AIATS 2C Sol

Test - 2 (Code-C)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
TEST - 2 (Code-C)
Test Date : 29/11/2020
ANSWERS
1. (4) 37. (4) 73. (1) 109. (1) 145. (3)
2. (2) 38. (3) 74. (4) 110. (3) 146. (2)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (2) 111. (1) 147. (1)
4. (3) 40. (1) 76. (2) 112. (1) 148. (1)
5. (4) 41. (2) 77. (4) 113. (2) 149. (4)
6. (1) 42. (4) 78. (1) 114. (2) 150. (1)
7. (1) 43. (3) 79. (2) 115. (1) 151. (4)
8. (2) 44. (1) 80. (2) 116. (1) 152. (2)
9. (1) 45. (4) 81. (4) 117. (1) 153. (3)
10. (3) 46. (2) 82. (2) 118. (3) 154. (1)
11. (2) 47. (3) 83. (3) 119. (2) 155. (3)
12. (2) 48. (4) 84. (3) 120. (1) 156. (3)
13. (1) 49. (4) 85. (2) 121. (3) 157. (1)
14. (2) 50. (4) 86. (3) 122. (1) 158. (1)
15. (4) 51. (2) 87. (4) 123. (2) 159. (1)
16. (1) 52. (4) 88. (3) 124. (4) 160. (4)
17. (3) 53. (1) 89. (4) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (1) 54. (3) 90. (3) 126. (1) 162. (3)
19. (3) 55. (1) 91. (4) 127. (1) 163. (1)
20. (3) 56. (3) 92. (4) 128. (1) 164. (3)
21. (4) 57. (2) 93. (4) 129. (3) 165. (2)
22. (4) 58. (4) 94. (2) 130. (4) 166. (3)
23. (2) 59. (2) 95. (3) 131. (1) 167. (1)
24. (1) 60. (4) 96. (3) 132. (3) 168. (2)
25. (1) 61. (1) 97. (1) 133. (1) 169. (3)
26. (3) 62. (4) 98. (1) 134. (4) 170. (4)
27. (2) 63. (4) 99. (1) 135. (4) 171. (1)
28. (3) 64. (3) 100. (2) 136. (3) 172. (2)
29. (3) 65. (4) 101. (2) 137. (1) 173. (4)
30. (1) 66. (3) 102. (4) 138. (3) 174. (3)
31. (4) 67. (4) 103. (3) 139. (3) 175. (2)
32. (1) 68. (3) 104. (4) 140. (1) 176. (2)
33. (2) 69. (1) 105. (4) 141. (2) 177. (4)
34. (3) 70. (3) 106. (1) 142. (4) 178. (1)
35. (4) 71. (4) 107. (1) 143. (2) 179. (2)
36. (2) 72. (4) 108. (2) 144. (4) 180. (2)
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1/15
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test - 2 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (4) 2 1
Sol. : tan θ= 2 ⇒ sin θ= and cos θ=
Hint =
: v v x2 + v y2 5 5
2 2
2u sin θ cos θ 4v
dx dy Now
= Range R =
Sol. : v=
x = 5 – 6t and v=
y = 5 g 5g
dt dt
8. Answer (2)
at t = 1 s, =
v (–1)2 + 5=
2
26 m/s   
Hint : v A =
/B v A − vB
2. Answer (2)     
Sol. : v B = v A − v A/B =v A + v B/A
Hint : Rsum = A2 + B 2 + 2 AB cos θ
= (5iˆ + 12 ˆj ) + (3iˆ − 4 jˆ)
Rdifference = A2 + B 2 + 2 AB cos θ = (8iˆ + 8 jˆ) m/s
Sol. : A2+B2+2AB cosθ = A2 + B2 – 2ABcosθ 9. Answer (1)
4ABcosθ = 0,  A and B ≠ 0 Hint : Concepts of River swimmer problems
cosθ = 0 ⇒ θ = 90° 2w
Sol. : t1 =
3. Answer (2) u − v2
2
  
Hint : v rel
= v A − vB v → velocity of river
 u → velocity of swimmer in still water
Sol. : | v rel |= v 2 + v 2 − 2v 2 cos90°
w w 2uw
t2 = + = 2
=v 2 u + v u −v u −v2
4. Answer (3) 2w
   t3 = hence t12 = t2t3
Hint : ∆v = v f − u i u

Sol. : =
∆v u cos θi − (u cos θi + u sin θj ) 10. Answer (3)
Hint : Umbrella should be in the direction of
−u sin θ j
=
velocity of rain with respect to boy

| ∆v=| u sin θ
Sol. :
5. Answer (4)
sin2θ
Hint : R = u 2
g
u2
Sol. : Rmax = π(Rmax )2
⇒ Area(max) =
g
πu 4
= v air 12
g2 tan
= θ =
vr 35
6. Answer (1)
Hint : Relative motion  12 
θ =tan−1  
Sol. : Relative acceleration of projectile is zero.  35 
Hence their relative velocity remains constant 11. Answer (2)
Srel = vrel t Hints and Sol. : In uniform circular motion velocity
7. Answer (1) and acceleration are perpendicular to each other.
12. Answer (2)
2u 2 sin θ cos θ 2.u 2 sin2 θ
Hint : R =
2H ⇒ =
g 2g Hint : a=
net ac2 + at2
2/15
Test - 2 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
v 2 3600 Time to reach the ground

Sol. : ac = ω2r = = =3 m/s2
R 1200 2 × 20
=t = 2 second
at = 4 m/s2 10
hence anet = 32 + 42 = 5 m/s2 x = 30 × 2 = 60 m
13. Answer (1) displacement=
d h2 + x 2
Hint : v = rω
= 400 + 3600 = 4000 m = 20 10 m
Sol. : v = rω = r. 2πf
= 0.44 × 12 = 5.3 cm/s 20. Answer (3)
14. Answer (2) Hint and Sol. : Car can not negotiate a circular
   turn, in the absence of sufficient centripetal force.
Hint : ∆ r = r f − r i
 21. Answer (4)
Sol. : ∆ r= r 2 + r 2 − 2r 2 cos(ωt ) 2π
Hint : angular speed ω =
 ωt  T
= 2r 2 [1 − cos(ω
= t) 2r 2 .2 sin2  
 2  ω1 T2 3600 × 12 12
Sol. : = = =
 ωt  ω2 T1 3600 1
= 2r sin  
 2 22. Answer (4)
15. Answer (4) 2π × 240
Hint and Sol. : Angular velocity is always directed Hint and Sol. : ω = 2πf =
60
perpendicular to the plane of the circular path
= 8π rad/s
16. Answer (1)
23. Answer (2)
Hint : v = rω
Sol. : T1 = T2 ⇒ ω1 = ω2 Hint and Sol. : a = ω2r
2
v1 r1ω1 R  2π × 1200  2
= = =   × 0.6= 1600 × 0.6 π
v 2 r2 ω2 r  60 
17. Answer (3) = 9600 ms–2

Hint and Sol. : Displacement velocity and 24. Answer (1)
acceleration changes continuously while speed Hint and Sol. : Both the bullets have zero initial
remains constant. velocity along vertical direction, hence they will hit
18. Answer (1) the ground simultaneously.
u 2 sin 2θ 25. Answer (1)
Hint : Range on ground =
g Hint and Sol. : Both bomb and aeroplane has
Sol. : For maximum range ⇒ θ = 45° same horizontal velocity at all times so bomb and
aeroplane will remain in same vertical line
u2
=
Rmax = 10 m 26. Answer (3)
g
Hint : For a man on ground coin has same
19. Answer (3) horizontal velocity as that of train
Hint : displacement = shortest distance between
Sol. :
initial and final point
Sol. :
Path of coin will be a parabola.
3/15
27. Answer (2) 33. Answer (2)

2
u sin 2θ Hint =
: v v x2 + v y2
Hint : Horizontal range R =
g
Sol. : at t = 2 second vx = ux
u 2 sin(2 × 15°) u 2 1
Sol. : =
R1 = = 1.5 km = 40 2 × 40 m/s
=
g 2g 2
u 2 sin(2 × 45°) u 2 1
=
R2 = = 3 km vy = uy – gt = 40 2 × – 10 × 2 =20 m/s
g g
2
28. Answer (3)
Hint and Sol. : At highest point on trajectory hence v = 402 + 202 = 20 5 ms –1
velocity is positive while slope is zero. 34. Answer (3)
29. Answer (3)    
Hint : V rel
= v a /= b va − vb
Hint and Sol. : Relative acceleration of bullet and      
target is zero. So velocity of bullet w.r.t target Sol. : = v s / r = v s − v r ⇒ v s = v s / r + v r
remains constant and Hence it will hit the target. 
30. Answer (1) v s = 62 + 82 = 10 ms –1
Hint : Addition of vectors
Sol. :
6
Displacement along (E – W) tan θ= = 37°
 8
S1 = 15 − 15 = 0 Now velocity of car relative to boat
Displacement along (N – S)
 vc /b = v c2 + v b2 − 2v cv b cos(127°)
S 2 = 15 − 8 = 7 km
So net displacement is 7 km South  −3 
= 121 + 100 − 2 × 11 × 10 ×  
 5
31. Answer (4)
u 2 sin 2θ = 353 ms –1
Hint : R =
g 35. Answer (4)
u2 Hint : Particle crosses x-axis if y = 0
Sol. : Maximum range, R1 =
g Sol. : y = 0
u 2 sin2 30 u 2 (3t2 – 6t) = 0 ⇒ t = 0 and t = 2s
at 15°, R
=2 = = 3 km 36. Answer (2)
g 2g
hence R1 = 6 km i.e shell can’t hit the target. Hint : Range is equal for complementary angles
32. Answer (1) h1 sin2 θ1 2g sin2 θ1
= × 2 2 = tan2 θ1
=
Hint : Equation of trajectory y = x h2 2g u sin (90 – θ1) cos2 θ1
gx 2 sec 2 θ
tan θ − h1 1
2u 2 But = ⇒ θ1= 30°
h2 3
Sol. : x = 8 m, θ = 37°, u = 20 m/s
u 2 sin 2θ u 2 sin 60° 3u 2
3 1 10 × 64 × 25 19 =R = =
h = y =8× − × = = 4.75m g g 2g
4 2 400 × 16 4
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37. Answer (4) r 2 4 2r

Sol. : =
Vavg =
2 πR v2 (T /4 )  2πr 
Hint and Sol. : v = 2at × ⇒ = ar = π × at  
2 R  v 
ar 2 2v
⇒ =
π =
at π
dy Hint : If ball doesn’t hit the inclined plane, It should
Hint : For y to be maximum =0 travel a vertical distance H and horizontal distance
dx
H
k 2 .
Sol. : y= x − x tan θ
a
2H
dy 2kx a Sol. : Time of flight t = , Horizotal range =
= 1– =0 ⇒ x = g
dx a 2k
2H
a a a v0
∴ y= − = g
2k 4k 4k
Minimum value of range so that it does not hit the
39. Answer (3)
H
Hint and Sol. : At maximum height vertical incline is
component of velocity is zero but acceleration is tan θ
‘g’. H 1 gH
⇒
= tan θ =
40. Answer (1) 2H v 0 2
v0
2 v2 g
Hint : Centripetal acceleration = ω r =
r 1 gH 
r θ =tan−1  
Sol. : ω2r = 4ω2r1 ⇒ r1 = v0 2 
4
44. Answer (1)
r v   
v1 =ω1r1 =ω2 = Hint : v r / m
= vr − vm
4 2
41. Answer (2)
Hint : at = αr ; ac = ω2r
Sol. :
Sol. :

| v r / m=| 25 − 9= 4 m/s
Now when man reverse its direction
  
v r / m= v r − v m

| v r / m | = 52 m/s
45. Answer (4)
When θ = 45° ⇒ ac = at 2π
Hint : Time period, T =
⇒ ω2 = α ω
⇒ α2 t2 = α , (u = 0) Sol. : at = rα = 20π
1 1 ⇒ α = 10π rad s–2 [r = 2 m]
=t = second
α 2 Now, ω = ω0 + αt ⇒ ω = 0 + 10π × (4)
42. Answer (4) ω = 40 π
displacement 2π 2π 1
∴T = = =
Hint : Average velocity, Vavg = ω 40π 20
time taken
T = 0.05 second
5/15
[CHEMISTRY]
Hint: For isoelectronic species ionic size depends Hint: If terminal atoms are different then bond
on effective nuclear charge. angles are different.
Solution: For isoelectronic species with increase Sol. In CH4, all the bond angles are same as all
in number of protons (Nuclear charge) Ionic size atoms surrounding carbon are same.
decreases. 56. Answer (3)
47. Answer (3) Hint: There is no lone pair on ‘Xe’ but there is two
lone pairs on each ‘O’ of XeO4.
Hint: In case of d-block elements, group number =
no. of electrons in [(n – 1)d subshell + ns subshell].
Sol.: E.C. represents that it is ‘d’ block element. So Sol. :
group no. = 6 (no. of e–s in 3d + 4s orbitals)
48. Answer (4)
Hint: On moving left to right in a period of p-block, No. of lone pairs of electrons = 8, in XeO4
negative electron gain enthalpy generally 57. Answer (2)
increases.
Hint: Dipole moment of non-polar molecules is
Sol.: ∆egH F > S > O > C zero.
49. Answer (4) Solution: PCl5 (µNet = 0) due to its symmetrical
Hint: Non metals with high electronegativity and geometry.
higher oxidation states form strongly acidic oxides. 58. Answer (4)
Sol.: Cl2O7 is most acidic among given oxides. But Hint: Species having unpaired electron is
Al2O3 is amphoteric in nature. paramagnetic in nature.
50. Answer (4) Sol.: P15 is [Ne]3s23p3
59. Answer (2)
Hint: Comparable sized atoms of highest effective
nuclear charge will require highest ionization Hint: Hybridization (i.e., No. of hybrid orbitals)
energy. = No. of σ bonds + No. of lone pairs.
51. Answer (2) Solution:
Hint: Electronegativity decreases with increasing
atomic/ionic size. NH2− :
Sol. Fluorine is most electronegative among given
species with electronegativity value of 4.0.
52. Answer (4)
Hint: In BeCl2, octet of Be is incomplete so it will
be electron deficient. CH4 :
53. Answer (1)

 1σ 1σ  60. Answer (4)
Hint: CO2 has two π-bonds  O= C= O 
 1π 1π  Hint: Species of bond order of zero, does not exist.
54. Answer (3) 2−2
Solution: Li22+ (4e – ) : σ1s2 σ*1s2 , =
B.O = 0.
Hint: Hydrogen bonding within a molecule is 2
known as intramolecular hydrogen bonding. 61. Answer (1)
1
Hint: Formal charge = V − L − S.
2
Solution: Formal charge of Nitrogen atom
Sol. :
8
=5–0–
2
= 5 – 4 = +1
6/15

Hint: Large size atoms form molecule of larger Hint: sp hybridization has highest % s character.
bond length (i.e., 50%)
Solution: H2 (H – H : 74 pm) , F2 (F – F : 144 pm) sp sp
Sol.: C2H2 ⇒ H – C ≡ C − H
Cl2(Cl – Cl : 199 pm) , Br2(Br – Br : 228 pm).
Hint: π bond is formed when the atomic orbitals Hint: Species containing two bond pairs and 3 lone
overlap parallel to each other and perpendicular to pairs has linear shape.
the internuclear axis.
Sol.:
Sol.: ICl2−
71. Answer (4)
64. Answer (3) Hint: O2− : σ1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ2 pz 2 , π2 px 2

Hint: Both I and Cl atoms involve in p–p π2 py2 , π*2 px2 =
= π*2 p1y
overlapping
65. Answer (4)
Hint: PH3 with H+ forms co-ordinate bond.
Solution: 72. Answer (4)
Hint : N2+ [13e–] ⇒ Bond order = 2.5
N2− [15e–] ⇒ Bond order = 2.5

73. Answer (1)
Hint: On increasing of size of cation, covalent
66. Answer (3) character decreases (Fajan’s rule)
Hint: Chlorine atom has one unpaired electron in Solution: Order of covalent character is
its ground state as E.C. is [Ne]3s23p5
BeO > MgO > CaO > SrO > BaO
74. Answer (4)
Sol. : In HClO3 chlorine forms 5 Hint: Hybridization (i.e. No. of hybrid orbitals) =
No. of σ bonds + no. of lone pairs.
covalent bonds, which is possible in second Sol.:
excited state.
67. Answer (4)
Hint: Orbitals involved in dsp2 hybridization are
d x2 − y2 , s, px and py.
68. Answer (3)

Hint: Due to the presence of lone pairs in
T-shaped BrF3, no bond angle is perfect 90°.
Sol.: 75. Answer (2)

Hint: Due to resonance –1 charge is distributed
equally at all four oxygen atoms.
7/15
81. Answer (4)

Solution: ClO−4 : Hint: In positive overlap similar sign lobes are
overlapped.
7
Bond order= = 1.75
4 Sol.:
76. Answer (2)
Hint: Sulphur atom has two unpaired electrons in
ground state. 82. Answer (2)
Hint: Antibonding molecular orbitals always have
Solution: SO3 : nodal planes.
Sol.:
77. Answer (4)
Hint: Generally a double bond has 1σ and 1π
bond.
Solution: 83. Answer (3)
Hint:
π2 px2 π*2px0
2
NO+ : σ1s 2 σ*1s 2 σ2s 2 σ*2s 2  2
σ 2 pz  0
π2 py π*2 py
Sol. : Lowest unoccupied orbital is π*2p
84. Answer (3)
Hint: Increase in number of hybrid orbitals result in
decrease of % s character of hybrid orbital.
Sol.: % s character in sp3d2 hybridization is
1
= × 100 = 16.67 %
6
78. Answer (1)
85. Answer (2)
Hint: Direction of dipole moment is towards more
electronegative atom. Hint: Dipole moment (µ) = q × d and % ionic
Solution: H2O(1.85D), NH3(1.47D), NF3(0.23D), µ
character = obs × 100 .
SiCl4(0D) µ theo
79. Answer (2)
Sol.: µobs = 1.3 × 10–18 esu-cm
Hint: I3−
contains 2bp and 3lp around centre atom µtheo = q × d
and has linear shape.
= 4.8 ×10–10 × 2.6 ×10–8 esu-cm
Solution: Lone pair has more % s character than
bond pairs. = 4.8 × 2.6 × 10–18 esu-cm
80. Answer (2) % Ionic character
Hint: More the number of unpaired electrons, more 1.3 × 10−18
will be the paramagnetic nature. = × 100 =
10.4%
4.8 × 2.6 × 10−18
Sol.: N2 : σ1s 2 , σ * 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ * 2s 2 , π2 px2 =
π2 py2 ,
86. Answer (3)
σ2 pz2 , π * 2 px =
π * 2 py , σ * 2 pz Hint: Geometry of sp3d2 hybridization is octahedral
which has 12(90°) and 3(180°) bond angles.
N2 : No of unpaired electron = 0
87. Answer (4)
N2− : No of unpaired electron = 1
Hint: If lone pair of an atom involved in back
N22− : No of unpaired electrons = 2 bonding then it is not a part of hybrid orbital
8/15
Sol.:
Sol.:

Hint: H2O (B.A = 104.5°), CH4 (B.A = 109.5°)
Hint:
Sol.: ψ1+ ψ2 ⇒ Bonding molecular orbital
89. Answer (4)
ψ1– ψ2 ⇒ Antibonding molecular orbital
Hint: PBr5 has axial and equatorial bond of
different length [Ni(CN)4]2– has dsp2 hybridization.
[BIOLOGY]
Hint : Systematics is taxonomy along with Hint : Linnaeus classified all living organisms into
phylogeny. two kingdoms – plantae and animalia.
Sol. : Taxonomy and systematics commonly Sol. : The criteria for classification used by him
include characterization, identification, includes, cell wall, locomotion, mode of nutrition,
nomenclature and classification of organism. response to external stimuli and contractile
Systematic includes evolutionary relationship vacuole.
among organisms also. Cell structure (either prokaryotic or eukaryotic) was
92. Answer (4) the basis of classification in R. H. Whittaker’s five
Hint : Category represents a rank in taxonomic kingdom classification.
hierarchy. 97. Answer (1)
Sol. : Specificity decreases when we go from Sol. : Five kingdom classification was proposed by
species to kingdom, i.e. the higher the category, R. H. Whittaker in 1969.
lesser will be the number of similar characteristics. 98. Answer (1)
Hence, numbers of similar characteristics at Hint : Bacteria are grouped under four categories
kingdom will be least as compared to other rank in on the basis of their shape : Cocci, Bacilli, Vibrio
hierarchy. and Spirilla.
93. Answer (4) Sol. : Spherical shaped bacterium is Coccus.
Hint : The scientific (botanical) name of brinjal is Rod shaped bacteria are called bacillus, Comma
Solanum melongena. shaped vibrium, Spiral shaped bacteria are called
Sol. : Solanum is genus (or generic name) while, spirillum
melongena is specific epithet (species). 99. Answer (1)
94. Answer (2) Sol. : All unicellular eukaryotic organisms were
Sol. : The rules of scientific naming of animals is placed in kingdom Protista.
assigned in ICZN (International Code for Zoological 100. Answer (2)
Nomenclature).
Hint : In bacteria when photosynthesis is
95. Answer (3) anoxygenic means there is no release of O2.
Hint : Some universal rules of nomenclature Sol. : H2S acts as electron donor in bacterial
framed under codes of ICZN, ICBN, etc are the photosynthesis.
rules of binomial nomenclature.
101. Answer (2)
Sol. : The scientific name is printed in italics or
Hint : Purple sulphur bacteria and green sulphur
underlined separately when handwritten to indicate
bacteria contain pigments bacteriochlorophyll,
their Latin origin w.r.t rules of binomial
bacteriopurpurin and bacterioviridin.
nomenclature.
9/15
Sol. : Nitrococcus is an example of chemosynthetic 109. Answer (1)

autotrophic bacteria while, Chlorobium is an Hint : Cyanobacteria occur in symbiotic
example of green sulphur bacteria. Rest of other association with almost every group of eukaryotes.
options are correctly matched.
Sol. : Anabaena cycadae is associated with
102. Answer (4) coralloid roots of Cycas.
Hint : Chitin is fungal cellulose. 110. Answer (3)
Sol. : Cell wall of fungal hyphae is made up of Sol. : Cyanobacteria are gram negative
chitin. photosynthetic prokaryotes. They are characterized
103. Answer (3) by the absence of flagellum throughout life cycle.
Hint : Bacteria exhibit a primitive form of sexual 111. Answer (1)
reproduction which differs from eukaryotic sexual Hint : Lichens are composite organisms.
reproduction.
Sol. : Lichens are symbiotic association of a fungal
Sol. : Sexual reproduction in bacteria takes place partner (mycobiont) and an algal partner
by genetic recombination. (phycobiont).
104. Answer (4) 112. Answer (1)
Hint : N2 - fixing bacteria maintain soil fertility and Hint : Some cyanobacteria serve as food to
can be employed as biofertilizer. several aquatic animals.
Sol. : Frankia is symbiotic N2 – fixing bacteria. Rest Sol. : Spirulina is edible, non-toxic, fast growing
of the other N2 – fixing bacteria in option are free cyanobacterium. It is cultivated in tanks as source
living. of protein rich animal food (SCP).
105. Answer (4) 113. Answer (2)
Sol. : Bacillus subtilis is employed in production of Sol. : (A) Aulosira – Fixes N2 non-symbiotically in
antibiotics (i.e. subtilin). rice fields.
Lactobacillus and Streptococcus lactis are used in (B) Mycoplasma – are called “Bacteria with
production of curd, cheese, yoghurt. their coats off” due to many similarities
106. Answer (1) with bacteria.
Sol. : Micrococcus candidans improves the flavour (C) Anabaena – Used for reclaiming usar
and taste in tea. soil.
107. Answer (1) 114. Answer (2)
Hint : Cell membrane of archaebacteria contains Hint : Protista forms a link between kingdom
branched chain lipids which decreases membrane monera and other three kingdom plantae, fungi and
fluidity. animalia.
Sol. : Methanogens are the archaebacteria which Sol. : Protistans are ancestors of all multicellular
are of marshy habitats and are capable of eukaryotes (plants, fungi and animals).
converting CO2, methanol and formic acid into 115. Answer (1)
methane.
Hint : Protists are photosynthetic as well as
108. Answer (2) heterotrophic.
Hint : The given diagram is of a filamentous blue Sol. : Diatoms, Euglena and Gymnodinium are
green algae called, Nostoc. photosynthetic protists.
Sol. : ‘A’ → Heterocyst, ‘B’ → Mucilaginous sheath. 116. Answer (1)
Heterocyst is a large, specialized cell in Nostoc in Sol. : In diatoms, the cell wall is made up of two
which N2 – fixation occurs under anaerobic halves; one half covering the other (epitheca over
condition. It also lacks PS – II activities. hypotheca) resembling a ‘soap box’.
10/15
117. Answer (1) 126. Answer (1)

Hint : Dinoflagellates proliferate in large number in Hint : Mycelium of fungus can be septate as well
sea. as aseptate.
Sol. : Gonyaulax; a dinoflagellate causes red tide Sol. : Aseptate or coenocytic mycelium is seen in
of the sea. phycomycetes.
118. Answer (3) 127. Answer (1)
Hint : By taking example of slime mould, now it
Hint : Zoospore (planospores), sporangiospores
can be justified that protista forms a connecting link
(aplanospores), conidia are asexual spores, which
with plants, animals and fungi.
can be produced in different classes of fungi.
Sol. : Fungi like features :- Formation of fruiting
Sol. : Conidia is produced in both ascomycetes as
bodies.
well as deuteromycetes.
Plant like features :- cell wall around spores
128. Answer (1)
Animal like features :- Plasmodium is without cell
wall. Hint : Deuteromycetes is the class of fungi in
which fruiting bodies and sexual spores are absent.
119. Answer (2)
Sol. : Mycoplasma are smallest living organisms. Sol. : Colletotrichum is an example of
deuteromycetes.
120. Answer (1)
Sol. : Diatoms are chief producers in ocean. 129. Answer (3)
121. Answer (3) Hint : Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is

also called mad cow disease.
Hint : Some dinoflagellates like Gonyaulax
catenella produce a toxin called saxitoxin into the Sol. : BSE is caused by prions.
sea water which is highly poisonous to vertebrates. 130. Answer (4)
Sol. : Marine shell fishes consume dinoflagellates Sol. : Name of disease Causal agent
and accumulate the poison which is not harmful to
(A) Tobacco mosaic – TMV
the shell fish (mussel) but upon being consumed
causes severe illness in man called paralytic shell Disease
fish poisoning (PSP) and even prove fatal. (B) Kuru disease – Prions
122. Answer (1) (C) Potato spindle tuber – Viroid
Hint : The parasitic fungi on mustard is an algal
Disease
fungi.
(D) Mumps – Paramyxovirus
Sol. : Albugo candida is the parasitic fungi on
mustard and causes white rust of leaves. 131. Answer (1)
123. Answer (2) Hint : In TMV, 2130 capsomeres are arranged and
Hint : Asexual reproduction occur through its ssRNA consists of 6400 nucleotides.
zoospores in phycomycetes. Sol. : In TMV, the ratio of capsomeres :
Sol. : In oomycetes, asexual reproduction is by nucleotides = 1 : 3
zoospores. 132. Answer (3)
124. Answer (4) Hint : DNA containing viruses are called
Sol. : Claviceps causes ergot disease while, deoxyribovirus.
Aspergillus is called as weed of laboratory.
Sol. : dsDNA virus :- Pox virus
125. Answer (3)
ssDNA virus :- φ × 174, M13 phage.
Hint : Neurospora is extensively used in
biochemical and genetic work. 133. Answer (1)
Sol. : Neurospora is called as Drosophila of plant Hint : Virus means venom or poisonous fluid.
kingdom. Sol. : Term virus was coined by Pasteur (1880).
11/15
134. Answer (4) 141. Answer (2)

Hint : Viruses are connecting link between living Hint: These enzyme act on N and C terminal of
and non-living entities. polypeptides.
Sol. : Living nature of virus is that they take over Solution: Trypsin, pepsin and chymotrypsin are
biosynthetic machinery of host cells and produce endopeptidases and they generate peptide
chemicals required for their multiplication. fragments. Carboxypeptidase acts on ‘C’ terminal
135. Answer (4) while aminopeptidase acts on ‘N’ terminal. They
Hint : According to Whittaker’s classification are both called exopeptidases.
system, organisms are classified into monera, 142. Answer (4)
protista, fungi, plantae and animalia. Hint: This type of transport requires carrier
Sol. : In kingdom plantae, cells are eukaryotic with proteins.
presence of chloroplast and cell wall. In plants, life- Solution Lipids after emulsification and digestion
cycle follows alternation of generation. enter intestinal cells. They are absorbed as protein
136. Answer (3) coated structures called chylomicrons into the
Hint: This is a composite digestive gland. lacteals.
Solution: Nucleases are secreted by exocrine part Glucose and amino acids are absorbed along with
of pancreas. Duodenal cells secrete nucleosidase sodium. Fructose uptake is not dependent on
and nucleotidase. Endocrine part of pancreas sodium, instead, its transport through GLUT
releases hormones. Stomach does not secrete any proteins takes place.
nucleic acid digesting enzyme. 143. Answer (2)
137. Answer (1) Hint: This organ produces bile.
Hint: Phrenic muscle Solution: Bile lacks mucus. Secretions of gastric
Solution: Forced expiration results in removal of glands, salivary glands and intestinal glands
CO2 rich air by relaxation of diaphragm and contain mucus.
contraction of abdominal muscles. Inspiration 144. Answer (4)
involves contraction of both the diaphragm and the
Hint: Oral-aboral axis.
external intercostal muscles.
Solution: The egestion of faeces to the outside
138. Answer (3)
through the anal opening of gut in man is called
Hint: This is the volume of air remaining in lungs defaecation. Vomiting occurs through oral opening.
even after forceful expiration.
145. Answer (3)
Solution: Tidal volume, IRV and ERV when
Hint: Identify enteroparasites.
measured by spirometer reflect a value of 500 ml,
2500-3000 ml and 1000-1100 ml respectively. Solution: Tapeworm is a flatworm affecting small
Residual volume when evaluated by other methods intestine. Round worm, threadworm, hookworm
equals 1100-1200 ml. and pinworm are nematodes/helminths infecting
the human intestine.
139. Answer (3)
146. Answer (2)
Hint: HCl is secreted by cells of gastric mucosa.
Solution: Rennin, a milk protein (casein) digesting Hint: These cells secrete HCl.
enzyme is secreted by cells forming mucosal lining Solution: Parietal/oxyntic cells secrete both HCl
of stomach. Oesophagus does not secrete any and castle’s intrinsic factor. Vitamin B12 is not
enzyme. secreted but absorbed with help of castle’s intrinsic
140. Answer (1) factor.
Hint : Constituent of succus entericus. 147. Answer (1)
Solution: Enterokinase is a secretion of duodenal Hint: These are commonly called sugars.
mucosal cells that acts on trypsinogen. Trypsin, Solution: French fries, burger buns and ice-cream
chymotrypsin and carboxypeptidase are secreted are all digested initially by salivary amylase in the
in pancreatic juice in zymogen form. oral cavity
12/15
148. Answer (1) 154. Answer (1)

Hint: This includes milk sugar digesting enzyme. Hint: This is one case of PEM
Solution: Succus entericus comprises brush Solution: Marasmus is a form of malnutrition. It
border enzymes and mucus. Nuclease, lipase and occurs in infants i.e less than one year old.
amylase are pancreatic secretions while rennin is a Simultaneous deficiency of both proteins and
gastric secretion. calories is observed in marasmus. Obesity is seen
149. Answer (4) as a consequence of overnutrition while night
blindness results from deficiency of vitamin A.
Hint: Duodenum is ‘C’ shaped.
Solution: Appendix is attached to caecum part of 155. Answer (3)
alimentary canal. Stomach is J shaped sac where Hint: They have jointed appendages and are found
digestion of proteins is initiated. in water.
150. Answer (1) Solution: Aquatic arthropods respire through
Hint: Succus entericus contains enzymes that special vascularised structure called gills.
produce absorbable forms. 156. Answer (3)
Solution: Bile helps in emulsification of fats, Hint: Lower invertebrates
thereby increasing surface area for enzyme action. Solution: Flatworms respire through body surface
Enzymes of pancreatic juice allow partial digestion by simple diffusion in free living forms.
of food while intestinal enzymes act on substrates
157. Answer (1)
to produce simple absorbable forms.
Hint: Accessory glands are digestive glands
151. Answer (4)
associated with alimentary canal.
Hint: This process involves diffusion or active
Solution: Intestinal glands are part of alimentary
transport of nutrients.
canal. They secrete digestive enzymes and mucus.
Solution: Assimilation makes nutrients available Accessory glands pour their secretions into oral
for utilisation by cells. Ingestion refers to the and duodenal lumen/cavity.
process of taking in food. Deglutition refers to
158. Answer (1)
swallowing of food.
152. Answer (2) Hint: Monomers of nutrients can be absorbed.
Hint: Gross calorific value is higher than net Solution: Polysaccharides are polymers. They
calorific value. need to be digested and are digested in small
intestine into absorbable forms. Large intestine
Solution:
does not secrete digestive enzymes. Water, drugs
Gross calorific Net calorific and minerals do not require digestion for
value value absorption.
(Kcal/mol) (Kcal/mol)
159. Answer (1)
Carbohydrates 4.1 4.0 Hint: These erupt only once in lifetime.
Proteins 5.65 4.0 Solution: Premolars in humans are monophyodont
teeth which are present in both upper and lower
Fats 9.45 9.0
jaw. They are actively involved in grinding of food.
153. Answer (3)
160. Answer (4)
Hint: In this undigested, unabsorbed substances
Hint: This is the first part of small intestine in man.
accumulate in large intestine.
Solution: Colon is part of large intestine. Small
Solution: Food is not properly digested leading to
intestine is divisible into three parts duodenum,
a feeling of fullness in indigestion. Abnormal
jejunum and ileum.
frequency of bowel movement and increased
liquidity of faecal discharge is known as diarrhoea. 161. Answer (3)
Obesity could be a case of overnutrition. Hint: This is a J-shaped structure
13/15
Solution: Study of histology of human alimentary Solution: pO2 and pCO2, both are 40 mm Hg in
canal in T.S reveals that a layer of outer deoxygenated blood and oxygenated blood
longitudinal and inner circular muscle fibres is respectively.
present in oesophagus, colon and caecum.
Atmospheric air Alveoli Tissue
Additional layer of oblique muscle fibres is present
in stomach. pO2 159 104 40
162. Answer (3)
pCO2 0.3 40 45
Hint: Tiny raised/elevated structure located on
skeletal muscle organ in mouth. 168. Answer (2)
Solution: Lingual frenulum attaches tongue to Hint: Food poisoning
lower surface in mouth. Enamel constitutes outer Solution: Clostridium botulinum, a bacteria is
layer of teeth. Epiglottis guards the opening of responsible for causing food poisoning. It is not an
windpipe. occupational respiratory disorder.
163. Answer (1) 169. Answer (3)
Hint: Site of exchange of gas in a lung. Hint: Fall in pH.
Solution ‘X’ is alveolar wall which is composed of Solution: During hyperventilation, pO2 increases
single layer of endothelial cells. The sequence of significantly. Hence apnea occurs for a short while.
layers at diffusion membrane is alveolar Urge to breathe is promoted by rise in pCO2 after a
membrane basement substance and blood few seconds.
capillary endothelium.
170. Answer (4)
164. Answer (3)
Hint: This is a combination of ERV and RV
Hint: Disease related to chronic smokers.
Solution: FRC = ERV +RV
Solution: Occupational respiratory disorders
involve asbestosis, pneumoconiosis, and silicosis. = 1100 + 100 ml
In emphysema, patient’s residual volume = 2200 ml.
increases.
171. Answer (1)
165. Answer (2)
Hint: Nasal chamber opens into this region of
Hint: Nearly a similar percent of carbohydrates are respiratory tract.
digested by pancreatic amylase.
Solution: Pharynx opens through the larynx region
Solution: 7% of CO2 is transported in dissolved into the trachea. Epiglottis is thin, elastic flap
form. Solubility of CO2 is more than that of O2 in guarding the windpipe. Pleural fluid reduces friction
water/plasma. Total amount of CO2 being on lung surface
transported in plasma is nearly 77% (7 + 70%).
172. Answer (2)
Sodium bicarbonate form is chief form of transport
of total CO2. Hint: These vertebrae lie below neck and are
166. Answer (3) associated with chest region.
Hint: Minute volume. Solution: Trachea divides at level of 5th thoracic

vertebra.
Solution: Volume of air a heathy man can inhale
or exhale effortlessly is minute volume 173. Answer (4)
Minute volume = Tidal volume × Respiratory rate Hint: These can collapse under certain conditions.
= 500 ml × 14 Solution: Alveoli are region of actual
exchange/diffusion of gases in human lungs.
= 6000 ml.
Incomplete rings of hyaline cartilage prevent
167. Answer (1) collapse of primary, secondary, tertiary bronchi and
Hint: pO2 of 40 mmHg initial bronchioles
14/15
174. Answer (3) Respiratory centre in medulla oblongata is chiefly

Hint: Function performed by thin, irregular walled responsible for maintaining respiratory rhythm.
vascularised bags. 178. Answer (1)
Solution: Diffusion of O2 and CO2 across alveolar Hint: Erythrocytes.
surface is not a feature of conducting part of Solution: Affinity of haemoglobin for O2 does not
respiratory tract. decline rather it remain unaffected in tourists
175. Answer (2) (Short-term travellers). Number and size of alveoli
Hint: Movement of particles from a region of high remains unchanged.
to low concentration. 179. Answer (2)
Solution: Partial pressure of oxygen occurs Hint: Definition of partial pressure.
downhill/down the concentration gradient from
Solution Pressure contributed by an individual gas
atmospheric air to alveoli. Facilitated diffusion
in a mixture of gases.
requires certain proteins. Active transport requires
ATP expense. Total pressure at sea level 760 mmHg × 21%
= 159 mmHg
176. Answer (2)
At summit total pressure is 238 mmHg.
Hint: Fluid component of blood.
21% of 238 mmHg = 50 mmHg
Solution: Maximum amount of carbonic anhydrase
is present in RBCs while minute quantities are 180. Answer (2)
present in fluid part of blood named plasma. Hint: ‘Fe’ centres in haemoglobin.
177. Answer (4) Solution: 3% of oxygen is transported in dissolved
Hint: Receptors in carotid arch respond to pCO2 form while 97% is transported bound to iron
and H+ concentration. centres in haemoglobin. 23% of CO2 is transported
in carbaminohaemoglobin form.
Solution: Pneumotaxic centre is located in pons
part of brain. Changes in pCO2 and H+ are CO is transported bound to haemoglobin as
recognised by receptors in aortic and carotid arch. carboxyhaemoglobin.
  
15/15

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Test - 2 (Code-C)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

v 2 3600 Time to reach the ground

17. Answer (3) = 9600 ms–2

Path of coin will be a parabola.

27. Answer (2) 33. Answer (2)

37. Answer (4) r 2 4 2r

53. Answer (1)

62. Answer (4) 69. Answer (1)

71. Answer (4)

64. Answer (3) Hint: O2− : σ1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ2 pz 2 , π2 px 2

N2− [15e–] ⇒ Bond order = 2.5

68. Answer (3)

Sol.: 75. Answer (2)

81. Answer (4)

88. Answer (3) 90. Answer (3)

Sol. : Nitrococcus is an example of chemosynthetic 109. Answer (1)

117. Answer (1) 126. Answer (1)

121. Answer (3) Hint : Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is

134. Answer (4) 141. Answer (2)

148. Answer (1) 154. Answer (1)

Hint: Minute volume. Solution: Trachea divides at level of 5th thoracic

174. Answer (3) Respiratory centre in medulla oblongata is chiefly

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