Digital SAT Curriculum

higher ground learning
sat curriculum
for the new digital exam
*The SAT is a registered trademark of the College Board. Instructional content is the property of Higher
Ground Learning.
1.2023
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Table of Contents
INTRODUCTION.....5
READING and WRITING INTRODUCTION.....7
Reading Skills.....8
Comprehension Monitoring.....8
Summarization.....10
Reading Material – Supplementary.....11
Reading/Writing Strategies.....12
Craft and Structure.....12
Practice.....13
Information and Ideas.....16
Practice.....16
Speed and Reading Skills.....31
Standard English Conventions.....22
Sentence Structure.....22
Subjects, Verbs, and Agreement.....23
Verb Tense Errors.....24
Pronouns.....25
Pronoun – Antecedent Agreement/Ambiguity Errors.....26
Who vs. Whom.....27
Modifier Errors.....27
Punctuation.....29
Commas.....29
Series.....29
Compound Sentences.....30
Non-essential Information.....30
Restrictive Clauses.....31
Semicolons.....32
Colons.....33
Long Dashes.....33
Comma Splices.....34
Apostrophes.....35
Exercises.....36
Practice.......40
Expression of Ideas.....44
Transitions......44
Practice...........45
Summarization.....46
Practice.....46
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MATH INTRODUCTION.....48
General Strategies.....48
Student-produced responses....49
Definitions.....50
The Order of Operations and Basic Skills....52
Algebra and Advanced Math.....53

Linear Equations.....53
f(x) notation.....55
Absolute Value.....56
Inequalities.....56
Simultaneous Equations....57
Quadratic Equations....62
Graphing....65

Strategies.....67
Problem Solving and Data Analysis.....69

Percentages....69
Statistics....71
Statistical Methodology....74
Unit Conversions....75
Ratios....76
Probability....78
Growth....79
Periodic Compounding Growth....80
Geometry and Trigonometry.....81

Transversals.....82
Circles.....82
Circle Formula.....83
Triangles.....85
Trigonometry....87
Radians and the Unit Circle....89
Completing the Square....91
Physics.....94
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INTRODUCTION
The digital SAT is all-new for 2023, and there are significant changes from the previous paper version.
The new digital SAT is a multistage adaptive test (MST). There are only two sections: “Reading and Writing”
and “Math.” In practice, the significance of MST is that students will take “Stage 1” (or module) of each
section, which will be comprised of easy, medium, and hard questions. Based on a student’s success with
question difficulty, the second module is taken from a complete set of questions that is either easier or harder.
Because the adaptive nature of the new SAT is by module, students will still have the opportunity to go back
to questions that they skip within that module, and there is no guessing penalty.
Another change to the SAT is that each question is discrete; there are no more long passages on Reading
and Writing, and no more “paired questions” on Reading or Math. Also, a calculator is allowed on all Math
questions.
Due to the adaptive nature of the test, the SAT has been able to significantly truncate the time required for
the exam. A timing breakdown is below:
Reading and Writing: 2 modules, each module is 32 minutes and is composed of 27 questions.
Total Time: 64 minutes. Total Questions: 54.
Break: There will be a 10 minute break between Reading and Writing and Math.
Math: 2 modules, each module is 35 minutes and is composed of 22 questions.
Total Time: 70 minutes. Total Questions: 44
Total Test Time: 2 hours and 24 minutes
Note that each module has two “pre-test” questions incorporated into it. These are questions that won’t be
counted towards a student’s score, instead the SAT uses these to refine future exams. Student’s WILL NOT
know which two questions are classified as “pre-test,” so they must put forth 100% effort on all questions.
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sat • reading and writing
reading and writing

The SAT Reading and Writing section consists of two modules, each is 32 minutes long and composed of 27
questions. All questions will be based on short excerpts that range from 25 – 150 words and are four-option
multiple choice. Excerpts are taken from literature, history/social studies, humanities, and science. Every
question fits into an overall thematic domain:
Craft and Structure
Students will use comprehension, vocabulary, analysis, synthesis, and reasoning skills and knowledge to use
and determine the meaning of high-utility academic words and phrases in context, evaluate texts rhetorically,
and make supportable connections between multiple topically related texts – in the latter students will
answer a single question comparing two short texts. (28% of questions)
Information and Ideas
Students will use comprehension, analysis, and reasoning skills and knowledge as well as what is stated and
implied in texts (including any informational graphics) to locate, interpret, evaluate, and integrate information
and ideas. (26% of questions)
Standard English Conventions
Students will use editing skills and knowledge to make a text conform to core conventions of Standard English,
sentence structure, usage, and punctuation. (26% of questions)
Expression of Ideas
Students will use revision skills and knowledge to improve the effectiveness of written expression in
accordance with specified rhetorical goals. (20% of questions)
Notes
Annotation: Some tutors and teachers encourage students to annotate passages by taking notes and
underlining. Our methodology does not insist on text annotation for the reason that we focus on
comprehension. If you do not comprehend a text, then you will not annotate effectively either. If you enjoy
annotation and you find that it improves your reading comprehension, then absolutely use it (the digital
SAT has annotation tools built in). Sometimes, however, students can develop bad habits, such as passively
underlining, circling, or annotating a text without actively understanding or engaging with the writing. Just
because a text is annotated does not mean that you have full comprehension.
Vocabulary: The type of vocabulary testing done on the SAT is contextual, therefore the best way to improve
the breadth of your vocabulary is to regularly read fairly complex books and articles. Studying lists of words
and memorizing definitions is not an effective study practice for the SAT.
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reading skills
Comprehension Monitoring
Comprehension monitoring is the ability of a reader to be aware, while reading, whether a text is making
sense or not.
Your reading level is never static. It can fluctuate and change based upon your personal engagement with the
text. A strong reader adjusts their reading style to comprehend material that is more difficult, such as slowing
down or re-reading.
The best way to practice your comprehension monitoring skills is to force yourself to re-read sentences or
paragraphs at a slower pace when you don’t understand them.
Exercise
Monitor your comprehension on this text: Quickly summarize the paragraph after reading through it the first
time. Then, read it a second time and write a new summary and note what you missed on the first
read-through.
Hamilton, Alexander. Federalist No. 1
The Federalist (later known as The Federalist Papers) is a collection of 85 articles and essays promoting the
ratification of the United States Constitution.
To the People of the State of New York:
After an unequivocal experience of the inefficiency of the subsisting federal government, you are called upon
to deliberate on a new Constitution for the United States of America. The subject speaks its own importance;
comprehending in its consequences nothing less than the existence of the UNION, the safety and welfare of
the parts of which it is composed, the fate of an empire in many respects the most interesting in the world.
It has been frequently remarked that it seems to have been reserved to the people of this country, by their
conduct and example, to decide the important question, whether societies of men are really capable or not
of establishing good government from reflection and choice, or whether they are forever destined to depend
for their political constitutions on accident and force. If there be any truth in the remark, the crisis at which
we are arrived may with propriety be regarded as the era in which that decision is to be made; and a wrong
election of the part we shall act may, in this view, deserve to be considered as the general misfortune of
mankind.
First Summary:
Second Summary:
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Exercise
Monitor your comprehension on this text and underline at least three sentences that require closer reading:
Melville, Herman. Billy Budd, Sailor. New York: Penguin, 1986. (1886)
From Chapter 26
Billy Budd, Sailor is a novella by American writer Herman Melville, first published posthumously in London in
1924.
At sea in the old time, the execution by halter of a military sailor was generally from the fore-yard. In
the present instance, for special reasons the main-yard was assigned. Under an arm of that lee-yard the
prisoner was presently brought up, the Chaplain attending him. It was noted at the time and remarked upon
afterwards, that in this final scene the good man evinced little or nothing of the perfunctory. Brief speech
indeed he had with the condemned one, but the genuine Gospel was less on his tongue than in his aspect
and manner towards him. The final preparations personal to the latter being speedily brought to an end by
two boatswain’s mates, the consummation impended. Billy stood facing aft. At the penultimate moment, his
words, his only ones, words wholly unobstructed in the utterance were these -- “God bless Captain Vere!”
Syllables so unanticipated coming from one with the ignominious hemp about his neck -- a conventional
felon’s benediction directed aft towards the quarters of honor; syllables too delivered in the clear melody of
a singing-bird on the point of launching from the twig, had a phenomenal effect, not unenhanced by the rare
personal beauty of the young sailor spiritualized now thro’ late experiences so poignantly profound.
Notes:
Context and Meaning
One of the largest barriers to understanding, as you may have experienced on the last two passages, is
simply not knowing the definition of a word. Especially in regard to “olde” English, there are gaps in the
usage of words – some have fallen out of favor, while others’ meanings have changed dramatically. However,
there may be words that are peculiar to a particular industry or trade – as in the Melville text above. Part
of comprehension is using the context of the passage to try and understand words you may not know. For
example, there is a big clue as to the meaning of the word “ignominious” because “hemp about his neck”
comes next. In fact, if you don’t know what hemp is, by using the context, you could discern that it is a
rope (ropes were, and still are to a large extent, made from hemp fiber), and noting the phrase “felon’s
benediction” we can conclude this man is about to be hanged. As a result, “ignominious” is most certainly a
word with negative connotations (it means deserving or causing public disgrace or shame).
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Summarization
Summarization is the ability to integrate ideas and generalize information from the text.
Summarizing requires the reader to determine what is important in what they are reading and to put it
into their own words. It helps a reader to identify the main idea, connect central claims, and to remember
information.
The best way to practice this ability is to summarize every paragraph after reading it and to summarize the
entire text after the completion of the passage.
Exercise
Summarize each paragraph in one complete sentence:
Mencken, H. L. The American Language, 4th Edition. New York: Knopf, 1938. (1938)
The American Language, first published in 1919, is H. L. Mencken’s book about the English language as spoken
in the United States.
What chiefly lies behind (slang) is simply a kind of linguistic exuberance, an excess of word-making energy.
It relates itself to the standard language a great deal as dancing relates itself to music. But there is also
something else. The best slang is not only ingenious and amusing; it also embodies a kind of social criticism.
It not only provides new names for a series of every-day concepts, some new and some old; it also says
something about them. “Words which produce the slang effect,” observes Frank Sechrist, “arouse associations
what are incongruous or incompatible with those of customary thinking.”
Everyone, including the metaphysician in his study or the eremite in his cell, has a large vocabulary of slang,
but the vocabulary of the vulgar is likely to be larger than that of the cultured, and it is harder worked. Its
content may be divided into two categories: (a) old words, whether used singly or in combination, that
have been put to new uses, usually metaphorical, and (b) new words that have not yet been admitted to
the standard vocabulary. Examples of the first type are “rubberneck,” for a gaping and prying person, and
“iceberg,” for a cold woman; examples of the second are “hoosegow, flim-flam, blurb, bazoo” and “blah.”
There is a constant movement of slang into accepted usage. “Nice,” as an adjective of “all work,” signifying
anything satisfactory, was once used in slang only, but today no one would question “a nice day,” “a nice time,”
or “a nice hotel.”...The verb-phrase “to hold up” is now perfectly good American, but so recently as 1901 the
late Brander Matthews was sneering at it as slang. In the same way many other verb-phrases, e.g., “to cave in,
fill the bill” and to “fly off the handle,” once viewed askance, have gradually worked their way to a relatively
high level of the standard speech. On some indeterminate tomorrow to “stick up” and to “take for a ride” may
follow them.
Paragraph 1:
Paragraph 2:
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Reading Material
If you want to improve your reading abilities, the best and most assured way to increase comprehension is to
READ. If you want to improve your comprehension, read as much as you can from this list. In addition, even
if you have already read through and completed the Reading curriculum, read it again and practice the skills
multiple times.
Literature
• Henry, O - “The Gift of the Magi”

• Olsen, Tillie - “I Stand Here Ironing”
• Borges, Jorge Luis - “The Garden of Forking Paths”
• Chekhov, Anton - “Home”
• Jewett, Sarah Orne - “A White Heron”
• Ambrose Bierce - “An Occurrence at Owl Creek Bridge”
• Vladimir Nobokov - “Symbols and Signs”
• Margaret Atwood - “Happy Endings”
• James Joyce - “Araby”
• Poe, Edgar Allan - “The Cask of Amontillado”
• “The New Yorker”. Fiction AND all other articles.
• Dostoevsky, Fyodor – “The Brothers Karamazov”
• Steinbeck, John – “East of Eden”
• Marquez, Gabriel Garcia – “100 Years of Solitude”
Science
• Cannon, Annie J - “Classifying the Stars”

• Walker, Jearl - “Amusement Park Physics”
• Tyson, Neil deGrasse - “Gravity in Reverse: The Tale of Albert Einstein’s ‘Greatest Blunder’ ”
• Kane, Gordon - “The Mysteries of Mass”
• Fischetti, Mark - “Working Knowledge: Electronic Stability Control”
• Kurzweil, Ray - “The Coming Merger of Mind and Machine”
• Gibbs, W. Wayt - “Untangling the Roots of Cancer”
• Gawande, Atul - “The Cost Conundrum: Health Care Costs in McAllen, Texas”
• Scientific American.
History / Social Studies
• Henry, Patrick - “Speech to the Second Virginia Convention”

• Roosevelt, Franklin Delano - “State of the Union Address”
• Lincoln, Abraham - “Second Inaugural Address”
• King, Jr., Martin Luther - “Letter from Birmingham Jail”
• Quindlen, Anna - “A Quilt of a Country”
• Jefferson, Thomas - The Declaration of Independence
• Emerson, Ralph Waldo - “Society and Solitude”
• Declaration of Sentiments by the Seneca Falls Conference
• Lagemann, Ellen Condliffe - “Education”
• Douglass, Frederick - “What to the Slave Is the Fourth of July? An Address Delivered in Rochester, New
York, on 5 July 1852”
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reading And Writing Strategies

In addition to developing your comprehension skills, there are specific strategies that can aid in your ability to
accurately answer questions. Because the SAT is so specific regarding the type of questions in these modules,
strategies will be broken out based on question type along with the required knowledge for that type (if
applicable).
Because the actual question can tell you a lot regarding what you should be thinking about, it is recommended
that you always scan ahead to the “ask” of the question: first read what the question is actually asking, and
then read the text while keeping in mind the question that you’re trying to answer.
Craft and Structure

These questions will test your knowledge of the definition of words in context, as well as your understanding
of the overall structure of the text.
Definitions In Context
This is not primarily a vocabulary quiz but rather a reading test. These questions are testing your reading
ability and inference skills. The meaning of the word will depend on how it is used in particular situations. The
most common error on these types of questions is only looking at the specific phrase or clause that the word
is located in and not the entire passage. This error causes you to lose a significant amount of information
associated with the word. Oftentimes they actually define the word in question by inference elsewhere in the
passage!
If you struggle with these types of questions, one strategy that you might want to try is coming up with
your own word or phrase that makes sense to you. When you have something that works, compare it to the
available answer choices and see if the word you came up with is nearly synonymous with one of the answers.
If you use this strategy, it is recommended that you DO NOT look at the answer choices before trying to use
your own word, this will help mitigate confirmation bias: it is very easy to wrongly assume one of the answers
is correct and then make your reasoning fit your pre-conceived choice.
Structure
These questions will ask you to best describe the function of a sentence within the overall text. Additionally,
one question will have two short texts and you will be asked to make some type of comparison between the
two. Many times the texts will have a different viewpoint on one specific topic. Make sure you spend your
time on these, fully understand both texts, and use the process of elimination to find the correct answer.
The Process of Elimination
This is the most important strategy to use on the Structure questions: you are not looking for the right answer
but instead for three incorrect answers. You should not expect to read a question and then know the answer
immediately. Just as in math, where you must perform mathematical operations to solve for the right answer,
on these you must do process of elimination to solve for the right answer. Usually, you should read every
answer and physically cross out three incorrect answers before selecting the correct one. There are four main
ways to accomplish this:
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1. Contradicts the Passage: This type of incorrect answer is flat out false. Either absolutely nothing in the
passage supports the answer or something in the passage contradicts the answer.
2. Not Necessarily True: This type of incorrect answer seems very plausible because nothing in the passage
contradicts it. The problem, however, is that nothing in the passage actively supports it.
3. Too Extreme: This type of incorrect answer takes an idea from the passage that is true, but takes it too
far to the extent that is no longer true. A single extreme word in an answer can make the entire answer
incorrect.
4. Out of Scope of the Question: This type of incorrect answer is true according to the passage. The
problem is that it does not answer the question.
Practice
1. Doctors and scientists emphasize that heart disease is largely _____. For example, dietary and exercise
choices can have a profound impact on the likelihood of the disease affecting individuals.
Which choice completes the text with the

most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) normal
B) exciting
C) deniable
D) avoidable
2. The artist Kiyoshi Nakagami is _____ by most of his peers. He believes the greatest painters are those who
can represent light, and few of his contemporaries, except collaborator James Turrell, are up to the task.
Which choice completes the text with the

most logical and precise word or phrase?
A) feared
B) unimpressed
C) backed
D) favored
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3. Futurists are convinced that someday Mars will be inhabited by humans who will be able to self-sustain
all systems necessary for the ongoing support of life on the Red Planet. Based on evaluating recent research,
they are even more optimistic that this will happen by the year 2100. The possibility of synthesizing necessary
resources from elements on Mars is moving swiftly.
Which choice best describes the function of the

second sentence in the overall structure of the text?
A) It explains the recent research received by Futurists.
B) It presents the central finding of the research.
C) It establishes a time-line for the colonization of Mars.
D) It presents exactly when humans will inhabit Mars.
4. Bristlecone pine trees are renowned for attaining great ages. In fact, the oldest known Bristlecone pine is over
4,800 years old. However, trees that reproduce by cloning lay claim to the title of "oldest" living tree. There is
a colony of over 47,000 quaking Aspens in Utah that is estimated to be 80,000 years old. On the other hand,
Bristlecone pines are invaluable to dendroclimatologists because they provide the longest continual climatically
sensitive tree-ring chronologies on Earth (single above-ground Aspens only provide about 130 years of tree
rings).
Which choice best describes the function of the

second sentence in the overall structure of the text?
A) It clarifies how Bristlecone pines reproduce.
B) It presents a generalization that is exemplified by the

discussion of quaking Aspens.
C) It clarifies why Bristlecone pines are important to

dendroclimatologists.
D) It provides context that clarifies why quaking Aspens

spread so easily.
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5. Text 1
"Payday" loan companies often claim that they are providing a much needed service – small loans averaging
$500 – to individuals who have poor credit and would not qualify for traditional loans or credit cards. The
companies point to situations, such as obtaining necessities like food, medicine, and fuel, where an individual
would be in dire circumstances without the ability to acquire the necessary items quickly.
Text 2
Economists and activists have long argued that the anecdotal evidence that Payday loan companies provide to
justify their operation is spurious at best. They point to the exorbitant interest rates these companies charge
(typically 300–500%, oftentimes disguised as fees) as only hurting people in the long run. Advocates argue that
for the public good federal rules should be rewritten so that banks can easily lend small amounts at much more
reasonable rates to individuals.
Based on the texts, how would the advocates (Text 2) most likely respond to the loan companies' claims (Text 1)?
A) They would argue that while the companies are performing a much needed service, they should find ways to
lower their lending rates.
B) They would recommend that the loan companies should start issuing credit cards to individuals.
C) They would argue that the claims are without factual evidence and that there are much needed policy
initiatives which could address individuals' needs.
D) They would support the claim given the fact that food, medicine, and fuel are essential in people's lives.
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Information and Ideas

Students will use comprehension, analysis, and reasoning skills and knowledge as well as what is stated and
implied in texts (including any informational graphics) to locate, interpret, evaluate, and integrate information
and ideas. The Process of Elimination will be a very useful strategy on these types of questions.
This is also where you’ll be tested on reading and interpreting graphical information. These questions take
time! Do no expect these to go as quickly as some of the others in Reading and Writing.
Practice
6. The following text is from Fyodor Dostoevsky's 1879 novel The Brothers Karamazov.
I believe like a child that suffering will be healed and made up for, that all the humiliating absurdity of human
contradictions will vanish like a pitiful mirage, like the despicable fabrication of the impotent and infinitely small
Euclidean mind of man, that in the world's finale, at the moment of eternal harmony, something so precious
will come to pass that it will suffice for all hearts, for the comforting of all resentments, for the atonement of all
the crimes of humanity, for all the blood that they've shed; that it will make it not only possible to forgive but to
justify all that has happened.
According to the text, what is true about humanity?
A) People's minds are too small to comprehend eternal harmony.
B) People will eventually understand what it is to be like a small child again.
C) People will have the knowledge to vindicate human history and actions.
D) People's contradictions will haunt them at the moment of eternal harmony.
7. The following text is from Charles Dickens' 1859 novel A Tale of Two Cities.
Since I knew you, I have been troubled by a remorse that I thought would never reproach me again, and have
heard whispers from old voices impelling me upward, that I thought were silent for ever. I have had unformed
ideas of striving afresh, beginning anew, shaking off sloth and sensuality, and fighting out the abandoned fight. A
dream, all a dream, that ends in nothing, and leaves the sleeper where he lay down, but I wish you to know that
you inspired it.
According to the text, what is true about the speaker?
A) They are too sad to contemplate what they wish to do next in life.
B) They are plagued by past regrets.
C) Past memories lead them to tiredness.
D) They are ready to fight and start anew.
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8. The following text is adapted from William Shakespeare's poem "When Forty Winters Shall Besiege Thy Brow."
When forty winters shall besiege thy brow,

And dig deep trenches in thy beauty’s field,
Thy youth’s proud livery, so gazed on now,
Will be a tatter’d weed, of small worth held:
Then being ask’d where all thy beauty lies,
Where all the treasure of thy lusty days,
To say, within thine own deep-sunken eyes,
Were an all-eating shame and thriftless praise.
How much more praise deserved thy beauty’s use,
If thou couldst answer ‘This fair child of mine
Shall sum my count and make my old excuse,’
Proving his beauty by succession thine!
What is the main idea of the text?
A) The speaker is attempting to persuade for the act of having children.
B) The speaker is expressing sympathy for the beauty of youth.
C) The speaker thinks someone is too fatigued to continue living.
D) The speaker is admonishing someone for not staying young.
9. Most coffees have antioxidant properties, which means they will keep your brain cells healthy as well as boost the
performance of your neurotransmitters. Drinking coffee every day has linked these qualities to the reduced risk of
several conditions, such as Alzheimer’s or Parkinson’s disease. Unfortunately, the antioxidant properties in coffee
aren’t its only attribute. Drinking coffee also causes the body to lose calcium, which is carried out excessively by
urine. Over time, excessive coffee drinkers could be putting themselves at risk of conditions such as osteoporosis,
where the bones become less dense and more fragile. However, researchers claim that simply putting two
tablespoons of milk in each cup of coffee can negate this effect.
Which finding, if true, would most directly support the claim made by the researchers?
A) Drinking four to six cups of coffee per day has shown the benefit of lowering the risk of developing type two
diabetes.
B) Adding milk to coffee has shown to slow down the digestive process.
C) The properties of coffee inhibit the body's ability to absorb minerals such as calcium.
D) Adding supplements, including milk, to both caffeinated and decaffeinated coffee

has been shown to be an effective vector for the absorption of nutrients in the supplements.
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10. Individuals living in locations closer to the equator or at higher altitudes have been considered to be at greatest
risk for melanoma because of early studies linking latitude and altitude with the disease worldwide. However,
differences in population demographics, sun protection behaviors, risk awareness, physician density, and
melanoma case reporting also influence the observed association between area-level UV and melanoma incidence
rates. One study found that melanoma risk did correlate with average annual UV exposure and residential history
by county, although time spent outdoors was only associated with an increased risk of melanoma for those
reporting this exposure at a young age. National cancer incidence data on melanoma has revealed a different
risk pattern for American children. Wong et al found that children living in areas with low UV exposure had
a significantly greater incidence of melanoma compared with children living in areas with high UV exposure.
It seems counter-intuitive____. The reasons for this finding have not been clearly elucidated, but sunburn in
children living in low UV exposure areas may be a sign of intense, intermittent exposure (for example, during
vacations).
Which choice most effectively uses data from the graph to complete the sentence?
A) that children in Anchorage would have a higher rate of melanoma than children in Miami.
B) that Honolulu has the highest average UV index.
C) that Portland has a higher melanoma rate in children than Anchorage.
D) that Atlanta's melanoma rate in children is so low.
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11. Trust in government refers to the share of people who report having confidence in the national government. The
data shown reflect the share of respondents answering “yes” (the other response categories being “no”, and “don’t
know”) to the survey question: “In this country, do you have confidence in… national government?" Due to small
sample sizes, country averages for horizontal inequalities (by age, gender and education) are pooled between
2010-18 to improve the accuracy of the estimates. The sample is ex ante designed to be nationally representative
of the population aged 15 and over. This indicator is measured as a percentage of all survey respondents. It is
widely known that Scandinavian countries report the highest happiness and satisfaction with life, which also
corresponds to their citizens' trust in government. Surprisingly, however, in the Americas____.
Which choice most effectively uses data from the table to complete the sentence?
A) Brazil has a significantly higher trust in government than does Chile.
B) Costa Rica has a lower trust in government than the Czech Republic.
C) Denmark has a higher trust in government than all other countries, including those in the Americas.
D) Canada's trust in government is nearly as high as that of Denmark.
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12. A scientist makes the statement "Take a walk through the woods almost anywhere in the temperate U.S. and
you'll probably come across clusters of honeysuckle, dandelions, bobbing water lilies and dense patches of ivy.
Despite their pervasiveness, none of these plants developed here naturally, but were introduced by human
activity."
Based on the quotation and the chart, what would the scientist say would be the most likely consequence of tourism
with respect to invasive plants in the Galapagos between 1980 and 2010?
A) Due to an increase in humanity's awareness of the Galapagos, it is more likely that a desire for environmental
stewardship of the islands will grow.
B) Due to an increase in the economic activity as a result of tourism, the inhabitants of the Galapagos will have
more money with which to combat unwanted plant species.
C) Due to an increase in human contact, it is more likely that non-native organisms will be introduced by
accident.
D) Due to an increase in hotel construction as a consequence of tourism, intentional cultivation of invasive

species will grow.
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Note: Writing scores range from 0 to 300, and students were surveyed
nationwide. Source: U.S. Department of Education, National Center
for Education Statistics.
13. Those who read for fun more often have higher writing scores; in fact, those who read daily for fun outperform
those who never or hardly ever read by approximately ____ points on national writing tests.
Which choice most effectively uses data from the chart to complete the example?
A) 10
B) 30
C) 60
D) 120
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Standard English Conventions

Students will use editing skills and knowledge to make a text conform to core conventions of Standard
English, sentence structure, usage, and punctuation. These questions require the most knowledge to answer
accurately, but once you have that knowledge, you can think of these almost like math questions; there is only
one definitely correct answer that does not break any grammatical rules!
Sentence Structure
What is a sentence? You’d be surprised how few students can adequately answer that question. We’re going
to start simple, with clauses.
I. The subject is the part of the clause about which we have something to say.
The door slammed in his face.
Exercise
Circle the subject of these clauses:
1. After dinner, the werewolf had a toothache.

2. Achilles’ flung spear whistled over Hector’s shoulder.
3. Then came the fight to the death.
4. Something is rotten in the state of Denmark.
II. The predicate is the part of the clause that includes the verb that is connected to the subject and could also
make a statement about the subject.
The door slammed in his face.
Exercise
Circle the predicate of these clauses:
5. After dinner, the vampire had a toothache.

6. Maybe everybody in the world is scared of each other.
7. Terror made me cruel.
8. The only people for me are the mad ones.
Clauses & Fragments
The technical term for a complete sentence is independent clause, which is defined as any group of words
that contains a subject and predicate and expresses a complete idea on their own.
If a group of words has a subject and/or verb but does not express a complete thought, it is a dependent
clause; it literally depends on an attached independent clause to be a complete thought. Additionally, if a
group of words is missing any one of the three essential parts (subject, verb, or complete thought), then it can
be categorized under the umbrella term fragment. Note, you will not be tested on technical grammar terms
on the SAT, but a few basic terms will help you quickly identify parts of sentences and apply rules effectively.
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Subjects, Verbs, and Agreement

The SAT will test you on two main forms of agreement; Noun-Verb and Antecedent-Pronoun. What this
means is that you need to have the ability to quickly identify the subjects or other nouns in a sentence and
properly choose the corresponding verb (in number and/or tense) or pronoun (in number).
Also, remember that when plural nouns are used as subjects we need the plural conjugation of a verb.
My friends comes to my party.
This is so wrong it almost hurts to hear it. But what exactly is wrong? Clearly, even if you didn’t know the rule,
comes sounds very wrong and should be a plural conjugation. Therefore, it should read “My friends come to
my party.” The specific rule is if you have a plural noun then the present-tense verb associated with that noun
drops the “s” on the end. This is fairly obvious, but what if we have an example that is harder:
No one reason for the fall of Rome, although many have been proposed throughout the centuries, are
adequate explanations for why the mighty empire did not last.
Here they have separated the subject from the verb and have tried to confuse you with the non-essential
clause in between. Try to drop that clause out and read it, “No one reason for the fall of Rome are adequate...”
wait, that already sounds bad, right? They used the pluralized “state of being” verb are when they should
have used the singular is.
Exercise
In the sentences below underline the subject and circle the correct conjugation of the verb.
9. Julia and her sisters (is, are) on vacation.
10. One of my brothers (is, are) studying at the library everyday.
11. The teacher, as well as the students, (want, wants) everyone to pass the test.
12. There (was, were) five cookies. Now there (is, are) only one left!
13. The committee (debates, debate) very difficult ethical questions.
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Verb Tense Errors

On the SAT, you will have to identify Verb Tense Errors. Usually, a text will be in one of the three basic tenses:
present, past, or future. If there is a change in tense, there must be a satisfactory reason. Otherwise, it is
wrong.
The boy insisted that he has paid for his lunch.
Insisted is simple past tense. Has paid is present perfect tense. Therefore, this sentence contains a Verb Tense
Error.
The boy insisted that he had paid for his lunch.
Now it is correct because we have “insisted” (simple past) and “had paid” (past perfect). Note that you
DO NOT need to know all the terms for specialized verb tense, the main thing to pay attention to is the
disagreement between past, present, and future.
Exercise
In the following sentences, determine if there is a Verb Tense Error. If there is an error, correct the sentence.
14. While he studies for his test, the telephone rang.
15. Your entire family will be there to see you when you graduate.
16. Even before the meeting had begun, many employees have expressed their fears.
17. I want to show my friends the photos I took on my vacation.
18. Magellan reached the Philippines in 1511, where he is killed by natives.
19. Scientists predict that, unless drastic measures are taken, the climate will change catastrophically.
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Pronouns
A pronoun (I, me, he, she, myself, yourself, you, it, those, that, many, who, whom, whose, someone, everybody,
and many, many more) is a word that takes the place of a noun.
Billy saw Julia, and he waved at her.
This sentence could be written:
Billy saw Julia, and Billy waved at Julia.
However, that seems awfully redundant and unnecessary. So instead, we replace the second instance of Billy
with he and the second instance of Julia with her. We call the word that the pronoun replaces the antecedent.
In this sentence the pronoun he has the antecedent Billy.
Pronouns can be challenging because they act like nouns, but they also follow unique rules that regular nouns
do not. For instance, let’s examine the most common type of pronoun, the personal pronoun. The basic
personal pronouns are I, you, he, she, it, we, and they.
Yet, I would never say:
Billy saw Julia, and he waved at she.
Pronouns change (inflect) based upon what function they serve in the sentence:
While Julie distracted him, she took his lunch.
There are actually three different forms of every pronoun: subject (the pronoun that does the main action),
object (a pronoun that receives the main action), and possessive (the pronoun that owns another noun or
pronoun).
Subject: I, you, he, she, it, we, they

Object: Me, you, him, her, it, us, them
Possessive: My, your, his, her, its, our, their
hgl − 25
Pronoun-Antecedent Agreement Errors

The SAT will test you on your ability to identify when a pronoun does not agree with its antecedent, such as in
this sentence:
After third quarter earnings were released, Google announced a buyback for an undisclosed percentage of
their stock.
This sentence has a pronoun, their. The antecedent of their is Google. The pronoun and the antecedent do not
agree because their is plural and Google is singular.
Exercise
Circle the correct pronoun that agrees with the antecedent:
20. Neither, Mary nor Laura has turned in (her, their) report.
21. The team can’t play (its, their) best when it’s too hot.
22. George wants to go into journalism because he finds (it, them) exciting.
23. I find that playing poker is hard on (my, your) nerves.
24. Some of the candy has lost (its, their) flavor.
Pronoun – Antecedent Ambiguity Errors

A pronoun’s antecedent must be clear. It is incorrect to have ambiguous antecedents – where it is not possible
to determine which noun is the antecedent of the pronoun.
The suitcase was put on the plane at the airport, but now it’s gone.
What is gone? The suitcase or the plane? There is no way to say for sure based upon the grammar of
the sentence. You can only infer based upon the context. A pronoun’s antecedent must be explicit and
unambiguous. For every pronoun, you should be able to clearly point to a noun as its antecedent. If you
cannot, then that pronoun and sentence construction are incorrect. You must be specific and explicit.
The suitcase was on the plane, but now the suitcase is gone.
Exercise
In the following sentences, identify the ambiguous antecedent and fix the sentence:
25. I never eat at that restaurant because they have stale bread.
26. He should speak German well. He lived there for ten years.
27. Julia told her mother that her sweater had a hole in it.
28. The second study was better than the first because it tested three categories of subjects.
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Who vs. Whom

Who is used as a subject pronoun. It is the noun that does the action.
Who kicked the ball over the fence?
Whom is used as an object pronoun. It is the noun that receives action.
With whom did you go to the film?
An easy way to test proper usage is to replace the who or whom with another pronoun (possibly re-arranging
the sentence in the process) and see what makes sense. Who can be replaced with she, he, or they. Whom can
be replaced with her, him, or them.
He kicked the ball over the fence.
Did you go to the film with her?
Exercise
Circle the correct subject pronoun in the following sentences:
29. (Who / Whom) returned to the game after that last penalty?
30. Did you discover (who / whom) to go to prom with?
31. Maybe you should wait to decide (who / whom) to go camping with next weekend.
Modifier Errors
Modifiers are words, phrases, or clauses that modify something else. For example, adjectives and adverbs are
specific types of modifiers. Modifiers may be a single word, a phrase, or a clause.
The grey truck only ran one red light. (Word)
Sourced from only the best, the meats at the deli downtown are the finest in the city. (Phrase)
My brother, who lives in Oregon, visits often. (Clause)
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I. Dangling Modifiers
A dangling modifier occurs when the subject of the modifier is not explicit.
Walking through the park, the trees were beautiful.
Who is walking through the park? The grammar of the sentence implies that the trees were walking through
the park, which cannot be correct. The only logical explanation is that the modifier is modifying an unstated,
assumed narrator. This leads to ambiguity and uncertainty.
The subject of a modifier must be explicit:
Walking through the park, I noticed that the trees were beautiful.
II. Misplaced Modifiers
A misplaced modifier occurs when a modifier is positioned incorrectly in the sentence.
The shoes were too expensive in the store.
Would this mean that if we took the shoes out of the store they would not be expensive? The modifier is
incorrectly positioned because in the store is telling us where the shoes were too expensive, not where the
shoes were.
The shoes in the store were too expensive.
Exercise
Identify the incorrect sentences and determine whether the error is due to a dangling or a misplaced modifier.
Then rewrite the sentence correctly.
32. Running through the rain, I was drenched.
33. Covered in wildflowers, Alexander pondered the hillside’s beauty.
34. Having looked through the entire store, the shoes I wanted were not there.
35. Not having seen the crime, he could not testify.
36. The couch was ugly in the furniture store.
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Punctuation
As writing and reading evolved it was necessary to create a system that allowed people to clearly state
meaning in writing so that a reader could understand the intention of the author. Conventional signs were
introduced to help with this task, and the SAT will examine your knowledge regarding the correct modern use
of these symbols and how they relate to sentence construction. Note that some (very famous) authors break
the rules of punctuation on purpose – however, the SAT will only test your knowledge of conventional use.
Let’s eat, Grandpa!

Let’s eat Grandpa!
Both sentences contain the exact same words, but the meaning has been dramatically altered by the
punctuation. To succeed on these questions you must not only know the specific usages of common
punctuation marks but also how punctuation marks affect the grammar of the sentence.
Commas
Commas help a reader understand writing by providing a break between specific structural entities and ideas.
They are used to separate elements in a series, combine two independent clauses into a compound sentence
(with a coordinating conjunction), and offset non-essential information.
Series
Commas are used to separate elements in a list of three or more words, phrases, or clauses.
Thom went to the store and bought milk, eggs, sugar, and flour.
Technically, a series must preserve parallel structure, and every element must be syntactically similar.
After I cleaned the house I made cherry, apple, and peach pie.
Notice that I can re-order any element and it still makes sense.
Children are encouraged to get to school by foot, bus, or by bike.
Why doesn’t this work?
Series With A Comma
A fairly rare case occurs when an element in a series includes a comma. Instead of more commas, semicolons
must be used for clarity.
Example
Cedar Point and Six Flags are two of many amusement parks in the world that offer thrill seekers
world-class coaster rides, both wooden and steel; water rides; and drop rides from dizzying heights.
hgl − 29
Exercise
Add series commas to the following sentences:
37. The Constitution established three branches of government: the legislative executive and judicial.
38 The candidate for governor promised to lower taxes protect the environment reduce crime and end
unemployment.
39. The prosecutor argued that the defendant, who was at the scene of the crime who had a strong
revenge motive and who had access to the murder weapon, was guilty of homicide.
Compound Sentences
Commas are also used to join two independent clauses into a single sentence.
Jonathan slept through his alarm, but he was still able to catch the bus.
You must use one of the coordinating conjunctions (FANBOYS - for, and, nor, but, or, yet, so) in this situation.
A good routine to get into when you see a comma in a sentence is to ask yourself if what comes before and
after are independent clauses. If both are independent, use a coordinating conjunction with the comma. In
contrast, if you have an independent clause and a dependent clause or a fragment you can join them with
only a comma or a coordinating conjunction.
Audrey could tell it was getting late and decided to go home.
Exercise
In these exercises use the label IC if it’s an independent clause and F if it is a fragment:
40. When you finally discover the reason.

41. This is the last time.
42. As he watches the pitch, runs to the outfield, and catches an almost home run.
43. Go to your room.
44. Jim walks.
45. Most insects have a short life span.
46. That you cannot see the effects of the pollution.
Non-essential Information
Commas are used to separate words, phrases, or clauses that are not essential to the meaning of the
sentence. This doesn’t mean that the information isn’t informative or useful, it simply means that an
independent clause can exist without it.
I appreciate your effort. In this case, however, you should have asked me first. (Word)
The 29th of March, my birthday, was the only time I could take the test. (Phrase)
While I was eating, someone knocked at the door. (Clause)
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Conjunctions & Transitioning Phrases
There are many other types of conjunctions in addition to coordinating conjunctions. The SAT may test you on
the logic of these. For instance, it would be illogical to say “John doesn’t like his job, so he volunteered to stay
longer on the weekends.”
One way to logically correct the above example would be to use a logical transitioning word and write, “John
doesn’t like his job; however, he volunteered to stay longer on weekends.” Another option is to rearrange
the sentence and use a subordinating conjunction at the beginning: “Although John doesn’t like his job, he
volunteered to stay longer on the weekends.”
It is important to note that in general subordinating conjunctions are not offset by commas, but transitioning
words or phrases are because they are technically non-essential. Additionally, remember that you CANNOT
use a subordinating conjunction or a transitioning word in place of a coordinating conjunction to form a
compound sentence.
Example
I absolutely love Formula 1 racing, therefore I was elated to be able to attend the race at Monza.
Even though this sounds correct, it is technically wrong. We can't use "therefore" in place of one of the
FANBOYS words.
I absolutely love Formula 1 racing, so I was elated to be able to attend the race at Monza. (correct)
Restrictive Clauses
If you’re going to determine whether or not something is non-essential information you also need to be able
to identify a restrictive clause. A restrictive clause is a clause that is essential to the meaning of the sentence,
and therefore is not separated by commas.
All students who do their work should pass.
Who do their work is an essential clause and not separated by commas. The meaning of the sentence changes
significantly if we remove it.
All students should pass.
The big question here is why? Why should all students pass? It really doesn’t make any sense unless it is
qualified by the clause who do their work.
Clauses that start with that are always essential and should not be separated by commas.
The book that I borrowed is excellent.
A clause attached with of is almost always restrictive as well.
Claire found the schedule of the opposing team.
Finally, a clause that begins with to is often restrictive.
I went home to check on my dog.
hgl − 31
Exercise
Determine if the sentence requires a comma, and add it where appropriate:
47. He left the scene of the crime and tried to cover up his involvement.
48. Oil which is lighter than water rises to the surface.
49. Taxis that are dirty are illegal in some cities.
50. I thought that registration was yesterday for that’s what my teacher told me.
51. After the war the people tried to rebuild.
52. The mayor claimed victory after a long and arduous campaign.
53. Playing tag the children were running around the park.
54. The ballerina danced across the stage gracefully lightly and daintily.
55. Professor Davis a teacher of comparative literature won a teaching award this year.
56. The daisies in the garden were blooming but the vegetables were dying.
Semicolons
Semicolons are functionally exactly like a period; they separate two independent clauses – and the SAT will
not make you choose stylistically between a period and a semicolon. So if it seems like two answers are
exactly the same except they switch out a period for a semicolon, or vice-versa, they are BOTH wrong. Don't
forget the extra rule about semicolon usage in a series discussed on page 29!
Examples
Call me tomorrow; we can decide where to eat then.
You broke the contract; I expect reparation.
Exercise
Each sentence needs either a comma or a semicolon (or both). Determine the correct punctuation.
57. The obstacles are not insurmountable but they are very real and formidable.
58. Exercise is an important part of a healthy lifestyle I ride my bicycle everyday.
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59. The quarterback made the throw and the receiver made the winning touchdown.
60. I do not know if I want to visit Asia however I would love to go to Europe.
61. The artist preferred painting with oils but he also likes watercolors.
Colons
A colon indicates the beginning of an explanation or enumeration. The ONLY rule, however, is that the
clause before the colon must be a complete and finished sentence. That is, you could remove the colon and
everything after it, and the sentence would still be an independent clause.
I want to order the following: butter, sugar, and flour.
This sentence is incorrect because I want to order the following is not a complete and finished sentence.
I want to order a few items: butter, sugar, and flour.
Now it is correct.
Exercise
Label the sentences that misuse a colon:
62. The potion contained: fruits, herbs, and spices.
63. I can only see one thing: the lighthouse.
64. I had many duties at the law firm: writing, filing, and researching.
65. Humanity has one choice: stop burning fossil fuels.
66. In her bag, which was extremely heavy, there were: books, a water bottle, and a pair of scissors.
Long Dashes
On the SAT, a dash is interchangeable with a comma, separating non-essential information. It is used to
enhance readability and is more emphatic than a comma. If the SAT seems to be making you choose between
a comma and a dash, ask yourself if you'd really want to emphasize or raise your voice at that point in the
passage. Also, if non-essential information is being offset in the middle of a sentence you can’t mix and match
commas and dashes; either use two dashes or two commas.
Examples
The man, who was from San Francisco, California, arrived. (Correct)
The man – who was from San Francisco, California – arrived. (Correct)
You are the friend, the only friend, who offered to help me. (Correct)
You are the friend – the only friend, who offered to help me. (Incorrect)
hgl − 33
Comma Splice
On the SAT, you will need to be able to identify comma splices. A comma splice occurs when two independent
clauses are connected with only a comma.
My family gets together every Sunday night, we then make a huge dinner.
There are three ways to correct a comma splice.
I. Break the sentence into two with a period or semicolon.
My family gets together every Sunday night. We then make a huge dinner.
My family gets together every Sunday night; we then make a huge dinner.
II. Change the sentence into a compound sentence with a coordinating conjunction.
My family gets together every Sunday night, and we then make a huge dinner.
III. Change one independent clause into a dependent clause with a subordinating conjunction.
After my family gets together every Sunday night, we make a huge dinner.
Exercise
Identify the comma splice (if there is one) and correct it with one of each of the three methods:
67. Because my doctor told me to get more exercise, I ran to the park.
68. I didn’t like the movie, it was way too long.
69. When a student likes a class, she is much more likely to succeed.
70. He is always late to work, nobody seems to care.
71. The music is too loud, I can’t sleep.
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Apostrophes – Possession
Apostrophes are used to indicate the possession of nouns by other nouns. A noun can’t “own” a verb, keep
that in mind!
If the apostrophe is before the “s” then it is singular possession.
The boy’s green down coat is hanging in the closet.
(note that the adjectives “green” and “down” are tied to coat)
If the apostrophe comes after the “s” then it indicates plural possession.
The condors’ cage at the zoo is a tragic display of animal abuse.
Remember that if a noun is already plural then you just add an apostrophe and then an “s”. For example, “The
children’s books are missing.” means that multiple children own books. You WOULD NOT put the apostrophe
after the “s” if the noun is plural; it is an incorrect formation.
Exercise
Add all of the necessary apostrophes to the sentences:
72. My parents house wasnt part of the citys nicer areas.
73. The Romans superior infrastructure, which isnt given enough credit, allowed them to quickly move
around the legions troops.
74. Youve never tasted anything like the bakerys pecan bread.
Apostrophes – Contractions
Apostrophes are also used to combine two words into a shortened single word.
We’re going to the lake today.
You’re welcome to join us at the park.
A simple way to test if a contraction is used properly is to read the sentence with both full words and see if it
makes sense.
Exercise
Choose the correct contraction:
75. If I (were / we’re) you I wouldn’t do that.
76. Did you know that (their / they’re) never home until late at night?
77. I found (it’s / its) message to be quite obtuse.
hgl − 35
The following exercises will test your skills with the Language topics that we have covered up to this point.
Note that these questions are designed to help you review; the official practice with SAT formatting begins on
page 40.
Exercises
78. The album of 15 songs were derided for being inauthentic.
A) NO CHANGE
B) were being
C) was
D) are
79. The students, each of them too young to vote, attends the protest.
A) NO CHANGE
B) vote attend the protest
C) vote, attending the protest
D) vote, attend the protest
80. As Genghis Kahn maruaded through Eurasia, his army have conquered nearly all civilians.
A) NO CHANGE
B) had conquered
C) conquered
D) conquer
81. The Geek Squad provides expert assistance; installations and information sessions supported customers.
A) NO CHANGE
B) support
C) has supported
D) supports
82. The soft light filtered silently through the trees.
A) NO CHANGE
B) more silence
C) silent
D) silented
83. Dogs rampage through the neighborhood, quickly pursued the herd of cats.
A) NO CHANGE
B) quick to pursuing
C) quickly pursue
D) quickly pursuing
36 − hgl
84. The insurance company didn’t amend their policy for many years.
A) NO CHANGE
B) they’re
C) its
D) it’s
85. The class didn’t cover its homework until the very end of the period.
A) NO CHANGE
B) their
C) his or her
D) they’re
86. Our teacher said that each and every one of us will be invited to the math competition.
A) NO CHANGE
B) each of us will be invited
C) each and every one of us was invited
D) we all will be in the future invited
87. He was in close proximity to the stage when Jimi Hendrix set his guitar on fire.
A) NO CHANGE
B) used to be in close proximity to the stage
C) was in close to the stage
D) was close to the stage
88. Modern pick-up trucks, strong yet refined, large yet maneuverable, and capable yet comfortable, are the perfect
match for someone who needs one vehicle to do everything.
A) NO CHANGE
B) and which are capable and comfortable,
C) and having capable yet comfortable
D) and as something capable but is comfortable
89. I always make sure that we have enough quarters, dimes: and nickels in the cash register.
A) NO CHANGE
B) quarters, dimes;
C) quarters, dimes,
D) quarters dimes,
hgl − 37
90. She came in first at the slalom, and super slalom event last weekend.
A) NO CHANGE
B) slalom, super
C) slalom; super
D) slalom and super
91. Within the last day of the Iditarod, Seavey and Zirkle were neck and neck, trading places and looks of
determination before the finish line.
A) NO CHANGE
B) trading places, and looks
C) trading places - looks
D) traded places, and looks
92. Brown University decided to rescind Cosby’s honorary degree and the president publically decried his actions.
A) NO CHANGE
B) degree that
C) degree, and
D) degree; and
93. Mark Twain, probably most well-known for the Adventures of Huckleberry Finn, used a pen name for nearly all
of his writings.
A) NO CHANGE
B) Twain, probably most well-known for the Adventures of Huckleberry Finn
C) Twain probably most well-known for the Adventures of Huckleberry Finn
D) Twain, probably most well-known for the Adventures of Huckleberry Finn, and
94. Many news outlets, most of them owned by Rupert Murdoch have come under fire for disseminating mis-
information and outright lies.
A) NO CHANGE
B) outlets most of them owned by Rupert Murdoch: have
C) outlets, most of them owned by Rupert Murdoch, having
D) outlets, most of them owned by Rupert Murdoch, have
95. American footballs are really made from cowhide, pigskin is a fictional misnomer.
A) NO CHANGE
B) cowhide, pigskin being
C) cowhide; pigskin
D) cowhide, this pigskin
38 − hgl
96. Some cars pass on the left; others, swerve to the right.
A) NO CHANGE
B) left others
C) left so others
D) left; others
97. Please be careful when writing your thesis: clearly state and then expound on your ideas.
A) NO CHANGE
B) thesis; clearly states
C) thesis, clearly stating
D) thesis and clearly state
98. It’s also fast, the thousands of Washingtonians who dash from home to work and back sometimes ignore the
posted speed limit.
A) NO CHANGE
B) It’s also fast:
C) Its also fast:
D) Its also fast,
99. Never forget that they’re many facts supporting the evidence that Christopher Columbus was a criminal.
A) NO CHANGE
B) there
C) their are
D) there are
100. No one can refute the claim that its the perfect time of year for an ice cream party.
A) NO CHANGE
B) its of
C) it’s
D) its’
hgl − 39
Practice
14. Bob Marley was a Jamaican singer, musician, and songwriter. Considered one of the pioneers of reggae, his
musical career was marked by fusing elements of reggae, ska, and rocksteady, as well as his distinctive vocal
and songwriting style. Marley's contributions to music increased the visibility of Jamaican music worldwide, and
made him a global_____ continues to be popular to this day.
Which choice completes the text so that it conforms to the conventions of Standard English?
A) figure
B) figure who
C) figure,
D) figure, who
15. Mark Rothko was a Latvian-American abstract painter. He is best known for his color field paintings that depict
irregular and painterly rectangular regions of color.____ produced from 1949 to 1970.
A) These were
B) This was
C) It was
D) Which were
16. Maynard James Keenan has been an integral part of the rock band Tool's song-crafting process. One primary
purpose of Keenan's lyrics for Tool involves a desire to connect with the listeners on a personal level, encouraging
them to look within themselves for self-identity, understanding and _____ to keep the focus on the band as a
whole and on the crowd's experience, he mostly performs in the shadows at the back of the stage by the drummer
Danny Carey.
A) reflection, attempting
B) reflection and attempting
C) reflection attempting
D) reflection. Attempting
17. Lebron James is widely considered one of the greatest basketball players ever and is often compared to Michael
Jordan in debates over the greatest player of all time. He holds numerous "youngest to" distinctions, including
being the youngest player to score 30,000 career points. Offensively, he is known for his powerful athleticism and
passing, which keeps the ball in _____ his team maintain control and tempo.
A) bounds helped
B) bounds; helping
C) bounds, helping
D) bounds, helps
40 − hgl
18. Later in life, the author Toni Morrison continued to explore different art forms, such as providing texts for
original scores of classical music. She collaborated with André Previn on the song cycle Honey and Rue, which
premiered with Kathleen Battle in January 1992, and on Four Songs, which premiered at Carnegie Hall with Sylvia
McNair in November 1994. Both Sweet Talk: Four Songs on Text and Spirits In the Well (1997) were written for
Jessye Norman with music by Richard Danielpour. Morrison continued to explore alternate art forms during
this time; her 2004 children's book ____ the 50th anniversary of the Brown v. Board of Education decision that
declared racially segregated schools to be unconstitutional.
A) Remember, marks
B) Remember marks
C) Remember, marked
D) Remember: marks
19. Without the guitar innovator Leo Fender, music would look much different today than it does. While he didn't
invent the electric guitar, Fender recognized the potential for an electric guitar that was easy to hold, tune,
and play and would not feed back at dance hall volumes as the typical archtop would. In 1948, he finished the
prototype of a thin solid-body electric; it was first released in 1950 as the Fender Esquire (with a solid body and
one pickup) and then renamed the Broadcaster. Incrementally changing the shape and sound with two pickups,
making ____ more versatile, he introduced the Telecaster the year after.
A) them
B) one
C) those
D) it
20. Elon Musk has become a cult figure in business and pop culture over the years since the early 2000's. He is
associated with many brands and companies, from SpaceX to Neuralink and The Boring Company. Interestingly,
many people do not realize that Musk did not start Tesla, the company he is most famous for. Musk has drawn
widespread praise for the innovations within the world of electric _____ his inability to focus on one project,
seemingly to the detriment of his core business (most notably with the acquisition of Twitter), has left many
investors upset with his overall leadership style and vision.
A) vehicles, however
B) vehicles, however,
C) vehicles; however,
D) vehicles, however;
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21. The revered game development company FromSoftware began in 1986 in Tokyo as a business software focused
organization. That all changed in 1994, when it released King's Field for Playstation. Its success with the game
shifted the entire focus of the company to game development, and now they are famous for some of the most
difficult yet critically acclaimed titles of all time. Dark Souls originator Hidetaka Miyazaki has been the foremost
director and creator that works for FromSoftware. However, he does not always work alone, most famously
collaborating with Game of Thrones creator and author George R.R. Martin. ____ work on Elden Ring led to a
game that excelled with players and won Game of the Year in 2022.
A) They're
B) Its
C) Their
D) It's
22. According to critics, battery technology has seemingly stalled out. From mobile phones to power tools and even
electric vehicles, companies have seemed to hit a wall with the amount of power that can be provided and the
charging rates available. However, that all may change with new research into "solid state" batteries. The research
is especially exciting for the electric vehicle industry. This new technology can provide far more power to cars and
____ significant weight, all while promising charging times similar to filling up a car with fuel.
A) saves
B) save
C) saving
D) saved
23. Usually, a used car only retains a fraction of its original selling ____ if the former owner is famous or it's a rare
and highly collectible car such as the Lamborghini Miura, it can not only retain its original value but also increase
in resale exponentially.
A) price, but
B) price
C) price,
D) price but
24. "Choose Your Own Ending" books gained popularity, especially among children's books, in the late 20th century.
Choosing from multiple endings ____ a reader freedom that is unheard of within conventional literature.
A) gives
B) are giving
C) have given
D) give
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25. In 1905, Albert Einstein published four ground-breaking papers. These outlined the theory of the photoelectric
effect, explained Brownian motion, introduced special relativity, and demonstrated mass-energy equivalence.
Einstein thought that the laws of classical mechanics could no longer be reconciled with those of the
electromagnetic field, which led him to develop his special theory of relativity. He then extended the theory to
gravitational fields; he published a paper on general relativity in 1916, introducing his theory of gravitation.
In 1917, he applied the general theory of relativity to model the structure of the universe, which ____to his
explanations of particle theory and the motion of molecules.
A) led
B) having led
C) to lead
D) leading
26. In racing cars, a designer's aim is for increased downforce and grip to achieve higher cornering speeds. A
substantial amount of downforce is available by understanding the ground to be part of the aerodynamic system.
Bernoulli's principle states that with an increase in the speed of fluid (air) flow across a surface a corresponding
reduction in static pressure is achieved. Applied to racing, "ground effect" was pioneered in 1961 by Jim Hall.
Wings and body aerodynamics were widely used at the time, but if Bernoulli's principle was applied to the
underbody of the car, ____ Jim was determined to find out.
A) could cars achieve even greater speeds.

B) the cars could achieve even greater speeds.
C) cars could achieve even greater speeds?
D) could the cars achieve even greater speeds?
27. In 1972, two major developments influenced the future of the home video game market. In June, Nolan Bushnell
and Ted Dabney founded Atari, which would go on to be one of the most well-known video game companies and
play a vital role in the early generations of consoles. In September, Magnavox, an established electronics company,
released the Odyssey. While highly limited in ____ capabilities compared to future consoles and a commercial
failure, the Odyssey introduced features that became standards in the industry including removable cartridges
and multiple detached controllers for two players.
A) their
B) its
C) one's
D) its'
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Expression of Ideas
Students will use revision skills and knowledge to improve the effectiveness of written expression in
accordance with specified rhetorical goals.
There are two types of questions that fall under this domain: some focus on transitions, and the others focus
on taking bullet point information and summarizing it in the most effective way while staying true to the
specified goals of the question. These questions are all about logic, flow, focus, and comprehension; they are
not about grammatical rules.
Transitions
Transitions are often called “signal words” because they signal a relationship between ideas. They are not
used to grammatically connect sentences, but instead to make a text smoother and minimize confusion.
Transitions may begin sentences, link thoughts within sentences, or help unify sentences and paragraphs.
Correctly used transitions are vital to coherent paragraphs and compositions because they help avoid choppy,
fragmented ideas.
Logical Progression: These transition words move from one idea to a similar idea.
Similarly, Furthermore, Likewise, In the same way, Moreover
Logical Contrast: These transition words move from one idea to a contrasting idea.
However, Nonetheless, Despite this, But, Yet
Cause and Effect: These transition words imply that the following idea occurred as a result of the previous
idea.
Consequently, Therefore, As a result, Thus
Evidence: These transition words move from an idea to specific evidence for that idea.
For example, For instance, In fact
Time and sequence: These transition words place an event within a series of other events.
Finally, Meanwhile, Next, Later
This isn’t a complete list of the transition words you’ll see on the test, and you’ll even see some choices that
don’t quite fit within these five categories. However, these categories are a good place to start when tackling
“transitions” questions.
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Practice
28. Kenny Washington was an American professional football player who was the first African-American to sign
a contract with a National Football League (NFL) team in the modern (post-World War II) era. One legacy
of Washington's experience in the NFL was that Branch Rickey, president of the Brooklyn Dodgers, saw that
blacks and whites could coexist in a violent sport without much disruption, and decided that Major League
Baseball could be integrated as well. ____ for many years, Washington was ignored by the NFL and the story of
professional football's postwar integration received little attention.
Which choice completes the text with the most logical transition?
A) Indeed,
B) Furthermore,
C) Therefore,
D) However,
29. Since its introduction, the Apple iPhone has been considered the pinnacle of mobile phone design. In particular,
up to 2020, the iPhone's hardware was always looked at as being the best, forcing competitors to take design cues
from Apple and incorporate them into their competing hardware. _____ recent market share is pointing in a
different direction, with competitors such as Samsung shipping more phones than Apple during some quarters.
A) In other words,
B) Nevertheless,
C) Therefore,
D) Likewise,
30. Professor of Philosophy James Dreier argues that Decision Theory (a branch of Applied Probability Theory) has
a well developed technical apparatus backed by sound axiomatic proofs. Yet, its technical terms do not have an
agreed upon consensus. ____‘utility’ and ‘preference’ do not have a single, clear, and uncontroversial meaning.
A) Similarly,
B) Finally,
C) Therefore,
D) Specifically,
31. For years Ticketmaster has been the target of irate concert goers. Incensed by service fees and dynamic pricing
schemes, music lovers have been extremely vocal regarding their displeasure. Seeming to turn a deaf ear,
Ticketmaster doubled down on dynamic pricing and also acquired Front Gate Tickets, a music festival ticketing
service that provided services for festivals including Lollapalooza and Austin City Limits. ____ some fans have
vowed to boycott any concert venue or music act that partners with the much hated ticketing company.
A) Furthermore,
B) Still,
C) Consequently,
D) Next,
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Summarization
You must pay very close attention to the question itself when approaching these problems. These are not
related to grammar rules. Some will require you to provide the best summary, but you also might need to
emphasize something specific: look for clue words such as similar and difference. They could also incorporate
other parameters, such as what would be the best way to introduce an author, research, or book to an
audience that is not familiar with the aforementioned.
Practice
32. While researching a topic, a student has taken the following notes:
• Maika'i Tubbs is a Native hawaiian sculptor and installation artist.

• His work has been shown in the United States, Canada, Japan, and Germany, among other places.
• Many of his sculptures feature discarded objects.
• His work Erasure (2008) includes discarded audiocassette tapes and magnets.
• His work Home Grown (2009) includes discarded pushpins, plastic plates and forks, and wood.
The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the two works. Which choice most effectively uses relevant
information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
A) Erasure (2008) uses discarded objects such as audiocassette tapes and magnets; Home Grown (2009), however,
includes pushpins, plastic plates and forks, and wood.
B) Like many of Tubbs's sculptures, both Erasure and Home Grown include discarded objects: Erasure uses
audiocassette tapes, and Home Grown uses plastic forks.
C) Tubbs's work, which often features discarded objects, has been shown both within the United States and
abroad.
D) Tubbs completed Erasure in 2008 and Home Grown in 2009.
• The Heliocentric Model has the Earth and other planets revolving around the sun.
• Ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle was a proponent of the Heliocentric Model.
• The Geocentric Model has the sun and other planetary bodies revolving around the Earth.
• Ancient Greek philosopher Ptolemy was a proponent of the Geocentric Model.
• The Heliocentric Model eventually became dominant after Copernicus demonstrated that it better utilized
mathematics to explain astronomical observations.
The student wants to emphasize a similarity between the Heliocentric and Geocentric theories. Which choice
most effectively uses relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
A) The Heliocentric and Geocentric models are both widely accepted by scientists today.
B) Both the Heliocentric and Geocentric models incorporate rotational movement.
C) The Geocentric and Heliocentric models were both widely known by the citizens of ancient Greece.
D) Aristotle and Copernicus were both eminent scientists who lived in ancient Greece.
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• Miles Davis was a famous jazz musician who was born in 1926 in Illinois and died in 1991 in California.
• Davis studied for a time at the Julliard School, a music conservatory in New York City.
• Davis is best known for his trumpet playing.
• Louis Armstrong was also a famous jazz musician, who was born in 1901 in Louisiana and died in 1971 in
New York.
• Armstrong learned much of his musical skill, including reading music, by playing on riverboats.
• Armstrong is well known for both trumpet playing and vocal skill.
The student wants to emphasize a difference between the two musicians. Which choice most effectively uses
relevant information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
A) Davis and Armstrong both were excellent trumpet players.
B) Davis and Armstrong were both born in the United States.
C) Armstrong's education was less formal than Davis's.
D) Davis was born several years earlier than Armstrong.
• The Higgs boson is the fundamental force-carrying particle of the Higgs field.
• The particle is named for Peter Higgs.
• Higgs's initial theory was met with objections.
• Higgs wrote an important response to the objections and showed with mathematical proof that if
calculating within the radiation gauge, the objections would become inapplicable.
• Nearly 50 years later, in 2012, Higgs's research was proven accurate when a subatomic particle with the
expected properties was discovered by the ATLAS and CMS experiments at the Large Hadron Collider
(LHC) at CERN near Geneva, Switzerland.
The student wants to present a short history of the Higgs boson. Which choice most effectively uses relevant
information from the notes to accomplish this goal?
A) As scientists approached the end of the 20th Century, advances in particle physics had answered many
questions that surrounded the fundamental building blocks of nature.
B) Higgs's field provided the framework for the mathematical and eventual empirical evidence of the Higgs
boson.
C) Higgs's response to his objectors was irrefutable proof that the particle eventually named after him existed.
D) The Higgs boson was finally discovered in 2012 at CERN.
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sat • math
Math
The Math section of the SAT consists of two modules; the first has a mixed difficulty, and the second will either
be easier or harder based on performance on the first module. Each module is 22 questions with a time given
of 35 minutes, for a maximum of 70 minutes across the full Math section. Roughly 25% of the questions are
Student Produced Response – meaning you will not have multiple choice answers to choose from. These are
scattered throughout each module, they do not come in one “chunk.” They also will orient about 30% of the
questions in “real world” scenarios, and finally, both modules will incorporate informational graphs within
some of the questions.
The SAT codes the Math section with problems from four domains, with a certain percentage of questions
devoted to each domain:
Algebra (35%)
Students must analyze, solve, and create linear equations and inequalities as well
as analyze and solve systems of equations using multiple techniques.
Advanced Math (35%)

Students must demonstrate skills and knowledge central for successful progression to more advanced
math courses, including analyzing, solving, interpreting, and creating equations, including absolute value,
quadratic, exponential, polynomial, rational, radical, and other nonlinear equations, as well as analyzing
and solving systems of linear and nonlinear equations in two variables.
Problem Solving and Data Analysis (15%)

Students must apply quantitative reasoning about ratios, rates, and proportional relationships; understand
and apply unit rate; and analyze and interpret one and two-variable data.
Geometry and Trigonometry (15%)

Students must solve problems that focus on perimeter, area, and volume; angles, triangles, and
trigonometry; and circles.
General Strategies
A good strategy for most people is to adopt a “one pass-two pass” system; in short, if you really don’t
understand how to do a question after reading through it, skip to the next question and see if it’s easier
(remember you can always go back). Keep repeating the process until the end of the section, and then go back
to questions that were more confusing. Generally, the questions become harder the farther you progress in a
module, but just because a later question is classified as “hard” doesn’t mean that it necessarily will be hard
for you – it might deal with a topic you’ve just studied and feel comfortable with. However, the last question
or two in each section is generally VERY difficult. Remember, there is no guessing penalty! Make sure to enter
an answer for every question.
The SAT incorporates word problems into both Math sections. You CANNOT just skip word problems because
you don’t like them. Get used to processing the questions sentence by sentence, take short notes on each
sentence, write down what variables mean, and translate words into algebra. The more practice you do with
those skills the faster and more confident you’ll be when encountering all of the Math problems.
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sat • Math
Strategy – Student-Produced Responses
Carefully note the SAT’s guidelines on the questions that aren’t multiple choice. You MUST follow these or else
you will get no credit.
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sat • math
Definitions
The basis of your math knowledge is grounded in understanding a handful of key terms that will show up
across multiple domains. Make sure you fully understand these definitions.
Factors
A factor is one of two numbers that when multiplied together equal another number. For example, the
following are factors of 36: (1,36); (2,18); (3,12); (4,9); (6). If you have two terms with variables then the
greatest common factor is found by looking at both the coefficient and the variable(s) that appear in both
terms to the highest power. E.g. 18xy2z3 and 12xz2 have a GCF of 6xz2.
Integers
Integers are all whole numbers, positive or negative, including zero.
Prime Numbers
Prime numbers are all numbers that are only evenly divisible (no remainder left over) by 1 and themselves.
For example, 7 is a prime number. Also, remember 1 IS NOT a prime number and 2 is the first as well as the
only even prime number.
Domain and Range

The domain of an equation or graph is all of the x-values that make the equation true. The range is all of the
y-values that make the equation true.
Translating Word Problems

Common terms come up in word problems that should be thought of as their corollary function in algebra.
- “Sum” equals “+”.
- “Difference” equals “−”.
- “Product” equals “x” (multiplication).
- “Quotient” equals “/ ” (division).
- “Is” equals “=”.
- “Of” equals “x” (multiplication) - specifically in percentage problems.
- “More than” could indicate the use of the inequality symbol “>”.
- “Less than” could indicate the use of the inequality symbol “<”.
Data Analysis – Sets, Range, Frequency

Any group of numbers can be a set. For example, {1, 3, 4, 5, 1000} is a set. The range of a set, not to be
confused with the range of an equation, is the difference between the least and the greatest of the numbers.
In the above set the range is 999. Frequency, as it tends to be used on the SAT, means the number of times a
number is used in a data analysis question.
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sat • Math
Digits
There are ten digits, 0 – 9. Don’t make the mistake under pressure of thinking that there are only nine! In a
multi-digit number, every place has a name:
In the number 4876 the 4 is in the “thousands” place, the 8 in the “hundreds,” the 7 in the “tens” and the 6 is
called the “ones” or “units” digit.
In the number 0.2398 the 2 is in the “tenths” place, the 3 in the “hundredths,” the 9 in the “thousandths,” and
the 8 in the “ten-thousandths.” Remember, with decimals this corresponds directly to fractions. For example,
0.008 has an 8 in the “thousandths” position and can be represented as 8/1000.
Practice
1. If 30 less than 4x is 50, what is the value of x?
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
2. 88 + 3 + 2/5 + 8/100 =
A) 90.058
B) 91.428
C) 91.408
D) 91.48
3. Two whole numbers have a greatest common factor of 8 and a least common multiple of 48. Which of the
following pairs of numbers will satisfy the given conditions?
A) 6 and 18
B) 12 and 24
C) 16 and 36
D) 16 and 18
4. One traffic light flashes every 14 seconds. Another traffic light flashes every 21 seconds. If they flash together and
you begin counting seconds, how many seconds after they flash together will they next flash together?
A) 28
B) 38
C) 42
D) 84
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sat • math
The Order of Operations and Basic Skills

Remember the Order of Operations and its associated acronym, PEMDAS – Parentheses, Exponents,
Multiplication, Division, Addition, Subtraction. No matter what type of problem you’re doing, the rules of
algebra always apply! Don’t become sidetracked in a question and forget the fundamentals of this basic
algebraic rule. Also, an equation that involves a quotient is undefined if the denominator is zero. In other
words, you can’t divide by zero! Finally, no matter what, if you’re adding or subtracting fractions you MUST
have a common denominator.
(5x + 5y)(2x – 2y)
Practice
9. Which of the following is equivalent to the
expression above?
A) 5x2 – 2y2
5. If 2x + 4 = 100, what is the value of 6x + 12? B) (5x – 2y)2
C) 10(x2 – y2)
A) 400 D) 10(x – y)2
B) 300
C) 288
D) 48

10. If b = 3√(3) and 3b = √(9x), what is the
value of x?
80x 12y-4
6. Simplify =
x 12(y-2)2
11.
7. If x = 2 and y = 3 what does (3xy)2(-2x5)3 = ?
3w2
8. Simplify =
(3w)2 (2w − 4)-2
12.
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sat • Math
Algebra and Advanced Math

There is a lot of overlap in concepts, content, and skills within these two domains, and combined they make
up the largest percentage of questions on the SAT Math section. With your foundational skills in place, now
it’s time to look at all of the types of problems that are in these domains.
Linear Equations
As their name suggests, if you graph a linear equation you will get a line (although you won’t need to graph
every problem). Many of them require you to solve for a variable.
Graphing Linear Equations
There are important formulas and concepts that you need to fully understand when dealing with these types
of problems.
10
9
If the end points of a line segment are (x1 ,y1 ) and (x2 ,y2 ), then: 8
7
6
5
4
Distance Formula 3
The distance between two points = √((x2 – x1)2 + (y2 – y1)2) 2
1
–10 –9 –8 –7 –6 –5 –4 –3 –2 –1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
–2
Midpoint Formula x1 + x2 y1 + y2 –3
The coordinates of the midpoint of the line segment = , –4
2 2 –5
–6
–7
Slope Formula y2 − y1
–8
–9
The slope of a line = x − x –10
2 1
Slope-Intercept Form
y = mx + b, where “m” is the slope (or gradient) and “b” is the y-intercept.
Lines rising in a northeast direction have a positive slope, lines falling in a southeast direction have a negative
slope, horizontal lines have zero slope, and a vertical line has an undefined slope. Two lines that are parallel
have the same slope and two lines that are perpendicular to each other have slopes that are negative
reciprocals of each other.
positive
zero
negative
undefined
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sat • math
Practice
13. If x/y + 2 = 6y + 6, what is the value of x when y = 3?

A) 60
B) 62
C) 64
D) 66
14.
15.
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sat • Math
16.
17. In the xy-plane, what is the slope of the line that is

perpendicular to the line y + 3x = 7?
Equations – f(x) Notation

Remember that f(x) is really just a different way of writing “y.” Therefore y = f(x). But we can use other
variables as well. You could have another function that is g(x). Meaning, there is a function “g” that requires
an “x” to find a “y.” Mathematicians use f(x) notation as an easy way to talk about evaluating a function at a
specific number and to name different equations in longer calculations.
The easiest way to view f(x) notation is to envision the given equation as a machine containing an input and an
output. Whatever goes into the input of the machine comes out in the appropriate spot of the output. We can
see how any function behaves by using “plug and chug” and putting in values for x to observe how f(x)
– or y – behaves. Take the time to test answers, whether you’re using a table, a graph, a function, or a
combination of the aforementioned in a problem, to make sure everything agrees so that you get the correct
answer.
ƒ(x) = 3x+9
/ \
input output
If in the above equation we are asked what is the value of f(3) then our “input” is 3 and we simply plug it into
the right side of the equation to give us an output of 18.
Also, don’t be confused by other letters in f(x) notation. There could be a function that asks you what values of
“a” make the functions g(a) and f(a) equal to one another. a in this case is just some value for x!
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sat • math
“Double Nested” f(x) Notation

The SAT will try to confuse you with these types of problems, but they’re actually usually quite easy. Just
calculate the “inside” first.
Example
If f(x) = x3 + 4x –3 and g(x) = x2, what is the value of f(g(-3))?
g(-3) = (-3)2 which equals 9. Now just plug 9 into f(x). f(9) = 93 + 4(9) –3 = 60
Absolute Value
The core idea with absolute value is that it is the distance to zero on a number line, which means it can come
from the positive or the negative direction. This idea is then extrapolated to algebra problems where we are
finding the value of x that makes an equation true. Because of this, absolute value problems that require
solving for a variable have two solutions.
Example
Solve for x in the equation |x − 4| = 12.
You would set up two equations: x − 4 = 12 and x − 4 = -12. Therefore the two solutions are 16 and -8. Notice
that our two solutions get us to a place where we are back to referencing the original definition of absolute
value, but because of the algebraic nature we are traveling 12 units from 4 in both directions.
However, be careful, what would the solution be if the original equation were changed to |x − 4| = -12?
Inequalities
When doing algebra, we can treat inequality signs just like an equals sign in most situations. The only
exception is when you are dividing or multiplying by a negative number in your operation, then you have to
flip the inequality every time (although you typically will only do this once on the SAT).
Example
What is the domain of x in the equation -2x < 8?
Here we would divide both sides by -2 which would give us a domain of x > -4. Notice that we flipped the
symbol because we divided by a negative.
The SAT might combine an inequality problem with an absolute value problem. In this case you still need to
set up two equations, but because you are essentially multiplying by negative 1 with your second equation
you must immediately flip the sign on the initial problem setup.
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sat • Math
Example
If |2x + 8| > 24, which of the following is a possible value of x?
A) -1
B) 0
C) 6
D) 9
We will set up two equations: 2x + 8 > 24 and 2x + 8 < -24. From here we solve as usual. Our two answers will
be x > 8 and x < -4. Because this is multiple choice, only one answer will fit our domain, so the answer is D.
Simultaneous Equations
From word problems to charts the SAT uses many instances of simultaneous equations (problems that literally
involve, usually, two linear equations, but sometimes might involve a linear as well as a quadratic equation).
You may have to decipher a problem and come up with the equations on your own, or you may have to
manipulate equations directly given to you. Some are designed to be solved using the “elimination” method:
You can add and subtract equations from one another to cancel out a variable – hence the term “elimination.”
You can also multiply or divide every term in an equation by a constant to “scale up” or “scale down”
before adding or subtracting. However, other problems might more efficiently be solved by using the classic
"substitution" method.
The “solution” in a system of equations is where the lines cross. A system of equations has infinite solutions
if they are the exact same line. However, if two lines have the same slope but have a different y-intercept
they are parallel and there are NO solutions.
Example
If x – y = 12 and 2x + y = 15 what does x equal?
First, stack the equations on top of each other:

x – y = 12
2x + y = 15 Then, add like terms.
3x = 27
Now, solve for x.

x=9
Practice
18. Solve for x: 4x − 3y = 6

3x − 2y = 17
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sat • math
19. If 2x + 2y = 12p, and x − 2y = 24q, then x =
A) 4pq
B) 4p + 8q
C) pq
D) 4p − 8q
20. What is one possible solution for x in the equation |2x + 4| = 19?
21. If |x| = x + 16 what is the value of x?
A) -4
B) 4
C) 8
D) -8
22.
23. If f(x) = x2 – 5x + 1 and g(x) = f(3x), what is g(4)?
24. If f(x) – f(x + 2) = 3x − 5 and f(8) = 20, what is the value of f(6)?
A) 13
B) 19
C) 33
D) 55
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sat • Math
y=x+1
y = x2 + x
25. If (x, y) is a solution to the system of equations above, which of the following could be the value of x?
A) -1
B) 0
C) 2
D) 3
ax + by = 25
3x + 4y = 75
26. In the system of equations above, a and b are constants. If the system has infinitely many solutions, what is the
value of b/a?
27.
28.
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sat • math
29. If f is the function defined by f(x) = (2x – 1)/3, what is

the value of f(5)?
A) 4/3
B) 7/3
C) 3
D) 9
30. For which of the following functions is f(-2) > f(2)?
A) f(x) = -4 + x
B) f(x) = 4x
C) f(x) = -7 − x
D) f(x) = -(8 − x)
31. Solve for x: 2(4x – 8) + 7 > x + 10
32. Solve for x: 3x – 8 ≥ 7

-7
33. If |5 − 2x| > 11, which of the following is a possible value of x?
A) -1
B) 0
C) 6
D) 9
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sat • Math
y = x2 – 5x + 6
y = x – 2
34. If (x,y) is a solution to the system of equations above, what is one possible value of the product of x and y?
x = 3y + 3
144 – 4y = 11x
35. The equations of two lines are shown. Which ordered pair represents the point at which the lines intersect
when they are graphed in the xy-plane?
A) (12, 3)
B) (6, 8)
C) (10, 11)
D) (0, 0)
36. If f(x) = 4x2 – 8x + 9, what is f(x –3)?
A) 4x2 – 8x + 17
B) 4x2 – 8x + 69
C) 4x2 – 32x + 17
D) 4x2 – 32x + 69
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Quadratic Equations
The SAT will thoroughly test your knowledge of quadratic equations; and yes, memorizing the quadratic
formula is necessary. Quadratic equations have a degree of 2 (one of the variables is raised to a power of 2)
and their solutions are where they cross the x-axis. Also, a “solution” to a quadratic is the same as a “zero,”
“x-intercept,” and “root.” They may use any of these terms interchangeably.
The STANDARD form for Quadratics is ax2 + bx + c = 0, which we then factor (when possible) to find the
solutions. Alternatively, you may need to use the VERTEX form of a quadratic in certain problems, which is
y = a(x – h)2 + k, where (h,k) is the vertex of the parabola.
Also, the x-coordinate of the vertex of a parabola can be found from the standard form with the formula
-b/(2a), the SAT likes to incorporate this knowledge into some of the hardest problems.
Finally, the discriminate, b2 – 4ac, of the quadratic formula tells us how many solutions there are.
The Quadratic Formula The Vertex Form X - Coordinate of Vertex
y = a(x − h)2 + k h = -b/(2a)
The Discriminate Test
If b2 – 4ac > 0 there are two real solutions to the quadratic equation.
If b2 – 4ac < 0 there are two non-real solutions to the quadratic equation.
If b2 – 4ac = 0 there is one real solutions to the quadratic equation.
Practice
37. If x2 − 4x − 32 = 0, what is a possible value of x?
38. The quadratic x2 − 7x + 12 is exactly divisible by which of the following?
A) x−5
B) x+4
C) x + 3
D) x−4
39.
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40. If (x + 2)(x + 4) − (x − 3)(x − 5) = 0, then x = ?
A) -2
B) -1/2
C) 0
D) 1/2

41. What is one possible solution for 3x2 = 24?
42. If 3x2 + 10x − 8 = 0 what is one of the solutions to this equation?
43. What is the positive solution of the equation (2x + 1)2 – (x +13) = 3x2 – 2x +2 ?
44. Jim has a fence around his rectangular garden. The garden has a length that is 4 feet more than 2 times its width.
What is the perimeter of the garden if the area of the garden is 160 square feet?
A) 56 feet
B) 58 feet
C) 60 feet
D) 62 feet
45. In the xy-plane, if the parabola with equation y = ax2 + bx + c, where a, b, and c are constants, passes through the
point (5,-6), which of the following must be true?
A) 25a − 2b = -6
B) -5b + c = -6
C) 25a − 5b + c = -6
D) 25a + 5b + c = -6
46. Which of the following is the factored form of 3x + 7y − 21 − xy?
A) (3x − 7)(y + 3)
B) (-y + 3)(x − 7)
C) (x + 3)(y − 7)
D) (x + 3)(-y − 7)
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47. Which of the following is an equivalent form of the equation that

y = x2 – 4x + 12
is graphed to the right, from which the coordinates of vertex V can
be identified as constants in the equation?
A) y = 8(x − 2)2 + 4
B) y = 4(x − 2)2 + 8
C) y = 12(x − 2)2 + 8
D) y = (x − 2)2 + 8 8 V
4
1 2
48. What is the domain of the equation 5x2 − 34x + 24 = 0?
A) x≤6
B) x ≥ 4/5
C) x ≥ 4/5 or x ≤ 6
D) x = 4/5 and x = 6
49. What is one solution of the equation 8x3 + 20x2 − 18x − 45 = 0?
A) 5/2
B) 5
C) 3/2
D) 7/4
50. What is the non-zero solution of the equation 9x3 − 72x2 + 144x = 0?
51. How many real solutions exist for the equation 5x4 − 80 = 0?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
52. If (ax + 4)(bx + 3) = 24x2 + cx + 12 for all values of x, and a + b = 11, what are the two possible values for c?
A) 24 and 36
B) 32 and 34
C) 36 and 39
D) 36 and 41
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Graphing – Exponential, Linear & Transformations

We’ve already covered linear graphing in some detail; here we will discuss common transformations and make
sure the foundations of linear vs. exponential are intact.
Transformations
If we revisit the graphs of quadratics that are in vertex form, we notice that transformations are fairly easy to
figure out. For example, if we take one of the most basic quadratics, y = x2, we know that it has a vertex at the
origin. Beginning to make changes, if we have y = (x + 4)2 we know that it looks the same but is shifted to the
left 4 units. If we then edit it to be y = (x + 4)2 + 6 the line is shifted to the left by 4 units and is also shifted up 6
units.
The SAT will also ask questions related to graphing, such as what is the minimum value of a quadratic function.
Keep in mind that this is dependent on the specific function in question, you can always put it into vertex form
OR you could just use your calculator, graph it, and see where the minimum is.
You may also be given coordinates and then will have to rely heavily on your algebra skills to solve for a
variable.
Practice
53.
54.
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55.
56.
57.
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Strategies
We're going to take a break from specific concepts and go over powerful strategies for certain types of math
questions. These may apply to problems across all of the domains on the SAT Math section.
Start With "C"

Certain problems seem to need the creation of a specific equation. However, sometimes that is a "time trap"
and the easiest way to solve is to decode the problem using logic and common sense, then assume “C” is
the correct answer and work through the required steps. If “C” is the correct answer, great! If not, you can
use deductive reasoning to eliminate answers less than “C” or the one answer greater than “C.” Then quickly
try any remaining plausible answers to find the correct one. You'll know that "Start with C" is a viable option
if all of the answers are numbers (and usually it's a word problem). You don't have to use this strategy, and
sometimes it is slower, but on particularly confusing problems it can be indispensable.
Practice
58. Francesca spent $855 on expenses for a trip. The expenses included hotel, rental car, and meals. She spent 50
percent more for the hotel than for the rental car and meals combined. What did Francesca spend on her hotel?
A) $570
B) $513
C) $214
D) $155
59. The total cost for three days at Water World Kingdom for John and his niece is $400. Because John is an adult his
ticket is $40 more than three times his niece’s, what is the cost of his niece’s ticket?
A) 6 0
B) 70
C) 80
D) 90
60. What is the least possible integer for which 35 percent of that integer is greater than 2.3?
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
61. When each side of a given square is lengthened by 3 inches, the area is increased by 87 square inches. What is the
length, in inches, of a side of the original square?
A) 13
B) 14
C) 15
D) 16
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Be Creative
One approach to the SAT Math sections that cannot be stressed enough is to be creative. You won’t know how
to solve every single problem just from briefly looking at it, and that’s ok! You have to be willing to take time
to “explore” the question.
Answers
Always look at the answers when you read the question. They can tell you a lot about what solving strategy
to take or what your final goal should be. Don’t just blindly start solving and possibly create more work for
yourself or go in a direction that won’t really get you the answer in an efficient manner.
Word Problems
The SAT will incorporate multi-step word problems. The strategy for dealing with these problems is mapping
the question as you read through it, looking at each sentence individually, and systematically putting the
pieces together.
There are three main issues that trip students up when dealing with word problems:
1) There is a lot of information, and students will try to quickly look at it without breaking it into pieces.
2) Students try to come up with one quick equation to solve the whole problem.
3) Only part of the problem is solved without getting to the final step.
Remember that a few extra seconds spent looking at the problem and synthesizing the information can make
all the difference. Write down what you know and what the problem presents. If there is no picture and it is a
visual problem, DRAW ONE! This will significantly impact your comprehension.
Note!
On all types of multiple choice problems, the SAT will often give you an answer option that is easy to get if you
miss a step, enter something wrong in your calculator, or interpret something incorrectly. They purposefully
are putting those answers there to trick you. Be extremely careful, especially on the hardest questions, when
reading through the problem and solving.
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Problem Solving and Data Analysis

On these problems you will need to apply quantitative reasoning regarding ratios, rates, and proportional
relationships as well as understand and apply unit rates and conversion. You'll also be tasked with analyzing
and interpreting one and two-variable data. Finally, basic knowledge about statistics is necessary.
Percentages
As a pure concept a percentage is “part/whole.” Problems will likely be more complicated than that simple
ratio, but at the heart of it, a percentage is merely a specific relationship between two numbers. Converting
percentages to decimals in order to do calculations should be second nature for anyone taking the SAT. Just
move the decimal place two positions to the left to convert a percentage to a decimal, and vice-versa to go
back to a percentage. For example, 5% is 0.05 as a decimal; and 0.23 is 23% as a percentage.
4 Types of Percentage Problems
Type 1: Taking one percentage
In a situation where there is only one percentage being calculated, simply convert the percentage into a
decimal and multiply. This is the easiest type of percentage problem.
Q: What is 43% of 88?

A: (0.43)(88) = 37.84
Type 2: Taking two percentages without the passage of time
Sometimes you will be asked to take two percentages within one problem. If this happens, pay attention to
the chronology in the problem. If you are taking the percentages simultaneously, then simply convert all of the
percentages to decimals and multiply through.
Q: What is 32% of 44% of 78?

A: (0.32)(0.44)(78) = 10.98
Type 3: Taking two percentages WITH the passage of time
If time lapses between the two percentages, then you must do the problem in steps. Take the first percentage,
then use the result in your second calculation for a percent increase or decrease.
Q: Susan buys skis that are 20% off the retail price of $600. She then sells them for a 15% profit. How
much does she sell them for?
A: 600 − 600(0.2) = 480 :: 480 + 480(0.15) = 552
After you are fully comfortable with the two-step process it is highly recommended that you adopt a one-step
process: in the above example it would be (600)(0.8)(1.15) = 552
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Type 4: Percent Increase or Decrease
If a problem asks about how to find the percent increase or decrease between two values remember to first
find the difference between the original and new value and then divide that result by the original value.
Conceptually, you are comparing the change to the original value.
Q: If Jim got a bonus of $1200 last year and this year he got a bonus of $1800. What is the percent increase
of his bonus this year compared to last year?
A: 1800 − 1200 = 600 :: 600/1200 = 0.5 :: So it was a 50% increase in his bonus.
Practice
62. In Mr. Edwards Advanced Logic class, students must take both a written exam and an oral exam. In the past, 65%
of his students passed the written exam and 45% of those who passed the written exam also passed the oral exam.
Based on these figures, about how many students in a class of 120 would you expect to pass both exams?
A) 35
B) 36
C) 40
D) 45
63. A motorcycle that sells for $5200 is subject to a sales tax of 7.25%. Which of the following calculations gives the
total cost of the motorcycle?
A) 5200 + 5200(7.25)
B) 5200(0.0725)
C) 5200 + 5200(0.725)
D) 5200 + 5200(0.0725)
64. The enrollment at a high school increased 20 percent between 2010 and 2012. Enrollment then increased 15
percent between 2012 and 2014. The enrollment in 2014 was what percent greater than in 2010?
A) 35%
B) 36%
C) 37%
D) 38%
65. A positive number x is increased by 20% to produce y. If y is decreased by 30% to produce z, then z is equivalent
to which of the following?
A) x decreased by 10 percent
B) x decreased by 14 percent
C) x increased by 4 percent
D) x decreased by 16 percent
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Statistics
The mean, median, and mode are three fairly well-known terms used in statistical analysis. Standard Deviation
will most likely show up on the exam, but don’t worry, you won’t need to know how to calculate it.
Mean
The arithmetic mean, or average, is defined as the sum of a group of terms, divided by the number of terms;
For example, the average of 3, 4, 5, and 6 is (3+4+5+6)/4.
Median
In a set of terms arranged in increasing or decreasing order, the median is the middle term. If the set has an
even number of terms, the median is the average of the two middle terms.
For example, in the set {1, 3, 4, 9, 23} the median is 4. In the set {1,4,7,45} the median is the average of 4 and
7, which is 5.5.
Mode
In a set of values, the mode is the value which occurs most frequently. Note that a set can have more than one
mode if two numbers appear the most (and the same) amount of time.
In the set {16, 16, 17, 17, 17, 18, 26} the mode is 17. In the set {4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 5, 6, 7} the modes are 4 and 5.
Standard Deviation
The standard deviation of a set of numbers is how spread out the numbers are from the mean. Specifically, it
is the square root of the variance.
BUT, good news! You have to understand Standard Deviation, not calculate it on the SAT!
What you do want to understand is how standard deviation is affected by the concentration and range of
numbers in a set. For instance, if I have a set of five numbers consisting of {1, 5, 6, 7, 10} and a different set
of five numbers {4, 4, 5, 5, 5} clearly the first set has a larger range and the standard deviation is greater. But
it’s NOT just about the range: for instance you could have the set {5, 8, 11, 13, 15} and the set {5, 10, 10, 11,
15}. They both have a range of 10 (largest number minus the smallest number), but the second set has all the
middle numbers concentrated, so its standard deviation is smaller than the first set.
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Practice
66. The average (arithmetic mean) of the numbers in set A is 12. If a second set of numbers, B, is created by dividing
each of the numbers in set A by three, then what is the average of the numbers in set B?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 6
D) 12
67. In Jorge’s math class all tests count equally. Jorge has taken 3 of the 4 tests in geography this semester and earned
scores of 89%, 86%, and 98% respectively. What is the minimum score Jorge needs on the fourth test to have a
test average of 93%?
A) 96%
B) 97%
C) 98%
D) 99%
{8, 11, x, 12, 8, 11, 8, 11, 11}
68. If the set of numbers above has both a median and a single mode of 11, then each of the numbers below could be
the value of x EXCEPT
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
69. The average of x and y is 12 and the average of x, y, and z is 36. What is the value of z?
A) 24
B) 44
C) 64
D) 84
70. An average of 20 people use a town’s pool each weekday and an average of 54 people use the pool each weekend
day. To the nearest whole number, what is the average daily use of the pool over the entire week?
A) 29
B) 30
C) 31
D) 32
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71. For which of the following data sets is the mean greater than the median?
A) 5, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5, 5
B) 0, 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, 70, 80
C) 2, 4, 6, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128, 256, 512
D) 7, 107, 107, 207, 207, 207, 307, 307, 307
72.
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Statistical Methodology
There will be one or two questions on the exam that require familiarity with how data can be interpreted and
used. We'll look at a few sample questions to cover the concepts involved with these long word problems.
Examples
I. To determine if cooking with butter reduces the risk of cancer for men, researchers interviewed a random sample
of 4,000 men who had no history of cancer. Study participants were identified as either regular or occasional
butter users. Fifteen years later, researchers interviewed the men again. They found that the proportion of men
who exhibited pre-cancer markers or who were diagnosed with cancer was significantly lower for men identified
as regular butter users. Which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion of the study?
A) Butter use causes a reduction in the risk of cancer for men and women.
B) Butter use causes a reduction in the risk of cancer for men but not necessarily for women.
C) There is an association between butter use and the risk of cancer for men and women, but it is not necessarily
a cause-and-effect relationship.
D) There is an association between butter use and the risk of cancer for men, but it is not necessarily a
cause-and-effect relationship, and the association may not exist for women.
Explanation: If this study was only conducted with men, it is inappropriate to extrapolate those results to
another demographic. Also, you can't draw a wide cause-and-effect conclusion from a study such as this.
"Association" is the best you can do. Therefore, the answer is "D."
II. During a news broadcast in Spain, the host invited viewers to respond to a poll on the show's website that asked
"Do you support the new policy discussed during the show?" At the end of the show, 30% responded "Yes" and
67% responded "No." Which of the following best explains why the results are unlikely to represent the sentiments
of the population of Spain?
A) The percentages do not add up to 100%, so any possible conclusions from the poll are invalid.
B) Those who responded to the poll were not a random sample of the population of Spain.
C) There were not 50% "Yes" responses and 50% "No" responses.
D) The show did not allow viewers enough time to respond to the poll.
Explanation: Studies must be randomized. For example, you can't go to a public park and poll people about
whether or not they support additional funding for parks. Likewise, viewers of the above news show are
all drawn to watching for one reason or another, but that self-selection destroys the randomization. So the
correct answer is "B."
III. To determine the mean number of children per household in a community, Brian surveyed 20 families at a
playground. Of those surveyed, the mean number of children per household was 2.5. Which of the following
statements must be true?
A) The mean number of children per household in the community is 2.5.

B) A determination about the mean number of children per household in the community should not be made because
the sample size is too small.
C) The sampling method is flawed and may produce a biased estimate.
D) The sampling method is not flawed and is likely to produce an unbiased estimate.
Explanation: It's very easy to answer incorrectly on this question. 20 families isn't a lot, but it is not too small
of a sample size. This study is flawed because it was conducted at a playground and is asking about children
per household – this isn't a random sampling and the results can't be applied to the whole community.
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IV. A study was done on the weights of different types of fish in a river. A random sample of fish were caught and
marked in order to ensure that none were weighed more than once. The sample contained 200 brown trout that
had an average weight of 1.2 pounds with a margin of error of 0.2 pounds. Which of the following conclusions is
best supported by the sample data?
A) The 200 sampled brown trout weigh between 1.0 and 1.4 pounds.
B) The average weight of all fish in the river is approximately 1.2 pounds.
C) The average weight of all brown trout in the river is approximately 1.2 pounds.
D) The average weight of all brown trout in the river is between 1.0 and 1.4 pounds.
Explanation: The margin of error applies to the larger population, NOT to the initial sample (we can be fairly
certain the researchers weighed those 200 brown trout correctly). Therefore, the correct answer is "D."
Unit Conversions
The best way to approach these questions is to set up the conversion and make sure all of the units cancel
out, leaving what you want at the end. This method is referred to as "unit cancelation."
Example
A cheetah ran 6000 yards. To the nearest thousandth, how many miles did the cheetah run? (1 yard = 3 feet and
5,280 feet = 1 miles).
(6000 yards) (3 feet) (1 mile) = 3.409

(1 yard) (5,280 feet)
Notice how if it's set up correctly, all of the units cancel except what we want for our final answer.

Practice
73. The distance traveled by Mars in one orbit around the sun is about 888,000,000 miles. It takes Mars about 687
Earth days to complete one full orbit around the sun. Which of the following is closest to the average speed, in
miles per hour, that Mars travels?
A) 1,300,000
B) 800,000
C) 83,000
D) 54,000
74. Tony puts in a wild flower garden that is 2.25 acres in area. If the seed he bought covers 8000 ft2 per bag, how
many bags of seed will he need to cover the entire garden? (Note that an acre is commonly defined as 660 ft. x 66
ft.)
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Ratios and Probability

We’ve already talked about how the concept of a percentage is really about the relationship (ratio) between
two numbers. A ratio is basically another way to express a fraction, but ratios themselves can be expressed in
two ways: with a colon (2:3) or as a fraction (2/3) – for solving purposes you’ll usually be thinking in terms of
fractions. This idea can be extrapolated to direct and indirect variation problems as well as probability.
Direct Variation
Two quantities are said to vary directly if they change in the same direction: as one number
increases the other increases.
Example
If a four-ounce package of Swedish Fish costs 80 cents, then what is the cost of a pound of Swedish
Fish?
The related quantities are cents and ounces. Set up your proportion: 80/4 = x/16. Cross multiply and solve,
and you get: 4x = 1280; x = 320. Remember that x stood for cents, so the cost is $3.20.
Indirect Variation
An indirect relationship is in some ways the opposite of direct variation. With indirect variation as one
quantity increases, another quantity decreases (this can also be referred to as an inverse relationship). An
inverse relationship can be thought of as a fraction, where a quantity equals 1 or a constant multiplied by a
number (and can also include addition or subtraction) over another quantity.
In the equation y = (2k+3)/x we are presented with an inverse relationship between x and y (k is commonly
used as a variable to represent a constant). No matter what we do, if x increases, y will become smaller.
Conversely, if x decreases, y will become bigger.
Finally, be careful when you encounter word problems that involve thinking about ratios – the SAT may try to
be tricky. These types of problems usually compare a part/part but then could ask you about part/whole.
Example
If the ratio of green jelly beans to black jelly beans in a bag is 2:3, what is the ratio of black jelly beans to all
of the jelly beans?
The above is a not so subtle shift from asking you about a part/part to part/whole relationship. The answer
would be 3/5.
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Practice
75. If it takes a baker 6 hours to bake 150 croissants, how many hours would it take the baker, working at the
same rate, to bake 350 croissants?
A) 8
B) 9
C) 10
D) 12
E) 14
76. A recipe requires 13 ounces of minced garlic and 18 ounces of butter. If only 10 ounces of garlic are used,
how much butter, to the nearest ounce, should be used?
A) 13
B) 14
C) 15
D) 23
E) 24
77. The oil burner in a certain house is used to heat the house and to heat the hot water. During the 7 cold
months when the house is heated, an average of 200 gallons of oil a month is used. In the remaining 5
months, when the house is not heated, a total of 200 gallons of oil is used. What percentage of the year’s
oil supply is used during these 5 months?
A) 1/8%
B) 5/4%
C) 7%
D) 25/2%
E) 14%
78. A recipe calls for 5 cups of flour for every three cups of sugar, and two cups of sugar for every one cup of
oil. If 7.5 cups of oil are required to prepare 72 servings, how many cups of flour are required to prepare
144 servings?
A) 15
B) 20
C) 25
D) 40
E) 50
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Probability
Desired Outcome
On a foundational level probability is a simple concept: Possible Outcome
The trick is making sure to decode the question correctly so that the ratio is actually accurate. Note that there
is a very low chance that the SAT will ever do complicated high level probability on the exam. At most, you
should be prepared for the outcome of simple multiple events, such as "What is the probability of drawing
a queen out of a deck of 52 cards, NOT replacing the queen, and then drawing a second queen out of the
deck?" We will consider these dependent events, so we multiple them together: (4/52)(3/51), notice that we
have fewer queens to choose from with the second event, AND fewer cards remaining in the deck.
More often, however, the SAT will present data in a table and ask about probability. This is as much about care
in understanding the data as it is about understanding probability.
Practice
79. A gumball machine has 45 red, 34 green, and 17 purple gumballs in it. Erica puts in 3 quarters and gets 1 of
each color out. What is the probability that the next gumball she gets will be green?
A) 11/32
B) 33/96
C) 11/31
D) 34/93
80. Set A consists of all odd integers from 1 to 200, inclusive. If a number is selected at random from set A, what
is the probability that the number is at least 60?
A) 71/100
B) 70/101
C) 4/5
D) 7/10
81.
Triangle 20 10
Hexagon
40 20
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Growth
The SAT will test your knowledge of Linear vs. Exponential growth. Just like their names imply, linear growth
(sometimes referred to as Arithmetic) creates a straight line and exponential (sometimes referred to as
Geometric) will create part of a parabola.
Compounding Growth
You don't need to have the formulas for continuous and periodic growth memorized, but you do need to
understand how these exponential equations work.
Continuous compounding growth is given by A = Pert. A is the Amount. P is the starting value, or Principal. e
is the mathematical constant. r is the Rate. And t is the Time in years.
Example
If John invests $200 in a continuously compounding savings account at a rate of 13%, how much money will he
have in 5 years?
Total money in 5 years will equal 200(e)(0.13)(5), so $383.11
As long as you keep all of the variables straight in your head, a problem like this should be relatively easy.
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Periodic Compounding Growth

If growth is not being compounding continuously, then it is being compounded on some sort of time-table.
The basic periodic compounding formula is P’ = P(1 + r/n)nt
P is the original principal sum. P’ is the new principal sum. r is the annual interest rate. n is the compounding
frequency. t is the total overall length of time the interest is compounded.
Note: In general, t is in years. The interest rate should be converted to a decimal in order to do the calculation.
Typical compounding frequencies are yearly – or "annually" – (so n would be 1), quarterly (n is 4), or monthly
(n is 12).
The SAT can present a general growth formula and ask you a question based on conceptual understanding and
very careful reading; it might not be in the exact continuous or periodic form.
Example
f(x) = 4000(0.85)x/12
The function f gives the value, in dollars, of a truck used by a construction company after x months of use. If the
value of the truck decreases each year by p% of its value the preceding year, what is the value of p?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 15
D) 85
It's very easy to misread this and put "D." You must be extremely careful with the wording!
Practice
82. A recent study on voter participation found a 3% annual growth in voter registration from 2005 to 2015. The
district in the study had 33,000 registered voters when the study began. Which equation correctly models the
number of registered voters?
A) V = 33,000(1.3)t
B) V = 33,000(1.03)t
C) V = 33,000(1.03/10)t
D) V = 33,000(1.33)t
P = 450(1.05)t
83. The equation above describes the number of people, P, who take a prep course for the LSAT in Salt Lake City
t years after the first class was ever offered. Which equation models the number of people who take the course
q quarter years after the first course is offered?
A) P = 450(1.05)q/4
B) P = 450(1.05)4q
C) P = 450(1.05)q
D) P = 450(1.95)q
80 − hgl
3 3 .
sat • Math
Mathand
Geometry Test – No Calculator
Trigonometry
25 gives
The SAT MINUTES,
you many of20the QUESTIONS
formulas necessary to do well with the few geometry oriented questions on the
exam. However, there are two they do not give you that may be useful for the test. One of which is the area
Turn for
equation to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.
a trapezoid.
_DIRECTIONS_.
Questions 1-15 ask you to solve a problem, select the best answer among four choices, and fill in the
corresponding circle on your answer sheet. Questions 16-20 ask you to solve a problem and enter
your answer in the grid provided on your answer sheet. There are detailed instructions on entering
answers into the grid before question 16. You may use your test booklet for scratch work.
The other
_NOTES_equation involves calculating the sum of the measures of the interior angles of a polygon. The
formula is S = 180(n − 2) where S is the sum and n is the number of sides of the polygon.
1. You may not use a calculator.
2. Variables and expressions represent real numbers unless stated otherwise.
3. Figures are drawn to scale unless stated otherwise.
4. Figures
The formulas lie indo
that they a plane
give unless
you arestated otherwise.
below:
5. The domain of a function f is defined as the set of all real numbers x for which f (x) is also a
real number, unless stated otherwise.
_REFERENCE_
c 60° 45° xξ2

h 2x x x h h
b
30° 45° w r
b a xξ3 x l
1 1 2
1 a2 + b2 = c2 Special Triangles V= lwh V= ʌr h
A= bh 3 3
2
r
h
w r r
h
w
l l
A = lw V = lwh V = ʌr 2 h A = ʌr 2 4 3
V= ʌr
C = ʌr 3
There are 360° in a circle.
The sum of the angles in a triangle is 180°.
The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2ʌ.
You will need to be comfortable working with the basic formulas, such as the area and volume of rectangular
solids. CONTINUE
44 -JDFOTFEUP)JHIFS(SPVOE-FBSOJOHGPSVTFVOUJM%FDFNCFS ]
4"51SBDUJDF5FTU ,Y\*OREDO
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sat • math
Transversals
If you have two parallel lines and a transversal cutting through them there are some properties of congruent
(measurements are the same) and supplementary (measurements add up to 1800) angles that occur. In the
figure below which angles are congruent? What are they called? Which angles are supplementary?
A B
C D
F
Circles
In addition to the formulas they give

you, it is important to know a
Tangent
A
handful of other facts about
circles. The measure of a central Arc
angle is equal to the measure of the arc
us
di
it intercepts. For instance, if angle

Ra
Sector
AOB is 30 degrees then arc AB is O
E B
also 30 degrees. Additionally,
an inscribed angle, such as BDC, is
1/2 of the arc it intercepts. So if
angle BDC is 26 degrees then arc
BC is 52 degrees. Chord
D C
Also note that a line that is tangent to

a circle forms a 90o angle with a radius
or diameter. For example, the tangent line above forms a 90o angle with diameter EB.
Two other important formulas are below. Essentially, you are finding a percentage of the area or of the
circumference, respectively.
Central Angle
Area of a sector = • πr2
360°
Central Angle
Length of an arc = • 2πr
360°
82 − hgl
sat • Math
The Circle Formula
The equation of a circle is (x – h)2 + (y – k)2 = r2 where the center is at (h,k). For instance, if the exam gave you
the equation of a circle as (x + 3)2 + (y – 2)2 = 9 and asked you to identify the graph of the circle it would look
like the drawing below.
(-3, 2)
3
Practice
3 .
10 11
A y
6
B x
30° –2 O 6
6
–6
Note: figure is not drawn to scale.
If f (x) = (x – 2)2, which of the following equations
84. What is the length of arc AB in the figure above? represents the graph shown above?
A) ʌ A) y = f (x) – 2
ʌ
B) B) y = f (x – 2)
2
C) ʌ f (x)
C)
2
ʌ
D) D) y = f (x) + 2
2
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sat • math
85. Find the area of the sector in the figure

below.
86. A circle in the standard (x,y) coordinate plane has a center at (-4,5) and a radius of 5 units. Which of the
following equations represents this circle?
A) (x – 4)2 - (y + 5)2 = 5
B) (x – 4) + (y + 5) = 5
4 4
C) (x – 4)2 - (y + 5)2 = 25
D) (x + 4)2 + (y – 5)2 = 25
.
30
B
50°
O
A
C
87. In the diagram above, what is the length of arc AC if

the radius of the circle is 10 and BC is the diameter?
25ʌ
A)
18
25ʌ
B)
9
50ʌ
C)
9
D) 100ʌ
9
84 − hgl
sat • Math
Triangles
On the SAT, there are several basic triangle concepts that can be covered. As with all Geometry problems,
there could be multiple steps that incorporate more than one concept into a problem.
Additionally, the SAT may test your knowledge of similar triangles which is really just testing your knowledge
of proportions. Many times it will be advantageous to re-draw the triangles so that you can make a direct
comparison – then set up a ratio and solve for the unknown variable.
Remember
I. An equilateral triangle has sides that are all equal and therefore all of the angles are equal to 60 degrees.
II. An equilateral triangle can be split into two equal triangles and each of them is the special 30o - 60o - 90o
triangle.
III. An isosceles triangle has two angles that are equal and the sides opposite those angles are also equal.
IV. An isosceles right triangle is another name for the special 45o - 45o - 90o triangle.
Practice
88. At a certain hour, a flag pole casts a shadow 24 feet long. At the same time, a small tree 5 feet high casts a shadow
2 feet long. What is the height of the flag pole?
89. In the triangle PQR below, what is the value of x?
x+5 3x - 1
P R
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sat • math
C D 32
9 34
I
B
15° v
x°
12
8
A E 50°
35
90. In the figure above, AE || CD and segment A
AD intersects CE at B. What is the length of segment CE ? 93. In the diagram above, what is the value of x? r
t
t
A
h
t
a
s
c
94. A triangle with angle measures 30o, 60o, and t
90o has a perimeter of 18 + 6√3. What is
the length of the longest side of the triangle?
91. In the figure above what is the value of x?
A) 20o
B) 25o
C) 30o
D) 35o
ao
64 -JDFOTFEUP)JHIFS(SPVOE-FBSOJOHGPSVTFVOUJM%F
bo co
Note: Figure not drawn to scale.
92. Two isosceles triangles are shown above. If 180 – c = 2b and b = 40, what is the value of a?
86 − hgl
sat • Math
Trigonometry
The Trigonometry on the SAT involves understanding the common ratios Sine, Cosine, and Tangent.
length of side opposite A opposite

sin A = =
length of hypoteneuse hypoteneuse B
length of side adjacent to A adjacent
cos A = =
length of hypoteneuse hypoteneuse hyp
opp A
length of side opposite A opposite
tan A = =
length of side adjacent to A adjacent A C
adj A
Trig Identities
You will potentially need to remember three trig identities.
I. sin2x + cos2x = 1 *note that sin2x = (sin(x))2

cos2x = 1 − sin2x
sin2x + = 1 − cos2x
II. tan x = sin x⁄cos x
III. sin x = cos(90o − x)
Practice
95. If sin x = 5 ⁄ 7, which of the following could be the value of cos x?
A) (√6) ⁄ 7
B) (2√6) ⁄ 7
C) 5/7
D) (5√6) ⁄ 12
96. In right triangle ABC, measure of angle C = 90 degrees, AC = 2, and AB = 5. What is the value of sin A?
A) 5/2
B) (√21) ⁄ 2
C) (√21) ⁄ 5
D) 5/(√21)
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sat • math
97. In the figure below, sin(x) is 3/5. What is the length of side AC?
15
x
A C
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
98. In a right triangle, one angle measures xo where sin xo = 6/10. What is cos(90o − xo)?
99. For values of x where sin x, cos x, and tan x are all defined, (cos x)⁄((tan x)(sin x)) = ?
A) cos2x/sin2x
B) tan2 x
C) 1
D) sin2 x
88 − hgl
sat • Math
Radians and the Unit Circle
The Unit Circle and radians are useful when approaching certain trigonometry topics. However, if you use the
special triangles, you can derive values and not have to memorize the table.
Fig. A
Quad. II
Angle Sin Cos Tan
Quad. I
1 radius
0° 0 1 0
θ = 1 radian 30° ½ √3
⁄2 √3
⁄3
1 radius
45° √2
⁄2 √2
⁄2 1
60° √3
⁄2 ½ √3
Quad. III Quad. IV
90° 1 0 undef.
Labels
The quadrants in the unit circle are labeled I - IV (these labels can be used on normal x,y-plane graphs as well).
Trig Functions
The unit circle can be used to illustrate common values of sin, cos, and tan.
Radian/Degree and Degree/Radian Conversions
To convert from degrees to radians multiply degrees by π/180. For instance, 270o would convert to 3π/2
radians. To convert from radians to degrees you would multiply by 180/π. Therefore π radians is 180o. If you
keep in mind the "unit cancelation" method you don't even really need to memorize which is which, it just
always involves pi and 180 degrees.
hgl − 89
sat • math
Practice
100. In a circle with center O, central angle AOB has a measure of (7π)/4 radians. The area of the sector formed by
central angle AOB is what fraction of the area of the circle?
y
101. In the xy-plane to the right, O is the center of the circle,
and the measure of angle AOB is π/a radians. What is
the value of a?
A (�2,�2)
O
x
B
102. If the system of inequalities y ≥ 3x + 1 and y < x + 9 is graphed in the xy-plane

to the right, which quadrant contains no solutions to the system?
A) Quadrant II II I
B) Quadrant III
C) Quadrant IV
D) There are solutions in all quadrants.
III IV
90 − hgl
sat • Math
Completing The Square
Completing the Square is a strategy used to find solutions to quadratic equations when you don’t have a
calculator or don’t want to use the Quadratic Formula. But, if you know the Quadratic Formula, why learn
to use this particular strategy? The reason is that the SAT prefers to wrap another concept into quadratics,
usually a circle formula problem, and because they are trying to test all of your knowledge, they will make it
mandatory to use Completing the Square.
You should follow the steps below to Complete the Square. Reference the standard form of a quadratic for the
variables: ax2 + bx + c = 0
(1) Move the c term to the right side of the equation.
(2) Square (b/2) and add it to both sides of the equation.
(3) Rewrite the equation so that you have a sum of squares on the left side.
(4) Take the square root of both sides and finish solving.
Example
Find the solutions to the following quadratic equation: x2 − 2x − 7 = 0
(1) x2 − 2x = 7
(2) x2 − 2x + (-2/2)2 = 7 + (-2/2)2
x2 − 2x + 1 = 7 + 1

x2 − 2x + 1 = 8
(3) (x − 1)2 = 8
(4) �(x − 1)2 = �8
x − 1 = + or - �8
x = 1 + �8 and x = 1 − �8
Notice in the example above that there are two answers, similar to many problems when you are solving by
factoring or by using the quadratic equation. Remember to always add (b/2)2 to both sides of the equation,
not just the left side.
The SAT will specifically make you use this skill to put something that is not in the standard form of a circle
into that form so that you can determine the radius, center, or diameter of the circle. In these cases you will
usually need to complete the square TWICE, once for the x term and once for the y term, in order to put the
whole equation in the correct form.
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sat • math
Example
x2 + 8x + y2 + 4y = -12
The equation above defines a circle in the xy-plane.

What is the radius of the circle?
A) 2
B) �4
C) �6
D) �8
We will start by taking half of 8 and half of 4, squaring each, and adding it to both sides to get
x2 + 8x + 16 + y2 + 4y +4 = -12 +16 + 4
At this point, you don't really need to do anything with the left side because the question is asking about the
radius. However, we will fully reformulate this to put it in the standard form of a circle.
(x+4)2 + (y+2)2 = 8
Therefore r2 = 8 and the radius is �8. If they did ask about the center of the circle you can now easily tell that
it is (-4,-2).
Practice
103. What is one possible solution to x2 + 14x − 11 = 0?
A) -7 + √11
B) 7 − √11
C) -7 + √7
D) -7 + √60
104. What is one possible solution to x2 + 24x + 37 = 0?
A) -12 + √-37
B) 12 − √144
C) -12 + √107
D) 12 + √107
92 − hgl
sat • Math
x2 + y2 − 24x + 12y = 30
105. The equation above defines a circle in the xy-plane.

What are the coordinates of the center of the circle?
A) (0,0)
B) (12,-6)
C) (-24,-12)
D) (30,30)
x2 + 16x + y2 + 8y = -16
106. The equation above defines a circle in the xy-plane.

What is the radius of the circle?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
hgl − 93
sat • math
Physics
You may encounter a word problem setup for a physics and/or measurement related problem that could pull
concepts from any of the math domains on the SAT. You don’t actually have to do hard physics, but you need
to remember a few key features of these types of problems.
Physics Facts
- Projectile equations create parabolas, therefore they are quadratic equations.

- When an upward projectile reaches its highest point, its velocity is zero.
- When an upward projectile lands, its height is zero.
- Distance=(Rate)(Time) and can be used in different problems and reworked for any one of the variables.
d=rt, r=d/t, t=d/r
Exercises
h = −4.9t2 + 42t
107. The equation above models the height h, in meters, of a ball t seconds after it is launched vertically upward
from the ground with an initial velocity of 42 meters per second. Approximately how many seconds after launch
will the ball hit the ground?
A) 4.9
B) 42
C) 5.85
D) 8.57
George throws a ball off the top of a building and the ball reaches a
maximum height that is higher than the building. The function
h(t) = -3t2 +18t + 48 defines the path of the ball.
108. What is the height of the building?
109. What is the maximum height of the ball?
110. How long will it take for the ball to hit the ground?
94 − hgl

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higher ground learning

READING and WRITING INTRODUCTION.....7

Reading Material – Supplementary.....11

Algebra and Advanced Math.....53

Problem Solving and Data Analysis.....69

Geometry and Trigonometry.....81

Total Time: 64 minutes. Total Questions: 54.

Math: 2 modules, each module is 35 minutes and is composed of 22 questions.

Total Time: 70 minutes. Total Questions: 44

Total Test Time: 2 hours and 24 minutes

reading and writing

Craft and Structure

Information and Ideas

Standard English Conventions

Hamilton, Alexander. Federalist No. 1

To the People of the State of New York:

Context and Meaning

Summarize each paragraph in one complete sentence:

• Henry, O - “The Gift of the Magi”

• Cannon, Annie J - “Classifying the Stars”

History / Social Studies

• Henry, Patrick - “Speech to the Second Virginia Convention”

reading And Writing Strategies

Craft and Structure

The Process of Elimination

Which choice completes the text with the

Which choice completes the text with the

Which choice best describes the function of the

A) It explains the recent research received by Futurists.

B) It presents the central finding of the research.

C) It establishes a time-line for the colonization of Mars.

D) It presents exactly when humans will inhabit Mars.

Which choice best describes the function of the

A) It clarifies how Bristlecone pines reproduce.

B) It presents a generalization that is exemplified by the

C) It clarifies why Bristlecone pines are important to

D) It provides context that clarifies why quaking Aspens

Information and Ideas

According to the text, what is true about humanity?

A) People's minds are too small to comprehend eternal harmony.

B) People will eventually understand what it is to be like a small child again.

D) People's contradictions will haunt them at the moment of eternal harmony.

According to the text, what is true about the speaker?

B) They are plagued by past regrets.

C) Past memories lead them to tiredness.

D) They are ready to fight and start anew.

When forty winters shall besiege thy brow,

What is the main idea of the text?

A) The speaker is attempting to persuade for the act of having children.

B) The speaker is expressing sympathy for the beauty of youth.

C) The speaker thinks someone is too fatigued to continue living.

D) The speaker is admonishing someone for not staying young.

D) Adding supplements, including milk, to both caffeinated and decaffeinated coffee

B) that Honolulu has the highest average UV index.

C) that Portland has a higher melanoma rate in children than Anchorage.

D) that Atlanta's melanoma rate in children is so low.

A) Brazil has a significantly higher trust in government than does Chile.

D) Canada's trust in government is nearly as high as that of Denmark.

D) Due to an increase in hotel construction as a consequence of tourism, intentional cultivation of invasive

Standard English Conventions

The door slammed in his face.

Circle the subject of these clauses:

1. After dinner, the werewolf had a toothache.