Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Mechanical Engineering
(Previous Years Solved Papers 1995-1999)
Objectives (Volume-II )
Contents
1. Strength of Materials and Engg. Mechanics ..........................................................1-28
I
Strength of Materials
and Engineering Mechanics
Syllabus
Analysis of System of Forces, Friction, Centroid and Centre of Gravity, Dynamics; Stresses and Strains-Compound
Stresses and Strains, Bending Moment and Shear Force Diagrams, Theory of Bending Stresses-Slope and deflection-
Torsion, Thin and thick Cylinders, Spheres.
Contents
Sl. | Topic | Page No.
1 Stress and Strain
1.1 The stretch in a steel rod of circular section, having 1.4 For a composite bar consisting of a bar enclosed
Y
a length L subjected to a tensile load P and inside a tube of another material and when
tapering uniformly from a diameter d1 at one end compressed under a load W as a whole through
to a diameter d2 at the other end, is given by rigid plates at the end of the bar. The equation of
compatibility is given by (suffixes 1 and 2 refer
PLπ
S
(a) PL (b) to bar and tube respectively)
4Ed1d2 Ed1d2
(a) W1 + W2 = W
A
(c) (d) [ESE : 1995]
4Ed1d2 πEd1d2
W1 W2
(c) A E = A E
1 1 2 2
1.2 The total extension of the bar loaded as shown in
the figure is
E W1 W2
A = area of cross-section (d) =
A1E 2 A2E1
E = modulus of elasticity
[ESE : 1998]
Pin
A
100 kN 200 kN 100 kN
10 mm φ
200 kN 2000 N
w
0.5 m 1.0 m 0.5 m 2000 N
2 mm
(a) 10 mm (b) 5 mm 2 mm
(c) 1 mm (d) nil [ESE : 1998] B
(a) 15 mm (b) 20 mm
1.8 If permissible stress in plates of joint through a
(c) 18 mm (d) 25 mm [ESE : 1999]
pin as shown in the figure is 200 MPa, then the
width w will be
Y
Answers Stress and Strain
1.1 (d) 1.2 (b) 1.3 (d) 1.4 (c) 1.5 (b) 1.6 (c) 1.7 (d) 1.8 (a)
S
Explanations Stress and Strain
1.1 (d) 1.5 (b)
A
Deflection of circular tapering rod subjected to
4P l Pl Pl
tensile load P. is Δl = = =
E πd1d 2 ⎛ πd1d2 ⎞ E × Area
E⎜
δL =
4P L
⎝ 4 ⎟⎠
πd1d2E
E
π π
( )
1.2 (b) 2
∴ Area = de q = d1d2
F.B.D 4 4
10T 10T 9T 9T
1 2 3 ∴ deq = d1d2
7T 7T
E
10 × 10 7 × 10 9 × 10
= + +
AE AE AE
26 × 10
=
l
A
AE dx
1.3 (d) x
F.B.D
M
11 11 10 10
consider a small strip ‘dx’ at a distance ‘x’ as
9 9 5 5 shown in figure. We shall find change in length
Maximum tensile force = 11 kg.f for ‘dx’ and then integrate for whole length. Force
exerted by weight below strip ‘dx’
11
Maximum tensile stress = = 11 kgf/cm2 Force (P) = Volume below ‘dx’ × specific weight
1× 1
=Axγ (A = cross – sectional area)
Elongation of the strip
1.4 (c)
(Strain)1 = (Strain)2 (A x γ )d x ⎡ Load = A xρ ⎤
(δl )d x = ⎢Length = d x ⎥
W1 W2 A ×E ⎣ ⎦
∴ =
A1E1 A2E 2
γxd x
(δl )d x =
E
4 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
For total elongation integrate and take limits Now from Equation (i) and (ii)
l
l γ γ ⎛ x2 ⎞ δl 1
=
δl = ∫0 E xd x = E ⎜⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ δl2 2
0
∴ δl = δl2 / 2
γ l2
δl = ...(i)
2E 1.7 (d)
Now elongation due to load (W) F.B.D.
Wl 100 100 100 100
Y
δl =
AE 100 100
S
1
∴ A=
W = (100 × 0.5 − 100 × 1 + 100 × 0.5) = 0
AE
γl
A
1.8 (a)
γ l2
∴ (δl )2 = ...(ii) A × σ=F
E
(W – 10) × 2 × 200 = 2000
E ∴ W – 10 = 5
∴ W = 15 mm
E
D
A
M
2 Stress-strain Relationship
and Elastic Constants
Y
elastic modulus for the material is
(a) three times its shear modulus [ESE : 1997]
(b) four times its shear modulus
(c) equal to its shear modulus 2.3 The number of independent elastic constants
S
(d) indeterminate [ESE : 1995] required to express the stress-strain relationship
for a linearly elastic isotropic material is
2.2 The relationship between the Lame’s constant λ, (a) one (b) two
Young’s modulus E and the Poisson’s ratio μ is (c) three (d) four [ESE : 1998]
A
Eμ Eμ
(a) λ = (b) λ = 2.4 The number of elastic constants for a completely
(1 + μ )(1 − 2μ ) (1 + 2μ )(1 − μ ) anisotropic elastic material is
(a) 3 (b) 4
E [ESE : 1999]
(c) 21 (d) 25
2.4 (c)
2.1 (a)
E = 2G (1+ μ) Type of Material Number of Independent
A
2. Orthotropic 9
By Hooke’s law
3. Anistropic 21
E and μ, Young’s modulus and Poisson’s ratio
3 Principal Stresses and
Strains and Mohr’s Circle
3.1 Match List-I (State of stress) with List-II (Kind of 3. Stress components on any arbitrary place
Y
loading) and select the correct answer using the containing the point
codes given below the lists: Which of these statements are correct?
List-I (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 [ESE : 1996]
S
3.3 State of stress at a point in a strained body is
A.
shown in figure. Which one of the figure given
below represents correctly the Mohr’s circle for
A
the state of stress?
B. τxy
E
C.
y y
E
(a) (b) x
x
D.
D
List-II y y
x x
2. Torsion of circular shaft.
3. Thin cylinder subjected to internal pressure.
4. Tie bar subjected to tensile force.
[ESE : 1996]
M
Codes:
A B C D 3.4 Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 2 3 4 State of stress in two dimensions at a point in a
(b) 2 3 4 1 loaded component can be completely specified
(c) 2 4 3 1 by indicating the normal and shear stresses on
(d) 3 4 1 2 1. a plane containing the point
[ESE : 1995] 2. any two planes passing through the point
3. two mutually perpendicular planes passing
3.2 Consider the following statements.
through the point
State of stress at a point when completely
Which of these statements is/are correct?
specified, enables one to determine the
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
1. Principal stresses at the point
2. Maximum shearing stress at the point (c) 1 only (d) 3 only [ESE : 1998]
Strength of Materials and Engineering Mechanics 7
Y
bar is subjected to tensile force. at the point and stress components on any
Diagram C → Hoop stress and longitudinal stress arbitrary plane containing the point.
are acting.
Diagram D → Shear stress as well as normal 3.3 (c)
S
stress is acting therefore circular shaft is Since neither tensile nor compressive stress
subjected to combined bending and torsion. exists, the Mohr’s diagram is simply a circle of
radius τxy and centre at the intersection of the two
A
axis. It can also be verified by transformation of
plane formula.
E
E
D
A
M
4 Thin Cylinder and
Thick Cylinder
4.1 Hoop stress and longitudinal stress in a boiler (a) The circumferential strain will be equal to
shell under internal pressure are 100 MN/m2 and pd ⎛ 1 1 ⎞
Y
⎜ − ⎟
50 MN/m2 respectively. Young’s modulus of 2tE ⎝ 2 m ⎠
elasticity and Poisson’s ratio of the shell material (b) The longitudinal stress will be equal to
are 200 GN/m2 and 0.3 respectively. The hoop pd ⎛ 1 ⎞
⎜⎝ 1 − ⎟
S
strain in boiler shell is 2tE 2m ⎠
(a) 0.425 × 10–3 (b) 0.5 × 10–3
(c) 0.585 × 10–3 (d) 0.75 × 10–3 pd
(c) The longitudinal stress will be equal to
[ESE : 1995] 2t
A
(d) The ratio of the longitudinal strain to
4.2 In a thick cylinder, subjected to internal and
external pressures, let r1 and r2 be the internal m −2
circumferential strain will be equal to
and external radii respectively. Let u be the radial 2m − 1
E
displacement of a material element at radius [ESE : 1998]
r1, r2 > r > r1. Identifying the cylinder axis as z
axis, the radial strain component err is 4.6 A thick-walled hollow cylinder having outside and
(a) u/r (b) u/θ inside radii of 90 mm and 40 mm respectively is
(c) du/dr (d) du/dθ subjected to an external pressure of 800 MNm2.
E
[ESE : 1996]
(b) The outer radius
4.4 From design point of view, spherical pressure (c) The inner radius
vessels are preferred over cylindrical pressure (d) Both the inner and the outer radii
M
Y
(a) (b) longitudinal stress at point in the thickness will be
(a) Tensile, compressive and compressive
respectively
S
(b) All compressive
(c) All tensile
(d) Tensile, compressive and tensile respectively
(c) (d)
[ESE : 1999]
[ESE : 1999]
A
= 100N / mm2
σ1 =
2t methods of prestressing (method of increasing
pd pressure capacity) the cylinders. It is overloading
σ2 = = 50N/mm2
4t the cylinder before it is put into service. In this
A
σh =
pd pd ⎛ μ ⎞
(for cylinder) Circumferential strain = ⎜ 1 − ⎟⎠
2t 2Et ⎝ 2
pd
σh = (for sphere)
4t 80 ⎛ 0.28 ⎞
= ⎜1 − ⎟ = 3.44 ×10–4
2 × 105 ⎝ 2 ⎠
Y
4.5 (d)
pd 4.9 (a)
Circumferential stress (σ1) =
2t Point ‘x’ is subjected to circumferential and
S
pd longitudinal stress. i.e. tension in all faces, but
Longitudinal stress (σ2 ) =
4t there is no shear stress.
Circumferential strain
4.10 (c)
A
δd σ1 1 pd pd 1 pd
e1 = = − . = − .
d E m 4tE 2tE m 4tE pd
Longitudinal stress ( σ2 ) = = σ0
4t
pd ⎛ 1 ⎞
e1 = ⎜⎝ 1 − ⎟
2tE 2m ⎠
E pd
Hoop stress ( σ1 ) = = 2σO
Longitudinal strain 2t
1 1
Longitudinal Strain − m −2
= 2 m =
Circumfential Strain 1 2m −1 σh(max)
1−
2m
A
σh(min)
P
4.6 (a)
The maximum hoop stress will always occurs at σr
M
4.7 (c)
A
Hoop stress: σ x = +B
r2
Hence hoop stress will be maximum at inner
radius
5 Shear Force and Bending
Moment Diagrams
5.1 Constant bending moment over span ‘l’ will occur Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
Y
in
W (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
[ESE : 1995]
(a)
l 5.4 A cantilever beam having 5 m length is so loaded
S
W that it develops a shearing force of 20 T and a
bending moment of 20 T-m at a section 2 m from
(b) the free end. Maximum shearing force and
A
l maximum bending moment developed in the
W beam under this load, are respectively 50 T and
125 T-m. The load on the beam is
(c)
(a) 25 T concentrated load at free end
l
E (b) 20 T concentrated load at free end
W W
(c) 5 T concentrated load at free end 2 T/m load
(d) over entire length
(d) 10 T/m udl over entire length [ESE : 1995]
l1 l l1
E
[ESE : 1995] 5.5 The bending moment (M) is constant over a length
segment (l) of a beam the shearing force will also
5.2 The given figure shows a beam BC simply
be constant over this length and is given by
supported at C and hinged at B (free end) a
(a) M/l (b) M/2l
D
(a) Zero (b) 100 kg-m (b) overhung beam having equal overhung at both
(c) 150 kg-m (d) 200 kg-m supports and carrying equal concentrated
[ESE : 1995] loads acting in the same direction at the free
5.3 Consider the following statements: ends
If at a section distant from one of the ends of the (c) cantilever subjected to concentrated load at
beam, M represents the bending moment V the the free end
shear force and w the intensity of loading, then (d) simply supported beam having concentrated
1. dM/d x = V loads of equal magnitude and in the same
2. dV/d x = w direction acting at equal distances from the
3. dw/d x = y supports
y - the deflection of the beam at the section [ESE : 1996]
12 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
5.7 A cantilever beam carries a load W uniformly 5.11 The maximum bending moment in a simply
distributed over its entire length. If the same load supported beam of length L loaded by a
is placed at the free end of the same cantilever, concentrated load W at the midpoint is given by
then the ratio of maximum deflection in the first WL
case to that in the second case will be (a) WL (b)
2
(a) 3/8 (b) 8/3
WL WL
(c) 5/8 (d) 8/5 [ESE : 1996] (c) (d)
4 8
5.8 The given figure shows a cantilever of span L [ESE : 1996]
subjected to a concentrated load P and a moment
5.12 A beam, built in both ends, carries a uniformly
Y
M at the free end. Deflection at the free end is
distributed load over its entire span as shown in
given by
P
figure-I. Which one of the diagrams given below
represents bending moment distribution along the
S
M length of the beam?
L
UDL
2 2
PL ML ML2 PL3
(a) + (b) +
2E I 3E I 2E I 3E I
A
Figure-I
ML2 PL3 ML2 PL3
(c) + (d) +
3E I 2E I 2E I 48E I
[ESE : 1996] (a)
E
5.9 For a cantilever beam of length ‘L’ flexural rigidity
EI and loaded at its free end by a concentrated
load W, match List-I with List-II and select the
(b)
correct answer using the codes below the lists:
E
List-I List-II
A. Maximum bending 1. WL
moment (c)
B. Strain energy 2. WL2/2EI
D
A B C D
[ESE : 1996]
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 4 2 3 5.13 A beam subjected to a load P is shown in the
(c) 4 2 1 3 figure below.
M
Y
The shear force at end A of the cantilever AB will carries a force of 3 kN as shown in the figure below.
be The bending moment at B will be
(a) zero (b) 40 kgf 3 kN
S
1m
5.15 If a beam is subject to a constant bending
A B C
moment along its length then the shear force will
A
(a) also have a constant value everywhere along
its length 1m 1m 1m
(b) be zero at all sections along the beam (a) 3 kN-m (b) 2 kN-m
(c) be maximum at the centre and zero at the (c) 1 kN-m (d) Zero [ESE : 1998]
ends
E
5.20 The bending moment diagram shown in figure-I
(d) zero at the centre and maximum at the ends
corresponds to the shear force diagram in
[ESE : 1997]
(a)
2
⎛d⎞ ⎛ d⎞
(a) ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ δ (b) ⎜ ⎟ δ (b)
b ⎝ b⎠
3 3/2
⎛ d⎞ ⎛ d⎞
A
(c)
(c) ⎜ ⎟ δ (d) ⎜ ⎟ δ
⎝ b⎠ ⎝ b⎠
[ESE : 1997]
5.17 For the beam shown in the figure below, the elastic
M
B C
5.21 Which one of the following portions of the loaded
a 2b a beam shown in the given figure is subjected to
pure bending?
(a) circular (b) parabolic
W W
(c) elliptic (d) a straight line
A E
B C D
[ESE : 1998]
L L L L
5.18 A simply supported beam is loaded as shown in
(a) AB (b) DE
the figure below.
(c) AE (d) BD
[ESE : 1999]
14 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
5.1 (d) 5.2 (a) 5.3 (b) 5.4 (d) 5.5 (d) 5.6 (c) 5.7 (a) 5.8 (b) 5.9 (b)
5.10 (a) 5.11 (c) 5.12 (d) 5.13 (b) 5.14 (c) 5.15 (b) 5.16 (b) 5.17 (a) 5.18 (c)
5.19 (c) 5.20 (b) 5.21 (d)
Y
Bending moment diagram for loading given in 50T F F
= =
option (d) 5 x 2
∴ F = 20T
W W
M at 2 m from free end.
S
= 10T × 2 × 1 = 20T m
10T m udl over whole span of beam
l1 l l1
5.5 (d)
A
BMD dM
= Sx
dx
When bending moment is constant then shearing
5.2 (a)
E force in that section is zero.
Bending moment at internal hinge is always zero.
5.6 (c)
5.3 (b)
W
Rate of change of bending moment is equal to
E
the shear force at that section i.e
l
dM
=V W + W
dx
D
intensity of loading
5.7 (a)
dV
WL3
A
= –W
dx In first case δ1 =
8E I
5.4 (d) WL3
In second case δ2 =
3E I
M
10T/m
δ1 3
B
∴ =
M A δ2 8
RA 5m 5.8 (b)
RA = 10 × 5 = 50T Deflection can be found by using super imposition
5 method. Deflection due to point load (cantilever)
M = 10 × 5 × = 125T.m
2 Pl 3
S.F diagram δ1 = Deflection due to moment at end in
3E I
Ml 2
50 T cantilever δ2 = . Summation of δ1 and δ2 will
F 2E I
2m give the total deflection of the cantilever.
5m
Strength of Materials and Engineering Mechanics 15
Y
at fixed end = WL
x W
5.13 (b)
l x
S
x A
2
Wl
Maximum slope =
2E I
A
Wl 3
Maximum deflection =
3E I A + PL/2
PL/2 –
+ PL/2
5.10 (a)
E
+ PL/2
W W BMD
+ C D
A B – 5.14 (c)
SFD W Loading W
F.B.D.
E
diagram
50 kgf
100 kgf
+
A
D
A B C D B
BMD B C
50 kgf
5.11 (c) 50 kgf 50 kgf
A
W
5.15 (b)
A C
B
dM
=S
dx
M
R1= W R2= W
2 2 Whenever Bending moment is constant then shear
W L WL force will be zero.
Bending moment at B = × =
2 2 4
5.16 (b)
WL For simple supported beam
4
WL3
deflection: δ =
48E I
B.M. Diagram 1 δ1 I
for same load; δ ∝ , = I
I δ 1
bd 3
δ= ⋅ δ1
db3
16 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
1 1 5.19 (c)
∴ δ× bd 3 = δ1 × b 3d
12 12 3 kN
2 1m
⎛d ⎞ 3 kN 3 kN
∴ δ1 = ⎜ ⎟ δ
⎝ b⎠ D
3 kN 3 kN-m
5.17 (a) D
From symmetry, 1 kN
1 kN
1 kN-m
Reaction at support B and C will be same and +2
A
Y
equal to P (upward). B C
Taking moment about B,
–1
P × a + RC × 2b = P × (a + 2b)
P × 2b 5.20 (b)
S
RC = =P
2b Since B.M.D. is of first degree thus corresponding
RB = 2P – P S.F.D will be of zeroth degree.
P P
A
A B C D
RB RC
a 2b a
5.21 (d)
S.F. diagram
P P
+Ve Shear force diagram.
E W
–Ve
P P
B.M. diagram
–Ve A B C D
E
Pa Pa
∵ SF = 0 ⇒ BM = constant
–W
Elastic curve will be circular. In section BD, shear force is zero. As we know
D
⎡ EI ⎤ dM
⎢⎣R = M = constant⎥⎦ that s =
dX
∴ M = Constant
5.18 (c)
A
A B
R1 R1
M
Moment about A = 0
W × c + 2W × 2c + W × 3c – R2 × 4c = 0
R2 = 2W = R1
2W
B
A
–W
SFD –2W
6 Bending of Beams,
Shear Stress Distribution
6.1 A rectangular section beam subjected to a 6.4 A beam cross-section is used in two different
Y
bending moment M varying along its length is orientations as shown in the figure given below:
required to develop same maximum bending
stress at any cross-section. If the depth of the
b/2
section is constant, then its width will vary as
S
(a) M (b) b
M
(c) M 2 (d) 1/M b/2 b
[ESE : 1995]
A
6.2 In a beam of circular cross-section, the shear (A)
σB σB
(c) σ A = (d) σ A =
2 4
[ESE : 1997]
D
(c) (d)
6.5 Two beams of equal cross-section area are
subjected to equal bending moment. If one beam
has square cross-section and the other has circular
A
[ESE : 1995]
section, then
6.3 A wooden beam of rectangular cross-section (a) both beams will be equally strong
10 cm deep by 5 cm wide carries maximum shear (b) circular section beam will be stronger
force of 2000 kgf. Shear stress at neutral axis of
M
6.1 (a) 6.2 (a) 6.3 (c) 6.4 (b) 6.5 (c)
18 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
M σB
∴ =
Y
b4 b
12 × 2 2
M σb
= y 12M
I max ∴ σB =
S
M σb b3
=
1 h ∴ σ A = 2σB
bh 3
12 2
A
1 2 6.5 (c)
∴ M = σb × bh
6
Width (b) ∝ M If ‘d’ is diameter of circular section and ‘a’ be the
side of square section and cross-section area of
6.2 (a)
E sqaure is equal to cross area of circle.
Shear stress in circular cross-section
π 2
F 2 ∴ a2 = d
τ= (r − y 2 ) 4
3I
π
τ=0 ∴ a= d
E
4
y Section modulus:
τmax
a3 π
, zc = d3
D
zs =
6 32
τ=0
zs a3 32 π π 32
= × = × ×
zc d 3
π×6 4 4 π×6
A
6.3 (c)
= 1.18
3 S Hence square section beam will be stronger than
τmax = τNA = 1.5 τavg = ⋅
2 bd circular beam.
M
3 2000
τmax = × = 60 kg.f/cm2
2 10 × 5
6.4 (b)
For first case
3
1 ⎛ b⎞ b4
IA = ×b× ⎜ ⎟ =
12 ⎝ 2⎠ 12 × 8
M σ M × 12 × 8 σ
= ⇒ = A
IA y b 4 b/4
7 Torsion of Shafts
7.1 A 3-meter long steel cylindrical shaft is rigidly respectively is also twisted through the same
Y
held at its two ends. A pulley is mounted on the angle of twist θ. The value of maximum shear in
shaft at 1 meter from one end; the shaft is twisted the hollow shaft will be
by applying torque on the pulley.
16 8
The maximum shearing stresses developed in 1 m (a) τ (b) τ
S
15 7
and 2 m lengths are respectively τ1 and τ2. The
ratio τ2 : τ1 is 4
(c) τ (d) τ
(a) 1/2 (b) 1 3
A
[ESE : 1997]
(c) 2 (d) 4
[ESE : 1995] 7.4 Two hollow shafts of the same material have the
same length and outside diameter. Shaft 1 has
7.2 A round shaft of diameter ‘d’ and length ‘l’ fixed
E
at both ends ‘A’ and ‘B’, is subjected to a twisting
internal diameter equal to one third of the outer
diameter and shaft 2 has internal diameter equal
moment ‘T’ at ‘C’ at a distance of 1/4 from A (see
to half of the outer diameter. If both the shafts are
figure). The torsional stresses in the parts AC and
subjected to the same torque, the ratio of their
CB will be
twists θ1/θ2 will be equal to
T
E
A B (a) 16/81 (b) 8/27
C (c) 19/27 (d) 243/256
L/4
[ESE : 1998]
L
D
(a) equal 7.5 A solid shaft of diameter 100 mm, length 1000 mm
is subjected to a twisting moment ‘ T ’, the
(b) in the ratio of 1 : 3
maximum shear stress developed in the shaft is
(c) in the ratio of 3 : 1
60 N/mm2. A hole of 50 mm diameter is now drilled
A
(d) indeterminate
throughout the length of the shaft. To develop a
[ESE : 1997]
maximum shear stress of 60 N/mm2 in the hollow
7.3 Maximum shear stress in a solid shaft of diameter shaft, the torque ‘T’ must be reduced by
M
7.1 (a) 7.2 (c) 7.3 (d) 7.4 (d) 7.5 (d)
20 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
Y
τ1 = 2 π ⎡
( )
4⎤ 15 π 4
J2 = × ⎢D4 − D ⎥⎦ = 16 × 32 D
32 ⎣ 2
7.2 (c) ∴ θ1J1 = θ2J2
τ Gθ θ1 15 81 243
S
= = × =
d L θ2 16 80 256
2
for same angle of twist 7.5 (d)
A
1
τ∝ For solid shaft
L
l 3l 16T
∴ τ1 × = τ2 × τ= ...(i)
πd 3
4 4
E
τ1 3 For hollow shaft
∴ =
τ2 1
16 16T
τ= × ...(ii)
7.3 (d) 15 πd 3
From eq (i) and eq (ii),
E
For solid shaft
τ Gθ Gθ D 15
= ∴ τ= . T′ = T
D/2 L L 2 16
for hollow shaft
D
τ2 Gθ Gθ D 15 T
= ∴ τ2 = . =τ Hence reduced torque = T − T=
D/2 L L 2 16 16
A
7.4 (d)
We know that
T Gθ
=
M
J L
8 Euler’s Theory of Column
Y
List-II (Lowest critical load) and select the correct portion A
D E
answer using the codes given below the lists: F
List-I B1 B
A. Column with both ends hinged
S
B. Column with both ends fixed
C. Column with one ends fixed and the other end R1 R2 R3 R4
A
hinged C
8.5 Euler’s formula gives 5 to 10% error in crippling 8.6 A short column of external diameter D and internal
load as compared to experimental results in diameter d carries an eccentric load W. The
greatest eccentricity which the load can be applied
practice because
without producing tension on the cross-section of
(a) effect of direct stress is neglected
the column would be
(b) pin joints are not free from friction
(c) the assumptions made in using the formula D +d D2 + d2
(a) (b)
are not met in practice 8 8d
(d) the material does not behave in an ideal
elastic way in tension and compression D2 + d2 D2 + d2
(c) (d)
Y
[ESE : 1998] 8D 8
[ESE : 1999]
S
Answers Euler’s Theory of Column
8.1 (c) 8.2 (b) 8.3 (d) 8.4 (d) 8.5 (c) 8.6 (c)
8.1 (c)
A 8.2 (b)
E
π 2E I Strength limit
Critical load PE =
L2eq
Column with both ends pinned, leq = l inelastic stability limit
σ0
E
π 2E I Elastic stability limit
∴ PE = 2 Long stable column
l
Column with both ends fixed; leq = l/2 Long unstable column
D
2 Intermediates columns
4π E I
∴ PE = Short columns
l2
Column with one end fixed and other end hinged leq
k
A
l
leq =
2 8.3 (d)
2 π 2E I π 2E I
∴ PE = PE =
M
l2 L2eq
Column with one end fixed and other end free
leq = 2l 4 π 2E I
P1 = → both end fixed
2 l2
π EI
∴ PE =
4l 2 π 2E I
P2 = → one end fixed and other free
4l 2
P1
∴
P2 = 16 : 1
So, best possible answer is (d).
Strength of Materials and Engineering Mechanics 23
8.4 (d) π 3
and Z = D (1 − K 4 )
32
π 2E I
PE = for both ends hinged d
l2 where K =
D
π2E I W
∴ 1000 = ...(i)
4 W.e
2
π EI
PE = (at l = 1m ) –σa + σb σa – σb
1
Y
∴ PE = 4 kN
W.e
8.6 (c)
To avoid tension on cross-section column W
S
∴ σa + σb ≤ 0 d
W We
⇒ − + = 0 ...(i)
A Z D
A
π 2
⇒ A = (D − d 2 ) But these value in equation (i)
4
D2 + d2
We have, e ≤
8D
E
E
D
A
M
9 Strain Energy &
Thermal Stresses
Y
snugly between two rigid walls 10 cm apart at (c) (d)
E 2E
room temperature. Young’s modulus of elasticity
and coefficient of linear expansion of steel are [ESE : 1998]
2×106 kgf /cm2 and 12×10–6/°C respectively. The 9.3 If the rigid rod fitted snugly between the supports
S
stress developed in the rod due to a 100°C rise in as shown in the figure below, is heated, the stress
temperature will be induced in it due to 20°C rise in temperature will
(a) 6 × 10–10 kgf/cm2 (b) 6 × 10–9 kgf/cm2 be (α = 12.5 × 10–6/°C and E = 200 GPa)
(c) 2.4 × 103 kgf/cm2 (d) 2.4 × 104 kgf/cm2
A
10 mm φ
[ESE : 1997]
1
(U ) = φ×τ = × =
φ 5 cm
2 2 G 2G
l = 10 cm τ2
U= (1+ μ ) [E = 2G(1+ μ)]
E = 2 × 106 kgf / cm2 E
Y
uniformly distributed load of intensity ‘q’ per unit 3 2
length over its entire span, and its mid-span
2
deflection is δ. (c) θ (d) θ
3
The value of mid-span deflection of the same [ESE : 1997]
S
beam when the same load is distributed with
10.4 A simply supported beam of constant flexural
intensity varying from 2q per unit length at one
rigidity and length 2L carries a concentrated load
end to zero at the other end is
P at its mid-span and the deflection under the
A
δ δ
(a) (b) load is δ. If a cantilever beam of the same flexural
3 2
rigidity and length L is subjected to a load P at
2δ
(c) (d) δ [ESE : 1995] its free end, then the deflection at the free end
3
E will be
10.2 A simply supported beam carrying a concentrated (a) δ/2 (b) δ
load W at mid-span deflects δ1 under the load. If (c) 2 δ (d) 4 δ [ESE : 1998]
the same beam carries the load W such that it is
distributed uniformly over entire length and 10.5 A cantilever beam of rectangular cross-section is
undergoes a deflection δ2 at the mid span. The subjected to a load W at its free end. If the depth
E
end of the cantilever in figure F will be
M = PL/2
L
M
Figure-E
P
L
Figure-F
10.1 (d) 10.2 (*) 10.3 (d) 10.4 (c) 10.5 (c)
26 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
= E F
M=PL/2
PL2
For concentrated load θF =
Δ′ Δ 2E I
Y
w/m M ×L PL2
+ For moment at end θE = =
EI 2E I
∴ θE = θF
S
10.4 (c)
Δ
For simple supported beam
Δ′ = Δ + Δ P(2L)3 8PL3 PL3
δ= = =
A
48E I 48E I 6E I
Δ′ 1 5wL4 for cantilever:
Δ= = ×
2 2 384E I PL3
δ2 =
3E I
E
2 w/m
∴ δ 2 = 2δ
10.5 (c)
Now, Deflection in cantilever
Δ′′
E
WL3 WL3 4WL3
δ= = =
3E I 1 3
3E × bd 3 Ebd
12
5wL4
D
W 3
Δ′′ = 2Δ = 384E I 4××L 3
2 ⎛ 1 ⎞ 4WL
Now δ ' = = ⎜ ⎟
E × b × (2d)3 ⎝ 16⎠ Ebd3
δ
A
δ1
∴ = 1.6
δ2
Nearest answer is (b)
11 Combined Stresses
11.1 For the configuration of loading shown in the given Wt. of Shaft; Gear
Y
figure, the stress in fibre AB is given by w per Unit Length (Torque
Acting : T)
5
P P
L
e
10
S
A B
P
(a) (tensile)
A Wt. of
A
Gear : W
⎛ P P .e.5 ⎞
(b) ⎜ A − I ⎟ compressive) (a) T
⎝ xx ⎠
(b) Wl+T
⎛ P P .e.5 ⎞
E 1
(c) ⎜ A + I ⎟ compressive) ⎡ 2 ⎛ wL ⎞
2⎤2
⎝ xx ⎠ (c) ⎢(Wl ) + ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
⎢⎣ ⎝ 2⎠ ⎥
⎦
(d) P/A (compressive)
1
[ESE : 1995] ⎡⎧ 2 ⎤2
⎢ ⎪ wL2 ⎪⎫
⎬ +T ⎥
2
(d) ⎨W l +
E
11.2 The equivalent bending moment under combined ⎢ ⎪⎩ 2 ⎪⎭ ⎥
action of bending moment M and torque T is ⎣ ⎦
[ESE : 1999]
1
(a) M2 +T 2 (b) M2 +T 2
D
( )
to the ground carries an eccentric load P of 1600 N
1
(c) M + M 2 + T 2 (d) M + M2 + T 2 as shown in the figure.
2
e P
A
[ESE : 1996]
11.1 (b) 11.2 (d) 11.3 (a) 11.4 (d) 11.5 (d)
Y
A
2 2
P .e.5 ∴ Equivalent torque = M 2 + T 2
Bending stress (σ2 ) = (tensile)
I xx 1
⎡⎛ 2 ⎤2
wL2 ⎞
S
total stress in fibre AB = (σ1 − σ 2 ) = ⎢ ⎜W l + + T 2⎥
⎢⎝ 2 ⎟⎠ ⎥
⎛ P P .e.5 ⎞ ⎣ ⎦
=⎜ − (compressive)
⎝A I xx ⎟⎠
11.5 (d)
11.2 (d)
A A
e
D
E 40 mm
16T
Shear stress (τ) =
πd 3 B C
40 mm
Maximum normal stress
Direct stress,
E
2
σ ⎛ σ⎞ P
(σ1) = =
1600
= 1N / mm2 (compressive)
σmax = + ⎜ ⎟ + τ2
2 ⎝ 2⎠ A 40 × 40
Bending stress,
D
Pe 6 × 1600 × e
32M ⎡⎢ ⎛ 32M ⎞ ⎛ 16T ⎞ ⎤⎥
32Meq 2 2
(σ 2 ) = = = 0.15 e
⇒ = + ⎜ ⎟ + ⎜ ⎟ z (40)3
πd 3 2πd 3 ⎢ ⎝ 2πd 3 ⎠ ⎝ πd 3 ⎠ ⎥
⎣ ⎦ For edge CD.
A
II
Y
Engineering Materials
S
A
Syllabus
Basic Crystallography, Alloys and Phase diagrams, Heat Treatment, Ferrous and Non Ferrous Metals, Non metallic
E
materials, Basics of Nano-materials, Mechanical Properties and Testing, Corrosion prevention and control.
E
Contents
Sl. | Topic | Page No.
D
6. Properties & Application of Various Ferrous & Non-ferrous Metals and Their Alloys .......... 40
0
1 Crystal Systems
Y
hardening effect is due to A. Charcoal 1. F.C.C.
(a) slip mechanism B. Graphite 2. H.C.P.
(b) twining mechanism C. Chromium 3. Amorphous
(c) dislocation mechanism D. Copper 4. B.C.C.
S
(d) fracture mechanism Codes:
[ESE : 1997] A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
1.2 Which of the following properties of a solid are
A
(b) 3 2 4 1
dependent on crystal imperfections?
(c) 2 3 4 1
1. Yield stress 2. Melting point
(d) 2 3 1 4
3. Semiconductivity 4. Ductility [ESE : 1998]
E
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below: Directions: The following items consists of two
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 statements; one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 other as ‘Reason (R)’
(R)’. You are to examine these two
[ESE : 1997] statements carefully and select the answers to these
E
items using the codes given below:
1.3 A unit cell of a crystal is shown in given figure. Codes:
The miller indices of the direction (arrow) shown (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
in the figure is explanation of A
D
y stronger.
1
2 Reason (R): Grain boundaries provide easy
paths to dislocation motion.
1 [ESE : 1998]
2
x 1
1.6 Assertion (A): Plastic deformation in metals and
(a) [0 1 2] (b) [0 2 1] alloys is a permanent deformation under load. This
(c) [1 2 0] (d) [2 0 1] property is useful in obtaining products by cold
[ESE : 1998] rolling.
Reason (R): Plastic or permanent deformation in
1.4 Match List-I (Material) with List-II (Structure) and
metal or alloy is caused by movement of
select the correct answer using the codes given
dislocations.
below the lists:
[ESE : 1998]
Engineering Materials 31
1.7 Match List-I (Crystal structure) with List-II (Atomic (a) F = C + P (b) F = C + P – 2
packing factor) and select the correct answer (c) F = C – P – 2 (d) F = C – P + 2
using the codes given below the lists: [ESE : 1999]
List-I List-II
1.9 The set of Miller indices of the plane shown in the
A. Simple cubic 1. 74%
given figure is
B. Body-Centred cubic 2. 74%
C. Face-Centred cubic 3. 52% z
Codes:
Y
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
S
(d) 4 3 1 2
y
[ESE : 1999] x
A
(F = number of degree of freedom
(c) (1 0 1) (d) (1 1 0)
C = number of components
[ESE : 1999]
P = number of phases)
E
Answers Crystal Systems
1.1 (c) 1.2 (b) 1.3 (c) 1.4 (b) 1.5 (c) 1.6 (a) 1.7 (a, c) 1.8 (d) 1.9 (b)
BCC : Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs, Fr, Cr, Fe (α iron and P + F = C + 2 Gibb’s phase rule
δ iron), Mo, Nob, Ta, W, V, Zr, Ti
FCC : Ac, Al, Ca, Ce, Cu, Au, Ir, Pb, Ni, Pd, 1.9 (b)
Pt, Fe (γ iron), Rn, Rh, Ag, Sr, Th, Yb Intercept on y and z axis is ∞. So taking reciprocal
HCP : Be, Cd, Co, Mg, Os, Re, Ti, Zn, Zr and it will be 0, 0 on both x and y-axis. Intercept on
He x axis is on the negative side of x-axis (100) .
Amporphous : Glass, Charcoal
1.5 (c)
Refining of grain size means having small grain
which don’t permit movement of dislocation easily
so strength increases
2 Alloy and Binary
Phase Diagrams
Y
Addition of silicon to cast iron (b) Cementite and pearlite
1. Promotes graphite module formation (c) Ferrite and bainite
2. Promotes graphite flake formation (d) Cementite and martensite
3. Increases the fluidity of the molten metal [ESE : 1995]
S
4. Improves the ductility of cast iron
2.5 Addition of magnesium to cast iron increases its
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) hardness
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (b) ductility and strength in tension
A
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 (c) Corrosion resistance
[ESE : 1995] (d) creep strength
2.2 Eutectoid reaction occurs at [ESE : 1995]
(a) 600°C (b) 723°C
E 2.6 A given steel test specimen is studied under
(c) 114°C (d) 1493° metallurgical microscope. Magnification used is
[ESE : 1995] 100 X. In that different phases are observed. One
of them is Fe3C.
2.3 Match List-I (Name of material) with List-II
The observed phase Fe3C is also known as
(% Carbon range) and select the correct answer
E
(a) ferrite (b) cementite
using the codes give below the lists:
(c) austenite (d) martensite
List-I
[ESE : 1997]
A. Hypo-eutectoid steel
D
2.9 In a eutectic system, two elements are completely Reason (R) : The atomic radius of carbon atom
(a) Insoluble in solid and liquid state is much smaller than that of iron.
(b) Soluble liquid state (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) Soluble in solid state explanation of A
(d) Insoluble in liquid state (b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
[ESE : 1999] explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
2.10 Assertion (A) : Carbon forms interstitial solid
(d) A is false but R is true
solution when added to iron.
[ESE : 1999]
Y
Answers Alloy and Binary Phase Diagrams
2.1 (b) 2.2 (b) 2.3 (a) 2.4 (b) 2.5 (b) 2.6 (b) 2.7 (c) 2.8 (d) 2.9 (b)
S
2.10 (a)
Explanations Alloy and Binary Phase Diagrams
2.1 (b)
Silicon is strong graphitizer and promotes
graphitization (i.e. decomposition of cementite
A 2.6 (b)
Cementite has Fe3C composition, inter metallic
compound.
E
to iron and graphite Graphitizer improves the
fluidity of iron). 2.7 (c)
Carbon in present as interstitial impurity in iron
2.2 (b) matrix. The size of iron atom is larger than that of
Eutectoid reaction is at 0.76% of carbon at 727°C carbon.
E
3.1 Match List-I (Heat treatment) with List-II (Effect 3.3 Machines tool guideways are usually hardened by
Y
on the properties) and select the correct answer (a) vacuum hardening
using the codes given below the lists: (b) martempering
List-I (c) induction hardening
A. Annealing (d) flame hardening [ESE : 1996]
S
B. Nitriding 3.4 Guideways of lathe beds are hardened by
C. Martempering (a) carburizing (b) cyaniding
D. Normalising (c) nitriding (d) flame hardening
List-II
A
[ESE : 1997]
1. Refined grain structure
3.5 Two cooling curves A and B for eutectoid iron-
2. Improves the hardness of the whole mass
carbon alloy are superimposed on a continuous
3. Increases surface hardness
cooling transformation diagram as shown in the
4. Improves ductility
E
Codes: given figure. Fine pearlite microstructure is
A B C D represented by the points labelled
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
800 Eutectoid Temperature
E
(c) 4 2 1 3
Temperature (°C)
3.1 (a) 3.2 (c) 3.3 (d) 3.4 (d) 3.5 (c)
Engineering Materials 35
Y
improves. at surface and have tough core.
Martempering is two stage cooling process
3.5 (c)
avoiding the nose of TTT diagram to from
martensite. The two stage cooling minimizes Slow cooling above nose of TTT diagram will have
S
distortion and quench crack. fine pearlite. Point IV will correspond 100%
completion line.
A
E
E
D
A
M
4 Mechanical Testing & Mechanical
Properties of Materials
Y
sulphur improves A. Young’s modulus
(a) weldability (b) formability B. Modulus of rigidity
(c) machinability (d) hardenability C. Bulk modulus
[ESE : 1995] D. Poisson’s ratio
S
List-II
4.2 During tensile-testing of a specimen using
1. Shear strain
Universal Testing Machine, the parameters 2. Normal strain
actually measured include
A
3. Transverse strain
(a) True stress and true strain 4. Volumetric strain
(b) Poisson’s ratio and Young’s modulus Codes:
(c) Engineering stress and engineering strain A B C D
(d) load and elongation
E (a) 1 2 3 4
[ESE : 1996] (b) 2 1 3 4
4.3 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) 2 1 4 3
answer using the codes given below the lists: (d) 1 2 4 3
List-I [ESE : 1997]
E
Y
shortness as FeS is low melting eutectic.
4.5 (b)
4.2 (d)
Notch sensitivity of gray cast iron is zero because
Load and elongation is measured in tensile test.
of presence of graphite flakes which have itself
S
4.3 (c) many notches so practically insensitive for stress
concentration.
Endurance strength is used in fatigue loading.
Deflection in beam in related to moment area
A
4.6 (d)
method.
Specimen of impact testing are notched (45°) to
4.4 (c) test the behaviour of ductile material for failure
Young’s modulus (E ) =
Normal stress
E as brittle material when tri-axial stress induced
Normal strain in it. This test is also used to check the
susceptibility of material for ductile to brittle
Shear stress
Modulus of rigidity (G) = transition.
Shear strain
E
D
A
M
5 Plastic, Ceramic and
Composite Materials
5.1 The structure of a polymer is shown in the given 5.4 Consider the following statements
Y
figure. This polymer finds special application in Fibre Reinforced plastic are:
1. Made of thermosetting resins and glass fibre
F F 2. Made of thermoplastic resins and glass fibre.
| | 3. Anisotropic
S
—C—C— 4. Isotropic
| | Which of these statements are correct?
F F
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
A
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
(a) packaging (b) adhesives
[ESE : 1996]
(c) bearings (d) fertilizer
[ESE : 1995] 5.5 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
E answer using the codes given below the lists:
5.2 Consider the following statements: List-I
Thermosetting plastic are A. Neoprene
1. Formed by addition polymerization B. Bakelite
2. Formed by condensation polymerization
E
C. Foamed poly-urethane
3. Softened on heating and hardened on cooling D. Araldite
for any number of times
List-II
4. modulated by heating and cooling
D
1. Electric switches
Which of these statements are correct?
2. Adhesive
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
3. Thermal insulator
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
4. Oil seal
A
[ESE : 1996]
Codes:
5.3 Match List-I and List-II and select the correct A B C D
answer using the codes given below the lists: (a) 4 1 2 3
M
5.7 Consider the following statements: 5.8 Consider the following pairs of plastics and their
The strength of the fibre reinforced plastic product distinct characteristics:
1. Depends upon the strength of the fibre alone 1. Acrylics...Very good transparency to light
2. Depends upon the fibre and plastic 2. Polycarbonate...Poor impact resistance
3. Is isotropic 3. PTFE...Low coefficient of friction
4. Polypropylene...Excellent fatigue strength
4. Is anisotropic
Which of these statements are correct?
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 [ESE : 1999]
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 [ESE : 1999]
Y
S
5.1 (c) 5.2 (b) 5.3 (c) 5.4 (b) 5.5 (c) 5.6 (a) 5.7 (d) 5.8 (b, c)
A
5.1 (c) (ii) Bakelite has excellent thermal stability to
over 150°C and may be compounded with a
It is monomer of Poly-Tetra-Fluro-Ethene (PTFE).
large number of resins, fillers. It is used in
It is chemically inert in almost all environment,
motor housing, telephones, auto distributor
excellent electrical properties, low coefficient of
E and electrical fixtures.
friction. It is used as anti-corrosive seals, chemical
(iii) Foamed Polyurethane are commonly used
pipes and valves, bearings, anti adhesive
as cushions in auto mobiles and furniture
coating, high temperature electronic parts.
as well as in packaging and thermal
5.2 (b) insulation.
E
Thermosetting plastic become soft during their (iv) Araldite has excellent combination of
first heating and become very hard during mechanical properties and corrosion
cooling. They do not soften during subsequent resistance, dimensionally stable, good
D
heating and rather become harder during cooling. adhesion, relatively inexpensive and good
electrical properties.
5.5 (c)
5.8 (b, c)
(i) Neoprenes are used as wire and cable,
A
chemical tank linings, belts, hoses, seals Poly-tetra-fluoro-ethylene has very low coefficient
and gaskets. It has excellent ozone, heat of friction and it does not stick to other materials.
and weathering resistance and also good Poly propylene has the capability to be bent
repeatedly and no crack will develop in it.
M
oil resistance.
Properties & Application of Various
6 Ferrous & Non-ferrous Metals
and Their Alloys
Y
6.1 Match List-I (Alloy )with List-II (Use) and select (a) Chromium (b) Silicon
the correct answer using the codes give below (c) Manganese (d) Magnesium
the lists: [ESE : 1996]
S
List-I
6.5 Which of the following pairs regarding the effect
A. Low carbon steel
of alloying elements in steel are correctly
B. Hadfield manganese steel
matched?
A
C. Constantan
1. Molybdenum : Forms abrasion resisting
D. Babbitt alloy
particles
List-II
2. Phosphorous : Improves mechanability in free
1. Bearing
E cutting steels
2. Thermocouple
3. Cobalt : Contributes to red hardness by
3. Wire nails
hardening ferrite
4. Bulldozer blades
4. Silicon Reduces oxidation resistance
Codes:
Which of these statements are correct?
A B C D
E
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(a) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 3 4 1 2
[ESE : 1996]
(c) 3 2 1 4
D
(d) 3 4 2 1 [ESE : 1995] 6.6 Assertion (A) : Austenitic stainless steel contains
18% chromium and 8% nickel. Since it retains its
6.2 18/8 stainless steel contains
austenitic structure at room temperature, it is
(a) 18% stainless, 8% chromium
called austenitic stainless steel.
A
List-I List-II 6.9 Assertion (A) : Cast iron is generally hard, brittle
A. Nickel 1. Corrosion resistance and wear resistant.
B. Chromium 2. Magnetic permeability Reason (R) : Cast iron contains more than 20%
C. Tungsten 3. Heat resistance carbon and as such the percentage cementite in
D. Silicon 4. Hardenability it is higher.
Codes: (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
A B C D explanation of A
(a) 4 1 3 2 (b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(b) 4 1 2 3 explanation of A
Y
(c) 1 4 3 2 (c) A is true but R is false
(d) 1 4 2 3 [ESE : 1998] (d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1998]
6.8 Match List-I (Alloys) with List-II (Applications) and 6.10 Match List-I (Material) with List-II (Applications)
S
select the correct answer using the codes given and select the correct answer using the codes
below the lists: given below the Lists:
List-I List-I
A. Chromel B. Babbit alloy A. Tungsten carbide B. Silicon nitride
A
C. Nimonic alloy D. High speed steel C. Aluminium oxide D. Silicon carbide
List-II List-II
1. Journal bearing 1. Abrasive wheels
2. Milling cutter
E 2. Heating elements
3. Thermocouple wire 3. Pipes for conveying liquid metals
4. Gas turbine blades 4. Drawing dies
Codes:
Codes:
A B C D
A B C D
E
(a) 3 1 4 2
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3 [ESE : 1998]
D
Answers Properties & Application of Various Ferrous and Non-ferrous Metals and Their Alloys
A
6.1 (d) 6.2 (b) 6.3 (a) 6.4 (c) 6.5 (c) 6.6 (b) 6.7 (a) 6.8 (a) 6.9 (c)
6.10 (d)
M
Explanations Properties & Application of Various Ferrous and Non-ferrous Metals and Their Alloys
Y
Silicon are strong oxidizer. 6.10 (d)
Aluminium oxide : Abrasive wheel
Tungsten carbide : Drawing dies
S
A
E
E
D
A
M
UNIT
III
Y
Mechanisms and Machines
S
Syllabus
A
Types of Kinematics Pair, Mobility, Inversions, Kinematic Analysis, Velocity and Acceleration Analysis of Planar
Mechanisms, CAMs with uniform acceleration and retardation, cycloidal motion, oscillating followers; Vibrations –
Free and forced vibration of undamped and damped SDOF systems, Transmissibility Ratio, Vibration Isolation, Critical
E
Speed of Shafts. Gears – Geometry of tooth profiles, Law of gearing, Involute profile, Interference, Helical, Spiral and
Worm Gears, Gear Trains- Simple, compound and Epicyclic; Dynamic Analysis – Slider – crank mechanisms, turning
moment computations, balancing of Revolving & Reciprocating masses, Gyroscopes –Effect of Gyroscopic couple
on automobiles, ships and aircrafts, Governors, Flywheel.
E
Contents
D
1 Displacement, Velocity
and Acceleration
Y
disc rolling on a plane rigid surface is located at
(a) the centre of the disc 4
(b) an infinite distance on the plane surface C
(c) the point of contact
S
3
(d) the point on the circumference situated
vertically opposite to the contact point
[ESE : 1995] B
2
A
1.2 The directions of Coriolis component of
acceleration, 2ωV, of the slider A with respect to A 1
(a) 2V ω (b) V ω
D (c) Vω/2 (d) 2Vω [ESE : 1998]
n −1 n (n − 1)
(c) (d)
25 cm 2 2
[ESE : 1998]
Y
B
15 cm 1.11 In SHM, with respect to the displacement vector,
10 rad/s
A the positions of velocity vector and acceleration
vector will be respectively
S
(a) (150/10) rad/s (b) (100/25) rad/s (a) 180° and 90° (b) 90° and 180°
(c) (100/15) rad/s (d) (100/10) rad/s (c) 0° and 90° (d) 90° and 0°
[ESE : 1997] [ESE : 1998]
A
1.7 In order to draw the acceleration diagram, it is 1.12 The relative acceleration of two points which are
necessary to determine the Coriolis component at variable distance apart on a moving link can
of acceleration in the case of be determined by using the
(a) crank and slotted lever quick return
E (a) three centres in line theorem
mechanism (b) instantaneous centre of rotation
(b) slider-crank mechanism (c) Coriolis component of acceleration method
(c) four bar mechanism (d) Klein’s construction
(d) pantograph [ESE : 1999]
E
[ESE : 1997] 1.13 Consider a four-bar mechanism shown in the given
1.8 Two links OA and OB are connected by a pin figure. The driving link DA is rotating uniformly at
joint at ‘O’. The link OA turns with angular velocity a speed of 100 r.p.m clockwise.
D
D 60 cm
(c) (ω1 + ω 2 )r (d) (ω1 − ω 2 )2r
[ESE : 1998] The velocity of A will be
(a) 300 cm/s (b) 314 cm/s
1.9 When a slider moves with a velocity ‘V’ on a link
(c) 325 cm/s (d) 400 cm/s
rotating at an angular speed of ω the Coriolis
[ESE : 1999]
component of acceleration is given by
Answers Displacement, Velocity and Acceleration
1.1 (c) 1.2 (a) 1.3 (d) 1.4 (a) 1.5 (a) 1.6 (a) 1.7 (a) 1.8 (c) 1.9 (d)
Y
2
vector in a direction same as that of the angular
velocity of the slotted lever. 1.11 (b)
S
V = Aω cos ωt = Aω sin(ωt + 90°)
The centre of gravity of the link in a 4-bar F = –Aω2 sinωt = Aω2 sin(ωt + 180°)
mechanism would experience both linear and
angular acceleration. 1.12 (c)
1.4 (a)
D
1.7 (a)
36 cm
In crank and slotted lever quick return mechanism 30 cm
M
ω2
2 Planar Mechanism
2.1 A round bar A passes through the cylindrical hole 2.4 Assertion (A): The Ackermann steering gear is
Y
in B as shown in the given figure. Which one of commonly used in all automobiles.
the following statements is correct in this regard? Reason (R): It has the correct inner turning
angle θ for all positions.
[ESE : 1996]
S
2.5 Which of the following statements regarding laws
governing the friction between dry surface are
B correct?
A
A 1. The friction force is dependent on the velocity
of sliding.
2. The friction force is directly proportional to
(a) The two links shown form a kinematic pair
(b)
E
The pair is completely constrained
the normal force.
3. The friction force is dependent on the materials
(c) The pair has incomplete constraint
of the contact surfaces.
(d) The pair is successfully constrained
4. The Friction force is independent of the area
[ESE : 1995]
of contact surfaces.
E
Directions: The following items consists of two (a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
statements; one labelled as ‘Assertion’ and the other (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2,3 and 4
as ‘Reason’
‘Reason’. You are to examine these two statements [ESE : 1996]
D
E
explanation of A
B D
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A C
(c) A is true but R is false
M
A F
(d) A is false but R is true
Y
2. Oscillating cylinder engine mechanism
3. Ackermann steering mechanism
4. Oldham coupling 4.
Codes:
S
A B C D Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) 1 2 4 3 below :
(b) 4 3 1 2 (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
A
(c) 3 2 4 1 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 4 2 1 [ESE : 1998]
[ESE : 1997]
2.10 Which of the following pairs are correctly
E
2.8 Which of the following pair(s) is /are correctly matched? Select the correct answer using the
matched? codes given below the pairs.
I. Four bar chain : Oscillating- oscillating Mechanism
converter 1. Whitworth quick return motion
II. Inertia governor : Rate of change of engine 2. Oldham’s coupling
E
speed 3. Scotch yoke
III. Hammer blow : Reciprocating Chain from which derived
unbalanced mass 1. Single slider crank chain
Select the correct answer using the codes given 2. Four bar chain
D
(a) α α
1.
(b) α β
(c) α α/2
2. (d) α β/2
[ESE : 1998]
Mechanisms and Machines 49
Y
(a) an inertia force F(→) through the CG and no
3. Rigid frame
inertia torque
4. Incomplete constraint
(b) an inertia torque F.a ( ) and no inertia
Codes:
force
S
A B C D
(c) both inertia force F(→) through the CG and
(a) 3 1 4 2
inertia torque F.a ( )
(b) 1 3 2 4
(d) both inertia force F(←) through the CG and
(c) 3 1 2 4
A
inertia torque F.a ( ) [ESE : 1999]
(d) 1 3 4 2 [ESE : 1999]
2.14 In a single slider four-bar linkage when the slider
2.13 A link AB is subjected to a force F ( ) at a point
is fixed, it form a mechanism of
P perpendicular to the link at a distance a from
the CG as shown in the figure
E (a) hand pump
(b) reciprocating engine
(c) quick return
(d) oscillating cylinder [ESE : 1999]
E
2.1 (c) 2.2 (a) 2.3 (a) 2.4 (c) 2.5 (a) 2.6 (d) 2.7 (c) 2.8 (b) 2.9 (d)
D
2.10 (c) 2.11 (a) 2.12 (d) 2.13 (c) 2.14 (a)
Explanations Planar Mechanism
A
Y
2.11 (a)
The last of these laws (i.e. point 5) is not true in
For double Hooke’s joint θA and θB are equal for
the strict sense as it has been found that the
friction force decreases slightly with the increase ωB
all the time and hence, speed ratio, is always
S
in velocity. ωA
Only option (2) and (3) is correct. unity.
A
A Watt’s indicator diagram, also known as Watt’s If l = (2p – 4) → Complete constraint
straight line mechanism or double lever l > (2p – 4) → Rigid frame
mechanism, consists four link (as shown in l < (2p – 4) → Incomplete constraints
E
figure). Link BCD and EF acts as lever. The
2.14 (a)
displacement of link BFD is directly proportional
If is the fourth inversion of slider crank chain when
to the pressure of gas or steam which acts on
slider is fixed
the plunger.
E
2.7 (c)
4-Bar Mechanism: 2
3.1 In a cam drive with uniform velocity follower, the (a) decrease the side thrust between the follower
and guide
Y
slope of the displacement must be as shown in
Fig. I. But in actual practice it is as shown in Fig. II (b) decrease the wear between follower and cam
(i.e. rounded at the corners). surface
(c) take care of space limitation
S
S
S (d) reduce the cost [ESE : 1998]
A
of the follower will be the least when the profile of
the cam during the rise portion is
O O
(a) such that the follower motion is simple
Fig. I Fig. II
harmonic
This is because of
(a) the difficulty in manufacturing cam profile
E (b) such that the follower motion has a constant
velocity from start to end
(b) loose contact of follower with cam surface
(c) a straight line, it being a tangent cam
(c) The acceleration in the beginning and
(d) such that the follower velocity increases
retardation at the end of stroke would require
linearly for half the rise portion and then
to be infinitely high
decreases linearly for remaining half of the
E
(d) uniform velocity motion is a partial parabolic
rise portion [ESE : 1999]
motion [ESE : 1996]
3.2 In a cam drive, it is essential to offset the axis of
a follower to
D
Answers Cams
Explanations Cams
Jerk ∞
∞
θ
∞ ∞
4 Dynamic Analysis of
Slider-crank
4.1 With reference to the engine mechanism shown 4.2 What is the correct sequence of the following
Y
in the given figure, match List-I with List-II and steps in engine analysis?
select the correct answer using the codes given 1. Vibration analysis.
below the lists: 2. Inertia force analysis.
FC 3. Balancing analysis.
S
FW 4. Velocity and Acceleration analysis.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
FD
G
below :
A
(a) 2, 4, 1, 3 (b) 2, 4, 3, 1
P W
(c) 4, 2, 1, 3 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1
FR O
[ESE : 1997]
FQ
List-I List-II
E 4.3 Which one of the following pairs is correctly
matched?
A. FQ 1. Inertia force of reciprocating mass
(a) Governor : Interference
B. FR 2. Inertia force of connecting rod
(b) Gears : Hunting
C. FW 3. Crank effort
(c) Klein’s construction : acceleration of piston
D. FC 4. Piston side thrust
E
(d) Cam : Pinion [ESE : 1999]
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
D
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 1 3 2 [ESE : 1996]
A
5.1 Klein’s construction for determining the (c) To connect non-parallel and non-intersecting
Y
acceleration of piston P is shown in the given shafts ........... Spiral gearing
figure. When N coincides with O (d) Diminished noise and smooth operation
............ Helical gears [ESE : 1995]
K
S
C 5.4 Which one of the following is true for involute
Q
M gears?
L (a) Interference is inherently absent
P N O
B (b) Variation in centre distance of shaft increases
A
radial force
(c) A convex flank is always in contact with
Crank circle
concave flank
E
(a) acceleration of piston is zero and its velocity (d) Pressure angle is constant through the teeth
is zero engagement
(b) acceleration is maximum and velocity is [ESE : 1995]
maximum 5.5 The gear train usually employed in clocks is a
(c) acceleration is maximum and velocity is zero (a) reverted gear train
E
(d) acceleration is zero and velocity is maximum (b) simple gear train
[ESE : 1995] (c) sun and planet gear
5.2 A torsional system with discs of moment of inertia (d) differential gear [ESE : 1995]
D
I1 and I2, shown in the given figure, is gear driven 5.6 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
such that the ratio of the speed of shaft B to shaft answer using the codes given below the lists:
A is ‘n ’. Neglecting the inertia of gears, the List-I
A
A D. Contact ratio
List-II
1. Arc of approach, arc of recess, circular pitch
B I2 2. Lewis equation
3. Minimum number of teeth on pinion
4. Inaccuracies in tooth profile
(a) nI2 (b) n2I2 Codes:
(c) I2/n2 (d) I2/n [ESE : 1995] A B C D
5.3 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly (a) 3 4 1 2
matched? (b) 1 2 3 4
(a) Positive drive ........... Belt drive (c) 4 3 2 1
(b) High velocity ratio ............ Worm gearing (d) 3 4 2 1 [ESE : 1995]
54 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
5.7 A fixed gear having 200 teeth is in mesh with 2. For involute gears the pressure angle changes
another gear having 50 teeth. The two gears are with change in centre distance between gear.
connected by an arm. The number of turns made 3. The velocity ratio of compound gear train
by the smaller gear for one revolution of arm about depends upon the number of teeth of the
the centre of the bigger gear is input and output gears only.
2 4. Epicyclic gear trains involve rotation of at least
(a) (b) 3
4 one gear axis about some other gear axis.
(c) 4 (d) 5 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
[ESE : 1996]
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Y
5.8 An involute pinion and gear are in mesh. If both [ESE : 1996]
have the same size of addendum, then there will
5.11 Match List-I (Positioning of two shafts) with List-II
be an interference between the
(Possible connection) and select the correct
(a) tip of the gear tooth and flank of pinion
S
answer using the codes given below the lists:
(b) tip of the pinion and flank of gear
List-I
(c) flanks of both gear and pinion
(d) tips of both gear and opinion A. Parallel shafts with slight offset
A
[ESE : 1996] B. Parallel shafts at a reasonable distance
C. Perpendicular shafts
5.9 A compound train consisting of spur, bevel and
D. Intersecting shafts
spiral gears is shown in the given figure along
List-II
with the teeth numbers marked against the
E
wheels. Overall speed ratio of the train is 1. Hooks joint
2. Worm and wheel
20 3. Oldham coupling
Driver 4. Belts and pulley
E
Codes:
A B C D
35
(a) 4 3 2 1
D
(b) 4 3 1 2
70 (c) 3 4 1 2
40 (d) 3 4 2 1
A
[ESE : 1997]
5.14 In the epicyclic gear train shown in the given These characteristics which are applicable to stub
figure, ‘A’ is fixed. A has 100 teeth and B has 20° involute system would include
20 teeth. If the arm C makes three revolutions, (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 only 4
the number of revolutions made by B will be (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
[ESE : 1998]
B
5.18 When two shafts are neither parallel nor
intersecting, power can be transmitted by using
C (a) a pair of spur gears
(b) a pair of helical gears
Y
A
(c) an Oldham’s coupling
(d) a pair of spiral gears [ESE : 1998]
S
(a) 12 (b) 15 A pinion of 14½ ° pressure angle and 48 involute
(c) 18 (d) 24 [ESE : 1997] teeth has a pitch circle diameter of 28.8 cm. It has
1. module of 6 mm
5.15 Two geared shaft A and B having moments of
A
2. circular pitch of 18 mm
inertia Ia and Ib and angular acceleration αa and
αb respectively are meshed together. B rotates at 3. addendum of 6 mm
G times the speed of A. If the gearing efficiency 4. diametral pitch of 11/113
of the two shafts in η then in order to accelerate Which of these statements are correct?
E (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
B, the torque which must be applied to A will be
(a) Iaαa + G2Ibαb/η (b) G2Ibαaη (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 [ESE : 1999]
(c) G Iaαaη
2 (d) G2lbαbη [ESE : 1998] 5.20 Consider the following statements regarding the
5.16 The working surface above the pitch surface of choice of conjugate teeth for the profiles of mating
E
the gear tooth is termed as gears:
(a) addendum (b) dedendum 1. They will transmit the desired motion.
(c) flank (d) face [ESE : 1998] 2. They are difficult to manufacture.
D
M
5.3 (a) TA
⇒ y= x
B
Due to slip present, the velocity ratio will not
50
remain constant and hence, belt drive is not a ⇒ 1= x
positive drive. 200
⇒ x=4
5.4 (d) Revolution of gear A,
For involute gears, pressure angle is always NA = x + y
constant. This 14.5° to 22.5°. The general value = 1 + 4 = 5 Revolution
being 20°.
5.8 (a)
Y
5.5 (a)
Interference occurs between tip of the gear tooth
In reverted gear train, first and last gear is on the and flank of pinion.
same axis. Such an arrangement has application
S
on speed reducers, clocks (to connect hour hand 5.9 (a)
to minute hand) and machine tools. For compound gear train
A
Product of no of teeth on driver
To avoid interference certain minimum number of
teeth must be provided on the gear. 40 × 70 × 50
= =8
20 × 35 × 25
Arc of contact
contact ratio =
Circular pitch
E
5.10 (c)
Lewis equation gives static load on teeth. Speed ratio of compound gear train
5.7 (d) Product of no. of teeth on driven
=
Product of no. of teeth on driver
E
Activities NA Ns Arm
1. Fix the Arm C − − 0 5.11 (d)
T
2. Give +1 Revolution +1 − A 0 (1) Parallel shafts with slight offset → oldham
TB
D
coupling
to gear A
(2) Parallel shafts at reasonable distance → Belts
TA
3. Give + x Revolution + x − x 0 and pulleys
TB
(3) Perpendicular shafts → worm and wheel
A
Y
Given: TA = 100, TB = 20, Narm‘c’ = 3 rev. gears are used in instrumentation, distribution
NA = 0 (∵ A is fixed) device of automobile engine and other similar
To find: NB = ? application where there are small loads.
The mating gears in helical gearing must have
S
Condition Arm - C Gear - A Gear - B
opposite hand of helix, but is case of spiral gearing,
Suppose arm C 0 +1 T
– A the same or opposite hand of helix can be meshed.
is fixed and gear TB
A
A is given +1 5.19 (b)
rev. CCW. θ = 14.5°, Z = 48, d = 288 mm
Arm'C 'is fixed 0 +x T
−x A d 288
and gear A is TB Module = = = 6 mm
z 48
given +x rev.
E
circular pitch = πm = 6π = 18.85 mm
CCW addendum = m = 6 mm
Add + y rev. y y +x TA
y –x 1 1
TB diametral pitch = =
m 6
E
According to the question
5.20 (a)
y = 3
y+x = 0 It has been proved that any arbitrary shape of the
x = –3 tooth can be chosen for profile of teeth of one of
D
20
desired motion but objection to such random
5.16 (d)
profile is the obvious difficulty of manufacture,
standard-ization and cost of production. Therefore,
M
5.17 (d)
Characteristics of stub 20° involute system
1. Small interference
2. Strong tooth
3. Low production cost
4. Gear with smaller number of teeth.
6 Flywheel
6.1 The given figure shows the output torque plotted (a) positive throughout
Y
against crank positions for a single cylinder four- (b) negative throughout
stroke-cycle engine. The areas lying above the (c) positive during major portion of the stroke
zero-torque line represent positive work and the (d) negative during major portion of the stroke
areas below represent negative work. The engine [ESE : 1996]
S
drives a machine which offers a resisting torque
6.3 In the case of a flywheel, the maximum fluctuation
magnitudes of the hatched areas are given by
of energy is the
number (in the areas) as shown :
(a) sum of maximum and minimum energies
A
Avg. torque
(b) difference between the maximum and
+49
minimum energies
+43 +36 (c) ratio of the maximum and minimum energy
A B C D E F G (d) ratio of the minimum and maximum energy
E
Output toruqe
H
[ESE : 1998]
Explanations Flywheel
6.1 (d) Energy at E = E + 100 – 75 + 49 – 77 + 43
Let energy at H is E = E + 40
Energy at A = E + 100 Energy at F = E + 100 – 75 + 49 – 77+43–77
Energy at B = E + 100 – 75 = E + 25 = E – 33
Energy at C = E + 100 – 75 + 49 Energy at G = Energy at F + 36
= E + 74 = E – 33 + 36
Energy at D = E + 100 – 75 + 49 – 77 =E+3
=E– 3 Minimum energy at F. Hence speed at F will be
minimum
Mechanisms and Machines 59
V=
Density of rim (ρ)
π 2π 3π 4π ∴ For calculation of flywheel rim
Suction Comp. Exhaust 1. Limit of peripheral speed
Expansion 2. Limit of centrifugal stress
3. Weight of rim.
Y
6.3 (b)
1 2 2
emax = KEmax – KEmin = I (ωmax − ωmin)
2
S
A
E
E
D
A
M
7 Vibration
Y
k
(a) 46 Hz (b) 3π Hz 1. k 2.
(c) 3 Hz (d) 6π Hz
k
[ESE : 1995]
S
7.2 Which of the following methods can be used to m m
x x
determine the damping of machine element?
A
1. Logarithmic method (a) N/2 (b) N / 2
2. Bandwidth method
(c) 2 /N (d) 2N [ESE : 1995]
3. Rayleigh method
4. Holzer method 7.6 When shaking force is transmitted through the
E
Select the correct using the codes given below: spring, damping becomes detrimental when the
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 ratio of its frequency to the natural frequency is
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 greater than
[ESE : 1995] (a) 0.25 (b) 0.50
E
(c) 1.00 (d) 2 [ESE : 1996]
7.3 If ω / ωn = 2, where ω is the frequency of
excitation and ω n is the natural frequency of 7.7 When the mass of a critically damped single
vibrations, then the transmissibility of vibrations degree of freedom system is deflected from its
D
axis of rotation. The critical speed of the shaft is 7.8 The equation of motion for a single degree of
N. If the disc is replaced by a second one of freedom system with viscous damping is
same weight but mounted with an eccentricity 2e,
4 X&& + 9 X& + 16 X = 0 the damping ratio of the
critical speed of the shaft in the second case is
system is
(a) 1/2 N (b) 1/ 2 N 9
9
(a) (b)
(c) N (d) 2 N 128 16
[ESE : 1995]
9 9
(c) (d)
7.5 For the spring mass system shown in the figure 1, 8 2 8
the frequency of vibration is N. What will be the [ESE : 1996]
frequency when one more similar spring added
in series, as shown in figure 2?
Mechanisms and Machines 61
Y
m
(b) X sin ( 1 − ζ2 )ωn t
– ζω t
1 k1 + k 2 1 m (c) e n
(c) (d) 2 π k + k
2π m 1 2 (d) X e −ζωn t [ESE : 1997]
S
[ESE : 1996]
7.13 Which is the equivalent stiffness (i.e. spring constant)
7.10 The critical speed of a rotating shaft depends upon the system shown in the given figure?
A
(a) mass
(b) stiffness 10 Coil
k1= 8 N/mm
(c) mass and stiffness
(d) mass, stiffness and eccentricity
E
[ESE : 1996]
5 Coil
k2= 16 N/mm
7.11 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
(a) 24 N/mm (b) 16 N/mm
E
A. Flywheel (c) 4 N/mm (d) 5.3 N/mm
B. Governor [ESE : 1997]
C. Critical speed
7.14 The given figure depicts the vector diagram of
D
D. Inertia Force
List-II forces and displacements in the case of Forced
1. Dunkerley method Damped Vibration. If vector A represents the
2. Turning moment forcing function P = P 0 sinω t , vector B the
A
A B C D A B
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 2 1 3
φ
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 2 4 1 3
C
[ESE : 1997] O
x = X e −(ζωnt) sin ( 1 – ζ ω t + φ)
2
n
(b)
(c)
the elastic force and the damping force
the damping force and the inertia force
which is shown graphically below : (d) the damping force and the elastic force
[ESE : 1997]
62 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
7.15 If two identical helical spring are connected in (c) a hyperbolic curve
parallel and to these two, another identical spring (d) a linear curve [ESE : 1998]
is connected in series and the system in loaded
7.18 The critical speed of a uniform shaft with a rotor
by a weight W, as shown in the figure, then the
at the centre of the span can be reduced by
resulting deflection will be given by (δ = deflection,
(a) Reducing the shaft length
S = stiffness, W = load)
(b) Reducing the rotor mass
3W W
(a) δ = (b) δ = (c) Increasing the rotor mass
2S 2S (d) Increasing the shaft diameter [ESE : 1998]
2W W
(c) δ = (d) δ =
Y
3S 3S 7.19 If a mass ‘m’ oscillates on a spring having a mass
ms and stiffness ‘k’, then the natural frequency of
the system is given by
S S
S
k k
(a) m (b) m
m+ s + ms
3 3
S
A
3k k
(c) m + ms (d) m + ms
W
⎝ d2 ⎠ ⎝ d3 ⎠
Codes:
4 4
⎛d ⎞ ⎛d ⎞ A B C D
(d) l1 + l2 ⎜ 1 ⎟ + l3 ⎜ 1 ⎟ [ESE : 1997]
⎝d ⎠ 2 ⎝d ⎠ 3 (a) 1 4 3 2
M
(b) 4 1 2 3
7.17 The amplitude versus time curve of as damped-
(c) 1 4 2 3
free vibration is shown in the below figure. Curve
(d) 4 1 3 2
labelled ‘A’ is
[ESE : 1998]
Curve A
7.21 The critical speed of a uniform shaft with a rotor
X1
Amplitude
7.22 A rotating shaft carries a flywheel which overhangs (c) slightly greater than natural frequency
on the bearing as a cantilever. If this flywheel (d) zero
weight is reduced to half of its original weight, [ESE : 1999]
the whirling speed will
7.25 The value of the natural frequency obtained by
(a) be double
Rayleigh’s method
(b) increase by 2 times
(a) is always greater than the actual fundamental
(c) decrease by 2 times
frequency
(d) be half
(b) is always less than the actual fundamental
[ESE : 1999]
frequency
Y
7.23 If a spring-mass-dashpot system is subjected to (c) depends upon the initial deflection curve
excitation by a constant harmonic force, then at chosen and may be greater than or less than
resonance, its amplitude of vibration will be the actual fundamental frequency
S
(a) infinity (d) is independent of the initial deflection curve
(b) inversely proportion to damping chosen
(c) directly proportional to damping [ESE : 1999]
(d) decreasing exponentially with time
A
7.26 In a multi-rotor system of torsional vibrations,
[ESE : 1999] maximum number of nodes that can occur is
7.24 In a forced vibration with viscous damping, (a) two
maximum amplitude occurs when forced (b) equal to the number of rotors plus one
E (c) equal to the number of rotors
frequency is
(a) equal to natural frequency (d) equal to the number of rotors minus one
(b) slightly less than natural frequency [ESE : 1999]
E
Answers Vibration
7.1 (c) 7.2 (b) 7.3 (b) 7.4 (c) 7.5 (b) 7.6 (d) 7.7 (a) 7.8 (b) 7.9 (c)
7.10 (c) 7.11 (d) 7.12 (d) 7.13 (a) 7.14 (d) 7.15 (a) 7.16 (d) 7.17 (b) 7.18 (c)
D
7.19 (a) 7.20 (b) 7.21 (c) 7.22 (b) 7.23 (b) 7.24 (b) 7.25 (a) 7.26 (d)
Explanations Vibration
A
ω k W
For = W′ = = n
2 transmissibility is 1 2m 2
ωn
N
N′ =
2
7.6 (d)
ω
The damping is detrimental for < 2
ωn
TR
ω
1 2 and advantageous only in the region > 2.
Frequency ratio ωn
64 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
Y
to the displacement.
C 9 9 3. The damping force lags the displacement by
∴ξ= = =
2 km 2 4 × 16 16 90°. Since the velocity leads the displacement
by 90°, it follows that the damping force is
S
7.9 (c)
always in direction to the velocity.
Both spring are connected is parallel
4. The inertia force is an phase with the
keq = k1 + k2
displacement, therefore the inertia is always
A
1 k1 + k 2 opposite in direction to the acceleration.
f=
2π m
7.15 (a)
7.10 (c) 2S × S 2
E keq = = S
2S + S 3
k
ω= 2
m ∴W= S ×δ
3
7.11 (d) 3W
∴δ=
E
1. Flywheel → Turning moment 2S
2. Governor → speed control on par with load
3. Critical speed → Dunkerley method 7.16 (d)
4. Inertia force → D’ Alembert’s principal If the two shafts are equivalent, then the stiffness
D
series)
7.13 (a) θ = θ1 + θ2 + θ3
Springs are connected in parallel
MT GJ
∴ keq = K1 + K2 = 8 + 16 = 24 N/mm We know that =
θ
M
L
7.14 (d)
MT L
∴θ=
GJ
Perpendicular
MT L MT L1 MT L2 MT L3
axis
= + +
A
GJ GJ1 GJ2 GJ3
g for
ce F0 L L1 L2 L3 ⎛ π 2⎞
sprin x x = J + J + J ⎜⎝ J = d ⎟
k
φ J 1 2 3 32 ⎠
ωt Reference axis
cωx 4 4
damping 2x ⎛ d1 ⎞ ⎛ d1 ⎞
force mω L = L1 + L2 ⎜ ⎟ + L3 ⎜ ⎟
a ⎝d ⎠ ⎝d ⎠
Inerti 2 3
force
Mechanisms and Machines 65
L
7.17 (b) 1 1 x& 2y 2
= m x& 2 + ∫ ρ 2 dy
The damping factor such that the vibration motion 2 20 L
is allowed, however, the amplitude of motion L
1 1 ρx 2
2 L2 ∫0
reduce with time in an exponential manner. = m x& 2 + y 2dy
2
7.18 (c)
1 1 1 1
ρLx& 2 = m x& +
2
= &2 + m x& 2
k 2 mx 6 2 6 s
ωn = m ↑, ωn ↓
m x& 2 ⎛ m ⎞
= ⎜ m+ s⎟
2 ⎝ 3 ⎠
Y
7.19 (a)
U = PE + KE
o
o
1 x& 2 ⎛ m ⎞
= k &
x 2
+ ⎜ m+ s⎟
y 2 2⎝ 3⎠
S
dy
δ Differentiating and using energy method, we get
ms
du 2 ⎛ ms ⎞ 2
= x& &&
x ⎜m + ⎟ + k xx& = 0
A
m x dt 2 ⎝ 3 ⎠ 2
k
Let ‘L’ be the length of the spring and let ‘ρ’ be ∴ &x& + x=0
⎛ ms ⎞
the mass of spring per unit length. ⎜⎝ m + 3 ⎟⎠
E
Mass of spring Ms = PL
Consider a small element ‘dy’ of the spring at a k
∴ ωn =
distance ‘y’ from the support. The mass of element ⎛ ms ⎞
⎜⎝ m + 3 ⎟⎠
is dms.
dms = ρdy
E
Considering that the free end of the spring has 7.20 (b)
moved by ‘x’. The displacement at the fixed point (1) Node and mode → Multi-rotor vibration
will be zero. From similar triangle at any point, at
D
y L
7.21 (c)
xy
∴ δ =
L k
ωn =
Hence velocity of dms will be ‘ δ& ’ m
M
x&y 1
∴ ωn ∝
δ& = L m
The kinetic energy of the system will be due to
7.22 (b)
mass of the spring ‘ms’ and the hanging mass m.
KE = KEspring + KEmass 1
Whirling sheed ∝
L
1 1 I
∫ dms δ2 + m x&
2
=
2 2 ω2 2I
0
∴ =
2 ω1 I
⎛ x&y ⎞
L
1 1
=
2
m x& 2 + ∫
2 0
ρdy × ⎜ ⎟
⎝ L⎠ ω2 = 2ω1
66 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
7.23 (b) Where Mi and yi are the mass and the deflection
at point i.
At resonance, amplitude of vibration will be
In case the deflection curve assumed in (i) above
(F0 / k ) / 2ξ hence inversely proportional to
is due to the load considered as dead or static,
damping. as is generally done to start with, then the natural
frequency obtained from eq. (i) will be somewhat
7.24 (b)
higher than the actual value. The reason is that
In a forced vibration with viscous damping, during the actual vibrations the deflection curve
maximum amplitude occurs when forced will be due to the inertia load rathers than static
Y
frequency is slightly less than natural frequency. loads, and thus the assumed deflection will be
F0 different from the actual deflection and wherever
A =
(s − m ω 2 ) + (c ω)2 assumed deflection is different from the actual
one, a higher frequency will result. This is because
S
F0 /s
A = any change of deflection curve from the actual is
⎡ ⎛ ω ⎞2 ⎡ ω⎤ ⎤
2
⎢1 − ⎜ associated with the stiffening of system which
+ ⎢2 ε ⎥ ⎥
⎢ ⎝ ωn ⎟⎠ ⎣ ωn ⎦ ⎥⎦ results in a higher natural frequency.
⎣
A
7.25 (a) 7.26 (d)
8.1 For a spring controlled governor to be stable, the 8.4 Assertion (A): The degree of hunting with an
Y
controlling force (F) is related to the radius (r) by unstable governor will be less than that with an
the equation isochronous governor.
(a) F = ar – b (b) F = ar + b Reason (R): With an unstable governor, once the
(c) F = ar (d) F = a/r+b sleeve has moved from one extreme position to
S
[ESE : 1995] the other, a finite change of speed is required to
cause it to move back again.
8.2 Which one of the following equation is valid with (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
reference to the given figure. A explanation of A
A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
⎛W ⎞ ⎛ g ⎞ explanation of A
(a) ω 2 = ⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
⎝w ⎠ ⎝h⎠ h (c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1997]
2 ⎛W + w ⎞ ⎛ g⎞
1/2
B
E
(b) ω = ⎜
⎝ w ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ h ⎟⎠ 8.5 The sensitivity of an isochronous governor is
w
(a) zero (b) one
1/2
2 ⎛ w ⎞ ⎛ g⎞ W (c) two (d) infinity [ESE : 1997]
(c) ω = ⎜
⎝ W + w ⎟⎠ ⎜⎝ h ⎟⎠
8.6 Give that
E
A. Hunting 2g 2g
(c) (d)
B. Isochronism ω 2
ω2
C. Stability [ESE : 1998]
D. Effort
8.7 For a given fractional change of speed, if the
M
8.9 Consider the given figure: and h, the masses of balls used in the Proell
governor are less than those of ball used in the
Porter governor.
Reason (R): The ball is fixed to an extension link
h Proell governor.
Of these statements:
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
ω
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
Y
W
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Assertion (A): In order to have the same [ESE : 1999]
S
equilibrium speed for the given values of ω , W
Answers Governors
A
8.1 (a) 8.2 (d) 8.3 (a) 8.4 (d) 8.5 (d) 8.6 (b) 8.7 (c) 8.8 (b) 8.9 (a)
Explanations Governors
⇒ K=1
8.1 (a)
E
ω +W ⎤
F = ar + b → unstable governor ω2 = g ⎡
F = ar → isochronous governor h ⎢⎣ ω ⎥⎦
F = ar – b → stable governor 8.3 (a)
1. Hunting : Too sensitive
E
radius of rotation
e
bl
ta
ou
U
D
on
le
Is
8.4 (b)
A
Y
when a change in speed causes a large sleeve
1. Watt 2. Porter 3. Proell 4. Hartnel
movement. For example an isochronous governor
(i.e., one that is infinitely sensitive) will oscillate 8.9 (a)
between the highest and the lowest position if
S
the speed deviates from the isochoronous speed.
h
8.5 (d) ω
A
N1 + N2 a
Sensitivity (e) = W
2(N1 − N 2 )
For isochronous governor ; N1 = N2 w — weight of ball
∴ e=∞ W — weight of sleeve
E ω — angular speed
8.6 (b) Porter governor
g ⎡w + W ⎤
ω2 =
θ h ⎢⎣ w ⎥⎦
E
α Proell
h
ω h
ω
D
2 r e
mrω
a
W
Mg
r ω2
A
∴ tanθ = r/h = g ⎛ a ⎞ ⎡w + W ⎤
ω2 =
g h ⎜⎝ e ⎟⎠ ⎢⎣ w ⎥⎦
g
∴ h= For the given values of ω, W and h the masses of
ω2
M
9 Balancing and Gyroscope
Y
as shown in the given figure. The rotor is
e
m
a
R
A B
S
W
L
R
A
W 2 a
m (a) Zero (b) ω e
g L
(a) dynamically balanced
(b) statically balanced W 2 a W 2 L
(c) 2 ωe (d) ω e
g L g a
(c)
E
statically and dynamically balanced
(d) not balanced [ESE : 1997]
[ESE : 1995]
9.5 A four-cylinder symmetrical in-line engine is shown
9.2 A system of masses rotating in different parallel in the below figure, Reciprocating weights per
planes is in dynamic balance if the resultant cylinder are R1 and R2, and the corresponding
E
(a) force is equal to zero angular disposition of the crank are α and β.
(b) couple is equal to zero Which one of the following equations should be
(c) force and the resultant couple are both equal satisfied for its primary force balance?
D
to zero
(d) force is numerically equal to the resultant
1 3
couple, but neither of them need necessarily 3
1 R1 a1 a2 R2
be zero β α
A
[ESE : 1996] β α
4 a1
2 R2 R1
9.3 When the primary direct crank of a reciprocating 2 4
engine positioned at 30° clockwise, the secondary
M
9.7 If a two-mass system is dynamically equivalent (c) secondary unbalanced forces will increase
to a rigid body, then the system will NOT satisfy (d) secondary unbalanced forces will decrease
the condition that the [ESE : 1999]
(a) sum of the two masses must be equal to that
9.9 Assertion (A): In locomotive engines, the
of the rigid body
reciprocating masses are only partially balanced.
(b) polar moment of inertia of the system should
Reason R): Full balancing might lead to lifting
be equal to that of the rigid body
the locomotive engine off the rails.
(c) Centre of Gravity (CG) of the system should
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
coincide with that of the rigid body
explanation of A
(d) total moment of inertia about the axis through
Y
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
CG. Must be equal to that of the rigid body
explanation of A
[ESE : 1999]
(c) A is true but R is false
9.8 If the ratio of the length of connecting rod to the (d) A is false but R is true
S
crank radius increases, then [ESE : 1999]
(a) primary unbalanced forces will increase
(b) primary unbalanced forces will decrease
A
Answers Balancing and Gyroscope
9.1 (b) 9.2 (c) 9.3 (b) 9.4 (a) 9.5 (d) 9.6 (b) 9.7 (b) 9.8 (d) 9.9 (a)
Explanations Balancing and Gyroscope
E
9.1 (b) 9.4 (a)
For statically balanced rotor
r W
ΣF = 0
E
e
For dynamically balanced rotor A B
r a
Σ F =0, ΣM = 0
But in this case ΣM ≠ 0 only ΣF = 0 therefore the
D
W
rotor is statically balanced.
L
9.2 (c)
Moment about A
A
W eω 2
9.3 (b) L × RB = [L + a – (L – a)]
g 2
When the primary direct crank of a reciprocating
W a a
engine positioned at 30° clockwise, the secondary RB = eω2 = me ω 2 ×
g L L
reverse crank for balancening will be at 60°
W 2a
anticlockwise. RA = eω
g L
Total dynamic force (magnitude)
= RA + RB
2W 2 a
= eω
g L
72 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
Y
α Then the three condition stated above lead to
R1
the following mathematical equation
m1 + m2 = m
S
m1a = m2b
The correct option is (d) m1 a2 + m2b2 = mk2
Balancing horizontal force let radius be x
A
9.8 (d)
R1x cos α + R1x cos α – R2x cos β – R2x cos β = 0
FP = Primary unbalanced force = mrω2cosθ
2R1x cos α – 2R2x cos β = 0
Fs = Secondary unbalanced force
∴ R1cos α = R2 cos β
E
mr ω2 ⎛ l⎞
9.6 (b) = cos2θ ⎜⎝ n = ⎟⎠
n r
⎡ cos 2θ ⎤
Funbalanced force = mr ω 2 ⎢cos θ +
⎣ n ⎥⎦ 9.9 (a)
E
2 In locomotive engines, the reciprocating masses
2 mrω cos 2θ
mrω cos θ n are only partially balanced because full balancing
=
might lead to lifting the locomotive engine off the
D
A
M
10 Miscellaneous
Y
mass of torsional stiffness k coupled to a viscous K +C
damper having a coefficient of viscous damping 1
C. If at any instant the left and right ends of this (b) C
shaft have angular displacement θ1 and θ 2 1+ s
K
S
respectively, then the transfer function θ2/θ1 of 1
the system is (c)
K
1+ s
C
A
K
(d) 1 + s
K C
[ESE : 1995]
θ1 θ2
E
C
Answers Miscellaneous
E
10.1 (b)
D
A
M
UNIT
IV
Y
Design of Machine Elements
S
Syllabus
A
Design for static and dynamic loading; failure theories; fatigue strength and the S-N diagram; principles of the
design of machine elements such as riveted, welded and bolted joints. Shafts, Spur gears, rolling and sliding contact
bearings, Brakes and clutches.
E
E
Contents
D
4. Gears ................................................................................................................................. 87
8. Miscellaneous .................................................................................................................... 94
1 Theories of Failure
(Static & Dynamic)
1.1 The design calculations for members subject to (a) In Ductile material local yielding may
Y
fluctuating loads with the same factor of safety distribute stress concentration
yield the most conservative estimates when using (b) Ductile material have large Young’s modulus
(a) Gerber relation (c) Poisson’s ratio is larger in ductile materials
(b) Soderberg relation (d) Modulus of rigidity is larger in ductile material
S
(c) Goodman relation [ESE : 1996]
(d) None of the above
1.6 Match List-I (Failure theories) with List-II (Figures
[ESE : 1995]
representing boundaries of these theories) and
A
1.2 Permissible bending moment in a circular shaft select the correct answer using codes given below
under pure bending is M according to maximum the lists:
principal stress theory of failure the permissible List-I
bending moment in the same shaft is
E A. Maximum Principal stress theory
(a) 1/2 M (b) M B. Maximum shear stress theory
(c) (d) 2 M C. Maximum octahedral shear stress theory
M
D. Maximum shear strain energy theory
[ESE : 1995]
List-II
E
1.3 If shaft made from ductile material is subjected σ2
to combined bending and twisting moments.
Calculations based on which one of the following
failure theories would give the most conservative σ1
D
1.
value?
(a) Maximum principal stress theory
(b) Maximum shear stress theory σ2
A
Codes:
σ2/σyp
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 2 3 1 (a) σ1/σyp
(d) 2 4 1 3
[ESE : 1997]
Y
shaft is T. The permissible twisting moment in
the same shaft as per the maximum principal
(b) σ1/σyp
stress theory of failure will be
S
(a) T/2 (b) T
(c) 2T (d) 2T
σ2/σyp
[ESE : 1998]
A
1.8 A solid circular shaft is subjected to pure torsion.
The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum
(c) σ1/σyp
normal stress at any point would be
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
E
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 2 : 3
σ2/σ yp
[ESE : 1999]
D
1.1 (b) 1.2 (b) 1.3 (b) 1.4 (c) 1.5 (a) 1.6 (d) 1.7 (d) 1.8 (a) 1.9 (c)
A
Y
for static loading has no serious effect because πd 3
there material undergoes local yielding and πd 3
distribute the stress where maximum value is T ′ = Syt ...(ii)
16
reached.
S
From equation (i) and (ii),
T ′ = 2T
1.6 (d)
A. Maximum principal stress theory 1.8 (a)
A
σ2
IInd Method
Te = M2 +T 2
σ1 For pure torsion M = 0
E
πd3
Te = T = ⋅ τmax
16
B. Maximum shear stress theory and Me = 1 ⎡M + M 2 + T 2 ⎤
σ2 2 ⎢⎣ ⎥⎦
T πd3
E
= = ⋅σ
2 32 max
σ1
τmax
∴ =1:1
σmax
D
σ1 σ1
M
σ1
2 Bolted, Riveted and
Welded Joint
2.1 The permissible stress in a fillet weld is 2.5 A double fillet welded joint with parallel fillet weld
Y
100 N/mm2. The fillet weld has equal leg lengths of length L and leg B is subjected to a tensile
of 15 mm each. The allowable shearing load on force P . Assuming uniform shear stress
per cm length of the weld is distribution, the shear stress in the weld is given by
(a) 22.5 kN (b) 15.0 kN 2P P
S
(c) 10.6 kN (d) 7.5 kN (a) (b)
BL 2BL
[ESE : 1995]
P 2P
2.2 For bolts of uniform strength, the shank diameter (c) (d) [ESE : 1996]
2 BL BL
A
is made equal to
(a) major diameter of threads 2.6 A butt welded joint, subjected to tensile force P
(b) pitch diameter of threads is shown in the given figure, l = length of the
weld (in mm) h = throat of the butt weld (in mm)
(c) minor diameter of threads
E
(d) nominal diameter of threads and H is the total height of weld including
[ESE : 1995] reinforcement. The average tensile stress σt in the
weld is given by
2.3 Assertion (A): When the coupler of a turn buckle
is turned in one direction both the connecting rods
E
P l
either move closer or move away from each other P
depending upon the direction of rotation of the
h H
coupler.
D
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct [ESE : 1997]
explanation of A
2.7 In the welded joint shown in the given figure if the
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
weld at B has thicker fillets than at A then load
M
explanation of A
carrying capacity P0 of the joint will
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
[ESE : 1996]
A B
2.4 Two rigid plates are clamped by means of bolt
and nut with an initial force N. After tightening, a
separating force P(P < N) is applied to the lower
plate, which in turn acts on nut. The tension in the
P0
bolt after this is
(a) (N + P) (b) (N – P) (a) increase (b) decrease
(c) P (d) N (c) remain unaffected (d) exactly get doubled
[ESE : 1996] [ESE : 1997]
Design of Machine Elements 79
2.8 When a nut is tightened by placing a washer below 2.12 Which of the following stresses are associated
it the bolt will be subjected to with tightening of nut on a bolt
(a) tensile stress (b) compression stress 1. Tensile stress due to stretching of bolt.
(c) shear stress (d) none of these 2. Bending stress due to bending of bolt.
[ESE : 1998] 3. Crushing and shear stresses in threads.
4. Torsional shear stress due to frictional
2.9 The rivet head used for boiler plate riveting is
resistance between the nut and bolt.
usually
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) snap head (b) pan head
below:
(c) counter sink head (d) conical head
Y
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
[ESE : 1998]
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
2.10 Two metal plates of thickness ‘t’ and width ‘w’ are [ESE : 1998]
jointed by a fillet weld of 45° as shown in given
S
2.13 For longitudinal joint in boiler, the type of joint used
figure. When subjected to a pulling force ‘F’, the
is
stress induced in the weld will be
(a) lap joint with one ring one slopping the other
45° (b) butt joint with single cover plate
A
F t
(c) butt joint with double cover plate
t F (d) any one of the above [ESE : 1999]
B
(c) Ball joint (d) Universal joint
[ESE : 1998] (a) 15 mm (b) 18 mm
(c) 20 mm (d) 25 mm [ESE : 1999]
A
Answers Bolted, Riveted and Welded Joint
2.1 (c) 2.2 (c) 2.3 (a) 2.4 (d) 2.5 (c) 2.6 (b) 2.7 (c) 2.8 (a) 2.9 (a)
M
2.10 (a) 2.11 (a) 2.12 (d) 2.13 (c) 2.14 (a)
Y
2.5 (c) are difficult to shape.
The correct option is (c) 2.10 (a)
For single fillet The throat h
P = t×L×τ
S
45°
1 t
= hLτ h
2
A
P
L h
t → throat sin45° =
P
t
h = t sin 45°
t
E Area of minimum throat = w × h = wt sin45°
h
F
Shearing force =
wt sin45°
For double fillet
2.11 (a)
⎛ 1 ⎞
P = 2⎜ hLτ⎟ = 2 hLτ The piston rod and the crosshead in steam engine
E
⎝ 2 ⎠
is connected by cotter joint. It is used when no
P
∴ τ = relative motion between the rods is desirable,
2 hL cotters are normally driven at right angle to the
D
P
∴ σt = The longitudinal joint in a boiler shell is usually
hl
butt joint with two cover plates. This joint is more
2.8 (a) efficient than lap joint. It is also stiffer and helps
Bolts are always subjected to tensile stress when
M
3 Bearings, Shafts, Axles & Keys
(Keys out of syllabus from 2016)
3.1 Consider the following design considerations 3.4 Assertion (A): In equilibrium position, the journal
Y
1. Tensile failure 2. Creep failure inside a journal bearing remains floating on the
3. Bearing failure 4. Shearing failure oil film.
5. Bending failure Reason (R): In a journal bearing, the load on the
The design of the pin of a rocker arm of an I.C. bearing is perpendicular to the axis of the journal.
S
engine is based on (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 explanation of A
(c) 2, 3 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 5 (b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A
A
[ESE : 1995]
(c) A is true but R is false
3.2 Which one of the following loadings is considered
(d) A is false but R is true
for design of axles?
[ESE : 1995]
(a) Bending moment only
E 3.5 In an oil-lubricated journal bearing, coefficient of
(b) Twisting moment only
(c) Combined bending moment and torsion friction between the journal and the bearing
(a) remains constant at all speeds
(d) Combined action of bending moment, twisting
(b) is minimum at zero speed and increases
moment and axial thrust
monotonically with increases in speed
[ESE : 1995]
E
(c) is maximum at zero speed and decreases
3.3 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct monotonically with increase in speed
answer using the codes given below the lists: (d) becomes minimum at an optimum speed and
List-I
D
Y
codes given below the lists: (c) Viscosity, speed and load
List-I (d) Viscosity, speed and bearing pressure
A. Axle [ESE : 1996]
B. Cotter
S
3.13 When a shaft transmits power through gears, the
C. Connecting rod
shaft experiences
D. Journal bearing
(a) torsional stresses alone
List-II
A
(b) bending stresses alone
1. Shear stress
(c) constant bending and varying torsional
2. Tensile/compressive stress
stresses
3. Wear
(d) varying bending and constant torsional
4. Bending stress
E stresses [ESE : 1997]
Codes:
A B C D 3.14 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) 1 4 2 3 answer using the codes given below the lists:
(b) 4 1 2 3 List-I
E
(c) 4 1 3 2 A. Ball bearing
(d) 1 4 3 2 B. Tapered roller bearing
[ESE : 1996] C. Spherical roller bearings
D. Needle roller bearings
D
(b) maximum shear stress theory 3. Carrying both radial and thrust loads
(c) maximum normal stress and maximum shear 4. Self-aligning property
stress theories
(d) fatigue strength Codes:
M
[ESE : 1996] A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2
3.10 Tapered roller bearings can take (b) 2 1 4 3
(a) radial load only (c) 2 3 1 4
(b) axial load only (d) 2 3 4 1
(c) both radial and axial load and the ratio of these [ESE : 1997]
being less than unity
(d) both radial and axial load and the ratio of these 3.15 In a journal bearings, the radius of the friction
being greater than unity circle increases with the increase in
[ESE : 1996] (a) load
(b) radius of the journal
3.11 The bearing characteristic number in a (c) speed of the journal
hydrodynamic bearing depends on (d) viscosity of the lubricant [ESE : 1997]
Design of Machine Elements 83
Y
(c) Outer race of the bearing has an interference
1. Transmitting power
fit with bearing housing and does not rotate.
2. Holding a flywheel rigidly in position
(d) In some cases, the inner race is stationary
3. Moving axially the gear wheels mounted on
and outer race rotates.
S
it
[ESE : 1997]
4. Mounting V-belt pulleys on it
3.17 Match L i s t - I (Type of keys) with L i s t - I I Which of these statements are correct?
(Characteristic) and select the correct answer (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
A
using the codes given below the lists: (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
List-I [ESE : 1998]
A. Woodruff key
3.20 In the assembly design of shaft, pulley and key,
B. Kennedy key
E
C. Feather key the weakest member is
D. Flat key (a) Pulley (b) Key
List-II (c) Shaft (d) None
1. Loose fitting, light duty [ESE : 1998]
E
2. Heavy duty
3.21 Assertion (A): Hydrostatic lubrication is more
3. Self aligning
advantageous when compared to hydrodynamic
4. Normal industrial use
lubrication during starting and stopping the journal
Codes:
D
in its bearing.
A B C D
Reason (R): In hydrodynamic lubrication, the fluid
(a) 2 3 1 4
film pressure is generated by the rotation of the
(b) 3 2 1 4
journal.
A
(c) 2 3 4 1
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
(d) 3 2 4 1 [ESE : 1997]
explanation of A
3.18 Match List-I (Machine element) with List-II (Cause (b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
M
Y
(c) 3 4 1 2
3.25 Which one of the following types of bearings is
(d) 4 3 2 1 [ESE : 1998]
employed in shafts of gear boxes of automobiles?
3.23 The shearing area of a key of length ‘l’ breadth ‘b’ (a) Hydrodynamic journal bearings
depth ‘h’ is equal to
S
(b) Multi lobed journal bearings
(a) b × h (b) L × h
(c) Antifriction bearings
h
(c) L × b (d) L × [ESE : 1998] (d) Hybrid journal bearings [ESE : 1999]
2
A
Answers Bearings, Shafts, Axles and Keys
3.1 (d) 3.2 (a) 3.3 (c) 3.4 (b) 3.5 (d) 3.6 (a) 3.7 (d) 3.8 (b)
3.9 (c) 3.10 (d) 3.11 (a)
E 3.12 (d) 3.13 (a) 3.14 (d) 3.15 (b) 3.16 (a)
3.17 (b) 3.18 (b) 3.19 (d) 3.20 (b) 3.21 (a) 3.22 (d) 3.23 (c) 3.24 (d)
3.25 (c)
3.4 (b)
the piston pin and the support length.
Journal is in floating condition with balanced force
Since the force is u.d.l. so bending moment the
created by hydrodynamic pressure.
pin fail is double shear near bosses ovalization
The load is perpendicular to the axis.
A
d
can be rectangular section. Due to load on the
valve, rocker arm is subjected to bending moment.
3.5 (d)
3.2 (a) Mixed Hydrodynamic
Boundary
lubrication lubrication lubrication
Axle supports rotating member therefore bending
stresses but not rotates itself.
Coefficient of friction
3.3 (c)
Wire shaft is also called Flexible shaft and it
transmit motion between shaft where it is not
possible to effect a rigid coupling between them.
(ZN/P)
Axle supports only revolving parts.
Bearing characteristic number
Design of Machine Elements 85
Y
3. Spalling: when a progressive failure pitting zn
or = bearing characterstic no.
reaches a certain stage, the metal between p
adjacent pits tends to be weakended and where = z = viscosity; n = speed
S
eventually breaks of this effect is known as p = bearing pressure
spalling.
3.13 (a)
4. Scuffing is a complex phenomenon of severe
P = T×ω
A
adhesive wear generated under particular
π
combinations including contact pressure, ∴ T= × τ × d3
16
lubrication, speed and friction. Scuffing
∴ Torque depends on torsional stress only.
E
involves the sudden collapse of the lubricant
film and is generally regarded as resulting from 3.14 (d)
thermal phenomena. Ball bearing - Light loads.
Tapered roller bearing - Carrying both radial and
3.7 (d)
thrust load.
E
Teflon Bearing : No external lubricant like oil Spherical roller bearing - Self aligning bearing
Carbon Bearing : High temperature application Needle roller bearing - Heavy load with oscillatory
Hydrodynamic : High load motion.
D
Bearing
Sleeve Bearing : Bushing 3.15 (b)
x = μR
3.8 (b)
A
Y
Splines are used when there is requirement of
relative axial motion between shaft and hub. The
3.24 (d)
gear shifting mechanism in automobile uses this
mechanism. In a single row deep grove ball bearing, cages
S
are needed to ensure that the balls do not cluster
3.20 (b) at one point and maintain proper relative angular
Key should be weakest member as it should fail portion.
first to give notice that torque has exceeded
A
hence to save the shaft and mechanical elements 3.25 (c)
mounted on it. Rolling contact bearings are also called anti
3.21 (a) friction bearing or simply ball bearing. It is
E employed in shaft of gear boxes of automobiles.
The correct option is (a) i.e., both A and R are
true and R is the correct explanation of (a)’ A.
Since in hydrodynamic lubrication the fluid
pressure is generated by the rotation of journal
therefore at starting and stopping of journal
E
4.1 The design of gear on account of Spott’s equation (a) 1 alone (b) 2, 3 and 4
Y
which account for dynamic load is based on (c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) contact stress based on Hertz theory [ESE : 1998]
(b) allowable stress based on maximum shear
4.3 Assertion (A): Shafts supporting helical gears
stress theory
must have only deep groove ball-bearings.
S
(c) distortion energy theory
Reason (R): Helical gears produce axial thrusts.
(d) Octahedral stress theory [ESE : 1998]
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
4.2 Consider the following characteristics: explanation of A
A
1. Small interference (b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
2. Strong tooth explanation of A
3. Low production cost (c) A is true but R is false
4. Gear with small number teeth (d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1999]
E
Those characteristics which are applicable to Stub
20° involute system would include
Answers Gears
Explanations Gears
It is based on contact stress based on Hertz Helical gears has three force component Ft, Fr,
theory. It arises when-there is point contact and Fa (Tangential, radial and axial) so deep groove
dynamic load is acting. ball bearing must be used as it can take radial
A
Y
working is equal to the stress due to (c) 10 (d) 22 [ESE : 1997]
(a) axial load plus stress due to bending
5.4 On the motors with low starting torque, the type
(b) acceleration/retardation of masses plus
of the clutch to be used is
stress due to bending
S
(a) multiple-plate clutch
(c) axial load plus stress due to acceleration/
(b) cone clutch
retardation
(c) centrifugal clutch
(d) bending plus stress due to acceleration/
(d) single-plate clutch with both sides effective
A
retardation [ESE : 1996]
[ESE : 1999]
5.2 Given that W = Weight of load handled,
5.5 Assertion (A): In case of friction clutches, uniform
Wr = Weight of rope and f = Acceleration, the
wear theory should be considered for power
E
additional load in ropes of a hoist during starting transmission calculation rather than the uniform
is given by pressure theory.
⎛ W − Wr ⎞ ⎛ W + Wr ⎞ Reason (R): The uniform pressure theory gives
(a) Fa = ⎜ f (b) Fa = ⎜ f
⎝ g ⎟⎠ ⎝ g ⎟⎠ a higher friction torque than the uniform wear
W theory.
Wr
(c) Fa = f
E
(d) Fa = f (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
g g explanation of A
[ESE : 1997]
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
5.3 In a multiple disc dutch, if there are 6 discs on the explanation of A
D
driving shaft and 5 discs on driven shaft, the number (c) A is true but R is false
of pairs of contact surfaces will be equal to (d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1999]
A
Y
buckling failure, the end conditions for the screw
are taken as P
S
(c) one end fixed and other end hinged h
(d) one end fixed and the other end free
[ESE : 1995]
A
6.2 The load cup of a screw jack is made separate
from the head of the spindle to
(a) enhance the load carrying capacity of the jack dr
E
(b) reduce the effort needed for lifting the working d
load
2F F
(c) reduce the value of frictional torque to be (a) πd h (b) πd h
r r
countered for lifting the load
(d) prevent the rotation of load being lifted 2F F
E
[ESE : 1995] (c) (d)
πdh πdh
6.3 To ensure self-locking in a screw jack it is essential [ESE : 1997]
that helix angle is
D
6.5 Consider the case of square threaded screw 6.8 Which of the following screw thread is adopted
loaded by a nut as shown in the given figure. The for power transmission in either direction?
value of the average shearing stress of the screw (a) Acme thread (b) Square thread
is given by (symbols have the usual meaning) (c) Buttress thread (d) Multiple thread
[ESE : 1999]
90 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
Y
r
2
6.2 (d) 2F
i.e., τ = πd h
There is provision to prevent rotation by making r
S
load cup separate from the head of the spindle.
6.6 (a)
6.3 (b) η of screw
φ > α [i.e. Friction Angle > Helix Angle]
A
tan φ ≥ tan α tan φ
∴ η=
tan(α + φ)
np
tan φ ≥
πd m ∴ for self locking φ ≥ α or α ≤ φ
E
tan φ 1 tan2 φ
6.4 (b) η≤ or −
tan(φ + φ) 2 2
Torque required to raise the load
T1 = WR tan(φ + α). ∴ From this expression η of self locking screw
is less than ½ or 50% if the η is more then
E
Torque required to lower load
T2 = WR tan(φ – α). 50% screw is said to be overhauling.
So maximum η is 50%
6.5 (c)
D
7.1 In the calculation of induced shear stress in the (b) direct shear stress only
Y
helical springs, the wahl correction factor is used (c) a combination of torsional shear stress and
to take of bending stress
(a) combined effect of transverse shear stress (d) a combination of bending stress and direct
and bending stress is wire shear stress
S
(b) combined effect of bending stress and [ESE : 1996]
curvature of wire 7.5 A long helical spring having a spring stiffness of
(c) combined effect of transverse shear stress 12 kN/m and number of turns 20, breaks into two
A
and curvature of wire parts then stiffness of the resultant spring will be
(d) combined effect of torsional shear stress & (a) 6 kN/m (b) 12 kN/m
transverse shear stress of wire (c) 24 kN/m (d) 30 kN/m
[ESE : 1995] [ESE : 1996]
E
7.2 A closely coiled helical spring is acted upon by 7.6 Wahl stress factor takes into account
axial force. The maximum shear stress developed (a) direct shear stress
in the spring is τ. Half of the length of spring is (b) torsional shear stress
cut off and the remaining spring is acted upon by (c) wire curvature effect
E
the same axial force. The maximum shear stress (d) direct shear and wire curvature effect
in the spring the new condition will be [ESE : 1997]
(a) 1/2 τ (b) τ
7.7 Two closed coil springs are made from the same
D
(c) 2τ (d) 4τ
small diameter wire, one wound on 2.5 cm
[ESE : 1995] diameter core and the other on 1.25 cm diameter
7.3 Given that core. If each spring had ‘n’ coils, then the ratio of
A
The stiffness of the close-coiled helical spring 7.8 A closed-coil helical spring is subjected to a
subject to an axial load W is equal to moment about its axis. The spring wire would
Gd 4 Gd 3 experience a
(a) (b) (a) bending stress
64R 3n 64R 3n
(b) direct tensile stress of uniform intensity at its
Gd 4 Gd 4
(c) (d) cross-section
32R 3n 64R 2n
(c) direct shear stress
[ESE : 1996]
(d) torsional shearing stress [ESE : 1998]
7.4 When a close coiled helical spring is subjected
7.9 A helical spring has N turns of coil of diameter D,
to a couple about its axis, the stress induced in
and a second spring, made of same wire diameter
the wire material of the spring is
and a same material, has N/2 turns of coil of
(a) bending stress only
92 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
diameter 2D. If the stiffness of the first spring (c) innermost fibres
is k, then the stiffness of the second spring will be (d) end coils [ESE : 1999]
(a) k/4 (b) k/2
7.11 If a compression coil spring is cut into two equal
(c) 2k (d) 4k [ESE : 1999]
parts and the parts are then used in parallel, the
7.10 The maximum shear stress occurs on the ratio of the spring rate to its initial value will be
outermost fibres of a circular shaft under torsion. (a) 1
In a close-coiled helical spring the maximum (b) 2
shear stress occurs on the (c) 4
(a) outermost fibres (d) Indeterminable for want of sufficient data
Y
(b) fibres at mean diameter [ESE : 1999]
Answers Helical Springs
S
7.1 (c) 7.2 (b) 7.3 (a) 7.4 (a) 7.5 (c) 7.6 (d) 7.7 (b) 7.8 (a) 7.9 (a)
7.10 (c) 7.11 (c)
A
Explanations Helical Springs
7.1 (c) δ =R ×θ
Resultant shear stress in wire where δ = Deflection of spring
E
8WD 4W TL
τ = τ1 + τ2 = + θC = angle of twist =
πd πd 2 3
GJ
Maximum shear stress in wire
TL
= Torsional shear stress + Direct shear stress ∴ δ=R × ...(i)
GJ
E
8WD 4W 8WD ⎛ d ⎞ Now T = W × R
= + = ⎜1 + ⎟
πd 3 πd 2 πd 3 ⎝ 2D ⎠ L = 2π Rn
4c − 1 0.615 π 4
τ = k × 8WD ,k = + J=d
πd
3 4c − 4
D
c 32
{to consider the effect of both direct shear as From equation ...(i)
well as curvature of the wire} W × R × 2πR × n 64WR 3n
or k = ks × kc δ=R× =
π 4 Gd 4
G×
A
W
∴ spring constant (k) =
⎛ 8WD ⎞ δ
Shear stress in helical spring = ks ⎜ where
⎝ πd 3 ⎟⎠ Gd 4
∴ k=
64R 3n
⎛ 0.5 ⎞
ks = shear stress correction factor = ⎜ 1 +
⎝ C ⎟⎠ 7.4 (a)
Hence shear stress is independent of the length
When twist is applied to closed helical spring,
of spring.
then only bending stresses are induced
7.3 (a)
7.5 (c)
The deflection of a close coil helical spring
subjected to axial force ‘W’ is Gd 4
k=
64R 3n
Design of Machine Elements 93
1 k2 n1 k2 20 k1 1
k∝ ⇒ = ∴ = ∴ =
n k1 n2 12 10 k2 8
∴ k2 = 24 kN/m
7.8 (a)
7.6 (d)
When a closed coil helical spring, fixed at one
Since the spring rod is bent into a curve, the shear end is subjected at the other end to a twisting
stress on the inner surface is more than the shear couple about the central axis of the spring,
stress developed on the outer surface. To take bending moment will be produced at all the cross-
into account the curvature effect. Wahl’s sections.
Y
correction factor may be applied and maximum
shear stress can be calculated as follows. 7.9 (a)
⎛ 16WR ⎞ Gd 4
τmax = KW ⎜⎝ ⎟ Stiffness; k =
S
πd 3 ⎠ 8D 3N
where KW is Wahl’s correction factor and is given Gd 4 k
Now k′ = =
by N 4
8(2D )3 ×
A
2
⎛ 4c − 1 0.615 ⎞
KW = ⎜⎝ +
4c − 4 c ⎟⎠ 7.11 (c)
where ‘c’ is the spring index When a spring is cut into two number of coils
E So stiffness of each spring becomes doubled
7.7 (b) when type are connected in parallel.
Gd 4
Spring constant : k = stiffness = 2k + 2k = 4k
8D 3n
1
∴ k∝
D3
E
k1 × (2.5)3 = k2 × (1.25)3
D
A
M
8 Miscellaneous
(Out of Syllabus from 2016)
8.1 Sources of power loss in a chain drive are given 8.4 In flat belt drive, if the slip between the driver
Y
below: and the belt is 1%, that between belt and follower
1. Friction between chain and sprocket teeth. is 3% and driver and follower pulley diameters
2. Overcoming the chain stiffness. are equal, then the velocity ratio of the drive will
3. Overcoming the friction in shaft bearing. be
S
4. Frictional resistance to the motion of the chain
(a) 0.99 (b) 0.98
in air or lubricant.
(c) 0.97 (d) 0.96
To correct sequence of descending order of power
[ESE : 1996]
loss due to these sources is
A
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 4, 3 8.5 When belt drive is transmitting maximum power
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3 (a) effective tension is equal to centrifugal tension
[ESE : 1995] (b) effective tension is half of centrifugal tension
E
8.2 Match List-I (Different type of detachable joints) (c) driving tension on slack side is equal to the
with List-II (Specific use of detachable Joints) and centrifugal tension
select the correct answer using the codes given (d) driving tension on tight side is twice the
below the lists:
centrifugal tension
List-I
[ESE : 1996]
E
A. Cotter joint
B. Knuckle joint 8.6 Assertion (A): It is desirable to increase the
C. Suspension Link joint length of arc over which the oil film has to be
D. Turn buckle (adjustable joint) maintained in a journal bearing.
D
bearing.
4. Cross head of a steam engine
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
Codes:
A B C D explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
M
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 3 2 1 explanation of A
(c) 3 2 1 4 (c) A is true but R is false
(d) 2 1 4 3 [ESE : 1995] (d) A is false but R is true
8.3 The power transmitted by a belt is dependent on [ESE : 1996]
the centrifugal effect in the belt. The maximum
8.7 If μ is the actual coefficient of friction in a belt
power can be transmitted when the centrifugal
moving in a grooved pulley, the groove angle
tension is
(a) 1/3 of tension (T1) on the tight side being 2α , the virtual coefficient of friction will
(b) 1/3 of total tension (Tt) on the tight side (a) μ/sin α (b) μ/cos α
(c) 1/3 of the tension (T2) on the slack side (c) μsin α (d) μcos α
(d) 1/3 of sum of tension T 1 and T 2 i.e., [ESE : 1997]
1/3(T1 + T2) [ESE : 1996]
Design of Machine Elements 95
8.8 In the case of a vertical belt pulley drive with TC (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
as centrifugal tension and T0 as the initial tension, [ESE : 1998]
the belt would tend to hang clear of the lower pulley
8.12 Centrifugal tension in belts is
when
(a) useful because it maintains some tension
(a) TC < T0 (b) TC = T0/3
even when no power is transmitted
(c) TC > T0 (d) TC = T0/2
(b) not harmful because it does not take part in
[ESE : 1997]
power transmission
8.9 Given that T1 and T2 are the tensions on the tight (c) harmful because it increases belt tension and
and slack of the belt respectively, the initial reduces the power transmitted
Y
tension of the belt taking centrifugal tension TC is (d) a hypothetical phenomenon and does not
equal to actually exist in belts [ESE : 1999]
T1 + T2 + TC T1 + T2 + 2TC
(a) (b) 8.13 Match List-I (Different types of detachable joints)
S
3 2
List-II (Specific use of these detachable joints)
T1 + T2 + 3TC T1 + T2 + 4TC
(c) (d) and select the correct answer using the codes
3 4 given below the lists:
[ESE : 1997]
A
List-I
8.10 When the shafts are neither parallel nor A. Cotter joint
intersecting, power can be transmitted by using B. Knuckle joint
(a) a pair of spur gears C. Suspension link joint
(b) a pair of helical gears
E D. Turn buckle (adjustable joint)
(c) an oldham coupling List-II
(d) a pair of spiral gears [ESE : 1998] 1. Tie rod of a wall crane
8.11 Which of the following stresses are associated 2. Suspension bridges
3. Diagonal stays in boiler
E
with design of pins in bushed pin-type flexible
coupling? 4. Cross-head of a steam engine
1. Bearing stress Codes:
2. Bending stress A B C D
D
Answers Miscellaneous
8.1 (a) 8.2 (a) 8.3 (b) 8.4 (d) 8.5 (d) 8.6 (a) 8.7 (a) 8.8 (c) 8.9 (b)
M
Explanations Miscellaneous
8.9 (b)
Y
(
P = (Ft1 − Fc )v 1 − e −μθ ) Ft1 = Fi + Fi − Ft2
dP
=0 (∵ Fe = mv2) 2Fi = Ft1 + Ft2
dV
S
Ft1 − 3mV 2 = 0 F1 + F2 + 2Fc T + T + 2Tc
Fi = == 1 2
Ft1 = 3Fc 2 2
A
Ft1 8.10 (d)
Fc =
3 Spiral gears — Non-parallel and non intersecting.
1
of total tension on tight side.
3
E 8.11 (d)
Stresses associated with design of bushed pin-
8.4 (d) type flexible coupling.
N2 d1 ⎡ S1 S2 ⎤ 1. Bearing stress
= ⎢1 − 100 − 100 ⎥
N1 d 2 ⎣ ⎦ 2. Bending stress
E
V2 S S 3. Compressive stress
⇒ = 1− 1 − 2 4. Transverse shear stress
V1 100 100
V2
D
1 3 8.12 (c)
⇒ = 1− − = 0.96
V1 100 100 Increase in centrifugal force is harmful as belt
tries to come out of the pulley and it also reduces
8.5 (d)
the power transmission.
A
Ft1 F1 + Fc
Fc = = ⇒ 3Fc = F1 + Fc 8.13 (a)
3 3
Cotter joint - cross head of steam engine
2Fc = F1
M
Y
Manufacturing Engineering
S
Syllabus
A
Metal casting-Metal forming, Metal Joining, Machining and machine tool operations, Limits, fits and tolerances,
Metrology and inspection, computer Integrated manufacturing and FMS.
E
E
Contents
D
1 Metal Casting
1.1 Assertion (A): Aluminium alloys are cast in hot 1. Dry silica sand
Y
chamber die casting machine. 2. Clay
Reason (R): Aluminium alloys require high 3. Phenol formaldehyde
melting when compared to zinc alloys. 4. Sodium silicate
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct Those used for shell mould casting include
S
explanation of A (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
explanation of A [ESE : 1996]
(c) A is true but R is false
A
1.5 Which of the following methods are used for
(d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1995] obtaining directional solidification for riser design?
1.2 Match List-I (Product) with List-II (Process of 1. Suitable placement of chills.
Manufacture) and select the correct answer using 2. Suitable placement of chaplets.
E 3. Employing padding.
the codes given below the lists:
List-I Which of these statements are correct?
A. Automobile piston in aluminium alloy (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
B. Engine crankshaft in spheroidal graphite iron (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, and 3
[ESE : 1996]
C. Carburettor housing in aluminium alloy
E
D. Cast titanium blades 1.6 Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to
List-II (a) very high pouring temperature of the metal.
1. Pressure die-casting (b) insufficient fluidity of the molten metal.
D
(b) 3 2 1 5
gypsum
(c) 2 1 3 4
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
[ESE : 1995]
[ESE : 1996]
1.3 Directional solidification in castings can be 1.8 Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
improved by using matched?
(a) chills and chaplets (a) Aluminium alloy piston ...Pressure die casting
(b) chills and padding (b) Jewellery ... Lost wax process
(c) chaplets and padding (c) Large pipes ... Centrifugal casting
(d) chills, chaplets and padding [ESE : 1995] (d) Large bells ... Loam moulding
1.4 Consider the following ingredients used in [ESE : 1997]
moulding
Manufacturing Engineering 99
1.9 If the melting ratio of a cupola is 10 : 1, then the (a) Sprue and riser (b) Ingate and riser
coke requirement for one ton melt will be (c) Drag and runner (d) Riser and runner
(a) 0.1 ton (b) 10 tons [ESE : 1998]
(c) 1 ton (d) 11 tons [ESE : 1997]
1.13 Which of the following are the requirements of an
1.10 Assertion (A): Steel can be melted in hot blast ideal gating system?
cupola. 1. The molten metal should enter the mould
Reason (R): In hot blast cupola, the flue gases cavity with as high a velocity as possible.
are used to preheat the air blast to the cupola so 2. It should facilitate complete filling of the
that the temperature in the furnace is considerably mould cavity.
Y
higher than that in a conventional cupola. 3. It should be able to prevent the absorption of
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct air or gases from the surroundings on the
explanation of A molten metal while flowing through it.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
S
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
explanation of A below:
(c) A is true but R is false (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1997] (c) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 [ESE : 1998]
A
1.11 Which one of the following refractory materials is 1.14 A spherical drop of molten metal of radius 2mm
recommended for steel furnaces containing CaO was found to solidify in 10 seconds. A similar
slag? drop of radius 4mm would solidify in
(a) Alumina (b) Silica
E (a) 14.14 second (b) 20 seconds
(c) Magnesia (d) Fireclay [ESE : 1997] (c) 18.30 second (d) 40 seconds
[ESE : 1998]
1.12 A sand casting mould assembly is shown in the
given figure. The elements marked A and B are 1.15 In solidification of metal during casting,
compensation for solid contraction is
E
respectively
A B (a) Provided by the oversize pattern
(b) Achieved by properly placed risers
(c) Obtained by promoting direction solidification
D
A
1.1 (d) 1.2 (a) 1.3 (b) 1.4 (c) 1.5 (b) 1.6 (b) 1.7 (a) 1.8 (a) 1.9 (a)
1.10 (a) 1.11 (b) 1.12 (a) 1.13 (c) 1.14 (d) 1.15 (a)
Y
2
1.7 (a) ⎛V ⎞
Solidification rate = ⎜ ⎟ × k [k = constant]
⎝ A⎠
Pit moulding is used for large job and in
investment casting wax is used and Plaster of 2
t1 ⎛ r1 ⎞
S
Paris or Gypsum (CaSO4 nH2O) is extensively t2 = ⎜⎝ r ⎟⎠
2
used in plaster mould casting.
⇒ t2 = (2)2 × 10 = 40 second
1.8 (a)
A
1.15 (a)
Gravity die casting is used to manufacturing of
aluminium alloy piston. In solidification of metal during casting,
compensation for solid contraction is (shrinkage
1.11 (b)
E allowance) is provided by the oversize pattern.
Silica is used refractory material.
1.12 (a)
A is sprue, it should be tapered down to take
E
into account the gain in velocity of the metal as
it flows reducing the air aspiration.
B is riser, it acts as a reservoir of molten metal is
to be maintained from which the metal can flow
D
Y
(Associated force) and select the correct answer (d) A is false but R is true
using the codes given below the lists: [ESE : 1997]
List-I List-II 2.5 A cup of 10 cm height and 5 cm diameter is to be
A. Wire drawing 1. Shear force made from a sheet metal of 2 mm thickness. The
S
B. Extrusion 2. Tensile force number of deductions necessary will be
C. Blanking 3. Compressive force (a) one (b) two
D. Bending 4. Spring back force
(c) three (d) four
A
Codes:
[ESE : 1997]
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 2.6 Which one of the following processes is most
(b) 2 1 3 4 commonly used for the forging of bolt heads of
(c) 2 3 1 4
E hexagonal shape?
(d) 4 3 2 1 (a) Closed die drop forging
[ESE : 1996] (b) Open die upset forging
(c) Close die press forging
2.2 In wire drawing process, the bright shining surface
(d) Open die progressive forging
on the wire is obtained if one
E
[ESE : 1998]
(a) not using a lubricant
(b) low tooling cost 2.7 The bending force required for V-bending,
(c) uses thick paste lubricant U-bending and Edge-bending will be in the ratio
D
forging?
(a) Good surface finish 2.8 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(b) Low tooling cost answer using the codes given below the lists:
(c) Close tolerance
M
List-I
(d) Improved physical property
A. Drawing
[ESE : 1996]
B. Rolling
2.4 Assertion (A): In drop forging besides the C. Wire drawing
provision for flash, provision is also to be made D. Sheet metal operations using progressive
in the forging die for additional space called gutter. dies
Reason (R): The gutter helps to restrict the List-II
outward flow of metal thereby helping to fill thin 1. Soap solution
ribs and bases in the upper die. 2. Camber
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
3. Pilots
explanation of A
4. Crater
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
5. Ironing
explanation of A
102 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
Y
whose diameter is equal to the bolt diameter 3. Material properties
1. Flattening 2. Upsetting 4. blank holding
3. Swaging 4. Cambering Which of these statements are correct?
S
The correct sequence of these operations is (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4 [ESE : 1999]
[ESE : 1999]
A
2.13 Assertion (A): In sheet metal blanking operation,
2.10 Which one of the following is the correct clearance must be given to the die.
temperature range for hot extrusion of aluminium? Reason (R): The blank should be of required
(a) 300 – 340°C (b) 350 – 400°C dimensions.
(c) 430 – 480°C (d) 550 – 650°C
E (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
[ESE : 1999] explanation of A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
2.11 Assertion (A): In a two high rolling mill there is a explanation of A
limit to the possible reduction in thickness in one (c) A is true but R is false
E
pass. (d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1999]
Reason (R): The reduction possible in the second
pass is less than that in the first pass.
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
D
explanation of A
2.1 (c) 2.2 (d) 2.3 (d) 2.4 (c) 2.5 (c) 2.6 (c) 2.7 (a) 2.8 (d) 2.9 (a)
2.10 (c) 2.11 (b) 2.12 (b) 2.13 (d)
Y
Craters: are shallow depressions.
the raising or lowering the upper roll. The positions
2.9 (a) of the lower roll is fixed, both the rolls rotate in the
opposite direction to one another. Their direction
The correct sequence of these operations is:
S
of the rotation is fixed and cannot be reversed.
→ Flattening
Thus the work can be rolled by feeding from one
→ Upsetting direction only.
→ Swaging
A
2.12 (b)
→ Cambering
Earing: In drawing the edges of cups may
2.10 (c) become wavy this phenomenon is called as the
earing. The earing condition is caused by the
E
The temperature of the metals in the die are as
planar anisotropy of the sheet.
follows:
(a) 325 to 425°C for Mg 2.13 (d)
(b) 425 to 480°C for Al In the sheet metal blanking operation, clearance
(c) 650 to 900°C for Cu Alloys must be given to the punch.
E
(d) 1100 to 1250°C for Steel
(e) 200 to 250°C for lead
D
A
M
3 Joining/Welding
Y
MIG welding process uses generator for arc welding is a straight line between
1. consumable electrode an open-circuit voltage of 80 V and short-circuit
2. non-consumable electrode current of 300 A. The generator settings for
3. D.C. power supply maximum arc power will be
S
4. A.C. power supply (a) 80 V & 150 A (b) 40 V & 300 A
Which of these statements are correct? (c) 40 V & 150 A (d) 80 V & 300 A
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 [ESE : 1998]
A
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 [ESE : 1997]
3.5 Which of the following joining processes are best
3.2 Assertion (A): The electrodes of AC arc welding suited for manufacturing pipes to carry gas
are coated with sodium silicate, whereas products?
electrodes used for DC arc welding are coated 1. Riveting 2. Welding
E
with potassium silicate binders. 3. Bolts and nuts
Reason (R): Potassium has a lower ionisation Select the correct answer using the codes given
potential than sodium. below:
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
explanation of A (c) 2 alone (d) 1, 2 and 3
E
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct [ESE : 1998]
explanation of A
3.6 In oxy-acetylene gas welding, for complete
(c) A is true but R is false
combustion, the volume of oxygen required per
D
Answers Joining/Welding
3.1 (d) 3.2 (d) 3.3 (c) 3.4 (c) 3.5 (c) 3.6 (d) 3.7 (d)
Manufacturing Engineering 105
Explanations Joining/Welding
3.1 (d)
⎧ 80 ⎫
Metal inert gas arc welding or more appropriately ∴ V = ⎨80 − I ⎬ volt
⎩ 300 ⎭
called as gas metal arc welding utilizes a
consumable electrode. Normally DC arc welding ⎛ 80 ⎞
P = V I = ⎜ 80 − I⎟ I
machines are used for MIG with electrode ⎝ 300 ⎠
positive. For maximum power;
3.2 (d) dP 80
Y
= 80 − × 2I = 0
The electrodes of AC arc welding are coated with dI 300
potassium silicate binder. It is so because an ∴ I = 150 A and V = 40 V
AC arc must reignite itself when it crosses zero
S
current instant energy 0.01 sec. Reignition 3.5 (c)
require high voltage than normal arc voltage. The
Joining process depends upon type of service
process of reignition if facilitated by presence of
required and welding gives permanent nature of
ions having lower ionization potential and
A
joint and strength being equal to or sometimes
potassium has lower ionization potential. greater than that of parent metal makes welding
one of the most extensively used fabrication
3.3 (c)
method. Leakage is very less in welding.
AR - Reinforcement
E
Ap - Penetration 3.6 (d)
Ap
Dilution = C2H2 + 5 / 2O2 → 2CO2 + H2 O
Ap + AR
1 mole C2H2 requires 2.5 moles of O2
E
AR
B 3.7 (d)
Weldibality signifies the ability of the metal to
D
3.4 (c)
In case of Al main problem is removal of oxide
The voltage-length characteristics of D.C. current
layer, so high costly welding techniques are used.
are is given by
M
4 Machining and Machine
Tool Operation
Directions: The following items consists of two (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Y
statements; one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
other as ‘Reason (R)’
(R)’. You are to examine these two [ESE : 1995]
statements carefully and select the answers to these
4.6 The straight grades of cemented carbide cutting
items using the codes given below:
tool materials contain
S
Codes:
(a) tungsten carbide only
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct (b) tungsten carbide and titanium carbide
explanation of A (c) tungsten carbide and cobalt
A
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct (d) tungsten carbide and coal carbide
explanation of A [ESE : 1995]
(c) A is true but R is false
4.7 Crater wear is predominant in
(d) A is false but R is true
E (a) carbon steel tools
4.1 Assertion (A): Non-ferrous materials are best (b) tungsten carbide tools
machined with diamond tools. (c) high speed steel tools
Reason (R): Diamond tools are suitable for high (d) ceramic tools [ESE : 1995]
speed machining. [ESE : 1995] 4.8 Consider the following work materials:
E
4.2 Assertion (A): A chip breaker is employed to 1. Titanium 2. Mild steel
improve the machinability of brass. 3. Stainless steel 4. Grey cast iron
Reason (R): A chip breaker facilitates the curling The correct sequence of these materials in terms
D
4.11 Assertion (A): Up milling or climb is commonly (b) decreasing the centre distance of bull gear
used for machining castings and forgings. and crank pin.
Reason (R): Up milling can be done on universal (c) increasing the length of the ram.
milling machines. (d) decreasing length of the slot in the slotted
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct lever. [ESE : 1995]
explanation of A
4.17 While cutting helical gears on a non-differential
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
gear hobber, the feed change gear ratio is
explanation of A
(a) independent of index change gear ratio
(c) A is true but R is false
(b) dependent on speed change gear ratio
Y
(d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1995]
(c) interrelated to index change gear ratio
4.12 In a milling operation two side milling cutters are (d) independent of speed and index change gear
mounted with a desired distance between them ratio [ESE : 1995]
S
so that both sides of a work piece can be milled 4.18 Match List-I (Task) with List-II (Recommendation)
simultaneously. This setup is called and select the correct answer using the codes
(a) gang milling (b) straddle milling given below the lists:
(c) string milling (d) side milling List-I
A
[ESE : 1995] A. Three components in a straight line should
worked in one loading
4.13 In the grinding wheel of A60 G7 B 23, B stands
B. Unloading of clamp element from jig is
for
(a) resinoid bond (b) rubber bond
E essential
C. Clamping of rough surface
(c) shellac bond (d) silicate bond
D. Need for heavy clamping force
[ESE : 1995]
List-II
4.14 Soft material cannot be economically grounded 1. Clamp with a floating pad
E
due to 2. Quick action nut
(a) the high temperature involved 3. Cam clamp
(b) frequent wheel clogging 4. Equalising clamp
(c) rapid wheel wear 5. Strap clamp
D
(b) 4 2 1 5
in a specific order with suitable indexing. (c) 1 4 2 3
Reason (R): A turret is a multiple tool holder to (d) 4 1 5 3 [ESE : 1995]
facilitate machining with each tool by indexing
4.19 If the diameter of the hole is subject to
M
4.21 A machinist desires to turn a round steel stock of 4.25 Specific energy requirements in a grinding process
outside diameter 100 mm at 1000 rpm. The are more than those in turning for the same metal
material has tensile strength of 75 kg/mm2. The removal rate because of the
depth of cut chosen is 3 mm at a feed rate of (a) specific pressures between wheel and work
0.3 mm/rev. Which one of the following tool being high.
materials will be suitable for machining the (b) size effect of the larger contact areas between
component under the specified cutting wheel and work.
conditions? (c) high cutting velocities.
(a) Sintered carbides (b) Ceramic (d) high heat produced during grinding.
(c) HSS (d) Diamond [ESE : 1996]
Y
[ESE : 1996]
4.26 A Grinding wheel of 150 mm diameter is rotating
4.22 Which of the following indicate better at 3000 r.m.p. The grinding speed is
machinability? (a) 7.5π m/s (b) 15π m/s
S
1. Smaller shear angle (c) 45π m/s (d) 450π m/s
2. Higher cutting forces [ESE : 1996]
3. Longer tool life
4.27 Grinding wheel is said to be loaded when the
A
4. Better surface finish
(a) Metal particles get embedded in the wheel
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
surface blocking the interspaces between
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
cutting grains.
[ESE : 1996]
E (b) bonding material comes on the surface and
4.23 Which of the following forces are measured the wheel becomes blunt.
directly by strain gauges or force dynamometers (c) work piece being ground comes to a stop in
during metal cutting? cylindrical grinding.
1. Force exerted by the tool on the chip acting (d) grinding wheel stops because of very large
E
normally to the tool face. depth of cut. [ESE : 1996]
2. Horizontal cutting force exerted by the tool
4.28 Which of the following statements are correct?
on the work piece.
1. A boring machine is suitable for a job shop
D
4.30 Gear cutting on a milling machine using an 4.35 Which of the following is/are the advantage(s) of
involute profile cutter is a numerical control of machine tools?
(a) gear forming process. 1. Reduced lead time
(b) gear generating process. 2. Consistently good quality
(c) gear shaping process. 3. Elaborate Fixtures are not required
(d) highly accurate gear producing process. Select the correct answer using the codes given
[ESE : 1996] below:
Codes:
4.31 For the manufacture of full depth spur gear by
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
hobbing process, the number of teeth to be
Y
(c) 1 alone (d) 1 and 3
cut = 30, module = 3 mm and pressure angle = 20°.
[ESE : 1996]
The radial depth of cut to be employed should be
equal to 4.36 In orthogonal cutting, the depth of cut is 0.5 mm
S
(a) 3.75 mm at a cutting speed of 2 m/s. If the chip thickness
(b) 4.50 mm is 0.75 mm, the velocity is
(c) 6.00 mm (a) 1.33 m/s (b) 2 m/s
(d) 6.75 mm (c) 2/5 m/s (d) 3 m/s [ESE : 1997]
A
[ESE : 1996]
4.37 Consider the following elements
4.32 Assertion (A): Special purpose machine tools can 1. Nose radius 2. Cutting speed
do special types of machining work automatically. 3. Depth of cut 4. Feed
E
Reason (R): Vertical boring machine is an The correct sequence of these elements in
example of special purpose machine tool. DECREASING order of their influence on tool life
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct is
explanation of A (a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 4, 2, 3, 1
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
E
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 4, 2, 1, 3
explanation of A [ESE : 1997]
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true 4.38 The rake angle in a twist drill
D
[ESE : 1996] (a) varies from minimum near the dead centre to
a maximum value at the periphery.
4.33 Internal gears can be made by
(b) is maximum at the dead centre and zero at
(a) hobbing
the periphery.
A
(b) gear shaping with rack cutter (c) is constant at every point of the cutting edge.
(c) gear shaping with pinion cutter (d) is a function of the size of the chisel edge.
(d) gang milling [ESE : 1997]
[ESE : 1996]
M
4.40 Assertion (A): Ceramic tools are used only for (a) 2, 3, 4, 1 (b) 3, 2, 4, 1
light, smooth and continuous cuts at high speeds. (c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 3, 2, 1, 4
Reason (R): Ceramics have a high wear [ESE : 1997]
resistance and high temperature resistance.
4.45 Which of the following motions are not needed for
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
spur gear cutting with a hob?
explanation of A
1. Rotary motion of hob.
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
2. Linear axial reciprocatory motion of hob?
explanation of A
3. Rotary motion of gear blank.
(c) A is true but R is false
4. Radial advancement of hob.
(d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1997]
Y
Select the correct answer using the codes given
4.41 Consider the following statements: below:
In Up milling process, (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
1. the cutter starts the cut from the machined (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
S
surface and proceeds upwards. [ESE : 1997]
2. the cutter starts the cut from the top surface
4.46 Match List-I (Gear component) with List-II
and proceeds downwards
(Preferred method of manufacturing) and select
A
3. the job is fed in a direction opposite to that of
the correct answer using the codes given below
cutter rotation.
the lists:
4. the job is fed in the same direction as that of
List-I
cutter rotation.
A. Gear for clocks
Which of these statements are correct?
E
B. Bakelite gears
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
C. Aluminium gears
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 [ESE : 1997]
D. Automobile transmission gears
4.42 Which one of the following materials is used as List-II
the bonding material for grinding wheels? 1. Hobbing
E
5. Extrusion
4.43 Which of the following are the advantages of a
Codes:
hydraulic shaper over a mechanically driven
A B C D
shaper?
(a) 2 3 5 1
A
4. Cutting speed is constant throughout most 4.47 Assertion (A): In a slow speed high pressure
of the cutting stroke. metal cutting process such as gear cutting,
Select the correct answer using the codes given chlorinated or sulphonated oils are used.
below: Reason (R): Reduction of coefficient of friction
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 is achieved by the formation of a solid film at the
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 rubbing interface of tool and chip.
[ESE : 1997] (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
4.44 Consider the following operations:
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
1. Under cutting 2. Plain turning
explanation of A
3. Taper turning 4. Thread cutting
(c) A is true but R is false
The correct sequence of these operations in
(d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1997]
machining a product is:
Manufacturing Engineering 111
Production Rate
Variables Cost,
of tool edge takes place because Variables Cost
1. Flank wear is only marginal
2. Flank wear is large Production Rate
3. Temperature of tool increase gradually
4. Temperature of tool increase drastically
1 2 34 5
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 Cutting Speed
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 5
Y
[ESE : 1998]
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 5 [ESE : 1998]
4.49 In metal cutting operation, the approximate ratio
4.53 Consider the following criteria in evaluating
heat distributed among chip, tool and work, in
machinability
S
that order is 1. Surface finish
(a) 80 : 10 : 10 2. Type of chips
(b) 33 : 33 : 33 3. Tool life
A
(c) 20 : 60 : 10 4. Power consumption
(d) 10 : 10 : 80 In modern high speed CNC machining with coated
[ESE : 1998] carbide tools, the correct sequence of these
criteria in DECREASING order of their importance is
E
4.50 Poor machinability of centrifugally cast iron pipe
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
is due to
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4
(a) Chilling
[ESE : 1998]
(b) Segregation
(c) Dense structure 4.54 Which one of the following pairs of parameters
E
(d) High mould rotation speed [ESE : 1998] and effects is not correctly matched?
(a) Large wheel diameter ... Reduced wheel wear
4.51 On a lathe, the actual machining time required
(b) Large depth of cut ... Increased wheel wear
per work piece is 30 minutes. Two types of carbide
D
Type-II : Throw away tip (square) of original cost 4.55 The gauge factor of a resistive pick-up of cutting
Rs. 70/- force dynamometer is defined as the ratio of
If the overall cost of grinding the cutting edge is (a) Applied strain to the resistance of the wire
(b) The proportional change in resistance to the
Rs. 10/-, assuming all the costs are the same for
M
applied strain
both the types, for break even costs, the
(c) The resistance to the applied strain
appropriate batch size would be
(d) Change in resistance to the applied strain
(a) 2 pieces (b) 4 pieces
[ESE : 1998]
(c) 6 pieces (d) 8 pieces
[ESE : 1998] 4.56 A 400 mm long shaft has a 100 mm tapered step
at the middle with 4° included angle. The tailstock
4.52 The variable cost and production rate of a
offset required to produce this taper on a lathe
machining rate of a machining process against
would be
cutting speed are shown in the given figure. for (a) 400 sin 4° (b) 400 sin 2°
efficient machining the range of best cutting (c) 100 sin 4° (d) 100 sin 2°
speed would be between [ESE : 1998]
112 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
4.57 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 4.60 Which one of the following sets of forces are
answer using the codes given below the lists: encountered by a lathe parting tool while groove
List-I cutting?
A. Reaming (a) Tangential, radial and axial
B. Counter-boring (b) Tangential and radial
C. Counter-sinking (c) Tangential and axial
D. Spot facing (d) Radial and axial
List-II [ESE : 1999]
1. Smoothing and squaring surface around the 4.61 In a single-point turning operation of steel with a
Y
hole for proper seating cemented carbide tool, Taylor’s tool life exponent
2. Sizing and finishing the hole is 0.25. If the cutting speed is halved, the tool life
3. Enlarging the end of the hole will increase by
4. Making a conical enlargement at the end of
S
(a) Two times (b) Four times
the hole (c) Eight times (d) Sixteen times
Codes: [ESE : 1999]
A B C D
A
(a) 3 2 4 1 4.62 Consider the following approaches normally
(b) 2 3 1 4 applied for the economic analysis of machining
1. Maximum productions rate
(c) 3 2 1 4
2. Maximum profit criterion
(d) 2 3 4 1
E 3. Minimum cost criterion
[ESE : 1998]
The correct sequence in ascending order of
4.58 A component requires a hole which must be within optimum cutting speed obtained by these
the two limits of 25.03 and 25.04 mm diameter. approaches is:
Which of the following statement about the reamer (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3, 2
E
D. K – 50
4.59 Assertion (A): Internal gears are cut on a gear
List-II
shaper. 1. Non-ferrous, roughing cut
Reason (R): Hobbing is not suitable for cutting 2. Non-ferrous, finishing cut
internal gear. 3. Ferrous material, roughing cut
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct 4. Ferrous material, finishing cut
explanation of A Codes:
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct A B C D
explanation of A (a) 4 3 1 2
(c) A is true but R is false (b) 3 4 2 1
(d) A is false but R is true (c) 4 3 2 1
[ESE : 1998] (d) 3 4 1 2 [ESE : 1999]
Manufacturing Engineering 113
4.64 Consider the following statements: 4.69 Match List-I (Drill bits) with List-II (Applications)
For precision machining of non-ferrous alloys, and select the correct answer using the codes
diamond is preferred because it has: given below the lists:
1. Low coefficient of thermal expansion List-I
2. High wear resistance A. Core drill
3. High compression strength B. Reamer
C. Counter bore drill
4. Low fracture toughness
D. Tap drill
Which of these statements are correct?
List-II
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
1. To enlarge a hole to a certain depth so as to
Y
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
accommodate the bolt head of a screw
[ESE : 1999] 2. To drill & enlarge an already existing hole in a
4.65 In turning operation, the feed could be doubled casting
3. To drill a hole before making internal thread
S
to increase the metal removal rate. To keep the
4. To improve the surface finish and dimensional
same level of surface finish, the nose radius of
accuracy of the already drilled hole
the tool should be
Codes:
(a) Halved
A
A B C D
(b) Kept unchanged
(a) 1 3 2 4
(c) Doubled
(b) 2 3 1 4
(d) Made four times (c) 2 4 1 3
E
[ESE : 1999] (d) 3 2 4 1 [ESE : 1999]
4.66 The radial force in single-point tool during turning 4.70 Which one of the following processes results in
operation varies between the best accuracy of the hole made?
(a) 0.2 to 0.4 time the main cutting force (a) Drilling (b) Reaming
(b) 0.4 to 0.6 times the main cutting force (c) Broaching (d) Boring [ESE : 1999]
E
(c) 0.6 to 0.8 times the main cutting force 4.71 Consider the following statements regarding
(d) 0.5 to 0.6 times the main cutting force reaming process:
[ESE : 1999] 1. reaming generally produces a hole larger than
D
4.67 A straight teeth slab milling cutter of 100 mm its own diameter
2. Generally rake angels are not provided on
diameter and 10 teeth rotating at 200 rpm is used
reamers.
to remove a layer of 3 mm thickness from a steel
3. Even numbers of teeth are preferred in reamer
A
4.73 Diamond pin location is used in a fixture because Reason (R): 3 – 2 – 1 principle should be adopted
(a) It does not wear out to locate the job.
(b) It takes care of any variation in centre distance (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
between two holes explanation of A
(c) It is easy to clamp the part on diamond pins (b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(d) It is easy to manufacture [ESE : 1999] explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
4.74 Assertion (A): Spherical washers are used to
(d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1999]
locate the job in the fixtures.
Y
Answers Machining and Machine Tool Operation
4.1 (b) 4.2 (d) 4.3 (c) 4.4 (a) 4.5 (c) 4.6 (c) 4.7 (b) 4.8 (a) 4.9 (b)
S
4.10 (c) 4.11 (d) 4.12 (b) 4.13 (a) 4.14 (b) 4.15 (b) 4.16 (a) 4.17 (c) 4.18 (d)
4.19 (a) 4.20 (b) 4.21 (b) 4.22 (d) 4.23 (b) 4.24 (d) 4.25 (b) 4.26 (a) 4.27 (a)
4.28 (a) 4.29 (d) 4.30 (b) 4.31 (d) 4.32 (b) 4.33 (c) 4.34 (c) 4.35 (a) 4.36 (a)
A
4.37 (a) 4.38 (a) 4.39 (b) 4.40 (b) 4.41 (a) 4.42 (b) 4.43 (c) 4.44 (a) 4.45 (a)
4.46 (a) 4.47 (a) 4.48 (d) 4.49 (a) 4.50 (c) 4.51 (a) 4.52 (c) 4.53 (c) 4.54 (c)
4.55 (b) 4.56 (b) 4.57 (d) 4.58 (b) 4.59 (b) 4.60 (a) 4.61 (d) 4.62 (c) 4.63 (c)
E
4.64 (a) 4.65 (d) 4.66 (a) 4.67 (a) 4.68 (c) 4.69 (c) 4.70 (b) 4.71 (b) 4.72 (c)
4.73 (b) 4.74 (d)
Diamond tools have low tool-chip friction, high Lip angle is defined as the angle between the
D
wear resistance and ability to maintain a sharp face and flank of the tool.
cutting edge and are used for high speed
machining of non ferrous material (Al, Cu, brass face
of bronze or where silicon content is more). Non
A
Y
Tungsten 4.13 (a)
Straight tungsten Alloyed tungsten
A 60 G 7 B 23
carbide carbide
(powder Alloyed tungsten 1 2 3 4 5 6
S
metallurgy) carbide has 1. Abrasive type A – aluminium oxide,
addition of carbide C – Silicon carbide
of titanium and
2. Abrasive grain size, 60 – Medium
niobium etc.
A
(85–97 tungsten 3. Grade A (Soft) - to z (hard)
carbide) + cobalt 4. Structure 1 (Dense) to 16 (Open)
(5– 15%) which 5. Bond type B-Resinoid, R-Rubber,
acts as bonding E- Shellac, S-Silicate
agent
E 6. Manufacturer’s record
4.14 (b)
4.7 (b)
Soft material can not be economically grinded
Tungsten carbide tool: because when the
because ductile nature (small chips produced
E
interface temperature is high then the carbides
and get clogged in between randomly oriented
disintegrate (wc → w + c) and carbon diffuses
teeth).
to the softer matrix of machining part, this
D
Tangential force because power consumption is longitudinal travel of head stock or of a quite
Fc.V (cutting force × cutting velocity). carrying the rotating work spindle.
The main characteristic of turret lathe is 6-sided
4.10 (c)
M
Y
Locator: Application.
which makes it run faster while returning and Conical locator: These are used to locate a work
slower while cutting. The size of shaper is given piece which is cylindrical and with or without a
by maximum length of stroke or ram movement. hole.
S
Size varying from 175 to 900 mm stroke. Cylindrical locator: In these, the locating
The length of stroke can be increased by diameter of the pin is made a push fit with the
increasing the centre distance of bull gear and hole in the workpiece.
A
crank pin. Diamond pin locator: These are used to
constrain the pivoting of the workpiece around
4.17 (c)
the principal location
Helical teeth are to be cut, the axis of hob can V -locator: These are used, in circular and
E semicircular profile.
be set over at an angle to produce the proper
helix. The hob axis is set at angle equal to helix
4.20 (b)
angle of thread in reference to the axis of gear
blank. This brings the blank teeth in the plane of According to Colding’s equation:
hob’s teeth. This plane is termed as generating Engaged cutting edge length
E
q=
plane. The cutter finishes all the teeth in one pass Plan area of cut
over the work. [d − rn (1 − sin γ s )]
Work table and hob have to rotate in definite [cos γ s + (π / 2 − γ s )rn + f / 2]
=
D
Y
grinding of soft and ductile materials. A loaded.
Good machinability indicates good surface finish grinding wheel cannot cut properly. Such a
and integrity, long tool life, low force and power grinding wheel can be cleared and sharpened
requirement and easy collection of chips that
S
by means of process called dressing.
does not interfere with the cutting operations.
4.28 (a)
4.23 (b)
JIG Boring Machines
Machines: These are precision
A
boring machines having precision spindles and
FH N
slides. These are used for machining drilling,
A boring of precision components as well as for
Fv
E making tools and dies for press work and
B machining of components for jigs and fixtures
r etc. The machines are generally equipped with
high precision optical scales for motion
The tangential force and axial component along
measurement of every slide. For high accuracy
the tool is measured. For any cutting process it
E
the machines should be kept in a clean and
is desirable to measure the three force
temperature controlled (air- conditioned)
components in a set of rectangular coordinates.
environment.
While measuring these three forces, the
Vertical precision boring are used to machine
D
Y
4.34 (c) ‘r’ being the radius of the point on the cutting
Indexing Jigs and Fixtures are used when holes edge where the normal rake is being evaluated.
or slots are to be machined to some specific
relationship, in a work piece. 4.39 (b)
S
The relief is provided to side and end flanks in
4.35 (a)
order to minimize physical interference or rubbing
Numerical control has following advantages over contact with the machined surface of workpiece.
A
conventional method of machines control:
It is prescribed to use smaller relief angle when
1. Flexibility of operation is improved, as well
either the tool material is brittle or workpiece has
as the ability to produce compex shapes with
high tensile strength or both because small relief
good dimensional accuracy, good
E do not weaken cutting edge.
repeatability, reduced scrap loss, high
Increased relief angle provide a cleaner cut and
production rates, high productivity, and high
reducing the friction at the flank causing reduction
product quality.
in cutting force.
2. Tooling costs are reduced, because
E
templates and other fixtures are not 4.40 (b)
required
required. Ceramic tools are used only for light smooth and
3. More operation can be performed with each continuous cut at high speed because they are
D
setup, and the lead time for setup and brittle and have poor shock resistance. Since
machining required is less
less, as compared to they contain pure aluminium oxide (97%) and
conventional method. carbides they are very hard and have good
resistance to abrasion wear and cratering. The
A
4.36 (a) main problem with ceramic tools are their low
Volume of metal removal. strength, poor thermal characteristic and their
4.41 (a)
V1b1t1 = V2 ⋅ b2 ⋅ t2 (mm3 / s) b1 = b2
∵ no side flow Machined surface
Up milling
t1 2 × 0.5
V2 = V1 ⋅ = = 1.33 m/s
t2 0.75
Y
temperature at the flanks also go on increasing
4.43 (c)
with time.
Hydraulic mechanism are becoming increasingly
Constant rate Rapid wear
popular because of the following advantages: wear region
S
Initial C
A
during operation
(d) Velocity diagram of hydraulically operated
shaper-shows a very nearly constant velocity
0 Time
as compared with the crank shaper
E
A stage is reached when diffusion becomes the
Forward stroke
predominant wear mode on the flank. After a
critical wear land has formed, further wear takes
Velocity
Displacement
place at an accelerating rate.
E
4.49 (a)
Return stroke
Maximum heat is carried away by chip, tool and
In one stroke it moves at low speed and in
workpiece share almost equal heat i.e., 10% each
D
Y
than the latter. The area lying in between these
two values of cutting speeds is knows as “High [Strength of the material]
Efficiency Range” (Hi-E Range) and the cutting where, v – Velocity of work piece
speeds lying in this range are either economical d – Depth of cut
S
or more productive. For efficient and economical V – Speed/velocity of grinding wheel
production of a workpiece the cutting speed D – Diameter of grinding wheel
should always be selected from within the range The higher the force, the greater the tendency
A
only. for the grains to fracture or be dislodged from
the wheel surface, and the higher the wheel wear
and the lower the grinding ratio.
Total time per piece
We note that the grain force increases with the
E strength of the work piece material, work speed
minimum and depth of cut, and decreases with increasing
time Tool changing time
Total time per piece
4.56 (b)
Vmp B
d1 d2 – d1
D
Cutting speed d2 α
C A 2l
l
A
production
AB
Hi-E pieces per
S = AB sin α = L sin α
M
α
4.53 (c)
The main criteria of using CNC machine is to
achieve closer dimensional tolerance (Better
surface finish most important criteria) Surface
finish > Type of chip > Tool life > Power ⎛ α⎞ ⎛ α⎞ D −d
sin ⎜ ⎟ = tan ⎜ ⎟ =
consumption. ⎝ 2⎠ ⎝ 2⎠ 2l
Manufacturing Engineering 121
(D − d ) 4.61 (d)
S =L
2l n n
1 1 = V2T2
VT
This is most general situation where taper is to V 0.25
be limited and as such this method is suitable VT 0.25 =
2
T2 [2]4 ⋅ T = T2
for small taper over a long length. The
T2 = 16T
disadvantage is that the centres would not be
properly bearing in the centre hole and as such T = Tool life increased by sixteen times.
there would be nonuniform wearing.
4.62 (c)
Y
D −d At the cutting speed for minimum cost, the
S =L×
2l production rate may be too low to maximize profit
rate while at the cutting speed for maximum
⎛ α⎞ D − d
sin ⎜ ⎟ = production rate, the cost of production may be
S
⎝ 2⎠ 2l
too high and hence profit margin is too low
∴ S = 400 sin2° Vopmincost < Vopmaxprofit < Vop max prodution
A
4.57 (d)
4.63 (c)
Reaming: It is operation of sizing and finishing
a already existing hole. A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1
Counter -boring : The hole is enlarged with a
Counter-boring P-10 Ferrous material finishing cut
E P-50 Ferrous material, roughening
flat bottom to provide a proper seating for bolt
head or nut. K-10 Non ferrous, finishing cut
Countersinking: Similar to counter boring K-50 Non ferrous, roughening cut
additional machining done on a hole is conical
4.64 (a)
E
to accommodate the counter sink machine screw
head. Diamond has lowest thermal expansions (12%
Spot facing: Similar to counter boring but that of steel) High heat conductivity (2 times that
removes very small portion of material. of steel) very low coefficient of friction against
D
Y
fT = feed/tooth; Z = Number of teeth
reamer is specified by diameter measured
N = RPM
across two margins, at the cutting edge on
∴ 400 = fT × 10 × 200
diametrical line. Number of flutes is usually even.
400
S
⇒ fT = = 0.2 mm
2000 4.73 (b)
4.69 (c) Diamond pin location is used in fixture because
Tap drill: These are used for enlarging and it takes care of any variation in centre distance
A
correcting the location of previously made holes between two holes.
as their cutting edges do not extend upto the
centre. 4.74 (d)
E
Flat drill: It is preferred for drilling soft material Spherical washers are used to locate the job in
such as brass, as it will not feed itself into the the jigs not in fixtures 3–2–1 principle is used to
material more quickly than is desired. locate the job. So only statement 2 is correct.
E
D
A
M
5 Metrology and Inspection
5.1 Match List-I (Measuring Device) with List-II 3. Measurement of gear pitch
Y
(Parameter Measured) and select the correct 4. Joining hydraulic piston rods for agricultural
answer using the codes given below the lists: machinery
List-I 5. Measurement of very small displacements
A. Diffraction grating Codes:
S
B. Optical flat A B C D
C. Auto collimators (a) 5 4 2 1
D. Laser scan micrometer (b) 3 5 1 2
List-II (c) 3 5 4 1
A
1. Small angular deviations on long flat surfaces. (d) 5 4 1 2 [ESE : 1998]
2. Online measurement of moving parts
Answers Metrology and Inspection
E
5.1 (b)
5.1 (b)
E
M
6 NC, CNC, DNC, APT, Automation
6.1 Match List-I (A function connected with NC m/c 6.5 Which of the following pairs are correctly
tool) with List-II (Associated parameter) and matched?
Y
select the correct answer using the codes given 1. CNC machine ... Post processor
below the lists: 2. Machining centre .... Tool magazine
List-I List-II 3. DNC ... FMS
A. Interpolation 1. Tape preparation Select the correct answer using the code given
S
B. Parity check 2. Canned cycle below :
C. Preparatory function 3. Drilling (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
D. Point to point control 4. Contouring (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
A
5. Turning [ESE : 1996]
Codes:
A B C D 6.6 Assertion (A): Numerically controlled machines
(a) 4 1 2 3 having more than three axes do not exist.
(b) 4 1 2 5
E Reason (R): There are only three cartesian
(c) 5 1 3 2 coordinates namely x-y-z.
(d) 1 4 3 2 [ESE : 1995] (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
6.2 Consider the following characteristics of
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
E
production jobs
explanation of A
1. Processing of parts frequently in small lots.
(c) A is true but R is false
2. Need to accommodate design changes of
(d) A is false but R is true
products.
D
[ESE : 1996]
3. Low rate of metal removal.
4. Need for holding close tolerances. 6.7 Match List-I (Track numbers on paper tape) with
The characteristics which favour the choice of List-II (Holes on those tracks represent) and select
A
numerically controlled machines would include the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3, and the lists:
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 1, 2, and 4 List-I List-II
[ESE : 1995] A. Track No. 1 to 4 1. Alphabets
M
6.3 In APT language, the cutter motion in incremental B. Track No. 5 2. Numerals
coordinate mode is addressed as C. Track No. 6 & 7 3. End of block
(a) GO/TO/..... (b) GO/TO.... D. Track No. 8 4. Block number
(c) GO DLTA/.... (d) GO FWD/.... 5. Parity check
[ESE : 1995] Codes:
A B C D
6.4 In manual programming and tape preparation for
(a) 2 5 1 3
a NC drilling machine, the spindle speed was
(b) 1 4 2 5
coded as S 684 (using the magic-three code).
(c) 2 4 1 3
The spindle speed in rpm will be
(d) 1 5 2 3
(a) 684 (b) 68.4
[ESE : 1997]
(c) 840 (d) 6840 [ESE : 1996]
Manufacturing Engineering 125
6.8 Which of the following are valid statements for Select the correct answer using the codes given
point to point motion of the tool in APT language? below:
1. GO TO/............ (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
2. GO DLTA/........ (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 alone
3. GO/TO,............ [ESE : 1998]
Select the correct answer using the codes given
6.11 Transfer machines can be defined as
below:
(a) Material processing machines
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(b) Material handling machines
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Material processing and material handling
Y
[ESE : 1997]
machines
6.9 In tape preparation for an NC machine tool the (d) Component feeders for automatic assembly
code S 624 would represent spindle speeds of [ESE : 1999]
S
(a) 624 rpm, 240 rpm and 2346 rpm
6.12 Consider the following statements regarding
(b) 624 rpm and 240 rpm
numerically controlled machine tools
(c) 624 rpm and 246 rpm
1. They reduce non-productive time
(d) 240 rpm and 246 rpm
A
2. They reduce fixturing
[ESE : 1998]
3. They reduce maintenance cost
6.10 Which of the following are the rules of Which of these statements are correct?
programming NC machine tools in APT language? (a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 1 and 2
1. Only capital letters are used
E (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
2. A period is placed at the end of each [ESE : 1999]
statement
3. Insertion of space does not affect the APT
word.
E
6.1 (a) 6.2 (d) 6.3 (c) 6.4 (a) 6.5 (a) 6.6 (b) 6.7 (a) 6.8 (a) 6.9 (d)
D
Y
2. Rotary indexing tables
GO DLTA/dx, dy, dz
3. Overhead conveyors.
This is an incremental instruction used to make
movement of the tool in specified direction from
current position.
S
A
E
E
D
A
M
7 Non-conventional
Machining Process
7.1 Which one of the following processes does not 7.3 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
cause tool wear? answer using the codes given below the lists:
Y
(a) Ultrasonic machining List-I
(b) Electrochemical machining A. Die sinking
(c) Electric discharge machining B. Deburring
S
(d) Anode mechanical machining [ESE : 1997] C. Fine hole drilling (thin materials)
D. Cutting/sharpening hard materials
7.2 Match List-I (Machining process) with List-II
(Associated medium) and select the correct List-II
1. Abrasive jet machining
A
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II 2. Laser beam machining
A. Ultrasonic 1. Kerosene 3. EDM
machining 4. Ultrasonic machining
5. Electrochemical grinding
B. EDM
E
2. Abrasive slurry
C. ECM 3. Vacuum Codes:
D. EBM 4. Salt solution A B C D
Codes: (a) 3 5 4 1
A B C D (b) 2 4 1 3
(a) 2 3 4 1 (c) 3 1 2 5
E
Y
manufactured by powder metallurgy methods? (c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4
1. Carbide tool tips 2. Bearings [ESE : 1999]
3. Filters 4. brake linings
8.4 Assertion (A): In atomization process of
Select the correct answer using the codes given
manufacture of metal powder, the molten metal is
S
below:
forced through a small orifice and broken up by a
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
stream of compressed air.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Reason (R): The metallic powder obtained by
[ESE : 1997]
A
atomization process is quite resistant to oxidation.
8.2 In powder metallurgy, the operation carried out to (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
improve the bearing property of a bush is called explanation of A
(a) Infiltration (b) Impregnation (b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(c) Plating
E
(d) Heat treatment explanation of A
[ESE : 1998] (c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1999]
8.3 Consider the following processes for the
manufacture of gears 8.5 The correct sequence of the given processes in
E
1. Casting manufacturing by powder metallurgy is
2. Powder metallurgy (a) Blending, compacting, sintering and sizing
3. Machining from bar stock (b) Blending, compacting, sizing and sintering
4. Closed die forging (c) Compacting, sizing, blending and sintering
D
The correct sequence in increasing order of (d) Compacting, blending, sizing and sintering
bending strength of gear teeth is [ESE : 1999]
A
8.1 (d) 8.2 (b) 8.3 (a) 8.4 (c) 8.5 (a)
M
Y
S
A
E
E
D
A
M
UNIT
VI
Y
Industrial Engineering
S
and Maintenance Engg.
Syllabus
A
Production planning and Control, Inventory control and operations research - CPM-PERT. Failure concepts and
E
characteristics-Reliability, Failure analysis, Machine Vibration, Data acquisition, Fault Detection, Vibration Monitoring,
Field Balancing of Rotors, Noise Monitoring, Wear and Debris Analysis, Signature Analysis, NDT Techniques in
Condition Monitoring.
E
Contents
Sl. | Topic | Page No.
D
1 Forecasting
1.1 Which one of the following methods can be used (a) T and C (b) R and S
Y
for forecasting the sales potential of a new (c) T, C and S (d) T, C, S and R
product? [ESE : 1997]
(a) Time series analysis
1.3 A company intends to use exponential smoothing
(b) Jury of Executive Opinion method
S
technique for making a forecast for one of its
(c) Sales Force Composite method
products. The previous year’s forecast has been
(d) Direct Survey method
78 units and the actual demand for the
[ESE : 1995]
corresponding period turned out to be 73 units. If
A
1.2 Given the value of the smoothening constant α is 0.2,
T = underlying trend the forecast for the next period will be:
C = cyclic variations within the trend (a) 73 units (b) 75 units
E
S = seasonal variation within the trend and (c) 77 units (d) 78 units
R = residual, remaining or random variation, as [ESE : 1999]
per the time series analysis of sales forecasting,
the demand will be a function of:
Answers Forecasting
E
2.1 Consider the following factors: 3. Simulation can be used for inventory control.
Y
1. Adequate incentive 4. EOQ (Economic Order Quantity) formula
2. Ease of administration ignores variations in demand pattern.
3. Flexibility Which of these statements is/are correct?
4. Guaranteed basic pay (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
S
5. Higher wages (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
6. Simplicity [ESE : 1995]
Among these, the factors which are to be
considered while developing a good wage 2.6 In inventory control theory, the Economic Order
A
incentive plan would include Quantity (EOQ) is
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (a) average level of inventory
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 6 (d) 1, 2, 5 and 6 (b) optimum lot size
E
[ESE : 1995] (c) lot size corresponding to break-even analysis
(d) capacity of a warehouse
2.2 Production cost refers to prime cost plus
[ESE : 1995]
(a) factory overheads
(b) factory and administration overheads 2.7 Given that E = Earnings, R = Rate per hour,
(c) factory, administration and sales overheads T = worked in hours, S = Standard time on the
E
(d) factory, administration and sales overheads basis of date in hours. Rowan wage incentive plan is:
and profit
S −T ⎞
[ESE : 1995] (a) E = RT + ⎛⎜
⎝ S ⎟⎠
D
⎛ S −T ⎞
(a) 300 (b) 460 (d) E = RT + ⎜ RT
⎝ S ⎟⎠
(c) 500 (d) 10000
[ESE : 1995] [ESE : 1996]
M
2.4 Classifying items in A, B and C categories for 2.8 Given that, θ = procurement cost per order,
selective control in inventory management is done D = number of units demanded per year,
by arranging items in the decreasing order of
H = holding cost per unit year, i = rate of interest,
(a) total inventory costs
p = purchase price per unit. The procurement
(b) item value
quantity per order (Q) is given by
(c) annual usage value
(d) item demand 2.θ.D 2.θ.D
(a) Q = (b) Q =
[ESE : 1995] H + iP iH + P
2.9 Two alternative methods can produce a product (a) Rs. 75 (b) Rs. 87
first method has a fixed cost of Rs. 2000/- and (c) Rs. 57 (d) Rs. 55
variable cost of Rs. 20/- piece. The second method [ESE : 1997]
has fixed cost of Rs. 1500/- and a variable cost
2.12 Process I requires 20 units of fixed cost and
of Rs. 30/-. The break even quantity between the
3 units of variable costs per piece, while
two alternatives is:
process II required 50 units of fixed costs and
(a) 25 (b) 50
1 unit of variable cost per piece. For a company
(c) 75 (d) 100 producing 10 pieces per day:
[ESE : 1996] (a) Process I should be chosen
Y
2.10 Consider the data given in the following table: (b) Process II should be chosen
(c) Either of the two processes should be chosen
Production Plan (d) A combination of the process I and process
Period Demand Regular Overtime Others II should be chosen
S
Prod. Prod. [ESE : 1997]
1 500 500 –– –– 2.13 Annual demand for a product costing Rs. 100
2 650 650 –– –– per piece is 900. Ordering cost per order is
A
3 800 650 150 –– Rs. 100 and inventory holding cost is Rs. 2 per
4 900 650 150 ? unit per year. The economic lot size is
(a) 200 (b) 300
Give the fact that production in regular and
(c) 400 (d) 500
E
overtime is limited to 650 and 150 respectively,
[ESE : 1997]
the balance demand of 100 units in the 4th period
can be met by: 2.14 Based on the given graph, the economic range
(a) Using overtime in period 2 of batch sizes to be preferred for general purpose
(b) Using regular production in period 1 machine (GP), NC machine (NC) and special
E
(c) Subcontracting purpose (SP) will be:
(d) Using any of the steps indicated in (A), (B) GP NC
and (C) SP
D
[ESE : 1997]
Manufacturing
2
ultramodern sports shoe. They can use a fully
automatic robot-controlled plant with an 3 5
Y
O and the order quantity is 400. Number of
V
components A per product is only one. The
VOLUME REQUIRED
manufacturer should place the order for:
S
(a) 400 components in week-1
(b) 400 components in week-3
Buy a , b Make
(c) 200 components in week-1 and 200
(a) 1 and 2 3 and 4
A
components in week-3
(b) 1 and 3 2 and 4
(d) 400 components in week-5 [ESE : 1999]
(c) 2 and 4 1 and 3
(d) 1 and 4 2 and 3 [ESE : 1998] 2.18 A dealer sells a radio set at Rs. 900 and makes
2.16 Which of the following cost elements are
E 80% profit on his investment. If he can sell it at
considered while determining the Economic Lot Rs. 200 more, his profit as percentage of
Size for purchase? investment will be:
1. Inventory carrying cost (a) 160 (b) 180
2. Procurement cost (c) 100 (d) 120 [ESE : 1999]
E
2.1 (c) 2.2 (a) 2.3 (c) 2.4 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.6 (b) 2.7 (d) 2.8 (c) 2.9 (b)
2.10 (b) 2.11 (*) 2.12 (a) 2.13 (b) 2.14 (b) 2.15 (a) 2.16 (b) 2.17 (b) 2.18 (d)
2.19 (c)
Industrial Engineering and Maintenance Engineering 135
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⎛ S −T ⎞
E = RT + ⎜ RT
Prime cost = Direct material cost + Direct labour ⎝ S ⎟⎠
cost + direct expenses
2.8 (c)
Production cost = Prime cost + factory overhead
S
Procurement quantity per order will be the EOQ =
2.3 (c) 2θD
CF + CVx = Cpx H + ip
∴ x=
(CP
CF
− CV )
A 2.9 (b)
2000 + 20x = 1500 + 30x
5000 5000
E 30x – 20x = 2000 – 1500
= = = 500 10 x = 500
(30 − 20) 10
∴ x = 50
where
CF = fixed cost 2.10 (b)
E
Variable cost In the 4th period since regular production is
CV = limited to 650 and overtime is limited to 150, the
Product
balance demand of 100 units in the 4th period
Sales cost
CP = can be met by using regular production in
D
Product
period 1.
2.4 (c)
∵ Demand is only 500 but production capacity
in regular period can be increased to 600 to meet
A
the demand.
90
2.11 ( *)
80
Percentage Value
2.12 (a)
The manufacture should place the order for 400
For process I: CF + CVx = 20 + 3 × 10=50
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component in week-3.
Process II: CF + CVx = 50 + 1 × 10 = 60
∵ Total cost for process I is less than II 2.18 (d)
∴ Process I is chosen C.P. × Profit
S
S.P. = C.P. +
2.13 (b) 100
A
i = Inventory carring cost per unit per year S.P if he sells at 200 more = 900 + 200 = 1100
2 × A × C0 1100 − 500
EOQ = = 2 × 900 × 100 = 300 ∴ Profit (in %) = × 100 = 120%
i 500
2
E
2.16 (b) 2.19 (c)
Following cost elements are considered while Inventory carrying costs are:
determining the economic lot size (i) Invested capital cost
1. Inventory carrying cost (ii) Record keeping and administrative cost
E
cost
(vi) Purchase price or production costs
(vii) Taxes and insurance costs
A
M
3 Linear Programming
3.1 Which one of the following subroutines does a (c) Artificial variable
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computer implementations linear programming by (d) Basis [ESE : 1998]
the simplex method use?
3.4 In the solution of a linear programming problem
(a) Finding a root of a polynomial
by simplex method, if during an iteration, all ratios
(b) Finding the determinant of a matrix
of right-hand side bi to the coefficients of entering
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(c) Finding the Eigen values of a matrix
variable a are found to be negative, it implies that
(d) Solving a system of linear equations
the problem has:
[ESE : 1996]
(a) Infinite number of solutions
A
3.2 Consider the following linear programming (b) Infeasible solution
problem: (c) Degeneracy
Max. Z = 2A + 3B, subject to A + B < 10, 4A + (d) Unbound solution [ESE : 1999]
6B < 30, 2A + B < 17, A, B > 0
E 3.5 Consider the following statements regarding the
What can one say about the solution? characteristics of the standard form of a linear
(a) It may contain alternative optima programming problem:
(b) The solution will be unbounded 1. All the constraints are expressed in the form
(c) The solution will be degenerate of equations.
(d) It cannot be solved by simplex method
E
2. The right-hand side of each constraint
[ESE : 1997]
equation is non-negative.
3.3 A variable which has no physical meaning, but is 3. All the decision variables are non-negative.
used to obtain an initial basic feasible solution to Which of these statements are correct?
D
the linear programming problem is referred to as: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(a) Basic variable (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 [ESE : 1999]
(b) Non-basic variable
A
3.1 (d) 3.2 (a) 3.3 (c) 3.4 (d) 3.5 (a)
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3.1 (d) A B
2A + B ≤ 17 + ≤1
Simplex method is used to solve a system of linear 8.5 17
A, B ≥ 0
equations.
3.2 (a) 2A + B = 17
A + B = 10
Z = 2A + 3B
A B
A + B ≤ 10 + ≤1 4A
10 10 +6
B
A B =3
4A + 6B ≤ 30 + ≤1 0
7.5 5
Z(7.5,0) = 15
Z(0,5) = 15
138 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
Y
All ratio of right hand side to the coefficients of
entering variable are found to be negative. It
implies that the problem has unbounded solution.
S
A
E
E
D
A
M
4 PERT and CPM
4.1 Which of the following are the guidelines for the (a) zero (b) 34%
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construction of a network diagram? (c) 50% (d) 84% [ESE : 1997]
1. Each activity is represented by one and only
4.5 The variance (V1) for critical path
one arrow in the network
2. Two activities can be identified by the same a → b = 4 time units, b → c = 16 time units,
c → d = 4 time units, d → e = 1 time unit.
S
beginning and end events
3. Dangling must be avoided in a network The standard deviation of the critical path a → e
diagram is:
4. Dummy activity consumes no time or resource (a) 3 (b) 4
A
Select the correct answer the codes given below: (c) 5 (d) 6 [ESE : 1997]
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
4.6 Estimated time TC and variance of the activities
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
‘V’ on the critical path in a PERT network are given
[ESE : 1996]
E
in the following table:
4.2 In the network shown below the critical path is
along: Activity TC (days) V (days)
5 a 17 4
3
4 5 b 15 4
E
3 4 g 8 1
1 2 D1 D2 8 9
The probability of completing the project in 43 days
2 6
is:
D
5 6 7
3 4 (a) 15.6% (b) 50.0%
(a) 1–2–3–4–8–9 (b) 1–2–3–5–6–7–8–9 (c) 81.4% (d) 90.0% [ESE : 1998]
(c) 1–2–3–4–7–8–9 (d) 1–2–5–6–7–8–9
4.7 The earliest occurrence time for event ‘1’ is 8
A
[ESE : 1996]
weeks and the latest occurrence time for event
4.3 Assertion (A): Generally PERT is preferred over
CPM for the purpose of project evaluation. ‘1’ is 26 weeks. The earliest occurrence time for
Reason (R): PERT is based on the approach of event ‘2’ is 32 weeks and the latest occurrence
M
multiple time estimates for each activity. time for event ‘2’ is 37 weeks. If the activity time
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct is 11 weeks, then the total float will be:
explanation of A (a) 11 (b) 13
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct (c) 18 (d) 24 [ESE : 1998]
explanation of A
4.8 Time estimates of an activity in a PERT network
(c) A is true but R is false
are:
(d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1996]
Optimistic time t0 = 9 days; pessimistic time
4.4 In a PERT network, expected project duration is tp = 21 days and most likely time tm = 15 days.
found to be 36 days from the start of the project. The approximates probability of completion of this
The variance is four days. The probability that activity in 13 days is:
the project will be completed in 36 days is: (a) 16% (b) 34%
(c) 50% (d) 84% [ESE : 1999]
140 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
4.1 (b) 4.2 (b) 4.3 (a) 4.4 (c) 4.5 (c) 4.6 (c) 4.7 (c) 4.8 (a)
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(ii) No two activity can be identified by the PERT – Event Oriented
same end events. 4.4 (c)
(iii) In order to ensure the correct precedence Standard deviation (s.d):
relationship in the arrow diagram, following
var = 4 =2
S
question must be checked whenever any
activity is added to network. X − X 36 − 36
Z= = =0
(a) What activity must be completed σ 2
P(0) = 0.5
A
immediately before this activity can
start? ∴ the probability that the project will be completed
(b) What activity must follow this activity? in 36 days is 50%
(c) What activity must occur simultaneously
4.5 (c)
with this activity?
E
4.2 (b) Standard deviation of critical path a → e is
7 7 12 15 = 4 + 16 + 4 + 1 = 25 = 5
5
3 4 5 20 20 24 24 4.6 (c)
4 4
E
8 9
1
3 D1 D2 S.d = 4 + 4 + 1= 3
2
0 0 3 3
6 X − X 43 − 40
2 Z= = =1
5
3
6 4
7 σ 3
D
10 10 14 14 P(1) = 0.8413
7 7
4.7 (c)
TF = LST = EST
Ei Ej Li Lj
A
2−5 2 3 5 7 2
4−8 5 12 15 20 3 Ei = 8
5−6 3 7 7 10 0
6−7 4 10 10 14 0 dij = 11
7−8 6 14 14 20 0
T.F = 37 – 8 – 11 = 18
8−9 4 20 20 24 0
4−7 0 12 14 14 2
3−5 0 7 7 7 0
4.8 (a)
Therefore critical path t0 + 4tm + tp 9 + (4 × 15) + 21
te xpected = = = 15
1–2–3–4–5–6–7–8–9 6 6
and total project duration (b − a) 21 − 9
= 3 + 4 + 3 + 4 + 6 + 4 = 24 S.D = = =2
6 6
x − x 13 − 15
4.3 (a) Z= = = −1
σ 2
Project management has evolved two analytical p(–1) = 0.1586 0.16
technique for planning, scheduling and controlling
5 Queuing Theory
5.1 Assertion (A): In a queueing model, the 5.4 In a single server queue customers are served at
Y
assumption of exponential distribution with only a rate of µ. If W and Wq represent the mean waiting
one parameter family for service times is found time in the system and mean waiting time in the
to be unduly restrictive. queue respectively, then W will be equal to
R e a s o n ( R ) : This is partly because the (a) Wq – µ (b) Wq + µ
S
exponential distribution has the property that (c) Wq + 1/µ (d) Wq – 1/µ
smaller service times are inherently less probable [ESE : 1997]
than large service time.
5.5 For a M/M/1 : ∞/FCFS queue, the mean arrival
A
(a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
rate is equal to 10 per hour and the mean service
explanation of A
rate is 15 per hour. The expected queue length is
(b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(a) 1.33 (b) 1.53
explanation of A
E (c) 2.75 (d) 3.20
(c) A is true but R is false
[ESE : 1998]
(d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1995]
5.6 An operations consultant for an automatic car wash
5.2 If the arrival rate of units is l and the service rate
wishes to plan for enough capacity to handle
is µ for a waiting line system having ‘m’ number 60 cars per hour. Each car will have wash time to
E
of service stations, then the probability of a 2 minutes, but there is to be a 20% allowance for
service unit being turned out in time interval setup, delays and payment transactions. The
(t, t + Δt) is installation capacity of car wash stalls should be:
D
5.3 Consider two queueing disciplines in a single customers at a counter in a ready-made garment
server queue. Case 1 has a first come first served store is 4 min. The average time of the counter
discipline and case 2 has a last come first served clerk to serve the customer is 3 min. The arrivals
discipline. If the average waiting times in the two are distributed as per Poisson distribution and
M
cases are W1 and W2 respectively, then which the services are as per the exponential
one of the following inferences would be true? distribution. The probability that a customer
(a) W1 > W2 arriving at the counter will have to wait, is:
(b) W1 < W2 (a) Zero (b) 0.25
(c) W1 = W2 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.75 [ESE : 1999]
(d) Data insufficient to draw any tangible
inference [ESE : 1997]
5.1 (c) 5.2 (a) 5.3 (c) 5.4 (c) 5.5 (a) 5.6 (a) 5.7 (d)
142 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
Y
5.4 (c) Time required to wash one car is
2 × 1.2 = 2.4 mins. Number of cars washed in
LS 1⎛ ρ ⎞
W= = ⎜ 1 hr in 1 stall
λ ⎝ 1 − ρ⎠⎟
S
λ
60
= = 25
Lq 1⎛ ρ ⎞ 2 2.4
=
λ ⎜⎝ 1 − ρ ⎟⎠
Wq =
A
λ
60
∴ Number of stalls = = 2.4 3
25
Ls Lq + ρ Lq ρ
∵ W= = = +
λ λ λ λ
E 5.7 (d)
Lq λ Lq 1 60
= + = + λ = Number of arrivals/hour = = 15
λ μ×λ λ μ 4
μ = Number of customers serviced/hour
1
E
= Wq +
μ =
60
= 20
3
5.5 (a) Probability that customer will have to wait
D
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6.1 Which of the following charts are used for plant Reason (R): The work to be performed on the
layout design? product is the determining factor in the positioning
1. Operation process chart of the manufacturing equipment in product layout.
S
2. Man machine chart (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
3. Correlation chart explanation of A
4. Travel chart (b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
A
Select the correct answer using the codes given explanation of A
below: (c) A is true but R is false
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1995]
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
E
[ESE : 1995]
6.6 Which of the following are the principles of material
handling?
6.2 In manufacturing management, the term 1. Keep all handling to the minimum.
“Dispatching” is used to describe 2. Move as few pieces as possible in one unit.
(a) dispatch of sales order 3. Move the heaviest weight to the least
(b) dispatch of factory mail
E
distance.
(c) dispatch of finished product to the user
4. Select only efficient handling equipment.
(d) dispatch of work orders through shop floor
Select the correct answer using the codes given
[ESE : 1995]
below:
D
6.3 Which of the following factors are to be considered (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
for production scheduling? (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
1. Sales forecast 2. Component design [ESE : 1996]
A
6.9 Match List-I (Type of Products) with List-II (Type 6.12 There are two machines M1 and M2 which process
of layout) and select the correct answer using the jobs A , B , C , D , E and F . The processing
codes given below the lists: sequence for these jobs is M1 followed by M2.
List-I Consider the following data in this regard:
A. Ball bearings Process time required in minutes
B. Tools and gauges Jobs A B C D E F
C. Large boilers M1 4 7 3 12 11 9
D. Motor cycle assembly M2 11 7 10 8 10 13
List-II
The processing sequence of jobs that would
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1. Process layout
minimize the make span is:
2. Product layout
(a) C-A-B-F-E-D (b) C-A-B-D-E-F
3. Combination of product and process layout
(c) C-A-D-B-F-E (d) E-F-D-B-A-C
4. Fixed position layout
S
[ESE : 1997]
Codes:
6.13 Match List-I (Methods) with List-II (Problems) and
A B C D
select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) 1 3 4 2
A
below the lists:
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 1 2 4 3 List-I
(d) 3 1 2 4 [ESE : 1996] A. Moving average
B. Line balancing
E
6.10 Consider the following sets of tasks to complete C. Economic batch size
the assembly of an engineering component: D. Johnson algorithm
Task Time (in seconds) Precedence List-II
1. Assembly
a 10 ––
2. Purchase
E
b 20 ––
3. Forecasting
c 15 a
4. Sequencing
d 5 b
Codes:
D
e 30 c
A B C D
f 15 e
(a) 1 3 2 4
g 5 d
(b) 1 3 4 2
A
3. It smoothens the production flow. 6.18 Which of the following correctly explains process
4. It maintains the required rate of output. capability?
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) Maximum capacity of the machine
below: (b) Mean value of the measured variable
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) Lead time of the process
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 (d) Maximum deviation of the measured variables
[ESE : 1998] of the components [ESE : 1998]
6.16 The characteristic life-cycle of a product consists 6.19 Which one of the following statements is correct
of four periods. The rate of consumption increases in relation to production, planning and control?
Y
rapidly at the beginning of the: (a) Expediting initiates the execution of
(a) Incubation period (b) Growth period production plans, whereas despatching
(c) Maturity period (d) Decline period maintains them and sees them through to their
[ESE : 1998] successful completion
S
(b) Despatching initiates the execution of
6.17 Which of the following input data are needed for
production plans, whereas expediting
MRP?
maintains them and sees them through to their
1. Master production schedule
A
successful completion
2. Inventory position
(c) Both despatching and expediting initiate the
3. Machine capacity
execution of production plans
4. Bill of materials
(d) Both despatching and expediting maintain the
E
Select the correct answer using the codes given
production plans and see them through to
below:
their successful completion [ESE : 1999]
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
[ESE : 1998]
E
Answers Scheduling, Line Balancing, Product Development, MRP, Process Planning and Control Plant Layout
6.1 (b) 6.2 (d) 6.3 (d) 6.4 (a) 6.5 (a) 6.6 (b) 6.7 (b) 6.8 (d) 6.9 (c)
D
6.10 (a) 6.11 (d) 6.12 (a) 6.13 (d) 6.14 (a) 6.15 (c) 6.16 (b) 6.17 (c) 6.18 (d)
6.19 (b)
Explanations Scheduling, Line Balancing, Product Development, MRP, Process Planning and Control Plant Layout
A
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2. It smoothens the production flow.
has product layout. Tools and gauges are not mass
3. Itt maintains the required rate of output.
manufactured and need a lot of variations, process
layout is used. For ball bearing a combination of 6.16 (b)
S
product and process layout is used.
6.10 (a) III
Total work content IV
nmin = II
Cycle time
A
Sales volume
Where total work content, and profit
I
= 10 + 20 + 15 + 5 + 30 + 15 + 5 Sales volume
= 100
Profit
Time = Largest station time
E
100
∴ nmin = = 3.3 ≈ 4 Time
30 I. Introduction stage
II. Growth stage rate of consumption increases
6.11 (d)
rapidly.
E
A production line is said to be balanced when the III. Maturity stage
operation time at each station is the same. IV
IV.. Declining stage
6.12 (a) 6.17 (c)
D
7.1 Match L i s t - I (OR technique) with L i s t - I I Reason (R): VAM heuristic gives an approximate
Y
(Application) and select the correct answer using solution. It is checked for optimality test. If it is
the codes given below the lists: optimal, the algorithm stops there. If it is not an
List-I optimal solution, then improved solutions are
A. Linear programming found out through very few iterations till optimality
S
B. Transportation is reached.
C. Assignment (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
D. Queueing explanation of A
List-II (b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
A
1. Warehouse location decision explanation of A
2. Machine allocation decision (c) A is true but R is false
3. Product mix decision (d) A is false but R is true [ESE : 1996]
4. Project management decision
E 7.5 When there are ‘m’ rows and ‘n’ columns in a
5. Number of servers decision
transportation problem, degeneracy is said to
Codes:
occur when the number of allocations is
A B C D
(a) Less than (m + n – 1)
(a) 1 2 3 5
(b) Greater than (m + n –1)
E
(b) 3 1 2 5
(c) Equal to (m – n – 1)
(c) 1 3 4 5
(d) less than (m – n – 1) [ESE : 1997]
(d) 3 2 1 4 [ESE : 1995]
7.6 Match List-I (Methods) with List-II (Applications)
D
7.7 In a transportation problem, the materials are Select the correct answer using the codes given
transported from 3 plants to 5 warehouses. The below:
basic feasible solution must contain exactly, which (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
one of the following allocated cells? (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
(a) 3 (b) 5 [ESE : 1998]
(c) 7 (d) 8 [ESE : 1998]
7.9 In a transportation problem North-West corner rule
7.8 The assignment algorithm is applicable to which would yield:
of the following combined situations for the (a) An optimum solution
purpose of improving productivity? (b) An initial feasible solution
Y
1. Identification of the sales force-market. (c) A Vogel’s approximate solution
2. Scheduling of operator-machine. (d) A minimum cost solution [ESE : 1999]
3. Fixing machine-location
S
Answers Transportation and Assignment
7.1 (b) 7.2 (b) 7.3 (b) 7.4 (a) 7.5 (a) 7.6 (b) 7.7 (c) 7.8 (c) 7.9 (b)
7.1 (b)
8.1 In time study, the rating factor is applied to (d) Analysis of standard date system
Y
determine [ESE : 1996]
(a) standard time of a job
8.5 Procedure of modifying work content to given
(b) merit rating of the worker
more meaning and enjoyment to the job by
(c) fixation of incentive rate
involving employees in planning, organization and
S
(d) normal time of job [ESE : 1995]
control of their work, is termed as:
8.2 Work study is mainly aimed at (a) Job enlargement (b) Job enrichment
(a) determining the most efficient method of (c) Job rotation (d) Job evaluation
A
performing a job [ESE : 1996]
(b) establishing the minimum time of completion
8.6 Consider the following conditions:
of job
(c) developing the standard method and 1. Minimum wages should be guaranteed
standard time of a job
E 2. Providing incentive to group efficiency
(d) economizing the motions involved on the part performance
of the worker while performing a job. 3. A differential price rate should exist
[ESE : 1995] 4. All standards should be based on optimum
standard of production
E
8.3 Match List-I (Object) with List-II (Tool) and select Those essential for an incentive plan include
the correct answer: (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
List-I (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 [ESE : 1996]
A. Improving utilization of supervisory staff
D
B. Improving plant layout 8.7 Match List-I (Topic) with List-II (Method of solving)
C. Improving work place layout and select the correct answer using the codes
D. Improving highly repetitive hand movements given below the lists:
List-II List-I
A
4. Chronocyclegraph
Codes: List-II
A B C D 1. North-West corner method
2. Rowan plan
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 3 2 1 4 3. Method of penalty
4. Time series analysis
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 3 2 4 1 [ESE : 1996] 5. Work factor system
Codes:
8.4 Determination of standard time in complex job A B C D
system is best done through: (a) 4 3 1 5
(a) Stop watch time study (b) 4 1 5 3
(b) Analysis of micromotions (c) 4 3 2 5
(c) Group timing techniques (d) 3 1 2 4 [ESE : 1997]
150 ESE-Prelims Mechanical Engineering • Volume-II
8.8 Match List-I (Charts) with List-II (Details) and 80%. If the relaxation and other allowances were
select the correct answer using the codes given 25%, then the observed time would be:
below the lists: (a) 12.5 min (b) 10 min
List-I (c) 8 min (d) 6.5 min [ESE : 1999]
A. Multiple activity chart
8.11 MTM is a work measurement technique by
B. SIMO chart
(a) Stopwatch study
C. String diagram
(b) Work sampling study
D. MTM
(c) Predetermined motion time system
List-II
(d) Past data comparison [ESE : 1999]
1. Work factor system
Y
2. Movement of material 8.12 Given
3. Motion analysis E = Earning in time Ta
4. Working and idle time of two or more men/ Ta = Actual time of work
S
machines Ts = Standard time set to complete the task
Codes: R = Rate per unit time
A B C D
R
(a) 4 3 1 2 if E = R.Ta + (Ts − Ta ) , then the graph between
A
2
(b) 3 4 2 1
bonus earned and time saved is a:
(c) 4 3 2 1
(a) Straight line (b) Convex curve
(d) 3 4 1 2 [ESE : 1998]
(c) Concave curve (d) Parabola
E
8.9 The type of layout suitable for use of the concept, [ESE : 1999]
principles and approaches of ‘group technology’ is
8.13 A process of discovering and identifying the
(a) Product layout
pertinent information relating to the nature of a
(b) Job-shop layout
specific job is called
(c) Fixed position layout
(a) Job identification (b) Job description
E
(d) Cellular layout [ESE : 1999]
(c) Job analysis (d) Job classification
8.10 The standard time of an operation has been [ESE : 1999]
calculated as 10 min. The worker was rated at
D
8.1 (d) 8.2 (c) 8.3 (c) 8.4 (d) 8.5 (a) 8.6 (a) 8.7 (c) 8.8 (c) 8.9 (d)
A
Y
8.7 (c) Graph between bonus earned and time saved is
a straight line.
A. Forecasting–Time Series analysis
B. Linear Programming–Method of penalty 8.13 (c)
S
C. Wage incentive–Rowan Plan The correct option is (c) i.e., job analysis.
D. Work measurement–Work factor system
The step involved in job evaluation are:
8.8 (c) Job analysis determine
A
Multiple activity chart: working and idle time of detailed facts about the job
two or more men/machines. ↓
SIMO chart: Motion analysis. Job desctiption describe
String diagram: Movement of material
E
clearly the requirement of job
MTM: Work factor system. ↓
8.9 (d) Job classification
Group technology has become an increasingly
determine the relative worth of job
E
↓
popular concept in manufacturing that is
designed to take advantages of mass production Wages determination compare job with
layout and technique in smaller batch production predetermined job and arrive at suitable
D
9 Value Engineering
9.1 In value engineering important consideration is (c) 95% (d) 98% [ESE : 1997]
Y
given to
9.5 Consider the following basic steps involved in
(a) cost reduction (b) profit maximization
value analysis:
(c) function concept (d) customer satisfaction
1. Create 2. Blast 3. Refine
[ESE : 1995]
The correct sequence of these steps is
S
9.2 Value is usually considered as a relationship (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 3, 1, 2
between (c) 1, 3, 2 (d) 2, 1, 3 [ESE : 1997]
(a) Utility and cost
A
9.6 Assertion (A): In case of control charts for
(b) Profit and cost
variables, if some points fall outside the control
(c) Psychology and reliability
limits, it is concluded that the process is not under
(d) Appearance and utility [ESE : 1996]
control.
E
9.3 Aluminium tie pin and gold tie pin, both serve the Reason (R): It was experimentally proved by
purpose of keeping the tie in position. But the Shewhart that averages of four or more consecutive
gold pin has significance due to: readings from a universe (population) or from a
(a) Exchange value (b) Use value process, when plotted, will form a normal
(c) Esteem value (d) Cost value distribution curve.
E
[ESE : 1996] (a) both A and R are true and R is the correct
9.4 If one state occurred four times in hundred explanation of A
observations while using the work-sampling (b) both A and R are true but R is not a correct
D
Answers Value Engineering
9.1 (a) 9.2 (a) 9.3 (c) 9.4 (d) 9.5 (d) 9.6 (b)
M
Y
100
• Critically evaluate the alternative
P⋅S = k⋅σ p
(c) Refine:
(1 − p)p 0.04 × 0.96
σp = = = 0.0196 • Develop the best alternatives
S
n 100
• Implement the alternative
k σp 2 × 0.0196
S= = = 0.979 0.98
p 0.04
A
E
E
D
A
M
10 Element of Computation
and Maintenance
10.1 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct List-II
Y
answer using the codes given below the lists: 1. Ritchie 2. Dantzing
List-I 3. Bell 4. Gomory
A. Linear programming Codes:
B. Dynamic programming A B C D
S
C. ‘C’ programming (a) 2 1 4 3
D. Integer programming (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 2 3 4 1
A
[ESE : 1995]
Answers
E
Element of Computation and Maintenance
10.1 (c)
10.1 (c)