Test-4 (Code-A)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET - 2022

TEST - 4 (Code-A)
Test Date : 23/01/2022

ANSWERS
1. (1) 41. (4) 81. (3) 121. (3) 161. (3)
2. (2) 42. (2) 82. (2) 122. (4) 162. (1)
3. (3) 43. (4) 83. (2) 123. (2) 163. (1)
4. (4) 44. (4) 84. (2) 124. (1) 164. (3)
5. (1) 45. (4) 85. (2) 125. (1) 165. (4)
6. (3) 46. (4) 86. (3) 126. (4) 166. (1)
7. (2) 47. (1) 87. (3) 127. (3) 167. (4)
8. (3) 48. (1) 88. (2) 128. (4) 168. (1)
9. (3) 49. (2) 89. (3) 129. (3) 169. (3)
10. (2) 50. (3) 90. (3) 130. (4) 170. (3)
11. (1) 51. (4) 91. (2) 131. (2) 171. (3)
12. (4) 52. (2) 92. (3) 132. (3) 172. (1)
13. (2) 53. (3) 93. (3) 133. (2) 173. (3)
14. (3) 54. (3) 94. (2) 134. (3) 174. (1)
15. (1) 55. (3) 95. (2) 135. (3) 175. (2)
16. (4) 56. (1) 96. (2) 136. (2) 176. (2)
17. (3) 57. (2) 97. (3) 137. (4) 177. (4)
18. (4) 58. (3) 98. (3) 138. (4) 178. (4)
19. (2) 59. (3) 99. (4) 139. (4) 179. (1)
20. (4) 60. (2) 100. (2) 140. (3) 180. (1)
21. (3) 61. (2) 101. (4) 141. (3) 181. (2)
22. (2) 62. (3) 102. (2) 142. (3) 182. (3)
23. (4) 63. (3) 103. (1) 143. (2) 183. (3)
24. (2) 64. (2) 104. (2) 144. (3) 184. (1)
25. (2) 65. (4) 105. (3) 145. (3) 185. (1)
26. (4) 66. (1) 106. (2) 146. (1) 186. (4)
27. (2) 67. (3) 107. (3) 147. (3) 187. (4)
28. (1) 68. (3) 108. (1) 148. (2) 188. (1)
29. (4) 69. (2) 109. (2) 149. (3) 189. (2)
30. (3) 70. (1) 110. (3) 150. (1) 190. (2)
31. (4) 71. (3) 111. (2) 151. (2) 191. (2)
32. (2) 72. (3) 112. (4) 152. (4) 192. (2)
33. (3) 73. (3) 113. (3) 153. (3) 193. (2)
34. (1) 74. (3) 114. (3) 154. (2) 194. (1)
35. (3) 75. (3) 115. (2) 155. (2) 195. (2)
36. (2) 76. (2) 116. (3) 156. (4) 196. (2)
37. (1) 77. (3) 117. (2) 157. (3) 197. (1)
38. (4) 78. (3) 118. (2) 158. (3) 198. (2)
39. (1) 79. (2) 119. (3) 159. (3) 199. (2)
40. (3) 80. (2) 120. (2) 160. (3) 200. (1)
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
SECTION-A hc
Sol.: K1  
1. Answer (1) 1
h
Hint:   K2 
hc

p 2
Sol.: F  qE  (e)(E0 iˆ) 2hc
K2  
 eE0 iˆ
1

2hc
p = F ·t = eE0t K2   2  
1
pf – pi = eE0t
 K2 = 2K1 + 
 eE0 t 
pf = mev0 + eE0t = m ev 0  1     K2 > 2K1
 m ev 0 
K2
h h  K1 
  2
pf  eE0t 
m ev 0 1   5. Answer (1)
 m ev 0 
hc
0 Hint:  
 0
eE0t
1
m ev 0 Sol.:  Ca < Al < Pt
2. Answer (2)  Ca > Al > Pt
Hint: pc  pA  pB
6. Answer (3)
Sol.: Since both A and B are moving in same
hc
direction Hint & Sol.: EPhoton 

Hence, pC = pA + pB
7. Answer (2)
h h h
  h
C  A B Hint:  
2mE
1 1 1
  Sol.: For neutron putting the values we get
C  A B
0.286
 Å
 A B E (eV)
C 
 A  B
0.286
3. Answer (3) =  0.143 Å
4
Hint & Sol. : KEmax = hf – 
8. Answer (3)
Hence the graph will be straight line having
nh
positive slope and negative intercept on y-axis. Hint: mvr 
2
4. Answer (4)
Sol.: 2r = n
hc
Hint: Kmax   2r0 · n2 = n

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 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

 hc  12400 
 n  Sol.: Enf  Eni   eV
2r0   949 

109 13.06 eV
 10
2  0.53  10 13.6
  13.6   13.06
3 n2
n5
9. Answer (3)
Number of emitted spectral lines
v0 c
Hint: v  , where v 0  n  n  1
n 137 54
=   10
v0 1 c
2 2
c
Sol.: v 3     15. Answer (1)
3 3 137 411
10. Answer (2) 1  1 1
Hint:  R 2  2
  n1 n2 
Z2
Hint: En   13.6 eV 
n2 1  1 1  3R
 R 2  2 
 long Lyman
Sol.:
1 2  4
 
2
2
Sol.: En He+  2
 13.6 eV 
1
1 1 1
= –54.4 eV  R  
 small Balmer
 4 
11. Answer (1)
R
Hint & Sol.: For maximum wavelength, energy 
gap should be minimum, which is possible in 4
transition from C to B i.e. line 6.
 long Lyman 4
1
12. Answer (4)  3R 
 small Balmer 4
R
3
v
Hint:  
r 16. Answer (4)
v0 e2 e 2
v Hint: K  ,U
Sol.:    n 2 80 r 40 r
r r0 n
Sol.: As n increases  U increases and K
0 decreases.

n3 17. Answer (3)
1 Hint & Sol.: In a fusion reaction if energy is
 3
n released, then mass of product will be lesser than
13. Answer (2) mass of reactants and hence BEproducts > BEReactants

 1 18. Answer (4)

1 1
Hint:  R 2  2 Hint: Use conservation of total number of
  n1 n2 
nucleons
1 1 1 
Sol.: R   Sol.: 92 U  0n 
235 1
 93
36Kr  140
56 Ba  x 0n
1
 1  
235 + 1 = 93 + 140 + x
1
 R  107 m1  x=3

19. Answer (2)
14. Answer (3)
n
N  1 t
hc Hint:   , n
Hint: E  N0  2  T1
 2

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

 15  N 24. Answer (2)

Sol.: N   1   N0  0
 16  16 Hint: Q = m · c2

N

1  1

n
Sol.: Q  3  m
  4
2 He   m  C c
12
6
2

N0 16  2 
= [3 × (4.002603) – 12]c2
t = [0.007809 × 931.5] MeV
n4
T1 = 7.27 MeV
2
25. Answer (2)
t = 4 × 5 = 20 days
20. Answer (4) Hint & Sol.: Semiconductor have negative
temperature coefficient of resistance and it
Hint: R  R0 A
1/3
behaves as insulator at absolute zero
1/3 temperature.
R A 
Sol.: 1   1  26. Answer (4)
R2  A2 
Hint: ne nh  ni2
1/3
3.6 fm  27 
  5  1034
R2  9  Sol.: ND  6
 5  1028 m3
10
3.6
R2  fm ND >> ni  ne ND
31/3
 
2
21. Answer (3) n2 2.5  1019
Hint: Isotopes have same number of protons. nh  i 
ND 5  1028
Isobars have same number of nucleons.
= 1.25 × 1010 m–3
Isotones have same number of neutrons.
27. Answer (2)
Sol.:
Hint & Sol.: If Potential at p-side is greater than
(A) 1H3 and 2He4: Z1 = 1, Z2 = 2
potential at n-side, then the diode is forward
A1 = 3, A2 = 4 biased, which is for option (2).
N1 = 2, N2 = 2 28. Answer (1)
Since N1 = N2  1H3 and 2He4 are isotones Hint: Diode conducts in forward bias only
(B) 22 and 10Ne22: Z1 = 11, Z2 = 10
11Na
Sol.: For v i  0 (Positive cycle)
A1 = 22, A2 = 22
 Diode is ON  v0 = vi
N1 = 11, N2 = 12
For vi < 0 (negative cycle)
Since A1 = A2  11Na22 and 10Ne22 are isobars
63  Diode is OFF  v0 = 0
(C) 29Cu and 29Cu65: Z1 = 29, Z2 = 29
A1 = 63, A2 = 65 29. Answer (4)

N1 = 34, N2 = 36 Hint & Sol.: Since photodiode is used in reverse

bias for proper operation and current increases
Since Z1 = Z2  29Cu63 and 29Cu65 are isotopes.
with increase in intensity. Hence the plot given in
22. Answer (2) option (4) is correct plot.
Hint & Sol.: Heavy water, graphite Beryllium 30. Answer (3)
oxide etc. are commonly used as moderator in
Hint: All types of semiconductor are electrically
nuclear reactor.
neutral.
23. Answer (4)
Sol.: Total number of Positive charge = total
Hint & Sol.:
number of negative charge.
  
Z X 
A
 ZA24 Y  A 4
Z 1 W *   ZA14 W p  ND  n  NA

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 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

31. Answer (4) V1.5 k < 10 V  Diode breakdown does not occur
Hint: Use de Morgan’ Law, A  B  A  B i.e. diode is not ON.
Diode current (ID) = 0
Sol.: Y  A  B  A  B
39. Answer (1)
 The circuit is equivalent to NAND gate
IC
32. Answer (2) Hint: gm 
VBE
Hint: Power gain = Voltage gain × Current gain
Power gain IC 
Sol.: Current gain = Sol.: gm  
Voltage gain IB Ri Ri

1200 | Av | = gm Rout
=  50
24 IC
33. Answer (3) IC IC IE
  
IB IE  IC IE IC
Hint & Sol.: Length profile of BJT is C > E > B and 
doping profile is E > C > B. I E IE
34. Answer (1) 
  
Hint: h  Eg 1 
Sol.: h  Eg 
Also on rearrangement  
hmin  Eg 1 
Eg 1.4  1.6  1019 40. Answer (3)
min   34
h 6.6  10 Hint & Sol.: Solar cell is used unbiased for its
= 3.4 × 10 14
Hz proper operation.

35. Answer (3) 41. Answer (4)

Hint & Sol.: Height of Potential barrier decreases Hint: Activity A = A0e–t
when p-n junction is forward biased and it t
Sol.: A1  A0 e 1
increases when junction is reverse biased.
SECTION-B A2  A0 e t2
36. Answer (2)
 e  1 2
A1  t t
Hint & Sol.: As shown in waveforms, the output C A2
is low when both inputs are high, otherwise it is
A1  A2e  1 2   A2e  2 1 
high. Hence the corresponding Logic gate is  t t  t t

NAND gate.
or A2  A1e  2 1 
 t t
37. Answer (1)
Hint: Use KVL in output loop and IC = IB 42. Answer (2)
–6
Sol.: IC = IB = 100 × 40 × 10 = 4 mA Hint: A = A0e–t
–3
VCE = 10 – 4 × 10 × 2 × 10 3
Sol.: A1 = A2 (at time t)
= 10 – 8 = 2 V
A0 e 1t  4 A0 e 2t
38. Answer (4)
4  e
 2 1 
Hint: Zener diode will ON for V1.5 k > 10 V t
Sol.: Suppose diode is not ON. 2 ln2 = (2 – 1)t
 1.5  2 ln2 12
V1.5 k  12 t
2 ln2

 1.5  0.5  1 1 1  2

=9V 2 1

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

43. Answer (4) eV02  h2  

Hint & Sol.: Simple Bohr model is not applicable V01  V02  1  2
to He4 atom because it has more than one
electrons and the electrons are not subjected to 48. Answer (1)
central force. nh
Hint: mvr 
44. Answer (4) 2
Hint & Sol.: Energy of incident radiation is Sol.: Angular momentum of electrons in an orbit is
10.2 eV. So this energy is sufficient to move some h
integer multiple of . It cannot be a fraction of
of atoms in ground state to first excited state but 2
not necessary that all atoms are excited. h
.
No electron will make transition to n = 3 because 2
energy required for this transition is 49. Answer (2)
E3 – E1 = 12.09 eV. Hint: Energy = Power × time
45. Answer (4) Sol.: Let number of fission per second be n
h h then Energy released = n × 200 MeV
Hint: de-Broglie wavelength   
p mv = n × 200 × 1.6 × 10–13 J
n × 3.2 × 10–11 = 103 × 1
6.6  1034
Sol.:    2.2  1034 m
0.1  30 1014
n  3.125  1013
46. Answer (4) 3.2
50. Answer (3)
h h
Hint:    Hint: rn = r0 n2
p 2mE
Sol.: rn = r0 n2
Sol.: E = mgH
r1 = r0
h h
 
2m  mgH 
rn
m 2gH  n2
r1
1
 r 
H loge  n   2 loge n
 r1 
47. Answer (1)
Similar to y = mx
Hint: KEmax = eV0 = h – 
Hence graph will be straight line passing through
Sol.: eV01  h1   origin.

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A nCH2 = CH – CH = CH2 + nC6H5CH = CH2
51. Answer (4)
Hint: Salvarsan is an antibiotic.
Sol.: Salvarsan is used to cure syphilis
53. Answer (3)
52. Answer (2)
Hint: More stable is the conjugate base, stronger
Hint: One of the monomer of Buna-S is styrene. is the acid
Sol.: Buna-S is formed by polymerisation of Sol.: The presence of electron withdrawing groups
1, 3-Butadiene and styrene on the phenyl ring of aromatic carboxylic acid
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 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

increases its acidity while electron donating  Deficiency of vitamin A causes xerophthalmia.
groups decreases its acidity. Therefore correct  Deficiency of vitamin D causes rickets and
order of acidic strength is
osteomalacia.
58. Answer (3)
Hint: Nylon 6,6 is a synthetic polymer
Sol.: Cellulose derivatives as cellulose acetate
(rayon) and cellulose nitrate are examples of semi-
synthetic polymers
pKa: 3.41 4.19 4.37 4.46 59. Answer (3)
54. Answer (3) Hint: Amylose constitutes about 15-20% of starch
Hint: Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones in while amylopectin constitutes about 80-85% of
nucleophilic addition reactions. starch.
Sol.: Electron withdrawing groups present at para Sol:
position to the aldehyde group increases the
 Amylopectin is water insoluble component of
electrophilicity of carbonyl carbon.
starch
 Cellulose is a straight chain polysaccharide
composed only of -D-glucose units.
So, forms cyanohydrin with fastest rate
60. Answer (2)
Hint: Nylon 6,6 is a fibre because of strong
intermolecular force of attraction, it possess high
55. Answer (3) tensile strength.
Hint: Benzaldehyde is produced by Gatterman- Sol.: Correct order of intermolecular forces is,
Koch reaction. Nylon 6,6 > Polythene > Buna-S.
61. Answer (2)
Hint: Amides on reduction with lithium aluminium
Sol.:
hydride yield amines

Sol.:

56. Answer (1)

Hint: NaBH4 is a mild reducing agent. It does not
reduce ester group
62. Answer (3)
Hint: In Perkin Condensation reaction , -
Sol.:
unsaturated acid is formed as product.

Sol.:

57. Answer (2)

Hint & Sol.:
 Deficiency of vitamin B6 causes convulsions 63. Answer (3)
 Deficiency of vitamin C causes scurvy Hint: Steric crowding around nitrogen decreases
(bleeding gums). the basic nature of 3°-amine in aqueous solution.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
Sol.: The cumulative result of inductive effect,
solvation effect and steric hindrance of alkyl
groups result in the following basic strength order
in aqueous medium.
(C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2
64. Answer (2)
Hint: Benzene diazonium chloride is prepared by
the reaction of aniline with NaNO2/HCl at
273-278K.
Sol.:
65. Answer (4)
Hint: Stronger is the intermolecular force of
attraction, higher will be the boiling point.
Sol.:
 Intermolecular hydrogen bonding in propanoic
acid is greater than propan-1-ol
 Correct order of boiling point is,
propanoic acid > propan-1-ol  Acetone  propanal
414 K 370K 329 K 322 K
66. Answer (1)
Hint: Aldehydes which do not have an -hydrogen
atom, undergo Cannizzaro reaction.
Sol.: has -hydrogen therefore it will not
give Cannizzaro reaction. It will undergo aldol
condensation reaction.
67. Answer (3)
Hint: PHBV is a biodegradable polyester.
Sol.: Nylon 2-nylon 6 is a biodegradable polyamide
which is a copolymer of glycine and amino caproic
acid.
68. Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: High density polythene is obtained by
the polymerisation of ethene in the presence of
Ziegler–Natta catalyst.
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Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
69. Answer (2)
Hint: Monomers of glyptal are ethylene glycol and
phthalic acid
Sol.:
70. Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: Iproniazid is an antidepressant drug
71. Answer (3)
Hint: Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts
reaction due to salt formation with AlCl3.
Sol.:
 Benzenesulphonyl chloride is known as
Hinsberg’s reagent.
 Primary and secondary amines react with
C6H5SO2Cl, to form sulphonamides.
 Tertiary amines do not react with Hinsberg’s
reagent.
 N, N-Diethyl benzene sulphonamide:
, does not contain any
acidic H-atom and hence insoluble in alkali.
72. Answer (3)
Hint: Secondary and tertiary amines do not show
carbylamine reaction.
Sol.: Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines give
carbylamine test
73. Answer (3)
Hint: Lesser is the electron density on nitrogen
atom, lower is the basic strength and higher is pKb
value.
Sol.: Due to delocalisation of electron pair of
nitrogen in the ring, N-Methylaniline has highest
pKb.
74. Answer (3)
Hint: Ammoniacal silver nitrate is called Tollens’
reagent.
Sol.:
 Ketones do not respond to Tollens’ test.
 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

 Aldehydes are oxidised to corresponding Sol.: -D-2-deoxyribose is the sugar moiety in

carboxylate anion with Tollens’ reagent DNA molecule.
81. Answer (3)
Hint: Ketone on reaction with one equivalent of
alcohol in presence of dry HCl gives hemiketal.
Sol.:

75. Answer (3)

Hint: The amino acid which has more number of
amino groups than carboxyl group is called basic
amino acid 82. Answer (2)
Hint: Double bond is cleaved by acidified KMnO 4
Sol.: Lysine: . It is basic solution on heating.
amino acid. Sol.: Acidic potassium permanganate oxidises
76. Answer (2) alkene to carboxylic acid

Hint: Glycine is a -amino acid.

83. Answer (2)

Sol.: Picric acid does not Hint: P2O5 is very good dehydrating agent

Sol.:
contain –COOH group.

84. Answer (2)

Hint: During the esterification tetrahedral
intermediate is formed.
Sol.: Esterification reaction

77. Answer (3)

Hint: Sucralose and aspartame are artificial
sweeteners.
Sol.: Butylated hydroxy anisole is an antioxidant.
78. Answer (3)
Hint: Glucose contains aldehyde as functional
group.
85. Answer (2)
Sol.: Glucose contains aldehyde group with six
carbon atoms, so it will be an aldohexose. Hint: In semicarbazide, –NH2 group which is
directly attached with carbonyl carbon does not
79. Answer (2)
take part in nucleophilic addition reaction.
Hint: Lactose is composed of glucose and
galactose.
Sol.:
Sol.: Lactose 
 -D-Galactose + -D-Glucose
hydrolysis

80. Answer (2)

Hint: -D-ribose is the sugar moiety in RNA
molecule
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

SECTION-B 90. Answer (3)

86. Answer (3) Hint: Cross aldol condensation reaction will take
Hint: Ketone does not respond to Tollens’ test and place.
Fehling test Sol.:

O
||
Sol.: Methyl ketones having CH3 – C– group
undergo haloform reaction. Thus C6H5COCH3 will
give yellow precipitate with {I2 + NaOH} but
(C6H5)2CO will not
87. Answer (3)
91. Answer (2)
Hint: Ethanal forms intermolecular hydrogen
bonding with water.
Sol.: Ethanal is associated with water by Hint & Sol.:
hydrogen bonding hence miscible with water in all
proportions.

92. Answer (3)

88. Answer (2)
Hint: β-hydroxy carbonyl compounds undergo
dehydration with ease in acidic medium.
Hint: Phenol undergoes coupling reaction with
benzenediazonium chloride in alkaline medium.
Sol.:

Sol.: will dehydrate most easily

giving stable ,  unsaturated carbonyl compound.

93. Answer (3)

89. Answer (3) Hint: Sodium salt of carboxylic acid undergoes
decarboxylation on heating with sodalime.
Hint: Haloarenes with magnesium metal in dry
ether give Grignard reagent Sol.:

94. Answer (2)

Hint & Sol.:
Sol.:
 Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction:

(i) Br /Re d P
R  CH2COOH 
2
(ii) H2O
R  CH  COOH
|
Br

 Stephen reaction:
(i) SnCl HCl
RCN 
2
  RCHO
(ii) H3O

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 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

 Etard reaction

(i)CrO Cl /CS

2 2

2
(ii) H3O

 Rosenmund reduction: 98. Answer (3)

Hint: Primary aliphatic amine on reaction with
H2 nitrous acid gives unstable diazonium salt as

PdBaSO4


intermediate compound.
95. Answer (2) Sol.:

Hint: Nucleophilic substitution reaction of aryl NaNO2 HCl  
CH3CH2NH2  HNO2  CH3CH2 N2 Cl 
halide is difficult. unstable
Sol.: Aromatic primary amines cannot be prepared HO
by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis because aryl 
2
 CH3CH2OH  N2  HCl
halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution 99. Answer (4)
with anion formed by phthalimide.
Hint: Carbonyl compounds on reaction with
96. Answer (2) ammonia form imine.
Hint: Haloalkanes undergo nucleophilic Sol. : Imine
substitution reaction with OH .
Sol.:
100. Answer (2)
Hint: Glucose undergoes reduction on heating
with HI.
Sol.:
97. Answer (3) CHO
|
Hint: During mono-nitration, HNO3 is used which HI/
(CHOH)4   CH3 –CH2 –CH2 –CH2 –CH2 –CH3
protonate aniline into anilinium ion. |
Sol.: Anilinium ion is meta directing in nature CH2OH [n-Hexane]

[BOTANY]
SECTION-A
101. Answer (4)
Hint: Estuary is a wide part of river where it joins
the sea.
Sol.: Estuary is an example of aquatic ecosystem.
102. Answer (2)
Hint: BOD is the amount of oxygen consumed by
bacteria and other microorganisms while they
decompose organic matter under aerobic
conditions.
Sol.: BOD will decrease and dissolved oxygen will
increase during cleaning of sewage water.
103. Answer (1)
Sol.: According to CPCB particulate size of 2.5
micrometer or less in diameter are responsible for
causing great harm to the human health.
104. Answer (2)
Hint: In scrubber, effluents containing sulphur
dioxide are passed through a slurry of water and
crushed limestone.
Sol.: A scrubber reduces gases like SO2 in air to
produce CaSO4.
105. Answer (3)
Hint: Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring
process.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol.: Decomposition is largely aerobic process. 112. Answer (4)

Warm and moist environment favour Hint: The succession in aquatic habitat is
decomposition. The process of decomposition hydrosere. The successional series progress from
depends on climatic factors. hydric to mesic conditions.
106. Answer (2) Sol.: Sequence of various stages in a hydrarch
Hint: Flow of energy in the terrestrial ecosystem in succession is as follows:
larger fraction is carried out by DFC.
Phytoplankton  Submerged plant stage 
Sol.: GFC is major conduit of energy flow in
Submerged free floating plant stage  Reed
aquatic ecosystem.
swamp stage  Marsh-meadow stage  Scrub
107. Answer (3) stage  Forest.
Hint: In some cases at each successive trophic
113. Answer (3)
level, number of the organisms is higher than in
preceding one and the size decreases gradually at Sol.: Xerarch and hydrarch succession progress
successive level. Thus, shape of pyramid may be to medium water conditions (mesic).
inverted. 114. Answer (3)
Sol.: Pyramid of number in pond ecosystem is Hint: Reservoir pool is earth’s crust or lithosphere
upright while it is inverted in tree ecosystem. for sedimentary biogeochemical cycle.
108. Answer (1) Sol.: The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock
Hint: Ecological pyramids do not take into account (lithosphere) which contains phosphorus in the
the same species belonging to two or more trophic form of phosphates.
levels. 115. Answer (2)
Sol.: It is the limitation of ecological pyramid is that Hint: Flow of energy in the food chain follows ten
saprophytes, decomposers, microbes and percent law.
detrivores are not given any place in the ecological
Sol.: According to 10 percent law, only 10% of
pyramids.
energy of previous trophic level is received by next
109. Answer (2)
trophic level.
Hint: Montreal Protocol was signed at Montreal
(Canada) to control the emission of ozone Plant  Grasshopper  Frog  Snakes
depleting substances. (50 J) (5 J) (0.5 J) (0.05 J)
Sol.: UV-B radiation is responsible for snow
116. Answer (3)
blindness.
Eutrophication is the natural aging of the water Sol.: In order to control environmental pollution,
body. the Government of India has passed the
Environment (Protection) Act in 1986 to protect
Chipko movement is one of the biggest forest
and improve the quality of our environment (air,
conservation movement.
water and soil)
110. Answer (3)
117. Answer (2)
Hint: During succession, environmental
conditions become more favourable for the Hint: Species diversity refers to variety of species
species colonisation. within a region.
Sol.: During succession little diversity change to Sol.: 1000 varieties of mango occur in India due to
high degree of diversity i.e. increase in the number genetic variations.
of species. 118. Answer (2)
111. Answer (2) Hint: Key species drive major ecosystem
Hint: The key functional aspects of ecosystem functions.
are: Productivity, Decomposition, Energy flow and Sol.: In Rivet popper hypothesis (proposed by
Nutrient cycling. Paul Ehrlich), airplane is considered as
Sol.: Important structural features of ecosystem ecosystem, thousands of rivets are species and
include species composition and stratification. rivets present on wings are key species.

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 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
119. Answer (3)
Sol.: Over-exploitation of passenger pigeon was
the major cause for their extinction.
120. Answer (2)
Hint: As we move from low to high latitude i.e. from
the equator to the poles, the biodiversity
decreases.
Sol.: Biodiversity is minimum in the arctic region,
moderate in temperate area and maximum in
tropical regions (latitudinal range 23.5° N to
23.5°S).
121. Answer (3)
Hint: Delivery of liquid fuel through pipelines is
more easy.
Sol.: The government has faced difficulty in laying
down pipelines to deliver CNG through distribution
points.
122. Answer (4)
Hint: N2O contributes very less fraction in total
global warming.
Sol.: Carbon dioxide and methane are commonly
known as greenhouse gases because they are
responsible for greenhouse effect.
123. Answer (2)
Hint: It is the world’s most problematic aquatic
weed.
Sol.: Eichhornia crassipes is called as “Terror of
Bengal”.
They grow abundantly in eutrophic water bodies
and lead to an imbalance in the ecosystem
dynamics of the water body.
124. Answer (1)
Hint: There are four major causes of biodiversity
loss called as ‘The Evil Quartet’.
Sol.: Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most
important cause driving plants and animals to
extinctions.
125. Answer (1)
Sol.: World Environment Day is celebrated on 5th
June.
126. Answer (4)
Hint: Broadly utilitarian are ecosystem services
which play major role in ecosystem.
Sol.: Broadly utilitarian includes flood and erosion
control, oxygen, pollination, aesthetic pleasure.
127. Answer (3)
Sol.: In India, there are 14 biosphere reserve, 90
National Parks and 448 wildlife sanctuaries.
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128. Answer (4)
Hint: Sacred grooves are certain tract of forest in
which the trees and wildlife within were venerated
and given total protection.
Sol.: Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya, Aravali
Hills of Rajasthan, Western Ghat region of
Karnataka are considered as sacred grooves.
129. Answer (3)
Hint: A single species might show high diversity at
the genetic level over its distributional range.
Sol.: Rauwolfia vomitoria exhibits genetic diversity
which show different concentration of active
chemical that the plant produces.
130. Answer (4)
Sol.: The nitrites in the body combine with
haemoglobin to cause a serious disease called
methemoglobinemia or blue baby syndrome.
131. Answer (2)
Hint: A biosphere reserve consists of core, buffer
and transition zones. Transition zone is the
outermost part of biosphere reserve.
Sol.: Transition zone is an area of active
cooperation between reserve management and
local people.
132. Answer (3)
Hint: Humus is formed by the process of
humification. It is dark coloured, amorphous, more
or less decomposed organic matter rich in
cellulose, lignin, tannins, resins, etc.
Sol.: Humus undergoes decomposition at an
extremely slow rate.
133. Answer (2)
Hint: Bad ozone is formed in the lower
atmosphere.
Sol.: Bad ozone is formed in the troposphere that
harms the plants and animals.
134. Answer (3)
Hint: The increase in the concentration of the
toxicant at successive trophic level is called
biomagnification.
Sol.: In biomagnification, high concentration of
DDT disturbs calcium metabolism in birds which
causes thinning of eggshell and their premature
breaking.
135. Answer (3)
Sol.: Stratification is the vertical distribution of
different species occupying different level in an
ecosystem.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
SECTION-B
136. Answer (2)
Hint: Consumers are present at the second
trophic level. They are heterotrophs.
Sol.: Secondary productivity is defined as the rate
of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
137. Answer (4)
Hint: Biomass is the amount of living matter
expressed as weight at any particular level at a
given time.
Sol.: According to given question, biomass of
primary carnivore is higher than biomass of
primary consumer. Similarly, biomass of primary
consumer is higher than that of primary producer.
Hence, pyramid of biomass is inverted.
Primary carnivore 32 kg m–2
Primary consumer 18 kg m–2
Primary producer 4 kg m–2
138. Answer (4)
Hint: Herbivores are primary consumers while,
primary carnivores are secondary consumers and
constitutes third trophic level.
Sol.: In an aquatic ecosystem, phytoplanktons,
zooplanktons and fishes are primary producer,
primary consumers and primary carnivores
respectively.
139. Answer (4)
Hint: Acid rain is due to oxides of sulphur and
nitrogen.
Sol.: Acid rain is a cocktail of H2SO4 and HNO3.
140. Answer (3)
Sol.: When the exhaust passes through the
catalytic converter, unburnt hydrocarbon are
converted into CO2 and water and carbon
monoxide and Nitric Oxide are changed to CO2
and N2 gas.
141. Answer (3)
Sol.: The relationship between species richness
and area for a wide variety of taxa is given by
Alexander Von Humboldt.
142. Answer (3)
Hint: Tropical environment is found near the
equator.
Sol.: Tropical environment unlike temperate ones,
are less seasonal, relatively more constant and
less predictable.
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143. Answer (2)
Hint: On log scale species-area relationship
become linear.
Sol.: Slope of regression (Z) or regression
coefficient in species area relationship indicate
that species richness decrease with the decrease
in area.
144. Answer (3)
Hint: Greenhouse gases are responsible for the
greenhouse effect. They absorb long wave
(infrared) radiation from the earth, and emit it again
towards the earth.
Sol.: Greenhouse effect causes warming of
troposphere and cooling of stratosphere and
thermosphere.
145. Answer (3)
Hint: A brief exposure of extremely high sound
level, 150 dB or more generated by take off of a jet
plane or rocket, may damage ear drums thus
permanently impairing hearing ability.
Sol.: The intensity of sound in normal
conversation is 30-60 dB.
146. Answer (1)
Hint: Deforestation is conversion of forested areas
to non-forested areas.
Sol.: Joint Forest Management (JFM) was started
by Government of India in 1980 so as to work
closely with the local communities for protecting
and managing forest. It helps in conservation of
forest and reforestation.
147. Answer (3)
Hint: Primary succession starts in area never
having vegetation of any type or where no living
organism ever existed.
Sol.: Cooled volcanic lava, igneous rocks or sand
dunes are the areas where primary succession
starts.
148. Answer (2)
Sol.: COP 26 took place in November 2021, in
Glasgow, UK.
149. Answer (3)
Sol.: Organism occupying high trophic level in
food chain is susceptible to extinction (e.g., bald
eagle, Bengal tiger).
150. Answer (1)
Sol.: Endemic species are confined to the
particular region and are not found anywhere else.
 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A
151. Answer (2)
Hint: Allergic response
Sol.: Bovine insulin may cause allergic response
in some users whereas humulin does not cause
allergic reaction when administered to humans.
Humulin contains two polypeptide chains A and B
which are joined to each other with the help of
disulfide bonds.
152. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify a plant
Sol.: Plant, Brassica napus is used for production
of recombinant hirudin. Hirudin exemplifies
anticoagulants. Its gene was chemically
synthesized and was transferred into Brassica
napus where hirudin accumulated in seeds.
Meloidogyne incognita is a nematode. A.
tumefaciens harbours Ti plasmid.
153. Answer (3)
Hint: Silencing of genes
Sol.: RNAi is a method of cellular defence which
is present in all eukaryotes. It involves silencing of
specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA.
154. Answer (2)
Hint: Identify the traditional diagnostic techniques
Sol.: PCR, ELISA and autoradiography are
included in modern techniques of molecular
diagnosis. PCR is used to make millions of copies
of a target piece of DNA. ELISA works on antigen-
antibody interaction principle. Autoradiography is
an imaging technique that uses radioactive
sources contained within the exposed sample.
156. Answer (4)
Hint: First cloned mammal
Sol.: Golden rice, Bt cotton and Rosie cow are
included in GMO. Golden rice is a variety of rice
which makes beta-carotene, thus giving the rice a
yellow (golden) colour. It was created to combat
vitamin A deficiency.
Bt cotton is a genetically modified pest resistant
plant variety, which produces an insecticide to
combat bollworm.
Rosie was a transgenic cow. It was considered
different from a normal cow as it produced human
protein-enriched milk. The milk contained 'human
alpha-lactalbumin' which was nutritionally a more
balanced product for human babies than the
normal cow milk.
157. Answer (3)
Hint: Obtained from Providencia
Sol.:
158. Answer (3)
Hint: Induce tumors in dicot plants

155. Answer (2) Sol.: cry gene produces protoxin in bacterium,

Bacillus thuringiensis. Gene gun is also called
Hint: In India, it is equal to the total pairs of ribs in
biolistic method. T-DNA is present in tumor
human body.
inducing DNA of Ti-plasmid. Chitinase is used to
Sol.: Recombinant therapeutics refer to degrade the cell wall of fungi which is made up of
specialized medicines made up of recombinant chitin (a homopolymer of N-acetyl (D)
proteins. The recombinant proteins used to glucosamine).
prepare therapeutics, obtained from recombinant
159. Answer (3)
organisms. The production of recombinant
therapeutics is possible only due to recombinant Hint: More than two
DNA technology. At present, about thirty Sol.:
recombinant therapeutics have been approved for
the use of human around the world. Presently, in
India, twelve of these recombinant therapeutics
are being marketed.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
160. Answer (3)
Hint: Between 45°C to 60°C
Sol.: In PCR, the temperature for annealing is
50°–60° whereas for denaturation, it is about 94°C.
The optimum temperature required for extension
step is 72°C.
161. Answer (3)
Hint: Forms -galactosidase enzyme
Sol.: Insertional inactivation in lac Z gene
produces white coloured colonies of recombinants
and blue coloured colonies of non-recombinants.
In recombinants, -galactosidase enzyme
producing gene is inactivated, so white colonies of
recombinants are formed.
162. Answer (1)
Hint: Same reading sequence of nucleotides on
the two strands in 5 to 3 direction
Sol.: A palindromic sequence is a nucleotide
sequence in a double-stranded DNA molecule
wherein reading in a certain direction (e.g. 5 to 3)
on one strand matches the reading sequence in
the complementary strand in 5 to 3 direction.
163. Answer (1)
Hint: Restrict the growth of bacteriophage
Sol.: Restriction endonucleases are obtained from
prokaryotes. The system that bacteria possess for
the defense is the restriction-modification system.
This system is composed of a restriction
endonuclease enzyme and a methylase enzyme.
Each bacterial species and strain has their own
combination of restriction and methylating
enzymes. Restriction enzyme cuts DNA at internal
phosphodiester bonds, cleave at a specific DNA
sequence. Methylase adds a methyl group to a
molecule; in restriction-modification systems of
bacteria a methyl group is added to DNA at a
specific site to protect the site from restriction
endonuclease cleavage.
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Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
164. Answer (3)
Hint: RY 13
Sol.:
165. Answer (4)
Hint: Ribose sugar
Sol.: ATP is not used in PCR. Primers, DNA
polymerase, deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates
are used in PCR. Two sets of primers (forward and
reverse) are used which binds to the 3-OH end of
their complementary DNA template.
166. Answer (1)
Hint: DNA fragments move towards positive
electrode
Sol.: As DNA has negative charge due to the
presence of phosphate, so they move towards
anode in gel electrophoresis. Larger the size of
DNA fragments, lesser they travel. Smaller the
size of DNA fragments, farther they move.
167. Answer (4)
Hint: Pseudomonas putida
Sol.: Biotechnology has their application in
therapeutics, diagnosis, bioremediation and waste
treatment. Pseudomonas putida is termed as a
‘Superbug’ which was genetically engineered in
order to degrade oil spoilage in seas/oceans by
ships.
168. Answer (1)
Hint: Mostly present in bones
Sol.: Ca+2 ions are used in making host cells
competent i.e., becomes capable for transformation
process. Calcium increases the efficiency with
which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in
its cell wall.
169. Answer (3)
Hint: 2n
Sol.: It is possible to generate ‘2n’ molecules after
‘n’ number of cycles in PCR.
170. Answer (3)
Hint: First letter represents genus name
Sol.: In Sal I, the ‘S’ represents genus name,
Streptomyces whereas ‘al’ represents species
name albus.
 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)
171. Answer (3)
Hint: Contains restriction sites, BamH I and Sal I
Sol.: Recognition sites for BamH I and Sal I are
present in tetR gene. If gene of interest is inserted
at recognition sequence of Pvu II, the
recombinants will not lose resistance against
ampicillin and tetracycline as this site is present in
rop gene. Recognition site for EcoR I is neither
present in ampR gene nor in tetR gene.
172. Answer (1)
Hint: Associated with gel electrophoresis
Sol.: The process of elution is associated with gel
electrophoresis. Elution is extraction of DNA
fragment containing desired gene from the gel
piece.
The sequence of nucleotides from where
replication starts in cloning vector is called ori.
This sequence is also responsible for controlling
the copy number of the linked DNA.
173. Answer (3)
Hint: May cause cancer in humans
Sol.: Agrobacterium is a natural genetic engineer
for plants. pUC8 and modified Ti-plasmid are
vectors for bacteria and plants respectively.
The disarmed retroviral vectors can be used to
modify the host cell’s (animal cells) nuclear
genome.
174. Answer (1)
Hint: Used to treat emphysema
Sol.: Rosie cow, produced human-enriched milk
(2.4 g -lactalbumin per litre). It was nutritionally a
more balanced product for human babies than
natural cow-milk.
175. Answer (2)
Hint: Does not have complementarity with the
mutated gene
Sol.: In autoradiography, probe is used which may
be single stranded RNA or DNA.
A plasmid is a small, circular, double-stranded
DNA molecule that is distinct from a cell's
chromosomal DNA. Plasmids naturally exist in
bacterial cells, and they also occur in some
eukaryotes.
176. Answer (2)
Hint: Antibiotic resistance gene(s)
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Sol.: A cloning vector should be small in size,
should possess ori and selectable markers.
177. Answer (4)
Hint: Step involved in isolation of genetic material
Sol.: In isolation of genetic material, the DNA is
precipitated by adding chilled ethanol. After
sometime, the DNA can be obtained in
precipitated form with the help of spooling.
178. Answer (4)
Hint: Not present in region of selectable marker
Sol.: As cloning site for ‘X’ is not present in ampR
gene and tetR gene, so non-recombinants and
recombinants, both can grow in medium
containing ampicillin and tetracycline antibiotics as
they contain resistant genes against these
antibiotics.
179. Answer (1)
Hint: Suitable for animals
Sol.: The micro-injection method is mostly used
for transformation of an animal cell.
Microinjection is the process of transferring
genetic material into a living cell using
microinjection needles. Desired DNA or RNA is
injected directly into the cell's nucleus.
180. Answer (1)
Hint: State of medium for culture
Sol.: Fermenters are chambers in which
microorganisms can be cultured in both liquid and
solid medium. Fermenters are designed to contain
an internal environment for the optimum
metabolization and efficient multiplication of the
microorganisms.
181. Answer (2)
Hint: Formation of rDNA
Sol.: The correct sequence is:
(1) Construction of a recombinant DNA molecule
(2) Introduction of rDNA into the host cell
(3) Multiplication of recombinant DNA molecule
within host cell
(4) Extraction of the desired product
182. Answer (3)
Hint: Efficiency of usage
Sol.: Transgenic plants have increased efficiency
of mineral usage. They can also be more tolerant
to abiotic stresses (cold, salt, heat, drought, etc.)
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

183. Answer (3)
Hint: Forms protoxin
Sol.: cryIAb – Corn borer
cryIAc and cryIIAb – Cotton bollworm
184. Answer (1)
Hint: Being used for testing of polio vaccine
Sol.: Over 95% of all existing transgenic animals
are mice. Transgenic mice have been developed
for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they
are used on humans.
185. Answer (1)
Hint: Generally less useful in biotechnology
Sol.: Restriction enzyme Hind II produces blunt
ends. Blunt ends are the ends of a DNA fragment
resulting from the breaking of DNA molecule in
which there are no unpaired bases. Hence, both
strands are of the same length.
SECTION-B
Sol.: In human insulin, A chain has 21 amino acids
and B chain has 30 amino acids. The active form
of insulin is made up of 51 amino acids in total.
190. Answer (2)
Hint: Forms phosphodiester bond
Sol.: DNA ligase – Formation of rDNA.
DNA polymerase – Required in DNA replication.
191. Answer (2)
Hint: Effective upon bacterial cell wall
Sol.:
Lysozyme degrades bacterial cell wall.
Cellulase degrades plant cell wall.
Lipase degrades fats or lipids.
DNase degrades DNA.
192. Answer (2)

186. Answer (4) Hint: Involves purification of crude product

Hint: A type of nuclease Sol.: Downstream processing includes isolation,

separation and purification of product after
Sol.:
fermentation (process does not require oxygen).
β-galactosidase – Enzyme produced after The product has to be formulated with the suitable
transcription and preservatives.
translation of lac Z gene.
Upstream processing comprises tasks in the
DNA ligase – Enzyme which is used
fermentation process in biotechnology.
to join the two DNA
molecules. 193. Answer (2)
Restriction – Present in prokaryotes. Hint: Genetic disorder
endonuclease Sol.: ADA enzyme deficiency leads to Severe
187. Answer (4) Combined Immuno Deficiency (SCID) in humans,
which can be treated by bone marrow
Hint: Restriction sites for different restriction
enzymes transplantation and enzyme replacement therapy
(not permanent cure). It can be treated
Sol.: Plasmid contains different restriction sites for
different restriction enzymes. This makes plasmid permanently using gene therapy if performed
a preferable choice for creating rDNA or chimeric during early embryonic stage.
DNA. 194. Answer (1)
188. Answer (1) Hint: Natural genetic engineer of plant
Hint: Makes heterologous host Sol.: Agrobacterium, contains Ti-plasmid. Ti-
Sol.: Conjugation is associated with reproduction plasmid contains T-DNA which causes tumour
in bacteria. Electroporation is a direct method of formation in dicot plants. It does not affect virus.
gene transfer.
195. Answer (2)
Transfection is the process of deliberately
Hint: Deals with issues related to genetic
introducing naked or purified nucleic acid into
eukaryotic cells. engineering.
189. Answer (2) Sol.: EFB  European Federation of
Hint: ‘A’ chain have less amino acids as compared Biotechnology.
to ‘B’ chain GEAC  Genetic Engineering Approval Committee.
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 Test-4 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

196. Answer (2) 199. Answer (2)

Hint: Vectorless gene transfer Hint: It is a 6 base pair cutter
Sol.: Electroporation, biolistics and chemical Sol.: Cla I restriction endonuclease is a 6 base
mediated gene transfer are included in direct pair cutter which produces sticky ends upon its
method of gene transfer. Retrovirus can be used action.
as a vector to transfer functional ADA cDNA gene
into the patient’s lymphocytes for treatment of
SCID.
197. Answer (1)
Hint: Phosphodiester bond
Sol.: Restriction endonuclease cleaves
phosphodiester bond or sugar phosphate bond.
Nowadays, transgenic models exist for many
human diseases such as cancer, cystic fibrosis,
alzheimer’s etc. 200. Answer (1)
198. Answer (2) Hint: Contains more than one [G] on each strand
Hint: Equal to number of polypeptide chains in Sol.: Palindromic sequence for Bam HI is
human insulin
Sol.: Two disulfide bonds are present in between
A and B chains of human insulin.

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