Open Mock Test-3 (Code-A)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2020

OPEN MOCK TEST - 3 (Code-A)

Test Date : 29/03/2020

ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (4) 73. (3) 109. (1) 145. (3)
2. (4) 38. (3) 74. (1) 110. (4) 146. (2)
3. (3) 39. (2) 75. (4) 111. (4) 147. (2)
4. (1) 40. (2) 76. (4) 112. (3) 148. (1)
5. (2) 41. (1) 77. (2) 113. (2) 149. (3)
6. (4) 42. (2) 78. (4) 114. (3) 150. (4)
7. (2) 43. (1) 79. (3) 115. (4) 151. (3)
8. (3) 44. (3) 80. (2) 116. (3) 152. (2)
9. (4) 45. (2) 81. (1) 117. (2) 153. (4)
10. (1) 46. (3) 82. (1) 118. (1) 154. (1)
11. (2) 47. (2) 83. (1) 119. (2) 155. (3)
12. (1) 48. (1) 84. (3) 120. (4) 156. (3)
13. (4) 49. (4) 85. (4) 121. (3) 157. (4)
14. (1) 50. (3) 86. (2) 122. (1) 158. (3)
15. (2) 51. (2) 87. (1) 123. (3) 159. (4)
16. (3) 52. (1) 88. (1) 124. (4) 160. (4)
17. (2) 53. (3) 89. (4) 125. (4) 161. (3)
18. (3) 54. (4) 90. (2) 126. (1) 162. (2)
19. (4) 55. (1) 91. (4) 127. (1) 163. (2)
20. (1) 56. (3) 92. (2) 128. (2) 164. (4)
21. (2) 57. (2) 93. (4) 129. (4) 165. (1)
22. (3) 58. (3) 94. (1) 130. (4) 166. (3)
23. (1) 59. (4) 95. (1) 131. (1) 167. (3)
24. (2) 60. (4) 96. (4) 132. (3) 168. (4)
25. (4) 61. (2) 97. (3) 133. (1) 169. (2)
26. (2) 62. (3) 98. (1) 134. (4) 170. (4)
27. (1) 63. (1) 99. (4) 135. (1) 171. (1)
28. (1) 64. (4) 100. (1) 136. (4) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (1) 101. (4) 137. (2) 173. (3)
30. (1) 66. (4) 102. (2) 138. (3) 174. (4)
31. (3) 67. (3) 103. (1) 139. (1) 175. (1)
32. (2) 68. (1) 104. (3) 140. (2) 176. (2)
33. (3) 69. (2) 105. (3) 141. (3) 177. (1)
34. (1) 70. (2) 106. (1) 142. (4) 178. (4)
35. (2) 71. (4) 107. (1) 143. (2) 179. (3)
36. (1) 72. (3) 108. (4) 144. (2) 180. (2)

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HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (2) t2 – 5t + 4 = 0
Hint : Use dimensional formula. 5 ± 25 − 16
=t = 1 s and 4 s
Sol. : [Momentum] = [MLT–1] 2
[Planck’s constant] = [ML2T–1] Now 42 = ux(t2 – t1)
[Stress] = [ML–1T–2] 42
[Energy density] = [ML–1T–2] =
ux = 14 m/s
(4 − 1)
[Tension] = [MLT–2]
x = ux × t1 = 14 × 1
[Surface tension] = [MT–2]
= 14 m
[Speed] = [LT–1]
6. Answer (4)
 µ0∈0  = [L–1T] Hint : Impulse = change in linear momentum.
 
2. Answer (4)    5 
Sol. : At t = 1 s, Impulse = m(v 2 − v1) = − − 5  m
Hint : Slope of v – t graph is acceleration.  2 
Sol. : For section OA, slope of x – t graph is 15m
Impluse t =1 s =
decreasing that is velocity is decreasing hence 2
acceleration is negative. Similarly for section BC,  
velocity is increasing hence acceleration is At t = 4 s, Impulse = m (v 2′ − v1′ ) = ( −5 − 5)m
positive. For sections AB and CD, ∆v = 0 and
Impulse t = 4 s = 10m
hence a = 0
3. Answer (3) 15
Impulse t =1 s m
 Total displacement 2 3
= =
Hint : v avg = Impulse t = 4 s 10m 4
Total time elapsed
 2v1v 2 2 × 8 × 12 7. Answer (2)
Sol. :=
v avg = = 9.6 m/s Hint : Draw free body diagram of A.
v1 + v 2 12 + 8
Sol. : Let R′ be reaction force between blocks A
4. Answer (1)
and B.
Hint : use concept of relative motion.
Sol. : To collide, both the bodies should have
equal vertical component of velocities.
i.e. v1 sin30° =v 2
F − R ′ − ( fA )lim =
0
v1 1
= = 2
v 2 sin30° ⇒ R ′ = F − ( fA )lim = 400 − 0.2 × 15 × 10 = 370 N
5. Answer (2) 8. Answer (3)
 
2u sin θ 1 Hint : Use W= F ⋅ S for constant force.
Hint : Use=
T y uy t − gt 2
and=
g 2 
Sol. : S = [ 4 − ( −2)] i + (5 − 3) j
2u sin θ 5 × 10
Sol. : T = ⇒ = uy
g 2 = ( 6i + 2 j ) m

uy = 25 m/s F ( 5i + 3 j ) N
=
 
Now, y = uy t −
1
g ⋅t2 W = F ⋅ S = ( 5i + 3 j ) ⋅ ( 6i + 2 j )
2
= 30 + 6 = 36 J
20 = 25t – 5t2
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9. Answer (4) 12. Answer (1)

Hint : Impulse = change in linear momentum. Hint and Sol. : As drum rolls down an inclined
plane, the centre of mass accelerates with gsinθ,
for pure rolling angular acceleration should also be
there to increase angular velocity. Hence friction
Sol. : will act upwards along the inclined plane.
13. Answer (4)
  
u Hint : Angular momentum L= r × p
uy = −u sin30° = −
2 Sol. : Since particle is moving along a line passing
through points (1, 3) and (3, 5) then equation of
1 line is (y - 3) = (x – 1)
vy =
−euy = u sin30°
2 y=x+2
u
=
4
=
Impulse ( mv f − mv i )
= ( mv y − muy )
 u  u  3
= m − − = mu This equation will also pass through point (0, 2)
 4  2  4 Hence perpendicular distance from (0, 2) is zero.

10. Answer (1) Hence L = 0
work 14. Answer (1)
Hint : Use power =
Time Hint : For a planet to behave as a black hole
escape velocity should be equal to speed of light
w mgh in vacuum.
Sol. : P = = = 20 × 10 × 150
t t 2GM
Sol. : v e =
= 30000 W R
Power generated = 80% P = 0.8 × 30000 2GM
(3 × 108 )2 =
= 24 kW R
11. Answer (2) 2 × 6.67 × 10−11 × 7 × 1028
R=
1 9 × 1016
Hint : Idisc = MR 2 and use parallel axis theorem = 10.37 × 10 −11+ 28 −16
2
= 103.75 m = 104 m
Sol. : I= I1 − I2
15. Answer (2)
Hint : Use energy conservation principle.
GMm
Sol. : Ei = − (at earth’s surface)
R
GMm GMm
Ef =
− =
−
2(4R ) 8R

MR 2  1 M  R 2 M  R 2  GMm GMm 7 GMm

=− 2    +    ∆E = Ef − Ei = − =
2 2 4  2  42  R 8R 8 R
16. Answer (3)
MR 2 6 (16 − 6)MR 2 5
= − MR 2 = = MR 2 Tension
2 32 32 16 Hint : Stress =
Area
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Sol. : Breaking stress depends on material 22. Answer (3)

T1 T2 F
Hence = Hint : σs = t
A1 A2 Aaa′
700 T2 A
= Sol. : Aaa′ =
π π sin θ
(1.5)2 (3)2
4 4
2
 3 
700 ×   =T2
 1.5 
T2 = 2800 N
17. Answer (2)
Hint and Sol. : Viscous force depends on relative Ft F cos θ
=
velocity of the object. Magnus effect is related with Shearing stress,
Bernoulli’s principle and Bernoulli’s principle is
based on conservation of energy. On decreasing Ft F cos θ F sin θ cos θ
σ=
s = =
the temperature surface tension increases. Aaa′  A  A
 
18. Answer (3)  sin θ 
Hint : Use Bernoulli’s principle F sin2θ
=
1 2 2A
Sol. : P = P0 + ρv
2 23. Answer (1)
1 Hint : Use concept of resonance with end
2 × 105= 105 + × 103 ⋅ v 2 correction.
2
2 × 105
3
= v2
10
Sol. :
= 200 10 2 m/s
v =
19. Answer (4)
Hint : E ∝ T 4 λ
4 = 16 + e
Sol. : E ∝ T 4
T = (700 + 273)K = 973 K 3λ
Hence E ∝ (973)4
= 50 + e
4
20. Answer (1)
λ
C −0 X − 42 = 34
Hint : Use = 2
100 − 0 192 − 42 λ = 68 cm
40 X − 42 V = fλ = 480 × 0.68
Sol. : =
100 150 = 326.4 m/s
60 = X – 42 24. Answer (2)
X 102° X
= Hint : vmax = Aω
21. Answer (2) Sol. : Given x = 7(sinπt + cosπt))
Q T
Hint : 1 = 1 for carnot engine = 7 2 sin( πt + 45°)
Q2 T2
T2 350 dx
Sol. : Q= Q= × 2 × 104 cal v= = 7 2π cos( πt + 45°)
2
T1
1
500 dt
For vmax, cos(πt + 45°) = 1
= 14 × 103 cal
= 14 kcal = 7 2π m/s
v max
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25. Answer (4)

Hint and Sol. :

µ0 N2 A
L= , so when A decrease and  increase,

L decrease. −1
 1 1 1
26. Answer (2) RAB =  + + 
2 3 6
1 q =1Ω
Hint : Use E= and superposition
4πε0 r 2
2
principle. =i = A 0.4 A
     5
Sol. : E = E1 + E2 + E3 + E4 30. Answer (1)
Hint : Use curie’s law of paramagnetic substance.
 10 −6  1 2 3 
=E + + ( −i ) 1
4πε0 12 22 32  Sol. : χ ∝ for paramagnetic substance
T
 1 1 χT = constant
= 9 × 103 1 + +  ( −i )
 2 3
χ1T1 =
χ2T2
11  31. Answer (3)
=9 × 103 × ( −i )
6 ∆φ
Hint : Q =
kN  R
= 16.5 ( −i )
C Sol. : φ0 =AB0
27. Answer (1) φ2 =AB2
Hint : Use Q = CV ∆φ = A(B2 – B0)
Sol. : Since 2 µF and 3 µF capacitors are in ∆φ A πa 2
parallel then voltage across 2 µF and 3 µF will be
Q= = (B2 − B0 ) = [(8 + 12) − 0]
R R R
equal and charge divides in direct proportion of
capacitance. 20πa 2
=
R
2 µF
=
Q2 µF ×Q 32. Answer (2)
(2 + 3) µF
Hint and Sol. : At resonance in LCR series circuit
2 voltage and current are in phase. Current will be
= × 60 =24 µC maximum and impendence will be minimum at
5
resonance.
28. Answer (1) 33. Answer (3)
Hint : Use concept of ohm’s law.
Hint : Refractive index n = µr ∈r
1 Sol. : n2 = µr∈r
Sol. : Slope of I – V graph is . If slope is less,
R
then resistance is more this implies that n2 n2
∈=r = µ0
temperature of conductor is more. µr µ
Hence T1 > T2 > T3 4π × 10−7
= (1.5)2 ×
29. Answer (2) 10−6
Hint : At steady state no current will flow through = 2.25 × 0.4 π
capacitor. = 2.8
Sol. : The circuit at steady state is shown in the 34. Answer (1)
figure. Hint : Rayleigh criteria for resolution.

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2.54 2TA = TB
Sol. : Linear distance between two dots =
400
= 6.35 × 10–3 cm
Angle subtended at the eye, when page is at a
distance y cm.
t
6.35 × 10 −3  R   1 T
θ= rad  2R  =  2 
y  0
For no resolution, θ < φ t
 R   1  2T
6.35 × 10 −3  R  =  2 
⇒ < 6.0 × 10−4  0
y
t t
−
⇒ y > 10.58 cm 1  1 T 2T
= 
35. Answer (2) 2 2
1 t t
Hint : Power of combination P =
P1 + P2 and P = − 1
=
f T 2T
Sol. : P = P1 + P2 (2T − T )t
=1
1 1 f1 + f2 2T 2
= + =
f1 f2 f1f2 t = 2T
36. Answer (1) 40. Answer (2)
1
λD
Hint : Position of maxima y n, max = n Hint : Use R = R0 A 3
d
1
d nλ D −15
Sol. : Given = 3.6 × 10 R0 (27) 3
2 d Sol. : Given = 1
R
d 2 R0 (64) 3
n=
2λD 4
37. Answer (4) R = × 3.6 × 10−15
3
Hint and Sol. : Photoelectric effect and Compton = 4.8 × 10–15
effect shows particle nature of light whereas
potarisation shows wave nature of light. = 4.8 × 10–5 Å

38. Answer (3) 41. Answer (1)

Hint : Use energy in H-like atom Hint : Use equivalent circuit of Silicon diode.
(4 − 0.7) V
z2 Sol. : i
= = 1.65 mA
En = − (13.6) eV 2 kΩ
n2
42. Answer (2)
Sol. : For second excited state n = 3
Hint : Biasing of transistor for different modes of
z2 operation.
=
E ( −13.6) eV
32 Sol. :
For He+ ion z = 2
Emitter base Collector-base Modes of
22 4 junction junction operation
E = 2 × −13.6 = − × 13.6
3 9 Forward Reverse Active
≈ −6 eV
Forward Forward Saturation
39. Answer (2)
Reverse Reverse Cut-off
Hint : Activity R = R0e −λt
Reverse Forward Inverse active
Sol. : RA = 2RB

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43. Answer (1) Hence I = I0sinωt

Hint : Use logic as high → 1 = 10 2 sin(100πt )
low → 0
 100πt 
Sol. : When both inputs A and B are low (zero) = 10 2 sin  
then input at transistor Q3 will be high and Q3 will  150 
be on i.e. output x will be connected to ground  2π 
(low). = 10 2 sin  
 3 
Similarly we can get output for other combinations of
inputs as given in truth table. 3
= 10 2 ×
2
A B Q1 Q2 Q3 X
=5 6 A
Low Low OFF OFF ON Low
45. Answer (2)
Low High OFF ON ON Low
Hint : Use W = q∆V
High Low ON OFF ON Low
Sol. : Work done in displacing a charge particle is
High High ON On OFF High given by W=AB q(VB − VA )
Hence output according to given inputs realize the WAB 0=
= (VA VB )
AND gate.
B  
44. Answer (3) − ∫ E ⋅ dl will give potential difference but not
Hint : Use=
I0 2Irms and
= I I0 sin ωt A
potential energy or work.
Sol. : At t = 0, I = 0

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (3)
Hint : More the number of ions in aqueous
solution, more will be the electric conductance. Sol. : is optically
Sol. : HNO3 is a strong electrolyte so It has
maximum conductivity among given options.
47. Answer (2) inactive because it has plane of symmetry.
51. Answer (2)
1−n
Hint : t 1 ∝ ( a ) . Hint : If lone pair on O–atom in ethers or alcohols
2 is not delocalised then it will be more easily
Sol. : protonated.
2t 1
( 2a )1−n
∴ = 2
2
⇒= ( 2 )1−n ⇒=
n 0
t1
2
( a )1−n Sol. :
52. Answer (1)
48. Answer (1) Hint : | N1 V1 – N2 V2| = N3 (V1 + V2).
Sol. : Froth is a colloidal solution of gas (dispersed M 1
phase) in liquid (dispersion medium) Sol. : 50 ml KOH : meq . of KOH = 50 × = 10
5 5
49. Answer (4) M 1
100 ml HNO3 : meq. of HNO3 = 100 × 5
=
Hint : The extent to which a ligand affects the 20 20
leaving ability of group trans to itself in a complex after mixing,
is termed as trans effect.
meq. of KOH = 10 – 5 = 5 = Nf × (100 + 50)
Sol. : Ordering of ligands in a trans directing series 5 1
– –
is : CO > NO2 > CI > OH
– Nf
= =
150 30
50. Answer (3)  1
∴ pOH = − log   = log ( 30 ) =
1.4771
Hint : Ortho substituted biphenyls having no  30 
symmetry elements are optically active. ∴ pH = 14 –1.4771 = 12.522
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53. Answer (3) 57. Answer (2)

Hint : Cr2O72− + C2O24− H+
→ Cr
 3+
+ CO2 . Hint : Diamond has ZnS type unit cell.
58. Answer (3)
Sol. : meq. of K2Cr2O7 = meq. of C2O24− Hint : ∆Tf ∝ i × m ∝ (1 + (n – 1) α) × m
Mole of K2Cr2O7 × 6 = 1 × 2 Sol. : NaCI : i × m = (1 + (2–1)×0.5) × 0.1 = 0.15
1 K2SO4 : i × m = (1 + (3 – 1) × 0.2) × 0.2 = 0.28
Mole of K 2Cr2O7 =
3 Urea : i × m = 1 × 0.1 = 0.1
54. Answer (4) Glucose : i × m = 1 × 0.2 = 0.2
Hint : Ti can be purified by vapour phase refining. 59. Answer (4)
Sol. : Hint : One molecule of Biomolecule should
 Calcination process is used to convert ore in contain one atom of Zn.
to oxide form Number of Zn atom × 65.38
Tin stone (cassiterite) is concentrated by = Sol. : % of Zn × 100

wt. of Biomolecule
magnetic separation method.
Extraction of AI from AI2O3 is done by 1× 65.38
 = 0.75 × 100
electrometallurgy. MW
55. Answer (1) 65.38 × 100
∴ Minimum MW of Biomolecule =
Hint : S2O82− contains peroxide bond. 0.75
= 8717.33 g/mol
 O O 
– || ||  60. Answer (4)
–
 O— S —O—O— S —O  Hint : Magnetic quantum number gives orientation
 || || 
 O O  of orbital in space.
 
Sol. : Two electrons in an atom occupying the
Sol. : same orbital are distinguished by spin quantum
S O O number.
|| || ||
– 61. Answer (2)
O — S— O – , – O — S — S — S — S — O –
|| || || Hint : Due to interelectronic repulsion in O-atom,
O O O it has least negative electron gain enthalpy in its
(
S 2 O3 2−
) 2−
S 4 O6 ( ) group.
Sol. : element CI F O S
−
O — S — S — O− ∆egH (kJ/mol) –349 –328 –141 –200
|| ||
O O 62. Answer (3)
Hint : CIF3 is a bent –T – shape molecule
(S O )
2
2−
4
Sol. : CIF3 : Hybridised orbitals = σ – bond + l.p
O O = 3 + 2 =5
|| ||
–
O — S — O — S — O– ∴ Hybridisation = sp3d
|| ||
O O
(S O )
2
2−
7

56. Answer (3)

Hint : Jahn Teller effect in complexes is mainly 63. Answer (1)
observed in d-orbital having unsymmetrical ‘eg’
3RT
configuration. Hint : urms =
M

Sol. : Sol. : urms ∝ T

u2 3T
= = 1.732
u1 T
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64. Answer (4) 70. Answer (2)

Hint : For spontaneous reaction, ∆G < 0 Hint : Photochemical smog is an oxidising smog.
Sol. : If ∆H = (–)ve and ∆S = (+)ve, then ∆G is Sol. : Main component of photochemical smog are
always negative. O3, PAN and NOX.
65. Answer (1) 71. Answer (4)
Hint : Mass of H2O2 present in 100 ml solution is Hint : Lesser the pKa value, more will be the acidic
called its percent strength. nature.
11.2 × w Sol. :
Sol. : Vol strength = 11.2 × molarity =
34 × V ( lit )
w 15 × 34
∴ = = 45.53 g/L
V ( lit ) 11.2
∴ 1 L (1000 ml) solution contains 45.53 g H2O2
So, 100 ml solution will contain 4.553 g H2O2.
66. Answer (4) 72. Answer (3)
Hint : Among alkali metal carbonates, only Li2CO3 Hint :
decomposes on heating
∆
Sol. : Li2CO3 → Li2O + CO2
∆
BeCO3  → BeO + CO2
∆ 73. Answer (3)
MgCO3  → MgO + CO2
∆
Hint : Vitamin–C is water soluble vitamin
K 2CO3  →x
Sol. : Water soluble vitamins : vitamin –B2, B5 and
67. Answer (3) vitamin – C
Hint : Generally on moving top to bottom in a Fat soluble vitamins : vitamin – D, E, K, A
group, acidic nature of oxides decreases and basic
74. Answer (1)
nature increases.
Sol. : B2O3 and SiO2 : acidic Hint : During condensation polymerisation, small
molecules like CO2, H2O, NH3 etc. are eliminated.
PbO2 : amphoteric
CO : Neutral Sol. :
68. Answer (1)
Hint : H–atoms present at vinylic position and
bridgehead position do not participate in
tautomerism.

Sol. :
75. Answer (4)
Sol. : Naproxen is used to treat pain.
76. Answer (4)
69. Answer (2) Hint : Stability order of carbocation : 3° > 2° > 1°.
Hint : More the electron density on the benzene Sol. :
ring, more will be its reactivity towards electrophilic
reagents.
Sol. : Rate of SE reaction :

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Open Mock Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

77. Answer (2) 83. Answer (1)

Hint : Cleavage of C–C bond take place Hint : More the polarity and higher the molecular
Sol. : mass of a gas, higher will be van der Waal
constant (a).
Sol. : gas : NH3 CO2 N2 H2
a (bar 2/mol2) : 4.225 3.65 1.37 0.2453
84. Answer (3)
Hint : If net dipole moment is zero then molecule
will be non-polar.
78. Answer (4)
Sol. SiCl4 CO2 NF3 XeF4
Hint : Alkyl benzene on oxidation with alkaline
KMnO4 gives benzoic acid. sp3 sp sp3 sp3d 2
Sol. : (µ 0) =
= (µ 0) (µ ≠ 0) =
(µ 0)
85. Answer (4)
Hint : Highest oxidation state shown by actinoids
is +7.
Sol. : Element : Ac U Pa Np
Highest oxidation state : 3 6 5 7
86. Answer (2)
faintly alkaline
Hint : MnO−4 
→ MnO2
medium

Sol. : 2MnO−4 + H2O + I− → 2MnO2 + 2OH− + IO3−

79. Answer (3)
Sol. : Thiol group participates in disulphide bond 87. Answer (1)
formation in proteins. Hint : In alkaline earth metal sulphates, lattice
80. Answer (2) energy is nearly same.
Sol. : For alkaline earth metal sulphates, as the
Hint : According to Le-chatelier’s principle, on
size of metal ion increases, its hydration energy
increasing the concentration of any species at
decreases so solubility in water decreases.
equilibrium, the equilibrium goes to that direction
where concentration of that species decreases. ∴ solubility order : BeSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 >
Sol. : When concentration of O2 is decreased at BaSO4
equilibrium then equilibrium goes in backward 88. Answer (1)
direction so that concentration of O2 can increase. Hint :
81. Answer (1) Malachite (CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2), Calcite (CaCO3),
Hint : Oxidation number of CI–atom in Cerrusite (PbCO3), Calamine (ZnCO3)
chloroalkane is –1. 89. Answer (4)
Sol. : Oxidation state of chlorine in the given Hint : Cu(Z = 29) : [Ar]3d104s1
molecules is Sol. : Outermost electron of copper is present in
1
( −1) (0) ( +1) ( +5) 4s orbital. For 4s electron : n = 4, l = 0, m = 0
CH3 − CI, CI2 , CI2O, NaClO3
1 1
s= + −
82. Answer (1) 2 2
Mole of solute 90. Answer (2)
Hint : Molality ( m ) =
wt. of solvent ( kg ) Hint : For SN1 reaction, stable carbocation should
be formed.
Sol. : nurea = 1
Sol. :
WH=
2O
1kg
= 1000g

n 1 1
X=
urea = = = 0.018
n + N 1+ 1000 56.55
18
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 Open Mock Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (4)
Hint : This taxonomical aid is storehouse of dried,
pressed and preserved plant specimens.
Sol. : Herbarium contains dead plant specimens
along with a label containing some informations
regarding specimens.
Botanical garden contains live plant specimens.
Flora and manual have only written information
regarding plants of a given area.
92. Answer (2)
Hint : Diatoms after their death get deposited at
the sea bed as their cell wall are nearly
indestructible.
Sol. : Cell walls of diatoms are deposited with
silica which make them nearly indestructible.
Diatoms are autotrophs and do not form fruiting
bodies.
93. Answer (4)
Hint : Agaricus belongs to basidiomycetes while
Aspergillus belongs to ascomycetes.
Sol. : Members of both ascomycetes and
basidiomycetes have branched and septate
mycelium as well as presence of dikaryophase in
their life.
Sexual spores of ascomycetes are endogenous
while of basidiomycetes are exogenous in origin.
Ascomycetes members reproduce asexually by
conidia.
94. Answer (1)
Hint : Gymnosperms are archegoniate
phanerogams while angiosperms are non-
archegoniate phanerogams.
Sol. : Pinus and Cycas – Produce seeds and
have archegonia.
Funaria, Selaginella – Have archegonia but lack
seeds.
Mustard – Have seeds but lack archegonia.
95. Answer (1)
Hint : Bryophytes produce single type of spores.
Sol. : All bryophytes are homosporous.
Algae are non-embryophytes and they lack
vascular system too.
Pteridophytes show sporic meiosis and produce
haploid spores.
96. Answer (4)
Hint : Polytene chromosomes are special giant
chromosomes found in salivary gland of some
dipteran insects.
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Sol. : Polytene chromosomes undergo somatic
pairing that’s why their number appears half of the
chromosomes number of normal somatic cells. But
they do not perform crossing over to produce new
genetic combinations.
97. Answer (3)
Hint : Meristematic cells undergo mitosis.
Sol. : Bivalents or homologous chromosome
pairs are formed in zygotene stage of meiosis.
Meristems being somatic cells do not perform
meiosis.
98. Answer (1)
Hint : This organism is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer.
Sol. : Anabaena – filamentous autotroph.
Azotobacter – unicellular heterotroph.
Rhizobium – unicellular heterotroph.
Frankia – filamentous heterotrophic nitrogen fixer
in non legume plants.
99. Answer (4)
Hint : Given diagram depicts C4 pathway of
photosynthesis.
Sol. : C4 acid (malic or aspartic acid) undergoes
decarboxylation in bundle sheath cells and form C3
acid (pyruvic acid).
100. Answer (1)
Hint : Complex II is associated with an enzyme
that catalyse the conversion of succinate to
fumarate.
Sol. : Succinate dehydrogenase (complex II) is
found attached with the inner mitochondrial
membrane.
101. Answer (4)
Hint : Some plant growth regulators break
dormancy of seeds.
Sol. : Ethylene and gibberellins break dormancy
of seeds and promote their germination.
102. Answer (2)
Hint : Castor and maize both are monoecious.
Sol. : Castor and maize both produce unisexual
flowers on the same plant. Both can show
geitonogamy also.
Maize is monocarpic, thus interflowering period is
absent in it.
103. Answer (1)
Hint : Citrus have polyembryonic seeds.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
Sol. : In Citrus, embryo formed by nucellus and
integuments are genetically similar. Therefore
seeds are apomictic in nature. Being a dicot, Citrus
seeds lack coleorhiza. Embryo formed by zygote,
integument and nucellus are diploid.
104. Answer (3)
Hint : Probabaly this female is suffering from
Turner’s syndrome.
Sol. : Chromosome complement of this female is
44 + XO.
 Turner’s syndrome arises due to monosomy of
sex chromosome as XO.
 Chromosomal disorders are not inherited to
progenies. The female ‘A’ being sterile will not
reproduce.
105. Answer (3)
Hint : m-RNA with maximum number of codons
before stop codon will form protein with maximum
number of amino acids.
Sol. :
a – UGA is stop codon, before that only 2 codons
and thus 2 amino acids.
b – UGA is a stop codon, before that only 4
codons and thus 4 amino acids.
c – UAA is a stop codon, before that only 6 codons
and thus 6 amino acids.
Thus m-RNA given in ‘c’ will form the protein with
maximum number of amino acids.
106. Answer (1)
Hint : Structural genes of lac-operon synthesise
enzymes required for breakdown of lactose
(catabolic process).
Sol. : Structural genes are luxury or non-
constitutive genes.
Being prokaryote E. coli have polycistronic
structural gene.
107. Answer (1)
Sol. : Atlas-66 – Biofortified wheat with high
protein content.
Sonalika – High yielding Indian wheat
Himgiri – Rust resistant wheat
Sonora-64 – Mexican wheat
108. Answer (4)
Hint : Acetic acid is produced by a bacterium.
Sol. : Acetic acid – Acetobacter aceti.
Statin – Monascus purpureus (yeast)
Brewing and baking industry – Saccharomyces
sp. (Yeast)
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109. Answer (1)
Hint : Herbivores are present at second trophic
level and they have plants only as their prey.
Sol. : Herbivores have lesser number of
alternative resources i.e. plants only. While
carnivores being at higher trophic level have more
alternative resources.
110. Answer (4)
Hint : Gymnosperms have secondary growth.
Sol. : Gymnosperms lack vessels (tracheae),
companion cells and tyloses (tracheal plugs). They
have secondary xylem and phloem as they show
secondary growth.
111. Answer (4)
Hint : Nucleolus is found in the nucleoplasm.
Sol. : Centriole takes part in the spindle formation
not the nucleolus. It is the site for rRNA synthesis.
112. Answer (3)
Hint : Ribozyme is RNA enzyme and RNA is a
nucleic acid.
Sol. : Cristae are the infoldings of mitochondria.
Chromatophores help in photosynthesis as they
contain pigments. Lysosome is single membrane
bound structure.
113. Answer (2)
Hint : Meiosis II takes place in haploid cells, which
are produced after meiosis I.
Sol. : Meiosis II is equational division as the
number of chromosomes in the daughter cells
remains the same as in the cells produced at the
end of meiosis I.
114. Answer (3)
Hint : Members of a species are reproductively
isolated from members of other species.
Sol. : Members of a species can reproduce freely
with each other but not with the members of other
species.
115. Answer (4)
Hint : Thiospirillum is a purple sulphur bacteria.
Sol. : Purple sulphur bacteria perform anoxygenic
photosynthesis and hence do not produce oxygen
because they don’t use H2O as electron donor,
instead they use H2S for the same.
116. Answer (3)
Hint : TMV is ssRNA virus.
Sol. : The outermost covering of virus is capsid. It
was first crystallised by W.M. Stanley.
 Open Mock Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

117. Answer (2) 125. Answer (4)

Hint : Ginger and Banana has modified stem. Hint : Net gain of ATP in alcohol and lactic acid
Sol. : Ginger is edible stem. Edible part of banana fermentation is same.
is fruit. Sol. : In both fermentation, only 2 ATP molecules
In Pea, edible part – Seed. are produced.
Sweet potato – Edible part is modified storage 126. Answer (1)
root. Hint : Most algae show external fertilisation except
118. Answer (1) a few ones.
Hint : does not exist as floral symbol because Sol. : Spirogyra shows internal fertilisation.
() shows fused condition and single carpel cannot Emasculation : Bisexual flower
be fused. Triple fusion : Unique to
119. Answer (2)
Angiosperms
Hint : Monocot stems do not show secondary
Castor seed : Albuminous
growth.
127. Answer (1)
Sol. : Tulip is a monocot.
Hint :
Cycas — Gymnosperm.
Sunflower and Sweet pea — Angiosperms.
120. Answer (4)
Hint : Some pteridophytes produce two types of Sol. : So, only A and AB blood groups are possible
spores such as Salvinia. in progenies.
Sol. : Salvinia is heterosporous. 128. Answer (2)
121. Answer (3) Sol. : DNA polymerase cannot initiate the process
Hint : Active transport is uphill transport. of replication.
Sol. : Active transport requires energy. Hence, primer is required during replication.
122. Answer (1) 129. Answer (4)
Hint : Water moves from high to low water Hint : Polyblend when mixed with bitumen,
potential. increases the bitumen’s water repellent
Sol. : Cell A Cell B properties.
DPD = 10 bars ψw = – 12 bars + 4 bars Sol. : Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled
ψw = – 10 bars ψw = – 8 bars modified plastic.
DPD = 8 bars 130. Answer (4)
Hence, cell A is more deficit in water than cell B. Sol. : Endemic species are found in a particular
area and no where else.
123. Answer (3)
Hint : Nitrite reductase is found in leaves of plants. 131. Answer (1)

Sol. : It reduces nitrite ions to ammonia. 1

Hint : Number of bivalents = (total no. of
2
Nitrate reductase reduces nitrate to nitrite.
chromosomes)
124. Answer (4)
Sol. : The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
Hint : C4 plants show double carboxylation. For C3 chromosomes is called bivalent. Bivalent is so
pathway, RuBisCO is present in bundle sheath called because two homologous chromosomes
cells. form a pair.
Sol. : PEPcase is present in mesophyll cell which In the given question, there are total 36
chromosomes present in a diploid cell.
lacks oxygenase activity. Hence C4 plants can
perform photosynthesis even when concentration 1
Hence, number of bivalents = × 36 =18
of CO2 is low very. 2

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132. Answer (3)
Hint : Archaebacteria are special as they live in
some of the most harsh habitats.
Sol. : Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in
having a different cell wall composition.
133. Answer (1)
Hint : Potato comes under family - Solanaceae.
Sol. : Floral formula for family Solanaceae is
134. Answer (4)
Hint : The peripheral region of the secondary
xylem is lighter in colour and is known as sap
wood.
Sol. : Heart wood is hard, durable and resistant to
attack of microbes. This region comprises of dead
elements with highly lignified walls.
Heartwood does not conduct water but it gives
mechanical support to the stem.
135. Answer (1)
Hint : Polysiphonia exhibits haplo-diplontic life
cycle.
Sol. : Ginkgo and Cedrus are gymnospermic plant
and they show diplontic life cycle while, Fucus, a
brown alga, exhibit diplontic life cycle.
136. Answer (4)
Hint : Structure of sacromere.
Sol. : Each segment of the myofibril from one Z
line to the next, functions as a contractile unit and
is called a sarcomere. Various parts of a
sarcomere have a specific arrangement of actin
and myosin filaments as given below:-
I band – Has only actin filaments
A band – Has both actin and myosin filaments
H zone – Has only myosin filaments
Z line – A membrane to which actin filaments
are attached on both the sides
137. Answer (2)
Hint : Cartilage is a skeletal connective tissue.
Sol. : Cartilage is found in the body of adult
vertebrates but is more abundant in foetus.
Cartilage is present in the tip of nose, outer ear
joints, between adjacent bones of the vertebral
column, limbs and hands in adults. Most of the
long bones are cartilaginous bones.
138. Answer (3)
Hint : Structure where vasa efferentia open.
Sol. : Bidder’s canal is a part of male reproductive
system in frogs. The vasa efferentia running
transversly through the mesorchium enter the
kidneys and open into the Bidder’s canal which
carries only sperms.
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Excretory system consists of a pair of kidneys,
ureters, urinary bladder and cloaca.
139. Answer (1)
Hint : They are accessory sex glands in female
cockroach.
Sol. : P represents collaterial glands that are
responsible for secretion of ootheca.
S represents common oviduct or vagina.
R represents spermatheca responsible for storage
of sperms in female. Q represents genital chamber
which is the site for fertilization.
140. Answer (2)
Hint : Presence of Haemoglobin.
Sol. : In earthworm, blood is composed of fluid
plasma and colourless blood corpuscles. A
coloured respiratory pigment haemoglobin is also
present in plasma. It gives red colour to blood and
aids in transportation of O2 for respiration.
141. Answer (3)
Hint : Bile has no digestive enzymes.
Sol. : Bilirubin and biliverdin are the components
of bile juice. Bile juice contains no digestive
enzymes and helps in emulsification of fats.
Lipase / steapsin is a fat digesting enzyme. Trypsin
is a protein digesting enzyme.
Rennin is milk protein digesting enzyme.
142. Answer (4)
Hint : Stored food in animals.
Sol. : Glycogen and cellulose are
homopolysaccharides. of α and β glucose
respectively. Ribose, fructose and glucose are
monosaccharides.
143. Answer (2)
Hint : Vitamin also known as retinol.
Sol. : Vitamin K/Phylloquinone helps in blood
clotting.
144. Answer (2)
Hint : Contains a yellowish pigmented spot called
macula lutea.
Sol. :
 Open Mock Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
145. Answer (3)
Hint : Structural and functional unit of lungs.
Sol. : Alveoli are lined by squamous epithelium
which facilitates diffusion of gases.
Trachea and primary bronchi have incomplete
rings of cartilage. Ciliated epithelium is found in
some parts of pharynx.
146. Answer (2)
Hint : Ion which maintains alkalinity of plasma.
Sol. : Nearly 70% of CO2 is transported as sodium
bicarbonate in plasma. About 7% of CO2 gets
transported in dissolved form through plasma.
About 20–25% CO2 is transported as
carbaminohaemoglobin.
147. Answer (2)
Hint : ‘O’ blood group individuals are called
universal donors.
Sol. : RBCs of individuals having blood group ‘O’
lack A and B antigens, therefore, the recipient’s
antibodies cannot cause agglutination of the
donor’s RBCs. Individuals with blood group ‘AB’
lack anti – A and anti – B antibodies therefore,
agglutination with donor’s RBCs does not occur.
Therefore, such people are called universal
recipients.
148. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify an enzyme complex.
Sol. : Thromboplastins help in the formation of the
enzyme complex thrombokinase. Thrombokinase
converts an inactive protein prothrombin, present
in the plasma, into thrombin. Thrombin is an
enzyme which converts soluble fibrinogen of
plasma into insoluble fibrin.
149. Answer (3)
Hint : Low threshold substance.
Sol. : Nearly all of the essential nutrients and 70 –
80% of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed by
PCT. Glucose is are absorbed completely in PCT.
150. Answer (4)
Hint : Hair pin like structure.
Sol. : Ascending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water but permeable to salts.
Reabsorption of water occurs at PCT, DCT, CD
and descending limb of loop of Henle.
151. Answer (3)
Hint : Disease in which dystrophin is not formed.
Sol. : In muscular dystrophy the protein dystrophin
is not formed which helps to reinforce the
sarcolemma and thus helps to transmit tension
generated by sarcomeres to tendons.
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder
affecting neuromuscular junctions leading to
fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal
muscles.
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152. Answer (2)
Hint : Joints that permit limited movement.
Sol. : In cartilaginous / Imperfect / Amphiarthroses
joints, the two bones are joined together with help
of a disc or pad of white fibrous cartilage. These
joints are present between the adjacent vertebrae
of vertebral column and in pubic symphysis etc.
153. Answer (4)
Hint : Electrogenic pump.
Sol. : The Na+ – K+ pumps transport 3Na+
outwards for 2K+ into the axon maintaining the
polarised state.
154. Answer (1)
Hint : Area which is neither clearly sensory nor
motor in function.
Sol. : The cerebral cortex contains three major
types of areas i.e. motor, sensory and association
areas. Sensory area receives various types of
sensations. Motor areas are concerned with
movements of skeletal elements. Association
areas are responsible for certain complex
functions like intersensory association, memory
and communication.
155. Answer (3)
Hint : Corticoids which are secreted by zona
fasciculata of adrenal cortex.
Sol. : Glucocorticoids include 3 main hormones,
cortisol, corticosterone and cortisone. Of the three,
cortisol is most abundant. Glucocorticoids are
immunosuppressive so they are also used in
transplantation surgery to avoid tissue rejection by
immune system of the recipient.
156. Answer (3)
Hint : Catabolic reaction.
Sol. : Insulin from β-cells lowers blood glucose
level by promoting glycogenesis.
157. Answer (4)
Hint : Animals which have ciliated comb plates
are ctenophores.
Sol. : Pleurobrachia – Ctenophora
Ancylostoma – Aschelminthes
Limulus – Arthropoda
Hirudinaria – Annelida
158. Answer (3)
Hint : Commonly known as flatworms.
Sol. : Platyhelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical,
triploblastic and acoelomate animals with organ
level of organisation. Annelids and arthropods are
coelomate while aschelminthes are
pseudocoelomates.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
159. Answer (4)
Hint : Animals also known as glorified reptiles.
Sol. : Crop is responsible for the storage of food.
Gizzard helps in mastication of food. Crop and
gizzard both are present in aves and arthropods.
160. Answer (4)
Hint : Structures related to pelvic fins.
Sol. : In male chondrichthyes pelvic fins bear
claspers. Chondrichthyes have heterocercal tail.
Operculum, air bladder and cycloid/ctenoid scales
are present in Osteichthyes.
161. Answer (3)
Hint. : Selectable marker helps in elimination.
Sol. : Selectable markers help in identification and
elimination of non–transformants whilst permitting
selective growth of transformants.
162. Answer (2)
Hint. : Piracy means unauthorized use or
reproduction of someone’s work.
Sol. : Bioprospecting refers to exploring molecular
genetics and species level diversity for products of
economic importance.
163. Answer (2)
Hint : Speed depends on the size of DNA
fragments.
Sol. : Smaller the fragment size, farther it moves
from the point of loading i.e. the well.
DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules
separated by forcing them to move towards
positive electrode. i.e. anode.
Increasing the concentration of gel reduces the
migration speed of DNA.
DNA fragments can only be visualised under UV
light after staining with ethidium bromide and not
directly.
164. Answer (4)
Hint : Haemophilus influenzae is the microbial
origin of this enzyme.
Sol. : Hind II was isolated and characterised five
years later and was the first discovered type II
restriction endonuclease.
165. Answer (1)
Hint : Polymerase chain reaction.
Sol. : Taq polymerase is obtained from Thermus
aquaticus. It extends primers on genomic DNA
template and is thermostable.
166. Answer (3)
Hint : Providencia stuartii.
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Sol. :
167. Answer (3)
Hint : Insemination is male gamete transfer.
Sol. : Gametogenesis → Insemination
→ Syngamy → Zygote → Cleavage → Cell
differentiation → Organogenesis.
Fusion of gametes leading to formation of zygote
is known as syngamy.
168. Answer (4)
Hint : Milk let down hormone.
Sol. : Milk ejection reflex is caused by combined
neurogenic and hormonal reflexes that involve
release of oxytocin from maternal posterior
pituitary gland.
169. Answer (2)
Hint : Day of ovulation = Number of days in
Menstrual cycle –14.
Sol. : LH induces ovulation which usually occurs
on 21st day in the 35 day cycle.
Day of ovulation = 35 – 14 = 21st day.
170. Answer (4)
Hint : Animal belongs to phylum Arthropoda.
Sol. : Scorpion is a predaceous carnivore that
shows matriphagy i.e. a process in which an
organism feeds on its own mother. Periplanata
respires through tracheal system.
171. Answer (1)
Hint : Adrenal gland hormone.
Sol. : In emergency condition, adrenaline /
epinephrine is released from adrenal medulla into
the blood which acts on heart and increases the
heart beat, resulting in supply of more oxygen to
the muscles and thereby decreases the flow of
blood to the digestive system.
172. Answer (2)
Hint : Hormone releasing IUD.
Sol. : Hormone releasing IUDs – Progestasert,
LNG – 20, Copper releasing IUDs – CuT, Cu7,
Multiload 375.
 Open Mock Test-3 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
173. Answer (3)
Hint : Identify spirochaete.
Sol. : The causative agent of syphilis is
Treponema pallidum.
Chlamydiasis – Chlamydia trachomatis
Gonorrhoea – Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Trichomoniasis – Trichomonas vaginalis
174. Answer (4)
Hint : Structures which are a result of divergent
evolution.
Sol. : Vertebrate heart and brains are examples of
homologous structures. The structures in different
organisms which have similarity in their anatomy
or basic plan but serve different functions are
known as homologous structures.
175. Answer (1)
Hint : Hardy Weinberg equilibrium.
Sol. : Frequency of recessive allele i.e. q = 0.8
Frequency of dominant allele i.e. p = 1 – 0.8 = 0.2
∴ Frequency of homozygous dominant individuals
(AA)
= p2 = (0.2)2 = 0.04
Frequency of heterozygous individual (Aa) = 2pq
= 2(0.2) (0.8) = 0.32
Frequency of homozygous recessive individual
(aa)
= q2 = (0.8)2 = 0.64
176. Answer (2)
Hint : Opioid analgesic.
Sol. : Heroin commonly called smack is chemically
diacetyl morphine which is a white, odourless,
bitter crystalline compound.
The flower tops, leaves and the resin of Cannabis
plant are used in various combinations to produce
marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja. Cocaine is
obtained from Erythroxylum coca.
 
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177. Answer (1)
Hint : Disease related to liver.
Sol. : Second generation vaccines such as
hepatitis B vaccine is produced from yeast. First
generation vaccines are whole organism vaccines,
either live and weakened (attenuated) or killed
form e.g. small pox, OPV, BCG. Influenza
vaccines are attenuated.
178. Answer (4)
Hint : Disease that is caused by Nosema
bombycis.
Sol. : Common diseases of silkworm are pebrine
caused by protozoan Nosema bombycis,
muscardine by fungus Spicaria and Botrytis and
flacherie by virus.
Ranikhet/New castle’s disease is a viral poultry
disease. Pullorum is a bacterial disease.
179. Answer (3)
Hint : A cross between male donkey and female
horse.
Sol. : In interspecific hybridization, male and
female animals of two different related species are
mated. Out crossing is a practice of mating of
animals within the same breed but having no
common ancestors on either side of their pedigree
for upto 4 – 6 generations.
In cross breeding, superior males of one breed are
mated with the superior female of another breed.
180. Answer (2)
Hint : Meiocytes are the diploid cells.
Sol. : Chromosome number in meiocyte of
housefly, fruitfly and butterfly are 12, 8 and 380
respectively.

 Open Mock Test-3 (Code-B)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2020

OPEN MOCK TEST - 3 (Code-B)

Test Date : 29/03/2020

ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (4) 73. (1) 109. (2) 145. (1)
2. (3) 38. (3) 74. (3) 110. (3) 146. (4)
3. (1) 39. (2) 75. (2) 111. (4) 147. (2)
4. (2) 40. (4) 76. (4) 112. (3) 148. (4)
5. (1) 41. (2) 77. (4) 113. (2) 149. (3)
6. (2) 42. (1) 78. (3) 114. (3) 150. (3)
7. (2) 43. (3) 79. (2) 115. (4) 151. (1)
8. (3) 44. (4) 80. (3) 116. (4) 152. (4)
9. (4) 45. (2) 81. (1) 117. (1) 153. (2)
10. (1) 46. (2) 82. (4) 118. (4) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (4) 83. (3) 119. (1) 155. (3)
12. (1) 48. (1) 84. (1) 120. (1) 156. (4)
13. (3) 49. (1) 85. (2) 121. (3) 157. (4)
14. (2) 50. (2) 86. (3) 122. (3) 158. (3)
15. (3) 51. (4) 87. (4) 123. (1) 159. (4)
16. (1) 52. (3) 88. (1) 124. (2) 160. (3)
17. (2) 53. (1) 89. (2) 125. (4) 161. (3)
18. (1) 54. (1) 90. (3) 126. (1) 162. (1)
19. (1) 55. (1) 91. (1) 127. (4) 163. (4)
20. (2) 56. (2) 92. (4) 128. (1) 164. (2)
21. (4) 57. (3) 93. (1) 129. (3) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (4) 94. (3) 130. (4) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (2) 95. (1) 131. (1) 167. (3)
24. (3) 60. (4) 96. (4) 132. (1) 168. (1)
25. (2) 61. (4) 97. (4) 133. (4) 169. (2)
26. (1) 62. (1) 98. (2) 134. (2) 170. (2)
27. (4) 63. (3) 99. (1) 135. (4) 171. (3)
28. (3) 64. (3) 100. (1) 136. (2) 172. (2)
29. (2) 65. (4) 101. (4) 137. (3) 173. (2)
30. (3) 66. (2) 102. (4) 138. (4) 174. (4)
31. (2) 67. (2) 103. (3) 139. (1) 175. (3)
32. (1) 68. (1) 104. (1) 140. (2) 176. (2)
33. (4) 69. (3) 105. (3) 141. (1) 177. (1)
34. (1) 70. (4) 106. (4) 142. (4) 178. (3)
35. (2) 71. (1) 107. (2) 143. (3) 179. (2)
36. (1) 72. (4) 108. (1) 144. (2) 180. (4)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Open Mock Test-3 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (2) 4. Answer (2)
Hint : Use W = q∆V Hint : Biasing of transistor for different modes of
operation.
Sol. : Work done in displacing a charge particle is
given by W= q(VB − VA ) Sol. :
AB

WAB 0=
= (VA VB ) Emitter base Collector-base Modes of
junction junction operation
B  
− ∫ E ⋅ dl will give potential difference but not Forward Reverse Active
A
Forward Forward Saturation
potential energy or work.
2. Answer (3) Reverse Reverse Cut-off
Hint : Use=
I0 2Irms and
= I I0 sin ωt Reverse Forward Inverse active
Sol. : At t = 0, I = 0 5. Answer (1)
Hence I = I0sinωt Hint : Use equivalent circuit of Silicon diode.
= 10 2 sin(100πt ) (4 − 0.7) V
Sol. : i
= = 1.65 mA
2 kΩ
 100πt 
= 10 2 sin   6. Answer (2)
 150 
1
 2π 
= 10 2 sin   Hint : Use R = R0 A 3
 3 
1
3 3.6 × 10−15 R0 (27) 3
= 10 2 × Sol. : Given =
2 R 1
R0 (64) 3
=5 6 A
4
3. Answer (1) R = × 3.6 × 10−15
3
Hint : Use logic as high → 1
= 4.8 × 10–15
low → 0
= 4.8 × 10–5 Å
Sol. : When both inputs A and B are low (zero)
7. Answer (2)
then input at transistor Q3 will be high and Q3 will
be on i.e. output x will be connected to ground Hint : Activity R = R0e −λt
(low).
Sol. : RA = 2RB
Similarly we can get output for other combinations of
inputs as given in truth table. 2TA = TB
A B Q1 Q2 Q3 X

Low Low OFF OFF ON Low

Low High OFF ON ON Low t

 R   1 T
High Low ON OFF ON Low  2R  =  2 
 0
High High ON On OFF High t
 R   1  2T
Hence output according to given inputs realize the  R  =  2 
AND gate.  0

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 Open Mock Test-3 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

t t
− 6.35 × 10 −3
1  1 T 2T θ= rad
=  y
2 2
t t For no resolution, θ < φ
− 1
=
T 2T 6.35 × 10 −3
⇒ < 6.0 × 10−4
(2T − T )t y
=1
2T 2 ⇒ y > 10.58 cm
t = 2T 13. Answer (3)
8. Answer (3)
Hint : Refractive index n = µr ∈r
Hint : Use energy in H-like atom
z2 Sol. : n2 = µr∈r
En = − (13.6) eV
n2 n2 n2
∈=r = µ0
Sol. : For second excited state n = 3 µr µ
z2 4π × 10−7
=
E ( −13.6) eV = (1.5)2 ×
32 10−6
For He+ ion z = 2
= 2.25 × 0.4 π
22 4 = 2.8
E = 2 × −13.6 = − × 13.6
3 9
14. Answer (2)
≈ −6 eV
Hint and Sol. : At resonance in LCR series circuit
9. Answer (4) voltage and current are in phase. Current will be
Hint and Sol. : Photoelectric effect and Compton maximum and impendence will be minimum at
effect shows particle nature of light whereas resonance.
potarisation shows wave nature of light. 15. Answer (3)
10. Answer (1) ∆φ
Hint : Q =
λD R
Hint : Position of maxima y n, max = n
d Sol. : φ0 =AB0
d nλ D
Sol. : Given = φ2 =AB2
2 d
∆φ = A(B2 – B0)
d2
n=
2λD ∆φ A πa 2
Q= = (B2 − B0 ) = [(8 + 12) − 0]
11. Answer (2) R R R
1 20πa 2
Hint : Power of combination P = P1 + P2 and P = =
f R
Sol. : P = P1 + P2 16. Answer (1)
1 1 f1 + f2 Hint : Use curie’s law of paramagnetic substance.
= + =
f1 f2 f1f2
1
12. Answer (1) Sol. : χ ∝ for paramagnetic substance
T
Hint : Rayleigh criteria for resolution.
χT = constant
2.54
Sol. : Linear distance between two dots = χ1T1 = χ2T2
400
= 6.35 × 10–3 cm 17. Answer (2)
Angle subtended at the eye, when page is at a Hint : At steady state no current will flow through
distance y cm. capacitor.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Open Mock Test-3 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol. : The circuit at steady state is shown in the 21. Answer (4)
figure.
Hint and Sol. :

µ0 N2 A
L= , so when A decrease and  increase,

L decrease.
22. Answer (2)
 1 1 1
−1 Hint : vmax = Aω
RAB =  + + 
2 3 6 Sol. : Given x = 7(sinπt + cosπt))

=1Ω = 7 2 sin( πt + 45°)

2 dx
=i = A 0.4 A v= = 7 2π cos( πt + 45°)
5 dt
18. Answer (1) For vmax, cos(πt + 45°) = 1
Hint : Use concept of ohm’s law. = 7 2π m/s
v max
1 23. Answer (1)
Sol. : Slope of I – V graph is . If slope is less,
R Hint : Use concept of resonance with end
then resistance is more this implies that correction.
temperature of conductor is more.
Hence T1 > T2 > T3
19. Answer (1)
Sol. :
Hint : Use Q = CV
Sol. : Since 2 µF and 3 µF capacitors are in
parallel then voltage across 2 µF and 3 µF will be
equal and charge divides in direct proportion of λ
capacitance.
= 16 + e
4
2 µF 3λ
=
Q2 µF ×Q = 50 + e
(2 + 3) µF 4
2 λ
= × 60 =24 µC = 34
5 2
20. Answer (2) λ = 68 cm
1 q V = fλ = 480 × 0.68
Hint : Use E= and superposition
4πε0 r 2 = 326.4 m/s
principle. 24. Answer (3)
    
Sol. : E = E1 + E2 + E3 + E4 F
Hint : σs = t
Aaa′
 10 −6  1 2 3 
=E + + ( −i ) A
4πε0 12 22 32  Sol. : Aaa′ =
sin θ
 1 1
= 9 × 103 1 + +  ( −i )
 2 3
11 
=9 × 103 × ( −i )
6
kN 
= 16.5 ( −i )
C Ft F cos θ
=

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Shearing stress, Sol. : Breaking stress depends on material

Ft F cos θ F sin θ cos θ T1 T2
σ=
s = = Hence =
Aaa′  A  A A1 A2
 
 sin θ  700 T2
=
F sin2θ π π
= (1.5)2 (3)2
2A 4 4
25. Answer (2)  3 
2
700 ×   =
T2
Q1 T1  1.5 
Hint : = for carnot engine
Q2 T2 T2 = 2800 N
T2 350 31. Answer (2)
Sol. : Q=
2 Q=
1 × 2 × 104 cal
T1 500 Hint : Use energy conservation principle.
= 14 × 103 cal GMm
Sol. : Ei = − (at earth’s surface)
= 14 kcal R
26. Answer (1) GMm GMm
Ef =
− =
−
C −0 X − 42 2(4R ) 8R
Hint : Use =
100 − 0 192 − 42 GMm GMm 7 GMm
∆E = Ef − Ei = − =
40 X − 42 R 8R 8 R
Sol. : = 32. Answer (1)
100 150
Hint : For a planet to behave as a black hole
60 = X – 42
escape velocity should be equal to speed of light
X 102° X
= in vacuum.
27. Answer (4) 2GM
Sol. : v e =
Hint : E ∝ T 4 R
Sol. : E ∝ T 4 2GM
(3 × 108 )2 =
T = (700 + 273)K = 973 K R
Hence E ∝ (973)4 2 × 6.67 × 10−11 × 7 × 1028
28. Answer (3) R=
9 × 1016
Hint : Use Bernoulli’s principle
= 10.37 × 10 −11+ 28 −16
1 2 = 103.75 m = 104 m
Sol. : P = P0 + ρv
2 33. Answer (4)
1
  
2 × 105= 105 + × 103 ⋅ v 2 Hint : Angular momentum L= r × p
2
Sol. : Since particle is moving along a line passing
2 × 105 through points (1, 3) and (3, 5) then equation of
= v2
103 line is (y - 3) = (x – 1)
y=x+2
= 200 10 2 m/s
v =
29. Answer (2)
Hint and Sol. : Viscous force depends on relative
velocity of the object. Magnus effect is related with
Bernoulli’s principle and Bernoulli’s principle is
based on conservation of energy. On decreasing
the temperature surface tension increases.
30. Answer (3)
This equation will also pass through point (0, 2)
Tension Hence perpendicular distance from (0, 2) is zero.
Hint : Stress = 
Area Hence L = 0

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34. Answer (1) 38. Answer (3)

 
Hint and Sol. : As drum rolls down an inclined Hint : Use W= F ⋅ S for constant force.
plane, the centre of mass accelerates with gsinθ, 
for pure rolling angular acceleration should also be Sol. : S = [ 4 − ( −2)] i + (5 − 3) j
there to increase angular velocity. Hence friction
will act upwards along the inclined plane. = ( 6i + 2 j ) m

35. Answer (2) F ( 5i + 3 j ) N
=
1  
Hint : Idisc = MR 2 and use parallel axis theorem W = F ⋅ S = ( 5i + 3 j ) ⋅ ( 6i + 2 j )
2
Sol. : I= I1 − I2 = 30 + 6 = 36 J
39. Answer (2)
Hint : Draw free body diagram of A.
Sol. : Let R′ be reaction force between blocks A
and B.

MR 2  1 M  R 2 M  R 2 
=− 2    +    F − R ′ − ( fA )lim =
0
2 2 4  2  42 
MR 2 6 (16 − 6)MR 2 5 ⇒ R ′ = F − ( fA )lim = 400 − 0.2 × 15 × 10 = 370 N
= − MR 2 = = MR 2
2 32 32 16 40. Answer (4)
36. Answer (1) Hint : Impulse = change in linear momentum.
work   5
Hint : Use power = Sol. : At t = 1 s, Impulse = m(v 2 − v1) = − − 5  m
Time  2 
w mgh 15m
Sol. : P = = = 20 × 10 × 150 Impluse t =1 s =
t t 2
 
= 30000 W At t = 4 s, Impulse = m (v 2′ − v1′ ) = ( −5 − 5)m
Power generated = 80% P = 0.8 × 30000
Impulse t = 4 s = 10m
= 24 kW
37. Answer (4) 15
Impulse t =1 s m
Hint : Impulse = change in linear momentum. 2 3
= =
Impulse t = 4 s 10m 4
41. Answer (2)
Sol. :
2u sin θ 1
Hint : Use=
T y uy t − gt 2
and=
g 2
u 2u sin θ 5 × 10
uy = −u sin30° = − Sol. : T = ⇒ = uy
2 g 2
1 uy = 25 m/s
vy =
−euy = u sin30°
2
1
u Now, y = uy t − g ⋅t2
= 2
4
20 = 25t – 5t2
=
Impulse ( mv f − mv i ) t2 – 5t + 4 = 0
= ( mv y − muy ) =t
5 ± 25 − 16
= 1 s and 4 s
2
 u  u  3
= m − − = mu Now 42 = ux(t2 – t1)
 4  2  4

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42 44. Answer (4)

=
ux = 14 m/s
(4 − 1) Hint : Slope of v – t graph is acceleration.
x = ux × t1 = 14 × 1 Sol. : For section OA, slope of x – t graph is
decreasing that is velocity is decreasing hence
= 14 m acceleration is negative. Similarly for section BC,
42. Answer (1) velocity is increasing hence acceleration is
Hint : use concept of relative motion. positive. For sections AB and CD, ∆v = 0 and
hence a = 0
Sol. : To collide, both the bodies should have
equal vertical component of velocities. 45. Answer (2)
i.e. v1 sin30° =v 2 Hint : Use dimensional formula.
Sol. : [Momentum] = [MLT–1]
v1 1
= = 2 [Planck’s constant] = [ML2T–1]
v 2 sin30°
[Stress] = [ML–1T–2]
43. Answer (3) [Energy density] = [ML–1T–2]
 Total displacement [Tension] = [MLT–2]
Hint : v avg =
Total time elapsed [Surface tension] = [MT–2]
 2v1v 2 2 × 8 × 12 [Speed] = [LT–1]
Sol. :=
v avg = = 9.6 m/s
v1 + v 2 12 + 8  µ0∈0  = [L–1T]
 

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (2) 50. Answer (2)
Hint : For SN1 reaction, stable carbocation should faintly alkaline
Hint : MnO−4 
→ MnO2
be formed. medium
Sol. : Sol. : 2MnO−4 + H2O + I− → 2MnO2 + 2OH− + IO3−
51. Answer (4)
Hint : Highest oxidation state shown by actinoids
is +7.
Sol. : Element : Ac U Pa Np
47. Answer (4)
Highest oxidation state : 3 6 5 7
Hint : Cu(Z = 29) : [Ar]3d104s1
52. Answer (3)
Sol. : Outermost electron of copper is present in
1 Hint : If net dipole moment is zero then molecule
4s orbital. For 4s electron : n = 4, l = 0, m = 0 will be non-polar.
1 1 Sol. SiCl4
s= + − CO2 NF3 XeF4
2 2
sp 3 sp sp 3
sp3d 2
48. Answer (1)
Hint : (µ 0) =
= (µ 0) (µ ≠ 0) =
(µ 0)
Malachite (CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2), Calcite (CaCO3), 53. Answer (1)
Cerrusite (PbCO3), Calamine (ZnCO3) Hint : More the polarity and higher the molecular
49. Answer (1) mass of a gas, higher will be van der Waal
constant (a).
Hint : In alkaline earth metal sulphates, lattice
Sol. : gas : NH3 CO2 N2 H2
energy is nearly same.
Sol. : For alkaline earth metal sulphates, as the a (bar 2/mol2) : 4.225 3.65 1.37 0.2453
size of metal ion increases, its hydration energy 54. Answer (1)
decreases so solubility in water decreases.
Mole of solute
∴ solubility order : BeSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 > Hint : Molality ( m ) =
BaSO4 wt. of solvent ( kg )

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Sol. : nurea = 1 Sol. :

WH=
2O
1kg
= 1000g

n 1 1
X=
urea = = = 0.018
n + N 1 + 1000 56.55
18
55. Answer (1)
Hint : Oxidation number of CI–atom in
chloroalkane is –1.
Sol. : Oxidation state of chlorine in the given 61. Answer (4)
molecules is Sol. : Naproxen is used to treat pain.
( −1) (0) ( +1) ( +5) 62. Answer (1)
CH3 − CI, CI2 , CI2O, NaClO3
Hint : During condensation polymerisation, small
56. Answer (2) molecules like CO2, H2O, NH3 etc. are eliminated.
Hint : According to Le-chatelier’s principle, on Sol. :
increasing the concentration of any species at
equilibrium, the equilibrium goes to that direction
where concentration of that species decreases.
Sol. : When concentration of O2 is decreased at
equilibrium then equilibrium goes in backward
direction so that concentration of O2 can increase.
57. Answer (3)
Sol. : Thiol group participates in disulphide bond
63. Answer (3)
formation in proteins.
58. Answer (4) Hint : Vitamin–C is water soluble vitamin
Hint : Alkyl benzene on oxidation with alkaline Sol. : Water soluble vitamins : vitamin –B2, B5 and
KMnO4 gives benzoic acid. vitamin – C
Sol. : Fat soluble vitamins : vitamin – D, E, K, A
64. Answer (3)
Hint :

65. Answer (4)

Hint : Lesser the pKa value, more will be the acidic
nature.
59. Answer (2) Sol. :
Hint : Cleavage of C–C bond take place
Sol. :

66. Answer (2)

Hint : Photochemical smog is an oxidising smog.
60. Answer (4) Sol. : Main component of photochemical smog are
Hint : Stability order of carbocation : 3° > 2° > 1°. O3, PAN and NOX.

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67. Answer (2) Sol. : If ∆H = (–)ve and ∆S = (+)ve, then ∆G is

Hint : More the electron density on the benzene always negative.
ring, more will be its reactivity towards electrophilic 73. Answer (1)
reagents.
3RT
Sol. : Rate of SE reaction : Hint : urms =
M
Sol. : urms ∝ T
u2 3T
= = 1.732
u1 T
74. Answer (3)
68. Answer (1) Hint : CIF3 is a bent –T – shape molecule
Hint : H–atoms present at vinylic position and Sol. : CIF3 : Hybridised orbitals = σ – bond + l.p
bridgehead position do not participate in
= 3 + 2 =5
tautomerism.
∴ Hybridisation = sp d 3

Sol. :

75. Answer (2)

Hint : Due to interelectronic repulsion in O-atom,
69. Answer (3) it has least negative electron gain enthalpy in its
Hint : Generally on moving top to bottom in a group.
group, acidic nature of oxides decreases and basic Sol. : element CI F O S
nature increases.
∆egH (kJ/mol) –349 –328 –141 –200
Sol. : B2O3 and SiO2 : acidic 76. Answer (4)
PbO2 : amphoteric Hint : Magnetic quantum number gives orientation
CO : Neutral of orbital in space.
70. Answer (4) Sol. : Two electrons in an atom occupying the
Hint : Among alkali metal carbonates, only Li2CO3 same orbital are distinguished by spin quantum
decomposes on heating number.
∆ 77. Answer (4)
Sol. : Li2CO3 → Li2O + CO2 Hint : One molecule of Biomolecule should
∆
BeCO3  → BeO + CO2 contain one atom of Zn.
∆
MgCO3  → MgO + CO2 Number of Zn atom × 65.38
Sol. : % of Zn
= × 100
∆ wt. of Biomolecule
K 2CO3  →x
1× 65.38
71. Answer (1) 0.75
= × 100
MW
Hint : Mass of H2O2 present in 100 ml solution is
65.38 × 100
called its percent strength. ∴ Minimum MW of Biomolecule =
0.75
11.2 × w
Sol. : Vol strength = 11.2 × molarity = = 8717.33 g/mol
34 × V ( lit )
78. Answer (3)
w 15 × 34 Hint : ∆Tf ∝ i × m ∝ (1 + (n – 1) α) × m
∴ = = 45.53 g/L
V ( lit ) 11.2 Sol. : NaCI : i × m = (1 + (2–1)×0.5) × 0.1 = 0.15
K2SO4 : i × m = (1 + (3 – 1) × 0.2) × 0.2 = 0.28
∴ 1 L (1000 ml) solution contains 45.53 g H2O2
Urea : i × m = 1 × 0.1 = 0.1
So, 100 ml solution will contain 4.553 g H2O2.
Glucose : i × m = 1 × 0.2 = 0.2
72. Answer (4)
79. Answer (2)
Hint : For spontaneous reaction, ∆G < 0 Hint : Diamond has ZnS type unit cell.

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80. Answer (3) M 1

Hint : Jahn Teller effect in complexes is mainly Sol. : 50 ml KOH : meq . of KOH = 50 × =10
5 5
observed in d-orbital having unsymmetrical ‘eg’
configuration. M 1
100 ml HNO3 : meq. of HNO3 = 100 × 5
=
20 20
after mixing,
Sol. :
meq. of KOH = 10 – 5 = 5 = Nf × (100 + 50)
5 1
Nf
= =
150 30
81. Answer (1)
 1
Hint : S2O82− contains peroxide bond. ∴ pOH =
− log   = log ( 30 ) =
1.4771
 30 
 O O  ∴ pH = 14 –1.4771 = 12.522
– || || 
 O — S — O — O — S — O–  85. Answer (2)
 || || 
 O O  Hint : If lone pair on O–atom in ethers or alcohols
  is not delocalised then it will be more easily
Sol. : protonated.
S O O
|| || ||
–
O — S— O – , – O — S — S — S — S — O –
|| || || Sol. :
O O O
86. Answer (3)
(S O )
2
2−
3 (S O ) 4
2−
6 Hint : Ortho substituted biphenyls having no
symmetry elements are optically active.
−
O — S — S — O−
|| ||
O O
Sol. : is optically
( S2O24− )
O O
|| || inactive because it has plane of symmetry.
–
O — S — O — S — O– 87. Answer (4)
|| ||
O O Hint : The extent to which a ligand affects the
(S O )
2
2−
7
leaving ability of group trans to itself in a complex
is termed as trans effect.
82. Answer (4) Sol. : Ordering of ligands in a trans directing series
Hint : Ti can be purified by vapour phase refining. – –
is : CO > NO2 > CI > OH
–

Sol. :
88. Answer (1)
 Calcination process is used to convert ore in
to oxide form Sol. : Froth is a colloidal solution of gas (dispersed
phase) in liquid (dispersion medium)
 Tin stone (cassiterite) is concentrated by
magnetic separation method. 89. Answer (2)
 Extraction of AI from AI2O3 is done by Hint : t 1 ∝ ( a )
1−n
.
electrometallurgy. 2
83. Answer (3) Sol. :
H+
Hint : Cr2O72− + C2O24− → Cr
 3+
+ CO2 . 2t 1
( 2a )1−n
Sol. : meq. of K2Cr2O7 = meq. of C2O24−
∴ = 2
2
⇒= ( 2 )1−n ⇒=
n 0
t1
2
( a )1−n
Mole of K2Cr2O7 × 6 = 1 × 2
90. Answer (3)
1
Mole of K 2Cr2O7 = Hint : More the number of ions in aqueous
3 solution, more will be the electric conductance.
84. Answer (1)
Sol. : HNO3 is a strong electrolyte so It has
Hint : | N1 V1 – N2 V2| = N3 (V1 + V2).
maximum conductivity among given options.
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 Open Mock Test-3 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (1) 98. Answer (2)
Hint : Polysiphonia exhibits haplo-diplontic life Sol. : DNA polymerase cannot initiate the process
cycle. of replication.
Sol. : Ginkgo and Cedrus are gymnospermic plant Hence, primer is required during replication.
and they show diplontic life cycle while, Fucus, a 99. Answer (1)
brown alga, exhibit diplontic life cycle.
Hint :
92. Answer (4)
Hint : The peripheral region of the secondary
xylem is lighter in colour and is known as sap
wood.
Sol. : So, only A and AB blood groups are possible
Sol. : Heart wood is hard, durable and resistant to
in progenies.
attack of microbes. This region comprises of dead
elements with highly lignified walls. 100. Answer (1)
Heartwood does not conduct water but it gives Hint : Most algae show external fertilisation except
mechanical support to the stem. a few ones.
93. Answer (1) Sol. : Spirogyra shows internal fertilisation.
Hint : Potato comes under family - Solanaceae. Emasculation : Bisexual flower
Sol. : Floral formula for family Solanaceae is Triple fusion : Unique to
Angiosperms
Castor seed : Albuminous
94. Answer (3)
101. Answer (4)
Hint : Archaebacteria are special as they live in
Hint : Net gain of ATP in alcohol and lactic acid
some of the most harsh habitats.
fermentation is same.
Sol. : Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in
having a different cell wall composition. Sol. : In both fermentation, only 2 ATP molecules
are produced.
95. Answer (1)
102. Answer (4)
1
Hint : Number of bivalents = (total no. of Hint : C4 plants show double carboxylation. For C3
2
chromosomes) pathway, RuBisCO is present in bundle sheath
cells.
Sol. : The complex formed by a pair of synapsed
chromosomes is called bivalent. Bivalent is so Sol. : PEPcase is present in mesophyll cell which
called because two homologous chromosomes lacks oxygenase activity. Hence C4 plants can
form a pair. perform photosynthesis even when concentration
In the given question, there are total 36 of CO2 is low very.
chromosomes present in a diploid cell. 103. Answer (3)
1 Hint : Nitrite reductase is found in leaves of plants.
Hence, number of bivalents = × 36 =18
2 Sol. : It reduces nitrite ions to ammonia.
96. Answer (4) Nitrate reductase reduces nitrate to nitrite.
Sol. : Endemic species are found in a particular 104. Answer (1)
area and no where else. Hint : Water moves from high to low water
97. Answer (4) potential.
Hint : Polyblend when mixed with bitumen, Sol. : Cell A Cell B
increases the bitumen’s water repellent DPD = 10 bars ψw = – 12 bars + 4 bars
properties. ψw = – 10 bars ψw = – 8 bars
Sol. : Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled DPD = 8 bars
modified plastic. Hence, cell A is more deficit in water than cell B.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
105. Answer (3)
Hint : Active transport is uphill transport.
Sol. : Active transport requires energy.
106. Answer (4)
Hint : Some pteridophytes produce two types of
spores such as Salvinia.
Sol. : Salvinia is heterosporous.
107. Answer (2)
Hint : Monocot stems do not show secondary
growth.
Sol. : Tulip is a monocot.
Cycas — Gymnosperm.
Sunflower and Sweet pea — Angiosperms.
108. Answer (1)
Hint : does not exist as floral symbol because
() shows fused condition and single carpel cannot
be fused.
109. Answer (2)
Hint : Ginger and Banana has modified stem.
Sol. : Ginger is edible stem. Edible part of banana
is fruit.
In Pea, edible part – Seed.
Sweet potato – Edible part is modified storage
root.
110. Answer (3)
Hint : TMV is ssRNA virus.
Sol. : The outermost covering of virus is capsid. It
was first crystallised by W.M. Stanley.
111. Answer (4)
Hint : Thiospirillum is a purple sulphur bacteria.
Sol. : Purple sulphur bacteria perform anoxygenic
photosynthesis and hence do not produce oxygen
because they don’t use H2O as electron donor,
instead they use H2S for the same.
112. Answer (3)
Hint : Members of a species are reproductively
isolated from members of other species.
Sol. : Members of a species can reproduce freely
with each other but not with the members of other
species.
113. Answer (2)
Hint : Meiosis II takes place in haploid cells, which
are produced after meiosis I.
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Sol. : Meiosis II is equational division as the
number of chromosomes in the daughter cells
remains the same as in the cells produced at the
end of meiosis I.
114. Answer (3)
Hint : Ribozyme is RNA enzyme and RNA is a
nucleic acid.
Sol. : Cristae are the infoldings of mitochondria.
Chromatophores help in photosynthesis as they
contain pigments. Lysosome is single membrane
bound structure.
115. Answer (4)
Hint : Nucleolus is found in the nucleoplasm.
Sol. : Centriole takes part in the spindle formation
not the nucleolus. It is the site for rRNA synthesis.
116. Answer (4)
Hint : Gymnosperms have secondary growth.
Sol. : Gymnosperms lack vessels (tracheae),
companion cells and tyloses (tracheal plugs). They
have secondary xylem and phloem as they show
secondary growth.
117. Answer (1)
Hint : Herbivores are present at second trophic
level and they have plants only as their prey.
Sol. : Herbivores have lesser number of
alternative resources i.e. plants only. While
carnivores being at higher trophic level have more
alternative resources.
118. Answer (4)
Hint : Acetic acid is produced by a bacterium.
Sol. : Acetic acid – Acetobacter aceti.
Statin – Monascus purpureus (yeast)
Brewing and baking industry – Saccharomyces
sp. (Yeast)
119. Answer (1)
Sol. : Atlas-66 – Biofortified wheat with high
protein content.
Sonalika – High yielding Indian wheat
Himgiri – Rust resistant wheat
Sonora-64 – Mexican wheat
120. Answer (1)
Hint : Structural genes of lac-operon synthesise
enzymes required for breakdown of lactose
(catabolic process).
Sol. : Structural genes are luxury or non-
constitutive genes.
Being prokaryote E. coli have polycistronic
structural gene.
 Open Mock Test-3 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)
121. Answer (3)
Hint : m-RNA with maximum number of codons
before stop codon will form protein with maximum
number of amino acids.
Sol. :
a – UGA is stop codon, before that only 2 codons
and thus 2 amino acids.
b – UGA is a stop codon, before that only 4
codons and thus 4 amino acids.
c – UAA is a stop codon, before that only 6 codons
and thus 6 amino acids.
Thus m-RNA given in ‘c’ will form the protein with
maximum number of amino acids.
122. Answer (3)
Hint : Probabaly this female is suffering from
Turner’s syndrome.
Sol. : Chromosome complement of this female is
44 + XO.
 Turner’s syndrome arises due to monosomy of
sex chromosome as XO.
 Chromosomal disorders are not inherited to
progenies. The female ‘A’ being sterile will not
reproduce.
123. Answer (1)
Hint : Citrus have polyembryonic seeds.
Sol. : In Citrus, embryo formed by nucellus and
integuments are genetically similar. Therefore
seeds are apomictic in nature. Being a dicot, Citrus
seeds lack coleorhiza. Embryo formed by zygote,
integument and nucellus are diploid.
124. Answer (2)
Hint : Castor and maize both are monoecious.
Sol. : Castor and maize both produce unisexual
flowers on the same plant. Both can show
geitonogamy also.
Maize is monocarpic, thus interflowering period is
absent in it.
125. Answer (4)
Hint : Some plant growth regulators break
dormancy of seeds.
Sol. : Ethylene and gibberellins break dormancy
of seeds and promote their germination.
126. Answer (1)
Hint : Complex II is associated with an enzyme
that catalyse the conversion of succinate to
fumarate.
Sol. : Succinate dehydrogenase (complex II) is
found attached with the inner mitochondrial
membrane.
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127. Answer (4)
Hint : Given diagram depicts C4 pathway of
photosynthesis.
Sol. : C4 acid (malic or aspartic acid) undergoes
decarboxylation in bundle sheath cells and form C3
acid (pyruvic acid).
128. Answer (1)
Hint : This organism is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer.
Sol. : Anabaena – filamentous autotroph.
Azotobacter – unicellular heterotroph.
Rhizobium – unicellular heterotroph.
Frankia – filamentous heterotrophic nitrogen fixer
in non legume plants.
129. Answer (3)
Hint : Meristematic cells undergo mitosis.
Sol. : Bivalents or homologous chromosome
pairs are formed in zygotene stage of meiosis.
Meristems being somatic cells do not perform
meiosis.
130. Answer (4)
Hint : Polytene chromosomes are special giant
chromosomes found in salivary gland of some
dipteran insects.
Sol. : Polytene chromosomes undergo somatic
pairing that’s why their number appears half of the
chromosomes number of normal somatic cells. But
they do not perform crossing over to produce new
genetic combinations.
131. Answer (1)
Hint : Bryophytes produce single type of spores.
Sol. : All bryophytes are homosporous.
Algae are non-embryophytes and they lack
vascular system too.
Pteridophytes show sporic meiosis and produce
haploid spores.
132. Answer (1)
Hint : Gymnosperms are archegoniate
phanerogams while angiosperms are non-
archegoniate phanerogams.
Sol. : Pinus and Cycas – Produce seeds and
have archegonia.
Funaria, Selaginella – Have archegonia but lack
seeds.
Mustard – Have seeds but lack archegonia.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
133. Answer (4)
Hint : Agaricus belongs to basidiomycetes while
Aspergillus belongs to ascomycetes.
Sol. : Members of both ascomycetes and
basidiomycetes have branched and septate
mycelium as well as presence of dikaryophase in
their life.
Sexual spores of ascomycetes are endogenous
while of basidiomycetes are exogenous in origin.
Ascomycetes members reproduce asexually by
conidia.
134. Answer (2)
Hint : Diatoms after their death get deposited at
the sea bed as their cell wall are nearly
indestructible.
Sol. : Cell walls of diatoms are deposited with
silica which make them nearly indestructible.
Diatoms are autotrophs and do not form fruiting
bodies.
135. Answer (4)
Hint : This taxonomical aid is storehouse of dried,
pressed and preserved plant specimens.
Sol. : Herbarium contains dead plant specimens
along with a label containing some informations
regarding specimens.
Botanical garden contains live plant specimens.
Flora and manual have only written information
regarding plants of a given area.
136. Answer (2)
Hint : Meiocytes are the diploid cells.
Sol. : Chromosome number in meiocyte of
housefly, fruitfly and butterfly are 12, 8 and 380
respectively.
137. Answer (3)
Hint : A cross between male donkey and female
horse.
Sol. : In interspecific hybridization, male and
female animals of two different related species are
mated. Out crossing is a practice of mating of
animals within the same breed but having no
common ancestors on either side of their pedigree
for upto 4 – 6 generations.
In cross breeding, superior males of one breed are
mated with the superior female of another breed.
138. Answer (4)
Hint : Disease that is caused by Nosema
bombycis.
Sol. : Common diseases of silkworm are pebrine
caused by protozoan Nosema bombycis,
muscardine by fungus Spicaria and Botrytis and
flacherie by virus.
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Ranikhet/New castle’s disease is a viral poultry
disease. Pullorum is a bacterial disease.
139. Answer (1)
Hint : Disease related to liver.
Sol. : Second generation vaccines such as
hepatitis B vaccine is produced from yeast. First
generation vaccines are whole organism vaccines,
either live and weakened (attenuated) or killed
form e.g. small pox, OPV, BCG. Influenza
vaccines are attenuated.
140. Answer (2)
Hint : Opioid analgesic.
Sol. : Heroin commonly called smack is chemically
diacetyl morphine which is a white, odourless,
bitter crystalline compound.
The flower tops, leaves and the resin of Cannabis
plant are used in various combinations to produce
marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja. Cocaine is
obtained from Erythroxylum coca.
141. Answer (1)
Hint : Hardy Weinberg equilibrium.
Sol. : Frequency of recessive allele i.e. q = 0.8
Frequency of dominant allele i.e. p = 1 – 0.8 = 0.2
∴ Frequency of homozygous dominant individuals
(AA)
= p2 = (0.2)2 = 0.04
Frequency of heterozygous individual (Aa) = 2pq
= 2(0.2) (0.8) = 0.32
Frequency of homozygous recessive individual
(aa)
= q2 = (0.8)2 = 0.64
142. Answer (4)
Hint : Structures which are a result of divergent
evolution.
Sol. : Vertebrate heart and brains are examples of
homologous structures. The structures in different
organisms which have similarity in their anatomy
or basic plan but serve different functions are
known as homologous structures.
143. Answer (3)
Hint : Identify spirochaete.
Sol. : The causative agent of syphilis is
Treponema pallidum.
Chlamydiasis – Chlamydia trachomatis
Gonorrhoea – Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Trichomoniasis – Trichomonas vaginalis
144. Answer (2)
Hint : Hormone releasing IUD.
Sol. : Hormone releasing IUDs – Progestasert,
LNG – 20, Copper releasing IUDs – CuT, Cu7,
Multiload 375.
 Open Mock Test-3 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)
145. Answer (1)
Hint : Adrenal gland hormone.
Sol. : In emergency condition, adrenaline /
epinephrine is released from adrenal medulla into
the blood which acts on heart and increases the
heart beat, resulting in supply of more oxygen to
the muscles and thereby decreases the flow of
blood to the digestive system.
146. Answer (4)
Hint : Animal belongs to phylum Arthropoda.
Sol. : Scorpion is a predaceous carnivore that
shows matriphagy i.e. a process in which an
organism feeds on its own mother. Periplanata
respires through tracheal system.
147. Answer (2)
Hint : Day of ovulation = Number of days in
Menstrual cycle –14.
Sol. : LH induces ovulation which usually occurs
on 21st day in the 35 day cycle.
Day of ovulation = 35 – 14 = 21st day.
148. Answer (4)
Hint : Milk let down hormone.
Sol. : Milk ejection reflex is caused by combined
neurogenic and hormonal reflexes that involve
release of oxytocin from maternal posterior
pituitary gland.
149. Answer (3)
Hint : Insemination is male gamete transfer.
Sol. : Gametogenesis → Insemination
→ Syngamy → Zygote → Cleavage → Cell
differentiation → Organogenesis.
Fusion of gametes leading to formation of zygote
is known as syngamy.
150. Answer (3)
Hint : Providencia stuartii.
Sol. :
151. Answer (1)
Hint : Polymerase chain reaction.
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Sol. : Taq polymerase is obtained from Thermus
aquaticus. It extends primers on genomic DNA
template and is thermostable.
152. Answer (4)
Hint : Haemophilus influenzae is the microbial
origin of this enzyme.
Sol. : Hind II was isolated and characterised five
years later and was the first discovered type II
restriction endonuclease.
153. Answer (2)
Hint : Speed depends on the size of DNA
fragments.
Sol. : Smaller the fragment size, farther it moves
from the point of loading i.e. the well.
DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules
separated by forcing them to move towards
positive electrode. i.e. anode.
Increasing the concentration of gel reduces the
migration speed of DNA.
DNA fragments can only be visualised under UV
light after staining with ethidium bromide and not
directly.
154. Answer (2)
Hint. : Piracy means unauthorized use or
reproduction of someone’s work.
Sol. : Bioprospecting refers to exploring molecular
genetics and species level diversity for products of
economic importance.
155. Answer (3)
Hint. : Selectable marker helps in elimination.
Sol. : Selectable markers help in identification and
elimination of non–transformants whilst permitting
selective growth of transformants.
156. Answer (4)
Hint : Structures related to pelvic fins.
Sol. : In male chondrichthyes pelvic fins bear
claspers. Chondrichthyes have heterocercal tail.
Operculum, air bladder and cycloid/ctenoid scales
are present in Osteichthyes.
157. Answer (4)
Hint : Animals also known as glorified reptiles.
Sol. : Crop is responsible for the storage of food.
Gizzard helps in mastication of food. Crop and
gizzard both are present in aves and arthropods.
158. Answer (3)
Hint : Commonly known as flatworms.
Sol. : Platyhelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical,
triploblastic and acoelomate animals with organ
level of organisation. Annelids and arthropods are
coelomate while aschelminthes are
pseudocoelomates.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
159. Answer (4)
Hint : Animals which have ciliated comb plates
are ctenophores.
Sol. : Pleurobrachia – Ctenophora
Ancylostoma – Aschelminthes
Limulus – Arthropoda
Hirudinaria – Annelida
160. Answer (3)
Hint : Catabolic reaction.
Sol. : Insulin from β-cells lowers blood glucose
level by promoting glycogenesis.
161. Answer (3)
Hint : Corticoids which are secreted by zona
fasciculata of adrenal cortex.
Sol. : Glucocorticoids include 3 main hormones,
cortisol, corticosterone and cortisone. Of the three,
cortisol is most abundant. Glucocorticoids are
immunosuppressive so they are also used in
transplantation surgery to avoid tissue rejection by
immune system of the recipient.
162. Answer (1)
Hint : Area which is neither clearly sensory nor
motor in function.
Sol. : The cerebral cortex contains three major
types of areas i.e. motor, sensory and association
areas. Sensory area receives various types of
sensations. Motor areas are concerned with
movements of skeletal elements. Association
areas are responsible for certain complex
functions like intersensory association, memory
and communication.
163. Answer (4)
Hint : Electrogenic pump.
Sol. : The Na+ – K+ pumps transport 3Na+
outwards for 2K+ into the axon maintaining the
polarised state.
164. Answer (2)
Hint : Joints that permit limited movement.
Sol. : In cartilaginous / Imperfect / Amphiarthroses
joints, the two bones are joined together with help
of a disc or pad of white fibrous cartilage. These
joints are present between the adjacent vertebrae
of vertebral column and in pubic symphysis etc.
165. Answer (3)
Hint : Disease in which dystrophin is not formed.
Sol. : In muscular dystrophy the protein dystrophin
is not formed which helps to reinforce the
sarcolemma and thus helps to transmit tension
generated by sarcomeres to tendons.
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Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder
affecting neuromuscular junctions leading to
fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal
muscles.
166. Answer (4)
Hint : Hair pin like structure.
Sol. : Ascending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water but permeable to salts.
Reabsorption of water occurs at PCT, DCT, CD
and descending limb of loop of Henle.
167. Answer (3)
Hint : Low threshold substance.
Sol. : Nearly all of the essential nutrients and 70 –
80% of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed by
PCT. Glucose is are absorbed completely in PCT.
168. Answer (1)
Hint : Identify an enzyme complex.
Sol. : Thromboplastins help in the formation of the
enzyme complex thrombokinase. Thrombokinase
converts an inactive protein prothrombin, present
in the plasma, into thrombin. Thrombin is an
enzyme which converts soluble fibrinogen of
plasma into insoluble fibrin.
169. Answer (2)
Hint : ‘O’ blood group individuals are called
universal donors.
Sol. : RBCs of individuals having blood group ‘O’
lack A and B antigens, therefore, the recipient’s
antibodies cannot cause agglutination of the
donor’s RBCs. Individuals with blood group ‘AB’
lack anti – A and anti – B antibodies therefore,
agglutination with donor’s RBCs does not occur.
Therefore, such people are called universal
recipients.
170. Answer (2)
Hint : Ion which maintains alkalinity of plasma.
Sol. : Nearly 70% of CO2 is transported as sodium
bicarbonate in plasma. About 7% of CO2 gets
transported in dissolved form through plasma.
About 20–25% CO2 is transported as
carbaminohaemoglobin.
171. Answer (3)
Hint : Structural and functional unit of lungs.
Sol. : Alveoli are lined by squamous epithelium
which facilitates diffusion of gases.
Trachea and primary bronchi have incomplete
rings of cartilage. Ciliated epithelium is found in
some parts of pharynx.
 Open Mock Test-3 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)
172. Answer (2)
Hint : Contains a yellowish pigmented spot called
macula lutea.
Sol. :
173. Answer (2)
Hint : Vitamin also known as retinol.
Sol. : Vitamin K/Phylloquinone helps in blood
clotting.
174. Answer (4)
Hint : Stored food in animals.
Sol. : Glycogen and cellulose are
homopolysaccharides. of α and β glucose
respectively. Ribose, fructose and glucose are
monosaccharides.
175. Answer (3)
Hint : Bile has no digestive enzymes.
Sol. : Bilirubin and biliverdin are the components
of bile juice. Bile juice contains no digestive
enzymes and helps in emulsification of fats.
Lipase / steapsin is a fat digesting enzyme. Trypsin
is a protein digesting enzyme.
Rennin is milk protein digesting enzyme.
176. Answer (2)
Hint : Presence of Haemoglobin.
Sol. : In earthworm, blood is composed of fluid
plasma and colourless blood corpuscles. A
coloured respiratory pigment haemoglobin is also
present in plasma. It gives red colour to blood and
aids in transportation of O2 for respiration.
 
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177. Answer (1)
Hint : They are accessory sex glands in female
cockroach.
Sol. : P represents collaterial glands that are
responsible for secretion of ootheca.
S represents common oviduct or vagina.
R represents spermatheca responsible for storage
of sperms in female. Q represents genital chamber
which is the site for fertilization.
178. Answer (3)
Hint : Structure where vasa efferentia open.
Sol. : Bidder’s canal is a part of male reproductive
system in frogs. The vasa efferentia running
transversly through the mesorchium enter the
kidneys and open into the Bidder’s canal which
carries only sperms.
Excretory system consists of a pair of kidneys,
ureters, urinary bladder and cloaca.
179. Answer (2)
Hint : Cartilage is a skeletal connective tissue.
Sol. : Cartilage is found in the body of adult
vertebrates but is more abundant in foetus.
Cartilage is present in the tip of nose, outer ear
joints, between adjacent bones of the vertebral
column, limbs and hands in adults. Most of the
long bones are cartilaginous bones.
180. Answer (4)
Hint : Structure of sacromere.
Sol. : Each segment of the myofibril from one Z
line to the next, functions as a contractile unit and
is called a sarcomere. Various parts of a
sarcomere have a specific arrangement of actin
and myosin filaments as given below:-
I band – Has only actin filaments
A band – Has both actin and myosin filaments
H zone – Has only myosin filaments
Z line – A membrane to which actin filaments
are attached on both the sides
