22/03/2023 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2023

MM : 720 PST-2 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Answers
1. (2) 41. (1) 81. (3) 121. (3) 161. (3)
2. (3) 42. (1) 82. (3) 122. (1) 162. (3)
3. (1) 43. (2) 83. (4) 123. (4) 163. (3)
4. (4) 44. (1) 84. (4) 124. (2) 164. (3)
5. (4) 45. (2) 85. (4) 125. (3) 165. (1)
6. (4) 46. (1) 86. (2) 126. (3) 166. (2)
7. (4) 47. (2) 87. (2) 127. (3) 167. (2)
8. (2) 48. (1) 88. (2) 128. (4) 168. (2)
9. (4) 49. (3) 89. (2) 129. (2) 169. (2)
10. (1) 50. (2) 90. (4) 130. (3) 170. (1)
11. (3) 51. (3) 91. (3) 131. (1) 171. (3)
12. (2) 52. (3) 92. (1) 132. (3) 172. (4)
13. (3) 53. (4) 93. (4) 133. (4) 173. (1)
14. (4) 54. (2) 94. (2) 134. (3) 174. (3)
15. (3) 55. (3) 95. (3) 135. (3) 175. (1)
16. (4) 56. (4) 96. (2) 136. (3) 176. (4)
17. (4) 57. (1) 97. (4) 137. (2) 177. (4)
18. (4) 58. (3) 98. (3) 138. (1) 178. (2)
19. (3) 59. (3) 99. (4) 139. (3) 179. (1)
20. (4) 60. (4) 100. (3) 140. (1) 180. (1)
21. (1) 61. (4) 101. (2) 141. (3) 181. (3)
22. (2) 62. (1) 102. (3) 142. (2) 182. (3)
23. (2) 63. (2) 103. (4) 143. (3) 183. (1)
24. (3) 64. (4) 104. (2) 144. (2) 184. (1)
25. (1) 65. (4) 105. (3) 145. (2) 185. (3)
26. (4) 66. (3) 106. (1) 146. (3) 186. (2)
27. (3) 67. (1) 107. (4) 147. (1) 187. (1)
28. (4) 68. (4) 108. (3) 148. (3) 188. (4)
29. (4) 69. (4) 109. (3) 149. (3) 189. (3)
30. (1) 70. (2) 110. (2) 150. (2) 190. (2)
31. (2) 71. (3) 111. (3) 151. (4) 191. (3)
32. (2) 72. (1) 112. (2) 152. (3) 192. (2)
33. (3) 73. (3) 113. (1) 153. (3) 193. (1)
34. (1) 74. (4) 114. (3) 154. (3) 194. (4)
35. (2) 75. (4) 115. (2) 155. (3) 195. (3)
36. (4) 76. (1) 116. (3) 156. (3) 196. (4)
37. (1) 77. (3) 117. (2) 157. (2) 197. (3)
38. (4) 78. (2) 118. (4) 158. (2) 198. (2)
39. (2) 79. (4) 119. (4) 159. (4) 199. (4)
40. (2) 80. (2) 120. (2) 160. (2) 200. (2)

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PST-2_(Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

22/03/2023 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2023

MM : 720 PST-2 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Answers & Solutions

PHYSICS
SECTION-A 7. Answer (4)
1. Answer (2) dI
We know, VA − L − IR − V = VB
UV ray treatment is used for disinfecting water in dt
purifiers.  VA − 10(−0.5) − 5(2) − 8 = VB
2. Answer (3) VA + 5 − 10 − 8 = VB
In a circuit the magnitude of displacement current VA − VB = 13 V
and conduction current are equal 8. Answer (2)
 Their ratio stands ‘1’. At North pole the angle of dip is 90°, it reduces to
0° on moving to equator.
3. Answer (1)
9. Answer (4)
We know, Relative magnetic permeability is never negative
although magnetic susceptibility can be negative
Impedance, Z = 402 + 302 = 50  (for example: diamagnetic)
Vrms 200 Note: r = 1 + Xm
Thus, Irms = = = 4A 10. Answer (1)
Z 50
We know,  = I A× B
4. Answer (4)
 = I AB sin 
Average power consumed in one cycle for a pure
inductive, capacitive or LC circuit is always zero. Here  = 0°

5. Answer (4)  = 0

Here, potential difference developed 11. Answer (3)

 0.4 
= V = (40)  
  

V = 16 V
6. Answer (4)
A suitable small resistance when connected in
We know, if the rod is rotated about centre ‘O’ then parallel to galvanometer allows more current to
A and B will become equipotential. pass through the setup and can be calibrated as
VA − VB = 0 an ammeter without being damaged by the large
value of current.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 PST-2_(Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions)

12. Answer (2) 18. Answer (4)

Potential difference across ‘C’ is zero
 Only capacitors 2C are in parallel.
Thus Cnet = 4C
13. Answer (3)
When switch is closed charge on capacitor = 10 C
We know, semi-conductors (like Si and Ge) have
covalent bonds which start breaking liberating
electron and hole pairs when their temperature
rises. Thus they have a negative value of thermal
coefficient of resistivity.
19. Answer (3)

 Charge flown through battery = 8 C 

E=
20 r
Work done by battery = qV = 8 × 10 = 80 J
2  9  109 
14. Answer (4) 36  10 4 =
4
 = 8 × 10–5 C/m
20. Answer (4)
 = P E
0    PE
21. Answer (1)
For Left Half of Hemi-sphere:-
C1V1 + V2C2
E  A = (−)ve (Angle b/w E and A : obtuse) Vc =
C1 + C2
For Right half of Hemi-sphere 20  400 + 10  100
=
E  A = (+)ve (Angle b/w E and A : Acute) 30

Thus  E  A = 0 800 + 100

=
3
15. Answer (3)
= 300 V
The modification in external electric field due to
22. Answer (2)
this charge may result in increase or decrease
depending on the nature of field and the charge −V
Ex =
brought. x
16. Answer (4) = –10ya
We know, when ‘q’ is kept at centre of semi-circle −V
Ey =
ABC then potential at points A, B and C are equal y
VP − VC = VP − VB = VP − VA = –10xa
Thus, WC = WB = WA (
E = −10a yi + x j )
17. Answer (4)
= −10a ( i + j )
We know,
V 100 23. Answer (2)
Current I = =
Rnet  1 1 
−1
El
200 +  + 
 300 600  E1 l1
=
E2 l 2
100
I= = 0.25 A
200 + 200 E1 60
=
 potential drop across 300  = (300) (0.25) 2 50

= 50 V 12
E1 =
5
Thus, error observed in measurement
= 60 V – 50 V = 10 V = 2.4 V

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PST-2_(Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

24. Answer (3) 0 I

B2 =
4r

B = B1 + B2

0I 0I
= +
4r 4r
28. Answer (4)
Displacement current arises due to time rate of
I1 + I2 = 3 A change of electric field or electric flux.
And I2 = 2I1 29. Answer (4)
 I1 = 1A and I2 = 2 A i = 0.2 × 0.5 × 0.5
VC – VA = 4 V …(i) f = 0.2 × 1.3 × 1.3
VC – VB = 6 V …(ii)  = 0.2 × [1.69 – 0.25]
(ii) – (i)  0.2[1.69 − 0.25]
= =
VA – VB = 2 V t 4
25. Answer (1) = 0.072 V
 = M B 30. Answer (1)

M = iˆ + jˆ 
Q=
R
B = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj + 4kˆ  = BA
iˆ ˆj kˆ = (101 – 100) × 10–4 × 5 × 10–2
= 1 1 0 = 5 × 10–6
3 4 4
5  10 −6
Q=
= iˆ ( 4 − 0 ) − jˆ ( 4 − 0 ) + kˆ ( 4 − 3 )
2
= 2.5 × 10–6 C
= 4iˆ − 4 ˆj + kˆ 31. Answer (2)
26. Answer (4)
 B  dl =  I 0 enl
Fm = q v  B( ) 1
= 4  10−7 
v =0 2

Fm = 0 = 2 × 10–7 Wb/m
32. Answer (2)
27. Answer (3)
V = VC2 + VR2

= ( 40)2 + (30)2
= 50
V
Z=
I
50
=
2
0 I
B1 =
4r = 25 

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 PST-2_(Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions)

33. Answer (3) 40. Answer (2)

VS NS A charged particle moves along a circular
=
VP NP trajectory only under the influence of magnetic
field. Presence of any external electric field will not
200 400
= let it move in a circular path.
VP 40
41. Answer (1)
VP = 20 V
34. Answer (1)  qE0 = kA
R [At extreme position restoring force equals the
cos =
Z force due to external electric field]
Resistance of good choke coil is nearly zero. qE0
35. Answer (2) Thus A =
k
The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is infinity.
42. Answer (1)
SECTION-B
Taking potential of various points in the modified
36. Answer (4)
circuit
Since, electrostatic force is conservative in nature,
therefore total work done (Sum of emf and
potential drop) across a closed loop is always
zero.
37. Answer (1)
0.4  1012
Here, speed of wave = = 2  108 m/s
0.2  10 4
E0
And, = speed of wave
B0
0 − ( −4)
E0 I1 = =1A
 2  108 = 4
4  10 −6
14 − 0
 E0 = 8  102 = 800 V/m I2 = =2A
7
38. Answer (4) Now, I1 + I3 = I2
X X
We know, Q-factor = L or C 1 + I3 = 2
R R
40 80  I3 = 1 A
In both circuit Q = = =4
10 20
43. Answer (2)
Q 4
 1 = =1
Q2 4
39. Answer (2)
For LC oscillator angular frequency is given by
1
0 =
LC
2 1
= , T = 2 LC
T LC

or T = 2 (100)(400  10− 6 )
Case I:
= 2 4  10−2
r<R
4  2
= =
10 5
seconds
 B  dl =  I
0 enc = 0[as no current is enclosed]

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PST-2_(Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

r R Q 1 1
 =   
 B  dl =  I 0 enc  0  3 8
B2r = 0I =
Q
0I 240
B=
2r 47. Answer (2)
44. Answer (1) Case-I : r < R
2
(Vrated ) Q
R= V =
P 40R
(120 )2 rR
=
60 Q
V =
120  120 40 r
=
60 48. Answer (1)
= 240 
2IA 2  36  104  4  10−4
V = IR F= = = 0.96 N
c 3  108
80
I= 49. Answer (3)
240
Ldi
1 =−
= A dt
3
45. Answer (2) 4
8 = L
GS 0.05
Reff =
G+S L = 0.05 × 2
100  5 = 0.1 H
=
10 + 5 50. Answer (2)
 4.8  i =
2i0
46. Answer (1)
half cycle

i0
irms =
2
i half cycle
=2 2:
irms

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 4 3
4 r
51. Answer (3) = 3
Let the number of atoms of Y = n a3
n
The number of atoms of X = 4
4 3
r
2
= 3  2a = 4r 

( )
n 3
X : Y = : n = 1: 2 2 2r
2
Formula of compound = XY2

52. Answer (3) =
3 2
Volume occupied by four
spheres in unit cell 53. Answer (4)
Packing fraction =
Total volume of the unit cell ⚫ Ice is hydrogen bonded molecular solid

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 PST-2_(Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions)

⚫ I2 is non-polar molecular solid 62. Answer (1)

⚫ ZnS is ionic solid Cell fluids is an example of sol.
⚫ SiO2 is an example of covalent solid 63. Answer (2)
54. Answer (2)
0.693
t1 =
Tf = i × Kf × m k
2
12  1000
= 1 1.86  0.693
60  200 Or, k =
t1
Tf = 1.86 2
Freezing point = –1.86°C
0.693
55. Answer (3) k= = 2.31 10−4 s−1
50  60
For ideal solution mixH = 0
64. Answer (4)
56. Answer (4)
Copper matte contains Cu2S and FeS.
Mass of ethanol = 46 × 5 = 230 g
65. Answer (4)
Mass of water = 1000 g
Sodium is very reactive metal hence it is extracted
Mass of solution = 1230 g
using electrolysis.
w 230
 w  % of ethanol =  100 66. Answer (3)
  1230
= 18.7% Cell constant (G*) = resistance × conductivity

57. Answer (1) = 125 × 1.5

5.79  100  60 = 187.5 m–1

Number of Faradays passed =
96500 G* = 1.875 cm–1
= 0.36 67. Answer (1)
Mass of silver deposited = 0.36 × 108
Copper sol is negatively charged sol hence it is
= 38.9 g most easily coagulated by cations having highest
58. Answer (3) charge.
Ions ° (S cm2 mol–1) 68. Answer (4)
OH– 199.1
Metal Refining processes
SO24− 160.0
Tin – Liquation
Br– 78.1
Cl– 76.3 Indium – Zone refining
59. Answer (3) Titanium – Vapour phase refining
A catalyst catalyses the forward as well as the
backward reactions to the same extent so that the Copper – Electrolytic refining
equilibrium state remains same but is reached
69. Answer (4)
earlier.
60. Answer (4) Compounds fH° (kJ mol–1)

Sucrose ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Invertase
⎯→Glucose + Fructose SbH3 145.1
AsH3 66.4
61. Answer (4)
PH3 13.4
Physisorption depends on the nature of gas. More
easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed readily. NH3 –46.1

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PST-2_(Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

70. Answer (2) 78. Answer (2)

(NH4)2SO4 + 2NaOH → 2NH3+ 2H2O + Na2SO4 Most common oxidation states of Ti and Cu
respectively are +4 and +2.
NH4Cl + NaNO2 → N2 + 2H2O + NaCl
79. Answer (4)
NH2CONH2 + 2H2O → (NH4)2CO3 
Element Enthalpy of atomisation (aH°)
2NH3 + H2O + CO2 (kJ mol–1)
2NH4Cl + Ca(OH)2 → 2NH3 + 2H2O + CaCl2
Fe 416
71. Answer (3)
Co 425
The catalyst used in the given reaction is Pt/Rh
gauge. Mn 281
72. Answer (1) V 515
Compound Formula Oxidation 80. Answer (2)
state of
phosphorous Crystal system Axial angles
Phosphinic acid H3PO2 +1 Tetragonal –  =  =  = 90°
Phosphonic acid H3PO3 +3 Trigonal –  =  =   90°
Pyrophosphoric acid H4P2O7 +5
Triclinic –       90°
Pyrophosphorous H4P2O5 +3
Monoclinic –  =  = 90°,   90°
acid
81. Answer (3)
73. Answer (3)
A mixture of chloroform and acetone forms a
4H3PO3 → 3H3PO4 + PH3
solution which shows negative deviation from
74. Answer (4) Raoult’s law. This is because chloroform molecule

( )
Manganate ion MnO24− is green in colour and is
is able to form hydrogen bond with acetone
molecule. This decreases the escaping tendency
paramagnetic due to one unpaired electron. of molecules for each component and
consequently vapour pressure decreases
75. Answer (4)
resulting in negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
Cr2O72− + 14H+ + 6Fe2+ → 2Cr3+ + 6Fe3+ + 7H2O

6 moles of Fe2+ reacts with 1 mole of Cr2O72−

3 moles of Fe2+ reacts with

82. Answer (3)
1 1
 3 = mole of Cr2O72−
→Na+ (aq) + Cl− (aq)
H O
6 2 NaCl(aq) ⎯⎯⎯
2

76. Answer (1) 1

Cathode : H2O( ) + e− → H2 (g) + OH− (aq)
⚫ With increasing atomic number, the effective 2
nuclear charge increases hence basicity of
1
metal hydroxide decreases. Anode : Cl− (aq) → Cl2 (g) + e−
2
 Correct order of basic strength.
Net reaction:
Ce(OH)3 > Pm(OH)3 > Er(OH)3
1
77. Answer (3) NaCl(aq) + H2O( ) → Na+ (aq) + OH− (aq) +
2
The metal ions which contain d electrons show 1
colour in aqueous medium due to d-d transition. H2 (g) + Cl2 (g)
2

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023 PST-2_(Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions)

83. Answer (4) 91. Answer (3)

Integrated rate equation for first order reaction is I2 + 6H2O + 5Cl2 → 2HIO3 + 10HCl
ln[R] = – kt + ln[R]0 92. Answer (1)
XeF6 + H2O → XeOF4 + 2HF
XeF6 + 2H2O → XeO2F2 + 4HF
XeF6 + 3H2O → XeO3 + 6HF
93. Answer (4)
84. Answer (4) Metal E 3 + (in volt)
M /M2 +
Critical micelle concentration for soaps is
Co +1.97
10–4 to 10–3 M.
Fe +0.77
85. Answer (4)
Mn +1.57
E 2+ is positive hence copper cannot reduce
Cu /Cu Cr –0.41
H+ to H2 gas. 94. Answer (2)
SECTION-B Ion hydH° (kJ mol–1)
86. Answer (2) Zn2+ –2059
The Leclanche cell consists of Zinc container as Cu2+ –2121
anode and cathode is a carbon (Graphite) rod Fe2+ –1998
surrounded by powdered manganese dioxide and
V2+ –1895
carbon.
95. Answer (3)
87. Answer (2)
(100 × 5 + 400 × 1) = 500 × M1
For nth order reaction the unit of rate constant
1−n 900
 mol  = M1
=  s −1 500
 L 
Molarity (M1) = 1.8 M
For 2nd order reaction,
96. Answer (2)
1− 2
 mol  −1
Unit of rate constant (k) =   s Ecell = ER − EL
 L 
= mol–1 L s–1 Ecell = E − E
Cu2+ /Cu Al3+ /Al

88. Answer (2) = 0.34 + 1.66

NO3− + 3Fe 2+ +
+ 4H → NO + 3Fe 3+
+ 2H2O Ecell = 2.0 V

[Fe(H2O)6 ]2+ + NO → [Fe(H2O)5 (NO)]2+ + H2O G = −nFEcell

Brown
G = −6  96500  2
89. Answer (2)
Compound Melting point (K) G = −1158 kJ mol−1

H2O 273 97. Answer (4)

H2S 188 The reaction is of zero order since unit of rate
constant is mol L–1 s–1
H2Se 208
[R]0
H2Te 222 t1 =
2
2k
90. Answer (4)
2.4
SO2 (g) + Cl2 (g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Charcoal
SO2Cl2 ( ) t1 = = 750 s
Sulphuryl chloride 2
2  1.6  10 −3

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PST-2_(Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

98. Answer (3) 100. Answer (3)

 = CRT
Compounds Physical appearance
13.68  1000  0.082  300
= and chemical nature
342  500
 = 1.97 atm N2O5 Colourless solid, acidic
99. Answer (4)
Ores Composition N2O4 Colourless solid, acidic
Siderite FeCO3
N2O3 Blue solid, acidic
Zincite ZnO
Malachite CuCO3Cu(OH)2 N2O Colourless gas, neutral
Copper glance Cu2S

BOTANY

SECTION-A 109. Answer (3)

101. Answer (2) Fruits which develop from ovary are true fruits.
Under unfavourable conditions, the Amoeba Residual persistent nucellus in seed is perisperm.
withdraws its pseudopodia and secretes a three Ex-albuminous seeds have no residual
layered hard covering or cyst around itself. This endosperm. Parthenocarpic fruits develop without
phenomenon is called encystation. fertilization
102. Answer (3) 110. Answer (2)
Majority of pteridophytes produce heterogametes Parthenium came into India as a contaminant with
which are transferred for fertilisation with the help imported wheat, has become ubiquitous in
of water.
occurrence and causes pollen allergy.
103. Answer (4)
111. Answer (3)
Plant having unisexual flowers on two different
Innermost anther wall layer is tapetum which is
plant bodies is dioecious.
nutritive in nature.
Cycas, papaya and Marchantia are dioecious.
112. Answer (2)
104. Answer (2)
Pollen grains represent the male gametophyte in
Both autogamy and geitonogamy can be
prevented in dioecious plants. angiosperms.

105. Answer (3) 113. Answer (1)

Presence of single ovule in each ovary is a
characteristic feature of wind pollinated plants.
106. Answer (1)
Some flowering plants such as Viola, Oxalis and
Commelina produce two types of flowers, i.e.
chasmogamous and cleistogamous.
107. Answer (4)
Water hyacinth and Zostera are pollinated by
insects and water respectively.
108. Answer (3)
Vegetative cell of pollen grain is bigger, has
abundant food reserve and a large irregularly
shaped nucleus.
The hard outer layer of pollen grains is exine which
is made up at sporopollenin.
Bees are the dominant pollinating agents among
insects.
114. Answer (3)
Mendel selected 4 true breeding pea varieties to
study the characters of seed i.e.
Seed colour – Yellow seed, green seed
Seed shape – Round seed, wrinkled seed
115. Answer (2)
Experimental verification of Chromosomal Theory
of Inheritance was done by T.H. Morgan.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2023
116. Answer (3)
Skin colour in humans is an example of polygenic
inheritance.
117. Answer (2)
X-linked recessive disorders like haemophilia are
inherited only by sons from a carrier female.
118. Answer (4)
ABO blood grouping is an example of multiple
allelism and co-dominance, when IA and IB are
present together, they both express their own
types of sugars (as antigen on plasma membrane
of RBC), this is because of co-dominance.
119. Answer (4)
Tightly linked alleles on the same chromosome do
not assort independently.
120. Answer (2)
The inheritance of flower colour in the snapdragon
is an example of incomplete dominance.
Red – RR
Pink – Rr
White – rr
121. Answer (3)
The given pedigree represents inheritance of
autosomal recessive disorder.
122. Answer (1)
Test cross is used to determine the genotype of an
organism with dominant phenotype.
123. Answer (4)
All the three alleles of gene I controlling blood
group will be observed in a population not in an
individual.
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PST-2_(Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions)
124. Answer (2)
Salient observations drawn from HGP included
that chromosome 1 has most genes (2968) and
the Y has the fewest (231).
125. Answer (3)
5S rRNA is transcribed by RNA polymerase III.
126. Answer (3)
Peptide bond is present in proteins.
127. Answer (3)
The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
material came from experiments of Hershey and
Chase.
128. Answer (4)
Capping of hnRNA occurs at 5 end of hnRNA.
129. Answer (2)
AUG has dual function. It acts as start codon as
well as it codes for methionine.
130. Answer (3)
Sigma () factor is involved in initiation of
transcription and Rho () factor is involved in
termination of transcription in prokaryotes.
131. Answer (1)
i gene codes for repressor protein.
z gene codes for -galactosidase.
a gene codes for transacetylase.
y gene codes for permease.
132. Answer (3)
Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the basis of
genetic mapping of human genome as well as
DNA fingerprinting.
133. Answer (4)
DNA being stable is preferred for storage of
genetic material. For the transmission of genetic
information, RNA is the better material.
134. Answer (3)
H1 histone associates with a nucleosome during
condensation of DNA into chromatin fibre.
135. Answer (3)
Unpaired – CCA sequence is present at 3 end of
tRNA, which is amino acid attachment site.
PST-2_(Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

SECTION-B 145. Answer (2)

136. Answer (3) Thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia both are
caused due to a problem in globin molecule
Carrot, wheat and rice are monocarpic plants while
synthesis but thalassemia differs from sickle cell
mango is a polycarpic plant.
anaemia as the former is a quantitative defect in
137. Answer (2) globin chain synthesis.
Water hyacinth is one of the most invasive weeds 146. Answer (3)
found growing in standing water.
Klinefelter’s syndrome, a genetic disorder is
138. Answer (1) caused due to the presence of an additional copy
Flower of Amorphophallus provides the pollinator, of X-chromosome resulting into a karyotype of 47,
a safe place to lay eggs. XXY (44 + XXY).

139. Answer (3) 147. Answer (1)

The sequence of nucleotides in the coding strand
Self incompatibility is a device to prevent self
of DNA is exactly similar to mRNA, the only
pollination or inbreeding.
difference is presence of thymine in place of uracil
140. Answer (1) in DNA. Thus, correct sequence of coding strand
Continued self pollination results in inbreeding will be
depression. 5 AACAGCGGTGCTATT 3
141. Answer (3) 148. Answer (3)
During apomixis, seeds are produced like sexual Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive trait in
reproduction. But these seeds are formed without which mutation occurs in the gene that codes for the
syngamy thus, apomixis is an asexual enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase and exhibit
reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction. multiple phenotypic expressions.
142. Answer (2) 149. Answer (3)
The central cell after triple fusion becomes the The discontinuously synthesized fragments called
primary endosperm cell (PEC) Okazaki fragments are later joined by the enzyme
DNA ligase.
143. Answer (3)
150. Answer (2)
ZW-ZZ method of sex determination is found in
birds whereas in butterflies, ZO-ZZ type of sex NHC protein – Packaging of chromatin
determination is seen.
Severo Ochoa – Nucleotide
144. Answer (2) enzyme polymerization
Colour blindness is a sex-linked recessive
H2A, H2B – Nucleosome
disorder. Affected person has defect in either red
or green cone of eyes, due to mutation in certain Topoisomerase – Removes supercoil
genes present in the X-chromosome.

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 153. Answer (3)
151. Answer (4) Cows are non-primates. They experience oestrus
Term ‘clone’ refers to morphologically similar and cycle.
genetically identical individuals. 154. Answer (3)
Parthenogenesis involves single parent. Amniotic fluid contains cells of foetus which are
152. Answer (3) sufficient enough to analyse the presence of
genetic disorders in foetus.
Butterfly survives for about 1-2 weeks.
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Intensive Program for NEET-2023
155. Answer (3)
Couples with small family size, aware of resource
constrains and population explosion concept are
indicative of reproductively healthy society.
156. Answer (3)
GIFT is a method of assisted reproductive
technologies.
157. Answer (2)
Barrier method includes diaphragms and condoms.
Injectable include DMPA. Surgical intervention
includes vasectomy and tubectomy.
158. Answer (2)
Saheli is weekly pill with very less side effects.
It was developed by CDRI.
159. Answer (4)
IUDs have to be used within 72 hours of
unprotected coitus as emergency contraceptive.
160. Answer (2)
45-50 million MTPs are performed every year in
1 These vaccines generate memory cells that
the world, which accounts for almost th of total
5
pregnancies conceived.
161. Answer (3)
Normal pregnancy is not classified
complication of STIs.
162. Answer (3)
In case of intracytoplasmic sperm injection,
in-vitro fertilization occurs in laboratory and not
inside the body of a female.
163. Answer (3)
Amniocentesis, if done for sex determination
leads to female foeticide.
Usually, abortions within 12 weeks are safe.
164. Answer (3)
Contraceptive devices are meant to prevent
pregnancy rather than being a cause of one.
165. Answer (1)
Pneumonia is the infection of alveoli of the lungs.
Malaria causes cycles of fever and chills. Plague
is a bacterial disease in humans.
166. Answer (2)
Plasmodium initially multiplies inside liver and
then attacks RBCs.
PST-2_(Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions)
167. Answer (2)
Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W. malayi), the
filarial worms cause a slowly developing chronic
inflammation of the organs in which they live for
many years, usually the lymphatic vessels of the
lower limbs and the disease is called elephantiasis
or filariasis.
168. Answer (2)
Gambusia is introduced into ponds to control
transmission of mosquito borne diseases as it
feeds on mosquito larva.
169. Answer (2)
Physiological barriers include acid in stomach,
saliva in mouth, tears from eyes.
Cellular barriers has certain WBCs, PMNLs etc.
interferons are included in cytokine barriers.
170. Answer (1)
The principle of immunisation or vaccination is
based on the property of ‘memory’ of the immune
system. In vaccination, a preparation of antigenic
proteins of pathogen or inactivated/weakened
pathogen (vaccine) are introduced into the body.
recognise pathogen quickly on subsequent
exposure of the first antigen.
171. Answer (3)
The antibody produced during allergic
as manifestation is mainly of IgE kind.
172. Answer (4)
Bone marrow and thymus are considered to be
primary lymphoid organs.
173. Answer (1)
AIDS, as the name suggests, it is acquired during
life time and not congenital and HIV is a retrovirus
that contains RNA genome.
174. Answer (3)
Tumor is undifferentiated mass of cells, formed by
proliferation of cancerous cells.
Metastasis is spread of cancerous cells.
175. Answer (1)
Receptors of opium are mainly present on gastro
intestinal tract and central nervous system.
176. Answer (4)
Cocaine or Crack is a stimulant. Marijuana and
charas are hallucinogens. Heroin is a depressant.
177. Answer (4)
Nicotine mainly stimulates the adrenal medulla to
release adrenaline and nor-adrenaline which
increases blood pressure and heart rate.
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PST-2_(Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2023

178. Answer (2) 189. Answer (3)

Cirrhosis is caused by chronic alcohol intake. Getting a over protected environment in early life
Coma might result from drug overdose. does not expose child to outer atmosphere and
after sometime when child grows up and goes
Rehabilitation program helps the individuals which
outside, it develops hypersensitivity to
are in quagmire of drug abuse. environment.
179. Answer (1) 190. Answer (2)
The animal is injected with FSH-like factors, X-rays and  rays are ionising radiations. Tobacco
resulting in superovulation, which are then and oncogenes are also responsible to cause
transferred after fertilization in embryonic stage to cancer.
surrogate mothers for herd improvement.
191. Answer (3)
180. Answer (1)
Coca alkaloid obtained from Erythroxylum coca,
Pisciculture refers to rearing of fishes. commonly known as coke or crack.
Apiculture refers to rearing of Apis sp. 192. Answer (2)
Poultry is concerned with hen, duck etc. Out-crossing is the practice of mating of animals
181. Answer (3) within the same breed but having no common
Gametogenesis and gamete-transfer are pre- ancestors on either side of their pedigree up to
fertilisation events. 4-6 generations.

182. Answer (3) 193. Answer (1)

Gestation period is similar to incubation period in
oviparous animal (hatching time).
183. Answer (1)
‘Hum Do, Humare Do’ slogan was introduced to
motivate families for abstaining from having more
than 2 children.
184. Answer (1)
Increase in maternal mortality will apply check on
increasing population keeping other factors
constant. Decrease in MMR contributes to
population increase.
185. Answer (3)
IUDs are emergency contraceptive method if used
within 72 hours of sexual act. Implants are placed
below the skin, have longer period of action than
OCP’s.
SECTION-B
186. Answer (2)
OCPs are to be taken orally after the gap of 7 days
(during which menses occurs) and continued for
next 21 days to avoid conception.
187. Answer (1)
Gametocyte is the sexual stage. The fertilization
takes place in mosquito’s gut. Sporozoites are
stored in salivary glands of female mosquito.
188. Answer (4)
Intraspecific hybridization refers to crossing the
different species having same genus.
Other three methods are cross-breeding, out-
breeding and out-crossing.
194. Answer (4)
Butterfly has 380 (2n) chromosomes in meiocyte.
Rat has 21(n) chromosomes in gametes.
Dog has 78(2n) chromosomes in meiocyte
195. Answer (3)
RCH refers to reproductive and child health care.
196. Answer (4)
Statutory ban on amniocentasis for sex
determination was to legally check increasing
menace of female foeticide.
197. Answer (3)
Elevated levels of prolactin in blood suppresses
the production of GnRH and FSH, consequently
no ovulation for atleast 6 months after parturition.
198. Answer (2)
Period between 12-18 years is called adolesence
period.
199. Answer (4)
Plasmodium enters human body as sporozoites.
Fungal colonies thrive in heat and moisture. Signal
molecules such as interferons are released in
response to viral attack.

Basophils secrete histamine and heparin and 200. Answer (2)

mediate allergic manifestations. Honey has high nutritive value.

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