Ca Questions

Republic of the Philippines
North Eastern Mindanao State University

Rosario, Tandag City, Surigao del Sur 8300
Telefax No. 086-214-4221
Website: www.nemsu.edu.ph
NAME: KIELA N. ARIZOBAL COURSE & YEAR: BPED – 3

DATE AND TIME: FEBUARY 16, 2023 INSTRUCTOR: DR. SHYLA O. MORENO
1. Goal setting is a mechanism that helps one to understand his/her potential and to feel
satisfied with its results. Thus, in goal-setting to enhance personal fitness, the first step
is to assess current level of ___________.
A. Motivation- Although it comes first, motivation is not the primary phase in creating goals for
personal fitness; rather, willingness to change comes before motivation.
B. Fitness- Determining preparedness to change may occur first in the goal-setting process,
followed by an assessment of existing fitness levels.
C. Readiness to effect change- When creating personal fitness goals, evaluating one's
willingness to change is essential since it shows whether or not a person is prepared to make the
required changes in order to reach their objectives.
D. Current level of understanding about fitness- Although knowledge of fitness is vital, it
shouldn't always be the first priority when creating goals; being open to change is a more pressing
issue.
2. What will happen to muscles when exposed to more such as resistance training?
A. Muscles get weaker and increase in size - This is counterintuitive because resistance
training usually makes muscles stronger rather than weaker.
B. Muscles get weaker and decrease in size - This defies logic because resistance training
often results in stronger, not weaker, muscles.
C. Muscles get stronger and increase in size - Strength and muscular hypertrophy are the
results of resistance training because the muscles grow in response to the resistance's increased
burden.
D. Muscles get stronger and decrease in size- Resistance exercise can make muscles
stronger, but it also causes them to enlarge (hypertrophy) rather than contract.
3. Which among the functions of the skeletal system is responsible for improved
performance?
A. Skeleton provides framework and shape to the body - While this is true, it has nothing to do
with better performance.
B. Skeleton protects the internal organs of the body - This function is crucial for protection and
general health, but it has nothing to do with enhanced physical performance.
C. Bone marrow produces red blood cells and platelets - This is accurate, however it has
more to do with immunity and blood cell formation than it does with enhanced performance.
D. Skeleton acts as lever- This is accurate, however it has more to do with immunity and blood
cell formation than it does with enhanced performance.
4. How do muscles work to reduce movement?

A. Pair of muscles in opposite directions - When two muscles contract together, one produces
movement in one direction while the other relaxes to allow for regulated movement in the other
direction.
B. Pair of muscles acts towards the same direction - This is untrue; to govern movement,
muscles usually function in opposing pairs.
C. Pair of muscles pull each other - This is untrue; to govern movement, muscles usually
function in opposing pairs.
D. Pair of muscles pushes each other- To control movement, muscles function in opposing
pairs rather than pushing against one another.
5. In Sepak Takraw, which muscle group is responsible when hitting the ball using the
high?
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A. Hamstring- The main functions of the hamstring muscles, which are found on the rear of the
thigh, are hip extension and knee flexion. In Sepak Takraw, they do not immediately participate in
hitting the ball.
B. Triceps- The triceps muscles, found in the rear of the upper arm, are responsible for producing
power and a considerable range of motion for a high technique in Sepak Takraw.
C. Quadriceps - The primary function of the quadriceps muscles, which are found on the front of
the thigh, is knee extension. They are necessary for mobility and stability, but they have no direct
bearing on striking the ball with a high level of skill.
D. Gluteus maximus- The main functions of the gluteus maximus muscles, which are found in
the buttocks, are external rotation and hip extension. They have little direct bearing on striking the
ball in Sepak Takraw, but they are crucial for lower body stability and mobility overall.
6. Which of the following statement does NOT describe the benefit of physical activity?
A. Reduced the risk of heart attack - Regular exercise improves cardiovascular health, which
lowers the chance of a heart attack.
B. Good sense of body image - Physical exercise fosters self-esteem, self-confidence, and a
positive relationship with one's body, all of which can lead to a positive body image.
C. Good chance of winning in a sport competition - While exercise might enhance athletic
performance, success in sports competitions is not guaranteed because it depends on a number
of variables, such as skill level, preparation, and competition.
D. Meeting new friends- Participating in physical activities, including signing up for fitness
classes or sports teams, offers chances to mingle and meet new people.
7. Goal setting is a mechanism that helps one to understand his/her potential and to feel
satisfied with its results. Thus, in goal-setting to enhance personal fitness, the first step is
to assess current level of_____________.
A. Motivation - Motivation is a crucial component of goal-setting, although it frequently comes
after determining one's level of change preparedness.
B. Readiness to effect change - When creating personal fitness goals, evaluating one's
willingness to change is essential since it shows whether or not a person is prepared to make the
required changes in order to reach their objectives.
C. Fitness - Determining preparedness to change may occur first in the goal-setting process,
followed by an assessment of existing fitness levels.
D. Current level of understanding about fitness- While having a solid grasp of fitness is crucial,
making the decision to change is a more pressing priority when setting goals.
8. If you want to determine your fitness program parameters which should you do first?
a. Get a physical examination to identify any physical limitations - Before beginning a fitness
program, it is essential to get a medical examination to rule out any physical restrictions or health
issues and make sure the program is safe and appropriate for the person's present state of health.
b. Construct your fitness plan - Creating a fitness plan usually follows an evaluation of one's
physical capabilities and health issues in order to customize the program.
c. Commit yourself to your fitness plan - Adherence to a fitness regimen is crucial, but it
typically happens after the plan is developed.
d. Figure out how much time you can have for workouts- Setting aside time for exercise is
crucial, but it shouldn't be the initial step; determining one's physical limits and health issues
should come first.
9. If you want to have personalized fitness training program, which should you do first?
A. Determine your fitness program parameters - It's critical to evaluate your fitness level,
goals, preferences, time availability, and any constraints in order to develop and carry out a fitness
program successfully.
B. Select specific physical activities for your fitness program - As it entails customizing
exercises to match your unique requirements and goals, this usually happens after setting the
parameters of your fitness program.
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C. Record your fitness training plan - While recording the plan is a crucial step, it should
adhere to the boundaries of a well-established exercise program.
D. Evaluate your faithfulness to your fitness program- This is done after you have begun your
exercise program, not before you have decided on its boundaries.
10. How much time should you devote to work outs?

A. Depends on your fitness goals and current level of physical fitness - Exercise length
should be based on a number of criteria, such as personal preferences, fitness expert advice,
current fitness level, and fitness objectives.
B. About 150 minutes total of physical activity per week - Although health officials have
advised this as a general guideline for people, the precise duration of workouts might vary
depending on individual circumstances.
C. About 200 minutes total of physical activity per week - As with option b, this is a general
recommendation for adults; however, the precise duration of workouts might differ depending on
personal circumstances.
D. Depends on your age- While age might have an impact on exercise recommendations,
personal fitness objectives and existing physical fitness levels are the main factors that decide
how much time is spent working out.
11. Should you include dietary changes in your personal fitness plan?
a. Yes, no more salty foods - Although cutting back on salt can be a beneficial component of a
balanced diet, this may not be the case for everyone and will rely on personal health factors.
b. Yes, no more meat - Removing meat from the diet is a big nutritional shift that might not be
right for everyone. Individual tastes, dietary requirements, and ethical concerns ought to guide it.
c. Depends on your fitness goals - Individual objectives, tastes, and nutritional requirements
should be taken into account when making dietary adjustments in personal fitness regimens.
These adjustments may help with weight reduction, muscle gain, and general health
enhancement.
d. No, the work out will overcome effects of poor diet- Exercise is vital for general health,
fitness, and weight control, but it usually isn't enough to make up for a bad diet on its own. For
best outcomes, a balanced strategy that include both exercise and a nutritious diet is usually
advised.
12. Why is it necessary to establish your specific goals for personal fitness because your
goals determine the ______________.
I. Types of exercise you should build into your plan
II. Amount of time you will need to exercise III. Significant dietary changes, if necessary
a. II and III - This option does not address the sorts of exercise you should do, as those are also
based on your goals; it simply addresses the time required for exercise and major food
adjustments.
b. I and II - This option covers the types of exercise to include and the amount of time needed for
exercise, but it doesn't include the consideration of significant dietary changes, which are also
determined by your goals.
c. I only - This option simply addresses the kinds of exercise you should perform in accordance
with your goals; it leaves out important nutritional adjustments or the amount of time you should
spend exercising, both of which are also dependent on your goals.
d. I, II and III - It is essential to set clear goals for your personal fitness since these goals will
dictate many elements of your fitness regimen.
13. For strength training which are convenient tools?

I. Weight machines II. Dumbbells III. Exercise balls IV. Resistance bands
A. I, II and III and IV - The items in this list are all practical equipment for strength training.
B. I, II and III - Resistance bands, which are useful equipment for strength training, are not
included in this choice.
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C. II and III - This option excludes weight machines and resistance bands, both of which are also
convenient tools for strength training.
D. I and II - Resistance bands and exercise balls, two more practical equipment for strength
training, are not included in this selection.
14. Which are strength routines that do not require equipment?

I. Push-ups II. Yoga III. Dumbbells IV. Dance and work out with video
A. I and II - Two equipment-free strength programs include yoga (II) and push-ups (I). While yoga
uses a variety of bodyweight exercises and positions to increase flexibility and strength, push-ups
primarily employ your own body weight as resistance.
B. I, II, III and IV - Dumbbells and video-based dancing exercises are part of this option, which
does call for equipment.
C. I only - Yoga is a strength program that doesn't require any equipment, thus it's not included in
this selection.
D. II and IV- This option covers yoga as well as equipment-required dance routines with videos
(such a screen or video player).
15. Which is NOT part of cardio routines?

A. Jogging- Jogging is a common cardio exercise since it entails continuous, rhythmic motions
that raise heart rate.
B. Weight machines - Exercises that increase heart rate and enhance cardiovascular fitness are
the main components of cardiovascular (cardio) regimens. However, weight machines are not
often included in standard cardio programs; instead, they are utilized primarily for strength
training.
C. Jump rope- Jumping rope is a cardiovascular workout that is high in intensity and frequently
incorporated into fitness regimens since it raises heart rate and increases endurance.
D. Dance workout videos - Dance workout videos often incorporate aerobic dance movements
that elevate heart rate and improve cardiovascular fitness, making them a common component of
cardio routines.
16. Which type of gymnastics event combines gymnastics, dance, ballet and apparatus
manipulation?
A. Men’s Artistic Gymnastics - When it comes to apparatus, men's artistic gymnastics mostly
uses the floor, pommel horse, rings, vault, parallel bars, and horizontal bar. However, it does not
include as much dance or ballet as rhythmic gymnastics.
B. Rhythmic Gymnastics - Only women can practice rhythmic gymnastics, which combines
dance, ballet, gymnastics, and equipment manipulation. Routines with ribbons, hoops, balls,
clubs, or ropes are performed to music.
C. Women’s Artistic Gymnastics - While Women's Artistic Gymnastics uses equipment like the
vault, uneven bars, balancing beam, and floor exercises, it usually does not include as much
dance or ballet as Rhythmic Gymnastics.
D. None of the above - Since Rhythmic Gymnastics matches the description given in the
question, this choice is inaccurate.
17. In gymnastics, safety is of primary concern. What should a performer do when he/she
loses balance in a stunt?
A. Land with bended knees - When losing balance during a trick, bending the knees may not be
the safest course of action, particularly if it results in a high-impact fall.
C. Stand straight - It might not always be possible or safe to try to land on both feet after losing
balance, particularly if doing so increases the risk of harm or causes an uncomfortable landing.
B. Land in both feet - When you lose your equilibrium, trying to stand up straight may make it
more likely that you will fall awkwardly and get hurt. Prioritizing safety is crucial, and methods like
rolling out can help reduce the chance of accidents.
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D. Roll out - Injury risk is reduced when a gymnast executes a controlled roll out, which includes
tucking the chin, rolling over the shoulder, and spreading fall impact along the back.
18. Spotting has a twofold purpose. First is the performer’s safety and prevention of injury
and second, is the guiding of performer to help develop body awareness. Which among the
roles of a spotter is the most difficult to perform?
A. To prevent a hazardous fall - In order to prevent dangerous falls, spotting is a difficult activity
that demands strength, dexterity, and expertise. Vigilance and fast thinking are also necessary to
assure safety.
B. To help develop self confidence - Even though it's crucial, encouraging and guiding
someone to build their self-confidence is usually less physically taxing or difficult than preventing
dangerous falls.
C. To help support the body weight - Supporting the performer's body weight is necessary,
although it might not be as hard as avoiding dangerous falls, especially during high-risk stunts or
routines.
D. To assist performer, carry out the stunts- Assisting the performer in carrying out stunts
involves providing guidance and physical support, which can be challenging but may not
necessarily be more difficult than preventing hazardous falls, especially in terms of split-second
decision-making and reaction time.
19. In a pike position, the body is fully bent forward at the hips while legs are kept straight.
Pike can be performed in three positions. What are they?
1. Walking position 2. Lying position 3. Sitting position 4. Standing position
A. 1, 2 and 3 - The walking posture, which is not often connected to a pike position in
gymnastics, is mistakenly included in this choice along with the sitting and laying positions.
B. 2, 3 and 4 - While sitting is a frequent position for a pike in gymnastics, this choice wrongly
includes the sitting position in addition to the lying and standing postures.
C. 1, 3 and 4 - A pike position in gymnastics is bending the body entirely forward at the hips while
maintaining a straight leg stance. There are three ways to execute the pike pose.
D. 1, 2 and 4 - The standing posture, which is a typical pike position in gymnastics, is wrongly
excluded from this choice and includes the laying position.
20. What contribution of Friedrich Ludwig John of Germany made him the “father of
modern gymnastics”?
A. He develops the bars (side, horizontal and parallel), balance beam And jumping events
- Although Jahn made contributions to gymnastics, certain equipment or events are not expressly
attributed to him.
B. He includes physical exercises with other forms of instruction - The "father of modern
gymnastics," Friedrich Ludwig Jahn, made gymnastics popular in Germany in the early 1800s by
incorporating physical activities into a comprehensive educational program that prioritized
intellectual and moral growth.
C. He develops a more graceful form of the sport - Jahn was not as concerned with perfecting
the artistic elements of gymnastics as he was with education and physical conditioning.
D. He invented more than 30 pieces of apparatus - Even though Jahn made contributions to
gymnastics, one of his less noteworthy accomplishments is not the invention of a certain number
of equipment.
21. What is the official name of the governing body for gymnastics worldwide?
A. International Federation de Gymnastique - This choice is erroneous as the governing body
should be called "Federation Internationale de Gymnastique," not "International Federation de
Gymnastique."
B. Federation international de Gymnastique - The Federation Internationale de Gymnastique
(FIG) is the official name of the organization that oversees gymnastics globally. It is the global
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organization that regulates gymnastics and is in charge of several gymnastics specialties, such as
rhythmic, artistic, trampoline, and aerobic gymnastics.
C. Gymnastique Federation International - This choice is erroneous as the governing
organization should be called "Federation Internationale de Gymnastique," not "Gymnastique
Federation International."
D. None of the above - This choice is not right because the governing body's official name is
"Federation Internationale de Gymnastique."
22. For better execution of an inverted stand, the center of weight must be __________ the
center of support.
A. Positioned under - To ensure stability and balance when doing an inverted stand, place the
center of weight beneath the support center.
B. Positioned over - This would probably lead to instability and complicate the upholding of the
inverted stand.
C. Positioned behind - An unstable and unbalanced situation would result from shifting the
center of weight behind the center of support.
D. Of the same level as - Having the center of weight at the same level as the center of support
may not provide the necessary stability required for an inverted stand.
23. Which gymnastic position is often used to complete a back extension and cartwheel?
The weight is supported on one leg while the other leg is extended at the rear. The
extended leg is kept straight with the toe pointed and the chest is kept erect.
A. Lunge - A lunge is a common workout for the legs and glutes that includes stepping forward
with one leg and bending both knees to lower the torso.
B. Plie or Pie - Plie is a phrase from ballet that describes bending the knees outward while
maintaining a straight back. It is commonly used in positions and actions related to ballet.
C. Arabesque - An arabesque is a gymnastic pose in which the chest stays upright, one leg bears
weight, and the other is extended. It is utilized for cartwheels and back extensions.
D. Releve or releve - Releve is a phrase from ballet that describes a technique where dancers
acquire height and grace by rising into their toes or balls of their feet.
24. In the Filipino Pyramid Guide, gymnastics particularly sports aerobics, can be
classified as moderate to vigorous activity. How often should an individual engage in this
type of activity to achieve the desired level of fitness?
A. 30 minutes, three to five times a week - For optimum cardiovascular health and fitness, the
Filipino Pyramid Guide suggests 30 minutes of sports aerobics three to five times a week.
B. 45 minutes every day - While exercising for 45 minutes every day can contribute to overall
fitness, it may not be necessary for moderate to vigorous activities like gymnastics, especially
considering the potential for overtraining or burnout.
C. 60 minutes a day, three to five times a week - Gymnasts may not necessarily need to
exercise for 60 minutes a day, three to five times a week, even though this is normally advised for
general health. This is especially true if the activity is done at a moderate to intense level.
D. 120 minutes three times a day- For most people, three times a day of exercise lasting 120
minutes each would be excessive and unsustainable, possibly resulting in overtraining or injury.
25. Which movements include all movements that the body is able to execute while the feet
remain stationary?
A. Locomotion movements - Locomotion movements involve the movement of the body from
one place to another, such as walking, running, crawling, or hopping.
B. Non locomotion movements - This is incorrect answer. Since there’s no dash between non
and locomotor
C. Locomotor movements - This is incorrect. Locomotor movements involve actual movement
from one place to another, requiring the feet to be involved in the movement.
D. Non-Locomotor movements - All motions the body may perform with the feet still planted
are considered non-locomotor movements.
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26. Lapay Bantigue is a mimetic dance. The dance originates from the seagull’s movements
as they are imitated by the native women of Masbate while waiting for the fishermen to
arrive. The seagull’s movement are characterized by the following except for the
____________.
27. Why is folk dancing considered a wholesome form of entertainment?

A. It can be performed both by children and adults - Even if this could be the case, it doesn't
really explain why folk dance is seen as a healthy kind of entertainment.
B. It is simple and inexpensive recreation - While folk dancing can indeed be simple and
inexpensive, this alone doesn't fully explain why it is considered wholesome.
C. It is performed while singing - While singing may accompany folk dancing in some cases, it's
not a defining characteristic that makes it wholesome.
D. It depicts the culture and traditions of the people - Folk dance, which incorporates
traditional music, costumes, and moves, is a culturally rich form of entertainment that honors the
customs and culture of a particular community.
28. Which was originally an all-male dance performance of Abra presenting a mock fight
between Ilocano Christians and Non-Christians using sticks.
A. Sakuting - Sakuting is a traditional dance from Abra, Philippines, in which two lines of
dancers pretend to battle with sticks between Ilocano Christians and non-Christians.
B. Subli - it is a traditional dance from the Batangas province of the Philippines, usually
performed during fiestas and other celebrations. It does not depict a mock fight between
Christians and non-Christians.
C. Pamulinnawen - Pamulinawen is a traditional folk song from the Ilocos region of the
Philippines. It is not a dance performance depicting a mock fight.
D. La Jota de Paoayena - The Philippine traditional dance known as La Jota de Paoayena is
specifically connected to the town of Paoay in the province of Ilocos Norte. It's not a dance that
shows Christians and non-Christians fighting in a fictitious conflict.
29. What do the circular movements in the Bendian, Dance of the Ibalois, Symbolized?
A. Unity and harmony among the Ibalois - The Bendian dance may include themes of peace
and togetherness, but its circular motions stand in particular for unending life.
B. Affinity with nature - The Bendian dance embodies many qualities of affinity with nature, but
its circular motions signify unending life.
C. Victory over enemy - The Bendian dance honors cultural identity and ties to the natural world
rather than being connected to concepts of defeating foes.
D. Endless life - Circular motions represent infinite life in the Bendian, a traditional dance of the
Ibalois people of the Philippines. The perpetual cycle of life and the interdependence of all living
things are symbolized by the circular motion.
30. Which dance basically shows of balancing skill of the performers? Glasses filled with
rice wine are placed on the head and on each hand carefully maneuvered with graceful
movements.
A. Pandanggo sa Ilaw - A traditional Filipino dance known as pandango sa ilaw is distinguished
by the dancers' usage of oil lamps or candles balanced on their heads and hands. Usually, there
are no glasses of rice wine involved.
C. Rigodon - Subli is a traditional dance from the province of Batangas, Philippines. It does not
involve balancing glasses filled with rice wine; instead, it typically features dancers moving in a
circular pattern while performing rhythmic steps and gestures.
B. Subli - Filipino folk dance known as rigodon has Spanish roots. It's not about balancing
glasses of rice wine; instead, it's about graceful gestures, frequently displayed in formal
environments.
D. Binasuan - A traditional dance from the Philippines, binasuan displays the dancers' ability to
balance. The dancers wear glasses on their heads and in each hand that are filled with rice wine
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(or occasionally water). The performers then glide delicately and gracefully, balancing and
avoiding the glasses from falling while executing spins and turns.
31. Which dance requires balancing skills to maintain the stability of oil lamps, placed on
head and at the back of each hand?
A. Binasuan - In place of oil lights, the participants in the traditional Filipino dance known as
binasuan balance cups filled with rice wine on their heads and on each hand.
C. Rigodon - The Philippines' Batangas province is home to the traditional dance known as subli.
Instead of using oil lamps, it usually consists of dancers dancing in a circle while making rhythmic
movements and steps.
B. Subli - Filipino folk dance known as rigodon has Spanish roots. It is typified by graceful
motions and is frequently done in formal settings rather than with oil lights.
D. Pandanggo sa Ilaw - In order to keep oil lights stable during the ancient Filipino dance known
as pandango sa Ilaw, dancers must possess balance. The performers set these oil lights on their
heads and behind each hand.
32. Which is dance, commonly performed in moderate waltz style during festivals in Bohol
and other Visayan towns, portrays a young playful couple’s attempt to get each other’s
attention.
A. Kuratsa- It shows the amusing attempts of a young pair to attract one other's attention. The
dance reflects the courting customs and amorous exchanges between the dancers through its
seductive moves, elegant gestures, and energetic footwork.
C. Rigodon - It is characterized by elegant movements and often performed in formal settings. It
does not typically portray a young playful couple's attempt to get each other's attention.
B. La Jota Moncadena- It usually consists of dancers doing exuberant and vivacious
performances, frequently with music performed on traditional Filipino instruments. It doesn't
explicitly show a youthful, flirtatious pair trying to catch each other's eye.
D. Pandanggo sa Ilaw - It does not typically portray a young playful couple's attempt to get each
other's attention.
33. Which dance from Leyte Province is a mimic movementof “tikling birds” hopping over
trees, grass stem or over bamboo traps set by farmers? Dancers perform this dance with
remarkable grace and speed jumping between bamboo poles.
A. Tinikling- It resembles the motion of "tikling birds" jumping over grass stalks, trees, or farmer-
set bamboo traps. This dance is performed with amazing elegance and speed by dancers jumping
between bamboo poles that are rhythmically slapped together by musicians or other dancers.
B. La jota Moncadena - It usually consists of vivacious and energizing motions, frequently
accompanied by music played on traditional Filipino instruments. It doesn't entail hopping between
bamboo poles or imitating the motion of tikling birds.
C. Kuratsa - It does not involve mimicking the movement of tikling birds or jumping between
bamboo poles.
D. Rigodon - It is characterized by elegant movements and often performed in formal settings. It
does not involve mimicking the movement of tikling birds or jumping between bamboo poles.
34. This was originally performed in Binan, Laguna as a mock-war dance that demonstrate
a fight between the Moros and the Christians over the prized latik or meat during the
Spanish rule.
A. La Jota Manilen - Spanish-inspired La Jota Manilen is a traditional Filipino dance that is
known for its vivacious and energizing moves. It does not portray a battle over valuable latik or a
mock-war spectacle.
B. Sakuting- Sakuting is a traditional Filipino dance from the province of Abra, Luzon. It involves
dancers performing a mock fight using sticks, usually during Christmas festivals. It does not
specifically depict a fight over prized latik.
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C. Pantomina - Pantomina is a courting dance that is typically performed at weddings and other
festive events. It is a traditional Filipino dance known as the "Dance of the Doves." It does not
show a skirmish over valuable latik or a mock-war display.
D. Maglalatik - The ancient Filipino dance known as maglalatik was first performed in Binan,
Laguna. It is a mock-war dance that depicts a conflict between the Christians and Moros during
Spanish control over the valuable latik (coconut flesh).
35. Which is the TRUE of the dance, Maglalatik?

I. It has a four-part performance such as the palipasan and the baligtaran showing the intense
battle,
the paseo and the escaramusa the reconciliation.
II. Moro dancers wear red trousers while the Christian dancers show up in blue.
III. Dancers are male and female with harnesses of coconut shells attached on their chests,
backs,
thighs and hips
A. I and II
B. I only
C. I and III - The true statements about the dance Maglalatik are:
I. It has a four-part performance such as the palipasan and the baligtaran showing the intense
battle, the paseo and the escaramusa the reconciliation.
III. Dancers are male and female with harnesses of coconut shells attached on their chests,
backs, thighs, and hips.
D. I, II and III
36. Which dance is performed in flirtatious manner with fans and hand – kerchiefs to assist
the dancers hide-an-seek movements? It means affectionate and lovable woman.
A. Carinosa - Carinosa is a traditional Filipino dance known for its flirtatious and affectionate
movements. However, it does not specifically involve fans and handkerchiefs for hide-and-seek
movements.
B. Sakuting - Sakuting is a traditional Filipino dance from the province of Abra, usually performed
with sticks or bamboo poles. It does not typically involve fans and handkerchiefs or represent
flirtatious movements.
C. Kuratsa - Kuratsa is a traditional Filipino dance commonly performed in a moderate waltz style.
It does not typically involve fans and handkerchiefs or represent flirtatious movements.
D. Pantomina - Pantomina is a romantic traditional Filipino dance in which the dancers use
handkerchiefs and fans to help them with their hide-and-seek moves. It symbolizes the courting
between a man and a woman and is sometimes characterized as a dance of love and affection.
37. It is a courtship dance which imitates the courtships and lovemaking of doves shown in
the dance when the men attempt to please the women.
A. Carinosa - Carinosa is a traditional Filipino dance known for its flirtatious and affectionate
movements. However, it does not specifically imitate the courtships and lovemaking of doves.
B. Sakuting - Sakuting is a traditional Filipino dance from the province of Abra, usually performed
with sticks or bamboo poles. It does not typically imitate the courtships and lovemaking of doves.
C. Kuratsa - Kuratsa is a traditional Filipino dance commonly performed in a moderate waltz style.
It does not specifically imitate the courtships and lovemaking of doves.
D. Pantomina - Pantomina is a traditional Filipino dance known as the "Dance of the Doves." It is
a courtship dance that imitates the courtships and lovemaking of doves.
● TEAM SPORTS (Evaluate playing skills and performances in actual game/play)
38. When a serving team commits a violation, it is a _____________.

A. Side-out and the other team gains the serve - This typically occurs when the serving team
fails to win a point and the opposing team gains the serve.
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B. Change of court - This typically occurs when the serving team fails to win a point and the
opposing team gains the serve.
C. Point for the serving team - This would not be the case if the serving team committed a
violation; the point would be awarded to the opposing team instead.
D. Point for the opposing team - When a serving team commits a violation in sports such as
volleyball, it results in a point being awarded to the opposing team. This penalty helps maintain
fairness and accountability during the game.
39. Player number 3 delivered an ace serve. What did the player earn?
A. A point - In sports such as volleyball, delivering an "ace serve" means that the serve results
directly in a point for the serving team. An ace serve is a serve that is not successfully returned by
the receiving team, thus earning the serving team a point.
B. An award - While an ace serve may be recognized as a notable achievement, it typically
results in a point rather than an award.
C. A violation - An ace serve is not considered a violation; it is a successful play resulting in a point for
the serving team.
D. A set - An ace serve does not directly result in winning a set; it earns the serving team a point
within a set, but multiple points are required to win a set.
40. When the player on the back row jumps to spike the ball, he/she may___________.
A. Spike from any position - This is not accurate. There are specific rules regarding the position from
which back-row players can attack the ball.
B. Spike the ball from back row and never cross the attack line - Back-row players are allowed to
cross the attack line after they have jumped to attack the ball, as long as they take off from behind the
attack line.
C. Spike the ball as long as he/she takes off from in front of the attack line - This is incorrect. Back-
row players must take off from behind the attack line to spike the ball legally.
D. Spike the ball as long as he/she takes off from behind the attack line - In volleyball, when a
player on the back row jumps to spike the ball, they are allowed to spike the ball as long as they take
off from behind the attack line. The attack line, also known as the 3-meter line or 10-foot line, marks
the boundary beyond which back-row players cannot attack the ball unless they jump from behind the
line.
41. When a player commits a flagrant foul, the referee’s decision is to _____________.
A. Award a point to the opposing team - This would not typically occur for a flagrant foul. The penalty
for a flagrant foul is usually a player ejection, not awarding points to the opposing team.
B. Call the attention of the coach - While the referee may indeed call the attention of the coach for
various reasons during a game, a flagrant foul usually results in a player ejection rather than simply
calling the attention of the coach.
C. Eject the player from the game - When a player commits a flagrant foul in sports, such as
basketball or soccer, the referee's decision is typically to eject the player from the game. A flagrant
foul is a serious violation of the rules, often involving excessive force, dangerous play, or
unsportsmanlike conduct. Ejecting the player is a disciplinary action aimed at maintaining fairness
and safety during the game.
D. Continue the game - Depending on the severity of the flagrant foul and the sport's rules, the game
may continue after the player has been ejected, but the decision to eject the player is typically made
by the referee in response to the foul.
42. In 2003, the NBA made a new rule as regards the stay of players inside the painted area,
who should get out of the painted area every three seconds?
A. Offensive players
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B. Both offensive and defensive players

C. Defensive players - When a player commits a flagrant foul in sports, such as basketball or soccer,
the referee's decision is typically to eject the player from the game. A flagrant foul is a serious
violation of the rules, often involving excessive force, dangerous play, or unsportsmanlike conduct.
Ejecting the player is a disciplinary action aimed at maintaining fairness and safety during the game.
D. The players holding the ball
43. You are on second base with two outs. The batter hits the ball into the air. What should you
do?
A. Stay at your base - While staying at your base may be an option initially, you need to assess the
situation based on where the ball is hit and whether it is caught by the fielding team.
B. Go back to your base - Going back to your base is not necessary unless you have advanced too
far and need to return to avoid being tagged out.
C. Run as soon the batter hits the ball - Running immediately without assessing the situation could
lead to being caught out if the ball is caught by the fielding team before it touches the ground.
D. Wait and see if the ball is caught before advancing to the next base - In baseball, when you
are on second base with two outs and the batter hits the ball into the air, you should wait and see if
the ball is caught before advancing to the next base. This is because if the ball is caught by the
fielding team before it touches the ground, it constitutes an out, and you would need to return to
second base to avoid being tagged out by the fielding team.
44. What should a defensive player do when there is a force out at the second base?
A. Tag the runner - While tagging the runner is part of the process, simply tagging the runner without
touching the base may not result in a force out, as the runner may be considered safe if the base is
not touched.
B. Neither is correct - This option is incorrect as defensive players are required to execute a forced-
out play by either tagging the runner or touching the base, or both.
C. Tag the second base - Tagging the second base alone without tagging the runner may not result in
a force out, as the runner is the primary target in force out situations.
D. Tag the runner and tug the second base - When there is a force out at second base in baseball,
the defensive player should tag the runner who is forced to advance to second base and also touch
the second base with possession of the ball. This ensures the completion of the force out, as the
runner is obligated to advance to the next base and touching the base secures the out.
45. Which is the art of passing the ball fairly high and close to the net so that the spiker can
spring into the air and smash it into the opponent’s court?
A. Overhead volley - Overhead volley generally refers to hitting the ball with the hands or arms
overhead in a volleying motion. It is not specifically associated with setting the ball close to the net for
spiking.
B. Spiking - Spiking, also known as hitting or attacking, is the act of forcefully hitting the ball with one
hand above the net into the opponent's court. It is the action performed by the spiker after receiving a
set.
C. Setting - Setting in volleyball refers to the skill of accurately and precisely delivering the ball to a
teammate near the net, typically in a position where the spiker (attacker) can effectively hit or spike
the ball into the opponent's court.
D. Tossing - Tossing can refer to various actions in volleyball, but it typically does not specifically refer
to the act of setting the ball for a spiker.
46. When the serving team fails to serve the ball legally into the opponent’s court or return the
ball into the opponent’s court, the referee gives the decision. Which is referred to?
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A. A side-out win no point awarded is called - A side-out refers to the situation where the serving team
loses the serve to the opponents without scoring a point. This occurs when the serving team commits
a fault or the receiving team wins the rally.
B. A score of one point is given - This would occur if the serving team serves the ball legally into the
opponent's court and the opponent fails to return the ball, resulting in a point being awarded to the
serving team.
C. A fault is declared - When the serving team fails to serve the ball legally into the opponent’s court
or return the ball into the opponent’s court, it results in a fault being declared by the referee. This fault
could be due to various violations such as serving out of bounds, serving under the net, or failing to
return the ball properly.
D. A time out - A time out is a temporary suspension of play called by either team to confer with
teammates or the coach, strategize, or break momentum. It is not typically related to faults or serving
errors.
46. When the serving team fails to serve the ball legally into the opponent’s court or return the
ball into the opponent’s court, the referee gives the decision. Which is referred to?
A. A side-out win no point awarded is called - A side-out refers to the situation where the serving team
loses the serve to the opponents without scoring a point. This occurs when the serving team commits
a fault or the receiving team wins the rally.
B. A score of one point is given - This would occur if the serving team serves the ball legally into the
opponent's court and the opponent fails to return the ball, resulting in a point being awarded to the
serving team.
C. A fault is declared - When the serving team fails to serve the ball legally into the opponent’s court
or return the ball into the opponent’s court, it results in a fault being declared by the referee. This fault
could be due to various violations such as serving out of bounds, serving under the net, or failing to
return the ball properly.
D. A time out is declared - A time out is a temporary suspension of play called by either team to confer
with teammates or the coach, strategize, or break momentum. It is not typically related to faults or
serving errors.
47. A team is declared a winner of a set or game in volleyball, when the team is first to score
______________.
A. 25 points - In volleyball, a team is declared the winner of a set or game when they are the first to
score 25 points. However, there are variations in scoring systems, and some formats may have
different requirements for winning a set or game.
B. 15 points with an advantage of one point - This scoring system is not commonly used in volleyball.
Traditionally, sets are played to 25 points, not 15.
C. 15 points with an advantage of one point - This option is the same as option B and is not a
standard scoring system in volleyball.
D. 19 points with an advantage of two points - This is not a standard scoring system in volleyball.
Traditionally, sets are played to 25 points, and winning by a margin of two points is not required
unless the game goes into extra points due to a tie at 24-24 (or 25-25).
48. The objective of the volleyball game is to ________________.
A. Serve the ball legally into the opponent’s court - While serving the ball legally into the opponent's
court is an essential part of the game, it is not the ultimate objective. Serving is the starting action of
each rally.
B. Send the ball over the net to the ground of the opponent’s court - The objective of the
volleyball game is to send the ball over the net to the ground of the opponent’s court in such a way
that the opposing team cannot return it or prevent it from hitting the ground within their own court.
This is typically achieved through a combination of serves, passes, sets, and attacks.
C. The team to reach at least 15 points or more - While reaching a certain number of points (usually
25 in standard play) is necessary to win a set, it is not the primary objective of the game itself.
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Scoring points is a means to achieve the objective of sending the ball over the net to the ground of
the opponent’s court.
D. Make the ball remain in play without touching the ground - This is a general rule of play in
volleyball, but it is not the primary objective of the game. The ultimate goal is to score points by
successfully sending the ball over the net to the ground of the opponent’s court.
49. In volleyball games, when two teammates contact the ball simultaneously, it is considered
two contacts for their team EXCEPT during _______________.
A. Blocking - In volleyball, when two teammates contact the ball simultaneously during blocking, it is
not considered as two contacts for their team, as blocking is a defensive action.
B. Spiking - When two teammates contact the ball simultaneously during spiking, it counts as two
contacts for their team, unless it's the first hit.
C. dribbling - Dribbling is not a term used in volleyball; it's commonly associated with basketball.
D. Serving - When two teammates contact the ball simultaneously during serving, it counts as two
contacts for their team, unless it's the first serve of the game or set.
50. In basketball, if a player is fouled out while shooting for a goal and misses the shot, what
is the penalty?
A. The ball is awarded to the offensive player - If a player is fouled out while shooting for a goal
and misses the shot, the penalty is that the ball is awarded to the offensive player for an inbound play.
B. One penalty shot - In basketball, a penalty shot typically refers to a free throw awarded to a player
due to a foul committed by the opposing team.
C. Two penalty shots - This choice isn't a standard penalty in basketball. Players are typically
awarded one or multiple free throws, depending on the type of foul committed.
D. Three penalty shots - Similarly, this choice isn't a standard penalty in basketball. The number of
free throws awarded depends on the specific foul committed and the game situation.
51. In basketball, which of the following is NOT allowed?
A. A player, while still dribbling, puts two hands on the ball at the same time - In basketball, it is
not allowed for a player to place both hands on the ball simultaneously while still dribbling. This would
be considered a double dribble violation.
B. A player receives the ball, fakes a pass, then dribbles forward - This is allowed. A player can fake a
pass and then dribble as long as they don't begin dribbling and then stop without passing or shooting.
C. A player dribbles with the right hand, then with the left - This is allowed. Players can dribble with
either hand interchangeably during the game.
D. A player moves forward dribbling, comes to halt, continues dribbling, then moves
dribbling again - This is allowed. A player can stop dribbling and then start again as long as they
haven't held the ball after stopping the dribble.
52. The following are the team composition of a football game, except one. Which one is it?
A. Goalkeeper - This position is responsible for defending the goal and is the only player allowed to
handle the ball within the penalty area.
B. Right fullback - This position is typically a defensive player who plays on the right side of the field
and helps defend against opposing attackers.
C. Forward - This position is responsible for scoring goals and often plays near the opponent's goal,
trying to create scoring opportunities.
D. Right fielder - In football, there are positions such as goalkeeper, right fullback, and forward, but
"right fielder" is a term typically associated with baseball, not football (soccer).
53. In basketball, after a field goal is scored, the ball is put back to play by throwing it back
from the ____________.
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A. Sideline - This refers to the boundary lines running along the length of the court. The ball is
inbounded from the sideline after certain stoppages in play, such as fouls or violations.
B. Centerline - This is the half-court line. The ball is typically not put back into play from here after a
field goal is scored.
C. Endline - After a field goal is scored in basketball, the ball is put back into play by the opposing
team from the endline (also known as the baseline). They have to inbound the ball from behind the
endline.
D. Corner - This refers to the corners of the court. The ball is inbounded from the corner after certain
stoppages in play, but not typically after a field goal is scored.
54. Which is a continuous tapping of the ball with your hands or palm towards the floor with
full control and follow through?
A. Passing - Passing involves intentionally directing the ball to a teammate, often using hands or feet,
with the goal of advancing the ball or maintaining possession.
B. Dribbling - Dribbling in sports like basketball and soccer involves continuously tapping the ball
with your hands or feet towards the floor with full control and follow-through while maintaining
possession and maneuvering through defenders.
C. Spiking - Spiking is a term used in sports like volleyball, where a player forcefully hits the ball
downward into the opponent's court to score a point.
D. Stopping - Stopping is not a specific term related to continuous tapping of the ball with control and
follow-through; it generally refers to actions aimed at halting the ball's motion or controlling its
movement.
55. Which foul is committed by a player which involves contact with an opponent?
A. Personal foul - This type of foul involves illegal physical contact between players. It can include
actions such as pushing, holding, or illegal use of hands or arms. Since it specifically pertains to
contact with an opponent, it's the most appropriate choice.
B. International foul - This type of foul typically refers to a foul that is more serious in international
basketball, but it doesn't necessarily have to involve contact with an opponent. It's not the best choice
here because it's not specifically about contact with an opponent.
C. Thirty seconds - This doesn't relate to fouls but rather to a time frame, likely referring to the shot
clock in basketball. It's not relevant to the question about fouls.
D. Technical foul - This type of foul is usually given for violations that are not related to physical
contact with an opponent, such as unsportsmanlike conduct or a violation of rules by a player or a
coach. While technical fouls can occur alongside personal fouls, they are not solely about contact
with an opponent.
56. In a basketball game, how long can a player be in his opponent’s restricted area when in
possession of a ball without being penalized?
A. Three seconds - In basketball, a player is allowed to be in the opponent's restricted area (often
referred to as the "paint" or the "key") for a maximum of three seconds while in possession of the ball
without being penalized for a violation.
B. Five seconds
C. Thirty seconds
D. Ten seconds
57. Which of the following is against the rules?
A. A player bounces ball to another player

B. A player takes the ball from the hands of an opposing player
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C. A player dribbling towards knock over an opponent who was on his path - In basketball,
intentionally knocking over an opponent while dribbling towards them is a foul and against the rules.
This would likely be considered a charging foul.
D. A player rolls the ball along the ground
58. How many steps is a player permitted to take between bounces in a dribble?
A. Two - This is the number of steps a player is allowed to take after stopping their dribble and
gathering the ball before passing, shooting, or starting another dribble.
B. As many as she/he - In basketball, a player is permitted to take as many steps as they want
between dribbles, as long as they do not stop dribbling. However, once the player stops dribbling,
they are only allowed to take two steps before passing, shooting, or starting another dribble.
C. One - This is not the correct answer. In basketball, a player is not restricted to only one step
between dribbles; they can take as many steps as they want while dribbling.
D. Five - This is not the correct answer. In basketball, there are no limitations on the number of steps
a player can take between dribbles, as long as they continue to dribble the ball.
59. When a penalty shot is taken, when are the players permitted to move into the restraining
area?
A. Whenever they like - This is incorrect. Players cannot move into the restraining area whenever
they like during a free throw. There are specific timing rules that dictate when they can enter the key.
B. When the thrower has been given the ball - This is incorrect. Players cannot move into the
restraining area (key) as soon as the shooter has been given the ball. They must wait for a specific
point in the shooting motion.
C. When the ball leaves the thrower’s hand - In basketball, during a penalty shot (free throw),
players are permitted to move into the restraining area (key or paint) when the ball leaves the free
throw shooter's hand.
D. When the thrower hits the backboard or basket - This is incorrect. Movement into the restraining
area is not tied to the action of the thrower hitting the backboard or basket. It's based on the release
of the ball from the shooter's hand.
60. The space over the home plate, between the batter’s armpits and the tip of his knees is
called _________.
A. Strike zone - In baseball, the space over the home plate, between the batter’s armpits and the top
of their knees, is called the strike zone. This area determines whether a pitch is considered a strike or
a ball.
B. Penalty zone - This term is not commonly used in baseball. There isn't a specific area referred to
as the "penalty zone" in the context of the game.
C. Foul zone - This term is not used in baseball. Foul balls occur when the batter hits the ball outside
the foul lines, not within a designated "foul zone."
D. Foul ball - A foul ball is a ball hit by the batter that lands outside the foul lines or is touched by the
batter while in foul territory. It is not related to the area over the home plate.
61. Which are the most important throws in the outfield?
A. Overarm - In baseball or softball, overarm throws are typically the most important in the outfield.
These throws allow outfielders to generate power and accuracy when throwing the ball back to the
infield or to the intended base.
B. Sidearm - While sidearm throws can be effective in certain situations, they are less commonly
used in the outfield compared to overarm throws.
C. Underarm - Underarm throws are not commonly used in the outfield due to their limited distance
and power compared to overarm throws.
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D. Pitch - While pitching is a critical component of baseball, it is not specifically related to outfield
play. Pitching occurs exclusively on the pitcher's mound and involves delivering the ball to the batter,
not making throws from the outfield.
62. Which of the following players usually covers a play to first base?
A. Left fielder - Left fielder primarily covers plays in the outfield, particularly balls hit to the left side of
the field. Their main responsibility is to catch fly balls and prevent hits from getting past them, rather
than covering plays to first base.
B. Shortstop - The shortstop is typically responsible for covering plays to first base. In defensive
situations where the ball is hit to the infield, the shortstop often fields ground balls and makes throws
to first base to record outs or prevent runners from reaching base safely.
C. Right fielder -. Similar to the left fielder, the right fielder is primarily responsible for covering plays in
the outfield, particularly balls hit to the right side of the field. They focus on catching fly balls and
preventing hits from getting past them, rather than covering plays to first base.
D. Pitcher - The pitcher is primarily responsible for pitching the ball to the batter from the pitcher's
mound. While pitchers may cover first base in certain defensive situations, such as when the first
baseman fields a ground ball and needs assistance, covering first base is not their primary
responsibility.
63. Which player usually covers home plate when the catcher leaves it to field a ball?
A. The pitcher - When the catcher leaves home plate to field a ball, the pitcher typically covers home
plate. This ensures that there is still a defensive player ready to receive throws and potentially tag out
baserunners attempting to score. The pitcher's primary responsibility is to pitch the ball, but they may
need to cover home plate in situations where the catcher is unavailable.
B. 1st baseman - The first baseman typically remains near first base and is not responsible for
covering home plate when the catcher leaves to field a ball. Their primary role is to field ground balls
hit to the right side of the infield and cover first base during defensive plays.
C. 3rd baseman - The third baseman primarily covers plays near third base and is not responsible for
covering home plate when the catcher leaves to field a ball. Their primary role is to field ground balls
hit to the left side of the infield and make throws to bases to record outs.
D. Shortstop - The shortstop is a middle infielder positioned between second and third base and is
not typically responsible for covering home plate when the catcher leaves to field a ball. Their primary
role is to field ground balls hit to the infield and make throws to bases to record outs.
64. A ball that is not swung at, but which is purposely tapped slowly into the infield is called?
A. Strike - A strike is a pitch that is swung at and missed by the batter, or a pitch that the batter does
not swing at but which passes through the strike zone.
B. A ball - A ball is a pitch that is thrown outside the strike zone and is not swung at by the batter. Four
balls result in a walk, allowing the batter to advance to first base.
C. A foul - A foul ball is a legally batted ball that does not fall within the field of play between the foul
lines. It is typically declared when a batted ball lands outside the foul lines or is touched by the batter
while the batter is standing outside the batter's box.
D. A bunt - A ball that is not swung at, but which is purposely tapped slowly into the infield is called a
bunt. Bunting is a strategic offensive maneuver used to advance baserunners or to surprise the
defense by placing the ball in an area where fielders are not positioned to make a play. Bunts are
often used in situations where sacrifice plays or base hits are needed to advance runners.
65. What is the most important in batting?
A. To keep eyes on the ball - This option is incorrect. While keeping eyes on the ball is important for
tracking the pitch and making solid contact, it is equally important to discern which pitches to swing at
and which to let go.
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B. To swing hard - This option is incorrect. While generating bat speed and power is important in
batting, swinging hard at every pitch can lead to swinging at pitches outside the strike zone or missing
pitches altogether.
C. To swing bat on a level plane - This option is incorrect. While swinging the bat on a level plane can
help make solid contact with the ball, it is not the most important aspect of batting. Selectively
swinging at good pitches is more crucial for successful batting.
D. To swing only at good pitches - Correct. In batting, it is crucial to swing only at good pitches.
This means selectively choosing which pitches to swing at based on their location, speed, and type.
Swinging at good pitches increases the likelihood of making solid contact with the ball and achieving
a favorable outcome, such as getting a hit or advancing baserunners. It also helps to avoid swinging
at pitches that are difficult to hit or that are likely to result in outs.
66. To which base is a runner always forced?
A. Home base - This option is incorrect. Home base, also known as home plate, is where a
baserunner must go to score a run. However, runners are not always forced to advance to home base
as they are in other base-running situations.
B. 2nd base - This option is incorrect. Runners are not always forced to advance to 2nd base. They
may have the option to advance or hold their position, depending on the situation and the actions of
other baserunners.
C. 1st base - Correct. A runner is always forced to advance to 1st base when a batter becomes a
baserunner. This means that when a batter hits the ball and starts running to 1st base, they are
forced to keep advancing to 1st base regardless of whether other runners are occupying the bases
ahead of them. The force out at 1st base occurs when a defensive player with possession of the ball
steps on 1st base before the baserunner reaches it.
D. 3rd base - This option is incorrect. Runners are not always forced to advance to 3rd base. Like 2nd
base, they may have the option to advance or hold their position, depending on the situation and the
actions of other baserunners.
67. In which of the following cases is the batter “out”?
A. The call against the batter is strike 2 and he hits and misses the next ball which is caught
by the catcher - In baseball, the batter is out in this scenario because after two strikes, if the batter
swings at and misses the third strike and the catcher catches the ball cleanly before it hits the ground,
the batter is automatically out, regardless of whether there are runners on base.
B. The call against the batter is strike 1 and he hits the next ball which goes straight to the catcher at
shoulder height and he holds the ball - This option does not result in the batter being out. While hitting
the ball to the catcher could potentially result in an out if the catcher catches it on the fly or tags the
batter out, the scenario described here does not explicitly indicate that the batter is out.
C. There is no runner on base 1 and when the ball is hit, a runner on base 2 runs to base 3 he arrives
after the ball has been received by third baseman who does not tag him - This option describes a
baserunning scenario and does not directly involve the batter being out.
D. The call against the batter is ball 3, strike 2 and he hits the next ball into the infield and it rolls onto
foul territory between home and first base - This option also does not result in the batter being out.
Hitting the ball into foul territory typically does not result in the batter being out, unless it's a foul tip
caught by the catcher for strike three.
68. When does a batter receive a free base or “walk”?
A. After 3 strikes - After three strikes, if the batter does not hit the ball into fair territory and the catcher
catches it cleanly or tags the batter before reaching base, the batter is out.
B. After 4 balls - In baseball, a batter receives a free base or "walk" after the pitcher delivers four
balls to the batter, meaning the pitcher throws four pitches outside the strike zone, and the batter
does not swing at any of them.
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C. After hitting two fouls - Hitting fouls does not automatically grant the batter a free base. Fouls count
as strikes unless the batter already has two strikes, in which case additional fouls are not counted
against the batter.
D. When he hits an infield fly - An infield fly is a specific rule that applies when there are runners on
base and fewer than two outs, and it does not result in the batter automatically receiving a free base.
69. Before pitching, a pitcher must _____________.
A. Have both feet on the plate - Both feet are not required to be on the plate; typically, only one foot is
in contact with the plate.
B. Have one foot touching the plate - Before pitching, a pitcher must have one foot in contact with
the pitcher's plate (also known as the rubber) and the other foot in contact with the ground behind the
pitcher's plate.
C. Hold the ball in front in one hand - While the pitcher does hold the ball before pitching, it's not a
requirement for one foot to be touching the plate.
D. Have both feet together on the plate - Both feet together on the plate would not allow for the proper
pitching stance and delivery.
70. Which of the following would be called “ball”?
A. The ball passes over the home plate level with the batter’s waist - A pitch that passes over the
home plate level with the batter's waist is typically called a "strike" if the batter does not swing at it.
B. The ball is struck at by the batter and missed - If the batter swings at the pitch and misses, it is
called a "strike" regardless of the location of the pitch.
C. The ball passes over the home plate level with the batter’s knee - In baseball, a pitch that
passes over the home plate level with the batter's knee is typically called a "ball" by the umpire, as it
is considered outside the strike zone.
D. The ball passes over the home plate level with the batter’s armpit - A pitch that passes over the
home plate level with the batter's armpit is typically well above the strike zone and would likely be
called a "ball" by the umpire.
71. What is the formula used to determine the number of games for single elimination?
A. G=N-1 - This formula does not accurately calculate the number of games for single elimination
tournaments.
B. N (N-1) / 2 - The formula used to determine the number of games for single elimination
tournaments is \( \frac{N(N-1)}{2} \), where N represents the number of teams participating. This
formula calculates the total number of games needed to eliminate all but one team in a single
elimination format
C. G=2 (N-1) - This formula does not correctly represent the number of games required for single
elimination tournaments.
D. G=2 (1-N) - This formula does not accurately calculate the number of games for single elimination
tournaments.
72. How many byes are there in a tournament with nine (9) practicing teams using single
elimination?
A. 3 - In a single elimination tournament with 9 teams, the number of byes required can be calculated
by finding the nearest power of 2 greater than the number of teams, which is 2^4 = 16. Subtracting
the number of teams from this value gives the number of byes, which is 16 - 9 = 7. However, since
not all teams can receive a bye, we need to find the highest power of 2 less than the number of
teams, which is 2^3 = 8. Therefore, 8 - 9 = 1 team would receive a bye, and the remaining 7 teams
would play in the first round.
B. 2 - It does not accurately reflect the number of byes required for a single elimination tournament
with 9 teams.
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C. 1 - It does not accurately reflect the number of byes required for a single elimination tournament
with 9 teams.
D. 0 - This option is incorrect. It does not accurately reflect the number of byes required for a single
elimination tournament with 9 teams.
73. Which is TRUE of the deep catch stoke?
I. More efficient and effective than the sculling stroke

II. Has the deep catch freestyle stroke
III. The arm action resembles that of a paddle
A. I, II, and III
C. I only
B. II only
A. I, II, and III - This option is incorrect. While it includes the correct statement from option B, it also
includes additional statements that may not be accurate or relevant.
B. II only - This is the correct answer. The statement "Has the deep catch freestyle stroke" is true. It
accurately describes the deep catch stroke technique used in freestyle swimming.
C. I only - This option is incorrect. It does not include the correct statement regarding the deep catch
freestyle stroke.
D. II and III - This option is incorrect. It includes the correct statement about the deep catch freestyle
stroke but also includes an additional statement that may not be accurate or relevant.
74. Which is TRUE of sculling stroke?
I. Has a bent-arm, propeller-inspired motion

II. The arm action resembles that of a paddle III. More efficient and effective than the deep catch
stroke
A. I only
C. II only
B. I, II and III
D. I and II
A. I only - This option is incorrect. It does not include the correct statement regarding the arm action
resembling that of a paddle.
B. I, II, and III - This option is incorrect. While it includes the correct statement from option C, it also
includes additional statements that may not be accurate or relevant.
C. II only - This is the correct answer. The statement "The arm action resembles that of a paddle" is
true. It accurately describes the motion used in the sculling stroke technique in swimming.
D. I and II - This option is incorrect. It includes the correct statement about the arm action resembling
that of a paddle but also includes an additional statement that may not be accurate or relevant.
75. Which characterize/s an effective swimming stroke?
A. I, II, and III

C. I and II
B. I only
D. II and III
A. I, II, and III - This is the correct answer. All three characteristics contribute to an effective
swimming stroke.
- I. Efficient propulsion through the water: This ensures that each stroke propels the swimmer forward
effectively, minimizing wasted energy.
- II. Proper body alignment and streamlined position: Maintaining a streamlined position reduces drag
in the water, allowing the swimmer to move more efficiently.
- III. Synchronization of arm and leg movements: Coordinating the movements of arms and legs
ensures that each stroke contributes to forward momentum, maximizing the effectiveness of the
stroke.
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B. I only - This option is incorrect as it only includes one of the characteristics of an effective
swimming stroke.
C. I and II - This option is incorrect as it omits the synchronization of arm and leg movements, which
is an important aspect of an effective swimming stroke.
D. II and III - This option is incorrect as it omits the efficient propulsion through the water, which is
fundamental to an effective swimming stroke.
76. Which does NOT characterize butterfly swimming stroke?
I. The body is in a supine position

II. The body is in prone position
III. Involves the dolphin kick with a windmill-like movement of both arms in unison.
A. I
C.II
B. I and II
D. I, II and III
- I. The body is in a supine position: This is true. In butterfly stroke, the swimmer's body is face down
in the water with the chest facing forward.
- II. The body is in prone position: This is incorrect. Prone position refers to lying face down, which
is not characteristic of butterfly stroke.
- III. Involves the dolphin kick with a windmill-like movement of both arms in unison: This is true. The
butterfly stroke is known for its distinctive dolphin kick and simultaneous windmill-like arm
movements.
77. When swimming competitively, what should swimmer do?
I. Must not swim underwater

II. The only time a swimmer can swim underwater is the first stroke after the start each turn.
III. Use deep catch stroke
A. I, II and III
C. I and II
B. III only
D. I only
- I. Must not swim underwater: This statement is incorrect. Competitive swimmers are allowed to
swim underwater, particularly during starts and turns.
- II. The only time a swimmer can swim underwater is the first stroke after the start each turn: This
statement is incorrect. Swimmers are allowed to swim underwater after starts and turns until they
surface.
- III. Use deep catch stroke: This statement is not a universal requirement for competitive swimming
strokes.
Option A (I, II, and III) is incorrect because statement II is inaccurate.

Option C (I and II) is incorrect because it does not include the correct statement about using the deep
catch stroke.
Option D (I only) is incorrect because competitive swimmers are allowed to swim underwater after
starts and turns.
Therefore, option B (III only) is the correct answer as it accurately describes a requirement for
competitive swimming.
78. Which characterize breast stroke?
I. The body is in prone position

II. Involves frog kicking alternatives with a simultaneous movement of the arms from a point in front of
the head to shoulder level
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III. When swimming competitively, the swimmer’s head must be kept above the surface of the water
at all times
A. I, II and III
C. I and II
B. II and III
D. I only
- I. The body is in a prone position: This statement is incorrect. In breaststroke, the body remains in a
supine position, facing upwards.
- II. Involves frog kicking alternatives with a simultaneous movement of the arms from a point in front
of the head to shoulder level: This statement accurately describes the kicking and arm movements
involved in breaststroke.
- III. When swimming competitively, the swimmer’s head must be kept above the surface of the water
at all times: This statement is correct. In competitive breaststroke, the swimmer's head must remain
above the surface except during the stroke cycle.
Option A (I, II, and III) is incorrect because statement I is inaccurate.
Option B (II and III) is the correct answer as it accurately characterizes breaststroke and
includes the correct competitive swimming rule.
Option C (I and II) is incorrect because it does not include the correct statement about the positioning
of the body.
Option D (I only) is incorrect because breaststroke is performed with the body facing upwards.
79. Which is swimming that uses any stroke?
A. Freestyle - Freestyle swimming allows swimmers to use any stroke they prefer, making it the most
versatile swimming style.
Breaststroke (option B) and backstroke (option D) are specific swimming strokes with defined
techniques.
Dog paddle (option C) is a basic swimming stroke often used by beginners, characterized by paddling
movements similar to a dog's swimming motion.
80. Which is NOT TRUE of backstroke?
A. Done in a prone position - This statement is not true for backstroke. Backstroke is swum while
lying on the back, which is a supine position. Therefore, option A is true.
B. Done in a supine position - This statement is true for backstroke. Backstroke is swum while lying
on the back, which is indeed a supine position. Therefore, option B is true.
C. Involves alternative over-the-head arm stroke and flutter kick Dog Paddle - This statement is true
for backstroke. Backstroke involves an alternating arm stroke performed overhead and a flutter kick,
similar to the dog paddle motion. Therefore, option C is true.
D. Freestyle - This statement is not true for backstroke. Freestyle refers to any stroke style that a
swimmer chooses, typically involving a crawl stroke. Backstroke is a specific stroke style different
from freestyle.
81. Which is/are a general rule/s for safety when swimming in the beach?
I. Warm up before you swim

II. Stay out of water during thunderstorm
III. It is more exciting to swim during a thunderstorm
A. I, II and III
B. I only
C. I and II
D. III only
I. Warm up before you swim: This is a general safety rule. Warming up before swimming helps to
prevent muscle cramps and injuries.
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II. Stay out of the water during a thunderstorm: This is also a critical safety rule. Lightning poses a
significant risk to swimmers, so it's essential to stay out of the water during thunderstorms to avoid
the danger of being struck by lightning.
III. It is more exciting to swim during a thunderstorm: This statement is not a safety rule; in fact, it's
highly dangerous. Swimming during a thunderstorm increases the risk of being struck by lightning,
which can be fatal. Therefore, it's crucial to avoid swimming during thunderstorms for safety reasons.
82. Which is a rule for safety when swimming in the beach?
A. Don’t rely on swimming aids - It's crucial not to depend solely on swimming aids as they can fail or
create a false sense of security, leading to potential dangers in the water.
B. Swim immediately after a meal - Swimming immediately after a meal can increase the risk of
cramps and discomfort, which could compromise your safety in the water.
C. Do not jump from the beach raft or dive underneath - Jumping from a beach raft or diving
underneath can be hazardous due to shallow water, hidden obstacles, or unpredictable currents,
posing a risk of injury.
D. Swim in the dark - Swimming in the dark is highly unsafe as visibility is significantly reduced,
increasing the chances of accidents, collisions, and getting lost in the water.
83. Which is safety advice on how to avoid shark?
I. Do not swim at dawn, at dusk or at night

II. Do not swim if you are bleeding or have any open wound
III. If schooling fish start to behave erratically or start to congregate in usually large numbers, leave
the water
IV. If a large fish is sighted in the area, leave the water as quickly and calmly as possible
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III - I. Do not swim at dawn, at dusk, or at night - Sharks are more active during
these times, and swimming during these periods increases the risk of encountering them. II. Do not
swim if you are bleeding or have any open wound - Sharks have a keen sense of smell and can
detect blood from miles away, so it's important to avoid swimming if you have open wounds to reduce
the risk of attracting sharks. III. If schooling fish start to behave erratically or start to congregate in
usually large numbers, leave the water - This behavior of fish could indicate the presence of
predators, including sharks, so it's wise to exit the water to avoid potential encounters.
C. I and II
D. II and III and IV
84. Arrange the steps in mouth-to –mouth resuscitation
1. Check the pulse for signs of life

2. Begin mouth-to-mouth resuscitation on land, if possible, or in the water if the injured person needs
immediate life-and-death measures
3. Strongly breathe four times into the mouth of the injured person as you pinch his or his nose. This
helps air get past any water that is clogging the breathing passageways and the lungs
4. Turn the drowning person’s head to the side, allowing any water to drain from his or her mouth and
nose. Turn the head back to the center
5. After four strong breaths, put your ear near the mouth and watch the chest for any breathing
movement.
6. Repeat the cycle
A. 4-2-3-5-6-1
B. 2-3-4-6-5-1
C. 1-2-3-4-5-6
D. 4-2-3-5-1-6
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85. Which is executed by moving the hand from the wrist either clockwise or counter
clockwise?
A. Kulintang - Kulintang is a traditional Filipino musical instrument consisting of a row of small gongs.
It is not executed by moving the hand from the wrist either clockwise or counterclockwise. B.
Kumintang - Kumintang is a traditional style of Filipino music and dance. It is not executed by moving
the hand from the wrist either clockwise or counterclockwise.
C. Cross - In martial arts, particularly boxing, a cross is a straight punch thrown with the rear hand,
typically executed by rotating the wrist counterclockwise (for orthodox stance) or clockwise (for
southpaw stance), but it doesn't involve continuous movement of the hand in a circular motion.
D. Outside Hand - The Outside Hand technique in martial arts involves moving the hand from the
wrist either clockwise or counterclockwise. This technique is commonly used in various striking and
blocking maneuvers, particularly from an external position relative to the body.
86. With the weight of the body on one foot, hit the floor with the ball of the other foot after
which the lift foot from the floor. This is a dance term called ____________step.
A. Close - In dance, a close step refers to bringing the feet together or close to each other. It does not
involve hitting the floor with the ball of one foot while the other foot is lifted.
B. Brush - A brush step in dance involves sweeping the ball of one foot along the floor before lifting it.
It does not exactly match the description provided.
C. Touch - In dance, a touch step typically involves lightly touching the floor with one foot before
lifting it again. However, it does not specifically involve hitting the floor with the ball of the foot.
D. Slide - A slide step in dance involves smoothly gliding one foot along the floor while the weight of
the body remains on the other foot. It also does not exactly match the description provided.
87. Which is done when one crosses the right foot or left foot in front of the left (R), bends the
body slightly forward and crosses the hands down in front with the right (L) hand over the Left
(R)?
A. Saludo - Saludo is a term used in various martial arts and cultural practices to refer to a salute or
greeting gesture. It typically involves a respectful bow or gesture of acknowledgment, but it does not
specifically involve crossing the feet and bending the body forward while crossing the hands down.
B. Arms in lateral position - This term refers to positioning the arms horizontally or sideways, away
from the body. It does not match the description provided.
C. Sarok - Sarok is a Filipino term that refers to crossing one foot in front of the other, usually while
bending the body slightly forward. However, it typically does not involve crossing the hands down in
front with one hand over the other.
D. Set - "Set" is a term used in various sports and activities, but it doesn't specifically match the
described movement of crossing the feet and bending the body forward while crossing the hands
down.
88. Which one is referred to when one places the foot in a certain desired position without
putting weight on it and makes the sole of the foot rest flat on the floor?
A. Point - In dance and ballet, pointing refers to extending the foot and toes away from the body
while keeping the foot fully engaged, but it doesn't involve placing the foot on the floor with the sole
flat.
B. Place - This term refers to putting the foot in a certain desired position, but it typically involves
putting weight on it. It doesn't match the description provided.
C. Saludo - Saludo is a term used in various martial arts and cultural practices to refer to a salute or
greeting gesture, but it doesn't involve placing the foot in a certain desired position without putting
weight on it.
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D. Set - "Set" is a term used in various sports and activities, but it doesn't specifically match the
described action of placing the foot in a certain desired position without putting weight on it while
making the sole of the foot rest flat on the floor.
89. What position is described when arms are at side, horizontal, elbows bent at the right
angles, forearms parallel to head and palms facing inward?
A. Arms in T position - Arms in T position typically refer to extending the arms sideways from the body,
forming a "T" shape. This does not match the description provided.
B. Arms in reverse position - The reverse position typically refers to a position where the arms are
behind the body, which does not match the description provided.
C. Arms in lateral position - Lateral position refers to the arms being positioned horizontally or
sideways, away from the body. However, in the described position, the forearms are parallel to the
head, which is not characteristic of the lateral position.
D. Arms obliquely upward position - This position describes the arms being raised diagonally upward
from the body. It does not match the description provided.
90. Who is known as the “Mother, Dean and Champion of Philippines Folk Dances?
A. Francisca Reyes Aquino - Francisca Reyes Aquino is known as the "Mother, Dean, and
Champion of Philippine Folk Dances." She was a pioneering figure in the preservation and promotion
of traditional Filipino dances. Aquino conducted extensive research on Philippine folk dances,
documented numerous dance forms, and worked to standardize their teaching and performance. Her
efforts played a significant role in recognizing and celebrating the cultural heritage of the Philippines
through dance.
B. Tessy Alfonso - Tessy Alfonso is a notable Filipino dancer and choreographer who has contributed
to the development and promotion of dance in the Philippines. However, she is not specifically known
by the title "Mother, Dean, and Champion of Philippine Folk Dances."
C. Fabia de la Rosa - Fabia de la Rosa was a Filipino soprano singer and composer known for her
contributions to Philippine music. While she made significant contributions to Filipino music, she is not
specifically known as the "Mother, Dean, and Champion of Philippine Folk Dances."
D. Fely Franquelli - Fely Franquelli was a Filipino dancer and choreographer who made notable
contributions to Philippine dance. However, she is not specifically known as the "Mother, Dean, and
Champion of Philippine Folk Dances."
91. Which dance is based on music played at bullfights during the bullfighter’s entrance
(paseo) or during the passes (faena) just before the kill?
A. Rumba - The Rumba is a lively dance originating from Cuba, characterized by its sensual
movements and Afro-Cuban rhythms. It is not based on music played at bullfights.
B. Pasodoble - The Pasodoble is a traditional Spanish dance that mimics the movements of a
bullfight. It is performed to music that accompanies the entrance of the bullfighter (paseo) or during
the passes (faena) just before the kill. The dance captures the drama and intensity of the bullfight,
making it a popular choice for ballroom dancers.
C. Salsa - Salsa is a popular Latin dance style that originated in the Caribbean, particularly in Cuba
and Puerto Rico. It incorporates various influences, including Afro-Cuban rhythms, but it is not
specifically based on music played at bullfights.
D. Samba - The Samba is a Brazilian dance style with roots in African rhythms. It is lively and
energetic, often associated with the carnival celebrations in Brazil. However, it is not based on music
played at bullfights.
92. This consists of the basic movement of stepping forward or backward and shifting weight
between feet, then additional quickset of three steps. Which is described?
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A. Cha cha cha - The Cha Cha Cha is a lively Latin dance characterized by its syncopated steps and
hip movements. While it involves stepping forward or backward and shifting weight between feet, it
typically does not involve an additional quick set of three step.
B. Salsa - Salsa is a popular Latin dance style that originated in the Caribbean, particularly in Cuba
and Puerto Rico. It involves intricate footwork, hip movements, and shifting weight between feet, but it
does not specifically include a quick set of three steps as described.
C. Rumba - The Rumba is a slow and sensual Latin dance style that originated in Cuba. It involves
smooth hip movements and intricate footwork, but it does not typically include a quick set of three
steps.
D. Pasodoble - The Pasodoble is a traditional Spanish dance style that mimics the movements of a
bullfight. It often includes a basic movement of stepping forward or backward and shifting weight
between feet, followed by an additional quick set of three steps, known as the "quick step" or
"Spanish walk." This description matches the provided description.
93. Which dance consist of two quick steps and then a third slower step that takes two beats
to execute? Dancers use a box-like pattern to guide their movements.
hip movements. It typically consists of three quick steps (cha-cha-cha) in a box-like pattern, but the
timing is usually even rather than having a slower step that takes two beats to execute.
and Puerto Rico. It involves intricate footwork, hip movements, and shifting weight between feet, but it
does not specifically consist of two quick steps followed by a slower step that takes two beats to
execute in a box-like pattern.
C. Rumba - The Rumba is a slow and sensual Latin dance style that originated in Cuba. It typically
involves smooth hip movements and intricate footwork, but it does not specifically consist of two quick
steps followed by a slower step that takes two beats to execute in a box-like pattern.
bullfight. It often consists of two quick steps followed by a slower step that takes two beats to execute,
known as the "slow step" or "drag." Dancers often use a box-like pattern to guide their movements.
This description matches the provided description.
94. This dance originated in the Caribbean, although it also has a strong African influence.
Couples typically perform this dance together and it centers on a four-beat combination of two
quick steps and a slow step with a pause or tap. Which dance is described?
hip movements. It typically involves a three-step pattern (two quick steps and a slower step), but it
does not specifically focus on a four-beat combination with a pause or tap.
and Puerto Rico. It involves intricate footwork, hip movements, and shifting weight between feet. The
description provided matches the basic step pattern of salsa, which consists of two quick steps and a
slow step with a pause or tap, typically performed on a four-beat rhythm.
involves smooth hip movements and intricate footwork, but it does not specifically center on a four-
beat combination with a pause or tap.
bullfight. It typically involves a combination of quick and slow steps, but it does not originate in the
Caribbean and does not specifically focus on a four-beat combination with a pause or tap.
95. Which is one of the most well-known Latin dances especially for its role in Carnival events,
where individual dancers perform? Some of which are for a dancing couple and others of
which are dances for individuals.
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hip movements. While it is popular in Latin dance events, particularly in ballroom settings, it is not
specifically associated with Carnival events where individual dancers perform.
B. Samba - The Samba is a lively Brazilian dance style with roots in African rhythms. It is one of the
most well-known Latin dances, especially for its role in Carnival events in Brazil, where individual
dancers perform elaborate routines in colorful costumes. Samba can be performed by individuals or
couples, and it is a central feature of Carnival celebrations.
C. Rumba - The Rumba is a slow and sensual Latin dance style that originated in Cuba. It is typically
performed by dancing couples, and while it is a popular Latin dance, it is not particularly renowned for
its role in Carnival events with individual dancers.
bullfight. While it is popular in ballroom dance competitions, it is not particularly associated with
Carnival events where individual dancers perform.
96. Which is a lively dance patterned after the drama of the Spanish bullfight?
hip movements. However, it is not specifically patterned after the drama of the Spanish bullfight.
B. Samba - The Samba is a lively Brazilian dance style with roots in African rhythms. While it is a
lively dance, it is not specifically patterned after the drama of the Spanish bullfight.
involves smooth hip movements and intricate footwork, but it is not patterned after the drama of the
Spanish bullfight.
bullfight. It is characterized by its dramatic and flamboyant choreography, with the dancers portraying
the roles of the bullfighter (matador) and the bull. The dance is highly structured and follows the
rhythm and drama of the Spanish bullfight, making it a lively and dynamic performance.
97. Which track event is won by the athlete with the fastest time?
A. Jumping event - Jumping events, such as the long jump or high jump, are won based on the
distance or height achieved by the athlete, not the time taken to complete the event.
B. Throwing event - Throwing events, such as shot put, discus throw, and javelin throw, are won
based on the distance or height achieved by the athlete, not the time taken to complete the event.
C. Running event - Running events, such as sprints, middle-distance races, and long-distance
races, are won by the athlete with the fastest time. The winner is determined by the time it takes the
athlete to complete the specified distance.
D. Combined event - Combined events, such as the decathlon (for men) and heptathlon (for women),
involve multiple track and field events. The winner is determined by a points system based on the
athlete's performance across all events, not specifically by the fastest time in one event.
98. Which field event is won by the athlete who has achieved the greatest height in the
contest?
A. Jumping event - Jumping events, such as the high jump or pole vault, are won by the athlete who
has achieved the greatest height. Athletes compete to clear a bar set at various heights, and the
winner is determined by the highest height cleared successfully.
B. Throwing event - Throwing events, such as shot put, discus throw, and javelin throw, are won
based on the distance or height achieved by the athlete, not necessarily by the greatest height. The
winner is determined by the farthest distance or highest height achieved in the throw.
C. Running event - Running events, such as sprints, middle-distance races, and long-distance races,
are won by the athlete with the fastest time. The winner is determined by the time it takes the athlete
to complete the specified distance, not by achieving the greatest height.
D. Combined event - Combined events, such as the decathlon (for men) and heptathlon (for women),
involve multiple track and field events. The winner is determined by a points system based on the
athlete's performance across all events, not specifically by achieving the greatest height in one event.
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99. In which track event do teams of athletes run and pass on a baton to their team member?
A. Hurdles - Hurdles is an individual track event where athletes run and jump over hurdles placed at
regular intervals along the track. It does not involve teams passing a baton.
B. Relay - The relay is a track event where teams of athletes run and pass on a baton to their team
member. There are various relay races, such as the 4x100 meters relay and the 4x400 meters relay,
where each team member runs a specified distance before passing the baton to the next runner.
C. Pole vault - Pole vault is a field event where athletes use a pole to vault over a bar. It is not a track
event and does not involve teams passing a baton.
D. Long jump - Long jump is a field event where athletes jump for distance from a takeoff point. It is
not a track event and does not involve teams passing a baton.
100. Athletes begin at a staggered starting point before the turn in the track and must remain
in their lanes for the first 100 meters. Which is referred to?
A. 400 meters - The 400 meters race is a standard track event where athletes begin at staggered
starting points before the turn in the track. Athletes must remain in their lanes for the first 100 meters,
which is part of the standard race protocol. After the first 100 meters, athletes typically transition into
the straight portion of the track and may move into their assigned lanes.
B. 800 meters - The 800 meters race is a middle-distance track event, and athletes do not typically
begin at staggered starting points before the turn in the track. They start from a traditional starting
block setup and may transition into their assigned lanes shortly after starting.
C. 200 meters - The 200 meters race is a standard track event, but athletes do not typically begin at
staggered starting points before the turn in the track. Instead, they start from a traditional starting
block setup and may transition into their assigned lanes shortly after starting.
D. 1,500 meters - The 1,500 meters race (or metric mile) is a middle-distance track event, and
athletes do not typically begin at staggered starting points before the turn in the track. They start from
a traditional starting block setup and may transition into their assigned lanes shortly after starting.
101. An illegal play in badminton which result in loss of service is_____________.
A. An ace - In badminton, an ace refers to a serve that lands in the opponent's court untouched,
resulting in a point for the server. It is not an illegal play that results in a loss of service.
B. A flight - A flight in badminton typically refers to the trajectory of the shuttlecock during play. It is not
an illegal play that results in a loss of service.
C. A smash - A smash in badminton is a powerful overhead shot aimed downward into the opponent's
court. While a smash can be an effective offensive shot, it is not an illegal play that results in a loss of
service.
D. A fault - In badminton, a fault occurs when a player violates the rules of the game. Common faults
include serving or receiving incorrectly, touching the net with the racket or body, or hitting the
shuttlecock outside the boundaries of the court. Committing a fault during play results in a loss of
service to the opponent.
102. Which is a fast-moving shuttle that follows a horizontal path from one court to the other?
A. Drop shot - A drop shot in badminton is a shot played softly and close to the net, intended to land
just over the net and close to the opponent's side of the court. It typically follows a vertical path rather
than a horizontal one.
B. Volley - A volley in badminton refers to hitting the shuttlecock before it bounces on the player's side
of the court. It is not specifically described as following a horizontal path from one court to the other.
C. Smash - A smash in badminton is a powerful overhead shot aimed downward into the opponent's
court. While it is fast-moving and follows a horizontal path, it is not specifically described as moving
from one court to the other.
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D. Drive - A drive in badminton is a fast and flat shot hit with power, typically directed horizontally
over the net. It follows a horizontal path from one court to the other, making it the most appropriate
choice for the description provided.
103. Which is the basic serve of badminton in single where the shuttle is being dropped in
front of the body before the racket head is lifted or wrist and arm action?
A. Driven serve - A driven serve in badminton is a serve where the shuttlecock is hit forcefully and
flatly over the net. It is not specifically described as being dropped in front of the body before the
racket head is lifted or using wrist and arm action.
B. Short serve - A short serve in badminton is a serve where the shuttlecock is hit softly and placed
close to the opponent's service line. It is not specifically described as being dropped in front of the
body before the racket head is lifted or using wrist and arm action.
C. Long high serve - A long high serve in badminton is a serve where the shuttlecock is hit high and
deep into the opponent's court. It is not specifically described as being dropped in front of the body
before the racket head is lifted or using wrist and arm action.
D. Push serve - A push serve in badminton is a serve where the shuttlecock is pushed gently over
the net, typically with a short, controlled motion of the racket. This description aligns with the basic
serve described in the question, where the shuttle is dropped in front of the body before the racket
head is lifted or using wrist and arm action.
104. Which serve is repeated because of serving out of turn or incorrect half court and a point
is won?
A. Love - In tennis, "love" refers to a score of zero. It is not related to serving out of turn or incorrect
half court.
B. Let - In tennis, a "let" occurs when a served ball touches the net but still lands in the correct
service court. It is not related to serving out of turn or incorrect half court.
C. Match point - In tennis, "match point" refers to a situation where the serving player has the
opportunity to win the match if they win the next point. It is not related to serving out of turn or
incorrect half court.
D. Ace - In tennis, an "ace" is a serve that is untouched by the opponent and results in a point for the
server. It is not related to serving out of turn or incorrect half court.
105. Which is a hard hit that sends the ball directly downward over the top of the net into the
opponent’s court?
A. Stopping - Stopping is not a term used in volleyball to describe a specific type of hit or play. It does
not involve sending the ball directly downward over the top of the net into the opponent's court.
B. Passing - Passing, also known as bumping, is a fundamental skill in volleyball where a player uses
their forearms to pass the ball to a teammate. It does not involve sending the ball directly downward
over the top of the net into the opponent's court.
C. Spiking - Spiking, also known as attacking or hitting, is a powerful offensive move in volleyball
where a player jumps and strikes the ball forcefully with one hand, aiming to send it directly
downward over the top of the net into the opponent's court. It is the correct answer that matches the
description provided.
D. Blocking - Blocking is a defensive move in volleyball where players jump and extend their arms
above the net to intercept the ball hit by the opposing team. It does not involve sending the ball
directly downward over the top of the net into the opponent's court.

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Republic of the Philippines

North Eastern Mindanao State University

NAME: KIELA N. ARIZOBAL COURSE & YEAR: BPED – 3

4. How do muscles work to reduce movement?

10. How much time should you devote to work outs?

13. For strength training which are convenient tools?

14. Which are strength routines that do not require equipment?

15. Which is NOT part of cardio routines?

27. Why is folk dancing considered a wholesome form of entertainment?

35. Which is the TRUE of the dance, Maglalatik?

● TEAM SPORTS (Evaluate playing skills and performances in actual game/play)

38. When a serving team commits a violation, it is a _____________.

B. Both offensive and defensive players

48. The objective of the volleyball game is to ________________.

51. In basketball, which of the following is NOT allowed?

57. Which of the following is against the rules?

A. A player bounces ball to another player

61. Which are the most important throws in the outfield?

65. What is the most important in batting?

66. To which base is a runner always forced?

67. In which of the following cases is the batter “out”?

68. When does a batter receive a free base or “walk”?

69. Before pitching, a pitcher must _____________.

70. Which of the following would be called “ball”?

73. Which is TRUE of the deep catch stoke?

I. More efficient and effective than the sculling stroke

74. Which is TRUE of sculling stroke?

I. Has a bent-arm, propeller-inspired motion

75. Which characterize/s an effective swimming stroke?

A. I, II, and III

76. Which does NOT characterize butterfly swimming stroke?

I. The body is in a supine position

77. When swimming competitively, what should swimmer do?

I. Must not swim underwater

Option A (I, II, and III) is incorrect because statement II is inaccurate.

78. Which characterize breast stroke?

I. The body is in prone position

79. Which is swimming that uses any stroke?

80. Which is NOT TRUE of backstroke?

I. Warm up before you swim

82. Which is a rule for safety when swimming in the beach?

83. Which is safety advice on how to avoid shark?

I. Do not swim at dawn, at dusk or at night

84. Arrange the steps in mouth-to –mouth resuscitation

1. Check the pulse for signs of life

101. An illegal play in badminton which result in loss of service is_____________.

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