sperm and egg occurs
in a petridish in a laboratory i.e. in vitro.
169. Answer (3)
Hint : Shedding of endometrial wall.
Sol. : The possible ill effects of using
contraceptive devices are nausea, abdominal
pain, breakthrough bleeding, irregular
menstrual bleeding or even breast cancer.
170. Answer (1)
Hint : Failure of testes to descend into scrotum.
Sol. : Infertility in a female can occur due to
various reasons such as:
(i) Anovulation
(ii) Oligoovulation
(iii) Inadequate growth of corpus luteum
(iv) Fibroid uterus
(v) Defective vaginal growth etc.
171. Answer (1)
Hint : Technique used to diagnose genetic
disorders in the foetus.
Sol. : Amniocentesis is used to detect genetic
disorders like Down‟s syndrome.
A rapid decrease in MMR and IMR are possible
reasons for population explosion.
Saheli was discovered at CDRI, Lucknow, UP.
Family planning programmes were initiated in
1951 in India.
172. Answer (2)
Hint : Select the STI caused by bacteria.
Sol. : Except for hepatitis B, genital herpes and
HIV infections, most STIs are completely
curable if detected early and treated properly.
173. Answer (3)
Hint : Select an ART.
Sol. : GIFT stands for Gamete intra fallopian
transfer.
174. Answer (2)
Hint : During lactation period, the level of FSH
is low.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Test - 2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol. : In actively lactating mothers, the level of 178. Answer (2)

prolactin is high, which suppresses the release Hint : The average failure rate of natural
of gonadotrophin i.e. FSH and LH due to methods of contraception is 20-30%.
inhibitory effect on GnRH.
Sol. :
175. Answer (1) Contraceptive method Average failure
Hint. : The population growth rate was rate
20/1000/year. Rhythm (natural) method – 20-30%
Sol. : According to the 2011 census report, the Oral contraceptives – 2-3%
population growth rate was less than 2%, while Barrier methods – 10-15%
it was around 1.7% as per 2001 census.
Coitus interruptus – 20%
176. Answer (4) 179. Answer (3)
Hint : IUI is Intra uterine insemination. Hint : Teenagers are more vulnerable to STIs.
Sol. : ICSI = Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection Sol. : Persons with 15-24 years of age group
are more vulnerable to STIs.
In ICSI, the partner‟s sperm is placed inside the
egg with a microscopic needle. 180. Answer (2)

177. Answer (4) Hint : Sterilisation procedure is the terminal

method of family planning.
Hint : Syphilis is a STI caused by bacterium
Sol. : Saheli is a non-steroidal contraceptive
Treponema pallidum.
drug.
Sol. : Condoms are used to prevent the meeting of
STI Causative agent egg and sperm. They also provide protection
against STIs.
Genital herpes Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Cu7 is copper releasing IUD which suppresses
Gonorrhoea Neisseria gonorrhoeae sperm motility and fertilising capacity of
AIDS HIV sperms.

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