06/09/2023 Code-A

Aakash
OBYJUs
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005.
Ph.011-47623456
MM:720 Time : 200 Min
TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TEOMA

Topics Covered:
Physics :Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism and Mate.
Chemistry :Surface Chemistry. General Principles and PrOCesses of isolaton of Elerments
Botany : Molecular Basis of nheritance
Zoology : Evolution.

General Instructions :

1. There are wo sections in each subiect. ie. Section-A &Section-B. You have to atempt all35 questions from
Secioe
ction-A &only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2 Each
Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, -l mark shall be deducted from thetotal score.
UnarnsweredAunattempted questions will be given no marks
blueblack ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely sllthe circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6.Dark the circie in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer stheet and do notuse white tuid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

M2324P1TEQ4A)

PHYSICs

SECTION-A

A. Current sensitivity of a galvanometer can be hat is thee magnitude of magnetc force per
increased by
unit length on a wire carrying a current
A and making an angle of
of 10
37 with the ie lo A
(1) Increasing number of urns 'N
direcöon of a unilorm magnetc fheld of 0.30
(2) Decreasing
K
torsional constant of spring T2

(3) Increasing the magnetic feld 'B

(1) 3.6 Nim FBiLsin
(4) All of these

A galvanometer of resistance 400 Q allows (4) 24 Nim

only 496 of the main current to pass through
it ater connecing a shunt resistance. The A charged particle is at rest in a
value of resistance of the shunt is space,t
where electrormagnetic feld is present
(1) 10.1 Q experiences electromagneic force, then
(2) 4.96Q (1) The elecric Beld must be zero
(3)_8.33 Q 2 Electic feld must be non-zero
45 16.670 (3) The electric fleld may be zero
16 4 The magnesc feld must be zero
 4A
TermExam2024CE+0YM(P1) TEO curro
The magneic field due to inite shown
urns AB al point P (as
carrying were
A circular coil
of radius R and N
he magnitude of he fiqure) is
carrying current point on its axis at a
magneic feld at a
distance xfrom its centre is given by
(1) RN -Cos

RN

HN sin + coso
(1)
(2) sin + sin
sin 0+ sin ól
6.Choose the corect statement cos +t cos)
A. A moving coil galvanometer can be
converted into a ammeter by introducing a
resistance r, of small value in series. of
The force F experienced by a particle
11
B.A moving coil galvanometer can be
in a
converted into a volmeter by introducing a charge q moving with a velocity
shunt resistance r of large value in parallel.
(1) OnlyA magnetic field B is given by
(2) OnlyB F=g( B). Which pairs of vectors are
(3) BothA and B at right angles to each other?
wNeither Anor B (1) F and t
Apositively charged particle is projected in a
plane perpendicular to a uniform magneic
field. The radius path described by the (3)
and B
paricle is proportonalto 4S Both () &(3)
AY The momentum ofthe particle
(2) The square of the momentum of
paricle 12.A charge partcle is moving in a uniform
(3) The kinetic energy of the partice magneic field, hen
(4) Both (B) &(C) (1) Is momentu may change but kinetic
energy rerains the same
In crossed electric and magnetic feld, the (2) Bothmomenturm and kinetic energy
remaln the same
velocity of charged particle which passes
undeflected through the region may be (3), Both will change
(where E is electric field andBis magneic (9Kinetic energy change but momentum
field) remains the same
() v=E'B
13.
Rank the magnitudeof fB.dl for closed
(3) =E paths shown in the figure from the smallest
to the largest
(4) v= A A
v

9. It ratio of ime periods of circular motion of o2A) &=3A

bwo charged particles in magnetic field is 1: C 24
2, and they have sarme charge and same
speed, then the ratio of their kineic energies O3A 06A
is
(1) 1:1
(2) 1:2 B
ay2:1 yA<B<c
(4) 1:V2 (2) A<C<B
(3) C<A<B
(4) B<C<A
ermExam2 024
CF+OYM(P1)TE04 A

circular coil isRdoubled

22
14. the radius of a
the number of turns are and
magnesc feld at halvedthen the 19/ Magnetc susceptbility x of a diarmagnetc
same current will the centre of the coil, for the Substance depend on absolute temperature
Tas x TThe value of nis
(2) Get doubled N (1) 1
eGet onefourth (2) Zero
(3) Get quadrupled
(4) Remains unchanged 3-1
(4) -2
15. A small coit of of N turn 20. The ime period of a thin bar magnet in
Current fows through has it
area Aand a earth's magnetic feld is Tf the same
dipole mornent of the partice The Magneic magnet is cut into tvo egual parts
perpendicular to length. Then the time
iNA period of each part in same field is
(2) PNA
(1) T
(3) iN²A M
(4) 1N
(2) 2T
(3) I Tey
16 A charged partice having charge 1C is
moving with velocity 2í+ j) ms. The 21. The horizontal component of earth's
B7 magnetic feld (due to charged particle) at magnetic field and angle of dip are 3.0 x 10
origin, when the charged particle is at (1 m, 5T and 60" respectively TheBy
magnitude3x
of loS
1 m) is earthi's nagnetic field is
(1) -10- Â)T (1) 72 1o
(2) (10"k)T r610-5T
(3) 3.6x10-5T Bcos
()T (4) 2/3 x 10 T 2 3X
22. The percentage increase in the field when Re2
the space within the current-carrying
A galvanometer acting as an ammeter solenoid. is filled with magnesium. (Take
should
High resistance in parallel with coil of
susceptbility of magnesiumis 12 x10)
galvanometer () 1210
(3Low resistance in parallel with col of (2) 024 x16%%
galvanometer
(3) 024%10-3%
() High resistance in series with coil of
galvanometer
(4) Low resistance in series with coil of
galvanometer The magnetic susceptbility is negative for
(1) Paramagnetc materials only
Y8. A proton moving with velocity Diamagnetic materials only
(3) Ferromagnetic materials only
Ve (3i+2j) ms enters in a magneticfeld
(4) Paramagnetc and ferromagnetic
B-(2j+3k) T. The force on proton wl be materiais

e48x 10-(zi -3j +2è) » 24. The permanent magnetic moment of the
atoms ot a material is not zero. The material
(a) Must be paramagneic
(2) Must be diamagneic
O 48x 10-(2i +3j -2å)N (3) Must be ferromagnetic

616x10-"(2i-j+2i) (4) May be paramagnetic

Termtxam2024CE+OYM(P1)-TE04A
a magneti arange
20 When all the molecules in of magnetic fele
Letrbe the distance of a
point on the axis of themselves in the direction
25. centre. The is called
rom is the condition
A maneticheld dipole
Iat sucha point is proportional (1) Permeability
magnetc magnetic dipole is smail)
o (provided ySaturation
(1) (3) Retentivity
(4) Reluctance
(2) H=l00D
(3) 1000
A magnetising ield intensity of
(4) A produces a magnetic lux
density 0.25
substance. The
m?
e in a ferromagnetic
True dip angle at a certain place on the relative permeability of ferromagnetic
Earth is 30. It the plane of dip circle is substance is (Approximately)
incined at an angle 90 with magnetic (1) 20x 10
meridian at that place, then the apparent dip
recorded will be S=36° Casé 90 2Y 20x10o?
V) 90
Cose tan (3) 4.0 x 103 2
(2) 30*
(4) 10x 105
(3) 60*
(4) 45 tand 32 Amagnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform
magnetic field in its plane. It may experience
27. A diamagneic material in a non-uniform
magneic field
J Aforce and a torque 25
Moves perpendicular to the field 2 Aforce but nota torque
(2) Moves from weaker to stronger parts of (3) Neither a force nor a torque
the field
V) Moves from stronger to weaker part of (4) Both (1) &(2)
the feld

A4) Does not move
28.Iif a and Bare the apparent angles of dip in
wo vertical planes at right angles to each
other at a place, where &is the true angle of
dip, then
(2f cos 8 =cos a t cos? 8
(2) cot?8 = cot a +cot² 8
(3) cot a=cot? 8+ cot 8
(4) tan &= tan a + tan 8
Two identical bar magnets, each of magnetic
moment Mare joined as shown in the figure.
The magnetic moment of the combination is
33. Which one of the following is not considered
as element of earth's magnetic field?
(1) Verticalcomponent of earth's magnetic
held.
(2) Horizontal component of earth's
magneic feld,
(3) Angle ot dip
9) Angle ofdeclination.
HE
84. Amagnetising field intensity of 10Am is
appied on a sample of ferromagnetic
material of susceptibility 1999, The net
magneticfield inside the material is
(1) 4x 10-T
(2) 4mx 1999 x 10-6 T

(4) *1998 x106T

60 35. Abar magnet has dimensions of 25 cm, 10

cm and 5cm. It length of magnet is 25 cm
and its pole strength is 200 x 10 Am, then
(4) 2M intensity of magnetisation of magnet is
(1) 40 Am
(2) 625 Am HE
(3) 3M (3) 62.5 Alm
M (4) 80 Am

2l
 Exam202 4CF+oYMP1)TEO4A
wb
M
SECTION-B
36. Aparicie of mass 0.l kg and
projected into a magnetic Seldcharge 4C is
of 01T and 39. A bollow conducting pipe o 5 cm is
carryinga steady current ot taODetc
4
ravels along a helical path of radius 0.2 m nr is zero at a
and pitchComponentependicular
2 m. The perpend a feld due to thisdistance
perpendicular hollow xconductor s of the
hom the axis
parallel
of the conducor Then xmay be
paricie WEL the manney
Seld respectively
are (1) 10 crm
(2) 15 cm
() 8m/s, m/s (3) cm
(2) 0.8 m/s, m/s (4) 2 cm
(3) 2 m/s, 0 m/s wires carrying current
40. TwO infnitely long
magnetic inducion at O is
(4) 8 m/s, m/s are bent The
egual o

37. Acharge 'q' moving in an external magneic

feld B =2i +j+k experiences an
acceleration of ai-bj +k. Find the
value of constant b. 2-b41-0
(1) -2
(2) 4 2-b+l=o-b
(4) 1 -b=3 (1) Zero
(each of mass m) (2)
38 A positron and an electron each, enter intoa
moving with same velocity into
perpendicular magnetic field Bo directed The
(3)

the plane of paper as shown in igure.

them ater ime S
separaton between
there is no currenti along the
(assume hypotheically that positron and Awire of length (caries a
electric force between the 41.
B= B + )
elecron) as Aqragretsic eld the magnitude of
exists in he space. Find
acting on the wire.
thee magieicforce
(a2Boilt
t= 0V,
eVo x (3) /3Bil

deuteron are accelerated

42. A proton and a kinetic energy a
(1) from rest upto same
Be uniform magnetc field set up
the ratio of
(2 perpendicular to their velociiesbe
path will
the radii of thecircular
(3) v (1) 1:2
(2) 1:4
(4) Be (3) 1:2
(4) 1:2V2
 Trmam2024CFOYNP)-TEO4A
cumen
47. AcHcular cod ot radius 1 m carries a of 10
leld
43 kong staght wires each carying 25At is placed in a magnesc
nenti n opposie direcson are separated done t Oeit hom
Wbim The work equibrium
by dance R. The magnesc fetd at apoint io unstabie
md ybeween he wires is posio o statie
egulibrum is
( (3) 50n J
(2) 25m J
Me (3) 25
(4) 253
(4)
48 Ahin bar magnet oft length L has magnesc
semicircular
44. The dimensional ormula of the magnesc moment M. Nowititis bent into
is
feld is arc then cs new magnesc moent
() MUTA) M ()
B=T (2) 21
27R (3) M
(4) 2M

45. I the plane of dip circle dial is kept The suscepsbility of certain magnesc
perpendicular to the magnesc meridian then material is
What is he cass of
its needie will
magnetic material?
(1) Become horizontal
(1) Diamagnetic
(2) Be at 45" to horizontal
(3) Be at 60 to horizontal (2) Paramagnesc
0Be verical
Lar Femomagnesc
(4) Fero eleceric

46. Which of the following statements is 50. naplane, wich makes an angle gt.37with
incorrect regarding magnesc feld lines? the magnetc meridian, apparent dip is 45
4They form closed loop % Thetue dip will be
(2) They never intersect each other
3 Tangent drawn at any point gives
direction of magnetic feld at that point
(4) They are normal to surtace of magnet

KoYM23)

CHEMISTRV

SECTION-A

51. in Elingham's diagram siope in downward 52. Gold Schmidt thermite process is used for
direcion is for (1) Reduction of meal oxide with
aluminium
() C+40, c0 v (2) Reducion of aluminium oxide with
AMg+o, Mg transition metal
(3) 2Ag +0,Ag,0 (3) Reducon of goldoxde with aluminium
(4) Reduction of aluminium oxde with
(4) cO+o,co, hydrogen
 (ermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TEO4A
53/ van Arkel method is
used in purification of
Titanium
(2) Germanium
in the elecrolytc refining of aluminium by
Hall-Heroult process, the anode used is
(3) Tin (1) Plainum ¢
(4) Silver (2) Graphite
3 Steel
(4) Aluminium Y
Brass is an alloy of
(1) Zn and Sn
52 The percentage of carbon in pig iron
2) Zn and Cu
(3) Ni and Cu 496
(4) Zn and Ni (2) 66
(3) 10%
(4) Zero
55. The ore of iron, among the
following is
Haematite 63. Select the ore(s) which have two different
(2) Bauxite metal atoms.
(3) Malachite (1) Chromite
(4) Zincite (2) Chalcopyrite
(3) Bauxite
56. Slag formed during extraction of copper from (4) Both (1) and (2)
copper pyrite is
(1) NasPO, 64. Zone refining method cannot be used for the
S FeSiO, refining of
(3) CaSiO, (1) Zn
(2) Ga
(4) Cas(PO)2 %
(3) Si
(4) Ge
Copper matte contains mostly
CuzS with litde FeS 66. McArthur-Forrest Cyanide process is
(2) CuS with little Cu,0 associated with the metallurgy of
(3) FeS with litle FeO (4) Fe
(2) Cu
(4) CuzS with little Cu,0 4TEO4A)

58 in the extraction of copper from its sulphide (4) Zr

ore, the metal is obtain by the reducúon of
Cu,O with 66. Which of the following reaction is a part of
(1) FeO Serpeck's process?
(2) HgS Cu,S t (1) A,O,+ 2NaOH -2NaAIO,+ H,0
2) FezOg +2Al 2Fe +Al,0,
(4) CuzS (O (3) AlN + NaOH +3H,0- NalAl(OH)al +
NH3
58. Heating of ore in the absence of air below its (4) Al,O2H,0 + Na,CO, 2NaAlO, +
meling point is known as
(1) Roasting
(2) Poling 67. Blistered appearance of copper is due
to
3 Calcination evolution of
(4) Disallation (1) sO,(g)
60. Which of the following acts as depressant in
(3) O(9)
Froth lotation process?
(4) COo)
(1) Cresol
(2) NaCN
(3) Xanthate
(4) ZnS
 Tormxam2024Cr0YMPI)-EO4A
condition for physorption is
Concenraton method which is based on
T6. Favourable
temperature, low pressure
(1) High
density ditterence of ore and impunty is temperature, high pressure
(3) Froth Botaton method (2) High high pressure
L1 Hydraulic washing Low temperature, pressure
temperature, low
(3) Leaching (4) Low
(4) Magnetic separaton not an example of
Which oft the following is
helerogeneous catalysis?
68. The electrolyte that is most efecive to
coagulate gold sol is, e
(1) KalFe(CN)l
(1) ANH,(0) +50,(a)NO(g) +6H4,o()
(2) CaCl, gso, (o) +o,(o)2s0,(o)
(3) NaSO
N.(0) + 3M, (0)
z0. Select the negatvely charged sols among
2so,(o) +o, (o) NOfa) 250,(o)
the given
concentration value for
(1) TIO, sol 78 The critical micelles
Sver sol soaps is
(3) Al;Os xH;0 4 104 to 10 mol L-!
(2) 102 to 10- mol L1
(4) Fe;O,.xtH,0
(3) 10-4o 10-2 mol L
Which does not showTyndall e fecr? (4) 10-to 10 mol L
(1) Emulsion
(2) Blood 78. Which of the following statements is correct
(3) Milk
4) Sugar solution
for the spontaneous adsorption of a gas?
(1) AS is negatve and, therefore, AH
H-t
should be highly positiv Ve
. The corect option representinga Freundlich as is negative and therefore, AH
adsorption isotherm is should be highly negative
) AS is positive and, therefore, AH
1) =kps should be negative
(4)A4SiS positive and, therefore, AH
kp! Nshould also be highly positive
(3)
(4) kp-05 80. Hfew drops of Ki are added to AgNO(aq).
the calloid form will be
73. Which enzyme converts starch to maltose? AAgl/ Ag*
(1) Invertase 2) Agl/NO
4 Zymase t Agl
9Diastase Malkye Agl/
PO Maltase

4. Principle emulsitying agent for oil in water 81. The term not related to the purification of
emulsions is colloids is
(1) Dialysis
(1) Long chain alcohols (2) Ultrafiltration
(2) Lampblack
(3) Electrodialysis
(3) Heavy metal salts of fatty acids
v4) Peptisation
NrProteins
82/ Formation of delta at the entry of a river in
15. Which is not the correct match? sea is due to
(1 Solid in liquid Sol (1) Dialysis
(0 Liquid in solid Gel (2) Emulsification
(3) Liquid in liquid Emulsion N3 Coagulation
J4 Gas in gas_ Aerosol (4) Peptisation
iermtxamz024CF+OYM(PL)TE04A
3. Gold number is a measure of
(1) Size of aS. Argytol is colloidal sol of
(2)
colloidalparicles
Stability of
(3) Coagulatingcolloidal
(1) Au
system L Ag
powerof
(9Y Protecing power of colloid (3) S
protective colloid (4) Cu
84Which of he following is
colloid macromolecular
(1) gold sol
(2) sulphur sol
8 proteins
(4) Both (A) &(B)

SECTION-B

B6. Purest form of commercial iron is 91. Profitable extracson of metals can be made
(1) Pig iron
(2) Cast iron
3YWrought iron
(4) Steel

87. Which of the following metal can be refined 92. The reaction of fux with impurities produces
by liquation process? low fusibie substance called
(1) Zn
(2) Sn
(3) Ag
(4) Na

88. During the metallurgy of iron, flux used is

(1) NaCi
(

93. Poling process is used tor the refning of

o M M 2 3 4 P 1 T E O

(2) Sio,
(3) PO0
(4) CacO,
99. Magneic impurity present in cassiterite ore 94, Copper is refined using electrolyic
is )method.
R: Pure copper strip is Used as cathode in
(1) SnO
above refining.
(2) TiO, T (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
Fewo, the reason is the corect explanation of
(4) Naz0 t the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
90. Leaching is used for the concentraion of ore explanation of the assertion
of
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(1) Mg is false
(2) Al (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(3) Fe statements
(4) Na
 TermExam2024CE+OYM(P1)-TEO4A

formed only
95. Cornsider the following reaction 98. Mcelles are and above the Kra
(1) Below the CMC
Vegetable oils A vegetable ghee emperature
and above the Krah
(2) Above the CMC
A in the reacion is

(1) Hz lemperature
the Krat
(2) HSOa . Above the CMC and below
temperature
(3) O, below the Kraft
(4) NO (4) Below the CMC and
temperature

96. in the Haber's process for manutacture of colloids have the

amnonia, promoter used in the reacion is 99, Four different lyophilic Which one has the
numbers.
) Molybdenum
(2) Nickel
following golo ower
most protective
(3) Palladium (1) 11
(4) Copper (2) 6
(3) 5
87. Which among the following is an example of (4) 9
aerosol colloid?
(1) Gem stones 109. Enthalpy (in kJ mor) of chemisorpion is
Le) Smoke about
(3) Pumice stone V) 80-240
(4) Cell fuids (2) 10-20
(3) 20- 40
(4) 40-2000

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Precursor of mRNA and SnRNA respectively 304. In lac operon, he pemeability of membrane
are transcribed by for lactose mainly depends on expression of
(1) RNA polymerase l and gese.
2 RNA polymerase ll and l
(3) RNA polymerase il and I
(4) RNA polymerase l and ll
2 tac y
Laca
244
O4) Regulator
X02. Genetic code is degenerate, which means
0 One codon codes for only one amino 405. The genes in eukaryotes are said to be split
acid
(2) Codon is read on mRNA in a (1) They have introns only
contiguous fashion
(3) Three codons do not code for any Y2 They have interrupted coding
sequences
amino acid J3 Mature mRNA contains both exons and
(4) Some amino acids are coded by more introns
than one codon
(4) They have exons only
203. Severo Ochoa enzyme 106. The geneic codon for which no RNA is
(1) Is DNA dependent DNA polymerase found is
(2) Is DNA dependent RNA
polymerase
3) Works in template independent manner
(1) AUG
(2) UUU
(4) Is RNA dependent RNA
polymerase (3) UUA
9UAG

10
arnExam2 024 CF+OYM(Pl) TE04 A

107/ The structure in the chromatin which gves 13. Which statement is not correct WIL
beads-on-string' appearance is composed
of
regulaton of gene expression?
the lac
4) Lac operator is present only in
(1) Nucleosome + RNA operon of prokaryotes
(2) Histones + RNA of expression of lac
(2) A very low level present
(3) DNA nonhistone octamer operon has to be in the cell, all
the ime, otherwise
lactose cannot
Histones+DNA enter tthe cells
are consitutive
K3) All genes of operon
108. Thymine is different from uracil as the former genes
has specihc operator
(4) Each operon has its
and specific repressor
(1) No methyl group
(2) Hat 5h carbon site for
operon, which gene possesses
lacpolymerase
14. InRNA
(3) CH3 group at 3"d carbon atachment?
Methyl group at sh carbon (1) Structural gene
(2) Operator gene
v8j Promoter gene
J89. can
Howbe
many maximum numberofamina acids
polyrmerised during translation from (4) Regulator gene 1
the given sequence of bases on mRNA it.
a part of
7h and
deletion?
12h bases from 5' undergo Which of the following is not
115, transcription unit in DNA?
sAUGCACRAuSAÇUAUGAT
(1) 3
(1) Promoter
(2) Terminator
)4 8j Repressor
(3) 5 (4) Structural gene
(4) 2
116.According to HGP, Y-chromosome in human
10. The very fine X-fay diffraction picture of DNA of genes. The
beings has least number
was obtained by value is
(1) J.Watson and FCrick th
(1) 2968
(2) E.Chargaff (2)14
(3Y MWilkins and R.Frankin LS) 231 s04A)

(4) FMeischer (4) 4000

the
11. If in a double stranded DNA molecule A17 Acybdine olecule does not contain
percentage of adenine is 10%, then what (2) N-olycosidiclinkage
will be the percentage of cytosine? AT (2) Six mnembered ring
(W4096
(3) Ribose sugar
(2) 60%
(3) 20% 20 AtT=GtC
20+5C I00 4 Phosphoester linkage
(4) 10%
118. Which of the given nitrogenous base are
found in both DNA and RNA?
112. Find the inc orrect match.
of unusual (A) Uracil
(1) Capping Addition (B) Adenine
nucleotide at 5' end (C) Guanine
N2) Tailing - Adenylate residues are added (D) Thymine
at 3' end (1) A and B
(3) Splicing - Represents dominance of ) Band C
RNA World (3) Cand D
14) Mature mRNA Exons are removed (4) A and D
and introns are joined
hachve

11
 Tvam2024CFOYM(PL}EO4A

a which of ne 223. Genes in eukaryotes

eorrect
represenao labeled (a) Have intons
stcturephenomenon and associaed (b) Are split
enrye (c) Arepolycistronic
Lar (a)& (b) only
Prolein (2) )& (c) only
(3) (a)&(c) only
0A DNA eplicaton, RNA degpendent (4) All (a). (b) &(c)
DNA polymerase
B- Transcription, DNA polymerase in he
Whichh of the given isare involved
Transonpton, DNA dependent orocess of DNA replicason?
RNA potymerase A) Template DNA with polarity 3 5
C-Transcripon, snurps (B) Temgplate DNA with polarity S 3A
(C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
2 RNA and DNA both can D) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
maerial but unchon
DNA iS pre
as
lerred overgenesc
RNA 23 Only (A) and (c)
because
(2) Only (C)
OH group in DNAis areactve 69 (A (B) and (C) only
group and makes DNA labile 4) All (A. (B). (C) and (D)
2 DNA is less reactve and more stable
than RNA
(3) RNA mutates at a slower rate 125 Prokaryotic transcripton is similar to that of
(4) DNA directy codes tor synthesisof eukaryotic in
proteins T4 Types of RNA polymerases
4 Requrementof pocessing of m-RNA
z1 Read the given statements stating them bue. (3) Being coupled withtranslation
(or talse (F) and select the correct option N9Drection of RNA formaion
(A)DNA acis as the genetc material in most
of the organisms f 26. The histone proteins which form the octamer
(B) RNA mostly uncbans as catalytc
molecule. ota nucle osomes are
(C) The genetc code determines the HHA, H,B and H,
sequence of amino acids in proteins (2) HA,H;B, H, and Ha
(D) Nucleic acids are polymers of
nucdeotides. (3) H.H3. Hy and H
ABCD (4) HyA andH,Booly
OTTTT
(2) TFTT 17. During DNA tngerprinting, the separation of
DNA fragiients is done with the help of
()centitugation
AElectrophoresis
3) Bloting
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
O(4) VNTR probes y
(4) (4) 128 nan mRNA, UTRS are present
(1) AL5 end only
22. ldently the false staternent. (2) Before stop codon only
2 In prokaryotes transcripion and
(3) After start codon only
translation are often coupled
, 4 Both, before start codon and ater stop
.2Bacterial mRNA undergoes splicing to codon
become funcional
(3) Prokaryotes have single RNA
polymerase 129. Frederick Gritfith performed series of
(4) in bacteria (p) factor is required for experiments by selecting wo strains of
termination of ranscripton bacterium
(1) Escherichia coli
(2) Salmonella typhimurium
9Pneumococcus
(4) Laciobacillus

12
fermxam2024CF+OYM(PL}-TEO4A
130 In prokaryoBc ranslatbon,
peptde bond the ormaton of
catalysed by a between
wo amino acids is 83. In eukaryotes, peptdy vansterase which
e syhess of oe0tde
pept bond
(1) Proeinaceous enzyme amino acids during anstafon is
(2) Lysoryme (1) 165 RNA
(3) RNA catalyst (2) 5S rRNA
(4) Ribonucease 28SrRNA
(4) 58S RNA
131. Some amino acids are coded
one codon. t by more than in some viuses DNA IS ormed rom he
feature of geneicreflects
code? which of the given ribonucleic acid with the help of
(1) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(1) Commaless punctuation
(2) DNA dependent RNA polynerase
V2 Degeneracy of code 3 RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) Non-overlapping (4) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) Universality of codes
138 Number of nucleosdes in geneic material of
132./in eukaryotes, splicing in hnRNA lakes place
inside the x174 bacteriophage is
(1) Lysosome A5386 nuceoides
(2) Ribosome (X 5386 base pairs
(3) Nucleus
(3) 48502 nucleotides
(Y Cytoplasm (4) 48502 base pairs

SECTION-B

139. A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentgse

136. The process of transiation of mRNA to
protein begins when
(1) IRNA is charged
(2) RNA is aminoacylated
(3) Small subunit of ribosome encounters
an mRNA
(4) Peptide bond forms beween
amino acids
137. Technique of DNA fingerprinting
developed by
(1) Hershey and Chase
)Alec Jeffreys
(3) Griffth
(4) Meselson and Stahl
138. Regarding double helix model of DNA,
which of the following statements is correct?
N Backbone is formed by sugar-nitogen
base
(2) The bwo strands of polynudeotides are
perpendicular to each other
(3) There are two hydrogen bonds
between all base pairs
4) Number of hydrogen bonds between
guanine and cytosine is three
sugar tirough a Nglycosidic linkage to form
() Nudeoide B
(2) Nuckeolus
(3) Nucleus
wo
(4) NucleosdeA
140. Selec thencorrect match
was ) Eüchomatin:Transcriptonally active
(2) Hstones:Rich in lysine and alanine
3) NHC proteins:Packaging of chromatin
O(4) Nucleoside: Deoxyadenosine
141. Three sequential steps of Alfred Hershey
ang Martha Chase experiments were
1) Centritugation- Blending Infecion
(2) Blending Centritugation-Infection
) Infection - Blending- Centrihugation
U hntection Centrihugation Blending
142. To know that the mode of DNA replication is
semiconservatve, which of the following
isotopes was used by Meselson and Stahl?
(1) 37ci
(2) 4s
(3) 4K
 TermExam2024CF+OYM(P1)-TEO 4A
strucure of tRNAiS
147. 30
(1) Clover-4eaflike
unwinding of DNA
t143. During anscripion, InvertedL-shaped
helixis performed by
2 Helicase (3)J shaped
(2) Gyrase (4) Vshaped
(3) Topoisomerase
types of RNAS plays
(4) RNApalymerase of the followingcatalytic role during
J48. Whichstructural and
both
144. A DNA replicaton in Ecol initiates translation?
randomly at any place in DNA
R:Ecoli DNA lacks origin of replication
site
RNA
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (3) mRNA
the reason is the correct explanation of (4) hnRNA
thhe asserion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but codes for protein in
the eason is not he correct 149, of the genome
explanaion of the assertion humgn beings.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
23 Less than 26
is false (2) 509%
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (3) 25%
statements (4) 909%

148, Function of spliceosome is signiicant in 150/ Satelte DNA are needed in

(1) Most of the bacteria (4 Codes for proteins which
(2) Only archaebacteria the chloroplast
a) Most of the eukaryotes a k(2) Codes
a enzymes
t for Krebs' cycle
(4) All the prokaryotes and eukaryotes cY Does not code for proteins
4) Forma htte portion of human genome
N6. Which one is non-degenerate codon?
A AUG
(2) UGC 2324P1TE04A)

(3) UAG
(4) GUG

SECTION-A

151. Complete the analogy 152. From original seed-eating inches, many
Charles Darwin : Branching descent Hugo other forms with altered beaks arose,
deVries: enabling them to become insectivorous and
(1) Natural selecion vegetarian finches. This process of evolution
of different species starting trom a point is
12Y Saltation (1) Parallel evolution
(3) Use and disuse of organsx 2 Adapive radiation
(4) Reproducúve fitness
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Cyclic evoluion
 Termxam202 4 CF+OYM(Pl)-TEO 4A

153. Read the ollowing

the correct option statements and select
and which one stating which is true () L68. The type of selection in which individuals at
a. Theory of is false (F). one extreme of the size distribution
special
was created by God, creation states that life Contribute more offspring to the next
T generation is called A and is best
b. Big bang
earth. theory explains the origin of
c. exemplified by B
Cosmozoic theory states that life came on
the earth from other Here A and B respectively are
d. stars or planets, A B
According
genera
ration,
to
theory of spontan neous Selection of individuals
the bCStabilizing
organisms occur fromgeneration of living
he non-living matter selection
whose birth weight is in
the range of 3-4 kgs
present on earth. Selection of very large
a(F), b(), c()., d(E) Disruptive and very small birds in a
4) a(), b(T), c(F), d() (2) selection windy area
(3) a(T), b(F), c(F), d(T) Selection of long-necked
Directional giraffe in drought-stricken
LeY á()., b(F), c(T), d() selection area

154. Lemur and spotted cuscus He ygoe superiority

y Balancing with sickle
represent
yConvergent evolution
to
cell anemia in malaria
selection
(2) Divergent evolution prone region
(3) Adaptive radiation (1) (1)
(4) Homology (2) (2)
3) (3)
A55. Who proposed that the first fom,of life could (4) (4)
have come from pre-existing non-living
organic molecules?
(1) Hugo de VriesK 159, Match Column-A with Colunn-B and choose
the option containing all correct match.
(2) T.R. Malthus Colunn Column-B
L3) Oparin and Haldane A
(4) S.L. Miller Hugo de 0 The Origin of Life'
(a) vries
IS6. mammals
Choose the incarrect match wrt placental (b) Louis 0) Mutation Theory
and Australian marsupials Pasteur
showing convergent evolution. (c) Oparin (H)Malay Archipelago
Placental Australian
mammals marsupials 1 (d) Alfred
wallac iv) Disapproved theory of
Abiogenesis
(1) Flyingsquirrel Flying phalariger
(2) Anteater -Numbat A ad b-i, c-ii, d-iv
L3 Lemur Bobcat (2)aí, b-ii,c-i,d-iv
(4) Wolt - Tasmanian wolf 8) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(1) (1) O) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-i
(2) (2)
Lo) 160. During industrial revolution in England, the
(4) (4)
melanic (dark winged) peppered moth
became dominant over the
(white coloured) moth. This non-melanic
case is an
i57. Select the incorrect statement. example of
N4) Key concepts of Dawinian theory are ( Protective mimicry from predacious
branching descent and Natural birds
selection (2 Natural selectionwhereby
Use and disuse of organs,
inheritance forms were not selected non-melanic
over darker
of acquired forms
characters are key
concepts of Lamarckism 68) Pollution generated
(3) Evolution for Darwin was feature of
for de gradual while melanism
Vries mutation 3) Occurrence
Speciation and caled it saltation caused of random mutation
leading to a
(4)
Ramapithecus was more apelike while
Dryoprthecus was more manlike melanic forms decline of true black

(8
 Exam20z4cF0YMPTYO4A
TerE
At he
163Agene kocus has wo alleles aA is 08. hen
16t Selnct e one
Asealan
Sequency of recessive allele heteroygotes
marsupals what will be the equency of. at
populason
maing
LAT Bobcat n a tandom
(2) Wonbat equbrium
(3) Bandicoot
(4) Sponed cuscus Y
(3)004
162. Sructures given n he hgure below (4) 064
epresent he example of
benec dit is not observed in
(1) Smal population
nerbreeding large sized populaton
(3), breedingpopulason
Jsolaed populaon
Tho
some land reptles went
168. Around 200 mya, evolved into sh-like
Baugsilss Cueutia back into water and
Adaptive convergence BAr Reples
Covergent evolution (2) Amphibians
V0Analogy 10 Birds
Dvergent evolution (4) Manmals

Lamarcks concept of nheitance ol Choosehe opbon with correct match

120. beween
acquired characters was disapproved by Columniwith Colun
(2) Essay on populaion by Malthus Column
CGemplasm theory of Weissmann Columni
Fossils date
(3) Mutation theory by Hugo de Vies Neandereal ck to 15
0back
(4) Darwin's theony of natural seleceon mya

3-4 rya,
4. Choose the incorrect statement. S 2 4 P T N E O

probably
A Y

N Work by Thomas Malthus on 0)ived in East

populanons infuenced Darwin boopihecs Aican grass
Lamarck suggested at evolutbon is Lands
driven by use and disuse af organs Lived in near
(3) Mendel alked about inheritable East and
tactors which infuenced phenotypes Central Asia
of organisms Homoenechus (01) between
) Emst von Baer suggested that 100000
evoluton is based on reproduceve 40,000 years
fness of individuals back

Cranial
166. Auricular muscles of pinna and nicttatng Australopithecus () around 900
capacity is
membrane are organs in man.
Choose the opBon that l s the blank CC
correctly. Sa(), b). c(V), d)
(1) Homologous
(2) a), b(V), c). d()
2 Vestigeal (3) a(), b(), cti), d(v)
3) Analogous
TA Functional
(4) a(), b(), c0. d(v)

66. Which of he given tactor is not known to A71. The Brst organisms that invaded land were
disturb Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? probably
(1) Gene migratior (1) Shrews
2) Crocodiles
(2) Genetic drift
(3) MutationA L3 Plants
,9 Random mating (4) Amphibians

16
SrEam2024CFOYM(P1)TEOas

2 Select the opion hat is he blanks

correctly. 177. in electic dischharoe experinent performed
Eaty repte by SL Mler in 1953, compositon of gases
taken in spark discharge chamber was wHAM
Sauropsad (1) CH and NHy only
0 CHa. H¡, NH, and wter vapour at
800-C
Pelycosaus CH
800*F
Hs, NH, and water vapour at

W) CHa. O;. NH, and water vapour at

800C
Turtle Lizand Crocodile
(1) A Synapsid, B-ThecodontL
B Mamnalis 126. A : Vertebrate hearts are considered as
C
Therapsid, D-Birds homologous organs amphibians, reptiles and
9A- Diapsida, B Therapsid, C ar basic structute with
Thecodont, D- Tuatara varied degree of functional specialization.
(3) A Synapsid, B- Thecodont, C - 0r Both Assertion & Reason are true and
Therapsid, D- Snake he reason is the corect explanation of
wJA-Synapsid, B Therapsid, C the asserton.
Thecodont, D-Dinosaur (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the corect
explanation of the asserion
173. Choose the correct evolutionary sequence
wrL plants (3) Asserion is true statement but Reason
is talse
(1) Psilophyton ’thynia ’ chiorophyte (4) Both Asserson and Reason are false
4tracheophyte statements
Tracheophyte chlorophyte
thynia - psilophyton
tracheophyte 1179, Example of each of convergent evolution
(3) Rhynia
psilophyton->chiorophyte and divergent evolution respectively is
4 Chlorophyteacheoptyte AEyes of Octopus and mammals, bones
of forelimbs of vertebrates
rhynia ’ psilophyton OThorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
Cucurbila, wings of butterfies and birds
174. Which sequence refects the correct order
of hominidevolution? L Braiis of vertebrates, wings of insects
C0 Homo hablis Homo erectus and bat
Ramapithecus Australopithecus Sweet potito and potato, ippers of
penguirsand dolphins wskt
2) Ramapithecus Australopithecus
Homo habilis Homo erectus
yAustralopithecus - Ramapithecus s66. Evolufon due to anthropogenic action can
Homo habilis Homo erectus be exemplifed by
Australopithecus Homo erectus 2) Adaptive radiation of Australian
Ramapithecus Homo habilis Omarsupials
(2) Dversificaton of Darwin's finches
175. The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like (3) Similarities between marsupials and
the skull of Choose the opton that placental mammals
flls the blank correcty. 0 Phenomenon of industrial melanism
(1) Adult chimpanzee
(2)_Tyrannosaurus t61. Adapive radiation can be observed in all
5) Adult human cases, except
(4) Dryopithecus (1) Marsupial radiation
(2) Variety of beaks in Darwin's finches
178. Which of the following can be used as an (3) Placental diversification in North
America
indicator of industrial polluson?
(1) Cucurbita 4yWng structure of buterly, bat and bird
Lichen
(3) Bougainvilea
(4) Yeast
 Atsca
Termxa2024CFOVMP)TEO4A
caught in Souh was
1938 a sh
16a n ppened coelacanh which
be a These animal caled
incorrect statement WEL happe be extinct
182. Select he uoht o
houg
evolution ns evovedins rst
Lie probafy appeared 500 mya ater
lobe
) Webraes
e kormain of Earth on (2) Gnathostoes
q) The ar ms of ie appear
2000 mya Aphibians
2ris presumed that aound 200 mya (4) Chordate
pyosaurs evolved rom amphibans
hom on
About 65 mya, the dinosaurs suddenly dinosaurs were with
dsappeared rom Earth c e 185 Which
head?
) Sgosaurus
Conifers and
183. The immediate ancestors of
Ginkgos were
Trannosaurs
A Bryophyes (4) Brachiosauruty
2y Fsilophyton
3) Dicotyedons
Zosterophyflum

SECTION-B

A90. Who for the frst ime proposed hat lte

for
188. All of the following characters are true originatod hom pre-exstg
ving
Homo erectus except organic molecules ke RNA prote
Probably did not eat meat by
(2) Fossil discovered in Java in 189L and that fornaion of le was preceded
chegical evolution?
(3) Brain capacity 900 cc ) Oparin anid Haldane
(4) They existed about 1.5 mya (2) Opanin and Miller
(a) Chafes Darwin
A87. Which of the following did not exist on (4) S LMiller and Haldane
primitive earth in tee fom just before the
origin of life?
191. Ontogerny repea phylogeny as an
(1) co; embiyological pport for evolution was
(2) NH3 proposed by,
(1) Hugo da Vries
(4) CHa (2) Gregor Mendel
(3)-Urey Miler
188, According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, the ) Emst Haeckel
Vtequency of homozgous recessive (aa)
individuals in a populaion isdenoted by 192. I the requency of a dominant gene in a
poputation is 0.6, what is the percentage of
(2) 2pq homozygous recessive individuals?
(1) 64%
121
129 (4) p+q
(2) 16%
(3) 24% 20

137xevents in nature and chance mutaton in the

"tis a stochastic process based on chance (4) 36%

organisms". This statement ells us about H3. Select the incorrect one wrt Millers
) Non direcional nature of evoluton experiment
Directional mutations leading to natural 21 Moture of only CH, and H were
selection present in the closed Mask
(3) Lack of anthropogenic impact on he (2) Temperature-800C
evolutionary time scale (3) Control apparatus was devoid of
Constant rale of reproducion and energy sOurce
evolution in all organisms
(4) Farmaion of amino acids was
observed