Test - 1 (Code-E)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

TEST - 1 (Code-E)
Test Date : 27/12/2020

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (3) 73. (4) 109. (3) 145. (3)
2. (2) 38. (2) 74. (2) 110. (1) 146. (3)
3. (3) 39. (4) 75. (4) 111. (3) 147. (2)
4. (2) 40. (4) 76. (2) 112. (2) 148. (2)
5. (1) 41. (2) 77. (4) 113. (3) 149. (4)
6. (1) 42. (1) 78. (3) 114. (1) 150. (4)
7. (4) 43. (1) 79. (4) 115. (2) 151. (2)
8. (4) 44. (4) 80. (1) 116. (3) 152. (1)
9. (4) 45. (2) 81. (2) 117. (1) 153. (2)
10. (1) 46. (2) 82. (3) 118. (4) 154. (1)
11. (1) 47. (4) 83. (4) 119. (2) 155. (2)
12. (3) 48. (1) 84. (2) 120. (1) 156. (4)
13. (2) 49. (2) 85. (2) 121. (2) 157. (3)
14. (1) 50. (4) 86. (1) 122. (3) 158. (2)
15. (3) 51. (3) 87. (2) 123. (2) 159. (3)
16. (1) 52. (4) 88. (3) 124. (4) 160. (3)
17. (4) 53. (2) 89. (4) 125. (4) 161. (4)
18. (4) 54. (2) 90. (4) 126. (2) 162. (2)
19. (4) 55. (1) 91. (2) 127. (3) 163. (1)
20. (3) 56. (4) 92. (1) 128. (1) 164. (1)
21. (4) 57. (2) 93. (4) 129. (1) 165. (2)
22. (3) 58. (2) 94. (1) 130. (3) 166. (3)
23. (3) 59. (2) 95. (1) 131. (2) 167. (1)
24. (1) 60. (3) 96. (3) 132. (2) 168. (4)
25. (1) 61. (2) 97. (4) 133. (1) 169. (4)
26. (3) 62. (1) 98. (2) 134. (4) 170. (3)
27. (3) 63. (2) 99. (4) 135. (1) 171. (2)
28. (2) 64. (4) 100. (1) 136. (2) 172. (2)
29. (4) 65. (2) 101. (2) 137. (3) 173. (3)
30. (3) 66. (4) 102. (4) 138. (4) 174. (3)
31. (2) 67. (4) 103. (3) 139. (4) 175. (2)
32. (2) 68. (1) 104. (3) 140. (2) 176. (1)
33. (4) 69. (3) 105. (2) 141. (4) 177. (1)
34. (2) 70. (3) 106. (2) 142. (1) 178. (3)
35. (4) 71. (1) 107. (1) 143. (3) 179. (1)
36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (4) 144. (2) 180. (2)
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test - 1 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (3) ∆K ∆m 2∆v
Sol. : × 100 = × 100 + × 100
Hint and Sol. : K m v

Work & Torque ⇒ [ML2T–2] % error in K = (3 + 2 × 4)%

Angular momentum & Planck constant ⇒ [ML2T–1] = 11%

Tension ⇒ [T] = [MLT–2] 7. Answer (4)
Surface tension ⇒ [σ] = [MT–2] Hint and Sol. :
2. Answer (2) In 427.003 all digits are significant
Hint and Sol. : 8. Answer (4)
Velocity or speed can be derived from length and Hint and Sol. :
time.
Refractive index, Dielectric constant and Relative
3. Answer (3)
density are dimensionless.
Hint : Principle of Homogeneity
9. Answer (4)
Sol. : [x] = [bt2]
Hint and Sol. :
x
[b] =  2  Force
t  Modulus of rigidity η =
Area
∴ Unit of b is km/s2
[η] = [ML–1T–2]
4. Answer (2)
10. Answer (1)
Hint and Sol. :
Hint : Q = n1u1 = n2u2
[αt2] = [M0L0T0]
2 -2
[α] = [M0L0T–2] v M  L   T 
n2 = n1 1 = 1  1   1   1 
5. Answer (1) v2  M2   L 2   T2 
Hint : Q = n1u1 = n2u2 2 –2
 kg   m   s 
⇒ n2 = 1   3   
u1 M  L   T1 
–2
10 kg  10 m   60s 
Sol. : n2 = n1 =1 1  1  
u2  M2   L 2   T2  1 1
= 1× × 6 × 3600
–2 10 10
 kg   m   s 
n2 = 1     = 360 × 10–6 = 3.6 × 10–4
10g  10 cm   0.1s 
= 1 × 100 × 10 × 10–2 = 10 ∴ 1 joule = 3.6 × 10–4 new unit

Hence 1 N = 10 new unit 11. Answer (1)

1 new unit = 0.1 N Hint & Sol. :

6. Answer (1) [P] = [ML–1T–2]
1  Energy 
Hint : K = = mv 2
 Volume  = ML T 
–1 –2
2  

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 Test - 1 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

12. Answer (3) 17. Answer (4)

Hint & Sol. : Hint & Sol. :
Q 
Latent heat L =  dx
m Velocity v =
dt
2 –2
[L] = [L T ]
= slope of displacement-time curve
U
Gravitational potential VG = ∴ It is negative at point ‘E’.
m
[VG] = [L2T–2] 18. Answer (4)
13. Answer (2)  
 ds  dv
Hint & Sol. : Hint : v =
= and a
dt dt
Velocity of a body can change due to change in
Sol. : s = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4
magnitude or direction or both. In all cases, body is
said to be accelerated. ds
 v=
= 3t 2 – 12t + 3 …(i)
 dt
→ If v = constant ⇒ a = 0
→ speed can be constant in case of variable dv
=
a = 6t – 12 …(ii)
velocity. dt

14. Answer (1) When a = 0 ⇒ 6t – 12 = 0 ⇒ t = 2

Hint & Sol. : at t = 2, v = (3 × 22 – 12 × 2 + 3) m/s
Lift is moving towards origin from positive side and
= – 9 m/s
it is about to stop at 4th floor.
∴ x < 0, v < 0 and a > 0 19. Answer (4)

15. Answer (3) Hint & Sol. :

Total distance A body cannot have two velocities at an instant of

Hint : vavg =
Time taken time.

3x 20. Answer (3)

Sol. : vavg = km/h
x x x
+ + Hint : Distance covered in nth second is
15 20 40
a
=
360
km/h Sn = u + ( 2n –1)
17 2

16. Answer (1) a

  
Sol. : 56 = u + ( 39 ) ... (i)
2
Hint : v AB
= v A − vB

Sol. : Velocity of parrot w.r.t. train a

58 = u + (41) … (ii)
   2
v p /T = vp – vT
On solving

= – ( –12 ) 15 m/s
v p /T 3= a
2= (2)
2
Time taken to cross the train
a = 2 m/s2
d 150
t = = = 10 second.
v rel 15 and u = 17 m/s

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test - 1 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

21. Answer (4)

( 0.5 ) + ( 0.8 ) + C 2 =
2 2
Sol. : 1
Hint : Truck moves constantly during reaction time.
Sol. : Stotal = S1 + S2 ⇒ C2 = 1 – (0.25) – (0.64)

= 0.11
102
= 10 × 0.6 +
2×6 C= 0.11
= 6 + 8.33 = 14.33 m 27. Answer (3)
22. Answer (3)    
Hint : | A × B =| 3( A ⋅ B )
Hint : Time taken to fall from H height
2H Sol. :=
AB sin θ 3 AB cos θ
=
g
tan θ= 3 ⇒ θ= 60°
2H 28. Answer (2)
Sol. : t = … (i)
g
Hint : a = ω2R
H
body travels distance in time (t –1) Sol. : angular speed of wheel
2
2π
2 (H / 2) H ω 120 ×
=
thus t –1 = = … (ii) 60
g g
= 4π rad s–1

From (i) & (ii),

H
g
( 2 –1 =1) Now acceleration of tip of spoke

a = ω2R = 16π2 × 30 × 10–2

H 1
⇒ = ⇒ ≈ 58 m = 47.4 m s–2
g 0.414
29. Answer (4)
23. Answer (3) 
 dr
Hint & Sol. : Hint : v = =aω  – sin ωt )iˆ + cos ωtjˆ 
dt
In uniform circular motion speed of particle remains  
constant but acceleration is variable. Sol. : Clearly, r .v = 0
24. Answer (1)
∴ Velocity is perpendicular to position vector.
Hint & Sol. :
30. Answer (3)
Horizontal component of velocity remains constant
during projectile motion. Hint & Sol. :

25. Answer (1) In uniform circular motion both velocity and

acceleration changes due to change in direction.
Hint & Sol. :
Angular speed ω = 240 rev/min 31. Answer (2)
  
2π rad Hint : v= u + a t
ω 240 ×
=
60 s 
Sol. : v = 2 jˆ + 2(iˆ − jˆ)
= 8π rad s–1
26. Answer (3) = 2 ˆj + 2iˆ − 2 ˆj

Hint : R = x 2 + y 2 + z2 = (2iˆ) m/s

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 Test - 1 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

32. Answer (2) 35. Answer (4)


Hint : Horizontal projectile motion dx dy  dv
Hint=
: vx = , vy = &a
Sol. : dt dt dt
dy dx
Sol. : y = bx2 ⇒ = 2bx
dt dt
2
d 2y  dx  d2x
⇒
= 2b  dt  + 2bx .
dt 2   dt 2
2
⇒ a = 2bv x {ax = 0}
H
=vy 2g
= 200 a
2 ∴ vx =
2b
Hence v = v x2 + v y2= 100 + 200 36. Answer (3)
Hint : Use projectile motion from trolley
= 10 3 m/s
Sol. : Motion of particle from trolley
33. Answer (4)
Sy = 0,
Hint : Projection from height
1 2 2u sinθ
u sinθ t – gt = 0 ⇒ t =
2 g
Sx = 0,
1 2 2u
u cos θt – at = 0 ⇒ t = cos θ
2 a
2u sin θ 2u cos θ
∴ =
g a

Sol. : g
tan θ= = 2
a
2uy 2u sin θ
= = 2 37. Answer (3)
g g
Hint : For projectile motion
1 2
X = u cos θt, y = u sin θt – gt
⇒ u sin θ = 10 m/s 2
1 Sol. : On comparing
Now H = uyt + ay t 2
2 4
u sin θ = 4, u cos θ = 3 ⇒ tan θ =
3
1
= – 30 + . 10 × 9
2 38. Answer (2)

= 15 m 2h
Hint : Time to fall from height h =
34. Answer (2) g

u 2 sin 2θ 2h
Hint
= : R ⇒ R = max for 45° Sol. : T = …(i)
g g
Sol. : For complementary angles range is equal 2 9h
T–1= × …(ii)
Hence, Rx = Rz < Ry g 16

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test - 1 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

T 4 43. Answer (1)

= ⇒ 3T = 4T – 4
T –1 3 Hint & Sol. :
T = 4 second θ 1 = θ, θ2 = 90 – θ
39. Answer (4) TA 1
= tan=
θ ⇒ T=
B 3 TA
Hint & Sol. : TB 3
For collision between balls RA
= 1 ⇒ RA = R B
v1cosθ1 = v2cosθ2 RB

v1 cos θ2 HA 1
⇒ = = ⇒ HB = 3HA
v 2 cos θ1 HB 3

40. Answer (4) 44. Answer (4)

gx 2 Hint : Flag will flutter in the direction of velocity of

Hint : y = x tan θ – sec 2 θ wind w.r.t. man
2u 2
Sol. : y = 10x – x2
10
On comparing tan θ = 10 ⇒ sin θ =
101

g sec 2 θ 2 g sec 2 θ
=1 ⇒ u =
2u 2 2   
= v wind − v man
Sol. : v wind/man
⇒ u= 505 m/s
= 5 2 iˆ – (5 2 iˆ + 5 2 ĵ )
u 2 sin2 θ
H= = 25 m = – 5 2 ˆj
2g
Hence towards South
u 2 sin2θ
R= = 10 m
g 45. Answer (2)

41. Answer (2) Hint : Time taken to cross river

u 2 2 sin θ cos θ 2u sin θ width

Hint : R = ,T= t=
g g (v s/r )y
Sol. : R = 5T2 Sol. :
2 2 2 2
u 2 sin θ  u sin θ  5 × 4 × u sin θ
= · cos θ 5=
2  2
g  g  g

20 sinθ
⇒ 2 cos θ =
g
Since, velocity of Phelps w.r.t. ground makes an
⇒ tan θ = 1 ⇒ θ = 45° angle 45° with river flow
42. Answer (1) Hence, (vs/r)y = vr = 5 m/s
  
Hint : v r ,G= v r + v w 60
∴t= = 12

(v s / r ) y
Sol. : | v rG | = v r2 + v w2 = 300 + 100

= 20 m/s
⇒ vs/r = 5 m/s {(v ) s/r x }
=0

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 Test - 1 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (2) 50. Answer (4)
Hint : Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2(g)
Hint : For  = 1, m is –1, 0, +1
2.24
Sol. : Mole of H2 produced = = 0.1
22.4 Sol. : For  = 1, m cannot be –2
Mass of Zinc required = 65.4 × 0.1
51. Answer (3)
= 6.54 g
47. Answer (4) 1  1 1 
Hint : ν= = Z 2RH  − 
λ  n2 n2 
Mass of compound  1 2
Hint : Mole =
Molar mass of compound
 1  1 1  3
Sol. : Sol. : ( υ )=
H λ
= RH  2 − 2= RH
 H 1 2  4
8
• Mole of O2 =
 1  1 1 
32 ( υ)He=
+   = ( 2 ) 2 RH  − 2
2
 λ He + 2 3 
8
Mole of O atoms = × 2 = 0.5
32 2 5 5
= (=
2 ) RH R
( 2 )2 ( 3 )2 9 H
9
• Mole of H2O =
18
3
( υ)H RH
9 3 9 27
Mole of atoms of H2O = ×3 =
1.5 = 4 = × =
18 ( υ)He+ 5
R 4 5 20
9 H
25
• Mole of CaCO3 =
100 52. Answer (4)
25 Hint : Compounds in which central atom have
Mole of atoms of CaCO3= × 5= 1.25
100 same hybridisation and same number of bonded
10 atoms will be isostructural.
• Mole of He
= = 2.5
4 Sol. :
48. Answer (1)
Hint : Beryllium has extra stability due to
completely filled s orbital.
Sol. : In a period with increasing atomic number
effective nuclear charge increases hence ionisation
enthalpy increases. Be is difficult to ionise as it has
completely filled s orbital.
∴ Order of decreasing ionisation enthalpy is
C > Be > B > Li
49. Answer (2)

Hint : Orbital angular momentum

=  (  + 1)

Sol. : Orbital angular momentum

= 2 ( 2 + 1)

= 6

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test - 1 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol. : No. of angular nodes = 3

No. of radial nodes = (n –  – 1)
= (5 – 3 – 1)
= 1.
57. Answer (2)
Hint : Intramolecular hydrogen bond is formed
when hydrogen atom is in between two highly
electronegative (F, O, N) atoms present within the
same molecule.
53. Answer (2)
Sol. :
Hint : The species which contains unpaired
electron(s) is paramagnetic in nature.
Sol. :
N2 (14e); σ1s2, σ * 1s2, σ2s2, σ * 2s2, π2p2x , π2p2y σ2p2z

O22− (18e); σ1s2 , σ * 1s2 , σ2s2 , σ * 2s2 , σ2p2z , π2p2x , π2p2y , π * 2p2x , π * 2p2y
58. Answer (2)
Hint : The species having zero bond order will not
B2 (10e); σ1s2, σ * 1s2, σ2s2, σ * 2s2, π2p1x , π2p1y
exist.
In B2, 2 unpaired electrons are present. Sol. : Be 2 : σ1s2σ * 1s2σ2s2σ * 2s2
54. Answer (2)
1 1
Hint :
Bond order
=
2
( Nb − Na ) =
2
(2 − 2)= 0 .

• Higher the value of (n + ), higher is the energy 59. Answer (2)
Hint : Carbon forming one π bond is sp2
of orbital.
hybridised.
• For same value of (n + ), higher is the value of Sol. :
n, higher is the energy of orbital.
Sol. : Correct order of energy of orbitals is
4p < 5s < 4d < 4f
60. Answer (3)
55. Answer (1)
Hint : Average atomic mass of A
n2 Σ mass of isotope × percentage abundance
Hint :=
rn 52.9 × pm and nλ = 2πrn =
Z 100

(2)2 18 × 40 + 15 × 10 + 17 × 50
Sol. : r2 = 52.9 × = 105.8 pm Sol. : A av =
2 100
720 + 150 + 850
2λ = 2πr2 = = 17.2
100
2π 61. Answer (2)
λ
= × 105.8
2 Hint : Mass percentage
= 105.8π pm Molality × Molar mass of solute
= × 100
Mass of solution
56. Answer (4)
6 × 32
Sol. : Mass =
percentage × 100
Hint : No. of angular nodes =  1000 + 6 × 32
192
No. of radial nodes = (n –  – 1) = × 100 = 16.1%
1192
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 Test - 1 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021

62. Answer (1) 68. Answer (1)

Hint : For see-saw shape, central atom should be Hint : Lyman series falls in UV region
sp3d hybridised.
Sol. :
Sol. :
Series Spectral region
Species Hybridisation Shape
SF2Cl2 sp3d See-saw Paschen Infrared

ICl−4 sp3d2 Square -planar Lyman UV

Balmer Visible
PCl5 sp3d Trigonal-bipyramidal
BrF5 sp3d2 Square pyramidal 69. Answer (3)

63. Answer (2) Hint : mmol of CaCl2 = Volume(mL) × Molarity

Hint : In a period with increasing atomic number, Sol. : mmol of CaCl2 = 200 × 0.4 = 80
effective nuclear charge increases
mole of CaCl2 = 80 × 10–3
Sol. : With increase in effective nuclear charge
size of atom decreases. The correct order of Mole of Cl– = 2 × 80 ×10–3 = 0.16
atomic radii is Al > Si > P > S. Number of Cl– = 0.16 × 6.02 × 1023
64. Answer (4) = 0.96 × 1023 = 9.6 × 1022
Hint : Mn(25): 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d5
70. Answer (3)
Sol. :
Hint : Higher the bond order higher is the stability.
For same bond order if the last electron is in anti
bonding molecular orbital then the species will be
for p-orbital,  = 1 less stable.
For m = 0 and s = +½, total electrons = 2 Sol. : Molecule/ion Bond order
65. Answer (2) N2 3
h
Hint : λ = N2+ 2.5
mv

6.625 × 10 −34 N2− 2.5

Sol. : λ =
10 × 10 −6 × 150
∴ Order of stability : N2 > N2+ > N2−
−30
=λ 0.4417 × 10 = 4.4 × 10–31 m
66. Answer (4) 71. Answer (1)

Hint : f-subshell contains 7 orbitals Hint : Molecule will be non polar if net dipole
Sol. : Each orbital contains maximum 2 electrons. moment of the molecule is zero.

67. Answer (4) Sol. : BF3 is a non polar molecule because dipole
moment of this molecule is zero.
Hint : Write electronic configuration of given ions
Sol. :
Cr2+ (22) : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4
Co2+(25) : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d7
Fe2+(24) : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d6
The three bond moments give a net sum of zero as
Mn2+(23) : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5
the resultant of any two is equal and opposite to
Mn2+ has five unpaired electrons. the third.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test - 1 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

72. Answer (2) 77. Answer (4)

Hint : For hybridisation the bond pair/lone pair
sp3 Hint : For one electron species, energy of subshell
should be arranged tetrahedrally around the central depends only on the value of n.
atom. Sol. : Third shell of He+ ion has 9 orbitals of same
Sol. : energy i.e. they are degenerate.
78. Answer (3)
Hint : EP = 2ET

Z2
E T = −13.6
n2
73. Answer (4)
Sol. : E T =
−13.6 ×
( 3 )2 = – 30.6 eV
Hint : If central atom is sp hybridised, the species
( 2 )2
will be linear in shape.
Sol. : Cl – Be – Cl (Linear) EP = 2E T = 2×(–30.6) = –61.2 eV

S = C = S (Linear) 79. Answer (4)

74. Answer (2) Hint : Total number of orbital in a subshell
Hint : In H3PO3, P has five bonds. = (2 + 1)
Sol. :
Sol. : Maximum number of electrons = 2(2 + 1).

80. Answer (1)

Hint : Isoelectronic pair contains equal number of
electrons.

P(15) : 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3 Sol. : Number of electrons in CO = 6 + 8 = 14

Ground state : Number of electrons in CN = 1 + 6 + 7 = 14

81. Answer (2)
Excited state : mass
Hint : Mole =
molar mass
H3PO3 forms 4σ bond and one π bond with oxygen 1
Sol. : Mole of H2 =
p-orbital and d-orbital of P are involved in π bond. 2
75. Answer (4) 4 1
Mole of CH4 = =
Hint : S in SO2 is sp2 hybridised. 16 4
1
Mole of H2 2 1 4
Sol. : = = × =2:1
Mole of CH4 1 2 1
76. Answer (2) 4
Hint : With increasing lone pairs of central atom, 82. Answer (3)
the bond angle of the molecule decreases.
∆
Hint : MgCO3  → MgO + CO 2
Sol. :
2.1
Sol. : Mole of MgCO
= 3 = 0.025
84
Mole of CO2 formed = 0.025
Volumes of CO2 at STP = 0.025 × 22.4 = 0.56 L

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83. Answer (4) 87. Answer (2)

Hint : Smaller the size of atoms smaller is the bond
Hint : 6CaO + P4O10 → 2Ca3 (PO 4 )2
length.
44.8 Sol. :
Sol. : Mole of CaO
= = 0.8
56
Bond type Bond length (pm)
28.4 O–H 96
Mole of P4=
O10 = 0.1
284
C–H 107
P4O10 is limiting reagent
N–O 136
Mole of Ca3(PO4)2 obtained = 0.1 × 2 = 0.2 C–O 143
Mass of Ca3(PO4)2 = 0.2 × 310 = 62 g 88. Answer (3)
84. Answer (2) Hint : CCl4 is tetrahedral in shape.
Hint : For minimum molecular weight, each
Sol. :
molecule of enzyme should contains one Zn2+ ion.
Sol. : 0.2 g Zn2+ is present in 100 g of enzyme
100 In CCl4, there are maximum 3 atoms which lie in a
∴ 65.4 g Zn2+ is present in × 65.4 = 32700.
0.2 plane.
85. Answer (2) 89. Answer (4)
Hint : Tl(81) : [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p1 Hint : NH+4 ion contains covalent and coordinate
Sol. : Since last electron goes in p-orbital, the bond.
element belongs to p-block.
Sol. :
86. Answer (1)
Hint : Oxygen is smaller in size so coming electron
will undergo electronic repulsion with the lone pair
of electrons present in oxygen atom.
90. Answer (4)
Sol. : Electron affinity of sulphur is highest in 16th
group because of its tendency to accept electron Hint : HF has strong intermolecular hydrogen
as its atomic size is bigger than oxygen hence in bond.
coming electron will not suffer repulsion with lone Sol. : HF boils at highest temperature because of
pair of electrons on sulphur. Electron affinity of Se strong intermolecular hydrogen bond.
is less than S and that of Te is less than Se.

[BIOLOGY]
91. Answer (2) 93. Answer (4)
Hint : All organisms are composed of cells. Hint : Ribosomes and chromosomes are very
Sol. : The basic unit of life in all the organisms, small structures and can be observed with the help
either unicellular or multicellular, is cell. of advanced microscopes.
92. Answer (1) Sol. : Nucleus was discovered by Robert Brown.
Hint : The cells that was first observed by Robert 94. Answer (1)
Hooke were dead cells. Hint : The statement ‘Omnis cellula-e cellula’ was
Sol. : Robert Hooke first studied and discovered given by Rudolf Virchow.
the cells from a thin slice of cork. So, he studied Sol. : Omnis cellula-e cellula means new cells are
dead plant cells.
formed from pre-existing cells.
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95. Answer (1)
Hint : Nucleoplasm is surrounded by nuclear
membrane.
Sol. : Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular
activities. It is semi-fluid matrix and contains many
cell organelles.
96. Answer (3)
Hint : Lysosomes and food vacuoles are
membrane bound cell organelles.
Sol. : The only non-membrane bound organelles
found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells are
ribosomes.
97. Answer (4)
Hint : Blue-green algae do not have true nucleus.
Sol. : Blue-green algae are prokaryotes as they
lack membrane bound cell organelles and nucleus.
98. Answer (2)
Hint : Mycoplasma is prokaryotic organism.
Sol. : Mycoplasma has plasma membrane, genetic
material, ribosomes but lacks cell wall.
99. Answer (4)
Hint : Spirillum is named w.r.t. its shape.
Sol. : Spirillum is spiral in shape.
100. Answer (1)
Hint : Plasmid DNA confers certain unique
phenotypic characters to bacteria.
Sol. : The small circular DNA outside the genomic
DNA is plasmid. It plays an important role in
making such bacteria resistant against antibiotics.
101. Answer (2)
Hint : The three layers of the bacterial envelopes
are glycocalyx, cell wall and plasma membrane.
Sol. : Plasma membrane is structurally similar in
prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
102. Answer (4)
Hint : Mesosome helps in cell wall formation, DNA
replication etc.
Sol. : Mesosome is formed by the extension of
plasma membrane into the cell and helps in
various functions, like cell wall formation, DNA
replication and distribution to daughter cells.
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103. Answer (3)
Hint : Fimbriae help bacteria to attach to rocks and
host tissues.
Sol. : Flagella are filamentous extensions from
bacterial cell wall. They help in motality of the cell.
104. Answer (3)
Hint : Gas vacuoles are inclusion bodies in same
prokaryotes.
Sol. : Gas vacuoles are found in blue green and
purple and green photosynthetic bacteria.
105. Answer (2)
Hint : Cytoskeleton is not found in prokaryotes.
Sol. : Complex locomotory and cytoskeletal
structures are found in eukaryotic cells both in
unicellular and multicellular organism
106. Answer (2)
Hint : Cell walls are found in plant cells but not in
animal cells.
Sol. : There are more than one differences
between plant cell and animal cell, e.g. cell wall,
plastids, centrosome etc.
Centrosome is found in some unicellular organisms
too.
107. Answer (1)
Hint : Cell membrane is mainly composed of lipids
and proteins.
Sol. : In addition to phospholipids, cell membrane
also contains proteins, carbohydrates and
cholesterol. Cellulose is component of cell wall.
108. Answer (4)
Hint : Na+/K+ pump is an active process.
Sol. : Pumping out of sodium ions requires energy
in the form of ATP.
109. Answer (3)
Hint : The layer between two neighboring plant
cells is middle lamella.
Sol. : Secondary cell wall is formed on the inner
(towards the cell membrane) side of the primary
cell wall.
 Test - 1 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
110. Answer (1)
Hint : Organelles that constitute endomembrane
system are, Golgi complex, ER, lysosome and
vacuoles.
Sol. : Ribosomal synthesis occurs in nucleus and
nucleus is not the part of endomembrane system.
111. Answer (3)
Hint : Chlorophyll traps light energy for
photosynthesis.
Sol. : Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis.
Chromoplasts contain carotenoid pigments and
amyloplast stores starch.
112. Answer (2)
Hint : Ribosomes were first observed by George
Palade under electron microscope.
Sol. : Eukaryotes have both 70S and 80S
ribosomes. 70S ribosome has 50S and 30S
subunits, whereas 80S ribosome has 60S and 40S
subunits.
113. Answer (3)
Hint : The core of eukaryotic flagella is called
axoneme.
Sol. : Axoneme is made up of microtubules in 9 + 2
organisation.
114. Answer (1)
Hint : The space around the nucleus is occupied
by cytoplasm.
Sol. : The space between the outer and inner
nuclear membrane is called perinuclear space.
115. Answer (2)
Hint : p-arm is the short arm of the chromosome
Sol. : Since this chromosome has p-arm then it is a
sub-metacentric chromosome and the arm that has
no satellite must be longer.
116. Answer (3)
Hint : The biosynthetic phase of cell cycle in which
the cell duplicates its organelles takes the
maximum duration of cell cycle.
Sol. : Interphase constitutes more than 95%
duration of the cell cycle.
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117. Answer (1)
Hint : Non-dividing cells enter into the quiescent
stage.
Sol. : In G0 phase, cells remains metabolically
active but do not proliferate unless these are not
called to do so.
118. Answer (4)
Hint : S phase is the synthesis phase of cell cycle.
Sol. : During S phase, cell doubles its DNA
content. Histone protein synthesis also occurs in
this phase. In animal cells, centriole duplication in
cytoplasm occurs during S phase.
119. Answer (2)
Hint : Condensation of chromatin starts in
prophase.
Sol. : Prophase is the first stage of M Phase. Since
condensation of chromosomes is stalled, it means
M phase is not started therefore, the check point is
G2/M.
120. Answer (1)
Hint : Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm.
Sol. : Cytokinesis is not divided into four stages.
Prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase
are the stages of karyokinesis.
121. Answer (2)
Hint : The cells formed by mitosis are identical to
each other as well as to the parent cell.
Sol. : The daughter cells formed by mitosis have
same number of chromosomes as that in the
parent cell. That is why, this division is called
equational division.
122. Answer (3)
Hint : At the end of prophase, nucleolus
disappears.
Sol. : Nucleolus disappears at the end of the
prophase and reappear in telophase. Therefore,
nucleolus is not appeared during metaphase and
anaphase.
123. Answer (2)
Hint : Prophase is the first phase of mitosis. In this
phase centrioles begins to move towards opposite
poles.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021 Test - 1 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol. : 129. Answer (1)

Metaphase – Microtubules of spindle Hint : Number of generations (n) of mitosis for

fibres attach to the producing ‘x’ cells is x = 2n.
kinetochore. Sol. : Number of generations(n) for formation of 32
cells from one cell can be calculated as follows
Anaphase – Daughter chromosomes
32 = 2x
begin to migrate towards
opposite poles 25 = 2n
∴ n=5
Telophase – The mitotic spindles
disappear. From two cells, the number of generation
=5–1
124. Answer (4)
=4
Hint : Metaphasic plate is formed on the equatorial
130. Answer (3)
plane.
Hint : During meiosis, crossing over occurs
Sol. : The metaphase plate is an imaginary plane
Sol. : Crossing over and new combination of
where centromere of chromosomes align
themselves. chromosomes increase the genetic variability in the
population of organisms from one generation to the
125. Answer (4)
next.
Hint : After splitting of centromere, the chromatids 131. Answer (2)
are now referred as chromosomes.
Hint : Non-living objects can show extrinsic growth.
Sol. : In anaphase, the chromatids reach the
Sol. : Growth is a characteristic of all living
respective poles and now referred as
organisms but it is not defining feature as it also
chromosomes. In this phase nuclear envelope is
occur in non-living objects.
not formed around the chromosomes. Thus there is
132. Answer (2)
no nucleus.
Hint : Metabolism does not occur in non-living
126. Answer (2)
objects.
Hint : Cell plate formation occurs in plant cells.
Sol. : Some reactions related to metabolism can
Sol. : Cell plate formation starts at the centre of be made to occur in cell free system.
cell and grows outward.
Consciousness (Sensitivity) is defining property of
127. Answer (3) living organisms.
Hint : Synaptonemal complex is formed in 133. Answer (1)
zygotene stage. Hint : The scientific names are printed in italics.
Sol. : Sol. : The first word denoting genus starts with
Diplotene – Dissolution of synaptonemal capital letter, while specific epithet start with small
complex letter.
134. Answer (4)
Pachytene – Crossing over
Hint : Wheat belongs to the class
Leptotene – First stage of prophase I Monocotyledonae.
128. Answer (1) Sol. : Both wheat and brinjal belong to same
Hint : In telophase I cytokinesis follows after division, i.e., Angiospermae.
nuclear membrane formation. 135. Answer (1)
Sol. : During telophase, it appears as two cells are Hint : Ex-situ conservation is off-site conservation.
joined together and thus it is called as dyad of Sol. : Botanical gardens are ex-situ conservation
cells. strategy of plant and keys are analytical in nature.

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136. Answer (2)
Hint : Adhering junctions perform cementing.
Sol. : Tight junctions (Zonula occludens) help to
stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
Adhering junctions perform function same as
desmosomes.
137. Answer (3)
• Acidic amino acids – glutamic acid, aspartic acid
• Basic amino acids have an additional amino
group e.g., lysine, arginine etc.
• Neutral amino acids have one amino group and
one carboxylic group e.g., valine, alanine,
glycine, leucine, isoleucine.
141. Answer (4)

Hint : Striated muscles provide the force for Hint : Example of toxins : Abrin, Ricin
locomotion. Sol. :
Sol. : Pigments Carotenoids, Anthocyanins, etc.
Features Skeletal Smooth Cardiac
Alkaloids Morphine, Codeine, etc.
muscle fibres muscle muscle
fibres fibres Toxins Abrin, Ricin
Voluntary  × ×
Lectins Concanavalin A
Striations  × 
142. Answer (1)
Shape Cylindrical Fusiform Cylindrical
Hint : It is composed of glucose and fructose
Branching × ×  Sol. : Reducing sugars are those sugars which can
Nucleus Multinucleated Uninucleated Uninucleated reduce Cu2+ ions to Cu+ ions. This property is the
basis of Benedict’s and Fehling’s test for glucose
138. Answer (4) detection. All reducing sugars possess free
Hint : Compound epithelium is multilayered aldehyde or ketone group. All monosaccharides
have this ability. Sucrose is non-reducing because
Sol. : Being multilayered, compound epithelia have
aldehyde group of glucose and ketone group of
little role in secretion or absorption, but they
fructose participate in formation of glycosidic bond
provide protection to underlying tissues against
between the two. Some disaccharides like, lactose,
mechanical, chemical, thermal or osmotic stresses.
maltose possess the reducing groups.
Some of the cells of cuboidal or columnar 143. Answer (3)
epithelium get specialized for secretion and are
Hint : Lactose is milk sugar.
called glandular epithelium.
Sol. : Principal organ for absorption of nutrients is
139. Answer (4)
small intestine. Lactase present in the intestinal
Hint : Uridine is a nucleoside juice breaks down lactose into glucose and
Sol. : Uracil molecule (monocyclic nitrogenous galactose that are absorbed through mucosa into
base) when joined to the sugar molecule by a blood capillaries.
glycosidic bond forms uridine. Uridine combines 144. Answer (2)
with a phosphate group by an ester bond to form a Hint : Polymers of nucleotides
nucleotide. In DNA the sugar is deoxyribose.
Sol. : In a nucleic acid (DNA), a phosphate moiety
140. Answer (2) links the 3’ carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide
Hint : Lysine has an additional amino group to the 5’ carbon of the sugar of the succeeding
nucleotide. The bond formed between the
Sol. : Based on comparative number of amino and
phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar is an ester
carboxyl groups, amino acids can be acidic, basic
bond. As there is one such ester bond on either
and neutral.
side, it is called phosphodiester bond. Glycogen
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shows α1, 4 linkage at unbranched portion and the
branching points have α1, 6 linkage. Arachidonic
acid has 20 carbon atoms including the carboxyl
carbon. Collagen is one of the long fibrous
structural protein.
145. Answer (3)
Hint : Haem is the prosthetic group in peroxidase.
Sol. : Zinc is a co-factor for the proteolytic enzyme
carboxypeptidase. A number of enzymes require
metal ions for their activity. Coenzyme
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and
NADP contain the vitamin niacin. Hexokinase is a
metalloenzyme that requires Mg+2 ions.
146. Answer (3)
Hint : Chargaff’s rule
Sol. : Guanine [G] = 20%
148. Answer (2)
Hint : Its substrate is DNA and RNA.
Sol. : The secretions of the brush border cells
(crypts of Lieberkuhn) of the mucosa along with the
secretions of the goblet cells constitute the
intestinal juice or succus entericus.
The pancreatic juice contains inactive enzymes-
trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxy-
peptidases, amylases, lipases and nucleases.
Trypsinogen is activated by an enzyme
enterokinase which is secreted by the intestinal
mucosa, into active trypsin, which in turn activates
the other enzymes in the pancreatic juice.
Nucleotidase, nucleosidase, etc. are present in the
intestinal juice.
149. Answer (4)
Hint : It leads to a feeling of fullness of stomach.

∴ Cytosine [C] = 20%  [G] = [C] Sol. : Food is not properly digested in indigestion
leading to a feeling of fullness. The causes of
Adenine [A] = 30% indigestion are inadequate enzyme secretion,
Thymine [T] = 30% ...[A] + [G] = [T] + [C] anxiety, food poisoning, over eating, and spicy
food. Vomiting is the ejection of stomach contents
Thus, through the mouth. Diarrhoea is an abnormal
Pyrimidine = [C] + [T] = 20 + 30 = 50% frequency of bowel movement and increased
liquidity of the faecal discharge. Faeces are
Purine content = [G] + [A] = 20 + 30 = 50%
retained within the colon as the bowel movements
147. Answer (2) occur irregularly in constipation.
Hint : Teeth are arranged in order I, C, PM and M 150. Answer (4)
Sol. : An adult human has 32 permanent teeth Hint : Vitamin D is fat soluble.
which are of four different types, namely, Incisors Sol. : Long chain fatty acids, monoglycerides,
(I), Canine (C), Premolars (PM) and Molars (M). cholesterol and fat soluble vitamins are first
The arrangement of teeth in each quadrant jaw in incorporated into small water soluble droplets
the order I, C, PM and M is represented by dental called micelles. Substances from these micelles
2123 are absorbed by simple diffusion into the intestinal
formula .
2123 cells. There they are re-formed into very small
protein coated fat globules called the chylomicrons
Teeth Teeth in each quadrant Total which are transported into the lymph vessels
(lacteals) in the villi. These lymph vessels
I 2 8 ultimately release the absorbed substances into
the blood stream.
C 1 4
Starch undergoes hydrolysis by amylase to yield
PM 2 8 disaccharides which are acted upon by
disaccharidases into simple absorbable forms near
M 3 12 mucosal epithelial cells of the intestine.

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 Test - 1 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
151. Answer (2)
Hint : Structural polysaccharide of plant cell wall.
Sol. : Human body does not have enzymes to
breakdown cellulose and inulin, thus these two
remain undigested. Proteins, proteoses and
peptones (partially hydrolysed proteins) in the
chyme reaching the intestine are acted upon by the
proteolytic enzymes of pancreatic juice. Maltase
splits maltose into glucose. Lipases act on lipids.
152. Answer (1)
Hint : Tissue linking and supporting other tissues.
Sol. : Neural tissue exerts the greatest control over
the body’s responsiveness to changing conditions.
Bone (specialised connective tissue) provides
framework to the body, limb bones such as the
long bones of the legs serve weight-bearing
functions. Cells of adipose tissue (loose connective
tissue) are specialised to store fats. The excess of
nutrients which are not used immediately are
converted into fats and stored in this tissues.
153. Answer (2)
Hint : Blood is fibre-free tissue
Sol. : In all connective tissues except blood, the
cells secrete fibres made of structural proteins
called collagen or elastin. Tendon is an example of
dense regular connective tissue.
154. Answer (1)
Hint : It serves as a support framework for
epithelium.
Sol. : Areolar tissue – loose connective tissue
Dermis of skin – dense irregular connective tissue
Blood and bone are specialised connective tissue
155. Answer (2)
Hint : These separate and insulate adjacent
neurons.
Sol. : Muscle cells are contractile. Neurons can
conduct electrical disturbances generated due to a
stimulus. The structural and functional unit of
neural system is a neuron.
156. Answer (4)
Hint : Brush-bordered epithelium
Sol. : Cells bearing microvilli are found in lining of
intestine and proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) of
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nephron in kidney. The epithelium in the inner
surface of hollow organs like fallopian tubes
(oviducts) and most of the respiratory tract
(including bronchioles) is ciliated columnar
epithelium.
157. Answer (3)
Hint : It is poured directly into the fluid bathing the
glands.
Sol. : On the basis of the mode of pouring of their
secretions, glands are of two types : exocrine and
endocrine glands. Secretions of exocrine glands
(mucus, saliva, oil, milk, tears, ear wax etc.) are
passed out either by ducts or tubes. Endocrine
glands (secrete hormones) lack ducts.
158. Answer (2)
Hint : Enzymes are organic catalysts.
Sol. : Enzymes are proteins that catalyse the
biochemical reactions in living cells, hence called
biocatalysts. They get damaged at high
temperatures (above 40°C). Inorganic catalysts
work efficiently at high temperatures and
pressures.
159. Answer (3)
Hint : Protein chain folded upon itself like a hollow
woollen ball.
Sol. : Option (3) represents tertiary structure, this
structure is absolutely necessary for many
biological activities of proteins for example, this
structure brings distant amino acid side chains
closer forming the active site (the site to which a
substrate gets attached) of proteins i.e., enzymes.
Right handed helix and β-pleated sheet are forms
of secondary structure of proteins. Quaternary
structure is formed when a protein has more than
one subunits or polypeptide chains and each
polypeptide has a primary, secondary or tertiary
structure of its own.
160. Answer (3)
Hint : They get dissolved in organic solvents like
ether.
Sol. : The lipids are not polymers but they are
assembled from small molecules by dehydration.
Lipids are not strictly macromolecules (molecular
weights < 800 Da.) Proteins are heteropolymers of
amino acids linked by peptide bond. Nucleic acids
are polymers of nucleotides.
 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2021
161. Answer (4)
Hint : Cellulose is unbranched polymer.
Sol. : Cellulose which is composed of β-glucose is
unbranched polymer of glucose that serves as
structural element in plant cell wall. The
polypeptide coil of collagen helix is strengthened
by establishing hydrogen bond and locking effect
also occurs with the help of proline and
hydroxyproline amino acid. Glycogen is made up of
about 30,000 glucose residues, it is a branched
structure having α1, 4 linkage at unbranched part
and the branching points have α1, 6 linkage.
Pectinase breaks down pectin (in cell wall of fruits)
thus aids in extracting juice from fruit.
162. Answer (2)
Hint : Select a protein
Sol. : Chitin is a homopolysaccharide and is
present in exoskeleton of arthropods. Cellulose is a
structural element in plant cell wall. Lecithin is a
phospholipid. Insulin being a peptide is
biochemically closer to trypsin, a proteinaceous
enzyme.
163. Answer (1)
Hint : The pitch of B-DNA is 34 Å
Sol. : The base pairs in DNA are stacked 3.4 Å
apart (rise per base), thus ten base pairs occupy a
distance of about 34 Å.
164. Answer (1)
Hint : Pyloric sphincter regulates the opening of
stomach into duodenum.
Sol. : Cardiac sphincter/gastroesophageal
sphincter controls the passage of food into the
stomach, it prevents regurgitation of food into
oesophagus from stomach.
The undigested, unabsorbed substances called
faeces enter into the caecum of the large intestine
through ileo-caecal valve.
165. Answer (2)
Hint : Physiological value of fat is 9.0 kcal/g
Sol. : Butter is a fat, rice provides carbohydrates
while pulses are a source of protein. Spinach
(salad) and water have no calorific content.
Physiologic values of carbohydrates, proteins and
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fats are 4.0 kcal/g, 4.0 kcal/g and 9.0 kcal/g
respectively.
The calorie content :
Butter (fats) – 5 × 9 = 45 kcal
Rice (carbohydrate) – 100 × 4 = 400 kcal
Pulses (protein) – 50 × 4 = 200 kcal
Total = 645 kcal
166. Answer (3)
Hint : First discovered hormone
Sol. : Brunner’s glands are found in submucosa of
duodenum. The antibacterial enzyme present in
saliva is lysozyme. Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme
found in infant’s stomach for digestion of milk
proteins. No enzymes are present in bile. Bile
contains bile pigments, salts, cholesterol and
phospholipids. It helps in emulsification of fats, i.e.,
breaking down of the fats into very small micelles,
it also activates lipases.
167. Answer (1)
Hint : Edema is seen in Kwashiorkar.
Sol. : Kwashiorkar is usually observed in children
in the age group of 1-5 years. It is characterised by
wasted muscles, thin limbs, retarded growth of
body and brain & swelling of legs due to retention
of water (oedema). Marasmus usually affects
infants below the age of one year. Scurvy is
caused due to deficiency of vitamin C. Rickets
affects children with vitamin D deficiency.
168. Answer (4)
Hint : pH 1.8 is optimal for activity of pepsin.
Sol. : HCl provides the acidic pH (pH 1.8) optimal
for pepsin. Salivary amylase is a carbohydrate
splitting enzyme. Enterokinase is secreted by the
intestinal mucosa and activates trypsinogen. Bile
salts (sodium glycocholate, sodium taurocholate)
are present in bile.
169. Answer (4)
Hint : Liver is the largest gland in humans.
Sol. : The exocrine part of the pancreas secretes
an alkaline pancreatic juice containing various
enzymes while its endocrine part secretes
hormones, insulin, glucagon and somatostatin.
 Test - 1 (Code-E)_(Hints & Solutions)
170. Answer (3)
Hint : Chondrocytes are cells of this tissue.
Sol. : The given diagram is of cartilage. The matrix
(ground substance) of cartilage is solid and pliable
and resist compression. The matrix of bone is very
hard and non-pliable because of presence of salts
such as calcium phosphate, calcium carbonate, etc
and proteins like ossein and collagen fibres.
Skeletal muscles attach to the bone.
171. Answer (2)
Hint : Transferases catalyse the transfer of specific
groups.
Sol. : Isomerases catalyse the rearrangement of
molecular structure to form isomers. Ligases
catalyse covalent bonding of two substrates to form
a large molecule.
172. Answer (2)
Hint : Teeth are attached to the free surface or
summit of the jaw bone in this dentition.
Sol. : An adult human has 32 permanent teeth
which are of four different types, namely incisors
(I), canine (C), premolars (PM) and molars (M).
Such type of dentition is called heterodont
dentition. Each tooth is embedded in a socket in
thecodonts. In diphyodonts, a set of temporary milk
or deciduous teeth is replaced by a set of
permanent teeth.
173. Answer (3)
Hint : Bolus is pushed through pharynx into
oesophagus.
Sol. : Ileocaecal valve is present at the junction of
ileum and caecum. Partially hydrolysed food mixed
with acidic gastric juice of the stomach by the
churning movements of its muscular wall is called
chyme.
174. Answer (3)
Hint : Involuntary striped muscle fibres are
branched.
Sol. : Tendons connect muscle to bone. Ligaments
connect one bone to another. Cardiac muscle
fibres are branched and characteristically show the
presence of intercalated discs.
175. Answer (2)
Hint : Lining of blood vessels.
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Sol. : The epithelial lining of blood vessels is called
endothelium. It is an avascular tissue, it obtains
nutrients by diffusion. Fibroblasts secrete collagen
and elastin (structural protein) fibres.
176. Answer (1)
Hint : Phospholipid bilayer
Sol. : Phospholipids are conjugated lipids.
Phospholipids are found in cell membrane. Fibroin
protein is found in natural silk. Chitin is a
homopolymer present in exoskeleton of
arthropods.
177. Answer (1)
Hint : Largest gland in the body.
Sol. : Kupffer cells are specialised macrophages
present in liver sinusoids. They remove old cells,
bacteria etc.
178. Answer (3)
Hint : They are also called parietal cells.
Sol. : Parietal/oxyntic cells secrete HCl and
intrinsic factor. Intrinsic factor prevents breakdown
of vitamin B12 until its absorption in small intestine.
B12 involved in production of RBCs
(erythropoiesis). Deficiency of vitamin B12 can lead
to pernicious anaemia.
179. Answer (1)
Hint : Serosa is the outermost covering.
Sol. :
Diagrammatic representation of
transverse section of gut
180. Answer (2)
Hint : Irregular bowel movement
Sol. : In constipation, the faeces are retained
within the colon as the bowel movement occur
irregularly. Inflammation of appendix is termed as
appendicitis. Breakage in the mucous lining of
stomach leads to ulceration.
Edition: 2020-21