Test-5 (Code-E)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2024

TEST - 5 (Code-E)
Test Date : 03/03/2024

ANSWERS
1. (1) 41. (1) 81. (3) 121. (2) 161. (3)
2. (1) 42. (3) 82. (2) 122. (4) 162. (4)
3. (4) 43. (2) 83. (4) 123. (3) 163. (2)
4. (4) 44. (1) 84. (2) 124. (1) 164. (4)
5. (1) 45. (1) 85. (4) 125. (2) 165. (2)
6. (1) 46. (2) 86. (3) 126. (3) 166. (1)
7. (1) 47. (2) 87. (2) 127. (4) 167. (3)
8. (2) 48. (4) 88. (3) 128. (2) 168. (4)
9. (2) 49. (2) 89. (4) 129. (4) 169. (2)
10. (1) 50. (1) 90. (4) 130. (2) 170. (2)
11. (1) 51. (2) 91. (4) 131. (3) 171. (4)
12. (1) 52. (4) 92. (3) 132. (4) 172. (3)
13. (2) 53. (1) 93. (2) 133. (4) 173. (1)
14. (2) 54. (1) 94. (2) 134. (4) 174. (3)
15. (3) 55. (4) 95. (2) 135. (4) 175. (2)
16. (1) 56. (3) 96. (2) 136. (2) 176. (3)
17. (2) 57. (3) 97. (3) 137. (4) 177. (1)
18. (2) 58. (2) 98. (1) 138. (3) 178. (2)
19. (2) 59. (2) 99. (4) 139. (1) 179. (3)
20. (1) 60. (4) 100. (4) 140. (3) 180. (3)
21. (4) 61. (4) 101. (2) 141. (4) 181. (3)
22. (4) 62. (2) 102. (3) 142. (2) 182. (4)
23. (3) 63. (1) 103. (2) 143. (1) 183. (3)
24. (3) 64. (4) 104. (4) 144. (1) 184. (1)
25. (2) 65. (2) 105. (2) 145. (4) 185. (1)
26. (3) 66. (3) 106. (3) 146. (1) 186. (1)
27. (3) 67. (2) 107. (4) 147. (3) 187. (4)
28. (4) 68. (3) 108. (2) 148. (2) 188. (3)
29. (4) 69. (3) 109. (3) 149. (1) 189. (4)
30. (1) 70. (1) 110. (1) 150. (2) 190. (2)
31. (1) 71. (1) 111. (2) 151. (2) 191. (2)
32. (2) 72. (2) 112. (3) 152. (3) 192. (4)
33. (1) 73. (1) 113. (4) 153. (2) 193. (1)
34. (1) 74. (4) 114. (1) 154. (4) 194. (3)
35. (2) 75. (4) 115. (1) 155. (3) 195. (1)
36. (2) 76. (4) 116. (3) 156. (4) 196. (4)
37. (3) 77. (3) 117. (4) 157. (4) 197. (1)
38. (3) 78. (2) 118. (1) 158. (3) 198. (4)
39. (2) 79. (2) 119. (1) 159. (1) 199. (2)
40. (2) 80. (4) 120. (2) 160. (1) 200. (2)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
SECTION-A qE
a=
1. Answer (1) m
Hint: Q = ne The charged particle will accelerate along the
direction of electric field hence the trajectory will
Sol.: 4.8 × 10–6 = 1010 × 1.6 × 10–19 t
be straight line.
4.8 × 10 –6 5. Answer (1)
t=
1.6 × 10 –9
 1
t = 3 × 103 seconds Hint: q = Q 1– 
 k
2. Answer (1) k = Dielectric constant of the medium.
Hint: When the two spheres are brought in contact Sol.: Lesser and opposite in nature.
their potential would be same.
6. Answer (1)
R1  R 
Sol.: Q1
= = Q   × 100 = 25 µC kq1q2
R1 + R2  R + 3R  Hint: F =
r2
R2  3R  F k ( 4 )(16 ) d 2
=Q2 = Q  =  100 75 µC Sol.: = 2
R1 + R2  R + 3R  F ′ d (10 )(10 )
Q1 25 1 F 16
= = =
Q2 75 3 F ′ 25
3. Answer (4) 25
F′ = F
Hint and Sol.: 16
7. Answer (1)
Hint: Use equations of uniformly accelerated
motion.
qE qE
Sol.: v = u + at, u = 0 and a= ⇒ v= t
m m
8. Answer (2)
qenclosed
 1 Hint: φtotal =
Enet = E 2 + E 2 + 2E 2  −  = E ε0
 2
qenclosed
3kq Sol.: φtotal =
E= 2 ε0
a
φtotal = φin + φout
4. Answer (4)
Hint: A charge at rest moves along the direction φin =0
of electric field. 100 a3 .a 2
φout =
Sol.:
= 100a5 ε0
qenclosed
9. Answer (2)
Qenclosed
Hint: φ =
ε0

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 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

I
J=
(
π b – a2
2
)
Sol.:
14. Answer (2)
 
Hint: τ= P × E
Sol.:
= τ PE sin θ
τ =PE sin 60

PE 3 3PE
= =
The charge can be assumed to be enclosed by 2 2
two cones. Hence flux through one cone. 15. Answer (3)
Q KQr kQ
φ=
3 (
2ε0 Hint: E = r < R ),E = 2 ( r > R )
R r
10. Answer (1)
Sol.: r < R, E ∝ r (straight line)
σ
Hint:
= EB = ,EA 0 1
ε0 r > R, E ∝
r2
EA 0
Sol.: = = 0 16. Answer (1)
EB σ
ε0 Hint: Time period of spring mass system is
11. Answer (1) independent of constant external force.
Hint: Meter bridge is based on the principle of Sol.: Time period of oscillation will remain same.
balanced wheatstone bridge. 17. Answer (2)
Sol.: 40 × 120 = 60 × R
Hint: Equipotential surfaces are perpendicular to
R = 80 Ω
electric field.
12. Answer (1)
ε0 A Sol.: Equipotential surface will be spherical for
Hint: C = finite distance.
t1 t t
+ 2 + 3
K1 K 2 K 3 18. Answer (2)
ε0 A ε0 AK Hint: U = –PEcosθ
Sol.: C
= =
t t t 1 1 1
+ + t + +  4Q – PQ
K 2K 3K 1 2 3  Sol.: U –=
= P.
4πε0 d 2 πε0 d 2
6ε0 AK
= 19. Answer (2)
t ( 6 + 3 + 2)
vd
6ε0 AK Hint: µ =
= E
11t
13. Answer (2) v d 25 × 10 –6
Sol.: =
µ = = 5 ×10–6 m2 V–1 s–1
I E 5
Hint: J =
A 20. Answer (1)
(
Sol.: A = π b – a
2 2
) Hint & Sol.: =
J
I
=
3.6
= 105 A m–2
A 36 × 10 –6
E =ρJ =5 × 105 × 10 –8

V
= 5 × 10 –3
m

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

21. Answer (4) 1 V 

2

Sol.: u= ε0
nr 2  d 
Hint: R =
m
25. Answer (2)
Sol.: Let number of rows are m, cell in each row
Hint: Repulsion force
are n
Sol.: Due to outwards repulsion force radius
nm = 100
always increases.
For maximum current
26. Answer (3)
nr
25 = Q2
m Hint and Sol.: U = , according to question
2C
nr
=25 = , n 25 m
m Q12 Q2
⇒ = 2
Now, 25m2 = 100 2C1 2C2
m=2
Q12 C1 Q C1
22. Answer (4) ⇒ = ⇒ 1 =
Q22 C2 Q2 C2
Hint & Sol.:
27. Answer (3)
 
Hint: ∫ .dA = φtotal
E

Sol.: φtotal =
0
28. Answer (4)
Hint: Conductor placed in an electrostatic field will
be an equipotential surface
Loop ABCDA Sol.: VA = VC
24 V – 200I – 4 V = 0 29. Answer (4)
20  ∂E
I= A Hint: F = – P
200 ∂r
1
= A Sol.:
10
1
VBD= 4 V= R × A ∂E  ∂ –3 
10 =F –=
P2
∂r
–2kP2 P1 
 ∂r
r 

( )
V
R 40 = 40 Ω
= F ∝ r –4
A
30. Answer (1)
23. Answer (3)
Hint and Sol.: Charge always flows from high
2k λ
Hint: E = potential to low potential, therefore charge will flow
r
from inner to outer surface.
2k λ
Sol.: E = 31. Answer (1)
r
Current
1 Hint: Current density, j =
E∝ Area of cross-section
r
24. Answer (3) Sol.: Since the current is steady hence current
density at Q will be more as compared to P as area
1
Hint: u= ε0 E 2 of cross-section at P is more as compared to area
2
of cross-section at Q.

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 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

32. Answer (2) SECTION - B

Hint: Voltmeter reads potential difference 36. Answer (2)
6V R R R
Sol.:
= i = 1A Hint & Sol.: Req = R + + + + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅∞
6Ω 2 4 8
 1 1 1 
R=
eq R  1 + + + + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅∞ 
 2 4 8 
 
 1 
R= 
1– 1 
 
 2
VAB = 6 + (4 × 1)
= 2R
= 10 V
37. Answer (3)
33. Answer (1)
A  
1 ∆R  ∆d  Hint: VA – VB = – ∫ E.dr
Hint: R ∝ 4 , 4
= 
d R  d  B

 
A
 ∆R   ∆d  Sol.: VA – VB = – ∫ E.dr
Sol.:   × 100 =×
4   × 100
 R   d  B

= 4 × 0.5
( )( )
VB 10 –2 400 cos 45iˆ + 400 sin 45 ˆj ⋅ 3iˆ – 2 ˆj V
VA –=
= 2%
34. Answer (1) ( )( )
= 200 2iˆ + 200 2 jˆ ⋅ 3iˆ – 2 jˆ × 10 –2 V
– ∂v
Hint & Sol.:= Ex = – k [= 4 x ] – 4kx = 2.82 V
∂x
38. Answer (3)
– ∂v
=
Ey = – k [ –2
= y ] 2yk mv 2 2πr
∂y Hint:
= Fr = ,T
r v
– ∂v
=
Ez = –2zk 1 Qq mv 2
∂z Sol.: =
 4πε0 r 2 r
=E –4kxiˆ + 2ykjˆ – 2zkkˆ
 Qq
E (1,0,1) = –4kiˆ – 2k kˆ v=
4πε0 rm

E= 16k 2 + 4k 2= 20 k 2 2πr 2πr
=
T =
v Qq
= 2k 5
35. Answer (2) 4πε0 m r

R R0 (1 + α∆T )
Hint:=  Qq  2
r3 =  3 T
5 R (1 + 50α )  16π ε0 m 
Sol.: = 0
6 R0 (1 + 100α ) 39. Answer (2)
5 + 500α = 6 + 300α Hint: Q = CeqV
200α = 1 Sol.:
1
α=
200
Now,
 50   250 
5 =R0  1 +  =R0  
 200   200 
2C
R0= 4 Ω =
Q C=
eqV V
3
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

40. Answer (2) 45. Answer (1)

Hint and Sol.: Series and parallel combination Aε0
Hint and Sol.: C = i.e. the capacitance of a
d
parallel plate capacitor depends on separation
between plates of capacitor and is independent of
charge and potential difference across capacitor.
46. Answer (2)
5C Potential energy
Ceq = Hint: Electric potential =
3 Charge
41. Answer (1)
[ML2 T –2 ]
Hint : Use the concept of series and parallel Sol.:
= [v ] = [ML2 T −3 A −1 ]
combination of capacitors. [AT]

ε0 A 47. Answer (2)

Sol.: C =
d Hint: Use Kirchhoff’s junction rule.
Sol.:

3 3 ε0 A
C=
eq = C
2 2 d
42. Answer (3) x – 20 x – 0 x – 5
+ + 0
=
Hint: I = neAVd 2 2 4
Sol.: I ∝ vd 2x – 40 + 2x + x – 5 = 0
4I v d 5x – 45 = 0
=
3I v d′ x=9V
3 9–0
v d′ = vd ∴ I= = 4.5 A
4 2
43. Answer (2) 48. Answer (4)
Hint: W = Q (Vf – Vi ) (Applied voltage)2
Hint: Rated power =
3 3kQ Resistance of bulb
Sol.:=
Vf 0;=
Vi
d P
= 20,
Sol.: NP 2000
=
3 3kQ 2 N
W =–
d N 2 .20 = 2000
N2 = 100
44. Answer (1)
N = 10
kQ
Hint: V = 49. Answer (2)
r
1 p cos θ
kQ 2kQ 3kQ Hint: V =
Sol.: V
= – + 4πε0 r 2
R R R
2kQ 2Q Q Sol.: θ= 90°, cos90°= 0
=
V = =
R 4πε0 R 2πε0 R V=0

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 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

50. Answer (1) 1 1 1 1

Hint: All resistances are connected in parallel = + +
Re 3R 6R 2R
Sol.:
1 2 + 1+ 3
=
Re 6R

6R
=
Re = R
6

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A Sol.:
51. Answer (2) 10π Aromatic
Hint: Terminal double bond on reductive
ozonolysis gives formaldehyde.
2π Aromatic
Sol.:

6π Aromatic

Non-Aromatic
52. Answer (4)
Hint: More is the electron density on the benzene
This molecule acquires
ring, more will be its reactivity towards,
tube shape
electrophilic substitution reaction.
6π Aromatic
Sol.: Correct order of reactivity towards
electrophilic substitution reaction is

4π Anti-aromatic

4π Anti-aromatic

53. Answer (1) 55. Answer (4)

Hint: To attain greater stability rearrangement of
Hint: Methane on oxidation in the presence of Cu carbocation (electrophile) takes place.
at 573 K and 100 atm gives methanol. Sol.:
Cu/523K/100 atm
Sol.: • 2CH4 + O2 
→ 2CH3 OH
Methanol

Mo2O3
• CH4 + O2  → HCHO + H2O
∆ Methanal

54. Answer (1)

Hint: Conditions for aromaticity
(i) Cyclic and planar ring
(ii) Complete delocalisation of π electrons
(iii) Presence of (4n +2)π electrons

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

56. Answer (3) 59. Answer (2)

Hint: An aqueous solution of sodium or potassium Hint: The most stable conformer of ethane is
salt of a carboxylic acid on electrolysis gives staggered form.
alkane containing even number of carbon atoms Sol.:
at the anode.
Sol.:

(i)
(ii) At anode:
60. Answer (4)
Hint: Addition of HBr to an alkene in presence of
a peroxide takes place through free radical
intermediate formation.
Sol.:
• •
(iii) CH3 + CH3 → H3 C – CH3 ↑
(iv) At cathode: •
•
This is an electrophilic addition reaction
H2O + e− → OH– + H
•
2H → H2 ↑
•
electrolysis
So, 2CH3COO–Na+ + 2H2O 
→
This is an electrophilic substitution reaction
CH3 – CH3(g) + 2CO2(g) + H2(g) + 2NaOH
57. Answer (3) •
Hint: Alkyne on passing through red hot iron tube
at 873 K undergoes cyclic polymerization. This is also a free radical substitution

Sol.: •

This is a free radical addition reaction

61. Answer (4)
58. Answer (2) Hint: Decolorisation of KMnO4 solution is used as
Hint: • As the molar mass increases, the van der a test for unsaturation.
Waals forces also increases. As a result, Sol.:
the boiling point increases. • Benzene does not give test for unsaturation
• On increasing branching, boiling point
decreases. •

Sol.: Compounds BP(K)

•
309.1
62. Answer (2)
(Pentane)
Hint: Vicinal dihalides on treatment with alcoholic
300.9 potassium hydroxide undergoes dehydrohalo-
genation.

282.5 Sol.:

272.4

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 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

63. Answer (1) 66. Answer (3)

Hint: Benzyne intermediate is aromatic in nature.
•

Sol.:

•
67. Answer (2)
Hint: More is the stability of the carbocation more
is the reactivity of the compound towards SN1
reaction.
Sol.: • Order of stability of carbocation:
•

∴ The order of reactivity towards SN1 reaction is

•
68. Answer (3)
Hint: Alkyl halide on reaction with magnesium in
64. Answer (4) the presence of dry ether gives Grignard reagent.
Sol.:
Hint: In multiple bond, only one bond is σ and the
rest are π bonds.
Sol.: 2-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid

Number of σ bonds = 16 69. Answer (3)

Number of π bonds = 4 Hint and Sol.: Ethanal and propanone form
65. Answer (2) hydrogen bond with water, hence miscible with
water in all proportions.
Hint: Dipole moment (µ) = q × d
70. Answer (1)
where q is charge and d is distance between the
Hint: NaBH4 reduces aldehydes/ketones to
atoms.
alcohols but does not reduce esters.
Sol.:
Sol.:
Dipole moment/ Debye
CH3F 1.847
CH3Cl 1.860
CH3Cl 1.830
CH3I 1.636
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

71. Answer (1) Sol.:

Hint:

Sol.:

72. Answer (2)

Hint: When a 3° alkyl halide reacts with an
alkoxide ion (a strong base) elimination reaction
will take place.
Sol.:
76. Answer (4)
Hint:
• Primary and secondary alcohols undergo
dehydrogenation on reaction with Cu at 573 K.
Sol.: Tertiary alcohol undergoes elimination on
reaction with Cu at 573 K.

73. Answer (1)

Hint:
77. Answer (3)
Hint: In Etard reaction, toluene is converted to
Benzaldehyde.
Sol.: Sol.: Etard Reaction:

74. Answer (4)

Hint: Oxymercuration – demercuration reaction
converts alkene into alcohol in accordance with
Markovnikov’s rule but without rearrangement.
78. Answer (2)
Sol.:
CdCl
Hint: 2CH3MgCl 
2
→(CH3 )2 Cd + 2MgCl2

Sol.:

When R is Ph – CH2 group

75. Answer (4)
Hint: For unsymmetrical diols, –OH group will be 79. Answer (2)
eliminated first which will generate more stable
Hint: Ortho effect is observed in ortho-substituted
carbocation.
benzoic acid.
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 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

Compounds Tollens’ Test Fehling’s Test

Sol.: Because of ortho substitution, the
• Positive Negative
group becomes out of plane with benzene ring.
So, benzene ring will not participate in resonance • Positive Positive
and the stability of the conjugate base so formed
will be more as the negative charge is delocalised • Negative Negative
on more electronegative oxygen atoms only
• CH3CH2OH Negative Negative
83. Answer (4)
Hint: Carboxylic acid reacts with ammonia to give
ammonium salt which on further heating at high
temperature gives acid amide.
80. Answer (4) Sol.:
Hint: Aldehydes are more reactive towards
nucleophilic addition reactions than ketones
because of less steric hindrance and more
electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon.
Sol.: Order of reactivity towards nucleophilic
addition reaction is

84. Answer (2)

81. Answer (3) Hint: Primary alcohols are readily oxidised to
carboxylic acids with chromium trioxide in acidic
Hint: Compound containing group gives medium (Jones Reagent).
Sol.:
positive Iodoform test.
•
Sol.:
CrO –H SO
• 3 2
CH3 (CH2 )8 CH2OH 4 →
Jones Re agent
CH3(CH2)8COOH

•
85. Answer (4)
Hint: Addition of HCN to a >C = O group produces
cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis gives a hydroxy
carboxylic acid molecule.

82. Answer (2) Sol.:

Hint: Aromatic aldehydes do not give positive
Fehling’s test.
Sol.:
• Aldehyde gives positive Tollens’ as well as
Fehling’s Test.
• Ketones neither give Tollens nor Fehling’s Test.  Compound P releases H2 gas on reaction with
sodium metal.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

SECTION - B 90. Answer (4)

86. Answer (3) Hint: Propyne contains acidic hydrogen
Hint: The replacement of a hydrogen atom by a Sol.: • All alkynes are colourless
sulphonic acid group in a ring is called • Alkynes are immiscible with water but soluble in
sulphonation.
organic solvents like ethers, carbon tetrachloride
Sol.: • Sulphonation is carried out by heating
and benzene.
benzene with fuming sulphuric acid (oleum)
• CH3–C≡C–H + NaNH2 → CH3–C≡C–Na+ + NH3
91. Answer (4)
Hint: When a primary aromatic amine, dissolved
in cold aqueous mineral acid is treated with
• Electrophile in the reaction is SO3. sodium nitrite, diazonium salt is formed.
87. Answer (2)
Hint: Under UV light, three chlorine molecules add
to benzene to produce benzene hexachloride.
Sol.: Sol.:

• 92. Answer (3)

Hint: Finkelstein reaction and Swarts reaction are
halogen exchange reactions.
NaI
Sol.: • CH3 CH2Cl → CH3 CH2I
Dry acetone

Finkelstein reaction
• CH3CH2CH2CH3 + NaCl
•
Wurtz Reaction

•
Wurtz-Fittig Reaction
Ag F
88. Answer (3) • CH3 CH2Cl → CH3 CH2F + AgCl
Hint: To get a more stable carbocation, ring
expansion will take place. Swarts Reaction
93. Answer (2)
Hint and Sol.:
Sol.:
light
2CHCl3 + O2 → 2COCl2 + 2HCl
Phosgene

94. Answer (2)

Hint: Benzyl carbocation is formed.
Sol.:

89. Answer (4)

Hint: Dehydrogenation and cyclisation takes
place.

Sol.:

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 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

95. Answer (2) 99. Answer (4)

Hint: Nucleophilic substitution reaction occurs
when chlorobenzene reacts with aq. alkali at high
temperature and high pressure.
Sol.:
Hint: Di ketones having α-H atoms may undergo
intramolecular aldol condensation.
Sol.:

96. Answer (2)

Hint: CH3OH, Methanol is also known as “wood
spirit”.
Sol.: The commercial alcohol is made unfit for
drinking by mixing in it some copper sulphate (to
give it a colour) and pyridine (a foul smelling
liquid). It is known as denaturation of alcohol.
97. Answer (3)
Hint: Acrolein is CH2 = CH – CHO α, β unsaturated ketone.
Sol.: 100. Answer (4)
dil. NaOH
HCHO + CH3 CHO 
→ CH=
2 CH − CHO Hint: The carbonyl group of aldehydes and
ketones is reduced to CH2 group in Wolff-Kishner
98. Answer (1)
Reduction reaction.
Hint: Ketal is formed when 2 equivalents of
Sol.: Wolff-Kishner Reduction
alcohol react with ketone in the presence of dry
HCl gas.
Sol.:

[BOTANY]
SECTION-A 102. Answer (3)
101. Answer (2) Hint: Turner’s syndrome is caused due to 44 + XO
type chromosome complement.
Hint: Gregor Mendel conducted hybridisation
Sol.: α-thalassemia involves the genes HBA1 and
experiments on garden pea. HBA2 inherited in a Mendelian recessive fashion.
Sol.: Gregor Mendel conducted hybridisation Chromosome complement 44 + XXY results in
experiments on garden pea, a member of family Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Physical, psychomotor and mental development
Fabaceae, during mid nineteenth century, i.e.,
are retarded in the individuals inflicted with Down’s
from 1856 to 1863. syndrome.
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103. Answer (2)
Hint: In angiosperms, seeds are developed inside
the fruit.
Sol.: The reasons of selecting garden pea by
Mendel for experiments are as follows.
 Pea has many distinct alternative traits.
 It completes its life cycle in one season and
produces large number of seeds.
 Flowers in nature show self pollination.
 It is easy to cross pollinate its flowers and
hybrids thus produced are fertile.
104. Answer (4)
Hint: A true breeding plant produces offspring of
its own kind.
Sol.: A plant is said to be true breeding for a
particular character if it is homozygous for that
particular character.
105. Answer (2)
Hint: Emasculation for hybridisation experiment is
done by removing the anthers from bisexual
flowers.
Sol.: In Mendelian monohybrid cross, the
individual in F1 generation shows only the
dominant phenotype.
106. Answer (3)
Hint: According to Mendel, factors are stably
passed down, unchanged, from parent to offspring
through the gametes, over successive
generations.
Sol.: The factors considered by Mendel are now
called genes. These are the functional units of
inheritance.
107. Answer (4)
Hint: A polypeptide is a polymer of amino acids.
Sol.: Chemically gene is a segment of DNA that
has a particular function i.e., synthesis of
polypeptide.
108. Answer (2)
Hint: The possible combinations of genes can be
studied by Punnett square.
Sol.: Punnett square, developed by R. C. Punnett,
is a graphical representation to calculate the
probability of all possible genotypes of offspring.
109. Answer (3)
Hint: Test cross is the cross in which an individual
with dominant phenotype is crossed with the
recessive parent type.
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Sol.: To know the genotype of an individual showing
dominant phenotype, its cross is done with recessive
parent type. In pea plants, tallness is dominant
phenotype and dwarfness is recessive phenotype.
Tall plant can be homozygous or heterozygous.
110. Answer (1)
Hint: Inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum
shows incomplete dominance.
Sol.: The cross can be represented as follows.
Out of 8 plants, 1 is red flowered.
111. Answer (2)
Hint: Mendelian disorders can be due to recessive
genes or dominant genes.
Sol.: Haemophilia, colour blindness and
thalassemia are recessive gene disorders,
whereas myotonic dystrophy is dominant gene
disorder.
112. Answer (3)
Hint: One gene can influence more than one
character.
Sol.: Blood group ABO is an example of multiple
allelism. So, in a population of diploid species,
more than two alleles of a gene are possible.
113. Answer (4)
Hint: Through the dihybrid cross experiment,
Mendel generalised the law of independent
assortment.
Sol.: Law of independent assortment will be
applicable when the genes for the characters
taken into consideration are located on different
chromosomes.
114. Answer (1)
Hint: In a Mendelian cross, number of genotypes
would be 3n.
Sol.: For a trihybrid cross n = 3
Therefore, total number of genotypes = 3n
= 33
= 27
 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
115. Answer (1)
Hint: In quantitative inheritance, the dominant
alleles have cumulative effect.
Sol.: In (a), (c) and (d), there are three dominant
alleles whereas, in (b) there are four dominant
alleles. Therefore, (a), (c) and (d) will show the
same phenotypic effect.
116. Answer (3)
Hint: The recombination frequency is directly
proportional to the distance between genes.
Sol.: The arrangement of genes A, B, C and D on
the chromosome can be as follows:
117. Answer (4)
Hint: The trait considered in the pedigree chart is
due to autosomal recessive gene.
Sol.: The trait in an individual regarding recessive
gene will be shown only in homozygous condition.
In the given pedigree chart, the couple F1(I) and
(II) are homozygous recessive. Therefore, all their
children will be affected.
118. Answer (1)
Hint: Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of
metabolism.
Sol.: Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive
trait.
119. Answer (1)
Hint: Zygote in apomictic seeds is developed from
diploid sporophytic cells or diploid egg.
Sol.: Apomictic seeds are developed by the
process of apomixis which is a form of asexual
reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
Therefore, such seeds maintain their genetic
combination.
120. Answer (2)
Hint: Orchid and Striga contain many tiny seeds
in the fruit.
Sol.: Apple is a false fruit but has more than one
seed. Wheat has single ovule in the ovary.
Therefore, its fruit has single seed.
121. Answer (2)
Hint: The innermost wall layer of anther is
tapetum.
Sol.: Tapetal cells can be polyploid and provide
nourishment to the developing pollen grains.
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122. Answer (4)
Hint: Exine of pollen grain is made up of
sporopollenin which is one of the most resistant
organic material known.
Sol.: Germ pores in the pollen grains are
prominent apertures where sporopollenin is
absent. Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin.
The cell wall of pollen grain is called sporoderm.
123. Answer (3)
Hint: Seeds have many features that help in
survival of the species.
Sol.: When the seeds are stored as food for future
use, it is said to be useful for human beings or
animals.
124. Answer (1)
Hint: The egg apparatus of a typical embryo sac
has three cells.
Sol.: The egg apparatus of embryo sac has, one
egg cell and two synergids. All are haploid.
125. Answer (2)
Hint: The embryo sac of the ovule is surrounded
by nucellus.
Sol.: Nucellus of the ovule is made up of
parenchymatous cells.
126. Answer (3)
Hint: Microsporogenesis occurs in the anther of a
flower.
Sol.: In the anther of angiosperms, cells of
sporogenous tissue undergo microsporogenesis
to form pollen grains.
127. Answer (4)
Hint: In wind pollinated flowers, pollens are light
and carried out by air currents.
Sol.: Wind pollinated flowers have light and non-
sticky pollen grains.
128. Answer (2)
Hint: Black pepper has perispermic seeds in
which remnants of nucellus are present.
Sol.: Wheat seeds are albuminous (endospermic).
Their seeds have endosperm at maturity.
129. Answer (4)
Hint: The single cotyledon in monocot embryo is
called scutellum.
Sol.: Remains of second cotyledon in some
grasses is called epiblast.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024
130. Answer (2)
Hint: Fruit flies complete their life cycle in about
two weeks
Sol.: In fruit flies, a single mating produce a large
number of progeny flies. It has many hereditary
variations that can be seen with low power
microscopes.
131. Answer (3)
Hint: Gene controlling starch synthesis in pea
seeds is a pleiotropic gene.
Sol.: The alleles exhibit complete dominance in
case of seed shape and incomplete dominance in
case of starch grain size.
132. Answer (4)
Hint: Rediscovery of Mendelian laws was done in
1900.
Sol.: Davenport studied polygenic inheritance.
133. Answer (4)
Hint: Grasshopper is an example of XO type of
sex determination
Sol.: In grasshoppers males have only one X
chromosome and thus they can produce two
different type of gametes one with X chromosome
and other without X chromosome.
134. Answer (4)
Hint: Orobanche is an angiosperm
Sol.: Orobanche is a parasitic species that can
produce fruits with many tiny seeds.
135. Answer (4)
Hint: In leguminous plants, seeds are ex-
albuminous
Sol.: Castor produces albuminous seeds.
SECTION-B
136. Answer (2)
Hint: One of the reasons of Mendel’s success is
that he applied statistical methods and
mathematical logics for analysing his results.
Sol.: Mendel derived the laws of inheritance by
considering those characters for which the genes
are located on different chromosomes. Having
seven pairs of chromosomes in the plant used by
him in the experiment was not the reason for his
success.
137. Answer (4)
Hint: Genes for α-thalassemia are present on
chromosome 16.
Sol.: β-thalassemia is controlled by a single gene
HBB on chromosome 11.
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138. Answer (3)
Hint: Male honey bees are developed from
unfertilised eggs by means of parthenogenesis.
Sol.: Since, the queen or worker bees are
developed by fertilised eggs and males are
developed by unfertilised eggs, the chromosome
number in females is 32 whereas in males it is 16.
139. Answer (1)
Hint: Linked genes show physical association.
Sol.: Linked genes are those genes which are
present on the same chromosome on different
loci.
140. Answer (3)
Hint: Dominant traits appear in both homozygous
and heterozygous conditions.
Sol.: Round seed, axial flower, green pod and tall
stem are dominant traits in pea plants. These
appear both in homozygous and heterozygous
conditions.
141. Answer (4)
Hint: In Mendelian dihybrid cross, out of 16 seeds
3 are round-green and 1 wrinkled-green.
Sol.: Since out of 16 seeds, 4 are green, then out
4
of 320 seeds 320 × = 80 would be green.
16
142. Answer (2)
Hint: Number of chromosomes would be different
in male from the female when either male or
female has only one sex chromosome.
Sol.: Grasshoppers show XX-XO type of sex
determination. Thus, the male grasshopper has
one less chromosome in somatic cell as compared
to female one.
143. Answer (1)
Hint: The terminal structure of a typical stamen is
anther.
Sol.: The protective envelopes surrounding the
body of ovule is called integument.
144. Answer (1)
Hint: In Papaver, gynoecium has many carpels
which are fused together.
Sol.: Gynoecium of Papaver is said to be
multicarpellary syncarpous because it has many
carpels which are fused together.
145. Answer (4)
Hint: Cleistogamous flowers are closed flowers
and chasmogamous flowers are open flowers.
Sol.: In open flowers, mode of pollination can be
autogamy, geitonogamy or xenogamy.
In closed flowers, only autogamy can occur.
 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
146. Answer (1)
Hint: During initial stages of embryo development,
suspensor cell is formed towards the micropyle.
Sol.: In the embryo sac, the suspensor cell is
formed towards the micropyle and embryonal cell
is formed towards antipodal region.
147. Answer (3)
Hint: Parthenocarpic fruits develop from ovary but
without fertilisation.
Sol.: Since, false fruits are also developed after
fertilisation, they have seeds.
148. Answer (2)
[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A
151. Answer (2)
Hint: Produced from anterior pituitary
Sol.: hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in
women only during pregnancy. In addition, during
pregnancy the levels of other hormones like
estrogens, progestogens, cortisol, prolactin,
thyroxine, etc., are increased several-folds in the
maternal blood. Increased production of these
hormones is essential for supporting the fetal
growth, metabolic changes in the mother and
maintenance of pregnancy.
152. Answer (3)
Hint: Contains mitochondria
Sol.:
153. Answer (2)
Hint: 4 years after the independence of India
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Hint: Pollen-pistil interaction is a pre-fertilization
event.
Sol.: Formation of free nuclear endosperm is a
post-fertilization event.
149. Answer (1)
Hint: Dioecy is the presence of male and female
flowers on different plants.
Sol.: Dioecy prevents self-pollination and
promotes outbreeding.
150. Answer (2)
Hint: Water lily is an insect pollinated plant.
Sol.: Zostera is a water-pollinated plant.
Sol.: Family planning programmes were initiated
in 1951 and were periodically assessed over past
decades.
The Government of India legalised MTP in 1971
with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse.
154. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a copper releasing IUD.
Sol.: Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are
barriers made of rubber that are inserted into the
female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during
coitus.
Condoms are available for both males and females.
Multiload-375 is a copper releasing IUD.
155. Answer (3)
Hint: Fertile period
Sol.: Natural method of contraception works on
the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and
sperms meeting. Periodic abstinence is one such
method in which the couples avoid or abstain from
coitus from day 10 to 17 of the 28 days menstrual
cycle when ovulation could be expected. As
chances of fertilisation are very high during this
period, it is called the fertile period. Therefore, by
abstaining from coitus during this period,
conception could be prevented.
 Withdrawal or coitus interruptus is another
method in which the male partner withdraws
his penis from the vagina just before
ejaculation so as to avoid insemination.
 Lactational amenorrhea (absence of
menstruation) method is based on the fact that
ovulation and therefore the menstrual cycle do
not occur during the period of intense lactation
following parturition.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024
156. Answer (4)
Hint: IMR stands for Infant Mortality Rate.
Sol.: A rapid decline in death rate, maternal
mortality rate and infant mortality rate as well as
an increase in the number of people in
reproducible age are probable reasons for
population explosion.
157. Answer (4)
Hint: Delivery of the baby is final step.
Sol.: The reproductive events in humans include:-
 Formation of gametes (Gametogenesis) i.e.,
sperms in males and ovum in females.
 Transfer of sperms into the female genital tract
(Insemination).
 Fusion of male and female gametes
(Fertilisation) leading to formation of zygote.
 Formation and development of blastocyst and
its attachment to the uterine wall (Implantation),
embryonic development (Gestation) and
delivery of the baby (Parturition).
158. Answer (3)
Hint: Exclude the one that is present in primary
sex organ
Sol.: The male sex accessory ducts include rete
testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas
deferens.
Testis is a primary sex organ which contains
seminiferous tubules.
159. Answer (1)
Hint: Primary oocyte undergoes meiosis-I.
Sol.: Haploid cells Diploid cells
Secondary oocyte, Primary spermatocyte,
spermatid and spermatogonium and
ootid oogonium
Primary spermatocyte and primary oocyte undergo
meiosis-I to produce secondary spermatocytes and
secondary oocytes respectively.
160. Answer (1)
Hint: Leydig cells
Sol.:
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161. Answer (3)
Hint: Hormone releasing IUD
Sol.: Cervical cap is an example of barrier method
of contraception. It is made of rubber that are
inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover
the cervix during coitus.
 Nirodh is a popular brand of condom for the
male.
 LNG-20 is a hormone releasing IUD.
162. Answer (4)
Hint: Formed as a result of 1st meiotic division.
Sol.: Acellular layer that comes out along with
ovum during ovulation is zona pellucida. This layer
is formed by secondary oocyte.
163. Answer (2)
Hint: Included in male external genitalia
Sol.: The penis is the male external genitalia. It is
made up of special tissue that helps in erection of
the penis to facilitate insemination. The enlarged
end of penis called the glans penis is covered by
a loose fold of skin called foreskin.
164. Answer (4)
Hint: Should not be impossible to change
Sol.: An ideal contraceptive should be user-
friendly, easily available, effective and reversible
with no or least side-effects. It also should in no
way interfere with the sexual desire.
165. Answer (2)
Hint: Used by males as well as females
Sol.: Use of condoms has increased in recent
years due to its additional benefit of protecting the
user from contracting STIs and AIDS.
Diaphragms and vaults are barriers that prevent
conception by blocking the entry of sperms
through the cervix. These are the methods of
contraception but does not protect the user from
contracting STIs.
166. Answer (1)
Hint: Located in Lucknow
Sol.: ‘Saheli’ is a non-steroidal contraceptive pill
developed by scientists at CDRI, Lucknow.
The World Health Organization is a specialized
agency of the United Nations, responsible for
international public health.
EFB is the Europe’s non-profit federation of
national biotechnology.
 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
167. Answer (3)
Hint: Exclude the site of fertilisation
Sol.: Each fallopian tube in a human female is
about 10-12 cm long and extends from the
periphery of each ovary to the uterus. The part
closer to the ovary is funnel shaped infundibulum.
The edges of the infundibulum possess finger-like
projections called fimbriae, which help in collection
of ovum after ovulation.
Fertilisation occurs in the ampullary region of
fallopian tubes.
168. Answer (4)
Hint: Endometrium is the innermost layer.
Sol.:
169. Answer (2)
Hint: Forms birth canal along with vagina
Sol.: The female external genitalia include mons
pubis, labia majora, labia minora, hymen and
clitoris.
Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by
skin and pubic hair. The labia majora are fleshy
folds of tissue, which extend down from the mons
pubis and surround the vaginal opening. The labia
minora are paired folds of tissue under the labia
majora. The opening of the vagina is often covered
partially by a membrane called hymen. The clitoris
is a tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper
junction of the two labia minora above the urethral
opening.
170. Answer (2)
Hint: First 4 weeks
Sol.: In human beings, after one month of
pregnancy, the embryo’s heart is formed. The first
sign of growing foetus may be noticed by listening
to the heart sounds carefully through the
stethoscope.
By the end of 12 weeks (first trimester), most of
the major organ systems are formed.
By the end of second trimester, body is covered
with fine hair, eye-lids separate and eye lashes are
formed.
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171. Answer (4)
Hint: This hormone stimulates the release of
gonadotrophins.
Sol.: Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty
due to significant increase in the secretion of
gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH).
GnRH is a hypothalamic hormone.
The increased levels of GnRH then acts on
anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis) and
stimulates secretion of two gonadotrophins –
Luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating
hormone.
Androgens are secreted by Leydig cells.
Sertoli cells provide nourishment to the developing
sperms.
172. Answer (3)
Hint: Pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks
Sol.: According to MTP act, a pregnancy may be
terminated on certain considered grounds within
the first 12 weeks of pregnancy on the opinion of
one registered medical practitioner. If the
pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks, but
fewer than 24 weeks, two registered medical
practitioners must be of the opinion, formed in
good faith, that the required ground exist.
173. Answer (1)
Hint: This structure undergoes meiosis-I.
Sol.:
174. Answer (3)
Hint: Exclude the options containing copper
releasing IUDs.
Sol.:
Progestasert – Hormone releasing IUDs
and LNG-20
Multiload-375 – Copper releasing IUDs
and CuT
Diaphragms – Barrier method of contraception
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024
175. Answer (2)
Hint: ‘Saheli’ is non-steroidal.
Sol.: Progesterone alone or in combination with
estrogen can be used by females as injections or
implants under the skin. Their mode of action is
similar to that of pills and their effective periods are
much longer.
176. Answer (3)
Hint: Also secreted by placenta
Sol.: Estrogen reaches peak just before ovulation
and during luteal phase.
LH and FSH reach peak during follicular phase
just before ovulation.
Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum and it
reaches peak in luteal phase.
177. Answer (1)
Hint: This structure contains stem cells.
Sol.: Immediately after implantation, the inner cell
mass differentiates into an outer layer called
ectoderm and an inner layer called endoderm.
Inner cell mass contains certain cells called stem
cells which have potency to give rise to all the
tissues and organs.
After implantation, finger-like projections appear
on the trophoblast called chorionic villi.
The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become
interdigitated with each other and jointly form
placenta.
178. Answer (2)
Hint: This hormone acts on uterine myometrium.
Sol.: The signals for parturition originate from fully
developed foetus and the placenta which induce
mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection
reflex.
This triggers the release of oxytocin from maternal
pituitary.
179. Answer (3)
Hint: This structure has hydrolytic enzymes.
Sol.: The human sperm head contains an
elongated haploid nucleus, the anterior portion of
which is covered by a cap-like structure called
acrosome.
Oogenesis is initiated during the embryonic
development stage when a couple of million
gamete mother cells are formed within each fetal
ovary.
The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into
15-20 mammary lobes containing clusters of cells
called alveoli.
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180. Answer (3)
Hint: Primary oocyte completes meiosis-I within
tertiary follicle.
Sol.: The secondary follicle transforms into tertiary
follicle which is characterised by fluid filled cavity
called antrum.
The theca layer is differentiated into theca interna
and theca externa.
At this stage, the primary oocyte within the tertiary
follicle grows in size and completes its first meiotic
division. It is an unequal division resulting in the
formation of secondary oocyte and a tiny first polar
body.
181. Answer (3)
Hint: Zona pellucida is an acellular layer.
Sol.: During fertilisation, a sperm comes in contact
with the zona pellucida layer of the ovum and
induces changes in the membrane that blocks
entry of additional sperms.
Thus, it ensures that only one sperm can fertilise
an ovum.
Acrosome contains hydrolytic enzymes.
182. Answer (4)
Hint: Function of CuT
Sol.: Oral contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation and
implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical
mucus to prevent/retard entry of sperms. In barrier
methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from
physical meeting with the help of barriers.
Copper releasing IUDs suppress sperm motility
and fertilising capacity of sperms.
183. Answer (3)
Hint: It stands for Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection.
Sol.:
ZIFT – Zygote or early embryos with upto 8
blastomeres are transferred into
fallopian tube.
GIFT – Transfer of an ovum collected from a
donor into the fallopian tube
IUI – Semen is artificially introduced into the
uterus.
184. Answer (1)
Hint: Involves transfer of gametes in fallopian tube
Sol.: in vitro fertilisation occurs in ZIFT, IUT and
ICSI
in vivo fertilisation occur in GIFT
 Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
185. Answer (1)
Hint: in-vivo fertilisation occurs.
Sol.: GIFT is advised in case of females who
cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable
environment for fertilisation and further
development.
Infertility cases either due to inability of the male
partner to inseminate the female or due to very low
sperm counts in the ejaculate could be corrected
by artificial insemination.
SECTION - B
186. Answer (1)
Hint: Bacterial STI
Sol.: Infections or diseases which are transmitted
through sexual intercourse are collectively called
sexually transmitted infections (STIs) or venereal
diseases (VD) or reproductive tract infections
(RTIs). Except for hepatitis-B, genital herpes and
HIV infections, other diseases are completely
curable if detected early and treated properly.
187. Answer (4)
Hint: Natural passive immunity
Sol.: The mammary glands of the female undergo
differentiation during pregnancy and starts
producing milk towards the end of pregnancy by
the process called lactation. This helps the mother
in feeding the new-born. The milk produced during
the initial few days of lactation is called colostrum
which contains several antibodies absolutely
essential to develop resistance for the new-born
babies.
188. Answer (3)
Hint: Multiple of 16
Sol.: For normal fertility, at least 60% of sperms
must have normal shape and size and out of
which, 40% of them must show vigorous motility.
So, if a male ejaculates 200 million sperms then
60% of 200 million i.e., 120 million sperms must
have normal shape and size and 40% of 120
million sperms i.e., 48 million must show vigorous
motility.
189. Answer (4)
Hint: Related to the structure that undergoes
meiosis-I
Sol.: Oogonia start division and enter into
prophase-I of the meiotic division and get
temporarily arrested at that stage, called primary
oocytes.
First polar body and second polar body are the
results of unequal meiotic divisions.
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190. Answer (2)
Hint: Pregnancy hormone
Sol.: Corpus luteum secretes large amounts of
progesterone which is essential for maintenance
of the endometrium.
In the absence of fertilisation, corpus luteum
degenerates leading to menstruation.
Graafian follicle mainly secretes estrogen.
Anterior pituitary secretes gonadotropins.
Zona pellucida is secreted by secondary oocyte.
191. Answer (2)
Hint: Widest part of oviduct
Sol.: Each fallopian tube in a human female is
10-12 cm long and extends from the periphery of
each ovary to the uterus.
Under normal conditions, fertilisation takes place
in ampullary region of fallopian tube.
192. Answer (4)
Hint: Cause of transmission of STDs
Sol.: Unprotected sexual intercourse may lead to
increase in population growth.
193. Answer (1)
Hint: Contraceptives are used to prevent
pregnancy.
Sol.: Oral administration of small doses of either
progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations
are used in the form of pills.
They have to be taken daily for a period of 21 days
starting preferably within first five days of
menstrual cycle.
They inhibit ovulation and implantation.
They alter the quality of cervical mucus to retard
the entry of sperms.
Oral pills prevent the conception.
194. Answer (3)
Hint: Gametes are the result of meiosis in
humans.
Sol.: Human sperms are motile (flagella is
present)
Sperms and ovum are haploid cells.
Distal centriole and spiral mitochondria are
characteristics of sperms only.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024
195. Answer (1)
Hint: Female foeticide should be avoided.
Sol.: Amniocentesis is a foetal sex and disorder
determination test based on the chromosomal
pattern of embryo’s cell.
It is being misused to know the sex of unborn baby
followed by medical termination of pregnancy.
196. Answer (4)
Hint: Proper information is important.
Sol.: Introduction of sex education in schools
should be encouraged to provide right information
to the young so as to discourage children from
believing in myths and having misconceptions
about sex-related aspects.
197. Answer (1)
Hint: Vasectomy is a terminal method.
Sol.: Sterilisation procedure in males is called
vasectomy. In this method, a small part of the vas
deferens is removed or tied up through a small
incision on the scrotum.
Lactational amenorrhoea is based on the fact that
ovulation and therefore the menstrual cycle do not
occur during the period of intense lactation.
Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD.
198. Answer (4)
Hint: Forms the basis of Gravindex test
  
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Test-5 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
Sol.: hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in
women only during pregnancy. During pregnancy,
the levels of oestrogens, progestogens, cortisol,
prolactin etc. are increased several folds.
199. Answer (2)
Hint: Foetus develops limbs and digit in this
duration.
Sol.: By the end of the second month of
pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits.
By the end of 24 weeks (2nd trimester), the body is
covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate and
eyelashes are formed.
By the end of 1st trimester, limbs are well
developed.
By the end of 12 weeks, most of the major organ
systems are formed.
200. Answer (2)
Hint: Secreted by corpus luteum
Sol.: The corpus luteum secretes a large amount
of progesterone.
Lack of menstruation may be indicative of
pregnancy, stress, poor health, etc.
The corpus luteum secretes progesterone during
luteal phase/secretory phase.
Spermatids undergo differentiation to develop into
spermatozoa by the process known as
spermiogenesis.
 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2024

TEST - 5 (Code-F)
Test Date : 03/03/2024

ANSWERS
1. (1) 41. (1) 81. (4) 121. (1) 161. (2)
2. (1) 42. (1) 82. (2) 122. (1) 162. (3)
3. (4) 43. (2) 83. (2) 123. (4) 163. (1)
4. (4) 44. (3) 84. (3) 124. (3) 164. (3)
5. (1) 45. (1) 85. (4) 125. (2) 165. (4)
6. (1) 46. (2) 86. (4) 126. (4) 166. (2)
7. (1) 47. (2) 87. (4) 127. (4) 167. (2)
8. (2) 48. (3) 88. (1) 128. (4) 168. (4)
9. (2) 49. (3) 89. (3) 129. (4) 169. (3)
10. (1) 50. (2) 90. (2) 130. (3) 170. (1)
11. (2) 51. (2) 91. (2) 131. (2) 171. (2)
12. (3) 52. (4) 92. (2) 132. (4) 172. (4)
13. (3) 53. (1) 93. (2) 133. (2) 173. (2)
14. (4) 54. (1) 94. (3) 134. (4) 174. (4)
15. (4) 55. (4) 95. (4) 135. (3) 175. (3)
16. (1) 56. (3) 96. (4) 136. (2) 176. (1)
17. (2) 57. (3) 97. (4) 137. (1) 177. (1)
18. (2) 58. (2) 98. (3) 138. (2) 178. (3)
19. (2) 59. (2) 99. (2) 139. (3) 179. (4)
20. (1) 60. (4) 100. (3) 140. (1) 180. (3)
21. (3) 61. (4) 101. (2) 141. (4) 181. (3)
22. (2) 62. (4) 102. (3) 142. (1) 182. (3)
23. (2) 63. (1) 103. (2) 143. (1) 183. (2)
24. (1) 64. (2) 104. (4) 144. (2) 184. (1)
25. (1) 65. (1) 105. (2) 145. (4) 185. (3)
26. (2) 66. (1) 106. (3) 146. (3) 186. (2)
27. (1) 67. (3) 107. (4) 147. (1) 187. (2)
28. (1) 68. (3) 108. (2) 148. (3) 188. (4)
29. (2) 69. (2) 109. (3) 149. (4) 189. (1)
30. (1) 70. (3) 110. (1) 150. (2) 190. (4)
31. (1) 71. (2) 111. (2) 151. (2) 191. (1)
32. (4) 72. (4) 112. (1) 152. (3) 192. (3)
33. (4) 73. (1) 113. (3) 153. (2) 193. (1)
34. (3) 74. (2) 114. (4) 154. (4) 194. (4)
35. (3) 75. (4) 115. (2) 155. (3) 195. (2)
36. (1) 76. (4) 116. (2) 156. (4) 196. (2)
37. (2) 77. (2) 117. (1) 157. (4) 197. (4)
38. (4) 78. (4) 118. (1) 158. (3) 198. (3)
39. (2) 79. (2) 119. (4) 159. (1) 199. (4)
40. (2) 80. (3) 120. (3) 160. (1) 200. (1)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
SECTION-A qE
a=
1. Answer (1) m
Hint: Q = ne The charged particle will accelerate along the
direction of electric field hence the trajectory will
Sol.: 4.8 × 10–6 = 1010 × 1.6 × 10–19 t
be straight line.
4.8 × 10 –6 5. Answer (1)
t=
1.6 × 10 –9
 1
Hint: q = Q 1– 
t = 3 × 103 seconds  k
2. Answer (1) k = Dielectric constant of the medium.
Hint: When the two spheres are brought in contact Sol.: Lesser and opposite in nature.
their potential would be same. 6. Answer (1)
R1  R  kq1q2
Sol.: Q1
= = Q   × 100 = 25 µC Hint: F =
R1 + R2  R + 3R  r2
R2  3R  F k ( 4 )(16 ) d 2
=Q2 = Q  =  100 75 µC Sol.: = 2
R1 + R2  R + 3R  F ′ d (10 )(10 )

Q1 25 1 F 16
= = =
Q2 75 3 F ′ 25
3. Answer (4) 25
F′ = F
Hint and Sol.: 16
7. Answer (1)
Hint: Use equations of uniformly accelerated
motion.
qE qE
Sol.: v = u + at, u = 0 and a= ⇒ v= t
m m
8. Answer (2)
qenclosed
2 2  1
2
Hint: φtotal =
Enet = E + E + 2E  −  = E ε0
 2
qenclosed
3kq Sol.: φtotal =
E= 2 ε0
a
φtotal = φin + φout
4. Answer (4)
φin =0
Hint: A charge at rest moves along the direction
of electric field. 100 a3 .a 2
φout =
Sol.: = 100a5 ε0
qenclosed
9. Answer (2)
Qenclosed
Hint: φ =
ε0

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 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

Loop ABCDA
24 V – 200I – 4 V = 0
Sol.:
20
I= A
200
1
= A
10
1
VBD= 4 V= R × A
10
V
The charge can be assumed to be enclosed by R 40 = 40 Ω
=
A
two cones. Hence flux through one cone.
15. Answer (4)
Q
φ= nr
2ε0 Hint: R =
m
10. Answer (1)
Sol.: Let number of rows are m, cell in each row
σ are n
Hint:
= EB = ,EA 0
ε0 nm = 100
EA 0 For maximum current
Sol.: = = 0
EB σ nr
ε0 25 =
m
11. Answer (2) nr
= 25 = , n 25 m
Hint: Repulsion force m
Sol.: Due to outwards repulsion force radius Now, 25m2 = 100
always increases.
m=2
12. Answer (3)
16. Answer (1)
1
Hint: u= ε0 E 2
I 3.6
2 Hint & Sol.: = J = = 105 A m–2
A 36 × 10 –6
2
1 V  E =ρJ =5 × 105 × 10 –8
Sol.: u= ε0  
2 d 
V
13. Answer (3) = 5 × 10 –3
m
2k λ
Hint: E = 17. Answer (2)
r
v
2k λ Hint: µ = d
Sol.: E = E
r
v d 25 × 10 –6
1 Sol.: =
µ = = 5 ×10–6 m2 V–1 s–1
E∝ E 5
r
14. Answer (4) 18. Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: Hint: U = –PEcosθ
4Q – PQ
= Sol.: U –= P. 2
4πε0 d πε0 d 2
19. Answer (2)
Hint: Equipotential surfaces are perpendicular to
electric field.
Sol.: Equipotential surface will be spherical for
finite distance.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

20. Answer (1) 26. Answer (2)

Hint: Time period of spring mass system is R R0 (1 + α∆T )
Hint:=
independent of constant external force.
5 R (1 + 50α )
Sol.: Time period of oscillation will remain same. Sol.: = 0
6 R0 (1 + 100α )
21. Answer (3)
KQr kQ 5 + 500α = 6 + 300α
Hint: E = ( r < R ),E = 2 ( r > R ) 200α = 1
R3 r
Sol.: r < R, E ∝ r (straight line) 1
α=
1 200
r > R, E ∝ Now,
r2
22. Answer (2)  50   250 
5 =R0  1 +  =R0  
   200   200 
Hint: τ= P × E
R0= 4 Ω
Sol.:
= τ PE sin θ
27. Answer (1)
τ =PE sin 60
– ∂v
PE 3 3PE Hint & Sol.:=
Ex = – k [=
4 x ] – 4kx
= = ∂x
2 2
– ∂v
23. Answer (2) =
Ey = – k [ –2
= y ] 2yk
∂y
I
Hint: J = – ∂v
A =
Ez = –2zk
∂z
2
Sol.: A = π b – a
2
( ) =

E –4kxiˆ + 2ykjˆ – 2zkkˆ

E (1,0,1) = –4kiˆ – 2k kˆ

E= 16k 2 + 4k 2= 20 k 2

= 2k 5
28. Answer (1)
I
J= 1 ∆R  ∆d 
(
π b – a2
2
) Hint: R ∝ ,
d4 R
4
=
 d 

24. Answer (1)
 ∆R   ∆d 
ε0 A Sol.: 
R  × 100 =×
4   × 100
Hint: C =    d 
t1 t t
+ 2 + 3 = 4 × 0.5
K1 K 2 K 3
= 2%
ε0 A ε0 AK 29. Answer (2)
Sol.: C
= =
t t t  1 1 1 Hint: Voltmeter reads potential difference
+ + t + + 
K 2K 3K 1 2 3  6V
Sol.:
= i = 1A
6ε0 AK 6Ω
=
t ( 6 + 3 + 2)
6ε0 AK
=
11t
25. Answer (1)
Hint: Meter bridge is based on the principle of
balanced wheatstone bridge.
VAB = 6 + (4 × 1)
Sol.: 40 × 120 = 60 × R
= 10 V
R = 80 Ω
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 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

30. Answer (1) 1 1 1 1

= + +
Current Re 3R 6R 2R
Hint: Current density, j =
Area of cross-section 1 2 + 1+ 3
=
Sol.: Since the current is steady hence current Re 6R
density at Q will be more as compared to P as area 6R
of cross-section at P is more as compared to area =
Re = R
6
of cross-section at Q. 37. Answer (2)
31. Answer (1) 1 p cos θ
Hint: V =
Hint and Sol.: Charge always flows from high 4πε0 r 2
potential to low potential, therefore charge will flow
Sol.: θ= 90°, cos90°= 0
from inner to outer surface.
V=0
32. Answer (4)
38. Answer (4)
 ∂E
Hint: F = – P (Applied voltage)2
∂r Hint: Rated power =
Resistance of bulb
Sol.:
P
= 20,
Sol.: NP 2000
=
N
∂E  ∂ –3 
=F –=
P2
∂r
–2kP2 P1 
 ∂r
r 

( ) N 2 .20 = 2000
N2 = 100
F ∝ r –4 N = 10
33. Answer (4) 39. Answer (2)
Hint: Use Kirchhoff’s junction rule.
Hint: Conductor placed in an electrostatic field will
Sol.:
be an equipotential surface
Sol.: VA = VC
34. Answer (3)
 
Hint: ∫ .dA = φtotal
E
Sol.: φtotal =
0
x – 20 x – 0 x – 5
35. Answer (3) + + = 0
2 2 4
Q2 2x – 40 + 2x + x – 5 = 0
Hint and Sol.: U = , according to question
2C 5x – 45 = 0
x=9V
Q12 Q2
⇒ = 2 9–0
2C1 2C2 ∴ I= = 4.5 A
2
Q12 C1 Q C1 40. Answer (2)
⇒ = ⇒ 1 =
Q22 C2 Q2 C2 Potential energy
Hint: Electric potential =
Charge
SECTION - B
36. Answer (1) [ML2 T –2 ]
Sol.:
= [v ] = [ML2 T −3 A −1 ]
Hint: All resistances are connected in parallel [AT]
Sol.: 41. Answer (1)
Aε0
Hint and Sol.: C = i.e. the capacitance of a
d
parallel plate capacitor depends on separation
between plates of capacitor and is independent of
charge and potential difference across capacitor.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

42. Answer (1) 47. Answer (2)

kQ Hint: Q = CeqV
Hint: V =
r Sol.:
kQ 2kQ 3kQ
=
Sol.: V – +
R R R
2kQ 2Q Q
=
V = =
R 4πε0 R 2πε0 R
43. Answer (2) 2C
=
Q C=
eqV V
3
Hint: W = Q (Vf – Vi )
48. Answer (3)
3 3kQ
Sol.:=
Vf 0;=
Vi mv 2 2πr
d Hint:
= Fr = ,T
r v
3 3kQ 2 1 Qq mv 2
W =– Sol.: =
d 4πε0 r 2 r
44. Answer (3)
Qq
Hint: I = neAVd v=
4πε0 rm
Sol.: I ∝ vd
2πr 2πr
4I v d =
T =
= v Qq
3I v d′
4πε0 m r
3
v d′ = vd  Qq  2
4 r3 =  T
3
45. Answer (1)  16π ε0 m 
Hint : Use the concept of series and parallel 49. Answer (3)
combination of capacitors. A  
Hint: VA – VB = – ∫ E.dr
ε0 A
Sol.: C = B
d
 
A
Sol.: VA – VB = – ∫ E.dr
B

VA –=
VB 10 –2
( 400cos 45iˆ + 400 sin 45 ˆj ) ⋅ (3iˆ – 2 ˆj ) V
(
= 200 2iˆ + 200 2 jˆ ) ⋅ ( 3iˆ – 2 jˆ ) × 10 V
–2

3 3 ε0 A = 2.82 V
C=
eq = C
2 2 d
50. Answer (2)
46. Answer (2)
R R R
Hint and Sol.: Series and parallel combination Hint & Sol.: Req = R + + + + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅∞
2 4 8
 1 1 1 
R=
eq R  1 + + + + ⋅ ⋅ ⋅∞ 
 2 4 8 
 
 1 
R= 
1– 1 
5C  
Ceq =  2
3 = 2R
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 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A Non-Aromatic
51. Answer (2)
Hint: Terminal double bond on reductive This molecule acquires
ozonolysis gives formaldehyde. tube shape
Sol.: 6π Aromatic

4π Anti-aromatic
52. Answer (4)
Hint: More is the electron density on the benzene 4π Anti-aromatic
ring, more will be its reactivity towards,
electrophilic substitution reaction.
Sol.: Correct order of reactivity towards 55. Answer (4)
electrophilic substitution reaction is Hint: To attain greater stability rearrangement of
carbocation (electrophile) takes place.
Sol.:

53. Answer (1)

Hint: Methane on oxidation in the presence of Cu
at 573 K and 100 atm gives methanol.
Cu/523K/100 atm
Sol.: • 2CH4 + O2 
→ 2CH3 OH
Methanol
Mo O
2 3 → HCHO + H O
• CH4 + O2  2
∆ Methanal

54. Answer (1) 56. Answer (3)

Hint: Conditions for aromaticity Hint: An aqueous solution of sodium or potassium
salt of a carboxylic acid on electrolysis gives
(i) Cyclic and planar ring
alkane containing even number of carbon atoms
(ii) Complete delocalisation of π electrons at the anode.
(iii) Presence of (4n +2)π electrons Sol.:
Sol.:
10π Aromatic (i)
(ii) At anode:

2π Aromatic

6π Aromatic
• •
(iii) CH3 + CH3 → H3 C – CH3 ↑

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

(iv) At cathode: Sol.:

•
H2O + e− → OH– + H
• •
2H → H2 ↑
This is an electrophilic addition reaction
electrolysis
So, 2CH3COO–Na+ + 2H2O 
→
CH3 – CH3(g) + 2CO2(g) + H2(g) + 2NaOH
57. Answer (3) •

Hint: Alkyne on passing through red hot iron tube This is an electrophilic substitution reaction
at 873 K undergoes cyclic polymerization.

Sol.: •

This is also a free radical substitution

58. Answer (2)

•
Hint: • As the molar mass increases, the van der
Waals forces also increases. As a result, This is a free radical addition reaction
the boiling point increases. 61. Answer (4)
• On increasing branching, boiling point Hint: For unsymmetrical diols, –OH group will be
decreases. eliminated first which will generate more stable
carbocation.
Sol.: Compounds BP(K)
Sol.:
309.1
(Pentane)
300.9

282.5

272.4

59. Answer (2) 62. Answer (4)

Hint: The most stable conformer of ethane is Hint: Oxymercuration – demercuration reaction
staggered form. converts alkene into alcohol in accordance with
Sol.: Markovnikov’s rule but without rearrangement.
Sol.:

60. Answer (4)

Hint: Addition of HBr to an alkene in presence of
a peroxide takes place through free radical
intermediate formation. When R is Ph – CH2 group
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 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

63. Answer (1) Sol.:

Hint:

Sol.:

64. Answer (2) 69. Answer (2)

Hint: When a 3° alkyl halide reacts with an Hint: More is the stability of the carbocation more
alkoxide ion (a strong base) elimination reaction is the reactivity of the compound towards SN1
will take place. reaction.
Sol.: Sol.: • Order of stability of carbocation:

65. Answer (1) ∴ The order of reactivity towards SN1 reaction is

Hint:
70. Answer (3)
Hint: Benzyne intermediate is aromatic in nature.

Sol.:
Sol.:

66. Answer (1)

Hint: NaBH4 reduces aldehydes/ketones to
alcohols but does not reduce esters.
Sol.:

71. Answer (2)

Hint: Dipole moment (µ) = q × d
where q is charge and d is distance between the
atoms.
Sol.:
67. Answer (3)
Dipole moment/ Debye
Hint and Sol.: Ethanal and propanone form
hydrogen bond with water, hence miscible with CH3F 1.847
water in all proportions.
CH3Cl 1.860
68. Answer (3)
CH3Cl 1.830
Hint: Alkyl halide on reaction with magnesium in
the presence of dry ether gives Grignard reagent. CH3I 1.636

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

72. Answer (4) Sol.:

Hint: In multiple bond, only one bond is σ and the • Benzene does not give test for unsaturation
rest are π bonds.
Sol.: 2-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid •

•
76. Answer (4)
Hint: Addition of HCN to a >C = O group produces
cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis gives a hydroxy
Number of σ bonds = 16 carboxylic acid molecule.
Number of π bonds = 4
73. Answer (1)
Sol.:
•

 Compound P releases H2 gas on reaction with

sodium metal.
77. Answer (2)
Hint: Primary alcohols are readily oxidised to
•
carboxylic acids with chromium trioxide in acidic
medium (Jones Reagent).
Sol.:
•

CrO –H SO
• • 3 2
CH3 (CH2 )8 CH2OH 4 →
Jones Re agent

CH3(CH2)8COOH

• •
78. Answer (4)
Hint: Carboxylic acid reacts with ammonia to give
74. Answer (2) ammonium salt which on further heating at high
Hint: Vicinal dihalides on treatment with alcoholic temperature gives acid amide.
potassium hydroxide undergoes dehydrohalo- Sol.:
genation.

Sol.:

75. Answer (4)

Hint: Decolorisation of KMnO4 solution is used as
a test for unsaturation.
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 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

79. Answer (2) 82. Answer (2)

Hint: Aromatic aldehydes do not give positive Hint: Ortho effect is observed in ortho-substituted
Fehling’s test. benzoic acid.
Sol.:
Sol.: Because of ortho substitution, the
• Aldehyde gives positive Tollens’ as well as
Fehling’s Test. group becomes out of plane with benzene ring.
So, benzene ring will not participate in resonance
• Ketones neither give Tollens nor Fehling’s Test.
and the stability of the conjugate base so formed
Compounds Tollens’ Test Fehling’s Test will be more as the negative charge is delocalised
on more electronegative oxygen atoms only
• Positive Negative

• Positive Positive

• Negative Negative
83. Answer (2)
CdCl
• CH3CH2OH Negative Negative Hint: 2CH3MgCl 
2
→(CH3 )2 Cd + 2MgCl2
80. Answer (3) Sol.:

Hint: Compound containing group gives 

positive Iodoform test.

Sol.:


84. Answer (3)

Hint: In Etard reaction, toluene is converted to
Benzaldehyde.
Sol.: Etard Reaction:

81. Answer (4)

Hint: Aldehydes are more reactive towards 85.
nucleophilic addition reactions than ketones
because of less steric hindrance and more
electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon.
Sol.: Order of reactivity towards nucleophilic
addition reaction is
Answer (4)
Hint:
• Primary and secondary alcohols undergo
dehydrogenation on reaction with Cu at 573 K.
Sol.: Tertiary alcohol undergoes elimination on
reaction with Cu at 573 K.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

SECTION - B 89. Answer (3)

86. Answer (4) Hint: Acrolein is CH2 = CH – CHO
Hint: The carbonyl group of aldehydes and Sol.:
ketones is reduced to CH2 group in Wolff-Kishner dil. NaOH
HCHO + CH3 CHO  → CH=
2 CH − CHO
Reduction reaction.
Sol.: Wolff-Kishner Reduction 90. Answer (2)
Hint: CH3OH, Methanol is also known as “wood
spirit”.
Sol.: The commercial alcohol is made unfit for
drinking by mixing in it some copper sulphate (to
give it a colour) and pyridine (a foul smelling
liquid). It is known as denaturation of alcohol.
91. Answer (2)
Hint: Nucleophilic substitution reaction occurs
when chlorobenzene reacts with aq. alkali at high
temperature and high pressure.
87. Answer (4) Sol.:
Hint: Di ketones having α-H atoms may undergo
intramolecular aldol condensation.

Sol.:

92. Answer (2)

Hint: Benzyl carbocation is formed.
Sol.:

α, β unsaturated ketone. 93. Answer (2)

88. Answer (1) Hint and Sol.:
Hint: Ketal is formed when 2 equivalents of light
2CHCl3 + O2 → 2COCl2 + 2HCl
alcohol react with ketone in the presence of dry Phosgene
HCl gas.
94. Answer (3)
Sol.:
Hint: Finkelstein reaction and Swarts reaction are
halogen exchange reactions.
NaI
Sol.: • CH3 CH2Cl → CH3 CH2I
Dry acetone

Finkelstein reaction
• CH3CH2CH2CH3 + NaCl

Wurtz Reaction

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 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024

•
Sol.:
Wurtz-Fittig Reaction
Ag F
• CH3 CH2Cl → CH3 CH2F + AgCl

Swarts Reaction
95. Answer (4)
Hint: When a primary aromatic amine, dissolved 99. Answer (2)
in cold aqueous mineral acid is treated with Hint: Under UV light, three chlorine molecules add
sodium nitrite, diazonium salt is formed. to benzene to produce benzene hexachloride.
Sol.:

•
Sol.:

96. Answer (4)

Hint: Propyne contains acidic hydrogen
Sol.: • All alkynes are colourless
• Alkynes are immiscible with water but soluble in •
organic solvents like ethers, carbon tetrachloride
and benzene.
• CH3–C≡C–H + NaNH2 → CH3–C≡C–Na+ + NH3
97. Answer (4)
Hint: Dehydrogenation and cyclisation takes 100. Answer (3)
place. Hint: The replacement of a hydrogen atom by a
sulphonic acid group in a ring is called
Sol.: sulphonation.
Sol.: • Sulphonation is carried out by heating
benzene with fuming sulphuric acid (oleum)

98. Answer (3)

Hint: To get a more stable carbocation, ring
expansion will take place. • Electrophile in the reaction is SO3.

[BOTANY]
SECTION-A 102. Answer (3)
101. Answer (2) Hint: Turner’s syndrome is caused due to 44 + XO
type chromosome complement.
Hint: Gregor Mendel conducted hybridisation
Sol.: α-thalassemia involves the genes HBA1 and
experiments on garden pea. HBA2 inherited in a Mendelian recessive fashion.
Sol.: Gregor Mendel conducted hybridisation Chromosome complement 44 + XXY results in
experiments on garden pea, a member of family Klinefelter’s syndrome.
Physical, psychomotor and mental development
Fabaceae, during mid nineteenth century, i.e.,
are retarded in the individuals inflicted with Down’s
from 1856 to 1863. syndrome.
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103. Answer (2)
Hint: In angiosperms, seeds are developed inside
the fruit.
Sol.: The reasons of selecting garden pea by
Mendel for experiments are as follows.
 Pea has many distinct alternative traits.
 It completes its life cycle in one season and
produces large number of seeds.
 Flowers in nature show self pollination.
 It is easy to cross pollinate its flowers and
hybrids thus produced are fertile.
104. Answer (4)
Hint: A true breeding plant produces offspring of
its own kind.
Sol.: A plant is said to be true breeding for a
particular character if it is homozygous for that
particular character.
105. Answer (2)
Hint: Emasculation for hybridisation experiment is
done by removing the anthers from bisexual
flowers.
Sol.: In Mendelian monohybrid cross, the
individual in F1 generation shows only the
dominant phenotype.
106. Answer (3)
Hint: According to Mendel, factors are stably
passed down, unchanged, from parent to offspring
through the gametes, over successive
generations.
Sol.: The factors considered by Mendel are now
called genes. These are the functional units of
inheritance.
107. Answer (4)
Hint: A polypeptide is a polymer of amino acids.
Sol.: Chemically gene is a segment of DNA that
has a particular function i.e., synthesis of
polypeptide.
108. Answer (2)
Hint: The possible combinations of genes can be
studied by Punnett square.
Sol.: Punnett square, developed by R. C. Punnett,
is a graphical representation to calculate the
probability of all possible genotypes of offspring.
109. Answer (3)
Hint: Test cross is the cross in which an individual
with dominant phenotype is crossed with the
recessive parent type.
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Sol.: To know the genotype of an individual showing
dominant phenotype, its cross is done with recessive
parent type. In pea plants, tallness is dominant
phenotype and dwarfness is recessive phenotype.
Tall plant can be homozygous or heterozygous.
110. Answer (1)
Hint: Inheritance of flower colour in Antirrhinum
shows incomplete dominance.
Sol.: The cross can be represented as follows.
Out of 8 plants, 1 is red flowered.
111. Answer (2)
Hint: The embryo sac of the ovule is surrounded
by nucellus.
Sol.: Nucellus of the ovule is made up of
parenchymatous cells.
112. Answer (1)
Hint: The egg apparatus of a typical embryo sac
has three cells.
Sol.: The egg apparatus of embryo sac has, one
egg cell and two synergids. All are haploid.
113. Answer (3)
Hint: Seeds have many features that help in
survival of the species.
Sol.: When the seeds are stored as food for future
use, it is said to be useful for human beings or
animals.
114. Answer (4)
Hint: Exine of pollen grain is made up of
sporopollenin which is one of the most resistant
organic material known.
Sol.: Germ pores in the pollen grains are
prominent apertures where sporopollenin is
absent. Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin.
The cell wall of pollen grain is called sporoderm.
115. Answer (2)
Hint: The innermost wall layer of anther is
tapetum.
Sol.: Tapetal cells can be polyploid and provide
nourishment to the developing pollen grains.
 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)
116. Answer (2)
Hint: Orchid and Striga contain many tiny seeds
in the fruit.
Sol.: Apple is a false fruit but has more than one
seed. Wheat has single ovule in the ovary.
Therefore, its fruit has single seed.
117. Answer (1)
Hint: Zygote in apomictic seeds is developed from
diploid sporophytic cells or diploid egg.
Sol.: Apomictic seeds are developed by the
process of apomixis which is a form of asexual
reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
Therefore, such seeds maintain their genetic
combination.
118. Answer (1)
Hint: Phenylketonuria is an inborn error of
metabolism.
Sol.: Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive
trait.
119. Answer (4)
Hint: The trait considered in the pedigree chart is
due to autosomal recessive gene.
Sol.: The trait in an individual regarding recessive
gene will be shown only in homozygous condition.
In the given pedigree chart, the couple F1(I) and
(II) are homozygous recessive. Therefore, all their
children will be affected.
120. Answer (3)
Hint: The recombination frequency is directly
proportional to the distance between genes.
Sol.: The arrangement of genes A, B, C and D on
the chromosome can be as follows:
121. Answer (1)
Hint: In quantitative inheritance, the dominant
alleles have cumulative effect.
Sol.: In (a), (c) and (d), there are three dominant
alleles whereas, in (b) there are four dominant
alleles. Therefore, (a), (c) and (d) will show the
same phenotypic effect.
122. Answer (1)
Hint: In a Mendelian cross, number of genotypes
would be 3n.
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Sol.: For a trihybrid cross n = 3
Therefore, total number of genotypes = 3n
= 33
= 27
123. Answer (4)
Hint: Through the dihybrid cross experiment,
Mendel generalised the law of independent
assortment.
Sol.: Law of independent assortment will be
applicable when the genes for the characters
taken into consideration are located on different
chromosomes.
124. Answer (3)
Hint: One gene can influence more than one
character.
Sol.: Blood group ABO is an example of multiple
allelism. So, in a population of diploid species,
more than two alleles of a gene are possible.
125. Answer (2)
Hint: Mendelian disorders can be due to recessive
genes or dominant genes.
Sol.: Haemophilia, colour blindness and
thalassemia are recessive gene disorders,
whereas myotonic dystrophy is dominant gene
disorder.
126. Answer (4)
Hint: In leguminous plants, seeds are ex-
albuminous
Sol.: Castor produces albuminous seeds.
127. Answer (4)
Hint: Orobanche is an angiosperm
Sol.: Orobanche is a parasitic species that can
produce fruits with many tiny seeds.
128. Answer (4)
Hint: Grasshopper is an example of XO type of
sex determination
Sol.: In grasshoppers males have only one X
chromosome and thus they can produce two
different type of gametes one with X chromosome
and other without X chromosome.
129. Answer (4)
Hint: Rediscovery of Mendelian laws was done in
1900.
Sol.: Davenport studied polygenic inheritance.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024
130. Answer (3)
Hint: Gene controlling starch synthesis in pea
seeds is a pleiotropic gene.
Sol.: The alleles exhibit complete dominance in
case of seed shape and incomplete dominance in
case of starch grain size.
131. Answer (2)
Hint: Fruit flies complete their life cycle in about
two weeks
Sol.: In fruit flies, a single mating produce a large
number of progeny flies. It has many hereditary
variations that can be seen with low power
microscopes.
132. Answer (4)
Hint: The single cotyledon in monocot embryo is
called scutellum.
Sol.: Remains of second cotyledon in some
grasses is called epiblast.
133. Answer (2)
Hint: Black pepper has perispermic seeds in
which remnants of nucellus are present.
Sol.: Wheat seeds are albuminous (endospermic).
Their seeds have endosperm at maturity.
134. Answer (4)
Hint: In wind pollinated flowers, pollens are light
and carried out by air currents.
Sol.: Wind pollinated flowers have light and non-
sticky pollen grains.
135. Answer (3)
Hint: Microsporogenesis occurs in the anther of a
flower.
Sol.: In the anther of angiosperms, cells of
sporogenous tissue undergo microsporogenesis
to form pollen grains.
SECTION-B
136. Answer (2)
Hint: Water lily is an insect pollinated plant.
Sol.: Zostera is a water-pollinated plant.
137. Answer (1)
Hint: Dioecy is the presence of male and female
flowers on different plants.
Sol.: Dioecy prevents self-pollination and
promotes outbreeding.
138. Answer (2)
Hint: Pollen-pistil interaction is a pre-fertilization
event.
Sol.: Formation of free nuclear endosperm is a
post-fertilization event.
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139. Answer (3)
Hint: Parthenocarpic fruits develop from ovary but
without fertilisation.
Sol.: Since, false fruits are also developed after
fertilisation, they have seeds.
140. Answer (1)
Hint: During initial stages of embryo development,
suspensor cell is formed towards the micropyle.
Sol.: In the embryo sac, the suspensor cell is
formed towards the micropyle and embryonal cell
is formed towards antipodal region.
141. Answer (4)
Hint: Cleistogamous flowers are closed flowers
and chasmogamous flowers are open flowers.
Sol.: In open flowers, mode of pollination can be
autogamy, geitonogamy or xenogamy.
In closed flowers, only autogamy can occur.
142. Answer (1)
Hint: In Papaver, gynoecium has many carpels
which are fused together.
Sol.: Gynoecium of Papaver is said to be
multicarpellary syncarpous because it has many
carpels which are fused together.
143. Answer (1)
Hint: The terminal structure of a typical stamen is
anther.
Sol.: The protective envelopes surrounding the
body of ovule is called integument.
144. Answer (2)
Hint: Number of chromosomes would be different
in male from the female when either male or
female has only one sex chromosome.
Sol.: Grasshoppers show XX-XO type of sex
determination. Thus, the male grasshopper has
one less chromosome in somatic cell as compared
to female one.
145. Answer (4)
Hint: In Mendelian dihybrid cross, out of 16 seeds
3 are round-green and 1 wrinkled-green.
Sol.: Since out of 16 seeds, 4 are green, then out
4
of 320 seeds 320 × =80 would be green.
16
146. Answer (3)
Hint: Dominant traits appear in both homozygous
and heterozygous conditions.
Sol.: Round seed, axial flower, green pod and tall
stem are dominant traits in pea plants. These
appear both in homozygous and heterozygous
conditions.
 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)
147. Answer (1)
Hint: Linked genes show physical association.
Sol.: Linked genes are those genes which are
present on the same chromosome on different
loci.
148. Answer (3)
Hint: Male honey bees are developed from
unfertilised eggs by means of parthenogenesis.
Sol.: Since, the queen or worker bees are
developed by fertilised eggs and males are
developed by unfertilised eggs, the chromosome
number in females is 32 whereas in males it is 16.
[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A
151. Answer (2)
Hint: Produced from anterior pituitary
Sol.: hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in
women only during pregnancy. In addition, during
pregnancy the levels of other hormones like
estrogens, progestogens, cortisol, prolactin,
thyroxine, etc., are increased several-folds in the
maternal blood. Increased production of these
hormones is essential for supporting the fetal
growth, metabolic changes in the mother and
maintenance of pregnancy.
152. Answer (3)
Hint: Contains mitochondria
Sol.:
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149. Answer (4)
Hint: Genes for α-thalassemia are present on
chromosome 16.
Sol.: β-thalassemia is controlled by a single gene
HBB on chromosome 11.
150. Answer (2)
Hint: One of the reasons of Mendel’s success is
that he applied statistical methods and
mathematical logics for analysing his results.
Sol.: Mendel derived the laws of inheritance by
considering those characters for which the genes
are located on different chromosomes. Having
seven pairs of chromosomes in the plant used by
him in the experiment was not the reason for his
success.
153. Answer (2)
Hint: 4 years after the independence of India
Sol.: Family planning programmes were initiated
in 1951 and were periodically assessed over past
decades.
The Government of India legalised MTP in 1971
with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse.
154. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a copper releasing IUD.
Sol.: Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are
barriers made of rubber that are inserted into the
female reproductive tract to cover the cervix during
coitus.
Condoms are available for both males and females.
Multiload-375 is a copper releasing IUD.
155. Answer (3)
Hint: Fertile period
Sol.: Natural method of contraception works on
the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and
sperms meeting. Periodic abstinence is one such
method in which the couples avoid or abstain from
coitus from day 10 to 17 of the 28 days menstrual
cycle when ovulation could be expected. As
chances of fertilisation are very high during this
period, it is called the fertile period. Therefore, by
abstaining from coitus during this period,
conception could be prevented.
 Withdrawal or coitus interruptus is another
method in which the male partner withdraws
his penis from the vagina just before
ejaculation so as to avoid insemination.
 Lactational amenorrhea (absence of
menstruation) method is based on the fact that
ovulation and therefore the menstrual cycle do
not occur during the period of intense lactation
following parturition.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

156. Answer (4) Sol.:

Hint: IMR stands for Infant Mortality Rate.
Sol.: A rapid decline in death rate, maternal
mortality rate and infant mortality rate as well as
an increase in the number of people in
reproducible age are probable reasons for
population explosion.
157. Answer (4)
Hint: Delivery of the baby is final step.
Sol.: The reproductive events in humans include:-
 Formation of gametes (Gametogenesis) i.e.,
sperms in males and ovum in females.
161. Answer (2)
 Transfer of sperms into the female genital tract Hint: ‘Saheli’ is non-steroidal.
(Insemination).
Sol.: Progesterone alone or in combination with
 Fusion of male and female gametes estrogen can be used by females as injections or
(Fertilisation) leading to formation of zygote. implants under the skin. Their mode of action is
similar to that of pills and their effective periods are
 Formation and development of blastocyst and much longer.
its attachment to the uterine wall (Implantation),
162. Answer (3)
embryonic development (Gestation) and
Hint: Exclude the options containing copper
delivery of the baby (Parturition).
releasing IUDs.
158. Answer (3) Sol.:
Hint: Exclude the one that is present in primary Progestasert – Hormone releasing IUDs
sex organ and LNG-20
Sol.: The male sex accessory ducts include rete Multiload-375 – Copper releasing IUDs
testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas and CuT
deferens.
Diaphragms – Barrier method of contraception
Testis is a primary sex organ which contains
163. Answer (1)
seminiferous tubules.
Hint: This structure undergoes meiosis-I.
159. Answer (1)
Hint: Primary oocyte undergoes meiosis-I. Sol.:

Sol.: Haploid cells Diploid cells

Secondary oocyte, Primary spermatocyte,

spermatid and spermatogonium and
ootid oogonium

Primary spermatocyte and primary oocyte undergo

meiosis-I to produce secondary spermatocytes and
secondary oocytes respectively.
160. Answer (1) 164. Answer (3)
Hint: Leydig cells Hint: Pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks

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 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)
Sol.: According to MTP act, a pregnancy may be
terminated on certain considered grounds within
the first 12 weeks of pregnancy on the opinion of
one registered medical practitioner. If the
pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks, but
fewer than 24 weeks, two registered medical
practitioners must be of the opinion, formed in
good faith, that the required ground exist.
165. Answer (4)
Hint: This hormone stimulates the release of
gonadotrophins.
Sol.: Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty
due to significant increase in the secretion of
gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH).
GnRH is a hypothalamic hormone.
The increased levels of GnRH then acts on
anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis) and
stimulates secretion of two gonadotrophins –
Luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating
hormone.
Androgens are secreted by Leydig cells.
Sertoli cells provide nourishment to the developing
sperms.
166. Answer (2)
Hint: First 4 weeks
Sol.: In human beings, after one month of
pregnancy, the embryo’s heart is formed. The first
sign of growing foetus may be noticed by listening
to the heart sounds carefully through the
stethoscope.
By the end of 12 weeks (first trimester), most of
the major organ systems are formed.
By the end of second trimester, body is covered
with fine hair, eye-lids separate and eye lashes are
formed.
167. Answer (2)
Hint: Forms birth canal along with vagina
Sol.: The female external genitalia include mons
pubis, labia majora, labia minora, hymen and
clitoris.
Mons pubis is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by
skin and pubic hair. The labia majora are fleshy
folds of tissue, which extend down from the mons
pubis and surround the vaginal opening. The labia
minora are paired folds of tissue under the labia
majora. The opening of the vagina is often covered
partially by a membrane called hymen. The clitoris
is a tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper
junction of the two labia minora above the urethral
opening.
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168. Answer (4)
Hint: Endometrium is the innermost layer.
Sol.:
169. Answer (3)
Hint: Exclude the site of fertilisation
Sol.: Each fallopian tube in a human female is
about 10-12 cm long and extends from the
periphery of each ovary to the uterus. The part
closer to the ovary is funnel shaped infundibulum.
The edges of the infundibulum possess finger-like
projections called fimbriae, which help in collection
of ovum after ovulation.
Fertilisation occurs in the ampullary region of
fallopian tubes.
170. Answer (1)
Hint: Located in Lucknow
Sol.: ‘Saheli’ is a non-steroidal contraceptive pill
developed by scientists at CDRI, Lucknow.
The World Health Organization is a specialized
agency of the United Nations, responsible for
international public health.
EFB is the Europe’s non-profit federation of
national biotechnology.
171. Answer (2)
Hint: Used by males as well as females
Sol.: Use of condoms has increased in recent
years due to its additional benefit of protecting the
user from contracting STIs and AIDS.
Diaphragms and vaults are barriers that prevent
conception by blocking the entry of sperms
through the cervix. These are the methods of
contraception but does not protect the user from
contracting STIs.
172. Answer (4)
Hint: Should not be impossible to change
Sol.: An ideal contraceptive should be user-
friendly, easily available, effective and reversible
with no or least side-effects. It also should in no
way interfere with the sexual desire.
173. Answer (2)
Hint: Included in male external genitalia
Sol.: The penis is the male external genitalia. It is
made up of special tissue that helps in erection of
the penis to facilitate insemination. The enlarged
end of penis called the glans penis is covered by
a loose fold of skin called foreskin.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)

174. Answer (4) methods, ovum and sperms are prevented from
Hint: Formed as a result of 1st meiotic division. physical meeting with the help of barriers.
Sol.: Acellular layer that comes out along with Copper releasing IUDs suppress sperm motility
ovum during ovulation is zona pellucida. This layer and fertilising capacity of sperms.
is formed by secondary oocyte. 180. Answer (3)
175. Answer (3) Hint: Zona pellucida is an acellular layer.
Hint: Hormone releasing IUD Sol.: During fertilisation, a sperm comes in contact
Sol.: Cervical cap is an example of barrier method with the zona pellucida layer of the ovum and
induces changes in the membrane that blocks
of contraception. It is made of rubber that are
entry of additional sperms.
inserted into the female reproductive tract to cover
the cervix during coitus. Thus, it ensures that only one sperm can fertilise
an ovum.
 Nirodh is a popular brand of condom for the
male. Acrosome contains hydrolytic enzymes.
 LNG-20 is a hormone releasing IUD. 181. Answer (3)
176. Answer (1) Hint: Primary oocyte completes meiosis-I within
tertiary follicle.
Hint: in-vivo fertilisation occurs.
Sol.: The secondary follicle transforms into tertiary
Sol.: GIFT is advised in case of females who follicle which is characterised by fluid filled cavity
cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable called antrum.
environment for fertilisation and further
The theca layer is differentiated into theca interna
development.
and theca externa.
Infertility cases either due to inability of the male
At this stage, the primary oocyte within the tertiary
partner to inseminate the female or due to very low
follicle grows in size and completes its first meiotic
sperm counts in the ejaculate could be corrected
division. It is an unequal division resulting in the
by artificial insemination.
formation of secondary oocyte and a tiny first polar
177. Answer (1) body.
Hint: Involves transfer of gametes in fallopian tube 182. Answer (3)
Sol.: in vitro fertilisation occurs in ZIFT, IUT and Hint: This structure has hydrolytic enzymes.
ICSI Sol.: The human sperm head contains an
in vivo fertilisation occur in GIFT elongated haploid nucleus, the anterior portion of
178. Answer (3) which is covered by a cap-like structure called
acrosome.
Hint: It stands for Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection.
Oogenesis is initiated during the embryonic
Sol.:
development stage when a couple of million
ZIFT – Zygote or early embryos with upto 8 gamete mother cells are formed within each fetal
blastomeres are transferred into ovary.
fallopian tube. The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into
GIFT – Transfer of an ovum collected from a 15-20 mammary lobes containing clusters of cells
donor into the fallopian tube called alveoli.
183. Answer (2)
IUI – Semen is artificially introduced into the
uterus. Hint: This hormone acts on uterine myometrium.
Sol.: The signals for parturition originate from fully
179. Answer (4) developed foetus and the placenta which induce
Hint: Function of CuT mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection
Sol.: Oral contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation and reflex.
implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical This triggers the release of oxytocin from maternal
mucus to prevent/retard entry of sperms. In barrier pituitary.
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 Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)
184. Answer (1)
Hint: This structure contains stem cells.
Sol.: Immediately after implantation, the inner cell
mass differentiates into an outer layer called
ectoderm and an inner layer called endoderm.
Inner cell mass contains certain cells called stem
cells which have potency to give rise to all the
tissues and organs.
After implantation, finger-like projections appear
on the trophoblast called chorionic villi.
The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become
interdigitated with each other and jointly form
placenta.
185. Answer (3)
Hint: Also secreted by placenta
Sol.: Estrogen reaches peak just before ovulation
and during luteal phase.
LH and FSH reach peak during follicular phase
just before ovulation.
Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum and it
reaches peak in luteal phase.
SECTION - B
186. Answer (2)
Hint: Secreted by corpus luteum
Sol.: The corpus luteum secretes a large amount
of progesterone.
Lack of menstruation may be indicative of
pregnancy, stress, poor health, etc.
The corpus luteum secretes progesterone during
luteal phase/secretory phase.
Spermatids undergo differentiation to develop into
spermatozoa by the process known as
spermiogenesis.
187. Answer (2)
Hint: Foetus develops limbs and digit in this
duration.
Sol.: By the end of the second month of
pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits.
By the end of 24 weeks (2nd trimester), the body is
covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate and
eyelashes are formed.
By the end of 1st trimester, limbs are well
developed.
By the end of 12 weeks, most of the major organ
systems are formed.
188. Answer (4)
Hint: Forms the basis of Gravindex test
Sol.: hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in
women only during pregnancy. During pregnancy,
the levels of oestrogens, progestogens, cortisol,
prolactin etc. are increased several folds.
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All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2024
189. Answer (1)
Hint: Vasectomy is a terminal method.
Sol.: Sterilisation procedure in males is called
vasectomy. In this method, a small part of the vas
deferens is removed or tied up through a small
incision on the scrotum.
Lactational amenorrhoea is based on the fact that
ovulation and therefore the menstrual cycle do not
occur during the period of intense lactation.
Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD.
190. Answer (4)
Hint: Proper information is important.
Sol.: Introduction of sex education in schools
should be encouraged to provide right information
to the young so as to discourage children from
believing in myths and having misconceptions
about sex-related aspects.
191. Answer (1)
Hint: Female foeticide should be avoided.
Sol.: Amniocentesis is a foetal sex and disorder
determination test based on the chromosomal
pattern of embryo’s cell.
It is being misused to know the sex of unborn baby
followed by medical termination of pregnancy.
192. Answer (3)
Hint: Gametes are the result of meiosis in
humans.
Sol.: Human sperms are motile (flagella is
present)
Sperms and ovum are haploid cells.
Distal centriole and spiral mitochondria are
characteristics of sperms only.
193. Answer (1)
Hint: Contraceptives are used to prevent
pregnancy.
Sol.: Oral administration of small doses of either
progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations
are used in the form of pills.
They have to be taken daily for a period of 21 days
starting preferably within first five days of
menstrual cycle.
They inhibit ovulation and implantation.
They alter the quality of cervical mucus to retard
the entry of sperms.
Oral pills prevent the conception.
194. Answer (4)
Hint: Cause of transmission of STDs
Sol.: Unprotected sexual intercourse may lead to
increase in population growth.
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195. Answer (2)
Hint: Widest part of oviduct
Sol.: Each fallopian tube in a human female is
10-12 cm long and extends from the periphery of
each ovary to the uterus.
Under normal conditions, fertilisation takes place
in ampullary region of fallopian tube.
196. Answer (2)
Hint: Pregnancy hormone
Sol.: Corpus luteum secretes large amounts of
progesterone which is essential for maintenance
of the endometrium.
In the absence of fertilisation, corpus luteum
degenerates leading to menstruation.
Graafian follicle mainly secretes estrogen.
Anterior pituitary secretes gonadotropins.
Zona pellucida is secreted by secondary oocyte.
197. Answer (4)
Hint: Related to the structure that undergoes
meiosis-I
Sol.: Oogonia start division and enter into
prophase-I of the meiotic division and get
temporarily arrested at that stage, called primary
oocytes.
First polar body and second polar body are the
results of unequal meiotic divisions.
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Test-5 (Code-F)_(Hints & Solutions)
198. Answer (3)
Hint: Multiple of 16
Sol.: For normal fertility, at least 60% of sperms
must have normal shape and size and out of
which, 40% of them must show vigorous motility.
So, if a male ejaculates 200 million sperms then
60% of 200 million i.e., 120 million sperms must
have normal shape and size and 40% of 120
million sperms i.e., 48 million must show vigorous
motility.
199. Answer (4)
Hint: Natural passive immunity
Sol.: The mammary glands of the female undergo
differentiation during pregnancy and starts
producing milk towards the end of pregnancy by
the process called lactation. This helps the mother
in feeding the new-born. The milk produced during
the initial few days of lactation is called colostrum
which contains several antibodies absolutely
essential to develop resistance for the new-born
babies.
200. Answer (1)
Hint: Bacterial STI
Sol.: Infections or diseases which are transmitted
through sexual intercourse are collectively called
sexually transmitted infections (STIs) or venereal
diseases (VD) or reproductive tract infections
(RTIs). Except for hepatitis-B, genital herpes and
HIV infections, other diseases are completely
curable if detected early and treated properly.