Q.1.

In the formation of a molecule which of the following take part in chemical

combination?
(a) cation
(b) anion
(c) valence electron
(d) inner shell electron
Q.2. The outer orbitals of C in ethene molecule can be considered to be hybridized to give
three equivalent sp² orbitals. The total number of sigma (s) and pi (p) bonds in ethene
molecule is
0(a) 1 sigma (s) and 2 pi (p) bonds
(b) 3 sigma (s) and 2 pi (p) bonds
(c) 4 sigma (s) and 1 pi (p) bonds
(d) 5 sigma (s) and 1 pi (p) bonds
Q.3. Among the following the electron deficient compound is
(a) BCl3
(b) CCl4
(c) PCl5
(d) BeCl2
Q.4. Which of the following is a linear molecule?
(a) ClO2
(b) CO2
(c) NO2
(d) SO2
Q.5. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) The formation of ionic compounds depend upon the ease of formation of the positive and
negative ions from the respective neutral atoms.
(b) Formation of ionic compounds depend upon arrangement of the positive and negative
ions in the solid.
(c) Formation of positive ion involves addition of electron(s) while that of negative ion
involves removal of electron(s).
(d) None of these
Q.6. Based on lattice enthalpy and other considerations which one the following alkali metals
chlorides is expected to have the higher melting point?
(a) RbCl
(b) KCl
(c) NaCl
(d) LiCl
7.Which one is correctly matched?
a) Acids – pH range above7
b) Acids – pH range below 7
c) Acids – pH range 7(neutral)
d) Acids – pH range 8-9

8. When an acid reacts with a metal, which one of the following gas is usually liberated?
a) ammonia gas
b) chlorine
c) oxygen
d) Hydrogen gas

9.What will be the X in the following equation?

MgO + 2HCl —-> X + H2O
a) Mg2Cl
b) 2MgCl
c) MgCl
d) MgCl2

10.What is the pH of 0.0001 molar HCl solution?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

11.If two compounds have the same empirical formula but different molecular formula they
must have
(a) Different percentage composition
(b) Different molecular weight
(c) Same viscosity
(d) Same vapour density
12. Identify the chiral molecule among the following:
(a) Isopropyl alcohol
(b) 2-pentanol
(c) 1-bromo 3-butene
(d) Isobutyl alcohol

13.)0.0833mol of carbohydrate of empirical formula CH2O contain 1g of hydrogen. The

molecular formula of the carbohydrate is
(a) C5H10O5
(b) C3H4O3
(c) C12H22O11
(d) C6H12O6
14. The displacement of electrons in a multiple bond in the presence of attacking reagent is
called
(a) Inductive effect
(b) Electromeric effect
(c) Resonance
(d) Hyper conjugation.
15. Question 2.
Identify the chiral molecule among the following:
(a) Isopropyl alcohol
(b) 2-pentanol
(c) 1-bromo 3-butene
(d) Isobutyl alcohol
16.0.0833mol of carbohydrate of empirical formula CH2O contain 1g of hydrogen. The
molecular formula of the carbohydrate is
(a) C5H10O5
(b) C3H4O3
(c) C12H22O11
(d) C6H12O6
17.The displacement of electrons in a multiple bond in the presence of attacking reagent is
called
(a) Inductive effect
(b) Electromeric effect
(c) Resonance
(d) Hyper conjugation.
18. Which one is strongest acid among following options?
(a) CH2FCOOH
(b) CH2ClCOOH
(c) CHCl2COOH
(d) CHF2COOH
19. Which one of the following conformations of cyclohexane is chiral?
(a) Twist boat
(b) Rigid
(c) Chair
(d) Boat

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1.Probability of the event that might occur X Severity of the event if it occurs =
(A) Accident

(B) Hazard

(C) Risk

(D) None of the above

2-Check list for Job Safety Analysis (JSA) consists of

(A) Work area, material, machine, tools

(B) Men, machine, material, tools

(C) Men, machine, work area, tools

(D) Men, work area. Material, tools

3 The Acronym “MSDS” stands for

(a) Mass Safety Data Sheet

(b) Material Security Data Sheet

(c) Material Safety Data Sheet

(d) Master Security Data Sheet

(e) Miscellaneous Safety Detail Summary

4. In India, MSDS has been mandated under which law?

(a) The Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemicals Rules, 1989

(b) The Chemical Accidents (Emergency Planning, Preparedness and Response)

Rules, 1996

(c) The Factories Act, 1948

(d) The Central Motor Vehicle Rules, 1989

(e) None of the above

5. Which one of the following statements is not correct about MSDS?

(a) It provides single reference for all information about hazardous Chemicals.

(b) It is based on the recommendation of the United Nation’s Committee of

Experts on Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of

Chemical;

(c) Material Safety Data sheet forms the important elements of effective

Chemical Hazards Communication System.

(d) It is a document prepared by the manufacturers/suppliers of the Chemical.

(e) It does not contain information on physical and chemical properties of the

material, potential hazards of the material and how to work safely with these

materials.

6. Which one of the following statements is not correct about GHS?

(a) The Acronym “GHS” stands for Globally Harmonized System of

classification and labelling of Chemicals.

(b) The recommendations by the GHS Committee are contained in purple Book.

(c) As per latest recommendations on GHS, the Safety Data Sheet should have

information presented under 16 headings.

(d) The recommendations of GHS Committee are binding on all Countries of the

World.

(e) UN GHS provides for the content and format of Safety Data Sheets

7. After how many years/period MSDS sheets are normally required to be

updated?
(a) Every year

(b) Every 3 years

(c) Every 5 years

(d) No periodicity prescribed.

(e) Every six months

8. Which of the following information can not be found in MSDS?

(a) First Aid Measures

(b) Accidental Release measures

(c) Composition /information on ingredients

(d) Handling and Storage information

(e) Medicine to be taken by the effected person if exposed to the Chemical

9. Which of the following information is not provided in the Section of an

MSDS dealing with Chemical Identification?

(a) Name of the Chemical

(b) Name of the manufacturer and it’s address

(c) Emergency contact number

(d) CAS No. of the Chemical

(e) Toxicity of the Ingredients of the Chemical

10. The term “CHEMTREC” stands for

(a) Chemical Transportation Emergency Centre

(b) Chemical Training Centre

(c) Chemical Treatment Centre

(d) Chemical Toxicity Recovery Centre

(e) Chemical Toxicity Research Centre

11. Which of the following information is contained in the Section of the

MSDS dealing with Hazards Identification?

(a) Toxicology of the chemical

(b) The acute ( short term) health effect

(c) The chronic ( long term) health effect

(d) The signs and symptoms of exposure

(e) (a), (b) and (c) above

12. Which of the following information about the chemical substance is not

provided in the section of the MSDS dealing with stability and

reactivity?

(a) Flash Point

(b) Flammable limits

(c) Fire Hazards and Explosion Hazards

(d) Fire Fighting media and instruction

(e) Packaging of the Chemical

13. Which of the following is not correct about “Flammable limit” of the

Chemical Substance?

(a) It indicate the concentration range of vapours of the Chemical Substance in

which a flammable substance can produce a fire or explosion when an

ignition source ( such as spark or open flame) is present

(b) Below the lower flammable limit, the concentration of vapour in air is too low

to burn.

(c) Above the upper flammable limit, the concentration of vapour in air is too

rich in fuel but deficient in oxygen to burn.

(d) (a), (b) and (c) above

(e) None of the above

14. Which one of the following statements is correct about the term

„Threshold Limit Value (TLV)‟?

(a) A concentration level expressed in ppm (part of the vapour per million part

of contaminated air) upto which it is believed a worker can be exposed day

after day for working without any adverse health effect.

(b) A concentration level in ppm (part of the vapour per million part of

contaminated air) upto which a worker can be exposed for a day (24 hrs) for

working without any adverse health effect.

(c) A concentration level in ppm (part of the vapour per million part of

contaminated air) upto which a worker can be exposed for 12 hours without

any adverse health effect.

(d) A concentration level in ppm (part of the vapour per million part of

contaminated air) to which it is believed a worker can be exposed for 4 hours

without any adverse health effect.

(e) None of the above.

15.According to perspective formula, the solid wedge indicates the group which is
(A) Towards reader
(B) Away from reader
(C) In plane of paper
(D) None

19.The no. of possible optical isomers for the above structure is

(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 3

.20Compounds which have different arrangements of atoms in space while having

same atoms bonded to each other are said to have
a) position isomerism
b) functional group isomerism
c) chain isomerism
d) stereoisomerism

21. Which of the following can make difference in optical isomers?

a) heat
b) temperature
c) polarized light
d) pressure

1. The most reactive metal is:

(a) Iron
(b) Gold
(c) Zinc
(d) Potassium.
2. The liquid metal at room temperature
(a) Mercury
(b) Bromine
(c) Sodium
(d) Gold.
3. Non-metals are:
(a) generally liquids
(b) generally gases
(c) generally solids and gases
(d) generally gases and liquids.
4. The metal which is stored in kerosene:
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Magnesium
(c) Sodium
(b) Magnesium
5. The non-metal which is liquid at room temperature is:
(a) Carbon
(b) Iodine
(c) Bromine
(d) Chlorine.
6. Materials around us can be classified into
(a) Elements and compounds
(b) Metals and non-metals
(c) Acids and bases
(d) None of these.
7. All metals are solids except
(a) Sodium
(b) Calcium
(c) Mercury
(d) Hydrogen.
8. Metal oxides are of nature
(a) Acidic
(b) Basic
(c) Neutral
(d) All of these.
9. The metal which can be cut with a knife
(a) Sodium and potassium
(b) Barium and calcium
(c) Sodium and mercury
(d) Potassium and calcium.
10. When non-metals react with water then
(a) Hydrogen gas is formed
(b) Carbon dioxide gas is formed
(c) Non-metals do not react with water
(d) None of these.
1. Which of the following compound shows the correct decreasing order of
solvolysis with aqueous ethanol?

The correct choice is:

a) III > II > I > IV
b) III > II > IV > I
c) II > III > IV > I
d) III > I > IV > II

2. Which of the following reaction will go faster if the concentration of the

nucleophile is raised?

a) I and III
b) II and IV
c) I and II
d) I, II and IV

3. SN1 reaction undergoes through a carbocation intermediate as follows:

 [R = t-Bu, iso-Pr, Et, Me] (X = Cl, Br, I)
The correct statements are:
I. The decreasing order of rate of SN1reaction is t-BuX > iso-PrX > EtX > MeX
II. The decreasing order of ionization energy is MeX > EtX > iso-PrX > t-BuX
III. The decreasing order of energy of activation is t-BuX > iso-PrX > EtX > MeX
a) I & II are correct
b) I & III are correct
c) II and III are correct
d) I, II & III are correct

4. Which one is an excellent substrate for SN2 reaction?

a)

b)
c) CH3 – CH2 – Cl

d)

5. Which types of isomers are formed in rearrangement reactions?

a) structural isomers
b) Geometrical isomers
c) Optical isomer
d) Conformational isomers

6. The benzylic acid rearrangement reaction of a cyclic diketone leads to _______

a) Ring expansion
b) Ring contraction
c) Ring fusion
 d) Isomers

7. How are enzymes different from catalysts?

a) Enzymes are active at high temperatures
b) Catalysts are active at subzero temperatures
c) Catalysts are efficient at high temperatures and high pressures
d) Enzymes are denatured at room temperature

8. Up to what temperature does the enzymes of thermophilic organisms stay

active?
a) 90°C
b) 40°C
c) 35°C
d) 200°C

9.Which of the following is The functional group in alkyl halide?

(A). Hydroxyl group
(B). Inert gas
(C). Halogen atom
(D). All of these
(E). None of these

10. Which of the following is the atom that defines the structure of a
family of organic compounds and their properties?
(A). Functional group
(B). Homologous structure
(C). Resonating structure
(D). Nucleophile
(E). None of these
11. Which of the following is the correct statement?
(A). All of these
(B). No intermediate is always involved in the SN2 mechanism
(C). SN2 reactions are a one-step reaction
(D). SN2 reaction always follows the second-order kinetics
(E). None of these
12.The step-in SN1 reaction that is a slow rate-determining step is
__________
(A). Formation of a transition state
(B). Formation of a racemic mixture
(C). Attack of the nucleophile
(D). All of these
(E). None of these
13. Electrophilic aromatic substitution involves a cationic intermediate in which positive
charge is delocalized by resonance to which positions?
a) ortho
b) meta
c) para
d) all
e) ortho & para
14. A low concentration of nucleophile favors Which of the following?
(A). SN1 reaction
(B). SN2 reaction
(C). Both SN1 and SN2 reaction
(D). None of these
15. The rate of nucleophilic substitution reactions is higher in the
presence of Which of the following?
(A). Electron releasing groups
(B). Electron withdrawing groups
(C). Both electron-withdrawing and releasing groups
(D). None of these

1. Who is the father of Artificial Intelligence?

A. Doug Cutting
B. John McCarthy
C. William S.
D. Rasmus Lerdorf
2. What are the main goals of AI?

A. To Create Expert Systems

B. To Implement Human Intelligence in Machines
C. Both A and B
D. None of the Above
3. Which of the following areas can contribute to build an intelligent system?
A. Philosophy
B. Biology
C. Sociology
D. All of the above

4. A computer program with AI can not answer the generic questions it is meant
to solve.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. AI is not used to answer question
D. None of the Above
5. Which of the following is not the type of AI?

A. Reactive machines
B. Unlimited memory
C. Theory of mind
D. Self-awareness
6. Which of the following is an application of AI?

A. Gaming
B. Expert Systems
C. Vision Systems
D. All of the above
7. What is Artificial intelligence?

A. Putting your intelligence into Computer

B. Programming with your own intelligence
C. Making a Machine intelligent
D. Playing a Game
8. Which of the following, is a component of an expert system?

A. inference engine
B. knowledge base
C. user interface
D. All of the above
9. Artificial Intelligence is about_____.

a. Playing a game on Computer

b. Making a machine Intelligent
c. Programming on Machine with your Own Intelligence
d. Putting your intelligence in Machine

10. What is Artificial Intelligence?

a) A field that aims to make humans more intelligent
b) A field that aims to improve the security
c) A field that aims to develop intelligent machines
d) A field that aims to mine the data

11. _____ is the goal of Artificial Intelligence.

a) To solve artificial problems
b) To extract scientific causes
c) To explain various sorts of intelligence
d) To solve real-world problems

12. In how many categories process of Artificial Intelligence is categorized?

a) categorized into 5 categories
b) processes are categorized based on the input provided
c) categorized into 3 categories
d) process is not categorized

13.What is the function of an Artificial Intelligence “Agent”?

a) Mapping of goal sequence to an action
b) Work without the direct interference of the people
c) Mapping of precept sequence to an action
d) Mapping of environment sequence to an action

14. Which of the following is not a type of Artificial Intelligence agent?

a) Learning AI agent
b) Goal-based AI agent
c) Simple reflex AI agent
d) Unity-based AI agent

15. _________ number of informed search method are there in Artificial

Intelligence.
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1