Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2020

OPEN MOCK TEST - 5 (Code-A)

Test Date : 12/04/2020

ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (3) 109. (2) 145. (1)
2. (4) 38. (3) 74. (4) 110. (1) 146. (2)
3. (2) 39. (1) 75. (3) 111. (2) 147. (3)
4. (3) 40. (1) 76. (2) 112. (1) 148. (1)
5. (2) 41. (3) 77. (3) 113. (4) 149. (4)
6. (2) 42. (2) 78. (3) 114. (1) 150. (4)
7. (1) 43. (1) 79. (3) 115. (3) 151. (4)
8. (2) 44. (2) 80. (4) 116. (2) 152. (2)
9. (2) 45. (4) 81. (4) 117. (4) 153. (3)
10. (1) 46. (2) 82. (1) 118. (1) 154. (1)
11. (2) 47. (2) 83. (2) 119. (1) 155. (3)
12. (4) 48. (4) 84. (4) 120. (2) 156. (2)
13. (2) 49. (4) 85. (2) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (1) 50. (2) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (1)
15. (4) 51. (4) 87. (3) 123. (4) 159. (4)
16. (4) 52. (2) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (4)
17. (4) 53. (2) 89. (2) 125. (2) 161. (1)
18. (2) 54. (3) 90. (2) 126. (4) 162. (2)
19. (3) 55. (2) 91. (4) 127. (1) 163. (1)
20. (3) 56. (3) 92. (3) 128. (3) 164. (3)
21. (1) 57. (3) 93. (2) 129. (4) 165. (4)
22. (4) 58. (2) 94. (4) 130. (1) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (4) 95. (1) 131. (2) 167. (4)
24. (3) 60. (2) 96. (2) 132. (2) 168. (4)
25. (2) 61. (3) 97. (1) 133. (1) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (1) 98. (3) 134. (3) 170. (1)
27. (1) 63. (1) 99. (2) 135. (2) 171. (2)
28. (1) 64. (2) 100. (4) 136. (2) 172. (3)
29. (4) 65. (2) 101. (1) 137. (1) 173. (1)
30. (2) 66. (2) 102. (1) 138. (1) 174. (2)
31. (2) 67. (3) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (4)
32. (2) 68. (3) 104. (3) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (4) 69. (3) 105. (4) 141. (4) 177. (2)
34. (3) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (2) 178. (4)
35. (3) 71. (2) 107. (2) 143. (2) 179. (1)
36. (3) 72. (1) 108. (4) 144. (4) 180. (2)

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HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (1) so, total change in momentum of ball

1  1
2
∆p = ∆p1 + ∆p2 + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅∞ terms
Hint and Sol. : distance
= g = × 2 2.5 m
2 2
=− p(1 + e ) − ep(1 + e ) − ep(1 + e ) − e 2 p(1 + e ) ⋅ ⋅ ⋅
2. Answer (4)
= − p(1 + e ) [1 + e + e 2 + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅]
pitch
Hint : L.C. =
Number of C.S.D − p(1 + e )
=
Sol. : Pitch is distance travelled by screw in one (1 − e )
complete rotation.
Equal and opposite momentum is imparted on the
1mm floor so,
pitch
= = 0.5 mm
2 p(1 + e )
∆pfloor =
0.5 (1 − e )
L.C.
= = 0.01mm
= 0.001 cm
50
6. Answer (2)
3. Answer (2)
Hint and Sol. : In circular motion, if speed is
Hint : T = m(g + a) decreasing, the angle between acceleration and

Sol. : T – mg= ma velocity is obtuse. Therefore, a ⋅ v < 0
T 7. Answer (1)
=
a −g
m E 
Hint :   = [speed]
a is maximum, when T is maximum B 
Tmax = 4mg
B   1 
Sol.
= :   = [TL−1]
a = 4g – g = 3g  E   speed 
4. Answer (3) 8. Answer (2)
Hint : Work-energy theorem. Hint : Concept of Bouyancy.
Sol. : From x = 0 to x = 5 m → no retardation Sol. : Let volume of copper = Vcu
From x = 5 to x = 10 m
Let volume of cavity = Vca
10
1 1  1   1 1 1
2 2 ∫
mv 2 − mu 2 = 
5 
− 2 
(x) 
1
dx = − =
 10 5 
−
10 =
Vcu
mcu
=
20
m3
ρcu 9000
1 1 1
mv 2 =− + × 2 × (4) Weight of sphere in water reduces by 0.2 × mcu g
2 10 2 = 40 N
1 39 Buoyancy = weight reduction
=4 − = =3.9 J
10 10
ρwater (Vcu + Vca ) g =
40 N
5. Answer (2)
Hint : Change in momentum of ball after first  20 
1000  + Vca  × 10 =
40
collision ∆p1 = – ep – (+p) = – p(1 + e)  9000 
Sol. : Change in momentum of ball after first  20 
collision ∆p1 = – p(1+e) 4 − 
VCa =  9 
after second collision 1000
∆p2 =−e 2 p − (ep ) =−ep(1 + e ) and so on = 1.77 × 10–3 m3

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9. Answer (2) 1 1 1 
−1

Cnet =  + + 
Hint : Equation of continuity.  4 4 3×4
Sol. : Av = A1v1 + A2v2
12
= µF
A 2A 7
=
A(6) (3) + (v )
3 3 14. Answer (1)
2v Hint : Comparison of emf using potentiometer
6= 1 +
3
ε1  1
⇒ v = 7.5 m/s Sol. : =
ε2  2
10. Answer (1)
ε1  1
Hint : Maximum efficiency is of carnot engine =
6 2
T2
= 1−
T1 50 × 6
⇒=
ε1 = 10 V
30
T2
Sol. : η < 1 − 15. Answer (4)
T1
Hint : Conversion of galvanometer to ammeter.
300
η < 1 − = 0.25
= 25%
400
11. Answer (2)
Hint : Maximum acceleration = ω2(A) Sol. :

Maximum velocity = ωA
(Maximum velocity)2
Sol. : =A
(Maximum acceleration)
96 4
a2 IS = IG
⇒ =A 100 100
v
12. Answer (4) 4
S = × 400 =16.67 Ω
96
µ0N 2 πr 2
Hint : L = 16. Answer (4)

Sol. : Inductors are called inertia of electrical 1 1
=
Hint : KE Icmω2 + mv cm
2

circuits. 2 2
Self inductance of a solenoid = µ0n2(πr2) Sol. : vcm w.r.t. man is zero
1 1
=
µ0
N2 2
πr ∴ KE =
2 2
{
Icm ω2 = × 4 × (0.2)2 42 }

Increase or decrease of inductance would depend = 1.28 J
N2 17. Answer (4)
on increase or decrease of value of
 Hint and Sol. :
13. Answer (2)   
Lorentz force = qE + q (v × B )
Hint : Combination of capacitors.
18. Answer (2)
Sol. : Simplified circuit diagram
Hint : In distinct vision mode, magnifying power of
compound microscope
v0  D
M= 1 +  and L =
v 0 + ue
u0  fe 

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1 1 1 23. Answer (1)

Sol. : For objective + =
v 0 2.2 2 Hint : Heat lost = Heat gained
1 1 10 11 − 10 Sol. : S(water) = 2S(ice)
⇒ = − =
v 0 2 22 22 Heat required to bring ice to 0°C = 20 × (20) × Sice
⇒ v 0 = 22 cm = 400 S(ice)
v0  D  22  25  Heat released to bringing water to 0°C
M= 1+  = 1 + 
u0  fe  2.2  5  = 20 × 10 × 2 Sice
= 10 × 6 = 60 = 400 × S(ice)
Distance of intermediate image from the eyepiece, ∴ Amount of water = 20 g (at 0°C)
when final image is at least distance of distinct 24. Answer (3)
vision,
Hint : Refraction through a prism δ = i + e – A
feD 5 × 25 125
=
ue = =
D + fe 5 + 25 30
≈ 4 cm
=
L v 0 + ue Sol. :

 22 + 4
= 26 cm
19. Answer (3)
Hint : emf induced = BAωsin(ωt) δ=i+e–A
2
πr = 60° + 0 – 30° = 30°
Sol. : A =
2 25. Answer (2)
 πr  2 Hint : On reflection of wave from a heavy string
Emf induced = e = B =   ωsin(ωt)
 2  Wave suffers a sudden phase change of π.

e02 π2B 2ω2r 4 Sol. : 36% incident energy is reflected back

Average power
= =
2R 8R 2 36 2
∴ Reflected amplitude Ar = A
20. Answer (3) 100
Hint : Electrostatics of a conductor 6
Sol. : The charge distribution on inner surface of Ar = A
10
cavity depends on shape and distances from
enclosed charge while on outer surface, the radius Reflected wave
of curvature is the deciding factor. 6 6
y = A sin(kx + ωt − 180°) =− A sin(ωt + kx )
10 10

26. Answer (4)

T
Hint : v =
µ
21. Answer (1)
tan δ  50 50 6
Hint : tan δapp = true Sol. : =
t = =
cos(φ) v T T 50
tan(30°) 2 µ
Sol. : tan
= δapp =
cos(60°) 3
6 × 50
22. Answer (4) T =
2
Hint and Sol. :
Induced electric fields due to time varying 6 × 50
=
⇒ T = 75 N
magnetic fields are non-conservative in nature. 4
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27. Answer (1) 32. Answer (2)

Hint : N = N0e −λt
Hint : In collision, net linear momentum is
conserved.
−λ1 (6T ) 1
=
Sol. : N1 N0e = and λ1 Sol. : m1u1 + m2u2 =m1v1 + m2v 2
T
2 (6T )
1 v= v= 0
=N2 N0e −λ= and λ 2 1 2

6T 6 × 8 + 4u2 = 0
∴ N1 = N0e −6
6×8
N2 = N0e −1
u2 = = −12 m/s
4

) N0  e +6 1 
5
u2 = 12 m/s
N1 + N=
2 N0 ( e −1 + e −=
6

 e 
33. Answer (4)
28. Answer (1)
Hint : Balance wheatstone bridge.
Hint : Maximum speed of a particle
v P= Aω Sol. : No current would flow from wheatstone
bridge resistance (8 Ω)
ω
Speed of wave= v=
ω
k
Sol. : v P < v ω
ω
Aω <
k
λ
A<
2π (27)
i1 = i ×
29. Answer (4) (27 + 9)
Hint : Series combination for springs
(9)
i2 = i ×
m 4 π2 m (27 + 9)
2
Sol. : T1 =π ⇒ k1 = 2
k1 T1
i1 : i 2 27
= = : 9 3 :1
2
m 4π m 34. Answer (3)
2
T2 =π ⇒ k2 = 2
k2 T2
Hint and Sol. :
m(k1 + k 2 ) KQ( x ) R
T = 2π E= ; E is maximum at x =
k1k 2 3
2
(x2 + R )2 2

2
T 1 1
⇒ 2
= + 35. Answer (3)
4π m k1 k 2   
F i (L × B )
Hint : =
⇒=
T T12 + T22
Sol. : When rod attains terminal velocity, net force
30. Answer (2) on the rod will be zero.
vector mgsinθ = iLB0cosθ
Hint : Unit vector =
magnitude of vector
   B0 cos θLvT B0LvT cos θ
where i
= =
A + B + C 2 j  R R
Sol. :   =  = j
A + B +C 2
B0LvT cos θ
31. Answer (2) mg sin θ
= ⋅ LB0 cos θ
R
Hint and Sol. :
mgR sin θ
In purely inductive ac circuit, voltage leads current vT =
by phase 90°. B02L2 cos2 θ

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36. Answer (3)


B = B0 i
GM GM 
Hint : g
= = g′
R2 (R + h )2 F = I ( ai + a j − ak ) × ( B0 i )
g = IB0 (a( −k ) − a( j ))
Sol. : g ′ =
4 
GM 1 GM F = 2IB0a
=
(R + h )2 4 R 2 42. Answer (2)
⇒ R + h = 2R 2λD
⇒ h=R Hint : Width of central maxima =
a
37. Answer (2)
2λD 2 × 500 × 10 −9 × 2
1 Sol. : Wc= = = 2 × 10 −3 m
Hint : I= ε0E02C a 1× 10 −3
2
= 2.0 mm
1
Sol. : I= × ε0 × E02C 43. Answer (1)
2
Hint : T ∝ n3
2I 2 × 1.475
=E0 = Sol. : T1 = 27T2
ε0 × C 8.85 × 10 −12 × 3 × 108
n13 = 27n23
= 33.33 N/C
38. Answer (3) ⇒ n1 = 3n2

 m − m2 
2
44. Answer (2)
Hint : acom =  1  g
 m1 + m2  GM
Hint : Gravitational potential V = −
2 r
 2 − 1 g
Sol.
= : acom =  g
 2 + 1 9 −G × 102 G × 102
Sol. : V
= −
39. Answer (1) (50 × 10 ) (50 × 10 −2 )
−2

Hint and Sol. : 2 × 6.67 × 10 −11 × 102

The boolean expression of this circuit is Y = A ⋅ B =
− −2.67 × 10 −8 J/kg
=
50 × 10 −2
i.e. this circuit resembles AND gate.
45. Answer (4)
40. Answer (1)
Hint : F – µmg = ma σ
Hint=
: Q constant and
= E = , V Ed
Sol. : v = at ε0
P = Fv = (µmg + ma)at Sol. : For isolated capacitor,
= mat(µg + a) Q = constant, so
41. Answer (3)
   Q
Hint : F= I  × B E= remains same
ε0 A

Sol. :  = ai + a j + a( −k ) V = Ed increases with increase in d.

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (2) EH (1)2 (2)2
= × = 1: 4
Z2 EHe+ (2)2 (2)2
Hint : Energy (E) ∝
n2 47. Answer (2)
Hint : Mole of gas at STP
EH ZH2 (2)2
Sol. : = 2
× Volume of gas at STP in L
EHe+ (2) (ZHe+ )2 =
22.4 L

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224 1
CH4
Sol. : (1) Mole of= = 0.01 B.O
= of O2 = (10 – 6) 2
22400 2
Mole of atoms in CH4 = 0.01 × 5 = 0.05 51. Answer (4)
18
=
(2) Mole of glucose = 0.1 PM
180 Hint : Density of O2 gas (d) =
RT
Mole of atoms in glucose = 0.1 × 24 = 2.4
4.1 × 32
(3) Mole of atoms of urea = 0.2 × 8 = 1.6 Sol. : d =
0.082 × 400
22
(4) Mole of CO
= 2 = 0.5 = 4 gL–1
44
Mole of atoms in CO2 = 0.5 × 3 = 1.5 52. Answer (2)
48. Answer (4) 3RT
Hint : rms speed (Vrms) =
Hint : Element with half filled sub-shell has extra M
stability.
Sol. : 1
Sol. : Vrms ∝ (at constant temperature)
Element First Ionization enthalpy (kJ/mol) M

C 1086 Higher the molar mass of gas lower is the Vrms of

N 1402 the gas
O 1314 53. Answer (2)
F 1681 ∆H
49. Answer (4) Hint : ∆S =
T
Hint : Species having same number of atoms and
49000
same hybridization will be isostructural Sol. : ∆S =
(273 + 77)
Sol. : Species Shape
SO3 Trigonal planar = 140 Jmol–1 K–1
SO32 − Pyramidal 54. Answer (3)
PCl3 Pyramidal Hint : Enthalpy of hydrogenation of benzene
ICl3 Bent T-shape = (3 x enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene –
resonance energy)
SF4 See-saw
XeF4 Square planar Sol. : Enthalpy of hydrogenation of benzene = 3 ×
(– x) – (– y) = (– 3x + y) kJmol–1
CO32 − Trigonal planar
55. Answer (2)
NO3− Trigonal planar
Hint : Double bond formation at bridgehead is not
50. Answer (2)
possible
1
Hint : Bond order = (Number of electrons in Sol. :
2
bonding M.O – Number of electrons in antibonding
M.O)
1
Sol. : B.O
= of O2− = (10 – 7) 1.5
2
1
B.O
= of O2+ = (10 – 5) 2.5 Keto-enol tautomerism
2
1 56. Answer (3)
B.O
= of O22− = (10 – 8) 1
2 Hint : Tertiary carbonium ion is very stable
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57. Answer (3) 65. Answer (2)

Hint : In hydroboration oxidation reaction, Hint : In Reimer-Tiemann reaction C-C bond
rearrangement does not occur and anti- formation takes place.
Markovnikov’s alcohol is formed as major product.
Sol. : Sol. :

58. Answer (2) 66. Answer (2)

Hint : Grignard reagent on reaction with
Hint : Low boiling metals like zinc and mercury
formaldehyde gives primary alcohol.
are refined by distillation
Sol. :
67. Answer (3)
Hint : In carbon and oxygen atom d-orbital is
absent.
68. Answer (3)
Hint : Reaction of copper with dilute nitric acid
releases NO gas
59. Answer (4)
Sol. :
Hint : Tertiary amine does not react with
Hinsberg’s reagent (PhSO2Cl) 3Cu + 8 HNO3 (dilute) → 3 Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O
60. Answer (2)
4Zn + 10 HNO3 (dilute) → 4 Zn(NO3)2 + N2O + 5H2O
Hint : Electron withdrawing group present at para-
position enhances acidity of phenol. 69. Answer (3)
Sol. : Electron donating group present at para- Hint : Intermolecular hydrogen bonding increase
position of phenol decreases the acidity of phenol. the boiling point of the compound.
Correct order of acidity.
Sol. : Intermolecular hydrogen bond is present in
IV > I > III > II
HF.
61. Answer (3)
Hint : Tollen’s reagent gives silver mirror test with Boiling point order is HF > HBr > HCl
aldehyde not with ketone 70. Answer (2)
62. Answer (1)
Hint : Higher the effective nuclear charge on metal
Hint : Isoprene is monomer of natural rubber. cation higher is the hydration enthalpy.
63. Answer (1)
Sol. : Metal cation ∆hydH° (kJ mol–1)
Hint : Dimetapp is an antihistamine.
64. Answer (2) Ti2+ -1866
Hint : α-D-glucose contains anomeric carbon. V2+ -1895
Cr2+ -1925
Co2+ -2079
Sol. :
71. Answer (2)
Hint : The complex species which contains three
α-D-(+)-glucose unpaired electrons has magnetic moment value of
5-chiral carbons 3.87 BM

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 Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020

3+ Sol. : Volume strength of H2O2

Sol. : Cr(H2O)6  contains three unpaired
17
electrons = 11.2 × × 10= 56 V
34
=
µ n(n + 2) BM
78. Answer (3)
=
µ 3(3 + 2) BM Hint : Lithium and potassium give crimson red and
violet colour to the flame respectively
= 15 3.87 BM
=
79. Answer (3)
72. Answer (1)
Hint : The relative stability of +1 oxidation state
Hint : Higher is the electron density on metal, increases for heavier elements (Inert pair effect)
stronger is the back donation of electron from
80. Answer (4)
metal to ligand and weaker is C – O bond.
Hint : Graphite is thermodynamically most stable
73. Answer (3) allotrope of carbon
Hint : H+ is the limiting reagent. 81. Answer (4)
Sol. : mmol of OH– = 25 × 0.2 × 2 = 10 Hint : The unit cell has BCC structure
mmol of H⊕ = 25 × 0.2 = 5 Sol. : For BCC unit cell
mmol of OH– left after reaction = 10 – 5 = 5 4r = 3a
Let new molarity of OH– in the solution be M
3
50 × M = 5 2r = × 320 = 277.12
2
5 d  277 pm
M
= = 0.1
50
82. Answer (1)
[OH–] = 0.1 M
Hint : i = (1 – α + nα)
pOH = 1
∆Tb = iKbm
pH = 14 – 1 = 13
74. Answer (4) Sol. : AX2  A 2+ + 2X−

Hint : Salt of weak acid and strong base on i = (1 – 0.4 + (3 × 0.4))

hydrolysis will give basic solution i = 1.8
Sol. : Aqueous solution of Na3PO4 will be alkaline ∆Tb = 1.8 × 0.52 × 0.3
hence pH will be highest = 0.28
75. Answer (3) Boiling point = 100.28°C
Hint : Introduction of inert gas at constant pressure 83. Answer (2)
to a gaseous equilibrium mixture shifts the Hint : No. of equivalent of Ca2+ deposited is equal
equilibrium in a direction where number of moles to the number of Faraday of electricity passed.
of gases formed are more
5 × 9.65 × 60 × 60
76. Answer (2) Sol. : No. of Faraday =
96500
Hint : Permanganate ion oxidises oxalate ion to
5 × 9.65 × 60 × 60
CO2 and itself reduced to Mn2+ ions Mass of=
Ca2+ deposited × 20
96500
Sol. :
= 36 g
5C2O24− + 2MnO4− + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 8H2O + 10 CO2 84. Answer (4)
77. Answer (3) Hint : Λ°m(CH3COOH) = Λ°m(CH3COOK)
Hint : Volume strength of H2O2 + Λ°m(HBr) – Λ°m(KBr)
Percentage strength Sol. : Λ°m(CH3COOH) = (114.4 + 427.7 – 151.6)
= 11.2 × × 10
Molecular weight of H2O2 = 390.5 S cm2 mol–1

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85. Answer (2) 88. Answer (3)

Hint : For first order reaction, Hint : Maximum permissible limit of lead in
drinking water is 50 ppb
1 a
t
= × 2.303 log 89. Answer (2)
k a−x
Hint : More stable the carbonium ion, faster will be
1 4 the solvolysis.
Sol. : t= × 2.303 log
k 4 − (4 × 0.4)
Sol. :
1 4
= × 2.303 log
k 2.4
1 10
= × 2.303 log
k 2×3
1
= × 2.303 [log 10 – log2 – log3 ]
2.303 × 10−4
= 2200 s = 36.7 min
86. Answer (3) 90. Answer (2)
Hint : Soap lather is an example of Foam Mole of glucos e
Hint : Molality =
87. Answer (3) Mass of water(kg)
+
Hint : Central atom of I3 is sp3 hybridised Sol. : Mass of glucose = 36 g
Mass of water = (100 – 36) = 64g
Sol. : Species Shape
36 / 180
XeF4 Square planar Molality =
64
I3+ bent 1000
36 1000
PCl3 Pyramidal = ×
180 64
NO2+ Linear = 3.125 m

[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (4)
Hint : DNA as well as RNA are found in/on some
cell organelles.
Sol. : Plastid, mitochondria –circular dsDNA as 93. Answer (2)
well as RNA.
Hint : Meiosis I is reductional division.
Ribosome – rRNA
Sol. : Daughter cells produced after meiosis I are
Nucleus –linear dsDNA genetically dissimilar to their parent cell. They are
Centriole as well as vacuole both do not have any haploid in nature.
nucleic acid. 94. Answer (4)
92. Answer (3) Sol. : Scientific names are printed in italics and
Hint : Some chromosomes have an additional two words are underlined separately when
secondary constriction. handwritten to indicate its Latin origin.

Sol. : Satellite – Part of chromosome separated 95. Answer (1)

by secondary constriction. It is found in some Hint : Fruiting bodies are produced after
chromosomes only fertilization by members of sac and club fungi.
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Sol. : Yeast being a unicellular fungus does not
produces fruiting bodies. Yeast is used in baking
and brewing industry.
96. Answer (2)
Hint : Methanogens are responsible for
production of biogas.
Sol. : Methanogens are chemoautotrophs. Being
archaebacteria they lack peptidoglycan in their cell
wall. They are obligate anaerobes.
97. Answer (1)
Hint : Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is
caused by prion.
Sol. : Prion is an abnormally folded protein. They
lack any nucleic acid.
98. Answer (3)
Hint : Lactobacillus converts milk into curd.
Sol. : Lactobacillus is a bacterium
99. Answer (2)
Hint : In mustard, placenta is present at periphery
and ovules are attached to it.
Sol. : Lemon, tomato and china rose have axile
placentation while mustard has parietal
placentation.
100. Answer (4)
Hint : In onion, stem is reduced and
underground.
Sol. : In onion, stem modify into bulb.
101. Answer (1)
Hint : Ground tissue system of monocot stem
contains hypodermis and cortex only
Sol. : In monocot stem, endodermis and
pericycle are absent. Sieve tubes are absent in
gymnosperms instead they have sieve cells.
Spring wood contains vessel with wider lumen.
102. Answer (1)
Hint : Phellogen is also known as cork cambium
and is a dediffentiated tissue.
Sol. :
 Axillary bud – arise from shoot apical meristem
i.e. primary meristem
 Root apical meristem and intercalary
meristem – primary meristem.
 Cork cambium or phellogen – secondary
meristem.
103. Answer (2)
Hint : Gymnosperms and angiosperms are
spermatophytes.
Sol. : Pteridophytes do not produce seeds.
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104. Answer (3)
Sol. : Porphyra – Red alga used as source of
food
Laminaria – Brown alga
105. Answer (4)
Hint : Selaginella is a pteridophyte.
Sol. : Pteridophytes have sporophytic main plant
body whereas algae (mostly) and bryophytes have
gametophytic main plant body.
106. Answer (3)
Hint : Active transport involves pumps.
Sol. : Both facilitated and active transport require
carrier proteins to transport molecules across the
membrane. They are selective in nature. Active
transport – uphill and requires ATP.
107. Answer (2)
Hint : Some microbes reduce nitrate to nitrogen.
Sol. : Thiobacillus denitrificans – Reduces nitrate
to nitrogen.
108. Answer (4)
Hint : Tomato is a C3 plant whereas sugarcane is
a C4 plant
Sol. :
109. Answer (2)
Sol. : Light reaction produces ATP, NADPH as
well as O2, FADH2 is formed in TCA cycle.
110. Answer (1)
Hint : 2 ATPs are consumed in activation phase
of glycolysis per glucose molecule.
Sol. : ATP yield of glycolysis = 10 ATP total
(considering if there is no use of ATP in activation
phase)
Link reaction + TCA cycle = 6 + 24 = 30
Total ATP = 10 + 30 = 40 ATPs
111. Answer (2)
Sol. : O2 acts as terminal electron acceptor of
mitochondrial ETS. Oxygen combines with protons
to form metabolic water.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020 Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

112. Answer (1) Sol. : If the trait is autosomal recessive

Hint : Decapitation is removal of shoot apex or
apical buds.
Sol. : Removal of apical buds allow growth of
lateral buds which grow and form branches. Apical
bud secretes auxin.
113. Answer (4)
Hint : Day neutral plants (DNP) do not show any
relation between exposure of light duration and If the trait is autosomal dominant.
flowering.
Sol. : Tomato = DNP
Soyabean = SDP
Wheat, henbane = LDP
114. Answer (1)
Hint : In dioecious plants male and female
flowers are borne on separate plant bodies.
Sol. : Papaya – dioecious → Genotype of affected female of IInd generation
can be aa or Aa.
→ Male of first generation can be a carrier if trait
under study is autosomal recessive.
115. Answer (3) 121. Answer (1)
Hint : In Vallisneria, female and male flowers are Hint : Recessive features are expressed in
homozygous condition only (pure line).
borne on separate plant bodies.
Sol. : Terminal flower in pea – recessive feature.
Sol. : Vallisneria is dioecious and shows
xenogamy. Being water pollinated, its pollen
grains are covered by mucilage.
116. Answer (2) 122. Answer (1)
Hint : In some seeds nucellus is persistent. Hint : Thymine is 5-methyl uracil.
Sol. : Remaining/persistent nucellus is called Sol. : Thymine is absent in RNA. Rest all are
perisperm. It is diploid and found in black pepper, found in RNA molecules.
beet etc. 123. Answer (4)
117. Answer (4) Hint : RNA polymerase I synthesises 5.8 S, 18 S
Hint : Genotype for O = IOIO and 28 S rRNA.
Genotype for AB = IAIB Sol. : In eukaryotes, 28 S rRNA is a ribozyme and
acts as peptidyl transferase. Therefore this
Sol. :
enzyme may not form in cell with non functional
RNA pol I.
124. Answer (3)
IAIB and IOIO are not possible
Sol. : Genetic code is degenerate because some
118. Answer (1) amino acids are coded by more than one codons.
Hint : Recombination frequency (RF) is directly Given statement does not provide any idea about
proportional to distance between genes. degeneracy of codons.
Sol. : The 5% RF value indicates that the 125. Answer (2)
distance between two genes is 5 cM or map units. Sol. : Himgiri is variety of wheat resistant to leaf
119. Answer (1) and stripe rust as well as hill bunt.
Hint : Birds show female heterogamety. 126. Answer (4)
Sol. : In birds Hint : Streptokinase is obtained from
Male – AA + ZZ Streptococcus.
Female – AA + ZW Sol. : Streptococcus – Bacterium
120. Answer (2)
Hint : In given pedigree the trait under study can
be autosomal recessive or dominant.

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127. Answer (1)
Hint : Anaerobic bacteria digest the sludge and
form biogas.
Sol. : Biogas formation occur during secondary
treatment in anaerobic sludge digester.
128. Answer (3)
Hint : In mutualism, both the species are
benefitted.
Sol. : Paramecium aurelia and P. caudatum –
competition.
Fungi and roots of higher plant – Mycorrhiza
(mutualism)
129. Answer (4)
Sol. : r-selected species have small body size,
short generation time and less parental care.
130. Answer (1)
Sol. : Pyramid of number of a tree ecosystem can
be inverted or spindle shaped both.
131. Answer (2)
Hint : Organisms which convert solar energy into
chemical energy are converters.
Sol. : Algae, diatoms and – Converters
angiosperms
Hydra – Consumer or key industry animal
132. Answer (2)
Sol. : Wild life safari parks, Zoological park and
Botanical Garden are ex-situ conservation
strategies
National Park – in-situ conservation strategy
133. Answer (1)
Hint : Polyblend is one of the most promising
solution of plastic waste.
Sol. : Polyblend is a fine powder of recycled
modified plastic, when mixed with bitumen, used
to make roads which are quite stable.
134. Answer (3)
Hint : Ozone can be good as well as bad.
Sol. : In troposphere – O3 is a secondary air
pollutant.
In stratosphere – O3 forms a layer which shields us
from harmful UV radiations.
UV exposure causes snow-blindness i.e.
inflammation of cornea.
CO2 is a major greenhouse gas.
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135. Answer (2)
Hint : BOD indicates biological oxygen demand
of a water body.
Sol. : Higher the BOD, higher will be polluting
potential, lower will be dissolved oxygen and high
amount of organic matter.
High BOD water is not suitable for drinking.
136. Answer (2)
Hint : Loss of water is involved in polymer
formation.
Sol. : Lipids are not polymers. Loss of water i.e
dehydration can result in polymerisation of
monosaccharides to yield polysaccharides and
nucleotides polymerise to form nucleic acids.
137. Answer (1)
Hint : Hydroxyl group is present as a side chain in
alcoholic amino acids.
Sol. : The given amino acid structure is that of
alanine as methyl (–CH3) is the side chain. Palmitic
acid is a 16 C saturated fatty acid.
138. Answer (1)
Hint : A bond found in carbohydrates.
Sol. : A glyosidic bond links the monomers
together in a sugar which can be α and β type.
Maltose, sucrose and lactose share glucose as
one of the monomers, have 12 C each, all
comprise hexose monomers.
139. Answer (2)
Hint : Pacemaker of heart.
Sol. : SAN is the pacemaker of the heart whereas
AVN is pacesetter of heart. AVN is located in lower
left corner of right atrium. Bundle of His is located
in inter-ventricular septum followed by Purkinje
fibres in ventricular musculature.
140. Answer (3)
Hint : Molecular scissors cleave DNA of specific
palindromic sequences.
Sol. : RFLPs are not same restriction pattern for
mutant and normal β-globin genes and do not
necessarily have palindromic sequences in their
middle.
141. Answer (4)
Hint : Flavr Savr tomatoes.
Sol. : RNA silencing blocks expression of
enzymes that degrade pectin in the middle lamella
of cell walls.
142. Answer (2)
Hint : Enzyme present in tears of eyes.
Sol. : The cells are broken open to release their
contents using specific enzymes.
Bacteria – Lysozyme, Fungus – Chitinase, Plant
cell – Cellulase.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
143. Answer (2)
Hint : Select the first step of PCR.
Sol. : In denaturation process, the starting solution
is heated, usually to 94°C. During annealing, at
50° – 60°C primers bind to their complementary
sequence on the single-stranded templates.
During polymerisation at 72°C the DNA
polymerase adds nucleotides to the primer,
synthesizing a new strand using only the template
sequence that binds the primers.
144. Answer (4)
Hint : Sequence of units that can be read the same
way in either direction.
Sol. : Palindrome is a DNA sequence of base pairs
that reads the same on the two strands when
orientation of reading is kept the same. This
sequence may range from 4-8 nucleotides in
length. The following sequence, reads the same
on the two strands in the 5′ → 3′ direction. This is
also true if read in the 3′ → 5′direction.
5′ – GAATTC – 3′
3′ – GTTAAG – 5′
145. Answer (1)
Hint : Select the soft bodied animals.
Sol. : Mollusca – Chaetopleura, Aplysia,
Dentalium, Pinctada
Arthropoda – Locusta, Limulus, Mosquitoes,
Apis, Bombyx and Laccifer
Aschelminthes – Ascaris,Wuchereria,
Ancylostoma
Ctenophora – Pleurobrachia, Ctenoplana
146. Answer (2)
Hint : Sensory organs of reptilians.
Sol. : Body of reptiles is covered with dry and
cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal
and they all do not have external ears.
147. Answer (3)
Hint : Glands that secrete ootheca around groups
of fertilised eggs.
Sol. : In female cockroach, the reproductive
system includes collaterial glands. In cockroach,
male reproductive system includes mushroom
gland/utricular glands and phallic/conglobate
gland.
148. Answer (1)
Hint : Select the exotic breeds which are not cross
breeds.
Sol. : Improved breed of cattle and chicken are
respectively Jersey and Leghorn. Hisardale is a
new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by
crossing Bikaneri ewes and Merino rams.
149. Answer (4)
Hint : Structure of compound epithelium.
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Sol. : Compound epithelium covers the dry
surface of the skin, the moist surface of buccal
cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of salivary
glands and of pancreatic ducts. The main function
of compound epithelium is to provide protection
against chemical and mechanical stresses.
150. Answer (4)
Hint : Structure that connects bone to bone.
Sol. : Ligaments and tendons are the examples of
dense regular connective tissue. Areolar and
adipose tissue are examples of loose connective
tissue. Dense irregular connective tissue has
fibroblasts and many fibres (mostly collagen) that
are oriented differently. This tissue is present in the
skin.
151. Answer (4)
Hint : Value of pCO2 in oxygenated blood is equal
to pO2 in deoxygenated blood.
Sol. :
152. Answer (2)
Hint : Value of this lung volume is 1100-1200 mL.
Sol. : Inspiratory reserve volume is defined as the
additional or extra volume of air, a person can
inspire by forced inhalation. This volume averages
2500 – 3000 ml.
153. Answer (3)
Hint : Wave that represents repolarisation.
Sol. : The T-wave represents the return of the
ventricles from excited (depolarisation) to normal
state (i.e. repolarisation). The end of the T-wave
marks the end of ventricular systole.
The P-wave represents electrical excitation (or
depolarisation) of the atria which leads to
contraction of both the atria.
The QRS complex represents the depolarisation of
the ventricles which initiates the ventricular
systole.The contraction of the ventricles starts
shortly after Q and marks the beginning of the
systole.
154. Answer (1)
Hint : Portal system.
Sol. : The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver
from intestine.
155. Answer (3)
Hint : Reabsorption in loop of Henle.
Sol. : The descending limb of loop of Henle is
permeable to water but almost impermeable to
electrolytes. The ascending limb is impermeable to
water but allows transport of electrolytes actively
or passively.
 Open Mock Test-5 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
156. Answer (2)
Hint : Select the locomotory disorder.
Sol. : Gout is caused due to accumulation of uric
acid crystals in joints and inflammation is seen in
joints.
157. Answer (4)
Hint : Movement in one plane occurs in hinge joint.
Sol. : Gliding joint – Between carpals.
Hinge joint – Between femur and tibia.
Pivot joint – Between atlas and axis
Ball and socket joint– Between humerus and
pectoral girdle.
158. Answer (1)
Hint : Ribs not connected ventrally.
Sol. : In human body, total number of floating ribs
and collar bones are respectively 4 and 2, False
ribs are 6 in number while true ribs are 14.
159. Answer (4)
Hint : Gustatory receptors are present on tongue.
Sol. : Nose and tongue detect dissolved
chemicals. The chemical senses of gustation and
olfaction are functionally similar and related.
Tongue detects taste through taste buds
containing gustatory receptors.
160. Answer (4)
Hint : Lower membrane of cochlea.
Sol. : The sound waves in the endolymph of
internal ear induce a ripple in the basilar
membrane. The upper membrane of cochlea is
called the Reissner’s membrane. The tympanic
membrane marks the end of the outer ear and the
beginning of the middle ear.
161. Answer (1)
Hint : Disease also called exopthalmic goitre.
Sol. : Grave’s disease or exopthalmic goitre is
caused due to hyperthyroidism. This disease is
characterised by protrusion or bulging of eyeballs.
Cretinism, Myxedema/ Gull’s disease and simple
goitre are caused due to hypothyroidism.
162. Answer (2)
Hint : Select a pregnancy hormone.
Sol. : In synergistic effect, two or more hormones
complement each other’s actions and both are
needed for full expression of the hormone’s
effects. For example, the production, secretion
and ejection of milk by mammary glands requires
the synergistic effect of estrogen, progesterone,
prolactin and oxytocin. Insulin lowers blood sugar
level and glucagon increases blood glucose level.
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163. Answer (1)
Hint : Structure known as olfactory gland.
Sol. : Bowman’s glands are associated with the
olfactory epithelium and secrete mucus to spread
over the epithelium and keep it moist.
164. Answer (3)
Hint : Step that starts with division of zygote
Sol. : The correct sequence of events in human
reproduction is
Gametogenesis → Gamete transfer → Syngamy
→Zygote →Cleavage →Cell differentiation
→Organogenesis
165. Answer (4)
Hint : Choose a non-primate.
Sol. : Oestrous cycle is present in non-primate
mammals like dog, cat etc. Menstrual cycle is
present in primates like monkeys, apes and
humans.
166. Answer (2)
Hint : Some hormones are only produced by
placenta.
Sol. : Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen
and progesterone are produced by placenta.
167. Answer (4)
Hint : Structures that are formed by the end of
second trimester.
Sol. : By the end of 24 weeks (second trimester),
the body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids
separate and eyelashes are formed. By the end of
12 weeks (first trimester) most of the major organ
systems are formed, for example, the limbs and
external genital organs are well developed.
168. Answer (4)
Hint : Second polar body is released after second
meiotic division.
Sol. : Entry of sperm induces the completion of the
meiotic division of the secondary oocyte. The
second meiotic division is unequal and results in
formation of second polar body.
169. Answer (2)
Hint : Post ovulatory phase is always fixed i.e. 14
days.
Sol. : If menstrual cycle is of 36 days then
ovulation occurs on 36-14 = 22nd day.
170. Answer (1)
Hint : Structures which are the result of divergent
evolution are homologous.
Sol. : Homologous structures are the result of
divergent evolution. Anatomy of forelimbs of man,
cheetah, whale and bat are similar but functions of
forelimbs show clear dissimilarities. Rest of the
options are the examples of analogous structures
(convergent evolution).
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2020
171. Answer (2)
Hint : Cro-magnon had largest cranial capacity.
Sol. : The cranial capacity of Homo sapiens
fossilis i.e. Cro-magnon man is about 1650 cc.
The cranial capacities of Homo habilis, Homo
erectus and Neanderthal man respectively were
650-800 cc, 900 cc and 1400 cc.
172. Answer (3)
Hint : p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
Sol. : p + q = 1
where,
p = Frequency of dominant allele = 0.7
q = Frequency of recessive allele = 0.3
Also,
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
where
p2 = Frequency of homozygous dominant
individuals = 0.09
q2 = Frequency of homozygous recessive
individuals = 0.49
2pq = Frequency of heterozygous individuals = 2pq
= 2 × 0.7 × 0. 3
= 0.42
173. Answer (1)
Hint : Balancing natural selection.
Sol. : Natural selection can lead to stabilisation or
balancing (in which more individuals acquire mean
character value), directional i.e. progressive
change (more individuals acquire value other than
the mean character value) or disruption (more
individuals acquire peripheral character value at
both ends of the distribution curve).
174. Answer (2)
Hint : Identify inert and hormone releasing.
Sol. : Copper releasing IUDs – CuT, Cu7,
Multiload 375
Hormone releasing IUDs – Progestasert, LNG-20
Non-medicated IUDs – Lippes loop
 
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175. Answer (4)
Hint : AI results in in-vivo fertilization.
Sol. : The test tube baby programme usually
employs zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT).
Fertilization is in-vitro i.e. outside the body.
176. Answer (3)
Hint : Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue.
Sol. : MALT constitutes about 50% percent of the
lymphoid tissue in the human body.
177. Answer (2)
Hint : Pathogen of syphilis is bacteria.
Sol. : Gonorrhoea is caused by Neisseria
gonorrhoeae. Syphilis is caused by Treponema
pallidum. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
causes AIDS. Human papilloma virus causes
genital warts.
178. Answer (4)
Hint : Similar in nature to LSD.
Sol. : Seeds of Datura and aerial parts of Atropa
belladona are misused for their hallucinogenic
properties. Morphine is used as an analgesic (pain
killer), caffeine and nicotine are stimulant and
depressants are drugs that inhibit the function of
the CNS.
179. Answer (1)
Hint : Fowl cholera.
Sol. : Fowl cholera (Pasteurellosis) is a bacterial
disease that is caused due to Pasteurella bacteria.
Viral diseases are Ranikhet (New castle disease)
fowlpox, infectious bronchitis, bird flu.
180. Answer (2)
Hint : Hilsa is an edible marine fish.
Sol. : Some of the fresh water fishes which are
very common include Catla, Rohu and common
carp. Some of the marine fishes that are eaten
include Hilsa, sardines, mackerel and pomfrets.
