28/04/2020 CODE-B

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 MOCK TEST C0DE-B Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Answer Key
1. (2) 41. (1) 81. (3) 121. (2) 161. (1)
2. (1) 42. (1) 82. (1) 122. (4) 162. (3)
3. (1) 43. (2) 83. (2) 123. (2) 163. (4)
4. (3) 44. (4) 84. (4) 124. (2) 164. (2)
5. (4) 45. (3) 85. (1) 125. (3) 165. (3)
6. (4) 46. (3) 86. (3) 126. (2) 166. (3)
7. (2) 47. (2) 87. (4) 127. (3) 167. (2)
8. (1) 48. (3) 88. (2) 128. (2) 168. (4)
9. (3) 49. (2) 89. (4) 129. (4) 169. (1)
10. (2) 50. (3) 90. (4) 130. (3) 170. (2)
11. (1) 51. (3) 91. (1) 131. (3) 171. (2)
12. (2) 52. (3) 92. (1) 132. (4) 172. (2)
13. (4) 53. (2) 93. (2) 133. (3) 173. (3)
14. (2) 54. (3) 94. (1) 134. (3) 174. (1)
15. (2) 55. (3) 95. (1) 135. (3) 175. (3)
16. (4) 56. (1) 96. (4) 136. (1) 176. (1)
17. (1) 57. (1) 97. (2) 137. (3) 177. (2)
18. (2) 58. (2) 98. (2) 138. (3) 178. (2)
19. (1) 59. (1) 99. (2) 139. (3) 179. (3)
20. (4) 60. (4) 100. (4) 140. (2) 180. (4)
21. (1) 61. (1) 101. (4) 141. (1) 181. (4)
22. (1) 62. (1) 102. (4) 142. (1) 182. (1)
23. (4) 63. (4) 103. (3) 143. (4) 183. (3)
24. (4) 64. (4) 104. (3) 144. (2) 184. (2)
25. (2) 65. (3) 105. (1) 145. (4) 185. (3)
26. (1) 66. (3) 106. (3) 146. (2) 186. (3)
27. (3) 67. (4) 107. (4) 147. (2) 187. (3)
28. (2) 68. (3) 108. (2) 148. (4) 188. (1)
29. (2) 69. (1) 109. (3) 149. (3) 189. (4)
30. (3) 70. (1) 110. (1) 150. (4) 190. (2)
31. (4) 71. (4) 111. (1) 151. (3) 191. (2)
32. (3) 72. (3) 112. (3) 152. (2) 192. (3)
33. (4) 73. (3) 113. (3) 153. (3) 193. (2)
34. (3) 74. (2) 114. (2) 154. (2) 194. (1)
35. (2) 75. (4) 115. (3) 155. (3) 195. (4)
36. (1) 76. (4) 116. (2) 156. (3) 196. (3)
37. (2) 77. (4) 117. (3) 157. (3) 197. (4)
38. (3) 78. (2) 118. (2) 158. (3) 198. (1)
39. (4) 79. (4) 119. (2) 159. (2) 199. (1)
40. (1) 80. (3) 120. (4) 160. (1) 200. (3)

(1)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

28/04/2020 CODE-B

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 MOCK TEST Time : 3:00 Hrs.

Code-B

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS
1. Answer (2) 7. Answer (2)
Searle's method is used to determine the young’s
Equivalent circuit will be
modulus of a wire.
2. Answer (1)
Velocity can be derived from length and time.
3. Answer (1)

Ceq = 2C
4. Answer (3) 8. Answer (1)
 Z   1 3 
 Z   100 =  3  1 + 3  3 + 2 + 2  4  % mg sin53º – mg sin37º = 2 ma
   
a = 1 m/s2
= 12%

Z 9. Answer (3)
Hence = 1.2  10−1
Z
Q
cone = base = [1 − cos 60º ]
5. Answer (4) 20
R = 6T2
Q
=
2u 2 sin  cos  6  4 u 2 cos2  4 0
=
g g2
10. Answer (2)
12 6
 tan  = =
g 5 Induced charge will distribute on outer surface of
shell uniformly
6. Answer (4)
0.72 0NI Hence, Ep =
KQ KQ
=
B=
R r2 9R 2

(2)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

11. Answer (1) 15. Answer (2)

→
B = B sin iˆ − B cos jˆ

0I q = CV
B=
2r
dq V .dC
r = x2 + y 2 I= = …(i)
dt dt
r=5
Now,
Hence
C = C1 + C2
→  I y x 
B = 0  iˆ – jˆ  {x = 3, y = 4]
2r  r r  0a(a − x ) 0 kax
= +
0 I d d
=  4i − 3 ˆj 
50  
dC 0 a  −dx  k 0 a dx
= +
12. Answer (2) dt d  dt  d dt
ne . nh = ni2
0a dx
2
= k − 1
d dt
ni2 1.7  10 
15
1.7  1.7  1030
ne = = =
nh 4.7  10 21
4.7  1021 8.85  10−12  1
=  10−3  10
= 6.14 × 108 m–3 8.85  10−3
13. Answer (4) = 10–11
P = A 2
P 2
 == Hence
Q = A Q T
I = 500 × 10–11 A
2Q
T =
P = 5 × 10–9A
14. Answer (2) 16. Answer (4)
As kinetic energy of emitted electron = energy of
x-ray m → mass of hanging part

1 hc l → length of hanging part

mv 2 =
2 
l
w = mg
p2 hc 2mhc 2
= p=
2m  
M l
h h h = l .g
 0 = = = L 2
p 2hmc 2mc
 Mgl 2 80  (1.2)2
= =
2L 2 4
h  2mc  2
Hence 02 = =  0
2mc  h  = 14.4 J

(3)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

17. Answer (1) L 5 5

Hence, =  L =  6563
 B 27 27
= 1215 A°
22. Answer (1)
dN M
= N = 
dt M0
x − 20 x − 10 x − 0 M0 mass of one atom
+ + =0
8 3 5 1  M  −6
1010 = 10−25   M = 10 kg  1mg
 15 x – 300 + 40 x – 400 + 24 x = 0 109  
 79 x = 700 23. Answer (4)
x = 8.86 VZ 5
IRL = = = 5 mA
8.86 RL 103
Hence current through switch I = = 1.77A
5 24. Answer (4)
18. Answer (2) LdI
VP – IR + E – = VQ
Ve = 2gR dt
VQ – VP = – 15 + 15 – 7 × 10–3 [– 103]
1 GMm 3 GMm
At centre Ke = mv 2 = − + =7V
2 R 2 R
25. Answer (2)
2gmR 1
K= = mv e2 Reading of voltmeter = VL – VC = 0
4 4
Erms 110
19. Answer (1) Reading of ammeter = = = 2A
Z 55
26. Answer (1)
PV −1 = constant  P = kV
V 2 
w =  PdV = k  
 2 
EC – EB + EB – EA = EC – EA
1 1
hc hc hc = P2V2 − PV
1 1
= + 2 2
3 1  2
R RT

= T2 − T1  = 0
Hence  3 = 1 2 2 2
1 +  2 3
U = 1 R  T0
20. Answer (4) 2
Acceleration of mA = a 3
= RT0
Acceleration of mb = a 2
T= mA g … (i) Hence Q = W + U = 2RT0
mB g – T = m2a … (ii) 27. Answer (3)
N0
m2g 8g 2 = N0 e −(3t )  e3 t = 16
Hence, a = = = g 16
m1 + m2 12 3
9t
−
21. Answer (1) N = N0e 2

1 1 1  5R 3/2
= R 2 − 2 =  1
B 2 3  36 = N0 (e−3t )3/2 = N0  
 16 
1  1 1  3R N0
= R 2 − 2 = N=
L 1 2  4 64
(4)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

28. Answer (2) − 3

= −16  = −8 3
  2 
I = Imax cos2    
2
1
K.E. = mv 2
1  2
 Imax = Imax cos2  
2 2 1
=  10  10−3  64  3  1
 1   2
cos   =  = (2n + 1)
2 2 2 4 = 0.96 unit
 32. Answer (3)
 = (2n + 1)
2 m = mass of ladder
2   M = mass of electrician
x = (2n + 1)  x = (2n + 1)
 2 4
29. Answer (2)

3l l
F = mg 
4 2
2 N = (m + M) g and H = f
F= mg
3 Hmax = fmax = (m + M)g
30. Answer (3) A = 0
For A to B  Isochoric process
mgL cos30º
+ Mgx cos30º – HL sin 30º = 0
WAB = 0 2
For B → C  Isothermal process x H tan30º m
 = − [m = M/2]
P L Mg 2M
WBC = nRT ln i
Pf On solving

 2P  L
x=
= 3R(2T0 )ln  0  4
 8P0 
33. Answer (4)
= 6 RT0 ln [2–2]
34. Answer (3)
= – 12 RT0 ln2
For a particle necessary centripetal force is
31. Answer (4) provided by gravitational force.
y = 4 sin (4t +/3)   = 4 35. Answer (2)
v = 4 × cos (4t +/3) . 4 = 16 cos (4t +/3) 3v
First overtone of closed organ pipe f1 =
at t = T/4 4l1

 4.T    2   4v
v = 16cos  +  = 16cos  +  Third overtone of open organ pipe f2 =
 4 3  4 3 2l 2

  l1 3
= 16cos  +  f1 = f2  =
2 3 l2 8

(5)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

36. Answer (1) v2 P2

x= =
→ dU 2g 2m2g
F =− = −4iˆ − 3 jˆ
dr
P2 900
= = = 1.4
→ 2
2m gx 2  4  10  8
a = − 4iˆ − 3 jˆ
41. Answer (1)
→
dv
= − 4iˆ − 3 jˆ
dt
→
v = − 4t iˆ − 3t jˆ

→  3t 2  ˆ
r = (16 − 2 t 2 ) iˆ +  6 − j
 2  4 mv = m (vr cos  – v)
vr cos  = 5 v
When it cross x-axis  y = 0 i.e. at t = 2
5v
vr =
Hence, v = 2 42 + 32 = 10 m/s cos 
37. Answer (2) vr 5v
= =
Radiation pressure is R R cos 

I 42. Answer (1)

P=
C  for paramagnetic substance = 10–5
I 1800 43. Answer (2)
F= A=    9  10−4
C 3  108 (n − 1)gt1 = gt2 [v m = (n − 1)gt1]
= 1800 ×  × 3 × 10–12 N
t2 = (n − 1)t1
38. Answer (3)
1
Now, v m (t1 + t2 ) = h
2
1
 (n − 1)gt1(nt1 ) = h
2

2h
 t1 =
n(n − 1)g
→ → → →
Anet = A1 + A2 + A3 2nh
t1 + t2 = nt1 =
(n − 1)g
Anet = 42 + 42 = 4 2 unit
44. Answer (4)
39. Answer (4)
L = mvr sin  = mv cos 45°. h
Q = AT 4
(v sin 45 )
2
mv mv 3
Q = eAT  4 L=  =
2 2g 4 2g
1 Q81
= ( A 81T 4 ) = (v sin 45º )
2
= 40.5 Q
2 2 Also h =
2g
40. Answer (1)
F = ma =  mg  L = m 2gh3

a=g

(6)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

45. Answer (3) d

=  is positive i.e.   90
46. Answer (3) dt
Positive  indicates anticlockwise direction.
48. Answer (3)
I1 f12 A12 25
= . =
I2 f22 A22 16
49. Answer (2)
Bl 2
VQ − VP =
2
In vertical motion
Bl 2
gt 2 2nx VR − VP =
nx = t = 2
2 g
VQ − VR = 0
In horizontal motion
50. Answer (3)
2xu 2
ny = ut  n = n power
gy 2 = = 9  1013 s
t h
47. Answer (2)

CHEMISTRY
51. Answer (3) Fraction of pressure of O2 = mole fraction of O2
2A + 3B ⎯⎯→ 2C 1 1
= =
32 3
(i) 4 6 0 1 1
+
(f) 0 0 4 mol 32 16
52. Answer (3) 58. Answer (2)
1 1 Vf
= = w = −2.303nRT log
 5000  10−10 m Vi
=2× 106 m–1
1
= 2 × 104 cm–1
= −2.303  2  2  300 log
10
53. Answer (2) = 2.76 Kcal
Energy order 7s > 6p > 5d > 4f 59. Answer (1)
54. Answer (3) U, H and G are state functions
Element Li Be B 60. Answer (4)
I.E(KJ mol–1) 520 899 801 61. Answer (1)
55. Answer (3) 1 1
pH = pKa − logC
ID = 3.33564 × 10–30 cm 2 2
56. Answer (1) 4.74 1
= − log(10−2 )
SF4 has 4 bond pairs and 1 lone pair so shape is 4 2
see saw = 3.37
57. Answer (1) 62. Answer (1)
B2H6 is an electron deficient covalent hydride

(7)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

63. Answer (4) 76. Answer (4)

KO2 is a stable superoxide 77. Answer (4)
64. Answer (4) Pine oil, fatty acids and Xanthates are collectors
Solvay process cannot be used to prepare K2CO3 78. Answer (2)
as KHCO3 is too soluble.
Mond’s process
65. Answer (3)
330 −350K
Ni + 4CO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →Ni(CO)4
Al has 3d orbital so it forms [Al(H2O)6]3+ ion in
solution 450− 470K
Ni(CO)4 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →Ni + 4CO
66. Answer (3)
79. Answer (4)
; furan is heterocyclic aromatic compound

67. Answer (4)

+ 3NO2 + H2O ⎯⎯→ 2HNO3 + NO
CH3 − C == O is back bonding stabilised
80. Answer (3)
carbocation
XeF6 + 3H2O ⎯⎯→ XeO3 + 6HF
68. Answer (3)
81. Answer (3)
Mn2+ has five unpaired electrons.
82. Answer (1)
Mischmetal contains 95% lanthanoid.
83. Answer (2)
CoCl3.5NH3 ⎯⎯→ [CoCl(NH3)5]Cl2
69. Answer (1) 84. Answer (4)
70. Answer (1)
• –NO2 is an ambidentate ligand so it show
71. Answer (4) linkage isomerism
For any solution mix G < 0 and mix S > 0 and • [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]can show geometric
mix H = 0 for ideal solution isomerism i.e. fac and mer isomer.
72. Answer (3) 85. Answer (1)
m = Zit Stable is the carbocation formed faster is the rate
108 SN1 reaction
=  9.65  1000
96500 86. Answer (3)
= 10.8 g
73. Answer (3)
Balanced equation is
6 I + 2MnO−4 + 4H2O ⎯⎯→ 3I2 + 2MnO2 + 8OH 87. Answer (4)

74. Answer (2)

t 75% = 2t1/2

15
t1/2 = = 7.5sec
2 88. Answer (2)
75. Answer (4) Given reaction is Etard reaction
25C ⎯35C ⎯45C ⎯55C 89. Answer (4)
r 2r 4r 8r
Example of Cannizzaro reaction
(8)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

90. Answer (4)

3° amine does not react with Hinsberg’s reagent
91. Answer (1) 97. Answer (2)
CHO m mol of NaOH = 100 × 0.04 = 4
| m mol of HCl = 400 × 0.02 = 8
HI, 
(CHOH)4 ⎯⎯⎯ → CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3
| m mole of HCl left = 8 – 4 = 4
CH2OH 4
Molarity of HCl = = 8  10−3
92. Answer (1) 500
93. Answer (2) [H+] = 8 × 10–3
pH = 3 – log 8
= 3 – 3 log 2
= 3 – 3 × 0.3
= 2.1
94. Answer (1)
98. Answer (2)
95. Answer (1)
Number of the faradays of electricity passed
10  965
= = 0.1
96500
99. Answer (2)
[(Ph3P)3RhCl] is Wilkinson catalyst and it is
96. Answer (4) square planar in shape.
• For Lyman series, n1 = 1 and n2 = 2, 3 …. 100. Answer (4)
Since electron jumps to first excited state
(n = 2) hence no line will be observed in In Swarts reaction alkyl fluorides is prepared from
Lyman series. alkyl chloride or bromide.

• For Paschen series, n1 = 3 and n2 = 4, 5 ….

Hence number of lines obtained will be 3.
• Total number of lines obtained will be 10.

BOTANY
101. Answer (4) Viroids are RNA particles. Viruses have capsid
but viroids do not have it.
Nucleolus is present in eukaryotic cells.
108. Answer (2)
102. Answer (4)
Conidia are produced exogenously in sac fungi.
Centriole gives cartwheel appearance.
109. Answer (3)
103. Answer (3) 110. Answer (1)
104. Answer (3) 111. Answer (1)
Splitting of centromere takes place in 112. Answer (3)
anaphase II.
Endarch xylem is formed in all stems
105. Answer (1)
113. Answer (3)
Poaceae is family of wheat.
Epidermis is part of epidermal tissue system.
106. Answer (3)
107. Answer (4) 114. Answer (2)
Marchantia is dioecious.

(9)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

115. Answer (3) 133. Answer (3)

116. Answer (2) 134. Answer (3)
117. Answer (3) i gene synthesizes repressor protein.
118. Answer (2) 135. Answer (3)
136. Answer (1)
119. Answer (2)
137. Answer (3)
120. Answer (4)
138. Answer (3)
Phosphoenolpyruvate is the primary acceptor of
139. Answer (3)
CO2 in C4 pathway.
140. Answer (2)
121. Answer (2)
141. Answer (1)
122. Answer (4)
142. Answer (1)
Photophosphorylation takes place in chloroplast
143. Answer (4)
not in mitochondria.
144. Answer (2)
123. Answer (2)
145. Answer (4)
124. Answer (2)
Chipko movement – Sunder Lal Bahuguna
Adenine derivative phytohormone is cytokinin.
146. Answer (2)
125. Answer (3)
TMV possesses infectious RNA and could be
126. Answer (2) crystallised.
Parrot has more life span than crow. 147. Answer (2)
127. Answer (3) Basal placentation – Marigold
128. Answer (2) Parietal placentation – Mustard
Definitive nucleus is 2n. Marginal placentation – Pea
129. Answer (4) Axile placentation – Tomato
130. Answer (3) 148. Answer (4)
131. Answer (3) Gibbrellins promote bolting and the length of
stem of sugarcane, thus increasing the yield of
sugarcane crop.
149. Answer (3)
In active transport, substances can transport
from low to high concentration (uphill transport).
150. Answer (4)
Zoological parks, botanical gardens and wild life
safari are in situ conservation strategies.
132. Answer (4)

ZOOLOGY
151. Answer (3) Nissl’s bodies/granules are large and irregular
Nose tip – Elastic cartilage masses of ribosomes and RER.

Tendons – Dense regular connective 153. Answer (3)

tissue Tertiary structure is stabilised by peptide bonds,
hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, covalent bonds,
Blood vessels – Squamous epithelium hydrophobic bonds and vander waals
152. Answer (2) interactions.

(10)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

154. Answer (2) 164. Answer (2)

Glycine – Simplest amino acid Malpighian tubules – Cockroach
Alanine – Contains methyl side chain Nephridia – Earthworm
Tryptophan – Aromatic amino acid
Kidneys – Vertebrates
155. Answer (3)
165. Answer (3)
A non competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a
Thigh muscles are skeletal muscles.
site distinct from that which binds the substrate
Fusiform/spindle shape is a characteristic of
156. Answer (3)
smooth muscle fibres.
Atrophy of parietal cells leads to decrease in
166. Answer (3)
acidity due to decrease in amount of HCl.
Bone marked ‘x’ is sphenoid bone which forms
Megaloblastic anaemia is caused due to
the base of the cranium. It is not a facial bone.
deficiency of vitamin B12 for the absorption of
which, Castle’s intrinsic factor is required. 167. Answer (2)

157. Answer (3) Fibrous joint is present between skull bones.

Amino acids can be absorbed by simple diffusion, Pivot joint is present between atlas and axis
facilitated transport and active transport. Saddle joint is present between carpal and
158. Answer (3) metacarpals of thumb.
TLC is IC + FRC or RV + ERV + TV + IRV 168. Answer (4)
159. Answer (2) Blind spot lacks rods and cones.
Increase in volume of thoracic cavity causes 169. Answer (1)
increase in volume of pulmonary cavity leading to Nociceptors and algesireceptors respond to pain.
reduction in pressure within pulmonary cavity
170. Answer (2)
which causes inflow of air.
Protein hormones have cell surface receptors.
160. Answer (1)
Two or more hormones producing same effect is
Blood vessel PO2 PCO2 synergism.
(mmHg) (mmHg) 171. Answer (2)
Pulmonary 40 45 Melatonin is obtained from tryptophan.
artery 172. Answer (2)
Systemic artery 95 40 Ascidia is a urochordate
Systemic vein 40 45 173. Answer (3)
Osteichthyes have bony endoskeleton
Aorta 95 40
174. Answer (1)
161 Answer (1)
Seminal vesicles store the sperms and glue them
QRS complex represents ventricular systole.
together to form spermatophore.
162. Answer (3)
175. Answer (3)
Coronary artery disease is often termed
The type of coelom present in cockroach is
atherosclerosis. It affects the vessels that supply
schizocoelom.
blood to heart muscles.
176. Answer (1)
163. Answer (4)
Euglena shows longitudinal binary fission
Aldosterone is secreted by adrenal cortex in
whereas gemmule formation is seen in sponges.
response to angiotensin II.

(11)
Mock Test Code-B For NEET-2021

177. Answer (2) 188. Answer (1)

Capacitation of sperm occurs in female genital
system.
178. Answer (2)
These are essential conditions for fertility.
179. Answer (3)
Since luteal phase is of fixed duration, i.e. 14th
days, we can assume that ovulation occurs on
30th day. That is when she is most likely to
conceive.
180. Answer (4)
Vasectomy is a male sterilization method
involving cutting and tieing up vas deferens. The
method mentioned in question is tubectomy
which does not affect ovulation.
181. Answer (4)
ICSI is intra cytoplasmic sperm injection in which
fertilisation occurs in the laboratory in petridish.
182. Answer (1)
Natural selection of one type of moth indicates
directional selection.
183. Answer (3)
Presence of tail in human child shows atavism.
184. Answer (2)
Random mating maintains the population in
equilibrium.
185. Answer (3)
Hilsa is an edible marine fish.
189. Answer (4)
The causative agent of malaria is Plasmodium
and vector is female Anopheles.
190. Answer (2)
Restriction endonuclease cut DNA at specific
positions within the molecule.
191. Answer (2)
Elution is the process of extraction of separated
DNA fragments from the agarose gel.
192. Answer (3)
Retroviruses are the viruses having RNA as
genetic material and reverse transcriptase for its
conversion into DNA.
193. Answer (2)
Golden rice contains a gene that codes for
–carotene which is a precursor of vitamin A, the
deficiency of which causes night blindness.
194. Answer (1)
RNAi involves silencing RNA so that translation
does not occur.
195. Answer (4)
Lac Z gene codes for –galactosidase which
gives blue colour with chromogenic substance
X–gal. Insertional inactivation of this gene
produces white colonies.
196. Answer (3)
Cyclostomata belongs to division agnatha.
197. Answer (4)

Australopithecus is the connecting link between Et-Br (Ethidium Bromide) is used for visualization
of DNA fragments under U.V radiations.
ape and man.
198. Answer (1)
186. Answer (3)
Hint : Ichthyophis is limbless amphibian.
IgG is responsible for secondary immune
Sol. : Ichthyosaurs is an example of fish like
response. IgM is responsible for primary immune reptile which evolved 200 mya.
response.
199. Answer (1)
187. Answer (3) Arterioles are lined by simple squamous
The structure represents morphine, whose epithelium.
acetylation product is heroin which is white,
200. Answer (3)
odourless, bitter crystalline compound and is a
depressant which is generally snorted. A – Scala vestibuli
B – Basilar membrane

❑ ❑ ❑
(12)