91. Which of the following is a water borne disease? (2) Tuberculosis (2) Hepatitis-B (3) Pneumonia (4) Typhoid Which of the following is a viral disease :- (1) Malaria (2) Typhoid (3) Hepatitis B (4) Plague Identify the communicable dis: correct statement regarding ses? (1). Mary mallon associated with tetanus infection, Q) AIDS never get artificial insemination. transmitted through (3) Primary host of plasmodium is mosquito. (4) Filariasis causes chronic inflammation of blood vessels, They can enter our body by various means multiply and interfere with normal vital activities resulting in morphological and functional damage = (1) Allergen (2) Toxins (3) Antigen (4) Pathogen 91. fea a stra set at ITB 2 () Sareacitfiva Q) Rere-B @) =BiFer () aevigs Pea 8 ate Pears 7s () Aiea (2) TeRigs G) Bee 4) eT amerant atta dri & fa ae ee Gara (1) Mtweg Rete eames waar (2) Uae at pier ahd atta Batt ere (3) vererhfeemr ar rating eit ea ttre 4) reer ce aera a ea eH a wed ara vere Rar are a mat wit Hoag ae & wae Het e Tar dem 4 fe at ward area Se feast F carer agare @ fared irene a arfthtra afer eres (1) West (QQ) fase yard G3) west (dry Leader Course Phase - Via Vil(MLG, MLM, MLI& ML) *OOIGMDS05721002 Page 24/46 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Ta & Ferg OTE E+H/ 22082021ALLEN 95, In severe cases, the lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour, Above symptoms are indicative of :- (1) Infection of salmonella typhi (2) Infection of streptococcus pneumonia (3) Infection of Rhino virus (4) Infection of mi crosporum 96. Find odd one out wrt disease causative agent (1) Pneumonia (2) Common cold (3) Plague (4) Diphtheria 97. Gametoeytes during life cycle of Plasmodium are developed in (1) RBCs of mosquito (2) Stomach of mosquito (3) Liver of human (4) RBCs of human 98, How many of the given below are not autosomal recessive gene mutation disorder :- (ii) Black death (iv) Sickle cell anaemia i) Phenylketonuria (ii) Favism, (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four 99, Bleeding from nose, mouth and gums is seen in:- (1) hepatitis-B 95. 98, after orrear deft & ae war ag a Ba or a ant 8 aap rae Phas hot ate (1) ered er zen seer at (2) Qedataa aphtrar eae a (3) UHtarra % da aT (4) asses iaerTT aT ar are dad Fate sia a) ifrar Q) erga 3) aT (4) Feveitfear ramiter 3% ster ae H quae free ae (1) Feet RBCS H (2) wesc ae @) Ee apT A (4) AeA RBCs Hf far @ Paee ottaetve soma sts sored Ver aa Wa’ (i Poeargerehtérafer (iy arch ey Gi) Bhar (iv) fara Bar Gift OF Ot Om Om sae, fe ae ga cp ara Bear aT? (1) fiers (2) tetanus Q) Rat (3) break-bone fever G3) sediatg gant (4) diphtheria (4) Revtfen Leader Couree Phaso -VI& Vil(MLG, MLH, MLI& ML) “woveMoaes72i002 E+H/22082021 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Ta & Ferg OTE Page 25/46100. 101, 102. ALLEN Which one of the following is a pair of viral diseases? (2) Ringworm, AIDS (2) Common Cold, AIDS (3) Dysentery, common cold (4) Typhoid, Tuberculosis Patients of multiple sclerosis have auto antibodies against A while those of Hoshimoto disease has against B Here A and B are - (1) A+ myelin , B - intrinsic factor (2) A- acetylcholine ,B - myelin (3) A- acetylcholine receptor, B - beta cells (4) A- myelin, B - thyroid antigens OH XS on Select the option which includes all correct, statements (a) Receptors for this chemical present in brain. (b) It interfers with transport of DOPAMIN, (©) Marijuana is related with this chemical. (@) This chemical is obtained by Datura. () Onlya (2) aandc both (3) candd (4) aandb 100. 101, 102. ‘Frer8 Sater wm sitar ferarecta rt a 82 (2) 2, AIDS (Q) Bra eéi-gaTH, AIDS 3) afme, ama adt-gar (A) creETES, erat cde crite & afat WA a free car enitiat tr oft fb & fees eaufters at Frtor det @i wet A a B ett () A-TTifer, B - atte are Q) adeaste, B- arate 3) A-wdifeeratet are, B - ater aftr (4) A-aTafe, B - aTgige Sf oH S&S on fete carats werd & fore sa Paerer ar afta fart eet ae ae 8 (a) $8 care & art aferes H safeaa aia 21 (b) ae Stands & afte § aren seat ate 2 (o) Fa tara B fee wether Bi (oe Cae UG are Peat aT a () Fata 2) ata St @) cad (4) amb Leader Course Phase - Via Vil(MLG, MLM, MLI& ML) *OOIGMDS05721002 Page 26/46 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Ta & Ferg OTE E+H/ 22082021ALLEN 103. Bluish discoloration of lips & nails due to infection of Alveoli may be caused do to :- () Orthomyxovirus (2), Haemophilus influenza (3) Rhino virus (4) Corynebacterium diptherie 104, Differentiation of immature lymphocytes into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes occurs in :- () Spleen (2) Liver (3) Bone marrow and Thymus (4) Secondary lymphoid organs 105. Choose the correct option :- 103. tat othe amar ae ater fee Sera AY ate & We aT (1) sreifadtarrea (2) eiriifice Frees (3) Tetra (4) arataciiearr eT 104, sraferaa cettey wef we slam daerefter atari Rrtfer ate () where Q) aR QG) airs cer aera (4) faettas cette sat 105, art area ar ae af B-N-acetyl Phenyl p-N-xeerget Fraree a) a MIs. o hexosaminidase ketonuria tedewiiea Aarafer Phenyl alanine frre vert () (2) | Favism 8) (2) | Refi hydroxylase aegitest (C) | Tryosinase 3)| Albinism (©) | aire G) | wafaa Glucose-6-phosphate Tay, Te () @ (| (4) [2am dehydrogenase sach's rete Sees Reet (c] (PI (c} IPI @i2 3 4 a@12 3 4 Q1 3 4 2 Q 13 4 2 G3 1 2 4 QB) 3 1 2 4 @ 4°13 2 @ 4 1°32 Leader Couree Phaso -VI& Vil(MLG, MLH, MLI& ML) oor M0305721002 E+H/22082021 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Ta & Ferg OTE Page 27/46106. 107. 108. ALLEN Read the following statements (A-E) 2 ad (A) Gross deformities in genital organs (B) Elephantiasis, (C) Vector is female aedes mosquito (D) Slowly developing chronic inflammation usually of blood vessels of lower limbs (B) It is caused by Wuchereria bancrof. How many of the above statements are incorrect about given diagram (1) One 2) Two (3) Three (4) Four Which one of the following is not the criteria for successful organ transplantation? (1) Pre and post operative steroid therapy 2) MHC matching (3). Hormone therapy (4) Blood group matching ‘Tetanus toxoid provides :- (1) Natural active innate immunity (2) Natural passive innate immunity (3) Antificial active acquired immunity (4) Artificial passive acquired immunity 106. 107. 108, fet ser (A-E) ar afea 4 <> (A) SRT a od Ferree, (B) erat (C) ARCS TR ATER () seh ad: ore A oe aTeasHt HT RAR are aren deftones att (bye Ron sare we eB ‘featare fers & fre arth 8 8 Faas ers ores 21 Oe Qa G) dF wa frafeta 8 & atten ae ST wearer & fer aed ae? ()) Sitter ph ver gear Rettas Ae (2) MHC frert (3) eile Be () wrap fra ‘fecra cians art ATS :- () wife aber aes ate (2) aTepfera Pitre ret sere G3) Fir ates safe sftca (4) A Pitan outa afte Leader Course Phase - Via Vil(MLG, MLM, MLI& ML) *OOIGMDS05721002 Page 28/46 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Ta & Ferg OTE E+H/ 22082021ALLEN 109. Heaviest, largest and oldest antibodies are of type: () ID @) IgE G) IgG (4) IgM 110. Which statement is correct for IgM antibody? ay Q) 8) 4) Anamnestic immune response is - Its first received antibody from mother Ithas 5 paratopes Itis pentameric in structure ‘main role in secondary immune response ML (1) slow (2) low intensified (3) highly intensified (4) primary response 112, The drugs used to reduce the symptom of, allergy are:- (2) Anti histamin and adrenaline (2) Histamine and thyroxine (3) Adrenaline and a-Interferon (4) Allof these 113. The short-lived antibody secreting cells are called:- (2) Plasma cells (2) Histiocytes (3) Bememory cells (4) Dendritic cells 114, Cell mediated immunity is performed by : ()_ B-Lymphocytes (2) T-lymphocytes (3) Erythrocytes (4) Both I and 2 109. 110. i. 112. 113. 114, 1. aaa od, watts ger ok aaa et wae AT wets Sich E () IgD @) IKE G3) IeG IgM fatten Sr elt arent Bo (1) Feat sre vam are mt Costa (2) wes tre ee 3) ae ara a erthe ate (4) fetes afticer argtorar face aftr (4) IeM eifies argh - a) ahi (2) ar daa Ft G3) Fada at (4) srafier sqiear seat seat wer rsa TSH () oe freer a agate (2) Reenter a argcifaerst (3) WBA T a gerteets (4) Sa at rear ot wfc erat rar awe 8 () versa FiRreet 2) fefteoinanca (3) Shaye aferae 4) Sarton wiferart -aiftran saree feet a fare et 21 () B-Rresrarege art (2) T-ferrererges art (3) sfeorergee art (4) 32a Leader Course Phase - Via Vil LG, MLM, MLI& ML) *OOIGMDS05721002 E+H/ 22082021 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Ta & Ferg OTE Page 29/46ALLEN 115, The principle of immunisation or vaccination | 115, sferatteet a dare ar fart wfecer da is based on which property of immune system:- fear ac srnter (1) To produce antibodies () artes} Patra a Q) To differentiate self & non-self Q) wav fies (3) To retain memory @) Byatt (4) All of the above (4) sare at 116, SALK & SABIN vaccines are given against — 116. SALK U4 SABIN 2 Prax free fear ara (1) Diptheria (1) Reesitfear (2) Polio (2) Herat 3) Rabi @) vie (4) Mumps (4) TST 117. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to | 117. rar arger ant site wren & ger a waa foetus across placenta and through mother's sreng & sfican at afta ser at: Pre milk to infant is respectively due to :- aren Sta 8? () IgG, gM () IgG, gM Q) IgA, IgG 2) Iga, IgG @) IgG, le (3) IgG, Ig (4) IgG, ID (4) IgG, ID 118. True about interferons is 118, Fecha fore we 8 (1) Imerferons are viral specific (1) Fateta arr & fre Re ATE (2) Interferons are not human cell specific Q) Fee ra Sree fare are et AE (3) Interferons are not species specific (3) Fetaia ate faire ret ata et (4) a-Interferons activate immune system and 4) 0 -Fetais often da at ates sem 2 aie help in destroying tumor ora a ae FF aera FRAT A 119. Maximum amount of which antibody is present | 119. fix % & fra sftvaft amr orReerier er ew a in blood plasma.;- safer eta 8 :- Q) IgG 2) IgM @) eG (2) IgM (3) Igk (4) IgD (3) Igk (4) IgD Leader Couree Phaso -WI& Vil(MLG, MLH, MLI& ML) o01cM0305721002, Page 30/46 E+H/ 22082021 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Ta & Ferg OTEALLEN 120. Which antibody have maximum affinity to | 120. fea afeceit 3 ore wfasr at aiery A ana wae bind antigen ? wares? () IgG 2) Tem () IeG Q) IgM 3) gD. () Iga 3) [gD (4) Tea Identify the correct option for given diagram | 121. fet me fat # A, BGC fre at firmed aT for A, B and C = are fifa c or c a A B c A B c (1)| Epitope | Light chain | Heavy chain () | efit | eft fae aid jaar Constant | Variable we aan at | ard fae a (2) | Paratope (2) | art light chain | heavy chain fra arr ‘ofadt aa Constant Constant _ eee fae ar| set Fae eT (3) | Epitope (3) | efter light chain | heavy chain fraa art faa art wip Constant | Constant ay femety | A | st er aratope ata © | ight chain | heavy chain ‘ faa ut frag or 122, Type of acquired immunity which is slow and | 122, garfifa wfacer a at ware st efter ear 2 aa takes times to show full effective response also over opt wa cath # aaa Sa & fee ceo exhibit following feature except : swefiter aan &, Peat dhgar - (1) No participation of immune system of host. (1) Ase & where cea Hr a arrtardh ae ate (2). Shows immunological memory. 2) fare eft eater (3). Used for prophylaxis @) Stereafiea i seit (4). More effetive on sevond exposure of antigen. () sitar fntes sa aren vera Leader Couree Phaso -VI& Vil(MLG, MLH, MLI& ML) oor MD305721002 E+H/22082021 ‘Space for Rough Work / ST a FAC TE Page 31/46ALLEN 123, Following diagram showing schematic representation of HIV label A, B, C and D (respectively) - 2 Bud er tte ¢ D DDNAsingle stranded) (1) GP-41, GP - 120, P—17, P—24 (2) GP-120, GP—41, P17, P—24 (3) GP -60, GP - 24, P- 120, P—17 (4) GP-120, GP—41, P—24, P-17 124, ELISA test is done for suspected pregnancy to identify ? (1) Antibodies in blood 2) hormone in urine (3). Antigen in blood (4) Foetal cells in mother blood 125, HIV belongs to which of the following families of virus? (1) Retroviridae (2) Lentivirus (3) Toga virus (4) Adeno virus 126. The genome of HIV, the causative organism of AIDS, is made up of:- (1). ssRNA (2) ssDNA (3) dsRNA (4) dsDNA 127. How many molecules of reverse transcriptase 123, fae fearsar Raa HIV at eater 2 Fae A, B,C war D we: B (1) GP—41, GP-120,P—17,P—24 (2) GP-120, GP—41,P—17,P—24 3) GP-60, GP—24, P—120, P—17 (4) GP-120, GP—41, P—24, P—17 ‘dterers afaea F ELISA tee Pear Ta Ty & fea fear aren @ 2 (cma weet & fare, 0) ar erie fare, (3) we H eto 3 fore (4) Stew Hh yor Ay afr & fare 125, HIV Preah ahs gar arre a alfa BI a) fetter G3) dra Q ware 4) Grae 126. AIDS % dhrserae HIV 41 siete aa eat 8: (1) ssRNA (2) ssDNA (3) dsRNA (4) dsDNA 127, G& ae HIV Ft dean 4 fad gafeer + present is single HIV structure ? Faoat re ETT? (2) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four Ow Qt Of Wm Leader Course Phase Via Vil(MUG, MLH, MLI& MLA} “oot oMD303721002 Page 32/46 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Te & Ferg OTE E+H/ 22082021128. 129. 130. 131, 132. ALLEN Widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is ? (1) Northern blot test (2) Widal test (3) ELISA (4) Mantoux test Through which protein, HIV virus recognises its target ? Q) GP, 2) Pa G) CPi (4) Pas Find the incorrect statement >= (2) HIV is retrovirus (2) HIV has two copies of similar ssRNA. (3) Widal test is done for typhoid (4) Ty-cell is the factory of HIV Which of the following enzymes is absent in HIV? (1) RNA polymerase (2) Imtegrase (3). Reverse transcriptase (4) Prot Which of the following is mode of transmission of HIV infection from mother to child- (2) During pregnency through placenta (2) During delivery through mixing of blood (3) Through breast milk during lactation (4) Allof above 128. 129. 130, 131, 132. AIDS & fort sare Ba B sae Farha Ther 8? (1) tet serie ater (2) Frere ater (3) ELISA © Fgevter HIV apre fire sida % are 2 ort wer ‘afar a Tearta & () GP, Q) Pa 3) GPiao (4) Pas Ted HI HT TT ATT = () HIV wigan a (2) HIV # ea a ssRNA Yat staat eet a1 (3) Prrsrer after ergargs & fore era 2 (4) Ty aif, HIV area al frre aire tones HIV F sagaiead ear 2? (1) RNA tisttiier Q) ie (3) Read grafarcest (4) stats sara & Fg 3 eo ae fe Hae a (Dare ahr aa a 2) saa dhe oe Rife Ba @) RUF ERT 4) saat Leader Course Phase - Via Vil(MLG, MLM, MLI& ML) *OOIGMDS0S721002 E+ H/ 22082021 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Te & Ferg OTE Page 33/46133. 134, 135, ALLEN Transmission of HIV infection generally occurs by the following methods, except, (1) From infected mother to foetus (2) By transfusion of contaminated blood (3). By sharing infectious needles (4) Protected sexual contact with infected person Transmission of HIV (a) Transfusion of contaminated blood. (b) Sexual contact with infected person (©) From infected mother to her baby through placenta, (@ Sharing infected needles (¢) Sharing food with infected person Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ? () abe 2) eonly @) aade (@) abed Every virus has it’s own arrangement of proteins in it’s protein coat and these protein coats denoted by certain numbers according to Which of the arrangement. following configuration is special for HIV (2) P34, PAT (2) P24, P-IT (3) P48, P-18 (4) P41, P21 133, 134, 135, fer 8 we & sera arf ah fata Seon, ar ear ara: Beare - (1) Safire art Son at 0) Hef Te% ores (3) Safir agat & aren aT (4) Safire aafen eer ati ata aT wasn, ar eer: (@) Harti oe ser aT (0) tafe safe & are as ae (o) Soria ara 8 Sa eT HY AT SRT (@ tater Bay aaa T (©) daefita safe & are se aT RAS sate Ha a renaaa ws ores 87 () abe Q) @) acde (4) abled a fiery # aq oe are sae Fer (protein coat) # sitdta ar ara aon tar @ sit gu aa & ec sitet fy ea Ht Reeth dear 8 aartar stat al fret 4 atrar sida an am HIV & fee Gra are (1) P34, PAT (2) P24, P-AT 3) P48, Pas (4) P-41, P21 [Leader Course Phase - Via Vil(MLG, MLM, MLI& ML) *OOIGMDS05721002 Page 34/46 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Te & Ferg OTE E+H/ 22082021ALLEN 136. Which measure would be particularly useful | 136, star saa fait 4 teatetar car gu & eset for prevention and control of alcohol and drug Bh teas wen Pear Parse ee aS sree Pre et abuse among adolescents ? wae? (a) Avoid undue peer pressure (@) aaae ered zara a aT (b) Seeking professional and medical help. (>) Saas ua fate aera AAT (c) Looking for danger sign (oc) ae vad Heat (@ Education and counselling @ fare arnt (e) Seeking help from parents and peers (e) aren fran a aaeeferat & werrar eat () abd Q acde () abd Q acde @) ge (4) abede @ ce (4) abede 137, In the given list how many drugs are used for | 137, dort apt # @ feat gu uga & san & fae the treatment of AIDS ? war eae? Zidovudin, Ritonavir, Raltegravir, Vinblastin, faerafss, ugetrfar, ceemfae, farcerttcs, Stavudin wear ays @4 3) 2 3 ays Q4 @B) 2 @) 3 138, Match the columns with regards to Vector and | 138, aren itr daw § ater feta fate - Disease ColumnI | Column-tt Columnn-t Columan-It p]cutex [i ]Dengue P| Culex i | Dengue «| Anophetes [it | Filariasis q| Anopheles | ii | Filariasis Tlacdes bin | Malaria [Aedes | iti [Malaria () pa qi rit (1) pi, qi, rit Q) pit, qui i 2). p-ii, q-ii i (3) pit, qui ri 3). pei, i rill (4) pic qi, ri (4) pei, qi, rai 139, Most feared property of malignant tumor is 139, Zan seat ar wae STAT ITE (1) Contact inhibition () Sent de (2) Memory Q) eae (3). Metastasis (3) eee (4) Land 3 both (4) 143 at Leader Couree Phaso -VI& Vil(MLG, MLK, MLI& ML) oo1cM0305721002 E+ H/22082021 ‘Space for Rough Work /€ GT a FAC TE Page 35/46ALLEN 140. Best and safest investigation techniques used | 140, Sacat qeard 8q wdate weal acera sites aT: & for cancer detection are respectively : (1) Biopsy and CT scan () arith, cT Bt (2) MRIand biopsy 2) MRI, aria (3) Biopsy and MRI (3) arid, MRI (4) CT scan and biopsy (4) Clea aaa 141, Kaposi sarcoma is caused by - 141, ardtet erate eta? (1) Physical agent (2). Chemical agent () woteaet® 2) wreaaaa GB) Biological Agent (4) Aerosol G) ateadte — tte 142. Which is the major cause of death among non- | 142, seanrH Oita yey ar wy aT e infectious disease ? (1) Diabetes (Q) srataies (2) Down's syndrome (2) sre fg (3) Hyperthyroidism G) eras (4) Cancer 4) eRe 143, Select the correct statement about cancer :- 143, eC aH aes er aT aT AIT (1) ccinterferon has no role in treatment of (CD) agethats A Far & gers afta ae 21 cancer. (2) He Ha} fre waht (usceptibility) (2). Susceptibility to certain cancers is inherited. sarge ett 21 3) Proto-oncogenes are absent in normal cell. G) emPTafirer ta stata autre aaa (4) Metastasis is most feared property of (4) Bereta gen onde area seep RL benign tumor 144, Smoking is not associated with increased | 144, aura @ ete sin ar thar et At Saree ate incidence of cancers of := were? (1) Lungs () Serger (2) Throat (2) 1a aT (3). Urinary bladder @) Brrr (4) Liver (4) ayaa Leador Course Phase - Via Vil(LG, MLM, MLI& ML) Page 36/46 ‘Space for Rough Work / <0 @Ta a few OTE *OOIGMDS0S721002 E+H/ 22082021ALLEN 145. Migration of cancerous cells from the site of | 145, Sac aiftrersit geht car @ wit ara ait origin to other part of the body forming wm feta side & Fino bq wears a ee secondary tumors is called (1) Metagenesis (2) Diapedesis () aAfee 2) seasiee (3) Metamorphosis (4) Metastasis 3) Fenivetfee (4) Farefee 146. Cancer of epithelial cells is called ? 146, saHeT wire & er wT HT HEAT? (1) Carcinoma (2) Sarcoma () afer (2) aretaT (3) Leukemia (4) Lipoma G) weer (4) seat 147, Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often | 147, Haat/sit ar sfetta aftreat oft & wiht at due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. oredigit & oro sree 8 aa 21 Fa a Which type of immune-response is responsible revere & fore ate ah vtec stare Sacer for such rejections ? a (1) Cell - mediated immune response () Afrarnfea vice sar (2) Hormonal immune response (QQ) Shire afeeen sqiraT (3) Physiological immune response G) afta often srqiear (4) Autoimmune response (4) eafieen sean 148. Which of the following can not be a cause of | 148, fier da ear det ar arr ae aa aaaT a? cancer of cells? (1) A sharp edge of broken teeth. () Beet ar pte Parr (2). Excessive exposure to x-rays QQ) We & after deh Ff sire (3) Eating more potatoes. 3) safes orepe (4) Chewing of pan masala and tobacco. (4) Ware a aE aT 149. Melanoma is a type of cancer that develops | 149, frei va wart an ac 21 st sera ete ® from - (1) Granulocytes (1) Beastie 2) Melanocytes (2) firebirarge (3) Adipocyte (3) Ufeiterge (4) None of above (4) athe a ag eT Leader Couree Phaso -VI& Vil(MLG, MLH, MLI& ML) 001 M0305721002 E+ H/22082021 ‘Space for Rough Work /€ GT a FAC TE Page 37/46ALLEN 150. Cancer cells are characterized by (1) Uncontrolled growth (2) Invasion of local tissue (3) Spreading to other body parts (4) All the above 151. Cancer detection is based on :~ (@) Biopsy (b) Histopathological studies of tissue (©) Blood test (d) Bone marrow test () a,bonly 2) a,candd only @) abandconly (4) ab,candd 152, Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunisation : (1) Injection of snake antivenom against snake bite is an example of active immunisation. (2) If due to some reason B-and T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body will not produce antibodies against a pathogen. (3) Injection of dead/inactivated pathogens passive immunity @) Cer ‘mass produce hepatitis B vaccine in protozoans have been used to 153, Which biological response modifier activates immune system and helps in destroying the tumor ? () qinterferon 2) Taxol drug (3) AZT (4) Vincristin and Vinblastin 150. 151. 152. 153, ‘Sea aiftreery, Pee ger enka yr eerie 81 (1) aR ae (2) fit oe at sideeer G) Sepmttice anit tera (4) sare at Sac ht ota Fer Ha fee oreo? (a) wate (b) Saat ar teeta atten (ote ate (@ ar rsar ater () Fa a,b QQ) Fata, cw d G3) FaetabaTe (4) a,b,c dad tit wer esha & dal | Peaferfaa Fa siren a aera wel a? () wig amr ae ot wi aha at Seem Pear sear ater afte a saree aL (2) aR Pre aera Bae Tere ee aad &, dt ate & ste feat dese feta ha cafe ae a @) 77 orem faftrage tat & Bar RI ar weiter sca aa a (4) Fe Mestert a ag tor x tea B ‘Saati are HF gece Pea Sra TET I ain afie ogien ore afar da at cafe aca a ore ah ae aH aera CAT a () c-interferon Q) Taxol drug @) AZT (4) Vineristin and Vinblastin Leader Course Phase - Via Vil(MLG, MLM, MLI& ML) *OOIGMDS05721002 Page 38/46 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Ta & Ferg OTE E+H/ 22082021154, 155, 156. 157. 158, ALLEN (a) It is not a non communicable disease 154, (a) ae Ae ater (arise) TT Te a (b) Spread due to consious behaviour pattern (b) Fae eae het & are eva 2 (c) Loss of contact inhibition (¢) Sent ear aT aT (d) Don't Die to ignorance (d) Sarre > wre aa HT (e) Metastasis (rater How many of the above statements are not ‘orth feu my eer Fa frat Sat & at Fae correct about cancer? wee? (1) Three (2) One (aa Q) G3) Two (4) Four @ 4 (4) oR Which of the following is protozoan STD | 155. fH @ etter de date a seston & aro (Sexually transmitted diseases) :- eae: (1) Trichomoniasis (2) Syphilis () peerifsifze (2) fate (3) Hepatitis-B (4) Gonorthoea (3) fetersfee-B (4) ater ‘Human papilloma virus causes ? 156. Human papilloma Prary are 8 ? (1) Genital herpes ()) safe oferta (2) Genital warts (2) safe ard ar (3) Chlamydiasis (3) Fatnfeaae er (4) Syphilis (4) faefere ar Identify the incorrect match :- 157. aera rare ay ween :- ‘Name of STD Pathogen aot wy () Gonorthoea | Neisseria gonorrhoeae (| aRiRar Rater ae Human ;cnital herpes ear wepisierrd @)) Genital herpes | munodeficieney virus | seiner | FETS @) Genital wars [Human papilloma virus ® — aie @) Syphilis Treponema pallidum a (4)| fefeferer patti Getter Which of the following sexually transmitted 158, frafafaas #8 stra ata denier or Stary a disease (STD) is not caused by a bacteria? el Ste? (1) Gonorthoea (2) Syphilis () aria (2) fatter (3) Chlamydiasis (4) Trichomoniasis (3) Farefeafta = (4) geen Leader Gourse Phase Via Vil(MUG, MLH, MLI& MLA} “oot oMD303721002 E+ 1722082021 ‘Space for Rough Work | €ih @1a om TA OTE Page 39/46ALLEN 159, Match the STD with its pathogen correctly. 159, hha aanfire te at Say Tey & ares ae Pres tL (1). Syphilis - Treponema trachomatis (1) faftsfere - 2aktar Qatar (2) Gonorthoea - Neisseria gonorrhoeae (2) ten - Rater ae (3) Chlamydiasis — Chlamydia pallidum (3) Femnefearfte - aerarghear Here (4) Genital warts — Trichomonas vaginalis (4) Seri Hee — zigeiaiare aogier 160. Match the column-I with column-II 160. qe ei ae ar fre RA Column-I ‘Column—I we eeu Chlamydia . Chlamydia A. | Genital warts | (i) trachomatis A. | Genital warts | (i) trachomatis B. |Gonorthoea [iy | =P" B, |Gonormhoea | |? pallidum pallidum ni pes simplex __ | Genital Herpes simplex b. | syphit Nisseria D. | Syphilis (iv) Niseria =“ ©] gonorthoeae Bonorrhoeae Touma poplbun ¢) [Haman paniltoma w) virus virus () Adi, Biv, Cv, Doi () Adil, Biv, C-v, Doi Q) Aw, Buy, Cail, Dai Q) Aw, Bay, Ci, Dai 3) Ad, Ba, C-iii, Di 8) AG, Buy, C-iii, Doi (4) Adi, Biv, C-i, Dili (4) Adi, Biv, C-i, Dili 161, Mark the odd one w.t.t cannabinoids :- 161, Sarfrigge } ded 4 ate at fared She (1) Smack () (2) Marijuana (2) arfegsirr (3) Hashish (3) fare (4) Charas (4) #8 Leader Gourse Phase Via Vil(MUG, MLH, MLI& ML) o01cM0305721002, Page 40/46 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Ta & Ferg OTE E+H/ 22082021ALLEN 162. e 162. e , a) @B) “) @B) Choose the correct option about given above othe & fare wet famed aT AT @ ®) a ®) (1) | Hallucinogen | Bhang ()| sme | wer (2) | Morphine Datura (QQ) | aie wa (3) | Heroin Bhang (3) | Ret aT (4) | Datura Morphine [ag siete 163. Which of the following option is correct about | 163. sit ra fear war 8 sem fer er 8S ae fae given below? (1) Atropa belladona () rr sere 2) Datura Q) sa (3). Hallucinogen @) ae (4) 2and 3 both (4) 243 et 164, Amphetamines are the drugs of | 164 Wheria____ aot At gral category. (1) Deppressant (1) Saar (2) Stimulants Q) Tae (3). Sedative @) we (4) Hallucinogens (4) Far Leader Gourse Phase Via Vil(MLG, MLH, MLI& ML} 001 M0305721002 E+H/22082021 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Ta & Ferg OTE Page 41/46ALLEN 165. Which of the following combination is not a cannabinoids (1) Charas, Ganja (2) Datura, LSD (3) Charas, Hashish (4) Marijuana, Bhang 16. Biopsy testis often performed to diagnos () AIDS (2) Allergy (3) Down Syndrome (4) Osteosarcoma 167. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis Select the correct statement (1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis, (2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules (3) Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules (4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis, 168. _Repolarisation of ventricles is represented by which wave MP (2) QRS complex @) 7 @R 169, Reason for trisomy in down’s syndrome (2) Non disjuction during sperm formation (2) Non disjunction during egg formation (3) Non disjunction at the time of egg or sperm formation (4) Addition of one extra chromosome during mitosis 165. 16, 167. 168. 169, fir a ater ga Senities aah = (De, ST Q) ag, weet. (3) 3s, wetter (4) etgeren, wit “Seafarer eraser Perr a fare Pearse () AIDS (2) west (3) srr femgis (4) Sif -arete eer el art ar ance AH tem Se dgerror F aurea & sre ae Bl serdar eT sara Afar () aH ifr saan dese Faeroe gfe are ei 2) deh rete rey & aa eect TT tel (3) aa are area i ary Safer HET H HIT SIT el (4) Stat reitfira oferer exh A oon ge arr ert Bl fora & ye: gar at fies 8 tah ar aac a? a P (2) QRS complex @T @R ‘cram fergin Hardest ar TET? (2) Barry aaa aaa aefeeators Q) award ana afrat ) Gary aver at ama afer (4) wale ar oa atte TE aT gS art Leador Course Phase - Via Vil(MLG, MLM, MLI& ML) *OOIEMDS0S721002 Page 42/46 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Ta & Ferg STE E+H/ 22082021ALLEN 170. If a person shows production of interferon in | 170. afe farett safer ade # gece ar seares Stet his body the chances are that he has got an 2 at saat Peafatas 3 @ ae oT da a AT infection of rate (1) Tetanus (1) Rae (2) Typhoid (2) aersigs (3) Dengue OR (4) Malaria (4) water 171. Identify the correct option 171. wet ret Ht gee. (1) Tay-Sach's disease - Homogentisic acid oxidase () tao. ehiserifee aes aries (2) Albinism - Tyrosinase Q) Garda - eres (3) a-Thalasamia - HBB gene on chr. 16 3) a Aerdifer. HBB sf TET 16 (4) Phenylketonuria--N-acetylhexosaminidase (4) Grae Frerfear-B-N-acetylhexosaminidase 172. Given below is the ECG of a normal human, | 172, #9 fear Ta ECG We ara WMA aT BL eH Which one of its components is correctly fea wa aes A, A aelaet earen Hh ty interpreted below? R R P of \s 4 z gf \s s (1). Peak P - Initiation of left atrial contraction only () frac p ara aia afte & ears ar TOT (2) Complex QRS-One complete pulse (2) fer QRs - eH aepl ciel (3) Peak T- Initiation of total cardiac contraction 3) frac - aept ee a aT aT (4) Peak P and Peak R together - systolic (4) frat pow fra R St He a - and diastolic blood pressures. wert co srgfntirertt oe aTatl 173, Atrial depolarization in ECG is indicated by ;- 173, safer agate ar eas ECG Fate () Pwave () Pater 2) Qwave 2) Qaer (3) Rwave @) Rar (4) Swave (4) Sar Leader Gourse Phase Via Vil(MLG, MLH, MLI& ML} 001 M0305721002 E+H/22082021 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Ta & Ferg OTE Page 43/46ALLEN 174, Atrial systole in ECG is indicated by - 174, BCG H sirfeia ar depart Pree aartan sear 2 (1) P-wave (2) QRS complex (1) Pte Q) QRS Fire (3) Rewave (4) T-wave 3) Rater @) TT 175. In given ECG, end of T-wave marks 175. RATT ECG 4 T-air ar aia ford eT R R B 1 B 1 ek as (1) End of ventricular diastole () frert fafres a sit (2) End of ventricular systole Q) Red ager ar sit 3) Contraction of both atria 3) tht said arg (4) End of arial systole (4) er seg ar aa 176. Electrocardiogram is :- 176, setagranfsatary (1) A machine used to obtain electrical () && ate @ fear sett ea Fr free activity of the heart ‘rarernit a Pranrert & fare eet 2 (2) A graphical representation of the electrical Q) ee & fee fearearit ar sitet activity of the heart weqiieer a (3) A machine used to obtain systolic and (3) Ge Hef 2 frear watt gee At fete oie diastolic activity of the heart correcta Bar at Rarrert & fag aa 2 (4) A graphical representation of systole and (4) ¥et & Reet sie eerie ar sites diastole of the heart sreqetacr 81 177. Ina sterile female Barr body is absent, ovary is | 177, UH dea aiken F afsefaa sierra # car underdeveloped. In this female, total number an ate squad @ tt sad reat At deat of chromosomes are := ert: a) 46 () 46 @ 47 @ 47 @) 45 @) 45 44 4) 44 [Leader Course Phase - Via Vil(MLG, MLM, MLI& ML) Page 44/46 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Ta & Ferg OTE *OOIGMDS05721002 E+H/ 22082021178. 179. 180. ALLEN The figure below shows an angiogram of the coronary blood vessel. Which one of the following statements correctly describes, what is being done? (1) It is coronary artery which has a cancerous growth that is being removed Q) Iis coronary artery which is blocked by a plaque and the same is being cracked (3) It is coronary vein in which the defecti e valves are being opened (4 It is coronary vein blocked by a parasite (blood fluke) that is being removed Which of the following blood vessel is used for grafting in CABG ? (2) carotid artery (2) femoral artery (3) pulmonary artery (4) Internal mammary artery In ECG what does T- ave represent ? (2) Atrial depolarization 2) Atrial repolarization (3) Ventricular depolarization (4) Ventricular repolarisation 178, te face fea eae eae ee ae a Oto Feearar rar 21 geet ear fara oH er @, ga Ste a Re ne ert Ha ater Ue aor ae AP ()) ae wea sort 2 fara tee wa real 2 fare eer se cere (2) Fe aaa eet 8 StH ca TT tae a wh 8 ake se cers Hy earAT SH ETS 6) me ea fier 8 Paes dil area ata TR a (4) ae eee ro 2 a ee Teste (ow Toh) a Haws eS SS eA TTR 179, CABG 4 mnftén & fore Fret 8 & fire om arf ‘ar ae Fam STAT? () Rites ott (2) Shiner wat 3) vealed wert (4) otter eet srt 180, ECG HT ver aa aartet 8? () safers fags (2) afore yrgetareor (3) Fiera Faget (@) Fea gaieer Leader Course Phase - Via Vil(MLG, MLM, MLI& ML) *OOIGMDS05721002 E+H/22082021 ‘Space for Rough Work / TF @Ta & Ferg OTE Page 45/46