24/03/2022 RM_CODE-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 REVISION TEST SERIES Time : 3.00 Hrs.

(for NEET-2022)
Test - 2
Answers
1. (2) 41. (1) 81. (4) 121. (4) 161. (2)
2. (1) 42. (1) 82. (3) 122. (2) 162. (1)
3. (1) 43. (4) 83. (2) 123. (2) 163. (4)
4. (3) 44. (2) 84. (1) 124. (1) 164. (3)
5. (1) 45. (1) 85. (1) 125. (4) 165. (2)
6. (1) 46. (4) 86. (1) 126. (2) 166. (3)
7. (4) 47. (2) 87. (1) 127. (3) 167. (2)
8. (1) 48. (4) 88. (2) 128. (3) 168. (2)
9. (2) 49. (1) 89. (1) 129. (4) 169. (4)
10. (1) 50. (4) 90. (4) 130. (3) 170. (4)
11. (3) 51. (2) 91. (4) 131. (2) 171. (2)
12. (2) 52. (1) 92. (4) 132. (4) 172. (3)
13. (3) 53. (1) 93. (4) 133. (2) 173. (2)
14. (2) 54. (3) 94. (1) 134. (3) 174. (2)
15. (3) 55. (2) 95. (2) 135. (3) 175. (4)
16. (3) 56. (2) 96. (4) 136. (2) 176. (3)
17. (2) 57. (4) 97. (3) 137. (3) 177. (4)
18. (3) 58. (3) 98. (2) 138. (2) 178. (1)
19. (3) 59. (2) 99. (3) 139. (4) 179. (3)
20. (1) 60. (4) 100. (2) 140. (3) 180. (4)
21. (4) 61. (2) 101. (3) 141. (3) 181. (2)
22. (4) 62. (1) 102. (3) 142. (3) 182. (3)
23. (4) 63. (2) 103. (3) 143. (3) 183. (1)
24. (2) 64. (3) 104. (2) 144. (2) 184. (4)
25. (1) 65. (2) 105. (3) 145. (1) 185. (4)
26. (3) 66. (4) 106. (4) 146. (1) 186. (2)
27. (4) 67. (2) 107. (1) 147. (2) 187. (4)
28. (3) 68. (3) 108. (2) 148. (3) 188. (3)
29. (4) 69. (1) 109. (1) 149. (2) 189. (4)
30. (3) 70. (4) 110. (3) 150. (1) 190. (2)
31. (4) 71. (2) 111. (4) 151. (3) 191. (3)
32. (1) 72. (2) 112. (4) 152. (3) 192. (4)
33. (3) 73. (3) 113. (3) 153. (2) 193. (2)
34. (4) 74. (4) 114. (2) 154. (3) 194. (4)
35. (1) 75. (2) 115. (1) 155. (2) 195. (4)
36. (4) 76. (2) 116. (2) 156. (2) 196. (3)
37. (3) 77. (4) 117. (4) 157. (2) 197. (1)
38. (2) 78. (4) 118. (3) 158. (3) 198. (2)
39. (1) 79. (3) 119. (3) 159. (4) 199. (2)
40. (2) 80. (2) 120. (4) 160. (3) 200. (4)

(1)
 24/03/2022 RM_CODE-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 REVISION TEST SERIES Time : 3.00 Hrs.

(for NEET-2022)
Test - 2

Answers & Solutions

PHYSICS
SECTION-A 5. Answer (1)
1. Answer (2) A
R1
V 60°
R  cot  B
I
R = R0(1 + t)
R2
Here 1 > 2
R1 + R2 = 4 
 R1 < R 2
 60 
T1 < T2 R1 =   (R1  R2 )
 360 
2. Answer (1)
Current will not flow in capacitor branch. Hence 4 2
R1 =  
there is no potential drop across 3  resistor. 6 3
 Potential across capacitor 2 10
R2 = 4   
V=2V 3 3
 Q = CV = 10 F × 2 V = 20 C R1R2 20 5
 Req = = = 
3. Answer (1) R1  R2 3  12 9
Total voltage drop across both capacitors 6. Answer (1)
 E  Let each resistance is of R
V=  R
R  r  5
RPQ = R
 Voltage across one capacitor 11
ER 3
= RPR = R
2(R  r ) 11
4. Answer (3) 4R
RQR =
v d 0.025  2 11
μ   5  104 m2V–1s–1
E 100  RPQ is maximum.

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
7. Answer (4) 11. Answer (3)
VA – 1.5 = VB VG – 8 + 3 – 4 + 2 = VH

 VA = 1.5 + VB VG – VH = 8 + 2 – 3 = 7 V

 VA = 1.5 V 12. Answer (2)

VB – 2.5 + 2 = VD Let R be the resistance of each resistor.

R0 = 3R
 VD = 0 – 2.5 + 2 = – 0.5 V
R be the resistance after closing switch.
8. Answer (1)
7R
20 V V 4 5V R 
3
2
2 7 R0 7R0
S R   
3 3 9
0V
13. Answer (3)
20  V 5  V V  0
=  = On increasing the temperature the resistivity of
2 4 2 semiconductor decreases while of conductor
 V= 9V resistivity increases.
14. Answer (2)
 Current through switch
V2 V2
V 0 90 P9    36  1
I  = 4.5 A R 9
2 2
V1 = 18 V
9. Answer (2)
I2   2A  3A  5A

V2  = 2 × 5 = 10 V

15. Answer (3)

dq
i = Slope of charge-time graph
dt
i = –5 A
as voltage drop is 2 V
H = i2 Rt
2=i×2
 Ht
 i = 1 A 16. Answer (3)
Heat produced
H   i 2Rdt  R  i 2dt

H = R × Area under i2-t graph

1
Area =  (6  2)  4  16
 E=3×3+3×2+4×3 2
= 9 + 6 + 12  H = 10 × area = 10 × 16 = 160 J
= 27 V 17. Answer (2)
10 V
10. Answer (1)

55 20 1 2 k 3 k
= =
R 100  20 4
 R = 220  6 k

(3)
Test-2_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
Req of 3 k and 6 k= 2  23. Answer (4)

 Potential drop across 2 kwill be 5 V and Q = 6t – 3t2

across combinations of 3 kand 6 kwould also dQ
be 5 V. Hence, reading = 5 V i  6  6t
dt
18. Answer (3)
i = 0, at t = 1 s
For maximum power
H   i 2R dt    6  6t  10dt
1 2
Req = r = 6  0

2R||2R|| R = 6
 
1
 360 1  t 2  2t dt
0
R
6  1 
2  360  1   1
 3 
R = 12 
19. Answer (3) H = 120 J

As 4 volt will drop across AB which is 2 m hence 24. Answer (2)

for two volt drop xy = 1m 1 1 1
   Req = 2R
20. Answer (1) Req 3R 6R
Let equivalent resistance between point A and B
1 1 1
is X.  
Req R1 R2

dReq dR1 dR2

 2
 
Req R12 R22

dReq Req dR1 Req dR2

 
Req R1 R1 R2 R2

4Rx dR = R  d
x  2R 
4R  x 2R 2R
eq    2
 4Rx + x2 = 8R2 + 2Rx + 4Rx 3R 6R
 x2 – 2Rx – 8R2 =0 2 2 4
eq   
2R  4R  32R 2 2 3 3 3
 x
2 25. Answer (1)
 x = 4R No current will pass through the grounded
21. Answer (4) resistor. Hence reading of ammeter will be zero.
In electric cell, the charge is transported by both 26. Answer (3)
the positive and negative ions.
At steady state, no current flows through the
22. Answer (4) capacitive arm
2202  Q  (10  5)  0.4  2 C
100 
R
27. Answer (4)
2
200
P1  4
i Rdt  H  H   25t 2  2dt
2
R 2

 P1 = 82.6 W 4
t3
H  50  933.33 J
 Total power = 2 × 82.6 = 165.2 W 3 2

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
28. Answer (3) 37. Answer (3)
Simplified circuit diagram : Let current through 12  resistor be x

1
12x  1 6  x  A
2
 1
Remaining current i.e. 2   1   flows through
 2
 82   64  1
R    R= A
82 6 4 2
R4  1
Now,  R  1 6  R  12 
2
29. Answer (4)
38. Answer (2)
iincoming = ioutgoing
12 = 4 + i  i = 8 A V2 1
P R
R P
30. Answer (3)
R1 P2 100
5E 5 4 20  
i    5A R2 P1 25
5r  R 5  0.4  2 2  2
31. Answer (4) R1 4
 
The negative terminal of battery is connected to R2 1
point A and thus no null point will be obtained. 39. Answer (1)
32. Answer (1)
Ei / ri 0 / 2  15 / 3 10
Terminal potential difference across cell while E    12 V
 1/ ri 1/ 2  1/ 3 5/6
charging.
23 6
V = E+ iR req   
23 5
So, graph will be a straight line.
12 12 12  5 30
33. Answer (3) i    A
6
If current through B1 is i, then current through B3  4 26 / 5 26 13
5
and B2 will be i/2.
40. Answer (2)
 B2 = B3 < B1
Relaxation time of electrons in conductors
34. Answer (4) decreases with increase in temperature.
Given circuit is like a balanced wheatstone 41. Answer (1)
bridge.
J  v
 VA  VB
42. Answer (1)
35. Answer (1)
(l1  l 2 ) 1l1 2l 2
l l   
R   l 2  Parabola A A A
A (V / l ) V
1  2
SECTION-B  1 2

1 2
36. Answer (4)
43. Answer (4)
4
Current through 2  resistor =  1A Internal resistance of cell is
4
VP – 2(1) + 10 = VQ l l  76  72
r   1 2 R   9  0.5 
QQ – VP = 8 V  l  72
 2 

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Test-2_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
44. Answer (2) Now, terminal potential difference across the cell
Maximum power will be delivered when external E nE
resistor = 0.6  V  E  ir  E  
n 1 n 1
2
 4  49. Answer (1)
Power     0.6  6.67 W
 1.2  Let equivalent resistance of the circuit between
45. Answer (1) points A and B is x.
3
Ig   1mA
50  2950
2
Now, I  Ig
3
2 3
So, 
3 50  R
R = 4450 
x(1)
46. Answer (4) 1 x
x 1
Let x be then potential of junction point
 x  x  1  x2  x
0  x 20  x 10  x 200
  0x 
5 4 2 19  x2  x  1  0
x 40
 i
 A 1 1 4 1 5
5 19  x =
2 2
47. Answer (2)
50. Answer (4)
v

E At any temperature, for series combination
as v  E R = R1 + R2
E 0
2R0 (1  T )  R0 (1  1T )  R0 (1  2T )
48. Answer (4) On solving
E 1  2
i 
( n  1)r 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 53. Answer (1)

51. Answer (2)
+ H+

O O O

(Resonance stabilised)

CH3OH
 H
O O
–H
 CH3
52. Answer (1)
Attack of Br will be most favoured on the site
where +M effect of both –OH group operates and
O OCH3
steric hindrance for the electrophilic attack is
(A)
least.

(6)
Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
54. Answer (3) 61. Answer (2)
– +
O OMgI CH2OH
(1)
C2H5MgI + CH3 – C – CH3 H3C – C – CH3
C2H5 OH

OH (2) CH3 – CH – CH 2 – CH 3
(±)-Butan-2-ol (100%)
+
H2O/H OH
CH3 – C – CH3 + Mg CH2OH
I
C2H5 (3)
3° Alcohol

55. Answer (2) (4) CH3CH2OH

62. Answer (1)

CH3
56. Answer (2) H
NO2 NO2

NO2 Br + NaOCH3 NO2 OCH3 + NaBr

OH
NO2 NO2 H
trans-2-methylcyclopentanol
(85%)
NO2 NO2
63. Answer (2)
ONa + BrCH3 OCH3 + NaBr

57. Answer (4)

When electron withdrawing group present at
ortho or para position then acidic strength
increases due to –R effect. Because of hydrogen
bonding acidic strength of ortho-nitrophenol
decreases slightly.
58. Answer (3)
Those alcohol which give stable product after
dehydration, can be dehydrated most easily in 64. Answer (3)
acidic medium. CH3
59. Answer (2) CH3 – C – O K + H3C – Br 
– +

The correct name of the compound is 2-chloro-3- CH3

methylpent-2-en-3-ol.
CH3
60. Answer (4)
H3C – C – O – CH3
A is propan-2-ol
CH3
B is propan-1-ol t-Butylmethylether

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Test-2_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
65. Answer (2) 71. Answer (2)
The ease of dehydration is decided by the
stability of carbonium ion and the product form.

most stable carbocation due to + R effect of –OH

group.
66. Answer (4)
Elimination reaction occurs in the presence of
conc. H2SO4 and only one double bonded
species will formed.
67. Answer (2)
The reaction in which an electron rich nucleophile
attacks a positively charged electrophile to
replace a learning group is called Nucleophilic
substitution reaction.

   
C2H5 – Br + NaOH  C2H5OH  NaBr
68. Answer (3) 72. Answer (2)
When functional group (–OH) remains attached to Phenolic hydrogen is easily abstracted by
primary carbon then it is called as primary
aqueous alkali and phenoxide ion is formed.
alcohol.
OH
(1)  Pentan-1-ol O

NaOH
OH
(2) 2-methylbutan-1-ol OH

PH — CH2 — Br
(3)  3-methylbutan-1-ol
O Ph
(4)  2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol
OH
69. Answer (1)
3° alcohols are more reactive with HI. 73. Answer (3)
70. Answer (4)
OCH3 HO — CH3 OH
Stronger is the acidic strength faster will be the
reaction. H I
+ CH3I
OH OK SN2

74. Answer (4)

+ KOH + H2O
Ethers do not react with Na to give H2 gas.

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
75. Answer (2) 84. Answer (1)
OH
CH3 CH2 NaOI CHI3 + HCOONa
yellow
ppt

76. Answer (2)

Methoxymethane is an ether therefore it has
lower boiling point than ethanol.
77. Answer (4)

85. Answer (1)

78. Answer (4)
Esterification reaction
C6H12O6 
Zymase
 C2H5OH  2CO2
(Glucose)

79. Answer (3)

Boiling Point : SECTION-B

86. Answer (1)

CO2 is the electrophile in the given reaction.

80. Answer (2)
87. Answer (1)

The reaction proceeds by SN1 mechanism.

81. Answer (4)

88. Answer (2)

Oxidation of 1, 4-Dihydroxy benzene.

89. Answer (1)

82. Answer (3)
OH (a)
COOH
NaOH
C6H5OH + CCl4

83. Answer (2)

Lesser is the electron density on the ring, greater (b)
is the bond order of C–O bond and shorter is the
bond length of C–O bond of phenol.
 B and D are functional isomers of each other.
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Test-2_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
90. Answer (4) 2-Ethoxy-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
96. Answer (4)

Solubility of ethers in water decreases with

increase in molar mass.

91. Answer (4) 97. Answer (3)

1°-alcohol gives red colour in Victor Meyer test. When phenol reacts with FeCl3 gives purple
92. Answer (4) colour.

98. Answer (2)

CrO –H SO
CH3 (CH2 )8CH2OH 3 2
Jones reagent
4
CH3 (CH2 )8COOH
1-Decanol Decanoic acid

99. Answer (3)

93. Answer (4)

More is the stability of carbocation more will be
the reactivity of alcohol towards Lucas reagent.
 Correct order of reactivity of alcohol towards
Lucas reagent is
(CH3)3COH > (CH3)2CHOH > CH3CH2OH >
CH3OH
94. Answer (1)
Reactivity of alcohols towards esterification on
100. Answer (2)
the basis of steric hindrance is 1º > 2º > 3º.
95. Answer (2)

BOTANY

SECTION-A 102. Answer (3)

101. Answer (3) Sickle cell anaemia occurs due to altered amino
Down’s syndrome is an example of non- acid at 6th position of -chain of globin protein.

disjunction. It is failure of two homologous It occurs by point mutation i.e., transversion of A

chromosomes to pass to separate cells during by T in DNA which replaces amino acid glutamic
acid by valine.
first meiotic division, or of the two chromatids of a
chromosome to pass to separate cells during 103. Answer (3)

mitosis or during the second meiotic division.
Non disjunction results in an embryo with three
copies of particular chromosome instead of usual
two.
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A male individual affected with Klinefelter’s
syndrome are sterile with overall masculine
development and some female characteristics
(e.g. Feminine pitched voice, development of
breast or gynaecomastia).
Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
104. Answer (2) 114. Answer (2)
Genotype of woman = XX By the cross between AbBbccDd and AAbbCcDD
Genotype of man = X CX the probability of
1
Aa 
2
1
bb 
2
1
Cc 
2
105. Answer (3)
1
X-rays is a physical mutagen Dd 
2
106. Answer (4)
1 1 1 1
Mendel experimented on garden pea for seven  Percentage of AabbCcDd      100
2 2 2 2
years.
100
107. Answer (1)   6.25
16
Drosophila – Males are heterogametic.
115. Answer (1)
Birds and moths – Females are heterogametic.
Morgan proposed term linkage and
108. Answer (2) recombination.
Chromosome complement of an individual 116. Answer (2)
inflicted with Klinefelter’s syndrome is 44 + XXY.
A classical example of point mutation is sickle cell
109. Answer (1) anaemia.
R. C. Punnett proposed Punnett square. 117. Answer (4)
110. Answer (3) Four different phenotypes are possible in F2
Male genotype = AA + XO generation of a typical Mendelian dihybrid cross.
Female Male 118. Answer (3)
Loss or gain of segment of DNA or chromosome
results in alteration in chromosomes. This results
AA + XX AA + XO
in chromosomal aberration.
119. Answer (3)
A+ X A+ X A+ X A+ O
Myotonic dystrophy is a dominant autosomal.
Male progeny = AA + XO
120. Answer (4)
Female progeny = AA + XX
Terminal flower position is a recessive trait in pea
111. Answer (4)
plant.
Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive disorder.
121. Answer (4)
While crisscross inheritance is shown by X-linked
recessive disorder. Pea plants show self-pollination in nature.

112. Answer (4) 122. Answer (2)

Intermediate phenotypes are frequent in All unaffected individuals in generation Q are

polygenic inheritance.
113. Answer (3)
Trisomy is a type of aneuploidy in which a
particular chromosome is three in number.
Triple fusion results triploid condition
endosperm in angiosperm plants.
heterozygous for the trait and are carriers of trait.
123. Answer (2)
Number of heterozygous locus (n) = 2
Types of gametes = 2n = 22 = 4
of 124. Answer (1)
Term “X-body” was given by Henking.

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Test-2_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
125. Answer (4) 135. Answer (3)
Chromosome compliment in Turner’s syndrome The inheritance pattern in given pedigree exhibits
is 44 + XO. autosomal recessive trait.
126. Answer (2) SECTION-B
Short life cycle and smaller number of 136. Answer (2)
morphologically distinct chromosomes in In pea plant, green seed colour is a recessive
Drosophila are suitable characters for trait
experimental genetics. Dominant traits are :
127. Answer (3) Green pod colour.
Honey bee males are haploid and fertile. Full pod shape.
128. Answer (3) Yellow seed colour.
Gene controlling starch synthesis in pea shows 137. Answer (3)
(1) Pleiotropy. Initially Mendel took 34 varieties of pea plants
(2) Incomplete dominance (Bb form then 22 but ultimately worked with only 7 pairs of
intermediate size starch grains). varieties or 14 true breeding pea plants.

(3) Complete dominance (Bb, seed shape is 138. Answer (2)

round). RRYy, rrYy, RrYY and Rryy plants are
homozygous for only one trait. They are produced
129. Answer (4)
in 2 : 2 : 2 : 2 ratio so their proportion among F 2
Tt x tt is a test cross
8 1
130. Answer (3) population is = 
16 2
Alleles of a gene will always be situated on
139. Answer (4)
homologous sites of homologous chromosomes.
If the modified allele produces non-functional
131. Answer (2) enzyme or no enzyme at all, it will be not
equivalent to unmodified allele.
140. Answer (3)
Pleiotropy can be observed in different
organisms.
141. Answer (3)
Phenotype of hybrid in incomplete dominance is
intermediate of the parents.
142. Answer (3)
1
Probability of getting AB blood group = AB blood group in humans is a good example of
4
codominance.
132. Answer (4)
143. Answer (3)
Klinefelter’s male show gynecomastia. Since one parent in all given options is aabb
133. Answer (2) (test cross). Thus types of gamete will depend
Genes responsible for eye colour and body only on 2nd parent.
colour are linked genes and are present on X-
chromosome.
134. Answer (3)

In butterfly, sex determination is . AaBB × aabb

zz – zo
In grasshopper, sex determination is . 2 types of
gametes

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
144. Answer (2) 148. Answer (3)
Violet flower colour is a dominant trait. Mendelian dihybrid test cross gives 1:1:1:1 as
phenotypic as well as genotypic ratio.
145. Answer (1)
149. Answer (2)
Sutton and Boveri found that there is a striking
relationship between Mendelian factors and the F2 phenotypic ratio in incomplete dominance is
chromosomes. 1:2:1
146. Answer (1) (Red : Pink : White)
Mendelian dihybrid phenotypic ratio is Parents: RR (red) × rr (white)

9 1
9 : 3 : 3 : 1, out of which is parental
16 F1 Rr – Pink (selfing)
 10  33
proportion   and is recombinant
 16  16 RR Rr Rr rr
F2 (Red, 25%) (Pink, 50%) (White, 25%)
 6 
proportion  .
 16  150. Answer (1)

147. Answer (2) Alleles are two contrasting forms of a gene.

Genotypic as well as phenotypic ratio is 1:1 for A pleiotropic gene may affect more than one
F1 generation. phenotypes.

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 157. Answer (2)
151. Answer (3) Genetic defects and biochemical defects are
diagnosed by amniocentesis.
Saheli checks implantation.
158. Answer (3)
152. Answer (3)
In menstrual cycle, chances of fertilisation are
Male infertility due to low sperm count can be higher from day (10-17) in a fertile female. The
overcome by AI. absence of copulation during this period is known
as periodic abstinence/rhythm method/calendar
153. Answer (2)
method.
MTP is safe up to first trimester of pregnancy.
159. Answer (4)
154. Answer (3) Higher concentration of estrogen and
Vasectomy is most effective method of progesterone during luteal phase give negative
contraception because male gametes are not feedback to hypothalamus, thereby inhibiting the
release of GnRH from hypothalamus and LH,
part of the ejaculate released into the female
FSH from pituitary
reproductive system. In vasectomy, vas deferens
is cut and the two ends are ligated. 160. Answer (3)
CuT, Cu7 and Multiload 375 are copper releasing
155. Answer (2)
IUDs.
In tubectomy fallopian tubes are cut and tied. 161. Answer (2)
156. Answer (2) Indian government legalised MTP in 1971.
Cu 7 and multiload 375 are IUDs which releases 162. Answer (1)
copper ions that increase phagocytosis of Embryo more than 8 blastomers are transferred
sperms. LNG-20 is also an example of medicated into uterus (IUT) and less than 8 blastomeres are
IUD which releases progesterone. transferred into fallopian tube (ZIFT).

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Test-2_Code-A_Answers & Solutions Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed)
163. Answer (4) 175. Answer (4)
Oral pills inhibit ovulation and implantation. ‘X’-GIFT
164. Answer (3) ‘Y’ - in vivo
Trichomoniasis is caused by protozoa 176. Answer (3)
Trichomonas vaginalis. Saheli is a non-steroidal preparation.
165. Answer (2) 177. Answer (4)
Increase in MMR can lead to decline in In-vitro fertilization is carried out in test tube baby
population size. programme.

166. Answer (3) 178. Answer (1)

During lactation, plasma concentration of Barrier method includes condoms, diaphragms,

prolactin increases which acts as GnRH inhibitor, vaults, cervical caps etc.
preventing follicular development and ovulation 179. Answer (3)
resulting into amenorrhoea, named lactational Progestogens alone or in combination with
amenorrhoea. estrogen can be used by females as injections or
167. Answer (2) implants under the skin.
180. Answer (4)
In IVF, zygote or embryo upto 8 celled stage are
transferred into fallopian tube. The formation of sperm is not affected by
vasectomy
168. Answer (2)
181. Answer (2)
Mifepristone is antagonistic to action of
The incidence of STls are reported to be very
progesterone.
high among persons of age group 15-24 years.
169. Answer (4)
182. Answer (3)
HIV, AIDS and genital herpes are
According to 2011 census report, the population
non-curable diseases in humans. growth rate in India was less than 2 per cent, i.e.,
170. Answer (4) 20/1000/year.
Syphilis –Treponema pallidum 183. Answer (1)
Genital warts – Human Papilloma Virus IUD is one of the most widely accepted method
of contraception in India
AIDS – Human Immunodeficiency Virus
184. Answer (4)
171. Answer (2)
Pills are very effective with lesser side effects
GIFT – Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer. and are well accepted by the females.
172. Answer (3) 185. Answer (4)
Concentration of prolactin hormone is high during Implants contains progestins as active ingredient.
lactation which inhibits GnRH. They inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as
173. Answer (2) alter the quality of cervical mucus to
prevent/retard the entry of sperms.
Syphilis is curable in primary stage and its
SECTION-B
chancres are painless.
186. Answer (2)
174. Answer (2)
Family planning programmes in India were
Steroidal oral contraceptive pills are consumed
initiated in 1951
for a period of 21 days starting preferably within
the first five days of menstrual cycle but 187. Answer (4)
nonsteroidal oral contraceptive pills like Saheli is For population growth, unprotected sexual co-
taken only once in a week. habitation is not promoted.

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Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-2_Code-A_Answers & Solutions
188. Answer (3) 195. Answer (4)
Natural methods of contraception work on the Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with
principle of avoiding chances of ovum and some strict conditions to avoid its misuse.
sperms meeting. 196. Answer (3)
189. Answer (4) Opinion of one registered medical practitioner is
Administration of progestogens or progestogen- required for MTP, if the pregnancy has lasted
estrogen combinations or IUDs within 72 hours of less than 12 weeks.
coitus have been found to effective as 197. Answer (1)
emergency contraceptives. Saheli is a non-steroidal pill and it does not inhibit
190. Answer (2) ovulation
Noreplant is an example of implant. 198. Answer (2)
191. Answer (3) Day of ovulation = Number of menstrual days –
14
Haemophilia, cholera and malaria are not
sexually transmitted diseases. = 40 – 14
192. Answer (4) = 26
RCH – Reproductive and child healthcare. Range of fertile period
193. Answer (2) = 26 + 3 = 29

Condoms are not reusable. Condoms are made = 26 – 4 = 22

up of thin rubber/latex sheath that are used to 22nd to 29th days
cover the penis in the males and vagina in the 199. Answer (2)
females.
GIFT – Gametic intra fallopian transfer
194. Answer (4)
Al – Artificial insemination
The hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus
200. Answer (4)
unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile
to the sperms. Nirodh is a popular brand for male condom.

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