The Clat Post January

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S. No. Contents Page No.

1. Lithium importance and recent deal with argentina 4
2. Aditya l-1 entering its orbit 6
3. Ulfa peace pact and assam issues 7
4. Bharatratna and other padma awards 9
5. Project cheetah 11
6. Hit and run law issues 13
7. Anti microbial resistance 15
8. Warmest year on record 2023 17
9. World economic situation prospect report,2024 19
10.
11.
12.
Atal setu
Global risk report : 2024
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23
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World employment and social outlook 2024 25
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13. 150 years of imd 27
14. Niti aayog – mpi 28
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15. Swachh sarvekshan – 2023 29
16.
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Ugram rifle 30
17. Dispute over minority status of amu 32
18.
19.
20.
ucc in uttarakhand
One vehicle one fastag
Who are shankasracharya ?
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35
36
21.
22.
Draft indian stamp bill, 2023
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Dgca guidelines (in light of recent unruly passenger behavior)
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39
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23. Refusal of ed summons (disobedience by delhi cm & jharkhand cm) 41
24. Eci guidelines for symbol allotment to the unrecognized parties 44
25. Grievance redressal committee (street vendor act) 46
26. Maharashtra political crisis (anti defection law) 48
27. Sc's decision in delhi chief secretary's case 50
28. Draft press & periodicals rules, 2024 52
29. The right to reside u/a 19(1)(e) cannot be claimed by a foreigner (delhi hc) 54
30. Fiscal federalism (central government & tn government) 0R1U 56
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31. Republic day 0Cparade
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32. India-france relations 60
33. Cec and ec act,2023 62
34. 75 years of udhr 64
35. India skills report 2024 tr-5P8U1P7L0L
0R1U 67
36. Adani hindenburg issue 69
37. Opec and recent angola issue 70
38. Ram mandir and ayodhya verdict 72
39. Red sea crisis-yemen crisis history 74
40. India-maldives crisis 77
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41. National 79
42. International 90
43. Science & Technology 95
44. Awards & Recognition 96
45. Books & Authors 99
46. Important Days 100
47. Obituaries 104
48. Ranks & Reports 105
49. Sports 106
50. Summits and MoUs 110
51. Banking And Economy 111
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JANUARY, 2024
LITHIUM IMPORTANCE AND RECENT DEAL WITH ARGENTINA
Context
The central government announced on January 15 that it signed an agreement with Argentina's state-owned mining and
energy company
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.
Highlights of the deal
- KABIL, a joint venture of NALCO, Hindustan Copper Ltd (HCL), and Mineral Exploration Corporation Ltd
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(MECL), granted exclusive rights for exploration and development of five lithium brine blocks in Catamarca,
Argentina.
- The lithium blocks cover a total area of 15,703 hectares.
- KABIL commits Rs 200 crore investment in the project.
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- Plans underway to establish a branch office in support of the lithium exploration and development initiative.
Key a`spects of Indo-Argentine relations
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o Diplomatic Ties: India and Argentina have maintained diplomatic relations since 1949. The two countries have
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embassies in each other's capitals, fostering communication and cooperation.
o Trade and Economic Cooperation: Trade relations between India and Argentina have seen fluctuations, but
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efforts have been made to enhance economic ties. Both countries have engaged in discussions and initiatives to
boost bilateral trade and investment.
o Cultural Exchanges: Cultural ties have been strengthened through exchanges in areas such as art, music, and
literature. Such initiatives aim to promote mutual understanding and appreciation of each other's cultures.
o International Forums: India and Argentina often collaborate on various international platforms, including the
United Nations, where they share common interests and perspectives on global issues.
o Scientific and Technological Cooperation: Both countries have shown interest in fostering collaboration in the
fields of science and technology. Agreements and initiatives have been undertaken to promote joint research and
development.
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Effect and Purpose of the deal
- Commercial Significance:
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0C1J The deal will allow KABIL to evaluate, prospect and explore and subsequent to the
discovery of lithium mineral bag exploitation rights for commercial production.
- Geostrategic advantages: The deal has its own geostrategic advantages. India imported 70 percent of its lithium-
ion requirements from China in 2020-21, according to government data. The deal will facilitate supply chain
diversification and reduce reliance on China amid strained ties between0Lboth countries.
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- Minerals Security Partnership: The deal also underscores India's move to join the Minerals Security Partnership
(MSP) last year.
1. MSP seeks to offer an alternative to China's dominance in mining and processing critical minerals.
- Research and Development: The deal will provide a platform for NALCO, HCL and MECL to understand the
technical know-how of lithium exploration and extraction.
1. India is still at a nascent stage for mining/exploration of critical minerals and added that the mining and metals
industry as a whole, especially with regard to critical minerals, is entering uncharted waters.
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Importance of lithium
o Energy Storage for Renewable Technologies: Lithium-ion batteries play a crucial role in storing energy
generated from renewable sources like wind and solar power.
o They help address the intermittent nature of these renewable energy sources by storing excess energy when
available and releasing it when needed.
o Electric Vehicles (EVs): The growth of the electric vehicle market is a major driver of the increasing demand for
lithium. Lithium-ion batteries are the preferred choice for EVs due to their high energy density, lightweight nature,
and ability to provide sufficient power for long-range driving.
o Consumer Electronics: Lithium-ion batteries are widely used in various consumer electronics, such as
smartphones, laptops, and tablets. The high energy density and relatively lightweight nature make them ideal for
portable electronic devices.
o Grid Energy Storage: Lithium-ion batteries are being explored for large-scale energy storage on electrical grids.
o This can help balance supply and demand, stabilize the grid, and provide backup power during peak demand
periods or outages.
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o Environmental Considerations: While lithium-ion batteries are considered environmentally friendly compared
to some other battery technologies, there are environmental concerns related to lithium mining and extraction.
o Sustainable and responsible mining practices are essential to minimize the environmental impact of lithium
production.
o Technological Advances: Ongoing research and development efforts are focused on improving lithium-ion
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battery technology.
o This includes enhancing energy density, reducing costs, and addressing issues related to resource availability and
recycling.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
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1. What is the formula for lithium?
(a) Pb (b) Lt
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(a) Nations Alcohol Limited Corporation of India
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(c) Ln (d) Li (b) National Aluminium Company Limited
(c) Necessary Components of Aluminium Oxide
2.
3.
(a) Javier Milei
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Who is the current president of Argentina?
(b) Vladimir Putin
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(c) Dmitry Medvedev. (d) Boris Yeltsin.
What is the atomic number of Lithium?

(a) 4 (b) 3
5.
(d) National Aluminium Corporation Of France
Which country is the host of COP 28?

(a) UAE
(c) India
(b) USA
(d) Canada
(c) 5 (d) 18
ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

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1. (d) Lithium is a chemical element; it has symbol Li. It is a January, 1981 having its registered office at
soft, silvery-white alkali 0C1J
7A0Ametal. Bhubaneswar. It is one of the largest integrated
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2. (a) Javier Gerardo Milei is an Argentine politician and Bauxite-Alumina-Aluminium- Power Complex in the
economist who has served as President of Argentina Country.
since December 2023. 5. (a) In 2023, the 28th session of the Conference of the
3. (b) Lithium is a chemical element; it has symbol Li and Parties (COP28) to the UN Framework Convention on
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atomic number 3. It is a soft, silvery-white alkali tr-5P8UClimate Change (UNFCCC) was held at Expo City,
metal. Dubai in the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
4. (b) National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO) is a
Schedule 'A' Navratna CPSE established on 7th
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ADITYA L-1 ENTERING ITS ORBIT
Context
The Aditya-L1 spacecraft -- the first space-based Indian observatory to study the Sun -- entered into its final destination
orbit, some 1.5 million kilometres from the Earth.
Highlights of Aditya L1 Mission

- Aditya L1 shall be the first space based Indian mission to study the Sun.
- The spacecraft shall be placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange point 1 (L1) of the Sun-Earth system, which is
about 1.5 million km from the Earth.
- A satellite placed in the halo orbit around the L1 point has the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun
without any occultation/eclipses.
- This will provide a greater advantage of observing the solar activities and its effect on space weather in real time.
- The spacecraft carries seven payloads to observe the photosphere, chromosphere and the outermost layers of the
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Sun (the corona) using electromagnetic and particle and magnetic field detectors.
Significance of Aditya L-1 Mission

The major objectives of the Aditya-L1 mission are as follows:
- Study of Solar Upper Atmospheric Dynamics (Chromosphere and Corona): The mission aims to investigate
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the dynamics of the solar upper atmosphere, including both the chromosphere and the corona.
- Development, Dynamics, and Origin of Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs): The mission aims to study the
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development and dynamics of CMEs, which are massive bursts of solar wind and magnetic fields rising above the
solar corona or being released into space.
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- Drivers for Space Weather: Aditya-L1 aims to investigate the origin, composition, and dynamics of the solar wind,
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which plays a significant role in influencing space weather around Earth and in the solar system.
- International Leadership and Prestige:
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- The mission represents India's entry into space-based solar studies, marking the country's leadership in space
exploration.
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- Joining the ranks of NASA and the European Space Agency in stationing a solar observatory demonstrates India's
growing capabilities in space research and exploration.
- Scientific Discovery:
Sun.
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- Solar missions often lead to unexpected scientific discoveries and provide new insights into the behavior of the
- The mission may yield valuable data that enhances our understanding of solar phenomena, contributing to
advancements in solar physics.
About Lagrange Points

 These points were named after the mathematician Joseph-Louis Lagrange, who studied them in the 18th century.
 Numbering of Lagrange Points: There are five Lagrange points in any two-body celestial system, denoted as L1
to L5. Each Lagrange Point has unique characteristics and stability properties.
 Solar and Heliospheric Observatory (SOHO): The SOHO satellite
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indeed stationed at the L1 Lagrange Point
of the Earth-Sun system.1JSOHO continuously monitors the Sun, providing valuable data for solar research.
0C
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 Spacecrafttr-5F
Parking: Points are indeed used as "parking spots" for spacecraft. Placing a spacecraft at a
Lagrange Point allows it to stay in a relatively fixed position relative to the two larger bodies, which is advantageous
for observations or missions requiring a stable position. This minimizes the need for frequent adjustments and
reduces fuel consumption.
 Gateway for Deep Space Exploration: Lagrange Points tr- are 1P7L0L0R1U potential gateways for deep space
considered
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exploration. Future missions may use these points as staging areas for further exploration of the Moon, Mars, or
other destinations in our solar system.
Challenges in Aditya L1 Mission

 Extreme Space Environment: The spacecraft will be exposed to the harsh space environment, including intense
solar radiation, fluctuations in temperature, and exposure to cosmic rays.
 Communication Lag: Aditya-L1 will be positioned at a considerable distance from Earth, that may result in
communication delays.
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 Data Transmission and Storage: Adequate data storage and transmission systems must be in place to handle the
large volumes of information generated during the mission.
 Thermal Management: Spacecraft operating near the Sun must effectively manage thermal loads to prevent
overheating.
 Solar Activity Variability: The Sun's activity, including solar flares and coronal mass ejections, can be highly
variable. Predicting and adapting to these variations are challenging, especially when planning observations and
data collection.
 Spacecraft Navigation and Positioning: Precise navigation and positioning are essential for achieving the
mission's scientific objectives. Maintaining the spacecraft's intended orbit and orientation is crucial for accurate
data collection.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
6. Who is the current Chairman of ISRO? (d) Indian Space Development program
(a) Rakesh Sharma (b) S. Somanath
7.
(c) Ritu Karidhal (d) Anuradha TK
Who is the current Minister of State (Independent

9.
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Which of the following is a part of NASA’s ‘Living
With a Star’ programme?
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(a) Parker Solar Probe
.
Charge) for Science and Technology? (b) Solar probe
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(a) Dr Jitendra Singh (c) Parker programme
(b) Abhay Karandikar (d) Space parker
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(c) Dharmendra Pradhan
(d) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai 10. Using what with Roman would help astronomers
8. ISRO was previously known as

(a) Space Research and Development Committee
(b) Indian National Space Agency
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warped space-time?
(a) Prime
(c) Function
(b) Factor
(d) Probe
(c) Indian National Committee for Space Research
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6.
To ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

(b) Sreedhara Panicker Somanath is an Indian aerospace
engineer serving as the chairman of the Indian Space
Research Organisation. Under his chairmanship,
ISRO carried out the third Indian lunar exploration 9.
under Jawaharlal Nehru on the suggestions of Dr.
Vikram Sarabhai in 1962 recognising the need for
space research.
(a) The Parker Solar Probe is a NASA space probe
mission named Chandrayaan-3. launched in 2018 with the mission of making
7. (a) Dr Jitendra Singh, has taken over as the Minister of observations of the outer corona of the Sun.
State (Independent Charge) for Science and 10. (a) The space telescope will team with PRIME, located at
Technology as the Ministries were included under the the South African Astronomical Observatory, to study
charge of Office of the Prime Minister. objects found using gravitational lensing.
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Committee for Space 0A Research
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ULFA PEACE PACT AND ASSAM ISSUES

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The pro-talks faction of the United Liberation Front of Asom (ULFA) signed a tripartite peace deal with the Centre
and the Assam government on December 29, 2023.
Key Elements of the Peace Accord:

As outlined in the agreement, there are several key elements that signify a move towards sustainable peace:
- Ceasefire and Dialogue: The ULFA has agreed to renounce violence, disarm, disband the armed organisation,
vacate their occupied camps, and participate in peaceful democratic process established by the law.
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- Addressing Core Issues: A successful peace pact should address the root causes of the insurgency, including
concerns about political representation, economic development, and issues related to identity and cultural
preservation.
- Rehabilitation and Integration: Former militants are often integrated into mainstream society through
rehabilitation programs, which may include education, vocational training, and assistance in reintegrating into
their communities.
Background on ULFA and Assam's Issues:

- The ULFA, formed in 1979, has been at the forefront of the demand for an independent state of Assam.
- The insurgency was fueled by concerns about political marginalization, economic disparities, and the perceived
threat of illegal immigration from Bangladesh.
- Over the years, the conflict has resulted in violence, displacement, and a deep sense of unrest in the region.
About ULFA
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- Formation of ULFA: Established on April 7, 1979, in Sivasagar, Assam, with the primary goal of establishing a
sovereign Assam for the indigenous population.
- Founding Members: Initial leaders included Paresh Baruah, Arabinda Rajkhowa, and Anup Chetia.
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- Early Objectives: Initially projected as a group to assist needy people, ULFA later shifted towards armed struggle
against the Indian government.
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- Insurgency in Late 1980s: Began armed operations in the late 1980s, with leaders like Baruah, Rajkhowa, and
Chetia emerging as influential figures.
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- Different Factions: Despite a peace pact, a hardline faction led by Paresh Baruah continues to rebel against the
Indian government, remaining outside the peace accord.
marked by the signing of a Suspension of Operations (SoO) agreement.
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- Government Talks with ULFA: Central government initiated talks with the faction led by Rajkhowa in 2011,
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- ULFA as an "Extended Government": At its peak in 1990, ULFA considered itself an extension of the government,
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wielding significant influence over Assam.
- Economic Demands: In 1990, ULFA wrote to major tea-producing companies, including Tata Tea and Unilever,
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demanding significant sums for the economic development of Assam.
- International Pressure: ULFA's activities prompted international pressure on India, reflecting the group's
influence and impact beyond regional boundaries.
Assam: T
Implications for Assam's Future:
The signing of a peace accord between the ULFA and the government carries significant implications for the future of
 Stability and Development: A sustained peace process can pave the way for increased stability and development
in Assam. Economic progress, infrastructure development, and improved governance can follow a reduction in
conflict.
 Political Reconciliation: The peace pact may involve political negotiations, leading to increased representation
for diverse communities in Assam. Inclusivity in governance 7L0L0R1U
is 1Pcrucial
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addressing historical grievances.
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 Social Harmony: resolution of the insurgency can contribute to social harmony by bridging ethnic and
linguistic divides. A united Assam can work towards preserving its cultural diversity while fostering a shared vision
for the future.
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- Transparency and Accountability:
 Establish transparent mechanisms for implementing the peace pact's provisions.
 Hold responsible parties accountable for fulfilling their commitments.
- Engagement with Anti-Talks Faction:
 Strategically engage with the ULFA's anti-talks faction for unified resolution.
 Seek wider acceptance of the peace pact through inclusive engagement.
- Legal Safeguards:
 Ensure legislative changes align with constitutional principles.
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 Protect the rights of all residents, preventing discrimination based on ethnicity or origin.
- International Cooperation:
 Collaborate with neighboring countries to prevent cross-border insurgencies.
 Maintain regional stability through international cooperation.
- Long-Term Development Plans:
 Develop sustainable, detailed strategies beyond immediate investments.
 Foster holistic growth in the region through long-term developmental planning.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
11. Who is the present chief minister of Assam? 13. Citizenship Amendment Act 2019 exclude which
(a) Himanta Biswa Sarma community
(b) Nandil Biswa Sarma (a) Hindu (b) Muslim
(c) Sarbananda Sonowal (c) Sikhs (d) Christians
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(d) Keshab Mahanta
14. Who is the present minister of Home Affairs?
12. Who is the Governor of Assam?
(a) Gourav Vallabh
(b) C. P. Joshi
(a) Narendra Modi
(c) Sahil Goyal
.c o (b) Motilal Shah

(d) Amit Shah
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(c) Shri Gulab Chand Katari 15. In how many districts of the Assam the Armed
(d) Jagdish Mukhi Forces (Special Powers) Act or AFSPA has been
k e extended recently?
(a) four
(c) seven
(b) five
(d) two
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11. (a) Himanta Biswa Sarma is an Indian politician and
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lawyer serving as the 15th and current Chief Minister
of Assam since 2021. 14.
Hindu refugees from Sri Lanka and Buddhist refugees
from Tibet.
(d) Amit Anil Chandra Shah is an Indian politician who is
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12. (c) Gulab Chand Kataria is the 31st Governor of Assam. currently serving as the 31st Minister of Home Affairs
Chief Justice Gauhati High Court Justice Sandeep since 2019 and the 1st Minister of Co-operation of
Mehta administered the oath of office to the new India since 2021.
Governor. 15. (a) The Assam Police on October 1 said the Armed Forces
13. (b) The Act does not include migrants from non-Muslim (Special Powers) Act or AFSPA has been extended in
countries fleeing persecution to India, including four districts of the State for six more months.
BHARATRATNA AND OTHER PADMA AWARDS

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Context
The coveted Padma awards0C--1JPadma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and the Padma Shri -- for the year 2023 were
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announced.
About award
- Background: Instituted in 1954, Bharat Ratna is India's highest civilian award, and Padma Awards, comprising
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Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri, were established 1954, 1955, and 1957, respectively.
- Conferment: The awards are then announced on the eve of Republic Day on the basis of the information secured
from the awards committee, and after the approval of the Home Minister, Prime Minister, and President
Bharat Ratna:
- Highest Civilian Award: Awarded for exceptional service towards the advancement of art, literature, science, and
public service.
- Criteria: Open to any citizen, without distinction of race, occupation, position, or sex.
- Limit on Recipients: Initially limited to 3 per year; however, the number increased over time.
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Padma Vibhushan:
- Second-Highest Civilian Award: Awarded for exceptional and distinguished service in any field, including
service rendered by the government servants.
- Limit on Recipients: Restricted number each year.
- Criteria: All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards. However,
government servants including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these
awards.
Padma Bhushan:
 Third-Highest Civilian Award: Awarded for distinguished service of a high order in any field.
 Wide Range of Fields: Recognizes contributions in various fields, including arts, education, industry, literature,
science, sports, and social service.
 Criteria: The award criteria include "service in any field including service rendered by Government servants"
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including doctors and scientists, but exclude those working with the public sector undertaking
Padma Shri:
 Fourth-Highest Civilian Award: Awarded for distinguished service in any field.
 Wider Recognition: Recognizes significant contributions in diverse areas such as art, education, industry,
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literature, science, sports, medicine, and social service.
Process of Selection:
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 Nomination and Evaluation: Nominations solicited from the public, state and central governments, and
experts. Committees review and evaluate nominations.
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 About committee:
o It is constituted by the Prime Minister every year.
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 Recommendations to President: Committees submit recommendations to the President for approval.
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o The Padma Awards Committee is headed by the Cabinet Secretary and includes the Home Secretary, Secretary to
the President and four to six eminent persons as members.
Controversies and Criticisms:
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 Subjectivity in Selection: Some argue that the selection process is subjective and influenced by political
considerations.
 Posthumous Awards: Debates exist on whether posthumous awards should be conferred.
Significance and Impact:

 Recognition of Excellence: Awards celebrate and recognize exceptional contributions across various domains.
 National Pride: Conferment of these awards contributes to national pride and honor.
 Inspiration to Society: Awardees often serve as inspirational figures, 0R1U
encouraging others to excel in their
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Conclusion:
 Symbol of Excellence: Bharat Ratna and the Padma Awards are symbols of India's recognition of excellence and
noteworthy contributions.
 Continued Evolution: Over the years, the awards have evolved, reflecting changing
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achievements in diverse fields.
 Ongoing Relevance: Despite criticisms, the awards continue to hold relevance as a means of acknowledging
outstanding service and inspiring future generations.
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PRACTICE QUESTIONS
16. Bharat Ratna is inscribed on the leaves of which (c) C. N. R. Rao (d) Bhimsen Joshi
plant?
(a) Aloe vera (b) Alder 19. Who was the chief guest on Republic Day 2024?
(c) Peepal (d) Ambrosia. (a) Abdel Fattah el-Sisi (b) Sukarno
(c) Emmanel Macron (d) Ram Nath Kovind
17. Who is the youngest recipient of Bharat Ratna
Award? 20. Who is the present President of India?
(a) M.S. Dhoni (b) Bhupen Hazarika (a) Ramnath Kovind
(c) Pranab Mukherjee (d) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Droupadi Murmu
(c) Hemant Soren
18. Who is the recipient of Bharat Ratna 2024? (d) Pranav Mukherjee
(a) Sachin Tendulkar (b) Karpoori Thakur
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.
16. (c) The physical award is designed in the shape of a 19. (c) President Emmanuel Macron of France graces the
peepal leaf with 'Bharat Ratna' inscribed in Devanagri occasion as the esteemed Chief Guest on Republic
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script under a sunburst figure. Day 2024.
17. (d) Sachin Tendulkar is the first sportsperson and the 20. (b) Droupadi Murmu is an Indian politician and former
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youngest Bharat Ratna Award, recipient. teacher who is serving as the 15th and current
18. (b) The government had announced that it would confer President of India since 2022. She won the 2022
the Bharat Ratna, the country's highest civilian award,
on two-time Bihar chief minister Karpoori Thakur
posthumously
an k presidential election as a candidate of the Bharatiya

Janata Party
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Context
Historical Context:
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The Centre had outlined criteria for the success of the first phase of the project, which includes achieving at least 50 per
cent survival of the introduced cheetahs for the first year and the establishment of a home range for Cheetahs in Kuno.
 Once widespread in India, the cheetah vanished from the country in the mid-20th century due to factors such as
hunting, habitat loss, and a decline in prey species.
 The last recorded cheetah sighting in India dates back to 1947.
 Now, after more than seven decades, Project Cheetah seeks to rewrite this narrative.
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 In the realm8Eof wildlife
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reintroduction and revival of the cheetah, the fastest land animal, in India.
 Launched with the vision of restoring a balance in the ecosystem and reviving a charismatic species, the project
holds promise for the biodiversity of the Indian subcontinent.
 This endeavor will not only strengthen the efforts for global conservation 0R1U
of the Cheetah but also the re-
establishment of his species in its historical range. tr-5P8U1P7L0L
Cheetah Reintroduction Project

 In September 2009, the cheetah reintroduction plan made significant progress when the Ministry of
Environment & Forests, through the Wildlife Institute of India (WII), organized a meeting in Gajner, Rajasthan, to
discuss the issue.
 Minister Jairam Ramesh approved the recommendation for a detailed survey of seven potential reintroduction
sites (and three holding sites for captive breeding) in four states, shortlisted during the Gajner consultative
meeting.
12
 In January 2022, environment minister launched the action plan for reintroducing cheetahs in India, with an
emphasis to Kuno National Park.
Project Cheetah's Objectives:

The primary objectives of Project Cheetah are multi-faceted, encompassing ecological, conservation, and educational
dimensions.
 Ecological Restoration: The reintroduction of cheetahs aims to restore a natural balance in India's ecosystems.
Cheetahs, as apex predators, play a crucial role in controlling herbivore populations, preventing overgrazing, and
maintaining a healthy ecosystem.
 Biodiversity Enhancement: Cheetahs bring a unique ecological contribution, influencing the behavior of other
species and promoting biodiversity. The return of cheetahs can lead to a more vibrant and resilient ecosystem by
fostering a diversity of flora and fauna.
 Conservation of an Iconic Species: The cheetah, with its unmatched speed and striking appearance, is an iconic
species that holds cultural and aesthetic significance. Conservation efforts under Project Cheetah work towards
m
ensuring the survival and thriving of this magnificent creature.
 Educational Outreach: Project Cheetah extends beyond conservation, incorporating an educational dimension.
the interconnectedness of all living beings.
.c o
It seeks to raise awareness about the importance of wildlife conservation, the delicate balance of ecosystems, and
rs
Implementation Process:
The implementation of Project Cheetah involves several key steps, each carefully planned to ensure the success of the
reintroduction program.
k e
o Habitat Assessment: A thorough assessment of potential habitats is conducted to ensure that the areas selected
are conducive to the needs of cheetahs. This includes an evaluation of prey availability, water sources, and overall
habitat suitability.
an
o Prey Base Enhancement: To support the successful reintroduction of cheetahs, efforts are made to enhance the
r
prey base in the selected habitats. This may involve conservation measures for herbivores and the creation of
p
conditions conducive to their thriving.
o Monitoring and Research: A robust monitoring and research framework is established to track the behavior,
To
health, and adaptability of reintroduced cheetahs. This involves the use of advanced technology and on-the-ground
observations by wildlife experts.
o Community Engagement: Recognizing the importance of local communities in conservation efforts, Project
Cheetah includes community engagement initiatives. These involve creating awareness, addressing concerns, and
involving communities as stewards of the environment.
Challenges and Concerns:

 While Project Cheetah holds immense promise, it is not without challenges and concerns. These include habitat
fragmentation, potential conflicts with human activities, and ensuring genetic diversity among the reintroduced
cheetahs.
 International Collaboration: In the spirit of global conservation, 7L0L0R1U
tr-5P8U1PProject Cheetah emphasizes collaboration with
international 8E
organizations,
0C 1J sharing knowledge, resources, and best practices. This collaborative approach
tr-5F 1F7A0A
enhances the project's effectiveness and contributes to the global conservation discourse.
Conclusion:
 Project Cheetah, with its ambitious goals and comprehensive approach, marks a significant stride in the realm of
tr- 5P 8U1P7L0L0R1U
wildlife conservation in India.
 The reintroduction of the cheetah not only promises to restore ecological balance but also stands as a testament to
humanity's commitment to coexist harmoniously with the diverse species that share our planet.
 As the project unfolds, it brings hope not just for the cheetah but for the entire ecosystem and the invaluable lessons
it imparts to future generations.
13
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
21. Kuno National Park is a national park and Wildlife 23. Who is the current director of the Wildlife Institute
Sanctuary in which state? of India?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Jharkhand (a) Bhupendra Yadv (b) Virendra R. Tiwari,
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand (c) Kitab Singh (d) Priya Oberoi
22. Who is the current minister of Environment Forest 24. What is the scientific name of cheetah?
and Climate change? (a) Panthera tigris (b) Panthera leo.
(a) Bhupendra Yadav (b) Piyush Goyal (c) Panthera pardus (d) Acinonyx jubatus
(c) Jyoti sagar Nathan (d) Arun Jetli
25. When is the International Cheetah Day celebrated?
(a) November 4th (b) June 14
(c) July 24 (d) December 4th
c o m
.
21. (c) Kuno National Park is a national park and Wildlife 23. (b) Virendra R. Tiwari, a Chemical Engineer from the
rs
Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh, India. It derives its University Department of Chemical Technology, the
name from Kuno River. It was established in 1981 as a University of Mumbai, and a seasoned Indian Forest
wildlife sanctuary. Service (IFS) officer, recently took the helm as the
e
22. (a) The current Minister of Environment is Bhupendra Director of the Wildlife Institute of India.
Yadav. Bhupendra Yadav assumed office as the 24. (d) The Cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus) is the fastest land
Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
in July 2021, The Minister of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change (MoEFCC) is the highest authority in
India for protection of the environment.
an k
25.
mammal and can move at a speed of up to 103 km per
hour over a distance of hundreds of meters.
(d) International Cheetah Day is an annual global event
celebrated on December 4 to raise awareness about
p r
HIT AND RUN LAW ISSUES
the conservation of cheetahs
Context
To
India's recently introduced hit-and-run law, intended to deter fleeing after accidents, has sparked nationwide protests
from truck drivers and transport associations.
More in news:
 The truck and tanker drivers have called for a three-day protest against a provision dealing with 'hit-and-run'
accidents in the new set of criminal law namely Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita.
 As part of the protest, their trucks aren't operating
 They have demanded the immediate withdrawal of the new 8U1P7L0L0R1U
law.
tr-5P
 It is leading to fear7Aof
0Asupply
0C1J shortages, including that of diesel and petrol in several parts of the country.
tr-5F8E1F
Hit and Run Law

 The recently enacted Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita introduces stringent penalties for hit-and-run incidents in India.
 The law specifies that an accused individual causing a fatal crash and fleeing the scene without reporting to
7L0L0R1U
authorities could face imprisonment for up to 10 years along with a 1P
tr-5P8U fine.
 Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita has established two distinct categories under the umbrella of "causing death by
negligence."
 Policy behind Hit and Run Law
o In 2022, the National Crime Records Bureau documented 47,806 hit-and-run cases, leading to the fatalities of 50,815
individuals. Those responsible are legally obligated to report such road accidents to the police or magistrate, and
there are legal measures in place to penalize the failure to fulfill this duty.
14
Key Changes in the Hit-and-Run Law:
 Expanded Definition of Hit-and-Run:
 Old Law: The definition primarily focused on accidents involving motor vehicles.
 New Law: Encompasses a broader spectrum, including accidents involving any vehicle, animal-drawn vehicles, and
even those caused by a person.
 Increased Penalties for Offenders:
 Old Law: Penalties were relatively lenient, often failing to act as a deterrent.
 New Law: Imposes significantly higher fines and stricter punishment, reflecting a zero-tolerance approach towards
hit-and-run incidents.
 Mandatory Compensation for Victims:
 Old Law: Compensation to victims was discretionary and often delayed.
 New Law: Mandates immediate compensation for victims or their families, ensuring a more compassionate and
responsive legal approach.
 Holding Bystanders Accountable:
 Old Law: Bystanders were rarely held accountable for not reporting hit-and-run incidents.
 New Law: Introduces penalties for those who fail to report accidents promptly, fostering a sense of civic
c o m
.
responsibility.
rs
Implications and Challenges:
 Legal Clarity and Implementation:
k e
 Challenge: Ensuring consistent interpretation and implementation of the new provisions across jurisdictions.
 Implication: Legal practitioners and law enforcement agencies need to align on the interpretation and application
n
of the amended law.
 Awareness and Education:
a
 Challenge: Lack of awareness among the general public about the changes in the law.
r
 Implication: Requires comprehensive awareness campaigns to educate the public about their rights, responsibilities,
and the consequences of hit-and-run incidents.
 Efficient Reporting Mechanisms:
p
o
 Challenge: Establishing seamless reporting mechanisms for prompt action.
T
 Implication: The success of the law relies on efficient reporting channels, requiring collaboration between law
enforcement and technology.
Comparative Analysis:
 Old vs. New: Filling Legal Gaps:
 Old Law: Limited scope and gaps in addressing diverse hit-and-run scenarios.
 New Law: Comprehensive and inclusive, leaving little room for legal loopholes and ensuring a more holistic
approach to hit-and-run cases.
 Accountability and Deterrence: tr-5P8U1P7L0L
0R1U
 Old Law: Limited deterrence
1J due to lenient penalties.
5F8E1F7A0A0C
 New Law: tr-
Enhanced penalties and mandatory compensation act as a stronger deterrent, promoting accountability
among motorists.
Conclusion:
 Truckers ended their strike after two days of protest after Union 0L0R1U
8U1P7LSecretary
tr-5PHome stated that the implementation of
the new penal provision related to hit-and-run cases will only occur after consulting with the All India Motor
Transport Congress (AIMTC).
 The new hit-and-run law in India represents a significant step towards a more accountable and compassionate legal
framework. However, its successful implementation hinges on collaborative efforts, awareness, and a commitment
to upholding the principles of justice and responsibility
15
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
26. Which section of the Bharatiya Nyay Sanhita (d) Lord Joseph J. Radisons
introduces disputed hit and run law?
(a) Section 110 (b) Section 106 29. Which committee submitted its report in 2003 on
(c) Section 120 (d) Section 104 the Criminal Justice System of India (CJSI)?
(a) Malimath Committee
27. Who is the current Union Home Secretary? (b) Madhav Menon Committee
(a) Ajay Banga (b) Vijay Bhalla (c) Marcley committee
(c) Vijay Bansal (d) Ajay Bhalla (d) Bonjour committee
28. Who is said to be the chief architect of codifications 30. How many criminal laws are replaced recently to
of criminal laws in India? end the legacy of colonial era?
(a) Lord Thomas Babington Macaulay (a) 5 (b) 3
m
(b) Lord Lindley Babington Macaulay (c) 7 (d) 9
(c) Lord Johns Banazeer
.c o
rs
26. (b) This provision has now seemingly been introduced 29. (a) The Malimath Committee was established by the
specifically to punish hit-and-run cases. Section Ministry of Home Affairs in 2000, which aimed to
106(2) introduces causing death by rash and negligent
act of a medical practitioner while performing a
medical procedure, as an offence.
k e reform India's criminal justice system. It presented its

recommendations in its report titled as the Report of
the Committee on Reforms of the Criminal Justice
27.
28.
(d) Ajay Kumar Bhalla is the current Home Secretary of
India. He assumed the office on 23 August 2019,
succeeding Rajiv Gauba.
(a) Lord Thomas Babington Macaulay is said to be the
r an 30.
System in 2003.
(b) The Parliament recently passed three pivotal Bills:
Bharatiya Nyaya (Second) Sanhita, 2023; Bharatiya
Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita, 2023; and
p
chief architect of codifications of criminal laws in Bharatiya Sakshya (Second) Bill, 2023 that replaces
India. Criminal law in India is governed by Indian the major three criminal law.
o
Penal Code, 1860, Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973,
and Indian Evidence Act, 1872, etc.
T ANTI MICROBIAL RESISTANCE

Context
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR) is the resistance developed by microbes and bacteria against drugs, posing a threat to
global health. WHO reports significant deaths attributed to AMR, with potential economic impacts and contributing
factors including drug misuse, irresponsible waste treatment, and unsafe medicine disposal.
0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
Antimicrobial resistance
 Antimicrobial 1F7A0A0C1J
resistance
tr-5F8E refers to the ability of microorganisms to adapt and survive the effects of drugs designed
to kill them.
 Overuse and misuse of antibiotics lead to the development of resistant strains, rendering standard treatments
ineffective.
 Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) has emerged as a critical andtr- global 7L0L0R1U
5P8U1Phealth challenge
 It threatens the effectiveness of antibiotics, antivirals, antifungals, and other medications used to treat microbial
infections.
 The rise of AMR poses a significant threat to human health, animal health, agriculture, and the overall effectiveness
of healthcare systems worldwide.
o It claimed the lives of at least 1.27 million individuals worldwide and contributing to nearly 5 million deaths in
2019.
o In the United States alone, more than 2.8 million cases of antimicrobial-resistant infections occur annually,
resulting in over 35,000 fatalities, as reported in the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's (CDC) 2019
Antibiotic Resistance (AR) Threats Report.
16
Scope and Impact of AMR
 Global Reach: AMR knows no borders, affecting communities, hospitals, and industries worldwide.
 Impact: Increased mortality rates, prolonged illnesses, and higher healthcare costs are direct consequences of the
growing threat of AMR.
Factors Contributing to Antimicrobial Resistance:

 Overuse and Misuse:
o Inappropriate Prescriptions: Overprescription of antibiotics without proper diagnosis contributes significantly.
o Self-Medication: Unregulated access to antibiotics enables self-medication, further fueling resistance.
 Agricultural Practices:
o Excessive Use in Livestock: Widespread use of antibiotics in agriculture, particularly in livestock, contributes to
the dissemination of resistant strains through the food chain.
 Lack of New Drug Development:
m
o Market Dynamics: Limited economic incentives for pharmaceutical companies to invest in the development of
new antimicrobial drugs.
o Research Gaps: The pipeline for new antibiotics is insufficient to address emerging resistance.
Global Initiatives to Combat Antimicrobial Resistance:
.c o
rs
 World Health Organization (WHO):
o Global Action Plan: WHO has developed a global action plan to tackle AMR, emphasizing awareness, surveillance,
and research.
 Global Antimicrobial Resistance Surveillance System (GLASS):
k e
o Data Sharing: GLASS facilitates the sharing of data on antimicrobial consumption and resistance across countries.
effectiveness of interventions.
 One Health Approach:
r n
o Monitoring and Evaluation: It provides a framework for monitoring the global situation and evaluating the
a
p
o Holistic Strategy: Recognizing the interconnectedness of human, animal, and environmental health.
o Collaboration: Encourages collaboration between health sectors, veterinarians, and environmental scientists to
address AMR comprehensively.
To
Challenges in Combating Antimicrobial Resistance:
 Global Coordination:
o Lack of Uniformity: Varied approaches and standards in different countries hinder coordinated global efforts.
o Political Commitment: The challenge requires sustained political commitment and collaboration.
 Patient and Public Awareness:
o Understanding the Issue: Many individuals lack awareness about the implications of AMR.
o Behavioral Change: Promoting responsible use of antibiotics requires a shift in public behavior.
0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
Future Strategies and Recommendations:
 Stewardship 1F7A0A0C1J
Programs:
tr-5F8E
o Promoting Responsible Use: Implementation of antimicrobial stewardship programs in healthcare settings.
o Education: Raising awareness among healthcare professionals and the public about the importance of proper
antibiotic use.
 Research and Development Incentives: tr-5P8U1P7L0L
0R1U
o Financial Incentives: Encouraging investments in research and development of new antimicrobial drugs through
financial incentives.
o Global Collaboration: Facilitating international cooperation in research efforts to address gaps in the
development pipeline.
 Regulatory Measures:
o Controlled Access: Implementing regulations to control access to antibiotics, ensuring prescription-only access.
o Surveillance Systems: Strengthening surveillance systems to monitor the use and resistance patterns of
antimicrobials
17
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
31. Who is the director of WHO? 34. Why is it important to complete a full course of
(a) Dr Zsuzsanna Jakab antibiotics as prescribed by a healthcare
(b) Dr Michael Ryan professional?
(c) Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus (a) To increase pharmaceutical sales
(d) Dr Brundtland (b) To minimize side effects
(c) To prevent the development of resistant
32. Where is headquarter of UNEP located? bacteria
(a) Nairobi (b) New York (d) To speed up the recovery process
(c) Geneva (d) Switzerland
35. Which healthcare sector is particularly prone to the
33. What is the main factor contributing to the overuse of antibiotics?
development of antimicrobial resistance? (a) Primary care
m
(a) Proper use of antibiotics (b) Emergency care
(b) Adequate hygiene practices (c) Surgery departments
(c) Overuse and misuse of antibiotics
(d) Genetic immunity in bacteria
.c o
(d) Dental clinics
rs
31. (c) The current director-general is Tedros Adhanom
Ghebreyesus, who was appointed on 1 July 2017, and
re-appointed on 24 May 2022.
33.
k e (c) The main factor contributing to the development of

antimicrobial resistance is overuse and misuse of
antibiotics
32. (a) UNEP works worldwide, with our headquarters in
Nairobi, Kenya – making us one of only two UN
programmes headquartered in the developing world.
r an 34.
35.
(c) It is important to complete a full course of antibiotics
as prescribed by a healthcare professional to prevent
the development of resistant bacteria
(a) Primary care healthcare sector is particularly prone to
o p
WARMEST YEAR ON RECORD 2023
the overuse of antibiotics.
Context
T
2023 was the planet’s warmest year on record, according to an analysis by scientists from NOAA’s National Centers for
Environmental Information (NCEI).
More on news:
 Many other agencies also confirmed the same. NASA and NOAA’s global temperature report confirms what
billions of people around the world experienced last year. we are facing a climate crisis.
0L0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7Lof
 The announcement that 2023 has earned the unsettling distinction being the warmest year on record serves as
a stark reminder of the
5F8E1F7A0A
escalating
0C 1J challenges posed by climate change.
tr-
Unprecedented Global Temperature Surge:

 Record-Breaking Statistics:
o Average Land and Ocean Temperature: NOAA's data reveals that the average
0R 1U land and ocean temperature in
2023 surpassed all previous records. tr-5P8U1P7L0L
o Marginal Increase: The increase, though seemingly marginal at 0.15 degrees Celsius, carries profound implications
for the planet's climate systems.
 Consistency with Climate Change Trends:
o Long-Term Patterns: The report underscores the consistency of this warming trend with the broader context of
climate change observed over the past decades.
o Frequency of Record-Breaking Years: The increasing frequency of record-breaking warm years points to a
concerning trajectory.
18
Contributing Factors and Human Impact:
 Greenhouse Gas Emissions:
o Role of Anthropogenic Activities: Human-induced factors, primarily the emission of greenhouse gases, remain a
leading driver of global warming.
o Carbon Dioxide Levels: The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, a significant contributor,
continues to rise.
 Impact on Ecosystems:
o Shifts in Biodiversity: The rising temperatures contribute to shifts in ecosystems and threaten the delicate balance
of biodiversity.
o Ocean Acidification: The warming trend has implications for ocean health, with acidification posing a threat to
marine life.
Regional Disparities and Extreme Weather Events:

 Regional Temperature Anomalies:
m
o Disparate Impact: Certain regions experienced more pronounced temperature anomalies, exacerbating existing
regional climate disparities.
o Vulnerability of Arctic Regions: The Arctic, in particular, faced exceptional warming, with implications for ice
melt and sea-level rise.
 Intensification of Extreme Weather:
.c o
rs
o Heatwaves and Wildfires: The report highlights the intensification of heatwaves and their association with the
surge in destructive wildfires witnessed globally.
risks to vulnerable communities.

Global Response and Climate Mitigation:
k e
o Extreme Precipitation: Increased frequency of extreme precipitation events contributes to flooding and poses
 Urgency of Climate Action:
an
o Catalyst for Global Cooperation: The findings underscore the urgency for nations to collaborate on climate
r
action, acknowledging the shared responsibility in mitigating global warming.
p
o Adherence to Paris Agreement: The report serves as a rallying call for nations to adhere to the commitments
outlined in the Paris Agreement and strengthen their climate mitigation efforts.
o
 Transition to Renewable Energy:
T
o Renewable Solutions: The imperative of accelerating the transition to renewable energy sources is highlighted,
with a focus on reducing dependence on fossil fuels.
o Policy Interventions: Governments worldwide are urged to implement robust policies that incentivize sustainable
practices and penalize carbon-intensive activities.
Adaptation Strategies and Resilience Building:

 Climate Resilience Measures:
o Community-Level Adaptation: Localized adaptation strategies are emphasized, empowering communities to
build resilience against the impacts of climate change. 1U
5P8U1P7L0L0R
o Investment in Infrastructure: Governments are urged totr-invest in climate-resilient infrastructure, recognizing
the need to prepare 1J mitigate the consequences of extreme weather events.
for0Cand
tr-5F 8E1F7A0A
 Raising Public Awareness:
o Education and Advocacy: Public awareness campaigns play a crucial role in fostering a collective sense of
responsibility.
o Individual Actions: The report calls for individual actions, emphasizing 0Rthe
1U role of conscious consumer choices
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
and sustainable lifestyle practices in contributing to climate resilience.
Conclusion:
 The declaration of 2023 as the warmest year on record is not just a scientific observation but a clarion call for
decisive action.
 As nations grapple with the unfolding consequences of climate change, the urgency to adopt mitigation strategies,
transition to sustainable practices, and prioritize resilience-building measures has never been more apparent.
 The onus lies on global leaders, policymakers, and individuals alike to heed this warning and work collectively
towards a sustainable and climate-resilient future.
19
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
36. Who is the Administrator of NASA? (b) The tiny object

(a) Dr. T. Keith Glennan; (c) The little boy
(b) Bill Nelson (d) The literature
(c) Dwight Eisenhower
(d) Bolden 39. What is the Full form of ENSO?
(a) Opposite of East North and South
37. Who is the head of International Maritime (b) South pole On Northern East
Organization? (c) El Nino Southern Object
(a) Arsenio Dominguez (d) El Nino Southern Oscillation
(b) Professor Petteri Taalas
(c) Abdulla Al Mandous 40. Where is the headquarter of World Meteorological
(d) Celeste Saulo Organsiation located?
m
(a) Geneva (b) Italy
38. What does word El Nino means? (c) Paris (d) Toronto
(a) The space company
.c o
36.
37.
(b) The current administrator is former senator and
astronaut Bill Nelson, who was nominated by
President Joe Biden on March 19, 2021.
(a) Mr. Arsenio Dominguez (Republic of Panama) is the
39.
k e rs
(d) The El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is a
recurring climate pattern involving changes in the
temperature of waters in the central and eastern
tropical Pacific Ocean.
38.
tenth elected Secretary-General of the International
Maritime Organization.
(c) El Niño means Little Boy in Spanish.
r an 40. (a) World Meteorological Organsiation has its

headquarter in Geneva, Switzerland.
Context
o p
WORLD ECONOMIC SITUATION PROSPECT REPORT,2024
developing nations. T
United Nations has released a report recently titled World Economic Situation and Prospects report for 2024 that
forecasts a decline in global inflation in 2024, but warns of a simultaneous rise in food inflation, particularly in
Highlights of World Economic Situation and Prospects Report

A) The "World Economic Situation and Prospects Report 2024," published by the United Nations
B) It offers a crucial insight into the global economic landscape.
C) This comprehensive report provides a detailed analysis of the current economic situation worldwide, outlining
prospects, challenges, and potential pathways for sustainable 8U1P7L0L0R1U
development
tr-5P
D) The World Economic Situation
0C1J and Prospects 2024 presents an outlook for the global economy and underscores
tr-5F8E1F7A0A
the importance of global cooperation and prudent policies to lift global growth and accelerate progress towards the
SDGs.
E) The 2024 edition of the United Nations’ World Economic Situation and Prospects report comes amid stark global
economic inequalities and high geopolitical tensions. 1U 0R
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
Overview of Global Economic Trends:
A) Economic Growth and Contraction:
a. Global Economic Outlook: The report delves into the projections for global economic growth, considering factors
such as GDP expansion and contraction across different regions.
b. Post-Pandemic Recovery: Insights are provided on the ongoing recovery from the impact of the COVID-19
pandemic and its varying effects on different economies.
B) Regional Disparities:
20
a. Inequality and Development: The report highlights regional disparities, addressing the challenges of economic
inequality and the need for inclusive development strategies.
b. Emerging Markets vs. Developed Economies: Comparative analysis sheds light on the performance of emerging
markets versus developed economies, offering a nuanced understanding of global economic dynamics.
Key Economic Indicators:

C) Trade and Investment:
a. Global Trade Trends: The report evaluates global trade dynamics, exploring the impact of trade agreements, tariffs,
and geopolitical factors on international commerce.
b. Investment Flows: Insights into trends in foreign direct investment (FDI) and portfolio investment provide a
comprehensive picture of global capital movements.
D) Employment and Labor Markets:
a. Unemployment Rates: The report examines global unemployment rates, assessing the impact of economic shifts
and technological advancements on labor markets.
m
b. Informal Labor Sector: Special attention is given to the informal labor sector, acknowledging its significant role
in many economies and addressing the challenges it poses.
Sustainable Development Goals and Challenges:

E) Environmental Sustainability:
.c o
rs
a. Climate Change and Economic Impact: The report discusses the intersection of climate change and economic
activities, emphasizing the need for sustainable practices.
e
b. Renewable Energy Transition: Insights into the progress and challenges associated with the global transition to
renewable energy sources are provided.
F) Social and Economic Inclusion:
n k
a. Gender Equality: The report assesses progress towards gender equality in economic participation and decision-
making roles.
a
r
b. Social Safety Nets: Challenges related to social safety nets and strategies for enhancing social and economic
inclusion are outlined.
o
Policy Recommendations and Frameworks:
G) Macroeconomic Policies:
p
T
a. Monetary and Fiscal Policies: The report offers recommendations on macroeconomic policies, including the role
of monetary and fiscal measures in stabilizing economies.
b. Inflation Targeting: Insights into inflation targeting strategies and their effectiveness in different economic
contexts are discussed.
H) Multilateral Cooperation:
a. Global Governance: The report emphasizes the importance of multilateral cooperation in addressing global
economic challenges, advocating for collaborative efforts among nations.
b. International Trade Agreements: The role of international trade agreements and their impact on global economic
stability are explored, with an emphasis on fostering fair andtr-inclusive trade
5P8U1P7L0L 0R1U practices.
tr-5F8E1F7A 0A0C1J
Future Outlook:
I) Resilience and Adaptability:
a. Building Resilient Economies: The report concludes with a call for building resilient economies capable of
withstanding global shocks and uncertainties.
b. Adapting to Technological Changes: Future outlooks consider 0R1Uof technology in shaping economic
tr-5P8U1Pthe
7L0Lrole
landscapes and the necessity of adaptive policies.
J) Sustainable Development Imperative:
a. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs): The imperative of aligning economic policies with the SDGs is
emphasized, underlining the significance of achieving economic growth in harmony with social and environmental
sustainability.
b. Human-Centric Approach: The report advocates for a human-centric approach to economic development,
emphasizing the well-being and inclusivity of societies.
21
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
41. How many SDGs are there? 44. The Phillips Curve illustrates the relationship
(a) 20 (b) 17 between:
(c) 22 (d) 15 (a) Inflation and unemployment
(b) Interest rates and inflation
42. Who is the current Secretary General of UN? (c) Government spending and inflation
(a) António Guterres (b) Trygve Lie (d) Exchange rates and inflation
(c) Hiroyuki Saito (d) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
45. Which of the following is a common measure of
43. Cost-push inflation is caused by: inflation?
(a) Increased production efficiency (a) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
(b) Decrease in the cost of raw materials (b) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(c) Rising production costs, such as wages or energy (c) Unemployment Rate
m
prices (d) Exchange Rate
(d) High levels of consumer savings
.c o
rs
41. (b) The United Nations Sustainable Development Goals (aggregate supply) falls. A fall in aggregate supply is
(SDGs) are 17 goals with 169 targets that all 191 UN often caused by an increase in the cost of production.
42.
Member States have agreed to try to achieve by the
year 2030.
(a) António Guterres is the current Secretary-General of
44.
k e (a) The Phillips curve illustrates that there is an inverse

relationship between unemployment and inflation in
the short run, but not the long run.
43.
the United Nations. He is the ninth Secretary-
General.
(c) Cost-push inflation occurs when the total supply of
goods and services in the economy which can be
r an 45. (b) Consumer Price Index or CPI is used to measure

inflation in India because it is more holistic than
other indices
p
produced
Context
To ATAL SETU
Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Mumbai Trans Harbour Link (MTHL), also known as Atal Setu, marking
the country's longest sea bridge.
Highlights of Atal Setu

 The Atal Setu is built at a cost of about ₹17,840 crore.
 It is the longest bridge in India and also the longest sea bridge in the country.
0R1U
 It establishes faster connectivity between the island city oftr-Mumbai
5P8U1P7L0L
and the Navi Mumbai on the mainland, and
decongesting the perennially
0C 1J choked metropolis as well as opening new vistas of development.
tr-5F8E1F7A0A
 Spanning 22 km, with a 16.5 km extension into the sea, Atal Setu will shorten travel time between Mumbai and
Navi Mumbai to 20 minutes from two hours.
 It also set new benchmarks in the field of civil engineering.
tr-5P8U1P 7L0L0R1U
Inauguration and Significance:
 Inauguration:
o Historic Moment: The inauguration of Atal Setu marked a historic moment in India's infrastructure development
journey.
o Political and Cultural Significance: Named after the late Prime Minister, the bridge symbolizes a tribute to a
visionary leader.
 Connectivity Impact:
o Mumbai Trans-Harbour Link (MTHL): Atal Setu is a crucial component of the MTHL project, linking Sewri in
Mumbai to Nhava Sheva in Navi Mumbai.
22
o Reducing Travel Time: The bridge significantly reduces travel time between Mumbai and Navi Mumbai,
addressing longstanding connectivity challenges.
Engineering Feats and Design:

 Length and Span:
o Longest Sea Bridge in India: Atal Setu holds the distinction of being the longest sea bridge in the country.
o Impressive Span: The bridge's impressive span over the Arabian Sea showcases cutting-edge engineering
techniques.
 Cable-Stayed Architecture:
o Architectural Innovation: Atal Setu features a cable-stayed design, providing both aesthetic appeal and structural
stability.
o Technical Complexity: The use of cable-stayed architecture demonstrates India's capability in handling technically
intricate projects.
m
Technological Advancements:
 Technology used
o Innovative Technologies: It incorporates various innovative technologies, such as Reverse Circulation Drilling
(RCD) piling, Orthotropic Steel Deck (OSD) bridge girders, and Open Road Tolling (ORT) system.
 Smart Infrastructure:
.c o
rs
o Integrated Technology: Atal Setu incorporates smart infrastructure elements, utilizing technology for enhanced
safety and efficiency.
movement.
 Sustainable Practices:
k e
o Traffic Management Systems: Advanced traffic management systems ensure smooth flow and control of vehicular
measures to minimize its ecological footprint.
r n
o Environmental Considerations: The project emphasizes sustainable practices, incorporating eco-friendly
a
o Green Transportation: Atal Setu contributes to promoting greener modes of transportation, aligning with global
p
sustainability goals.
Economic and Social Impacts:

 Economic Boost:
To
o Regional Development: Atal Setu stimulates economic development in the Mumbai metropolitan region,
promoting commerce and trade.
o Employment Opportunities: The construction and operation of the bridge generate employment opportunities,
contributing to local economies.
o Real Estate: The enhanced connectivity is likely to push demand for affordable housing options
 Social Connectivity:
o Enhanced Social Integration: Improved connectivity fosters social integration between Mumbai and Navi
Mumbai. 0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
o Accessibility for Residents: Atal Setu enhances accessibility for residents on both sides of the bridge, facilitating
easier commutes. 0C1J
tr-5F8E1F7A0A
Challenges Overcome:
 Geological Challenges:
o Navigating the Arabian Sea: Building a bridge over the Arabian8U
Sea posed unique geological challenges.
0R1U
tr-5P 1P7L0L
o Seismic Considerations: The engineering team addressed seismic considerations to ensure the bridge's resilience
in the event of natural disasters.
 Project Delays and Financing:
o Timely Completion: Atal Setu overcame project delays and was completed within a reasonable timeframe.
o Financial Management: Effective financial planning and management were crucial in ensuring the project's
successful execution.
23
Future Prospects:
 Potential for Urban Expansion:
o Catalyst for Urban Growth: Atal Setu opens avenues for urban expansion and development along the Mumbai-
Navi Mumbai corridor.
o Integrated Transport Network: The bridge sets the stage for the development of an integrated transport network
in the region.
 Tourism and Cultural Exchange:
o Tourist Attraction: Atal Setu becomes a potential tourist attraction, drawing visitors to marvel at its engineering
brilliance.
o Cultural Exchange: The bridge fosters cultural exchange between Mumbai and Navi Mumbai, encouraging people
to explore both regions.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
46. Who is the present chief minister of Maharashtra?

(a) Eknath Sambhaji Shinde
(b) Uddhav Balasaheb Thackeray 49.
(c) capital
c o m (d) Expenditure
The Atal Setu bridge has been named after

(c) Naveen Patnaik
(d) Sucheta Kriplani
rs .
(a) Maharaja Atal Singh
(b) Atal seva samiti
(c) Atul Samrat
47. Who is the current Governor of Maharashtra?
(a) Eknath Sambhaji Shinde
(b) Ramesh Bais
k
50.
e (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
The Atal Setu project is financed by?
48.
(c) Shri Thaawarchand Gehlot
(d) Shri Arif Mohammed Khan
Which of the following is not among four factor of
r an (a) Tata Capital Financial Services Ltd

(b) HDB Financial Services
(c) Cholamandalam Investment and Finance
Company
production?
(a) land
o
(b) labor
p (d) Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA)
46.
47.
T
Maharashtra since 30 June 2022.
(a) Eknath Sambhaji Shinde is an Indian politician who is
serving as the 20th and Current Chief Minister of
(b) Ramesh Bais is an Indian politician and is the 23rd

49.
building blocks of the economy. Expenditure does not
come under the four main factors of production.
(d) The bridge has been named after former prime
minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. The bridge originates
governor of Maharashtra since 2023. He also served as from Sewri in Mumbai and ends at Nhava Sheva in
the governor of Jharkhand from 2021 to 2023 and the Uran taluka in Raigad district.
governor of Tripura from 2019 to 2021 50. tr-5P
(d)
8U The
1P 0R1U
Mumbai
7L0L Trans Harbour Link or Atal Setu, built
48. (d) The four factors of production are land, labor, capital, with financial assistance of almost $2 billion from
0C1J
tr-5F8E1F7A0A They are said to be the
and entrepreneurship. Japan International Cooperation Agency, has
emerged as another symbol of strong Indo-Japan .
GLOBAL RISK REPORT : 2024

0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
Why in News?
A) False and misleading information supercharged with cutting-edge artificial intelligence that threatens to erode
democracy and polarize society is the top immediate risk to the global economy, the World Economic Forum said
in a report Wednesday. In its latest Global Risks Report, the organization also said an array of environmental
risks pose the biggest threats in the longer term. The report was released ahead of the annual elite gathering of
CEOs and world leaders in the Swiss ski resort town of Davos and is based on a survey of nearly 1,500 experts,
industry leaders and policymakers.
24
B) The report listed misinformation and disinformation as the most severe risk over the next two years, highlighting
how rapid advances in technology also are creating new problems or making existing ones worse.
C) The authors worry that the boom in generative AI chatbots like ChatGPT means that creating sophisticated
synthetic content that can be used to manipulate groups of people won't be limited any longer to those with
specialized skills.
AI and Global Risk Report
A) AI-powered misinformation and disinformation is emerging as a risk just as a billions of people in a slew of
countries, including large economies like the United States, Britain, Indonesia, India, Mexico, are set to head
to the polls this year and next, the report said.
B) “You can leverage AI to do deepfakes and to really impact large groups, which really drives misinformation,” said
Carolina Klint, a risk management leader at Marsh, whose parent company Marsh McLennan co-authored the
report with Zurich Insurance Group. "Societies could become further polarized” as people find it harder to verify
facts, she said. Fake information also could be used to fuel questions about the legitimacy of elected governments,
“which means that democratic processes could be eroded, and it would also drive societal polarization even further,”
m
Klint said.
C) The rise of AI brings a host of other risks, she said. It can empower “malicious actors” by making it easier to carry
out cyberattacks, such as by automating phishing attempts or creating advanced malware.
Climate Change and Risk Report
.c o
A) The report found the top four most severe risks over the next ten years to be: extreme weather events, critical change
rs
to Earth systems, biodiversity loss and ecosystem collapse, and natural resource shortages. Pollution also features
within the top ten most severe risks. Concerningly, the report argues that cooperation on urgent global issues could
e
be in increasingly short supply, underlining the importance of concerted action and collaboration to address the
climate and nature emergencies.
k
B) “The interlinked crises of climate change and biodiversity loss are among the most severe risks the world has to
n
contend with and cannot be tackled in isolation. We’ve just lived through the hottest year on record with lives and
a
livelihoods devastated by searing heatwaves and catastrophic floods and storms. Unless we take urgent action, the
r
threat is only set to intensify, pushing us closer to inflicting irreversible damage on society and ecosystems," said
Kirsten Schuijt, Director General of WWF International.
o p
C) "These findings come on top of the scathing recent analysis by the EU Environment Agency showing that the EU is
in danger of missing most of its 2030 environmental policy targets. Ahead of the EU elections, political parties must
demonstrate their commitment to safeguarding our planet's future and fulfil the promise of the European Green
T
Deal. This requires a fundamental redesign of our economy to more rapidly wean it off fossil fuels and make full
use of healthy ecosystems as our strongest ally. Only then can the EU guarantee the safety and well-being of its
people and increase its autonomy and resilience.
More about Risk Report 2024
A) Business is instrumental in meeting the goals set by the Global Biodiversity Framework and the Paris Agreement.
By using target setting frameworks, such as the Science Based Targets Initiative and Science Based Targets
Network (SBTN), businesses can reduce negative impacts on climate and nature. The WWF Risk Filter Suite can
help companies to assess and lessen their nature-related risks. So far over one million locations have been uploaded
by more than 10,000 registered users. That’s over a million places in the 0R
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
world
1U where businesses understand better
their biodiversity and water impacts and dependencies.
tr-5F8E 1F7A 0A0C1J
B) Ensuring that the climate and nature crises are tackled in an integrated way is essential to success. WWF's recent
Breaking Silos report sets out how national governments can strengthen synergies between their national climate
plans (NDCs) and NBSAPs.
C) The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development adopted by UN member states in 2015 has the 17 Sustainable
Development Goals (SDGs) at its heart. The most recent UN 1P7L0L0R1Ufound that, despite progress in some
evaluation
tr-5P8U
areas, the SDGs were “in peril” with half of the targets evaluated showing “moderate or severe deviations from the
desired trajectory”. Science is clear that realising the promise of the SDGs relies on nature.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
51. In which year was the World Economic Forum 52. Where is the headquarters of the World Economic
(WEF) established? Forum (WEF) located?
(a) 1965 (b) 1971 (a) Vienna, Austria (b) Geneva, Switzerland
(c) 1980 (d) 1990 (c) New York, USA (d) London, UK
25
53. What is the organizational structure of the World (d) Future of Technology and Innovation
Economic Forum (WEF)?
(a) Governmental Authority 55. Who is the Founder and Executive Chairman of the
(b) Nonprofit Foundation World Economic Forum (WEF)?
(c) International Corporation (a) Bill Gates
(d) Research Institute (b) Angela Merkel
(c) Klaus Schwab
54. What is the theme of the 2024 World Economic (d) Christine Lagarde
Forum (WEF) annual meeting in Davos,
Switzerland?
(a) Global Economic Resilience
(b) Sustainable Development Goals
(c) From Lab to Life: Science in Action
51.
(b) The correct answer is (b) 1971. The World Economic 54.
c o m
(c) The correct answer is (c) From Lab to Life: Science in
.
Forum was established in 1971 as a Swiss nonprofit Action. The theme of the 2024 World Economic
foundation. Forum annual meeting in Davos is "From Lab to Life:
rs
52. (b) The correct answer is (b) Geneva, Switzerland. The Science in Action," highlighting the role of science in
headquarters of the World Economic Forum is addressing global challenges and driving positive
e
located in Geneva, Switzerland. change.
53. (b) The correct answer is (b) Nonprofit Foundation. The 55. (c) The correct answer is (c) Klaus Schwab. Klaus Schwab
World Economic Forum operates as a Swiss nonprofit
foundation, emphasizing its commitment to
addressing global economic issues.
an k is the Founder and Executive Chairman of the World

Economic Forum (WEF), playing a key role in
establishing and leading the organization since its
inception.
p r
WORLD EMPLOYMENT AND SOCIAL OUTLOOK 2024
Why in News?
To
A) Global unemployment rate is set to increase in 2024 while growing social inequalities remain a concern, said
the International Labour Organisation’s (ILO) World Employment and Social Outlook: Trends 2024 report
released in Vienna on Wednesday. Joblessness and the jobs gap have both fallen below pre-pandemic levels but
global unemployment will rise in 2024, the report noted and maintained that growing inequalities and stagnant
productivity are causes for concern. In India, real wages are “positive” compared to other G20 countries, according
to the report.
B) The report said the macroeconomic environment deteriorated significantly over 2023. “Ongoing geopolitical
tensions as well as persistent and broadening inflation triggered frequent and aggressive moves by central banks,”
it said. Monetary authorities in advanced and emerging economies 0L0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7Limplemented the fastest increase in interest
rates since the 1980s,0Cwith significant global repercussions, it said. China, Türkiye and Brazil slowed down
tr-5F8E 1F7A0A 1J
considerably, causing adverse impact on global industrial activity, investment and trade.
About the Report
A) On a positive note, the report said, despite the economic slowdown, global growth in 2023 was modestly higher
than anticipated, and labour markets showed surprising resilience. “On the back of strong jobs growth, both the
0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0Lvalues.
unemployment rate and the jobs gap have declined below pre-pandemic
B) The global jobs gap also saw improvements in 2023, but, at close to 435 million, remained elevated,” the report said.
The labour market participation rates had largely also recovered from their pandemic lows. “Although the
imbalances eased somewhat in 2023, concerns are rising that these labour market imbalances are structural, rather
than cyclical, in nature,” it warned.
C) Real wages declined in the majority of G20 countries as wage increases failed to keep pace with inflation, the report
noted. “Moreover, in 2023, the numbers of workers living in extreme poverty – earning less than US$2.15 per day per
person in purchasing power parity (PPP) terms – grew by about one million globally,” it said.
D) “Only China, the Russian Federation and Mexico enjoyed positive real wage growth in 2023. The strongest
wages gains were in China and the Russian Federation, where labour productivity growth was among the highest
26
in G20 countries in 2023. Real wage growth in India and Türkiye was also positive, but the available data refer to
2022 relative to 2021,” the report said.
ILO on Unemployment
1. In its World Employment and Social Outlook Trends: 2024 report, released on Wednesday, the ILO said labour
markets have shown surprising resilience despite deteriorating economic conditions, but recovery from the
pandemic remains uneven as new vulnerabilities and multiple crises are eroding prospects for greater social justice.
2. According to the report, both the unemployment rate and the jobs gap rate, which is the number of persons without
employment who are interested in finding a job, have fallen below pre-pandemic levels with the unemployment
rate.
3. “However, beneath these numbers fragility is starting to emerge,” it said, projecting that both the labour market
outlook and global unemployment will worsen. “In 2024 an extra two million workers are expected to be looking
for jobs, raising the global unemployment rate.
4. As per the report, disposable incomes have declined in the majority of G20 countries and, generally, the erosion of
living standards resulting from inflation is, “unlikely to be compensated quickly”.
m
Long-Term Policy Priorities
A) As transitory crisis impacts stabilize but entrenched issues persist, governments must prioritize quality job creation
and fortifying social safety nets to prevent greater inequality.
B) Nations should also invest in workforce training, job matching programs, and unemployment schemes to ease
structural displacement from technological and climate change-driven disruption.
.c o
rs
C) Proactive reforms strengthening worker protections can help temper the coming rise in joblessness while laying
foundations for an equitable, inclusive future of work as the global economy enters a complicated new chapter.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
k e
56. Who currently serves as the Director-General of the
International Labour Organization (ILO)?
(a) Guy Ryder (b) Juan Somavia
(c) Gilbert F. Houngbo (d) Kofi Annan
r an 59.
(c) It modestly improved
(d) It decreased marginally
When was the organization created as part of the
57.
according to the Report?
o
What was the global unemployment rate in 2023
p Treaty of Versailles that ended World War I?
(a) 1925
(c) 1919
(b) 1931
(d) 1946
58.
(a) 4.5%
(c) 6.0%
T
(b) 5.1%
(d) 7.2%
In comparison to 2022, how did the global

unemployment rate change in 2023?
(a) It increased significantly
60. What is the name of the organization created in 1919
to reflect the belief that universal and lasting peace
can be accomplished only if it is based on social
justice?
(a) League of Nations (b) United Nations
(b) It remained the same (c) European Union (d) NATO
0L0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L
0C 1J
tr-5F8E1F7A0A
56. (c) The correct answer is (c) Gilbert F. Houngbo. Gilbert 59. (c) The correct answer is (c) 1919. The organization was
F. Houngbo is the current Director-General of the created in 1919 as part of the Treaty of Versailles that
International Labour Organization (ILO). ended World War I.
57. (b) The correct answer is (b) 5.1%. The global 60. (a) The correct answer is (a) League of Nations. The
unemployment rate stood at 5.1% in 2023, 1P7L0L0R
tr-5P8ULeague of 1U
Nations was created in 1919 with the belief
representing a modest improvement from the that universal and lasting peace can be accomplished
previous year. only if it is based on social justice.
58. (c) The correct answer is (c) It modestly improved. The
global unemployment rate in 2023 experienced a
modest improvement from the previous year (2022).
27
150 YEARS OF IMD
Why in News?
A) India's home and agriculture ministries, along with other agencies, are calling for improved forecasts of extreme
weather events as climate change impacts become more pronounced. The agencies highlighted the need for better
predictions of heatwaves, lightning strikes, and glacial lake outburst floods, among other events.
B) They stressed that extreme weather is one of the biggest challenges facing the country and that accurate and
localized forecasts are necessary for farmers and disaster management. The India Meteorological Department
also launched a National Framework of Climate Services to reduce losses from climate hazards.
C) The home and agriculture ministries, the national disaster management authority, and other agencies need
improved forecasts of extreme weather, particularly heat waves, lightning strikes and glacial lake outburst
floods (GLOFs), as climate change impacts become more pronounced on India, heads of these agencies said on
Monday.
Contributions of IMD
A) Presenting their wish lists during a panel discussion on the occasion of a function marking to mark the beginning
of the 150th year celebrations of the India Meteorological Department or IMD, the top bureaucrats in these
o
ministries and agencies underlined that extreme weather is one of the biggest challenges facing the country, one
that manifests itself in several ways.
c m
.
B) For instance, last year’s monsoon was normal on the whole but spatially and temporally, it was far from that,
rs
according to Manoj Ahuja, secretary, agriculture. In 2022 the spring heat wave was so severe that the wheat crop
was impacted. Without early forecasts, its very difficult for farmers to take investment decisions because 50% of the
crop area is rain-fed, he added: “Our real challenge is to get information on a very localised level to farmers... an
interdepartmental model on improved estimation of yield will be very useful.”
k e
C) Any department dealing with such events and their fallout will need five things, said Kamal Kishore, a member of
n
the National Disaster Management Authority: better forecasts of heatwaves; tracking the seasonality of heatwaves;
understanding the urban heat island effect; monitoring glacial lakes; and better forecasts of rainfall in the wake of
cyclones.
History of IMD
p r a
A) The climate crisis poses a huge risk for India, said Kiren Rijiju, the minister for earth sciences. “It is visible in
the form of melting of ice and glaciers in the polar region as well as the great hill ranges like the Himalayas. There
To
is sea level rise and increase in frequency and severity of extreme weather events. Climate change is impacting the
socio-economic and political life. India faces great risk from climate change. The poor and developing countries are
suffering more. We have to become more resilient.”
B) India has some of the oldest meteorological observatories of the world. The instrumental era of science and
meteorology in India commenced with the establishment of the first Meteorological and Astronomical
Observatory in Madras in 1793. While the first war of independence was being fought by the Indians, a group of
Scientists in Asiatic Society of Bengal was working to establish a national meteorological committee for
standardising instruments, exchanging data and utilising data for cyclone and flood disaster management and
finding out the relationship between the diseases and weather in India.
C) This was followed by the formation of a sanitation committee in 1860 and finally, the meteorological committee at
1P7L0L0R1U
tr-5P8Ureiterated
the provincial level . But the Asiatic society of Bengal again the need of National Meteorological
Committee, tr- pointing
5F 8E 1F 7A to
0A 0Cthe
1J limitations of provincial committees. Finally, Governor General Council agreed to form
a national committee, which eventually became IMD.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
61. When was the India Meteorological Department (c) Absence of drought relief measures
(IMD) established? (d) Absence of a system to monitor atmospheric
(a) 1800 (b) 1850 parameters
(c) 1875 (d) 1900
63. Who was appointed as the head of the India
62. What was the main issue identified that led to the Meteorological Department (IMD) in 1903?
establishment of the IMD? (a) Gilbert F. Houngbo (b) Gilbert Walker
(a) Lack of earthquake monitoring (c) Guy Ryder (d) Gilbert Chandler
(b) Inadequate flood forecasting
28
64. In addition to weather forecasting, what other (d) Seismological Monitoring
specialized services does the India Meteorological
Department (IMD) provide? 65. Where is the headquarters of the India
(a) Geological Surveys Meteorological Department (IMD) located?
(b) Oceanography Studies (a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai
(c) Space Exploration Initiatives (c) Chennai (d) Kolkata

61. (c) The correct answer is (c) 1875. The India 63. (b) The correct answer is (b) Gilbert Walker. Gilbert
Meteorological Department (IMD) was established in Walker was appointed as the head of the India
1875 in response to the need for monitoring Meteorological Department (IMD) in 1903.
atmospheric parameters to address calamities. 64. (d) The correct answer is (d) Seismological Monitoring.
62. (d) The correct answer is (d) Absence of a system to In addition to weather forecasting, the India
m
monitor atmospheric parameters. The establishment Meteorological Department (IMD) provides
of the IMD in 1875 was prompted by the severity of specialized services such as seismological monitoring.
calamities, highlighting the need for a system to
monitor atmospheric parameters.
65.
c o
(a) The correct answer is (a) New Delhi. The
headquarters of the India Meteorological Department
.
(IMD) is located in New Delhi.
Why in News?
NITI AAYOG – MPI
k e
A) As many as 24.82 crore people moved out of multidimensional poverty in nine years to 2022-23, with Uttar
Pradesh, Bihar and Madhya Pradesh registering the largest decline, NITI Aayog said in a report on Monday.
rs
n
B) According to the NITI discussion paper, multidimensional poverty in India declined from 29.17 per cent in 2013-14
a
to 11.28 per cent in 2022-23, showing a reduction of 17.89 percentage points, with about 24.82 crore people moving
r
out of the bracket during this period. Prime Minister Narendra Modi in a tweet on X said, "Very encouraging,
reflecting our commitment towards furthering inclusive growth and focussing on transformative changes to our
Indian."
o p
economy. We will continue to work towards all-round development and to ensure a prosperous future for every
C) The national multidimensional poverty measures simultaneous deprivations across three equally weighted
T
dimensions of health, education, and standard of living that are represented by 12 sustainable development goals-
aligned indicators, according to NITI Aayog.
D) These include nutrition, child and adolescent mortality, maternal health, years of schooling, school attendance,
cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing, assets, and bank accounts. The National
Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) by Niti Aayog uses the Alkire Foster methodology to assess the decline in
poverty rates. However, the National MPI covers 12 indicators while global MPI covers 10 indicators.
Significance of Report
 As many as 24.82 crore people moved out of multidimensional poverty in nine years to 2022-23, with Uttar Pradesh,
Bihar and Madhya Pradesh registering the largest decline, Niti 1P7L0L
Aayog 0R1Uin a report on January 15. According to
said
tr-5P8U
the NITI discussion 0Apaper,
1J multidimensional poverty in India declined from 29.17% in 2013-14 to 11.28% in 2022-23,
5F8E1F7A 0C
with abouttr-24.82 crore people moving out of this bracket during this period.
 The national multidimensional poverty measures simultaneous deprivations across three equally weighted
dimensions of health, education, and standard of living that are represented by 12 sustainable development goals-
aligned indicators, according to NITI Aayog.
7L0L0R1U
 These include nutrition, child and adolescent mortality, maternaltr-5P8U1P
health, years of schooling, school attendance,
cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing, assets, and bank accounts. The National
Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) by Niti Aayog uses the Alkire Foster methodology to assess the
decline in poverty rates. However, the National MPI covers 12 indicators while global MPI covers 10 indicators.
At the State level, Uttar Pradesh topped the list with 5.94 crore people escaping poverty followed by Bihar at 3.77
crore and Madhya Pradesh at 2.30 crore.
29
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
66. Who is the CEO of NITI Aayog, as of the current 69. Who is the chairperson of NITI Aayog?
information? (a) Prime Minister of India
(a) Amitabh Kant (b) Rajiv Kumar (b) President of India
(c) BVR Subrahmanyam (d) Arvind Panagariya (c) Finance Minister of India
(d) NITI Aayog CEO
67. Which Indian state topped the list at the state level
with the highest number of people escaping poverty? 70. How does NITI Aayog differ from the Planning
(a) Maharashtra (b) Uttar Pradesh Commission?
(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu (a) NITI Aayog focuses on long-term planning,
while the Planning Commission focused on
68. What does NITI Aayog stand for? short-term plans.
(a) National Institute for Technological Innovation (b) NITI Aayog is a statutory body, while the
m
(b) National Institution for Transforming India Planning Commission was a constitutional
(c) New India Taskforce and Innovation Agency body.
(d) National Investment in Technology and
Infrastructure
o
(c) NITI Aayog is more flexible and provides a
c
platform for cooperative federalism.
.
(d) NITI Aayog has a larger budget allocation than
rs
the Planning Commission.
k e
n
66. (c) BVR Subrahmanyam 69. (a) Prime Minister of India. The Prime Minister of India
67. (b) Uttar Pradesh. According to the information serves as the chairperson of NITI Aayog.
68.
provided, Uttar Pradesh topped the list at the state
level, with 5.94 crore people escaping poverty.
(b) National Institution for Transforming India. NITI
Aayog stands for the National Institution for
p r a 70. (c) NITI Aayog is more flexible and provides a platform

for cooperative federalism. NITI Aayog promotes
cooperative federalism, involving the states in the
decision-making process, and is more flexible in its
o
Transforming India. It is a policy think tank of the approach compared to the Planning Commission.
Government of India, established to replace the
T
Planning Commission.
SWACHH SARVEKSHAN – 2023

Why in News?
A) [X] and [Y] were on Thursday jointly declared cleanest cities of the country at the annual clean city awards 2023 of
the Union Urban Affairs Ministry. Navi Mumbai bagged the third spot. The Swachh Survekshan awards were
given away by President Droupadi Murmu here. The list of top 10 cleanest cities with a population of more
than one lakh also includes Greater Visakhapatnam, Bhopal, Vijayawada, New Delhi, Tirupati, Greater Hyderabad
0R1U
and Pune. tr-5P8U1P7L0L
B) As far as the States were concerned, [Z] came first, followed by Madhya Pradesh and then Chhattisgarh. Odisha is
0C1J
tr-5F8E1F7A0A
ranked fourth, followed by Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Punjab, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Sikkim,
Karnataka, Goa, Haryana and Bihar.
Cities in News
C) In the category of cities with a population of less than one lakh, Sasvad and Lonavala in Maharashtra as well as
5P8U1P7L0L0R1U
Patan in Chhattisgarh secured the top three spots, while thetr-Mhow Cantonment Board in Madhya Pradesh was
adjudged the cleanest cantonment board.
D) Varanasi and Prayagraj, both in Uttar Pradesh, won the top two awards amongst the cleanest Ganga towns.
Chandigarh walked away with the award for the Best Safaimitra Surakshit Sheher (safest city for sanitation workers).
Twenty zonal awards were bestowed upon medium and small cities.
E) Madhyamgram, Kalyani and Haora – all cities from West Bengal – had the dubious distinction of being placed at
the bottom, while the States at the end of the list were Rajasthan, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh.
Survey Observations
A) “Only by eliminating manholes through mechanised cleaning and achieving the goal of sanitation through
machine-holes, we will be able to establish our true identity as a sensitive society,” Ms. Murmu said in her address.
30
She noted that the circular economy’s methods of recycling and reusing more and more goods were proving helpful
for sustainable development. She expressed confidence that such a system will prove to be very useful in the field
of waste management also.
B) Union Urban Affairs Minister Hardeep Singh Puri said: “Today every city in India is ODF (open defecation free).
This became possible because the Swachh Bharat Mission went from being a government programme to becoming
a Jan Andolan (people’s movement).”
C) Mr. Puri said that in 2014, there was only 15-16% scientific processing of waste, while today the number is almost
76%; in the next two to three years, 100% will be achieved. “By the end of this mission, we would have fully
transitioned from manhole to machine hole”.
D) The Swachh Survekshan, which began with a modest evaluation of 73 major cities in 2016, now covers 4,477
cities. The evaluation this year was done by a team of over 3,000 assessors. A total of 4,477 urban local bodies, 61
cantonment boards, 88 Ganga towns and 18,980 commercial areas participated in the survey. Around 12 crore citizen
responses were received.
Inception of the Survey
m
1. The number of cities covered in the annual ranking has increased over the years. The 2023 round covered 4,416
urban local bodies, 61 cantonments and 88 Ganga towns. According to the ministry, 1.58 crore online citizen
feedback and 19.82 lakh face-to-face views were received as a part of the ranking.
2. Distributing the awards at a ceremony here, President Droupadi Murmu highlighted the importance of creating
wealth from waste. She said a large amount of urban land was buried under mountains of garbage, which had a
.c o
rs
harmful impact on health. She noted that the Swachh Bharat Mission was working to eliminate such legacy
dumpsites.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
k e
71. What is the theme of the cleanliness survey in 2024?
(a) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
(b) Clean India, Green India
(c) Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle
r an 74.
(a) Gujarat
(c) Tamil Nadu
(b) Maharashtra
(d) Karnataka
Who is the current Housing and Urban Affairs
72.
(d) Waste Management for a Sustainable Future
o
Which cities were named the joint winners of the
p Minister as of the information provided?
(a) Arjun Munda
(b) Hardeep Singh Puri
73.
cleanest city award?
T
(a) Mumbai and Indore (b) Indore and Surat
(c) Shimla and Indore (d) Indore and Pune
Which state secured the top position among states

in the annual cleanliness rankings for urban areas?
75.
(c) Sarbananda Sonowa
(d) Giriraj Singh
In which year was the survey initiated?

(a) 2010
(c) 2016
(b) 2014
(d) 2018

0L0R1U tr-5P8U1P7L
71. (c) Reduce, Reuse, and Recycle.
0C1J The theme of the 73. (b) Maharashtra. Maharashtra secured the top position
tr-5F8E1F7A0A
cleanliness survey in 2024 is "Reduce, Reuse, and among states in the annual cleanliness rankings for
Recycle." urban areas.
72. (b) Indore and Surat. Indore and Surat were named the 74. (b) Hardeep Singh Puri. Hardeep Singh Puri is the
joint winners of the cleanest city award. Housing and Urban Affairs Minister.
75. 0R1U
tr-5P 2016.
(c) 8U The
1P7L0L survey was initiated in the year 2016.
UGRAM RIFLE
Why in News?
A) An indigenous rifle, named 'Ugram', developed in less than 100 days, was unveiled by India's (DRDO). The [Y],
which is a unit of Hyderabad-based private firm [X] and DRDO, has developed the 'Ugram' rifle.
B) The rifle will be able to deploy rounds of 7.62 mm calibre, which will make it more ferocious compared to rifles
which use 5.62 mm calibre rounds. An example of a rifle using 5.62 mm calibre rounds is the INSAS rifle, which is
used popularly by the armed forces in India, including paramilitary forces.
31
C) The 'Ugram' rifle was developed by the DRDO keeping in mind the operational requirements of military,
paramilitary and police forces, reported the Indian Express. The newly-created rifle weighs four kg and will have an
effective range of 500 metres, which is nearly five football fields. The rifle has been developed in accordance with
the General Staff Qualitative Requirements (GSQR) of the army.
D) GQSR is among the initial processes in capital procurement. This also outlines the requirement of the equipment,
its physical and operational details along with its maintainability and quality requirements. The rifle has 20 rounds
and fires both single and automatic modes.
About the Gun

A) "This was a mission-mode project taken up two years ago. After the [X] designed the rifle, we started looking for a
private industry partner for development and manufacturing," said [X] Director Ankathi Raju.
B) "We have followed the concept of Development cum Production Partner, DcPP for the speedy progress of the
project. Under this, the vendor is associated with us during the design and production too. After the product is
made by the vendor, it will undergo acceptance trials. We placed the order for the assault rifle to the Hyderabad-
m
based firm. The rifle will soon go for trials," said the [X] director.
76. In the given statement, which private company is

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
.c o
(b) Department of Research and Development
rs
mentioned as the parent or owning entity of the [X]? Operations
(a) Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) (c) Defence of Radiological and Detonation
e
(b) Reliance Industries Limited Operations
(c) Dvipa Armour India Private Limited (d) Defence Reconnaissance and Development
77.
(d) Infosys Technologies Limited
Which unit is mentioned as a part of [X] in the
an k
79.
Office
When was DRDO established?
r
statement? What will come in the place of Y? (a) 1958 (b) 1965
(a) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) (c) 1972 (d) 1980
(b) Armament Research and Development
Establishment (ARDE)
o
(c) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
p 80. Who has been the Chairman of DRDO and the
Secretary of the Department of Defence R&D since
78. What does DRDO stand for?

T
(d) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
(a) Defense Research and Development

Organization
August 26, 2022?
(a) Dr. G. Satheesh Reddy
(b) Dr. Samir V Kamat
(c) Dr. V. K. Saraswat
(d) Dr. Avinash Chander

8U1P 7L0L 0R1U
76. (c) Dvipa Armour India Private Limited. The statement 79. tr-5P
(a) 1958. DRDO was formed in 1958 from the
mentions that 8E ARDE is 0C
a 1J
unit of Hyderabad-based amalgamation of the then already functioning
tr-5F 1F7A0A
private firm Dvipa Armour India Private Limited. Technical Development Establishment (TDEs) of the
77. (b) Armament Research and Development Establishment Indian Army and the Directorate of Technical
(ARDE). The statement mentions that ARDE is a unit Development & Production (DTDP) with the Defence
of Dvipa Armour India Private Limited. Science Organisation (DSO).
78. (a) Defense Research and Development Organization. 80. tr-(b)
5P Dr.
8U 0L0R1U
Samir
1P7L V Kamat. Dr. Samir V Kamat has been the
DRDO stands for Defense Research and Development Chairman of DRDO and the Secretary of the
Organization. Department of Defence R&D since August 26, 2022.
32
DISPUTE OVER MINORITY STATUS OF AMU
Why in News?
A) The Centre on Tuesday told the Supreme Court that an institution like Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) which
is recognised as an institution of national importance by the Constitution “must reflect the national
structure”.
B) Solicitor General Tushar Mehta, appearing for the Centre, told a CJI D Y Chandrachud-led seven-judge
Constitution bench that is hearing a reference on AMU’s minority status that declaring it to be a minority
institution would mean no reservation for those belonging to Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST), and
Socially and Educationally Backward Class (SEBC). He said that the court therefore “would also examine (the issue)
from the point of view of social justice and equality”.
C) The bench also comprised Justices Sanjiv Khanna, Surya Kant, J B Pardiwala, Dipankar Datta, Manoj Misra and
Satish Chandra Sharma. The CJI pointed out that the provision exempting minority educational institutions from
the application of reservation to SC, ST and SEBC was provided by the 93rd amendment to the Constitution.
Development of the issue

A) Senior Advocate Rakesh Dwivedi, who appeared for some parties opposing AMU’s claim to minority status, said
c
Article 30 rights, which deals with the right of religious and linguistic minorities to establish and administer
o m
rs .
educational institutions, cannot be stretched back in time so much as to confer minority rights on groups before
the Constitution came into existence without first determining whether such group was a minority at that point in
time.
e
B) Dwivedi referred to the 1967 decision of a five-judge SC Constitution bench in the case ‘S Azeez Basha vs Union
of India’ in wherein it was held that AMU was not entitled to minority education status as it “was neither
wrong assumption that Muslims were a minority in 1920 when AMU was established.
k
established nor administered by the Muslim minority” and said the SC, however, proceeded in the case on a
n
C) To a query from the CJI whether the minority rights would not continue to operate upon the coming into being of
a
the Constitution, Dwivedi said only those rights which existed would continue.
Legal issues
p r
A) A seven-judge Bench headed by Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud on Tuesday observed that an educational
o
institution does not lose its minority status merely on the ground that its administration is regulated by a statute.
“Being regulated by a statute does not detract it [an educational institution] from having a minority status. If the
T
right of administration is regulated by statute, there is no bar to minority status,” Chief Justice Chandrachud
observed.
B) The court noted that an educational institution need not offer just religious courses. Article 30 (the right of
minorities to establish and administer educational institutions) of the Constitution does not envisage that
the administration of the educational institution ought to be absolutely by the members of a minority community.
The administration could be secular and students from any community could get admission, the Bench noted.
C) The Bench was hearing a case related to the minority status of the Aligarh Muslim University. Senior advocate
Rajeev Dhavan, appearing for Aligarh Muslim University, said private and minority institutions were at the heart of
education in India. They are the very soul of secularism in a country filled0R
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
with
1U diversity, he noted. He said standards
of examination and curricula were regulated by the state for all universities, whether they be minority-run or not.
1J
8E1F7A0A0C a reference on questions about the indices for treating an educational institution as a
D) The courttr-is5Fconsidering
minority educational institution. One of the questions before the Constitution Bench is whether an institution
could be regarded as a minority educational institution for the reason that it was “established by a person(s)
belonging to a religious or linguistic minority or its being administered by a person(s) belonging to a religious or
linguistic minority”. 0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
E) The points of reference in the case stemmed from a 1967 judgment by a five-judge Bench of the court in S.
Azeez Basha vs Union of India, which validated amendments made to the Aligarh Muslim University Act of 1920.
The Basha judgment had concluded that the varsity was a central university and minority status cannot be conferred
on it.
33
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
81. What is the historical predecessor of Aligarh Muslim (a) 1850 (b) 1875
University (AMU) mentioned in the statement? (c) 1900 (d) 1925
(a) Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental (MOA)
University 84. What was the vision behind the establishment of the
(b) Aligarh College Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental (MOA) College by Sir
(c) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan University Syed Ahmad Khan?
(d) MOA College (a) To promote Western education only
(b) To blend modern education with Islamic studies
82. Who is credited with the establishment of the (c) To establish a purely Islamic institution
Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental (MOA) College in (d) To focus exclusively on traditional Islamic
1875? education
(a) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
(b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad 85. What specific section of the Central Educational
m
(c) Allama Iqbal Institute (Reservation in Admission) Act, 2006, is
(d) Muhammad Ali Jinnah referred to in the statement?
83. In which year was the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental

(MOA) College established?
(a) Section 1
(c) Section 3
.c o (b) Section 2
(d) Section 4
81.
(d) MOA College. The statement mentions that the roots
of Aligarh Muslim University can be traced back to
k
84.
e rs
(b) To blend modern education with Islamic studies. Sir
Syed Ahmad Khan aimed to blend modern education
82.
the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental (MOA) College,
established by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan in 1875.
(a) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan is
credited with the establishment of the Muhammadan
r an 85.
with Islamic studies through the establishment of the
Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental (MOA) College.
(c) Section 3. The statement specifies that minority
educational institutions are not required to
p
Anglo-Oriental (MOA) College in 1875. implement the reservation policy under Section 3 of
83. (b) 1875. The Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental (MOA) the Central Educational Institute (Reservation in
the year 1875.
Why in News? To
College was established by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan in
UCC IN UTTARAKHAND
Admission) Act, 2006.
A) On February 5, the Uttarakhand Assembly will convene to pass the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Bill. After
multiple extensions, the five-member committee led by former Supreme Court Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai is
expected to hand over its report to the government a couple of days before the assembly convenes.
B) The introduction of the UCC was a key campaign promise made by the BJP in the lead-up to the 2014 general
elections. The party promised to create a uniform set of personal laws, regardless of religion, to govern subjects like
tr- 5P 8U1P7L0L0R1U
marriage, inheritance, divorce, and adoption.
C) The UCC was met
tr-5F8E with
1F7A opposition
0A0C 1J from rival political parties. Congress representatives from the state, such as MLA
Pritam Singh, accused the BJP of ignoring its development agenda and instead focusing on disturbing communal
harmony and polarising society. All India Majlis-e-Ittehadul Muslimeen (AIMIM) leader Asaduddin Owaisi and
AIMIM Member of Parliament Syed Imtiaz Jaleel have also made statements against the UCC.
D) The report was initially meant to be submitted in November 2022. However, 0R1U the deadline was extended multiple
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
times, despite the Chief Minister announcing in June 2023 that the committee had completed its work. Now, with
the 2024 general elections approaching, the UCC is finally ready to be submitted.
E) Since the committee’s formation, it has received over 2.5 lakh suggestions from the public, most of which were
received through letters, registered posts, emails, and written suggestions through its online portal. By September
of last year, the committee had also held 38 public meetings across the state and received suggestions through
public interactions.
UCC in Uttarakhand
34
1. The Uttarakhand government and the committee have stated that gender equality was one of the key considerations
when preparing the report. Along with uniform personal laws for all people residing in the state, the UCC will
introduce provisions that treat men and women equally in issues relating to inheritance.
2. The UCC will also reportedly reject the practices of polygamy, iddat, and halal in response to strong
demands from Muslim women in the state. However, the minimum age for marriage for both men and women
will likely remain the same as it was previously (18 years for women and 21 years for men). The UCC will also regulate
live-in relationships and require a mandatory declaration to start and terminate live-in relationships.
3. Following the enactment of the UCC in Uttarakhand, similar bills are expected to be placed before the assemblies
in Gujarat and Assam as well. The Gujarat government constituted a committee in 2022 to look into various
aspects of the UCC. Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma, speaking at the Hindu Ekta Yatra in
Karimnagar last year, also spoke strongly in favour of the UCC. Notably, Goa was the first state in the country to
implement the UCC.
Understanding likelihood of Passing UCC
A) A four-day-long session of the Uttarakhand Assembly will likely see the passage of the State’s Uniform Civil Code
m
(UCC) Bill. Speaking with The Hindu, State Finance Minister Prem Chand Aggarwal said that an Assembly session
has been called in starting February 5 till February 8. Mr. Aggarwal added that this is not a special Assembly session
but rather a continuation of an earlier session which was adjourned sine die on September 8, 2023.
c o
B) Mr. Aggarwal stressed that the government is not planning to table the State budget in this session and will call a
.
fresh session for the same in days to come. “The session starting on February 5 is primarily to table a couple of
rs
important Bills. One is the 10% horizontal reservation for Statehood agitators and their dependents. The
government might also table the UCC Bill if the committee will submit it final report before or during the session,”
e
he added.
C) The Bharatiya Janata Party-led Uttarakhand government in June 2022 formed a committee to examine ways and
k
means for the implementation of a UCC. The committee, which in June 2023 had claimed that a draft UCC was
n
ready, is headed by Justice Desai, who is also the current head of the delimitation commission. Justice Pramod Kohli
a
(retd.), social worker Manu Gaur who heads the Taxpayers Association of Bharat, IAS officer Shatrughan Singh
r
(retd.) and Vice Chancellor of Doon University Surekha Dangwal are other members of the committee.
D) The committee, which started its work in May 2022, stated that it received around 2.15 lakh written submissions,
o p
which includes submissions with multiple signatories. The committee has also met over 20,000 people in person
via public outreach programs. The final UCC draft has focused on array of issues, be it gender equality to elimination
of arbitrariness and discrimination, from uniform laws on property rights to adoption rules, said a member of the
committee.
T
E) The State has given four extensions to the committee since May 2022 to finalise the draft which is presently in the
printing stage.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
86. In the Indian Constitution, which article deals with (d) A set of laws exclusively for women
the provision for Uniform Civil Code (UCC)?
(a) Article 40 (b) Article 44 89. tr-5P
What
8U1P7Lareas
0L0R1Uof personal laws are covered by the
(c) Article 48 (d) Article 52 Uniform Civil Code in Goa?
0C 1J
tr-5F8E1F7A0A (a) Only inheritance and succession
87. Which Indian state is known for having a Uniform (b) Only marriage and divorce
Civil Code (UCC)? (c) Marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption
(a) Goa (b) Maharashtra (d) Only religious ceremonies
(c) Kerala (d) Gujarat 0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
90. Who is the current Chief Minister of Uttarakhand as
88. What does the term "Uniform Civil Code" (UCC) of the latest information?
signify in the context of Goa? (a) Trivendra Singh Rawat
(a) A set of laws applicable only to certain (b) Pushkar Singh Dhami
communities (c) Harish Rawat
(b) A set of laws applicable uniformly to all citizens (d) Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank
(c) A set of laws specific to religious practices
35
86. (b) Article 44. Article 44 of the Indian Constitution of laws applicable to all its citizens, regardless of their
contains the directive principle that encourages the religious affiliations.
state to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the citizens 89. (c) Marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption. The
throughout the territory of India. Uniform Civil Code in Goa covers various aspects of
87. (a) Goa. Goa is the only Indian state known for having a personal laws, including marriage, divorce,
Uniform Civil Code. inheritance, and adoption.
88. (b) A set of laws applicable uniformly to all citizens. In 90. (b) Pushkar Singh Dhami. As of the latest information,
Goa, the Uniform Civil Code signifies a common set Pushkar Singh Dhami is the Chief Minister of
Uttarakhand.
ONE VEHICLE ONE FASTAG
m
Why in News?
A) To enhance efficiency of the electronic toll collection system and provide seamless movement at the toll plazas,
NHAI has taken ‘One Vehicle, One FASTag’ initiative that aims to discourage user behaviour of using single
FASTag for multiple vehicles or linking multiple FASTags to a particular vehicle. The highway developer is
also encouraging FASTag users to complete ‘Know Your Customer’ (KYC) process of their latest FASTag by
.c o
rs
updating KYC as per RBI guidelines.
B) This is being done as FASTags with valid balance but with incomplete KYC will get deactivated or blacklisted by
completed, a ministry of road transport and highways statement said.
k e
banks after post 31 January. To avoid inconvenience, users must ensure that KYC of their latest FASTag is
C) FASTag users must also comply with ‘One Vehicle, One FASTag’ and discard all the earlier issued FASTags through
n
their respective banks. Only the latest FASTag account shall remain active as previous tags will be
a
deactivated/blacklisted after 31st January 2024, the statement added.
About the initiative
r
A) NHAI has taken this initiative after the recent reports of multiple FASTags being issued for a particular vehicle and
o p
FASTags being issued without KYC in violation of RBI’s mandate. Apart from this, FASTags are sometimes
deliberately not fixed on the windscreen of the vehicle, resulting in unnecessary delays at the toll plazas and causing
inconvenience to fellow National Highway users.
T
B) With penetration rate of around 98% and over 8 crore users, FASTag has revolutionized the Electronic Toll
Collection system in the country. The ‘One Vehicle, One FASTag’ initiative will help to make toll operations more
efficient and ensure seamless & comfortable journeys for the National Highway users, the ministry said.
Why this scheme?
A) Almost a decade after its launch in 2014, the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) has started the ‘One
Vehicle, One FASTag‘ initiative. It aims to ensure no vehicle uses multiple FASTags.
B) The initiative will also make sure that the owners of multiple vehicles do not use the same FASTag, thereby making
the Electronic Toll Collection system work efficiently. “FASTags are sometimes deliberately not fixed on the
windscreen of the vehicle, resulting in unnecessary delays at the toll
8U1P 0R1U and causing inconvenience to fellow
plazas
7L0L
tr-5P
National Highway users,” 0C1J
the NHAI said on Monday.
tr-5F8E1F7A0A
C) “With a penetration rate of around 98 per cent and over 8 crore users, FASTag has revolutionized the Electronic
Toll Collection system in the country” it added. All vehicle owners are now required to update the KYC attached to
their FASTags. If they fail to update their details, their FASTag will be deactivated post-January 31 even if it has
sufficient balance.
0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
91. What is the primary function of NHAI? 92. When was NHAI established?
(a) Railway Construction (a) 2001
(b) Airports Management (b) 1985
(c) National Highway Development (c) 1995
(d) Inland Waterways Maintenance (d) 1988
36
93. What is FASTag in the context of transportation in (b) It relies on RFID technology
India? (c) It requires manual cash payments
(a) A high-speed train service (d) It utilizes mobile payment apps
(b) Electronic toll collection system
(c) Fast-track lane on highways 95. What is the color of the FASTag sticker typically
(d) Expressway signage used for Car , Jeep , Van in India?
(a) Violet (b) Red
94. How does FASTag work for toll payments? (c) Yellow (d) Green
(a) It uses barcoded paper tickets

91. (c) National Highway Development. NHAI's primary 93. (b) Electronic toll collection system. FASTag is an
function is the development and maintenance of electronic toll collection system used on highways to
m
national highways across the country. facilitate seamless and cashless toll payments.
92. (d) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) was 94. (b) It relies on RFID technology. FASTag uses Radio-
constituted by an Act of Parliament in 1988 under the
administrative control of the Ministry of Road
Transport and Highways NHAI has been set up as a
o
Frequency Identification (RFID) technology to enable
c
automatic toll payments without the need for manual
.
transactions.
rs
Central Authority to develop, maintain and manage 95. (a) violet. FASTag stickers for private vehicles in India are
the National Highways entrusted to it by the generally issued in the color violet.
Government of India.
WHO ARE SHANKASRACHARYA ?

k e
Who are the shankaracharyas?
an
1. Shankaracharya, literally ‘teacher of the way of Shankara’, is a religious title used by the heads of the four
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cardinal mathas or peeths believed to have been established by Adi Shankara. According to tradition, they are
religious teachers who belong to a line of teachers going back all the way to Adi Shankara himself.
o p
2. However, there is little historical evidence for the existence of these mathas prior to the 14th century CE, when the
Vijayanagara kingdom began to patronise the Sringeri matha. Indologist Paul Hacker noted that prior to 1386,
“the timespan of the directors of Sringeri Math are unrealistically long,” spanning over 60 years each, and peaking
T
with Vidyashankara, who headed the matha for 105 years.
3. This indicates that the lineage was probably only retrospectively established to trace back to Adi Shankara — and
thus provide legitimacy to these monasteries, which would become centres of knowledge and learning. Today,
these mathas comprise religious shrines and temples, as well as libraries and residences. They are fairly
complex and spread-out organisations that are geared towards preserving and furthering Shankara’s tradition.
And who was Adi Shankara?

A) According to the most popular versions of Adi Shankara’s life-story, he was born in Kalady village on the bank
1U
5P8U1P7L0L0R
of the River Periyar in what is today Kerala’s Ernakulamtr-district.
B) According to a popular legend,
1J a crocodile caught hold of the young Shankara, and told his mother that it would
5F8E1F7A0A0C
let him gotr-only if she allowed him to take sanyas. After she reluctantly agreed, Shankara swam ashore — and
subsequently left home and became a sanyasi (ascetic).
C) Shankara’s many hagiographies paint a picture of a remarkable scholar-monk who, after being initiated into studies
by Govindacharya, was constantly on the move, visiting important spiritual centres, challenging prevalent
1U
1P7L0L0Rorders.
philosophical traditions, and establishing mathas and organising monastic
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D) From Kanchi in Tamil Nadu to Kamrup in Assam, from Kashmir and the Kedar and Badri dhams in the Himalayas
to Kashi (Varanasi) on the bank of the Ganga and Puri on the Bay of Bengal, Adi Shankara is said to have traversed
the length and breadth of the Indian landmass preaching Advaita Vedanta.
E) He is also popularly identified as the author of 116 works, including celebrated commentaries (or bhashyas) on 10
Upanishads, the Brahmasutra, and the Bhagavad Gita. However, the authorship of many works attributed to
Shankara remains disputed.
37
What is Advaita Vedanta?
A) Advaita Vedanta articulates an ontological position of radical nondualism — it posits that all that we perceive is
ultimately illusory (maya), and that the principle of brahman (not to be confused with the caste Brahmin) is the
only true reality of all things, transcending empirical plurality. The fundamental thrust of Advaita Vedanta lies in
the unity of atman or individual consciousness, and brahman or the ultimate reality.
B) This philosophical tradition found its most sustained early articulation in the works of Shankara, who “endeavoured
to communicate nonduality through systematised theories of metaphysics, language, and epistemology”, and whose
“philosophy and methods comprise a teaching tradition intended to culminate in a direct liberating recognition of
nonduality that is synonymous with liberation or freedom (moksha)” (Stanford Encyclopaedia of Philosophy).
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
96. Which of the following is not one of the 4 mutts? (a) Uttarakhand (b) Himachal Pradesh
(a) Badrikashram Jyotirpeeth (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Rajasthan
m
(b) Dwarka's Shardha Peeth in the west
(c) Govardhan Peetha in Puri in the east 99. In which century did Adi Shankaracharya reportedly
97.
(d) Tirupati Balaji in Andra Pradesh
How many traditional seats or mathas are associated
. o
live and establish the Advaita Vedanta tradition?
c
(a) 5th century CE
(c) 12th century CE
(b) 8th century CE
(d) 14th century CE
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with the title of Shankaracharya?
(a) Two (b) Four 100. What is the sacred text traditionally associated with
e
(c) Six (d) Eight the teachings of Adi Shankaracharya and the Advaita
Vedanta tradition?
98. Which state is the Badrinath Math, one of the
traditional seats of the Shankaracharyas, located in?
an k (a) Mahabharata
(c) Ramayana
(b) Bhagavad Gita
(d) Upanishads
96. (d) Tirupati Balaji

r
p 99. (b) 8th century CE. Adi Shankaracharya is traditionally

97.
98.
India.
To
(b) Four. There are traditionally four mathas (monastic
institutions) associated with the title of
Shankaracharya, each located in different regions of
(a) Uttarakhand. Badrinath Math is located in the state

of Uttarakhand.
100.
believed to have lived in the 8th century CE.
(d) Upanishads. The Upanishads are considered the
foundational texts of the Advaita Vedanta tradition,
influencing the teachings of Adi Shankaracharya.
DRAFT INDIAN STAMP BILL, 2023

Why in news
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The Finance Ministry invited public comments on the draft Indian Stamp Bill, 2023. The Bill aims to modernize stamp
duty provisions and replace0Cthe
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1J 1899 Indian Stamp Act.
Need of the law:

The Indian Stamp Act, 1899 (2 of 1899) is a fiscal statute laying down the law relating to tax levied in the form of stamps
on instruments recording transactions. Stamp duties are levied by the Central Government, but within the States are
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collected and appropriated by the concerned States in terms of provisions of Article 268 of the Constitution.
The Indian Stamp Act, 1899, a pre-Constitution Act, has been amended from time to time to enable a more modern
Stamp Duty regime. However, a number of provisions contained in the Indian Stamp Act, 1899 have become redundant/
inoperative and hence, there is a need to re-orient the Indian Stamp Act, 1899. Accordingly, it has been proposed that
the Indian Stamp Act, 1899 is repealed and a new legislation is enacted to reflect the present realities and objectives.
The Law Commission in its 67th report submitted in 1976 made extensive recommendations for reforms.
38
Features of Draft Indian Stamp Bill, 2023
A) The proposed Indian Stamp Bill 2023 will align the stamp duty regime to current realities and objectives. This
necessitates repealing the 1899 Stamp Act in its entirety and enacting fresh legislation for the contemporary context.
B) Proposed legislative changes in the new Indian Stamp Bill will likely ease payment modes and access.
Introduction of consolidated duty slabs across states could provide uniformity. Digital property registration may
also facilitate convenience.
C) The Bill may curb tactics used to avoid duty like undervaluing property sales. It could mandate links between sale
prices and circle rates to prevent under-reporting. Strong anti-evasion measures will safeguard revenue.
D) An updated all-digital stamp duty system will propel India’s digital economy. Electronic documentation and
registration via a single portal or platform will enhance transparency and efficiency.
E) The new law will equip India for a seamless digital era as it has a provision of e-stamping digitally. The draft Indian
Stamp Bill defines an electronic stamp or e-stamp as an electronically generated impression denoting the payment
of stamp duty by electronic means or otherwise.
F) According to new act no stamp duty shall be chargeable for instruments executed by or on behalf of or in favour of
m
the Developer or Unit in connection with the purposes of the Special Economic Zone.
What are Stamp Duties?

Stamp duties are levied by the central government, but within the states are collected and appropriated by the
.c o
concerned states in terms of provisions of Article 268 of the Constitution. The Stamp duties on documents specified in
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Entry 91 of the Union List of the Seventh Schedule (viz. Bills of Exchange, cheques, promissory notes, bills of lading,
letters of credit, policies of insurance, transfer of shares, debentures, proxies and receipts) are levied by the Union.
e
Stamp duties on documents other than those mentioned above are levied and collected by the States by virtue of the
legislative Entry 63 of the State List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
an PRACTICE QUESTIONS
k
r
101. Which of the following act has been repealed by
Draft Indian Stamp Bill, 2023? 104. Which of the following entry of the Seventh
(a) The Stamp Act, 1899
(b) The Stamp Act, 1999
(c) The Indian Stamp Act, 1899
o p Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for

levying of Stamp Duty by Central and State
government respectively?
102.
(d) The Indian Stamp Act, 1999
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Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides
for levying of Stamp Duty by the government?
(a) Article 373
(c) Article 300
(b) Article 268
(d) Article 402 105.
(a) Entry 91 and Entry 63
(b) Entry 63 and Entry 91
(c) Entry 71 and Entry 91
(d) Entry 91 and Entry 71
According to new act no stamp duty shall be

chargeable for instruments executed by or on behalf
103. Which Law Commission submitted the extensive of or in favour of the Developer of the:
recommendations which led to reform in Stamps (a) Economic
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Act? (b) Special Economic Zones
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(a) 31st Law Commission Report (c) Union Territories
(b) 81st Law Commission Report (d) Area specified by Central Government
(c) 67th Law Commission Report
(d) 51st Law Commission Report
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101. (c) The correct answer is option C. The revised Draft States are responsible for collecting and allocating
Indian Stamp Bill, 2023, repeals the Indian Stamp Act them within their borders in accordance with Article
of 1899. The Indian Stamp Act of 1899 has to be 268 of the Constitution.
reoriented because several of its provisions are no 103. (c) The correct answer is option C. The Law Commission
longer applicable or necessary. offered numerous reform proposals in its 67th report,
102. (b) The correct answer is option B. While the Central which was submitted in 1976. In light of this, it has
Government imposes stamp duties, the relevant been suggested that the Indian Stamp Act of 1899 be
39
repealed and that new legislation be passed in order notes, bills of lading, transfers of shares, debentures,
to reflect the goals and reality of the modern era. The proxies, and receipts. According to Legislative Entry
proposed Indian Stamp Bill 2023 aims to bring the 63 of the State List in the Seventh Schedule of the
stamp duty regime into line with the goals and reality Constitution, stamp duties on documents other than
of the present. This calls for the complete repeal of those listed above are imposed and collected by the
the 1899 Stamp Act and the enactment of new laws States.
appropriate for the modern day. 105. (b) The correct answer is option B. In accordance with
104. (a) The correct answer is option A. The Union imposes the new act, documents performed by, on behalf of,
stamp duties on the documents listed in Entry 91 of or in favor of the Developer or Unit in connection
the Union List of the Seventh Schedule, which include with the Special Economic Zone's objectives shall not
letters of credit, bills of exchange, checks, promissory be subject to stamp duty.
DGCA GUIDELINES (IN LIGHT OF RECENT UNRULY PASSENGER

BEHAVIOR)
Why in News?
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Indian airline IndiGo has initiated the process of adding a passenger to the no-fly list. The person attacked a pilot
c m
because of erratic behavior after the flight experienced lengthy delays because of dense fog in Delhi. The passenger was
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deemed "unruly" by the airline, and any subsequent actions will be in accordance with the Civil Aviation Regulations
(CAR) on "Handling of unruly passengers," which were released by the aviation watchdog, the Directorate General of
Civil Aviation (DGCA).
k e
The Minister of Civil Aviation of India, Jyotiraditya Scindia, has directed Delhi Airport to promptly expedite the
operationalisation of the CAT III-enabled 4th runway, in addition to the existing CAT III-enabled runway, to obtain the
required approvals.
What is unruly behaviour:
r an
Unruly behavior can involve, but is not limited to, smoking, drinking alcohol or taking drugs that cause you to act out,
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disobeying the pilot's directions, and using foul or threatening language to the crew or other passengers, physically
intimidating and abusive behavior; purposeful disruption of the crew's work; and putting the passengers' and
the aircraft's safety in jeopardy. Should the plane remain on the ground, the passenger will be turned over right away
T
to airport security. When a passenger exhibits unruly behavior while in the air, the pilot must determine fast if the cabin
crew can manage the disruptive passenger and notify the airline's ground-based central control as necessary. Pilots and
airline central control must land as soon as feasible at the closest airport and turn over the disruptive passenger to
security after filing a formal complaint if they feel that the cabin staff is unable to handle them.
What are the categories of cases of unruly behaviour?

a) Level 1: Disruptive conduct (verbal abuse, violent gestures, disorderly intoxication, etc.)
b) Level 2: Physical abuse includes acts such as kicking, hitting, grasping, shoving, inappropriate touching, sexual
harassment, and so forth. 0R1U
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c) Level 3: Behavior that poses a risk to life, such as causing harm to the aircraft's operating system, committing violent
7A0A0C1J
tr-5F8E1Fchoking,
crimes including eye gouging, murderous assaults, or actually breaking into the flight crew compartment.
All about no-fly list
Airlines are required to keep a database of passengers on the no-fly list and provide it to other airlines as well as the
aviation authority. Airlines may choose to prohibit the disruptive passenger from travelling on flights to, from, or within
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India for the durations listed below. tr-5P8U1P7L0L
a) Level 1 – upto three months.
b) Level 2 – upto six months.
c) Level 3 – for a minimum period of 2 years or more without limit.
d) Those identified as threats to national security will be barred till the time they continue to be perceived as ‘national
security risk’ by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
For every subsequent offence, the person will be banned for twice the period of previous ban.
40
Procedure post incident
Airline companies are required to forward complaints to an internal committee, chaired by a retired district and session
judge, as well as representatives from other airlines, passenger associations, consumer associations, and retired officers
of consumer disputes redressal forums. The internal committee must make a decision on the topic and assign
the occurrence to one of three predetermined category levels within a 30-day period. The committee will also
determine how long the disruptive passenger's flight prohibition will last. The airline must abide by the committee's
ruling.
What Are the Regulations Controlling the Disorderly Conduct?

The Aircraft Rules, 1937:
The 1934 Aircraft Act led to the creation of the 1937 Aircraft Rules. This Act and the Indian Penal Code, 1860 were both
applied to the disruptive passengers. This law establishes the standards for acceptable passenger behavior.
Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):
m
The main regulatory agency that oversees civil aviation in India is the Directorate General of Civil Aviation. It is in
charge of handling matters pertaining to safety, controlling air transportation services, upholding civil aviation laws,
and performing other related duties.
Moreover, it works with the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) to coordinate its operations. This
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body's primary responsibility is to uphold airworthiness and safety regulations.
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Montreal Protocol, 2014:
The Tokyo Convention of 1963 was amended by the Montreal Protocol of 2014. It focuses on the problem of
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disruptive behavior on airplanes. By enhancing the legal framework, the convention addresses offenses and other
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activities that are performed on board airplanes. It establishes the state in which the aircraft is registered as having
a
jurisdiction over it and grants that state the power to prosecute offenders.
Tokyo Convention:
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Adopted in 1963, the Tokyo Convention pertains to Offenses and Certain Other Acts Committed on Board Aircraft. This
o
international convention deals with illegal activities on board passenger aircraft. The convention bestows various
authorities, including the aircraft commander, with the ability to address infractions committed on board, particularly
while in flight.
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What Actions Are Required to Stop Unruly Behavior?
Give approval of international agreements, such the 2014 Montreal Protocol amending the 1963 Tokyo Convention,
top priority. Ratification ensures consistency in legal responses by establishing a defined legal framework for handling
infractions and disruptive behavior aboard airplanes.
Hasten the operationalization of airport runways equipped with Category-III CAT III technology to improve their
capacity to manage low visibility situations. Verify that the necessary tools and infrastructure are available to enable
CAT III operations. tr-5P8U1P7L0L
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Give the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) instructions to release a thorough Standard Operating
Procedure (SOP) to improve passenger facilitation and communication in inclement weather. The SOP should provide
precise instructions for airlines, airports, and ground handling organizations in order to minimize passenger
inconvenience in the case of flight cancellations and delays.
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PRACTICE QUESTIONS
106. Which Indian airline had recently started the 107. Within what time internal committee is required to
procedure to add a passenger to the no-fly list as he decide the matter of unruly behaviour?
assaulted a pilot? (a) 15 days (b) 21 days
(a) Air India (b) Indigo (c) 30 days (d) 36 days
(c) Jet Airways (d) SpiceJet
41
108. Which of the following convention which has (a) Three levels (b) Four levels
replaced Tokyo Convention deals with issue of (c) Five levels (d) Six levels
unruly behaviour on board aircraft?
(a) Vienna Convention 110. Who is the current minister of Ministry of Civil
(b) Montreal Convention Aviation?
(c) Paris Convention (a) Manoj Soni
(d) Stockholm Convention (b) Rao Inderjit Singh
(c) Ateesh Kumar Singh
109. How many levels of unruly behaviour has been (d) Jyotiraditya Scindia
defined by DGCA?

106. (b) The correct answer is option B. Indian airline IndiGo is registered as having jurisdiction over it and grants
has initiated the process of adding a passenger to the that state the power to prosecute offenders.
m
no-fly list. The person attacked a pilot because of 109. (a) The correct answer is option A. Airlines are required
erratic behavior after the flight experienced lengthy to keep a database of passengers on the no-fly list and
delays because of dense fog in Delhi. The passenger
was deemed "unruly" by the airline, and any
subsequent actions will be in accordance with the
o
provide it to other airlines as well as the aviation
c
authority. For the duration listed below, airlines may
.
choose to prohibit the disruptive passenger from
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Civil Aviation Regulations (CAR) on "Handling of travelling on flights to, from, or within India. Level 1-
unruly passengers," which were released by the for a maximum of three months. c) Level 2: for up to
aviation watchdog, the Directorate General of Civil half a year. b) Level 3: for an indefinite minimum of
107.
Aviation (DGCA).
(c) The correct answer is option C. The internal
committee must make a decision on the topic and
k e two years or longer. d) Those who are deemed a

threat to national security will not be allowed to re-
enter the country unless the Ministry of Home Affairs
assign the occurrence to one of three predetermined
category levels within a 30-day period. The committee
will also determine how long the disruptive
r
passenger's flight prohibition will last. The airline
an 110.
deems them to be a "national security risk." The
person will be suspended for twice the length of the
prior ban for each subsequent offense.
(d) The correct answer is option D. Jyotiraditya Scindia is
108.
must abide by the committee's ruling.
o
(b) The correct answer is option B. The Tokyo
Convention of 1963 was amended by the Montreal
p the current minister of Ministry of Civil Aviation. The
Ministry of Civil Aviation in India is the nodal
ministry responsible for the formulation of national
T
Protocol of 2014. It focuses on the problem of policies and programmes for the development and
disruptive behavior on airplanes. By enhancing the regulation of civil aviation. It devises and implements
legal framework, the convention addresses offenses schemes for the orderly growth and expansion of civil
and other activities that are performed on board air transport in the country.
airplanes. It establishes the state in which the aircraft
REFUSAL OF ED SUMMONS (DISOBEDIENCE BY DELHI CM &

JHARKHAND CM)
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Why in news 0C1J
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Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal has cited Rajya Sabha elections, Republic Day celebrations and the Enforcement
Directorate’s ‘non-disclosure’ and ‘non-response’ approach as reasons for not appearing for questioning before the
investigating agency against its summons for appearance on January 3, in the Delhi excise policy case.
0R1U
Story so far: tr-5P8U1P7L0L
A number of political figures have recently disregarded summonses from the Enforcement Directorate (ED). Among
the prominent figures are the Chief Minister of Delhi, Arvind Kejriwal, who has evaded ED summonses in the excise
policy case four times, and his counterpart from Jharkhand, Hemant Soren, who has evaded summonses in the alleged
land scam case seven times. Soren, however, was questioned by ED officers at his home.
42
What are the provisions for issue of summons?
Section 50 of the PMLA authorizes the ED to issue summonses for questioning. The section states that the
Director of the ED may conduct inspections, enforce attendance requirements, demand the production of records,
receive testimony on affidavits, and other civil court powers for investigative reasons.
The provision states that “all the persons so summoned shall be bound to attend in person or through authorised agents”
as the ED officer may direct them to do. “The Director, Additional Director, Joint Director, Deputy Director, or Assistant
Director shall have power to summon any person whose attendance he considers necessary whether to give evidence or
to produce any records during the course of any investigation or proceeding under this Act.”.
What if the person refuses to appear?

In the event that an ED summons is not complied with, the legislation provides for a fine of up to Rs 10,000 and the use
of Section 174 of the Indian Penal Code, which imposes a one-month jail sentence and/or a fine of Rs 500.
According to Section 63 (2) (C) of the PMLA, an individual "shall pay, by way of penalty, a sum which shall not be less
than five hundred rupees but which may extend to ten thousand rupees for each such default or failure" if they disregard
m
the ED's summons or refuse to provide the agency with the requested documents or evidence.
o
"A person who intentionally disobeys any direction issued under section 50 shall also be liable to be proceeded against
c
under section 174 of the Indian Penal Code," states section 63(4), "notwithstanding anything contained in clause (c) of
sub-section (2)."
.
The question now arises is can one skip ED summons? Let's dig deeper!
e
Under the PMLA Act, the ED is authorized to summon anyone during an investigation or procedures. According to
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Clause 3 of Section 50 of the Act, those who are summoned "shall be bound to attend in person or through authorised
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agents..." Furthermore, it says that the individual who has been called in is "obligated to produce such documents as
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may be required and/or state the truth upon any subject respecting which they are examined." Furthermore, any
a
statement made in front of a court under this statute is regarded as an oath.
r
So, what happens if a person refuses to appear before the ED?
o p
Ignoring a summons, even if it is done once or often, is taken as an indication that the person is being evasive and
noncooperative. Although it might not result in an arrest right away, this could serve as justification. The report also
stated that if the ED has sufficient justification to explain to the courts during remand why the arrest was necessary, it
T
may proceed with the arrest without issuing a summons. This is particularly evident in situations when there are worries
about the accused manipulating the evidence or intimidating important witnesses if they are not apprehended. If the
summons specifies it, the individual may choose to represent themselves through an authorized representative. If not,
you must make a personal appearance.
So, can Kejriwal be arrested?

It's not as simple as it seems. The ED would need to file a new case under Section 174 of the IPC and hold a trial before
they could arrest someone under Section 63 of the PMLA. In the agency's existence, this path has never been taken.
Obtaining non-bailable warrants against the person whotr-5P is8Urefusing to comply with a summons is the
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alternative legal option. This would not be simple, according to insiders, as the majority of people who refuse
tr-5F8E1F7A 0A0C1J
summonses—Kejriwal and Soren included—give written explanations for their absence. The ED would have to persuade
the judge that the person in question is implicated prima facie and that their non-cooperation was intentional.
Moreover, court rulings have maintained that Section 50 prohibits the ED from making an arrest of someone it has
summoned.
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How does ED arrest a person for non-cooperation then?
The PMLA does not yet contain any clauses allowing for an arrest for non-cooperation. Additionally, the agency is not
limited in the number of summonses it may issue before concluding that the person it has summoned is not
participating. The law is very clear in that an arrest can only be made if the officer has reasonable suspicion that the
subject is guilty of money laundering.
According to Section 19 of the PMLA, "the Director (Rahul Navin), Deputy Director, Assistant Director, or any
other officer authorised in this behalf by the Central Government by general or special order, may arrest any
person and shall, as soon as may be, inform him of the grounds for such arrest" if he has reason to believe—
43
based on material in his possession and with a written record of that belief—that the person has committed an offense
that is punishable under this Act.
How have courts interpreted these provisons?

On October 19, 2023, the Delhi High Court ruled that the ED's authority to issue summonses under Section 50 of the
PMLA does not equate to the authority to make an arrest; rather, the two are distinct and independent powers.
The arrest authority under Section 19 of the PMLA is not unrestricted, according to a one-judge bench of Justice Anup
Jairam Bhambhani, and "authorities do not have the power to arrest on their whims and fancies."
But the panel ruled that designated ED officials had the authority to make an arrest under Section 19 of the PMLA,
noting that "it is clear that the power to arrest does not reside in Section 50 nor arises as a natural corollary of summons
issued under Section 50."
m
"The fear that the exercise of one power may result in the exercise of another power cannot be a justification for
restricting the exercise of one power. Any individual summoned under Section 50 of the PMLA...may refuse such a
Section 19 of the PMLA, the HC continued.
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summons if that is allowed, citing only a fear that he would be arrested by the ED while it exercises its authority under
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The HC further stated that an individual who has been arrested by the ED may apply for anticipatory bail even if their
name is not included as an accused party in the prosecution complaint or the Enforcement Case Information Report
e
(ECIR) of the agency.
k
"The authority granted by section 19 of the PMLA to make an arrest is not the same as the authority granted by section
n
50 of the PMLA to call someone and demand the production of records and papers, which is similar to the authority of
a
a civil court. The HC judge declared, "These are two separate and distinct provisions."
p r PRACTICE QUESTIONS
o
111. Under which provision Enforcement Directorate is (c) Delhi High Court
empowered to issue the summons? (d) Uttar Pradesh High Court
112.
T
(a) Prevention of Money Laundering Act
(b) Delhi Special Police Establishment Act
(c) The Prevention of Corruption Act
(d) Prevention Of Corruption (Amendment) Act
Under which section of Indian Penal Code a person

114. Which of the following person under Enforcement
Directorate is not authorised to arrest a individual?
(a) Director and Deputy Director
(b) Assistant Director
(c) Any other officer authorised in this behalf by the
can be punished for non-appearance against ED Central Government
summons? (d) Any other officer authorised in this behalf by the
(a) Section 154 (b) Section 44 State 0R
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Government
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(c) Section 174 (d) Section 118
0C 1J
tr-5F8E1F7A0A 115. Who is the current director of Enforcement
113. Which High Court ruled that the ED’s power to issue Directorate?
summons under Section 50 of the PMLA does not (a) Sanjay Kumar Mishra
include the power to arrest a person? (b) Prasoon Shah
(a) Madhya Pradesh High Court 0R1U
tr-(c)
5P8URahul
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(b) Rajasthan High Court (d) Rajkumar Sharma

111. (a) Summons for interrogation are issued by ED under compelling the production of record, receiving
Section 50 of the PMLA. According to the provision evidence on affidavits etc. According to the provision,
the Director of the ED, for the purposes of “The Director, Additional Director, Joint Director,
investigations, has the power of civil court for Deputy Director or Assistant Director shall have
inspection, enforcing attendance of a person,
44
power to summon any person whose attendance he authorised in this behalf by the Central Government
considers necessary. by general or special order, has on the basis of
112. (c) The law has provision for penalty of up to Rs 10,000 material in his possession, reason to believe (the
and invocation of Section 174 of the Indian Penal Code reason for such belief to be recorded in writing) that
that stipulates a jail term of one month and/or a fine any person has been guilty of an offence punishable
of Rs 500 in case of non-appearance against ED under this Act, he may arrest such person and shall,
summons. as soon as may be, inform him of the grounds for such
113. (c) The Delhi High Court on October 19, 2023 said the arrest.”
ED’s power to issue summons under Section 50 of the 115. (c) IRS officer Rahul Navin was appointed as in-charge
PMLA does not include the power to arrest a person director of the Enforcement Directorate on the
and said the two are different and distinct. A single completion of tenure of the incumbent Sanjay Kumar
judge bench of Justice Anup Jairam Bhambhani also Mishra. According to an official order, Navin, a 1993-
said the power to arrest under Section 19 of the PMLA batch IRS officer, will hold the charge till the
is not untrammelled and that “authorities do not have appointment of a regular director or until further
the power to arrest on their whims and fancies”. orders. Navin is currently the ED's special director.
114. (d) Section 19 of the PMLA says, “If the Director, Deputy
m
Director, Assistant Director or any other officer
ECI GUIDELINES FOR SYMBOL ALLOTMENT TO THE

UNRECOGNIZED PARTIES
.c o
rs
Why in news?
Chief Election Commissioner Rajiv Kumar announced new guidelines on the symbology of Registered Unrecognized
k e
Political Parties (RUPPs). These parties now have to submit their symbol application with the signature of the
designated party official, audited accounts from the previous three fiscal years, and spending information from the last
two elections.
Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs)
r an
The Indian Constitution's Article 324 gives the ECI the power to register political parties. Section 29A of the
p
Representation of the People Act, 1951 governs the registration of political parties in all states. The ECI states that
any party wishing to register must submit an application (to the ECI Secretary) within 30 days of the organization's
founding.
About RUPPs
To
These parties include: those who have just registered, those who haven't received enough votes to qualify as a state
or national party, and those who haven't taken part in an election since registering.
These parties are not entitled to all the advantages enjoyed by recognized parties. A recognized political party might be
classified as a State party or a National party, depending on whether it satisfies specific requirements.
Allotment of election symbols to political parties in India

The assignment of symbols is the responsibility of the Election Commission of India (ECI). The Election Symbols
tr-5P8U1P7L 0L0R1U
(Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 governs this. The purpose of this regulation is to specify, reserve, choose,
and distributetr-emblems during
5F8E1F7A0A0C
1J elections in Assembly and Parliamentary Constituencies in order to acknowledge
political parties. Symbols may be "free" or "reserved," which indicates they are only available to officially recognized
political parties. If a political party fulfills specific requirements, it can be acknowledged as a national or state party.
Through a notice published in the Indian Gazette, the EC releases lists detailing the parties and their emblems.
8U
tr-5Pnon-exclusive 1P7L0L0R1U
Candidates for unregistered parties may select from a variety of free, symbols. Following party selection,
these emblems are proclaimed free for use by others in future elections.
Unregistered parties and election symbol

From the list of free symbols that the commission has announced, these are meant to list the names of 10
symbols in order of preference. In accordance with the 1968 directive, the party may additionally suggest three
additional symbols of its choosing, listed in preferred order with names, distinct designs, and drawings of the symbols.
If the Commission determines that there are no objections to assigning such a symbol, it may then evaluate these
45
symbols for allocation as its common symbol. The emblems that the parties suggest must not resemble any of the
currently used reserved or free symbols, bear any religious or social connotations, or include any kind of animal or bird.
Split of a recognised political party and the issue of election symbol

The Symbols Order of 1968, paragraph 15, gives the EC the authority to assess a rival faction's claim in the event of a
split. After hearing from their representatives and considering all of the case's facts and circumstances, the EC makes a
decision. Every one of these competing sections or organizations must abide by the Commission's judgment. In cases
when parties that are registered but not yet recognized split, the ECI typically suggests that the disputing parties work
out their disagreements amicably or take their issues to court.
Key highlights: Rules for allocation of symbols to unrecognised political parties

A) Existing practice
Common emblems are given to RUPPs in exchange for an agreement to nominate at least 5% of the candidates in
the state's legislative assembly election..
m
B) Steps taken in 2014 to bring more transparency
To maintain openness, the EC issued guidelines in 2014 requiring RUPPs wishing to benefit from a shared
symbol to provide the following documentation: the evidence of current contribution reports, audited annual
accounts, updated election expenditure statements, and the most recent information about their organization.
C) What changes now
.c o
rs
The RUPPs used to provide the aforementioned information independently. These particulars are now included in
the common symbol application format. The amended regulations would take effect on January 11 of this year.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
k e
116. Which of the following is not needed to give by
Registered Unrecognised Political Parties for getting
their election symbols:
(a) audited accounts from the last three financial
r an 118.
(c) 7% (d) 10%
Within what period of its formation any party

seeking registration must file an application to the
years
elections
o
(b) expenditure statements from the last two
p Secretary to the ECI?
(a) 15 days
(c) 45 days
(b) 30 days
(d) 60 days
117.
to contest in election T
(c) and the signature of the authorized party official
along with their symbol application
(d) criminal records of all party official who is going
The common symbols are provided to Registered

119. Which Article of the Indian Constitution grants the
power to ECI to register political parties?
(a) Article 321
(c) Article 323
(b) Article 322
(d) Article 324
Unrecognized Political Parties (RUPPs) based on 120. Who is the current Chief Election Commissioner of
their undertaking to field at least (x) of total India?
candidates in a Legislative Assembly election? (a) Rajiv 0R
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
Kumar
1U (b) Arun Goel
(a) 2% (b) 5% (c) Sunil Arora (d) Sushil Chandra
0C 1J
tr-5F8E1F7A0A

116. (d) The Election Commission of India introduced new or have0R
never contested elections after registration.
1P7L0L 1U
tr-5P8UThe
regulations for allocating symbols to Registered common symbols are provided to these parties
Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs). Now, these based on their undertaking to field at least 5% of total
parties must provide: audited accounts from the last candidates in a Legislative Assembly election.
three financial years, expenditure statements from 118. (b) The registration and regulation of RUPP are governed
the last two elections, and the signature of the by Section 29A of the Representation of the People
authorized party official along with their symbol Act, 1951 (RPA), which empowers the ECI to register
application. political parties and prescribe conditions for their
117. (b) Registered Unrecognized Political Parties (RUPPs) continued registration. A party seeking registration
are parties that are either newly registered, have not under Section 29A has to submit an application to the
secured a sufficient percentage of votes in elections,
46
ECI within 30 days of its formation along with certain seeking registration must file an application (to the
documents and information. Secretary to the ECI) within 30 days of its formation.
119. (d) Article 324 of the Indian Constitution grants the ECI 120. (a) Rajiv Kumar is a former Indian Administrative Service
the authority to register political parties. The officer. On 15 May 2022, he assumed the charge as the
registration of all political parties is governed by the 25th Chief Election Commissioner of India,
provisions of Section 29A of the Representation of the succeeding Sushil Chandra. Arun Goel and Anup
People Act, 1951. According to the ECI, any party Chandra Pandey are Election Commissioners of India.
GRIEVANCE REDRESSAL COMMITTEE (STREET VENDOR ACT)

Why in news
In order to settle disagreements and conflicts among street sellers, Housing and Urban Affairs Minister Hardeep S. Puri
has emphasized the importance of creating and sustaining strong Grievance Redressal Committees under the Street
sellers Act 2014. The Minister's introduction of two key websites, the updated PM SVANidhi Mission Monitoring
Portal and the PAiSA Portal Dashboard, was a major seminar highlight. These platforms are made to offer up-to-
date information on the mission and plan in real time, encouraging accountability and openness throughout the
process.
c o m
Who is a street vendor
rs .
A person who sells things to the general public without having a permanent storefront from which to do business is
e
known as a street vendor. Street vendors can be mobile or stationary, moving from place to place while pushing carts
or carrying baskets atop their heads. Static street sellers set up shop on sidewalks and other public or private areas.
n k
Anybody selling goods on the street who is older than 14 must register with the Town Vending Committee (TVC).
a
Street merchants will make about 40% of the TVC, with the remaining 10% coming from civil society. The remainder
r
would be represented by associations for residential communities, local government, etc. In order to receive an identity
card and a certificate of vending from TVC, street vendors must first apply. A strategy for street vending must be created
o p
by the local government and updated every five years. There should be no-vending, restricted, and free vending
zones in the plan. If the street sellers become a nuisance to the public, the local government has the authority to move
them.
T
A new location for their peddling must be given to the moved street vendor. Additionally, the local government has the
jurisdiction to seize the vendors' wares in the way outlined in the street vending scheme. The local government's
responsibilities include overseeing and monitoring the street vendor program, assessing the TVC's efficacy, and
rendering appeal decisions. Additionally, the relevant government is mandated to offer street sellers social programs
and credit insurance. An impartial Grievance Redressal Mechanism made up of a retired judicial official is
provided for.
Growth in number: 0R1U

tr-5P8U1P7L0L
Street sellers are becoming more and more common in large cities across the globe, particularly in emerging Asia, Latin
1J
0A0Cbeen
7Ahas
tr-5F8E1FIt
America, and Africa. estimated that there are 49.48 lakh street sellers in India. The highest number is
8.49 lakh in Uttar Pradesh, followed by 7.04 lakh in Madhya Pradesh. There are just 72,457 street sellers in Delhi.
There isn't a single known street vendor in Sikkim.
Constitutional Provisions regarding street vendors tr-5P8U1P7L0L

0R1U
The Indian citizen is granted the fundamental freedom to engage in any profession, trade, or business, as stated in
Article 19 (1) (g). According to Article 14 of the Constitution, no one shall be denied by the state equality before the law
or equal protection under the laws while they are on Indian territory. According to the Indian Constitution's preamble,
India is a secular democratic republic with socialist principles that guarantees its citizens equality in social, political,
and economic spheres as well as status and opportunity. Article 38(1) mandates that the state safeguard the social order
in which social, economic, and political justice guide all national institutions in order to further the welfare of the
people. "Minimize the inequalities in income status, facilities and opportunities," states Article 38(2). The state is
directed by Article 39(a) to create policies that guarantee every citizen, regardless of gender, the right to a sufficient
means of subsistence. Article 41 stipulates the "right to work" subject to the state's economic capability limitations.
47
Chapter V of The Street Vendors (Protection of Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014
provides for Dispute Redressal Mechanism.
As per the act :

a. The appropriate Government may constitute one or more committees consisting of a Chairperson who has been a
civil judge or a judicial magistrate and two other professionals having such experience as may be prescribed
for the purpose of deciding the applications received under sub-section (2 ):
Provided that no employee of the appropriate Government or the local authority shall be appointed as members of
the committee.
2. Every street vendor who has a grievance or dispute may make an application in writing to the committee constituted
under sub-section (1 ) in such form and manner as may be prescribed.
3. On receipt of grievance or dispute under sub-section (2 ), the committee referred to in sub-section (1 ) shall, after
verification and enquiry in such manner, as may be prescribed, take steps for redressal of such grievance or
m
resolution of such dispute, within such time and in such manner as may be prescribed.
4. Any person who is aggrieved by the decision of the committee may prefer an appeal to the local authority in such
form, within such time and in such manner as may be prescribed.
c o
5. The local authority shall dispose of the appeal received under sub-section (4 ) within such time and in such manner
as may be prescribed:
.
aggrieved person.
Government’s Initiatives for Street Vendors
k rs
Provided that the local authority shall, before disposing of the appeal, give an opportunity of being heard to the
e
n
Over 50 lakh street vendors, including those from nearby peri-urban and rural areas, who had been selling their wares
a
in urban areas were to gain from the introduction of the SVANidhi Scheme. Additionally, it seeks to encourage digital
r
transactions by offering cash-back incentives of up to Rs. 1,200 annually.
o p
The National Association of Street Vendors of India is an entity dedicated to safeguarding the rights of thousands
of street vendors throughout the nation to earn a living. The principal aim was to unite the street vendor associations
in India to together advocate for systemic reforms.

T
In order to control street sellers in public spaces and safeguard their rights, the Street sellers (Protection of Livelihood
and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, 2014 was passed. According to the Act, a "street vendor" is someone who
works in any public or private space, either by traveling from place to place or from a temporary built-up structure, and
who sells ordinary items or provides services to the general public.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS

121. In which year The Street Vendors (Protection of (a) Maharashtra (b) Madhya Pradesh
Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act (c) 1P
Uttar Pradesh
7L0L0R 1U (d) Rajasthan
tr-5P8U
was enacted?
0C1J
(a) 2010 tr-5F8E1F7A0A
(b) 2014 124. Which Article of Indian Constitution gives the
(c) 2018 (d) 2020 Indian citizen a fundamental right to practice any
profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or
122. As per the Street Vendor Act, a person above (x) business?
years of age, who is a street vendor has to register (a) Article0R
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
141U (b) Article 17
him/herself with the Town Vending Committee (c) Article 19 (1) (g) (d) Article 25 (3)
(TVC). Replace (x) with appropriate option:
(a) 17 years (b) 18 years 125. Who is the current minister of Ministry of Housing
(c) 14 years (d) 21 years and Urban Affairs?
(a) Piyush Goyal (b) Hardeep S Puri
123. Which Indian state has the largest population of (c) Prahlad Singh Patel (d) Narendra Singh Tomar
street vendors?
48
121. (b) Chapter V of The Street Vendors (Protection of emerging Asia, Latin America, and Africa. It is
Livelihood and Regulation of Street Vending) Act, estimated that there are 49.48 lakh street sellers in
2014 provides for Dispute Redressal Mechanism. As India. With 8.49 lakh, Uttar Pradesh has the highest
per the act : 1. The appropriate Government may number, followed by Madhya Pradesh with 7.04 lakh.
constitute one or more committees consisting of a There are just 72,457 street sellers in Delhi. In Sikkim,
Chairperson who has been a civil judge or a judicial no known street vendor has been found.
magistrate and two other professionals having such 124. (c) The Indian citizen is granted the fundamental
experience as may be prescribed for the purpose of freedom to engage in any profession, trade, or
deciding the applications received under sub-section business, as stated in Article 19 (1) (g). According to
(2 ) Article 14 of the Constitution, no one shall be denied
122. (c) "Anyone engaged in vending of articles, goods, food, by the state equality before the law or equal
etc. or offering services to the general public in a protection under the laws while they are on Indian
street lane, sidewalk, footpath, pavement, public territory.
m
park, or any other public or private area" is the 125. (b) Housing and Urban Affairs Minister Hardeep S Puri
definition of a street vendor. Squatters, peddlers, and has stressed the significance of establishing and
o
hawkers are among them. Anybody selling goods on maintaining robust Grievance Redressal Committees,
the street who is older than 14 must register with the under the Street Vendors Act 2014, to resolve disputes
123.
Town Vending Committee (TVC).
(c) Street sellers are becoming more and more common
in large cities across the globe, particularly in
rs .c
and conflicts among street vendors.
MAHARASHTRA POLITICAL CRISIS (ANTI DEFECTION LAW)
k e
n
Why in news
a
The fate of sixteen renegade Sena MLAs faces with possible disqualification will be decided by the Assembly Speaker in
r
Maharashtra, marking a significant political shift. The Supreme Court ordered the Maharashtra speaker to make a
decision on the matter within a certain amount of time, and Assembly Speaker Rahul Narvekar is scheduled to deliver
o p
his decision about the disqualification of 16 Shiv Sena MLAs, including Chief Minister Eknath Shinde, under the
anti-defection law. The Shiv Sena group led by Uddhav Thackeray has already taken the case all the way to the Supreme
Court.
The story so far:
T
The ruling Shiv Sena gathered all of its MLAs in Mumbai on June 22. A few of its lawmakers are camped out in Guwahati,
supporting the party's renegade chief, Eknath Shinde. The MLAs have been cautioned by the party that if they
don't show up for the meeting, it will be assumed that they wish to quit the party. And as a result, the anti-defection
statute will be used to take legal action against them.
What about the previous court orders?

Shinde’s petition: The Shinde group contested the notices in front of the0RSupreme
1U Court, arguing that the Deputy
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
Speaker was the target of a no-confidence motion and that he was unable to make a decision about the disqualification
1J
applications. The 8E1F7A0A0C
tr-5Fdisqualification proceedings were halted in 2022 by the Supreme Court's vacation bench, which also
granted the legislators under Shinde's leadership more time to reply to these petitions. A dispute arose over this order
as a result of the Supreme Court's historic ruling in the Kihoto Hollohan case.
The Supreme Court ruled in Kihoto Hollohan versus Zachillhu & Ors0R
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
(1992)
1U that it could not meddle in a
Speaker's affairs unless there was an interim disqualification.
Thackeray’s petition: At the request of the Shinde group, the then-Governor Bhagat Singh Koshyari issued an
order for the Assembly to have a floor test. The Thackeray-led administration appealed this in the Supreme Court, but
the Court declined to get involved and did not delay the floor test. Therefore, Eknath Shinde took the oath of office as
Chief Minister after Thackeray quit. The Shinde group was granted permission by the Election Commission in 2023 to
use the name Shiv Sena and the election symbol Bow and Arrow, which is designated for the party in accordance with
The Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
49
What is the anti-defection law?
MPs and MLAs who desert from one party to another are subject to penalties under the anti-defection law. In 1985, the
52nd Constitutional Amendment Act inserted it as the Tenth Schedule. Three such circumstances are covered
under the law. when lawmakers chosen on a political party platform choose to leave the party or cast votes in the
legislature against the party's desires. when an MP or MLA who was elected as an independent later becomes a member
of a party. When, six months after being selected to the House, nominees for Congress become members of a
political party.
Exemption: Under the law, a group of two-thirds MPs or MLAs may merge with or join another political party
without incurring the desertion penalty. For example, all six of the Bahujan Samaj Party's MLAs in Rajasthan joined
the Congress in 2019. There is no deadline set by law for the presiding officer to make a decision in a defection case.
What is the role of Governor in this matter?

In a state where there is political unrest, the governor plays a vital role. The legislature should determine whether a
m
government has lost its majority, the court held in the S R Bommai case (1994). In this instance, at the dissidents'
request, Maharashtra Governor Bhagat Singh Koshyari has urged the state Assembly to call a special session so that a
floor test can be conducted. A Shiv Sena whip contested the direction in the Supreme Court, claiming that it was
unlawful to include 16 rebel MLAs in the floor test because they were facing disqualification. The dissident MLAs
.c o
countered that the governor has the right to call for a floor test and that the status of a disqualification application is
rs
unrelated to the request for one. The Governor may order the floor test right away to stop horse trafficking, the court
ruled, siding with the rebel MLAs.
What is the role of Speaker/Deputy Speaker in antidefection?
k e
Determining whether an MLA has left a party or a group comprising two-thirds of a party is the responsibility of the
n
Assembly Speaker. Nevertheless, the Maharashtra Assembly's deputy speaker, Narhari Zirwal, has been filling
a
in as speaker for the time being. According to Article 180(1) of the Constitution, the Deputy Speaker fills in for the
Speaker in the event that the position is unoccupied.
r
What is a floor test
o p
A floor test is a parliamentary procedure whereby an incumbent administration, which is thought to have lost
the support of the House, is obliged to demonstrate that it still has that confidence. MLAs present in the House
T
vote on a resolution made by the Chief Minister asking for a vote of confidence. The government remains in place if the
majority of members vote in favor of it; if the CM loses the vote, the government must step down. There are two ways
to vote: electronically or by voice.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
126. Who is the speaker of Maharashtra Assembly, who 129. Which person is authorised to perform the duty of
will decide the fate of 16 rebel Sena MLAs? speaker of the house, in his/her absence?
(a) Rahul Narwekar (a) Senior0Rmost
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
1U member of the house
(b) Ajit Pawar (b) Member elected by the house through voting
tr-5F8E1F 7A0A0C1J
(c) Narhari Sitaram Zirwal (c) Member nominated by the speaker himself
(d) Sanjay Raut (d) Deputy speaker of the house
127. Which constitutional amendment led to 130. Which of the following case would fall in the
introduction of anti-defection law? 1U
0RAnti-defection
5P8U1P7L0Lof
tr-exception law?
(a) 42nd Constitutional Amendment (a) a group of one-third MP/MLAs to join another
(b) 52nd Constitutional Amendment political party
(c) 62nd Constitutional Amendment (b) a group of two-third MP/MLAs to join another
(d) 82nd Constitutional Amendment political party
(c) a group of one-fourth MP/MLAs to join another
128. In which schedule of the Indian Constitution anti political party
defection law can be found? (d) a group of one-half MP/MLAs to join another
(a) 7th Schedule (b) 9th Schedule political party
th
(c) 10 Schedule (d) 12th Schedule
50
126. (a) A major political development will take place in political party voluntarily give up membership of that
Maharashtra where the Assembly Speaker will decide party or vote in the legislature against the party’s
the fate of 16 rebel Sena MLAs who are facing the wishes.
disqualification threat. Assembly Speaker Rahul 129. (d) It is the Assembly Speaker who decides whether an
Narvekar will give his verdict on disqualification MLA has left a party or a group that constitutes two-
under anti-defection law against 16 Shiv Sena MLAs thirds of a party. But, the position of the Speaker of
including CM Eknath Shinde after the Supreme Court the Maharashtra Assembly is currently vacant and the
asked the Maharashtra speaker to decide on the issue Deputy Speaker, Narhari Zirwal has been acting as the
in a time-bound manner. Speaker. Article 180(1) of the Constitution states that
127. (b) The anti-defection law punishes individual the Deputy Speaker performs the Speaker’s duties
MPs/MLAs for leaving one party for another. It was when the office is vacant.
added by 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act as the 130. (b) The law allows a group of two-third MP/MLAs to join
Tenth Schedule in 1985. (i.e. merger) another political party without inviting
128. (c) The anti-defection law punishes individual the penalty for defection. For instance, in 2019, all six
MPs/MLAs for leaving one party for another. It was
added by 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act as the
Tenth Schedule in 1985. The law covers three kinds of
m
MLAs of the Bahujan Samaj Party in Rajasthan joined
o
the Congress. The law does not provide a time-frame
within which the presiding officer has to decide a
c
.
scenarios. When legislators elected on the ticket of a defection case.
rs
SC'S DECISION IN DELHI CHIEF SECRETARY'S CASE
Why in news:
k e
Despite grave allegations of corruption and partiality directed on Delhi Chief Secretary Naresh Kumar, the Supreme
n
Court has granted him a six-month reprieve. The subject matter pertains to the continuing constitutional and
a
political dispute concerning the authority allocation between the elected Delhi government and the Lieutenant
r
Governor Vinai Kumar Saxena. In particular, issues resulting from notifications, court rulings, and legislative
measures center around the Chief Secretary's tenure extension.
o p
What is the ongoing dispute with the Delhi NCT administration?
T
Notification for the year 2015:
(a) The central government's 2015 notification expanded Entry 41's list of exclusions under Article 239 AA(3(a)) and
gave the Delhi LG the power to handle issues pertaining to land, public order, services, and law enforcement
while consulting with the Chief Minister.
(b) The notification, which was affirmed by the Delhi High Court in 2016, stated that the NCT of Delhi's government
was not authorized to enact legislation for Entry 41, "Services," because they were outside the jurisdiction of the
NCT of Delhi's legislative assembly.
(c) The Supreme Court has validated: In the case of Government of the NCT of Delhi v. Union of India (2023), the
constitution bench of the Supreme Court determined that the8UNCT of0RDelhi
1U possesses legislative and executive
tr-5P 1P7L0L
authority over administrative services within the National Capital. However, this authority does not extend to
0C1J
tr-5F8E1F7A0A
matters concerning public order, law enforcement, or land, in which case the LG will be subject to the Delhi
Government's decision.
Triple Chain of Accountability:

The concept of the "triple chain of accountability" was clearly acknowledged
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
0Rby
1U the SC in the aforementioned ruling.
Representative democracy is reliant on the triple chain of accountability, which operates as follows: The cabinet has
the authority to oversee civil officials. The Legislative Assembly, which is accountable to the electorate on a periodic
basis, is the body to whom the government reports. The foundation of our democracy, representative governance, is a
vital constitutional principle that is seriously threatened by any action that breaks this "triple chain of accountability."
The reaction of the Central Government following validation:

The Government of the NCT of Delhi (Amendment) Ordinance was subsequently issued by the Central Government,
overturning the decision made by the Apex Court. After the Delhi Government challenged the Ordinance in court, the
SC referred the case to a Constitution Bench for decision-making. The Government of National Capital Territory of
51
Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2023, which gave the center superpowers over Delhi administration, was passed by the
Parliament while the case was still before the Constitution Bench.
One such use of the central government's power is the six-month extension of the Chief Secretary of Delhi's
term.
What is the Delhi Government (Amendment) Act, 2023?
The goal of the Act is to create a permanent body known as the "National Capital Civil Service Authority" to make
decisions about the control and posting of public servants.
The Principal Secretary, the Chief Secretary, and the Chief Minister of Delhi, who are all employed by the Government
of the National Capital Territory of Delhi, will make up the NNCSA.
Its job is to advise the LG on the postings and transfers of all Group 'A' officers working for the Government of the
National Capital Territory of Delhi, with the exception of those who are in charge of land, public order, and law
m
enforcement.
Section 45D: By amending Section 45D of the previously mentioned Ordinance, the Center gains authority over the
nomination of candidates to Delhi's statutory commissions and tribunals.
.c o
rs
According to Section 45D, the President shall appoint, constitute, or nominate any authority, board, commission, or
statutory body, as well as any office bearer or member thereof, established or appointed by or under any law now in
e
effect, in and for the NCT of Delhi. The statute grants LG ultimate authority; in the event of a disagreement, LG's
judgment will take precedence.
Chief Secretary's Function and Sidestepping Precedents:
an k
The Court's current ruling runs counter to its previous position on the Chief Secretary's duties, which was
r
stated in the 1974 Royappa case.
o p
In the Royappa case, the Court determined that the Chief Secretary's position is highly trusted since he serves as the
"lynchpin in the administration," which calls for a good working relationship between him and the Chief Minister.
The Court makes an incorrect interpretation of the law by selecting incorporating its observations after first avoiding
131.
T
applying its own position as stated in the Royappa case.
The Chief Secretary of Delhi, has been granted six

month extension of his tenure by SC. Who is the
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
(a)
(b)
Principal Secretary
The Chief Secretary
Chief Secretary of Delhi? (c) The Chief Minister of Delhi
(a) Durga Shankar Mishra (d) The President
(b) Nitin Kareer tr-5P8U1P7L0L
0R1U
(c) Naresh Kumar 134. Who is the current Lieutenant Governor (LG) of
0C1J
tr-5F8E1F7A0A
(d) Anurag Verma NCT Delhi?
(a) Vinai Kumar Saxena
132. Which Article of the Cosntitution give the power to (b) Anil Baijal
LG o handle issues pertaining to land, public order, (c) Aditya Nath Jha
services, and law enforcement while consulting with 1U
tr-(d)
5P8UNajeeb Jung
1P7L0L0R
the Chief Minister?
(a) Article 239 AA(3(a)) 135. As per the Delhi Government (Amendment) Act,
(b) Article 339 AA(3(a)) 2023 who has the power to appoint, any authority,
(c) Article 439 AA(3(a)) board, commission, or statutory body for the NCT of
(d) Article 139 AA(3(a)) Delhi?
(a) Principal Secretary
133. Who among the following will not be the part of (b) The Chief Secretary
National Capital Civil Service Authority as proposed (c) The Chief Minister of Delhi
by Delhi Government (Amendment) Act, 2023? (d) The President
52
131. (c) Despite grave allegations of corruption and partiality National Capital Territory of Delhi, will make up the
directed on Delhi Chief Secretary Naresh Kumar, the NNCSA.
Supreme Court has granted him a six-month reprieve. 134. (a) Vinai Kumar Saxena is an Indian corporate scientist,
The subject matter pertains to the continuing who is currently serving as the 22nd Lieutenant
constitutional and political dispute concerning the Governor of Delhi since 2022. He previously served as
authority allocation between the elected Delhi chairman of the Khadi and Village Industries
government and the Lieutenant Governor (LG) Commission.
132. (a) The central government's 2015 notification expanded 135. (d) By amending Section 45D of the previously
Entry 41's list of exclusions under Article 239 AA(3(a)) mentioned Ordinance, the Center gains authority
and gave the Delhi LG the power to handle issues over the nomination of candidates to Delhi's statutory
pertaining to land, public order, services, and law commissions and tribunals. According to Section
enforcement while consulting with the Chief 45D, the President shall appoint, constitute, or
Minister. nominate any authority, board, commission, or
m
133. (d) The goal of the Act is to create a permanent body statutory body, as well as any office bearer or member
known as the "National Capital Civil Service thereof, established or appointed by or under any law
o
Authority" to make decisions about the control and now in effect, in and for the NCT of Delhi. The statute
posting of public servants. The Principal Secretary, grants LG ultimate authority; in the event of a
the Chief Secretary, and the Chief Minister of Delhi,
who are all employed by the Government of the
DRAFT PRESS & PERIODICALS RULES, 2024 .c

disagreement, LG's judgment will take precedence.
rs
Why in news
k e
n
India's I&B Ministry released draft regulations for the Press and Periodicals Registration Act 2023, which was just passed,
a
in order to solicit feedback from the public. The Press Registrar's authority and procedures are outlined in the rules.
Story so far
p r
The Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867, a colonial-era statute, was repealed by the Lok Sabha in a historic
o
decision that passed the Press and Registration of Periodicals Bill, 2023. During the Monsoon Session, the Rajya Sabha
previously passed the bill.
T
The Press and Registration of Periodicals Bill, 2023 eliminates the need for a physical interface by utilizing an online
technology to streamline and expedite the process of granting titles and registering magazines. By doing this, the Press
Registrar General would be able to expedite the procedure and guarantee that beginning a publication would not pose
a significant challenge for publishers, particularly small and medium-sized ones. Most notably, the publishers would
no longer have to authenticate their declarations and file them with the District Magistrates or local authorities.
Additionally, printing presses would merely need to provide an indication rather than having to provide any kind of
declaration. There were currently eight steps in the overall process, and it took a long time.
The Minister of Information and Broadcasting, Anurag Singh Thakur, introduced

tr-5P8U1P7L0L
0R1U the Bill in the Lok Sabha, stating
that it "reflects yet another step of the Modi Government towards jettisoning mentality of slavery and bringing new
tr-5F8E1F7A 0A0C1J
laws for new India." The Minister went on to say that attempts have been taken to significantly decriminalize the
colonial era statute because it has been the government's objective to reduce crime, enhance the ease of conducting
business, and improve living conditions through new laws. Instead of a conviction as was previously the case, cash fines
have been suggested for some infractions. Additionally, a reliable appeals process has been established, which will be
presided over by the Press Council of India Chairperson. Stressingtr-upon
5P8U1Pthe
7L0Lease
0R1Uof doing business aspect, Shri Thakur
said title registration process, which sometimes took 2-3 years, would now be done in 60 days.
The Act of 1867, a remnant of the British Raj, sought to impose total control over the press as well as the printers and
publishers of books and newspapers. It also included harsh fines and penalties, such as incarceration, for a number of
infractions. It was believed that the antiquated rule was completely out of step with the modern media environment,
especially in light of the free press and the government's dedication to preserving media freedom.
53
Main Features Of Press And Registration Of Periodicals Bill 2023
I. Grant of title allotment and Certificate of Registration Periodicals
A) The Bill offers a straightforward online application process that allows a periodical to simultaneously request title
verification and a certificate of registration from the Press Registrar General.
B) No declaration needs to be presented to the local government or have its authenticity confirmed by them.
C) No one shall be allowed to publish a periodical if they have been found guilty by a court of any crime including
terrorist acts, unlawful activities, or any action that compromises the security of the State.
D) A foreign periodical's facsimile edition may be printed in India provided the Central Government grants permission
in advance and the publication is registered with the Press Registrar General.
II. Printing Presses
No need for the printer to submit any declarations to the local authorities or seek authority authentication; instead,
the printer of a periodical is required to provide an online notification to both the Press Registrar General and the
local authority.
III. Role of District magistrate/local authority
After receiving an application, the District Magistrate is expected to provide the Press Registrar General with
comments or a notice of intent (NOC) within 60 days. The Press Registrar General may then proceed with granting
registration even in the event that the DM/local authority does not provide comments or a NOC within that 60-day
c o m
.
period. This is in accordance with the Bill, which envisions a minimal role for the District Magistrate/local authority
rs
regarding the grant of Certificate of Registration and title allotment. A publisher is not required to submit any
declarations to the District Magistrate.
e
Difference between the Press and Registration of Books Act 1867 and the Press and Registration of Periodicals
Bill 2023
by the PRP Bill 2023.
a k
A) Since books are managed by the Ministry of HRD, books that were a part of the PRB Act 1867 are no longer covered
n
B) Printing presses are exempt from filing declarations with the District Magistrate; all they need to do is submit an
r
online notification to both the Press Registrar General and the District Magistrate. Periodical publishers are also
not required to file declarations with the District authority; the Press Registrar General will make the final decision
o
Authority and the Press Registrar General.
p
after receiving simultaneous applications for title allotment and Certificate of Registration from the District
C) The PRB Act 1867, which had harsh penalties for conviction and up to six months in jail for various Act violations,
T
has been largely decriminalized.
D) The 2023 Bill only contemplates jail time of up to six months in the most extreme circumstances, such as
when a periodical is published without a Certificate of Registration and the publisher refuses to stop printing it
even after the Press Registrar General has given a six-month notice to that effect.
E) The Press Registrar General did not have the authority to cancel or suspend the Certificate of Registration it had
been awarded by the 1867 Act; only the DM could do so.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
136. Which of the following colonial act is repealed by the 138. tr-5P
After receiving
8U1P7L0L0R1U an application for publication, the
introduction of Draft Press & Periodicals rules, 2024? District Magistrate is expected to provide the Press
(a) The Press tr-
and5F8E 1F7A0A0C1J of Books Act, 1867
Registration Registrar General with comments or a notice of
(b) The Press and Registration of Periodicals Act, intent (NOC) within:
1867 (a) 15 days (b) 30 days
(c) The Press and Registration of Books Act, 1876 (c) 45 days (d) 60 days
(d) The Press and Registration of Periodicals Act, 7L0L0R
5P8U1Pis
1U
1876 139. tr-What the highest duration of jail time which has
been contemplated by the act?
137. The new act would expedite the process as the (a) 2 months (b) 3 months
publishers now no longer need to have to (c) 4 months (d) 6 months
authenticate their declarations and file them with
the: 140. Who is the current minister of Ministry of
(a) Press Beauru of India Information and Broadcasting?
(b) District Magistrate (a) Piyush Goyal (b) Anurag Singh Thakur
(c) Sub-Divisional Magistrate (c) Ashwini Vaishnaw (d) Rajnath Singh
(d) Judicial Magistrate
54
136. (a) The Press and Registration of Books Act, 1867, a with granting registration even in the event that the
colonial-era statute, was repealed today by the Lok DM/local authority does not provide comments or a
Sabha in a historic decision that passed the Press and NOC within that 60-day period.
Registration of Periodicals Bill, 2023. During the 139. (d) The PRB Act 1867, which had harsh penalties for
Monsoon Session, the Rajya Sabha previously passed conviction and up to six months in jail for various Act
the bill. violations, has been largely decriminalized. The 2023
137. (b) Most notably, the publishers would no longer have to Bill only contemplates jail time of up to six months in
authenticate their declarations and file them with the the most extreme circumstances, such as when a
District Magistrates or local authorities. Additionally, periodical is published without a Certificate of
printing presses would merely need to provide an Registration and the publisher refuses to stop
indication rather than having to provide any kind of printing it even after the Press Registrar General has
declaration. There were currently eight steps in the given a six-month notice to that effect.
overall process, and it took a long time. 140. (b) The Minister of Information and Broadcasting,
m
138. (d) After receiving an application, the District Magistrate Anurag Singh Thakur, introduced the Bill in the Lok
is expected to provide the Press Registrar General Sabha, stating that it "reflects yet another step of the
o
with comments or a notice of intent (NOC) within 60 Modi Government towards jettisoning mentality of
days. The Press Registrar General may then proceed slavery and bringing new laws for new India."
THE RIGHT TO RESIDE U/A 19(1)(E) CANNOT BE CLAIMED BY A

FOREIGNER (DELHI HC)
rs .c
Why in news
k e
n
In a recent ruling, the Delhi High Court ruled that foreigners are not entitled to reside in India under Article
19(1)(e) of the Indian Constitution. Article 19(1)(e) of the Indian Constitution makes it clear that foreign nationals
a
cannot claim the right to live or settle in India. This was made clear by the Delhi High Court. Judges Suresh Kumar
r
Kait and Manoj Jain, who make up the division bench, emphasized that the only fundamental rights granted to
p
foreigners—or those who are suspected of being foreigners—are the rights to life and liberty as guaranteed by Article
21 of the Constitution.
o
Only citizens of India are entitled to the fundamental rights listed in Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30; alien nationals
T
are not. The concept of fundamental rights was adopted from the United States Constitution. The Indian Constitution's
third section contains references to fundamental rights. Articles 12-30 and 32-35 of the Indian Constitution list the six
freedoms that Indian citizens are guaranteed.
What was the ruling of the court?

1) Delhi High Court is considering a man's habeas corpus case, alleging that the Foreign Regional Registration Office
wrongfully held his nephew Azal Chakma, who is believed to be a citizen of Bangladesh.
2) The Delhi High Court dismissed the plea, observing that foreigners cannot assert their right to remain and settle in
India under Article 19 (1) (e) of the Indian Constitution because Article0R211Uof the Indian Constitution limits their
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
fundamental rights to the protection of life and liberty.
3) The benchtr-stated 7A0A0C1J
5F8E1Funequivocally that the current writ petition's prayer is limited to habeas corpus relief. There is no
evidence to suggest that Mr. Azal Chakma's imprisonment is unlawful.
4) The bench further underlined that the limitations on his movement are in place to make him more easily deportable
and that they cannot be deemed illegal.
5) The high court highlighted that the Supreme Court had stressed8Uthe complete
0R1U and unrestricted authority of the
tr-5P 1P7L0L
Indian government to expel foreigners in Hans Muller of Nurenburg Vs. Superintendent, Presidency Jail,
Calcutta. The court pointed out that the Constitution contains no clause restricting this kind of discretion.
Facts of the case

The petitioner claims that in October 2022, Chakma was captured at Delhi's Indira Gandhi International (IGI) Airport.
The guy, according to the appeal, was born into Indian citizenship and received his early schooling in Gomati, Tripura,
and then Shillong, Meghalaya. The petitioner contended that Chakma, with the exception of a very brief period, has
lived in India his entire life. He is an Indian citizen, owns a driving license, an Aadhaar card, a PAN card, and an Indian
passport. He also operates a business in Kolkata. The petitioner stated that as of October 13, 2022, his nephew has been
unlawfully detained by the Foreign Regional Registration Office (FRRO).
55
In the meantime, the FRRO said that Chakma was detained at IGI Airport, Delhi during immigration clearance on the
intervening night of October 12 and October 13, 2022, as he was trying to go to Dhaka using an Indian passport that had
been obtained unlawfully. According to the FRRO, his movements were restricted against the aforementioned
backdrop. Chakma allegedly left India in June 2016 using a passport from Bangladesh, and it was unclear how he
returned to the country.
According to respondents, Chakma possibly entered India “illegally through porous border and thereafter managed to
obtain Indian documents in fraudulent and dishonest manner”. The FRRO said that Chakma’s Indian passport, “which
he had obtained in a fraudulent manner”, has already been revoked by the Indian authorities on June 21, 2023.
It was also claimed by FRRO that the High Commission of Bangladesh had already issued travel permit documents for
Chakma’s repatriation and he would be deported as soon as respondents got confirmed air tickets for him from the
Bangladesh embassy.
“Documents collected by the respondents clearly indicate that he was holding Bangladeshi passport and had come to
India multiple times on the basis of such passport. When he had applied for visa, he claimed himself to be a Bangladeshi
m
national by birth and also claimed that his parents were also Bangladeshi citizens. Petitioner has not given any response,
much less a plausible one, to the aforesaid documents and the passport issued to him by the Bangladeshi authorities.
passport. There is no qualm about the provisions contained under Citizenship Act, 1955 as well as the
Foreigners Order, 1948 but fact remains that there is nothing which may indicate that detention of Mr. Azal
. o
He has also failed to apprise as to how and when he entered India after he had gone to Dhaka on the basis of Bangladeshi
c
rs
Chakma is illegal or without any authority,” the bench thereafter observed.
e
What does Article 19 (1) (d) and Article 19 (1) (e) states?
1) Article 19(1)(d) ensures the right to move freely within the country, encompassing the right to use roads and
highways.
n k
2) Article 19(1)(e) affirms the fundamental right of every citizen to reside and settle in any part of India.
a
3) Article 19(1)(d) and (e) complement each other, granting citizens the right to move freely and reside anywhere in
r
India.
4) Article 19(5) allows reasonable restrictions on the right to freedom of movement and residence for the interests of
What is illegal detention?
o p
the general public or the protection of any Scheduled Tribe.
T
1) It is the unwarranted detention or unlawful taking away of one's freedom by "arrest" for an erroneous reason or
suspect, followed by the ongoing limitation of that person's freedom while they are in custody.
2) The Constitution permits recourse through the filing of a habeas corpus petition under Article 32 or 226 if
someone is wrongfully detained by the police.
3) The habeas corpus writ serves as a corrective measure for the individual incarcerated without authorization.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
141. What was the strength of the bench which held that 143. Under which Article of Indian Constitution writ of
foreigners are not entitled to reside in India under 8U1P7L0L
habeas 0R1U
corpuscan be filed?
tr-5P
Article 19(1)(e) of the Indian Constitution?
0C1J (a) Article 19 and 21 (b) Article 14 and 17
(a) Single Benchtr-5F8E1F7A0A
(b) Division Bench (c) Article 32 and 226 (d) Article 132 and 326
(c) Full Bench (d) Constitutional Bench
144. Which of the following fundamental rights are not
142. Which High Court gave the ruling that foreigners are exclusively available to Indian citizens and not to
not entitled to reside in India under Article 19(1)(e) tr-foreign 0L0R1U
nationals?
5P8U1P7L
of the Indian Constitution? (a) Articles 15 (b) Articles 20
(a) Delhi High Court (c) Articles 30 (d) Articles 21
(b) Madhya Pradesh High Court 145. In which part of the Indian Constitution
(c) Bombay High Court Fundamental Rights can be found out?
(d) Rajasthan High Court (a) Part II (b) Part III
(c) Part IV (d) Part V
56
141. (b) Judges Suresh Kumar Kait and Manoj Jain, who make wrongfully detained by the police. The habeas corpus
up the division bench, emphasized that the only writ serves as a corrective measure for the individual
fundamental rights granted to foreigners—or those incarcerated without authorization.
who are suspected of being foreigners—are the rights 144. (d) Only citizens of India are entitled to the fundamental
to life and liberty as guaranteed by Article 21 of the rights listed in Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30; alien
Constitution. nationals are not.The concept of fundamental rights
142. (a) In a recent ruling, the Delhi High Court ruled that was adopted from the United States Constitution.The
foreigners are not entitled to reside in India under Indian Constitution's third section contains
Article 19(1)(e) of the Indian Constitution. Article references to fundamental rights.Articles 12-30 and
19(1)(e) of the Indian Constitution makes it clear that 32-35 of the Indian Constitution list the six freedoms
foreign nationals cannot claim the right to live or that Indian citizens are guaranteed.
settle in India. This was made clear by the Delhi High 145. (b) Only citizens of India are entitled to the fundamental
143.
Court.
(c) Illegal detention is the unwarranted detention or
unlawful taking away of one's freedom by "arrest" for
m
rights listed in Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30; alien
o
nationals are not. The concept of fundamental rights
c
was adopted from the United States Constitution. The
.
an erroneous reason or suspect, followed by the Indian Constitution's third section contains
rs
ongoing limitation of that person's freedom while references to fundamental rights. Articles 12-30 and
they are in custody. The Constitution permits 32-35 of the Indian Constitution list the six freedoms
e
recourse through the filing of a habeas corpus that Indian citizens are guaranteed.
petition under Article 32 or 226 if someone is
n
FISCAL FEDERALISM (CENTRAL GOVERNMENT & TN
a k
GOVERNMENT)
p r
o
Why in news:
Tamil Nadu finance minister Thangam Thennarasu recently accused the Centre of discrimination towards the state
T
over allocation of funds for developmental schemes, bringing focus to the issue of increasing imbalance in India’s fiscal
federalism. Between 2014-2015 and 2021-2022, TN contributed about Rs 5 lakh crore towards direct tax, but received only
Rs 2 lakh crore in return.
What does figures says:

Uttar Pradesh, which contributed Rs 2.2 lakh crore, received almost Rs 10 lakh crore in return (four times its
contribution). So, for every rupee TN gives the Centre, it gets 29p in return, while Uttar Pradesh gets about Rs
3, and Bihar Rs 7.Each state has its unique political economy tr- model 7L0L
5P8U1Pfor 0R1U
development. In the 1960s, TN’s per capita
income was the same as that
0C of
1J northern belt states such as UP. However, TN’s political economic model increased its
tr-5F8E1F7A0A
per capita income to thrice that of UP in 2011. The state was able to achieve it because of emphasis on equitable growth,
targeted interventions and affirmative action.
What is Fiscal Federalism: 0R1U

tr-5P8U1P7L0L
The division of financial authority and responsibility among the several tiers of a nation's government is known as fiscal
federalism. It entails decisions about whether services and tasks should be handled by the federal government or the
state governments, how to raise and distribute funds, and how to distribute transfers and grants in a way that ensures
efficiency and equity.
57
Means to achieve the Fiscal Federalism?
As mandated by Article 280 of the Constitution, the Finance Commission makes recommendations about the
allocation of tax income between the federal government and the state governments. It also makes recommendations
for how to strengthen public finances, encourage restraint, and guarantee stability in fiscal affairs.
There are several federal and state taxes on goods and services that are being replaced by the GST, a comprehensive
indirect tax. A GST Council made up of delegates from the federal and state governments oversees its
administration.
The discretionary transfer of funding from the federal government to state governments for particular
initiatives or goals is known as the grants-in-aid system (Article 275). The purpose of these grants is to close
developmental gaps and regional inequities while augmenting state resources.
Methods adopted by the Tamil Nadu to resolve the issue:

TN has adopted a trickleup economics model, which is associated with boosting demandside economics through
targeted interventions, referred to by many as “freebies” or “revedi”. The mid-day meal policy for promoting school
the TN government to the country. Most recently the transfer of Rs 1,000 to women being taken up by other
c
states also began in TN. To centralise policy planning and diminish funds for the state government to experiment in
m
education, the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, hailed as revolutionary welfare initiatives, have been gifts of
o
rs
placed most subjects relating to improving development indicators such as health and education in the state list
.
policy is to deprive India of the benefits of its diverse “laboratories” for innovation. The makers of the Constitution
(although the country was quasi-federal to begin with). But the increasing number of centrally sponsored (funded by
e
the Centre and state based on a fund-sharing formula) and central sector schemes (fully funded by the Centre) to
improve developmental indicators such as the Poshan Abhiyan for health and Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana
k
for the fisheries sector diminish the role of the state in these subjects that fall within its legislative and executive domain
n
and dilutes federalism further. In the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana, the Union government’s housing scheme for slum
rehabilitation, the Centre contributes Rs 1.5 lakh for the construction of a house (fixed since 2015), while the TN
a
r
government contributes Rs 13.5 lakh for every unit in the Chennai region. But the state government has no autonomy
on criteria for selection of beneficiaries. This mistrust between levels of government in the federal architecture
o p
is inherent in the design of such schemes and can be potent for the healthy functioning of federalism. This
model demands an almost uncritical obedience from subordinate levels of government.
T
View of 15th Finance Commission:
The report of the 15th Finance Commission states that in FY19, the States had borne 62.4% of the total expenditure,
while the Union government raised 62.7% of the total resources raised by the Union government and States.
The imbalance that arises from this distribution of revenue and spending duties causes the gap to expand between the
actual devolution and the share that the FC proposed.
Conclusion:
C. Rangarajan, a former governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), has emphasized the significance of fiscal
federalism in Indian democracy at several levels. As part of the legislative process, the Union government must allocate
0L0R1U
funds to enable efficient consultation with the States. C. Rangarajan, a 7L
tr-5P8U1P former governor of the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI), has emphasized the
0C significance
1J of fiscal federalism in Indian democracy at several levels. The 1971 PV
tr-5F8E1F7A0A
Rajamannar committee's recommendations, which called for the Finance Commission to become an official entity,
must be taken into consideration.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
146. Who is the Tamil Nadu finance minister who 147. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with
recently accused the Centre of discrimination establishment of the Finance Commission?
towards the state over allocation of funds for (a) Article 270 (b) Article 280
developmental schemes? (c) Article 295 (d) Article 299
(a) Thangam Thennarasu
(b) Sattur Ramachandran 148. As per the reports Tamil Nadu gets (x) in return of
(c) Palanivel Thiaga Rajan each rupee contributed by the state:
(d) K. Ponmudy (a) 50 Paisa (b) 75 Paisa
(c) 37 Paisa (d) 29 Paisa
58
149. The discretionary transfer of funding from the 150. Which committee called for the permanent Finance
federal government to state governments for Commission to become an official entity with the
particular initiatives or goals is known as: duty to maintain Fiscal Federalism?
(a) The contributory system (a) C. Rangarajan Committee
(b) The grants-in-aid system (b) PV Rajamannar Committee
(c) The state-Centre Model (c) Shaktikanta Das Committee
(d) The distributary Model (d) Raghuram Rajan Committee

146. (a) Tamil Nadu finance minister Thangam Thennarasu Centre, it gets 29p in return, while Uttar Pradesh gets
recently accused the Centre of discrimination about Rs 3, and Bihar Rs 7.Each state has its unique
towards the state over allocation of funds for political economy model for development. In the
m
developmental schemes, bringing focus to the issue of 1960s, TN’s per capita income was the same as that of
increasing imbalance in India’s fiscal federalism. northern belt states such as UP.
Between 2014-2015 and 2021-2022, TN contributed
about Rs 5 lakh crore towards direct tax, but received
only Rs 2 lakh crore in return.
149.
o
(b) The discretionary transfer of funding from the federal
c
government to state governments for particular
.
initiatives or goals is known as the grants-in-aid
rs
147. (b) As mandated by Article 280 of the Constitution, the system (Article 275). The purpose of these grants is to
Finance Commission makes recommendations about close developmental gaps and regional inequities
the allocation of tax income between the federal while augmenting state resources.
government and the state governments. It also makes
recommendations for how to strengthen public
finances, encourage restraint, and guarantee stability
k e
150. (b) C. Rangarajan, a former governor of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI), has emphasized the significance of
fiscal federalism in Indian democracy at several levels.
148.
in fiscal affairs.
(d) Uttar Pradesh, which contributed Rs 2.2 lakh crore,
r a
received almost Rs 10 lakh crore in return (four times
its contribution). So, for every rupee TN gives the n The 1971 PV Rajamannar committee's
recommendations, which called for the Finance
Commission to become an official entity, must be
taken into consideration.
o p
REPUBLIC DAY PARADE
Why in news
T
On January 26, 2024, President Smt. Droupadi Murmu will preside over the nation's celebration of the 75th Republic
Day from Kartavya Path in New Delhi. The parade, which aims to highlight India's rich cultural diversity, unity, and
growth as well as its military might thanks to rising domestic capabilities and the Nari Shakti, will have French
President Mr. Emmanuel Macron as its Chief Guest.
What is Republic Day?
Independence Day is observed on August 15, 1947, the day India gained its independence. Republic Day commemorates
the day India established an independent republic and obtained a written constitution. The word "Republic" denotes
that the President of India is an elected official. The Constituent 7L0L0R1U enacted the Indian Constitution on
Assembly
tr-5P8U1P
November 26, 1949, and it went into effect on January 26, 1950. Constitution Day is observed on November 26. The
7A0A0C1J
tr-5F8E1F
reason why January 26th is celebrated as Republic Day is that the Indian National Congress (INC) declared Purna
Swaraj, or Indian independence from the British rule, on this day in 1930. The Purna Swaraj resolution was approved at
the December 1929 INC assembly in Lahore. Jawaharlal Nehru presided over the meeting.
About the parade: 0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
Around 13,000 Special Guests will participate in this year's parade, which is based on the twin themes of "Viksit Bharat"
and "Bharat - Loktantra ki Matruka." This is an initiative that will give people from all walks of life a chance to join
in the celebrations and support Jan Bhagidari in this national festival.
For the first time ever, more than a hundred female musicians performing Indian musical instruments will lead the
march. These female musicians would open the march with songs from Sankh, Naadswaram, Nagada, etc. Additionally,
it will see the first-ever march along the Kartavya Path by an all-female Tri-Service contingent. In addition, female
pilots representing Nari Shakti will captivate the crowd with their Fly-past performance. Only female personnel will
make up the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) contingents.
59
The President's Bodyguard, known as "Rashtrapati Ke Angrakshak," will accompany the French President and the
President of India upon their arrival. The Indian Army's most senior regiment is called the President's Bodyguard. Since
their founding in 1773, the "Angrakshak" elite regiment has served the country for 250 years, making this
Republic Day particularly meaningful for them. After a 40-year hiatus, the "Traditional Buggy" will be used to transport
the two presidents upon their arrival.
Tableaux in the Parade

The Kartavya Path will be paraded by 25 tableaus representing 16 States/UTs and 9 Ministries/Departments,
offering a kaleidoscope of India's regional and cultural variety."Anant Sutra - The Endless Thread" is the textile
installation.The Indian saree is honored in the Ministry of Culture's exhibition, "Anant Sutra - The Endless Thread."
There will be roughly 1,900 sarees and drapes on exhibit from all over the nation, each with a QR code that can be
scanned to reveal more about the embroidered and woven textiles.
What is the Selection Process of Tableaux?

The Ministry of Defence (MoD) bears the responsibility of organizing the parade and liaising with various agencies
m
and States. Months in advance, preparations are made for the ritual, which has come to represent pride in the country
and patriotism. Tableaux selection and shortlisting are part of this procedure. Because the tableaux are cultural and
artistic in character, the Ministry of Culture works with the MoD in the selection process, providing support for
the assessment and promotion of cultural exhibits.
.c o
rs
Selection and Shortlisting:
A set process is followed to choose parade participants. The MoD encourages States, UTs, and departments to submit
e
drawings or concepts for tableaux on a general theme each year, some months in advance of the event. For example,
"Viksit Bharat" (Developed India) and "Bharat-Loktantra ki Matruka" (India-Mother of Democracy) are the themes for
k
2024. The drawing or design needs to be clear, colorful, and free of extraneous information and statistical data. o In
n
addition, the Ministry provides fundamental guidelines such as the use of environmentally friendly materials and
a
technologies that need to be incorporated into the plan. Except for the name of the State or UT presenting, which may
r
be written in Hindi up top, English down below, and the local tongue on the sides of the tableau, writing or the usage
of logos on the tableaux is prohibited.
Committee of Experts:
o p
For the purpose of screening proposals, the MoD assembles a committee of specialists in the domains of art,
culture, painting, sculpture, music, architecture, and choreography, among others. Following four rounds of
T
discussions, the expert committee—which was made up of well-known artists suggested by the Indian Council for
Cultural Relations and the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts—selected the tableaus of 16 States and Union
Territories for the 2024 parade. The panel does a preliminary assessment and makes recommendations for changes to
the sketch or design in the first phase. The participants present a three-dimensional model of the suggested tableau to
the panel once the designs have been approved after any adjustments. Experts review these before making the ultimate
choice. The next round is only disclosed to the individuals who have been shortlisted.
Indian Army Contingent
Marching down the Kartavya Path for the first time would be an all-women Tri-Service contingent, led by Captain
Sandhya of Military Police, with three supernumerary officers Captain Sharanya
1U Rao, Sub Lieutenant Anshu Yadav &
5P8U1P7L0L0R
Flight Lieutenant Shrishti Rao, and an all-women Armed Forcestr-Medical Services contingent, headed by Major Srishti
Khullar with Captain Amba
tr-5F8E1F7A 0A0C1JSamant of Army Dental Corps, Surgeon Lieutenant Kanchana of Indian Navy & Flight
Lieutenant Dhivya Priya of Indian Air Force.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1P7L0L0R1U
5P8UBharat
tr-(d)
151. Which country’s president has been invited as the ka Vikas and Bharat- Loktantra ki Shaan
chief guest for the 75th Republic Day parade?
(a) U.S.A (b) France 153. In which year President’s Bodyguard – ‘Rashtrapati
(c) Russia (d) Germany Ke Angrakshak’ which escorts the president was
formed?
152. What are the themes for 75th Republic Day? (a) 1770 (b) 1771
(a) Viksit Bharat and Bharat - Loktantra ki Matruka (c) 1772 (d) 1773
(b) Vikishit Bharat and Bharat- Loktantra ki Shaan
(c) Bharat ka Vikas and Bharat - Loktantra ki
Matruka
60
154. Which ministry is responsible for conducting the 155. Who would lead for the first time an all-women Tri-
Republic Day parade? Service contingent?
(a) Ministry of Culture (a) Captain Sandhya (b) Captain Anoushka
(b) Ministry of External Affairs (c) Captain Muskan (d) Captain Avni
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs
(d) Ministry of Defence

151. (b) The parade, which aims to highlight India's rich President's Bodyguard. Since their founding in 1773,
cultural diversity, unity, and growth as well as its the "Angrakshak" elite regiment has served the
military might thanks to rising domestic capabilities country for 250 years, making this Republic Day
and the Nari Shakti, will have French President Mr. particularly meaningful for them.
Emmanuel Macron as its Chief Guest. 154. (d) The Ministry of Defence (MoD) bears the
152. (a) Around 13,000 Special Guests will participate in this responsibility of organizing the parade and liaising
year's parade, which is based on the twin themes of
"Viksit Bharat" and "Bharat - Loktantra ki Matruka."
This is an initiative that will give people from all walks
m
with various agencies and States. Months in advance,
o
preparations are made for the ritual, which has come
to represent pride in the country and patriotism.
c
.
of life a chance to join in the celebrations and support 155. (a) Marching down the Kartavya Path for the first time
Jan Bhagidari in this national festival. would be an all-women Tri-Service contingent, led by
rs
153. (d) The President's Bodyguard, known as "Rashtrapati Ke Captain Sandhya of Military Police, with three
Angrakshak," will accompany the French President supernumerary officers Captain Sharanya Rao, Sub
e
and the President of India upon their arrival. The Lieutenant Anshu Yadav & Flight Lieutenant Shrishti
Indian Army's most senior regiment is called the Rao.
n
INDIA-FRANCE RELATIONS
a k
Why in news
p r
The two nations welcomed the advancement in bilateral dialogue and the identification of specific opportunities for
using India "as a base" for the manufacture and export of defense equipment for friendly countries in the region. The
India and France Relationship:

To
joint statement released at the conclusion of French President Emmanuel Macron's visit on the bilateral talks with
Prime Minister Narendra Modi said that India and France have decided to step up their cooperation in the Southwest
Indian Ocean, building on the "joint surveillance missions" carried out from French La Reunion in 2020 and 2022.
The establishment of diplomatic ties followed India's independence. The Indian air fleet has included French planes
and helicopters such as the Ouragan, Mystere, Alize, Alouette, and Jaguar since the 1960s. When the US withdrew,
citing internal issues, France stepped in to supply nuclear fuel to the Tarapur power station in 1984. France has backed
India's space program from the beginning, helping to establish the Centaure and Viking rocket technology in the 1970s
as well as the Sriharikota launch site. The Cold War's limitations, however, prevented the growth of a fully formed
friendship. 0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
In 1998, India and France established a Strategic Partnership. Our Strategic Partnership is based on three main pillars:
0C1J
tr-5F8E1F7A0Aspace cooperation, and defense and security cooperation.
civil nuclear cooperation,
What are The Areas of Co-Operation Between India and France?

1. India and France have close geopolitical relations which has only strengthened in due course of time
a. France was the first of the P-5 nations to back India's admission to the7LUNSC
0R1Uand UN reforms.
tr-5P8U1P 0L
b. France's assistance was essential to India's inclusion in the Australia Group (AG), Wassenaar Arrangement (WA),
and Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR).
c. France holds the distinguished distinction of being the nation that has received the most invitations to attend
Republic Day as the main guest.
2. Geo-Strategic:
The following actions have been taken by France to strengthen geostrategic cooperation in response to India's
geostrategic concerns.
a. France has extended an offer to India to take over its largest strategic asset in the Indo-Pacific region. For Reunion
Island, former Indian Air Force aircraft have been stationed.
61
b. France has also granted India ownership stakes in institutions like the Indian Ocean Commission. The India-France-
Australia Trilateral Dialogue, which promotes an inclusive, free, and open Indo-Pacific, is a integral part of geo
politics.
C. France has strengthened India's capacities against China and assisted India in the fight against terrorism backed by
Pakistan, as well as in Jammu and Kashmir.
3. Defence and Security:
The relationship between France and India in the areas of defense and security has grown significantly, as the
following points out:
a. France has become India's most important defense ally. From 2017 to 2021, it grew to be the second-biggest defense
supplier. Rafale and Mirage 2000 fighter aircraft as well as Scorpene submarines are among the most important
military hardware imported from France.
b. India and France have been holding joint exercises called Varuna (Naval), Garuda (Air Force), and Shakti
(Army) on a regular basis.
c. India and France are working to increase maritime domain awareness in the Indian Ocean region by engaging in
"joint patrolling" there.
4. Economic cooperation:
France and India have a strong commercial alliance.
c
a. In 2022–2023, bilateral trade between France and India hit a record high of USD 13.4 billion. India now exports
o m
goods worth more than $7 billion.
rs
b. The eleventh-largest foreign investor in India is France. From April 2000 to December 2022, France invested a
total of USD 10.49 billion in India.
.
e
c. There are over a thousand French establishments in India. With 300,000 employees, they have a 20 billion dollar
annual revenue.
5. Energy and Climate:
n k
The strong collaboration between France and India in the area of renewable energy to combat climate change is a
defining feature of their relationship.
a
a. India's 2008 exemption from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) to continue international collaboration in civil
p r
nuclear energy was made possible in large part by French backing.
b. France is a strong advocate for India's NSG membership.
c. The International Solar Alliance was founded in large part thanks to the contributions of France and India.
6. Science and Technology:
To
In the area of science and technology, France and India collaborate closely.
a. The Joint Vision for Space Cooperation, which was unveiled in 2018, increased the cooperation between France's
CNES and India's ISRO.
b. The Joint Mars Mission, the India-France Earth Observation Mission, and the space debris clearance project are
joint ventures.
c. In Jaitapur, Maharashtra, France and India are working together to build the largest nuclear park in the world.
d. The first nation in Europe to adopt the UPI payment system is France.
e. Trishna is a French-Indian mission to acquire imagery of Earth's surface in the visible and thermal infrared with
a resolution and revisit frequency never seen before. The satellite is scheduled
0R1U
to launch in 2025.
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
7. Diaspora:
7A0A
5F8E1Fare 0C1J
In France,tr-there about 109,000 Indians, most of whom are from the French enclaves of Puducherry, Karaikal,
Yanam, Mahe, and Chandernagore.
The French Overseas Territories of Reunion Island (280,000), Guadeloupe (60,000), Martinique (6,000), and Saint
Martin (300) are home to a sizeable population of people of Indian descent.
0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
156. Which of the following France military aircraft and (c) 1998 (d) 2002
helicopter is not the part of Indian Air Fleet?
(a) Ouragan (b) Mystere 158. Which of the following country is a part of Trilateral
(c) Jaguar (d) Chinook Dialogue along with India and France that supports
free, open and inclusive Indo-Pacific?
157. In which year India and France entered into strategic (a) U.S.A (b) Australia
partnership? (c) Japan (d) Indonesia
(a) 1980 (b) 1988
62
159. India and France is not jointly a part of which of the 160. France has emerged as the (x) defense supplier in
following: 2017-2021. Replace (x) with appropriate option:
(a) Nuclear Suppliers Group (a) Largest (b) Second largest
(b) International Solar Alliance (c) Third largest (d) Fourth largest
(c) TRISHNA
(d) G-7

156. (d) The Boeing CH-47 Chinook is a tandem-rotor strengthened India's capacities against China and
helicopter originally developed by American assisted India in the fight against terrorism backed by
rotorcraft company Vertol and now manufactured by Pakistan, as well as in Jammu and Kashmir.
Boeing Defense, Space & Security. The Chinook is a 159. (d) The Group of Seven (G7) is an intergovernmental
heavy-lift helicopter that is among the heaviest lifting political and economic forum consisting of Canada,
m
Western helicopters. France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom
157. (c) In 1998, India and France established a Strategic and the United States; additionally, the European
Partnership. Our Strategic Partnership is based on
three main pillars: civil nuclear cooperation, space
cooperation, and defense and security cooperation.
160.
o
Union (EU) is a "non-enumerated member"
c
(b) France has become India's most important defense
.
ally. From 2017 to 2021, it grew to be the second-
rs
158. (b) France has also granted India ownership stakes in biggest defense supplier. Rafale and Mirage 2000
institutions like the Indian Ocean Commission. The fighter aircraft as well as Scorpene submarines are
India-France-Australia Trilateral Dialogue, which among the most important military hardware
promotes an inclusive, free, and open Indo-Pacific, is
a integral part of geo politics. France has
k e imported from France.
Why in news
r anCEC AND EC ACT,2023
o p
On January 12, the Supreme Court rejected to grant a stay on a new statute that disregarded a ruling by the highest court
of India and included the Chief Justice of India to the powerful selection committee that chooses candidates for Chief
Election Commissioner (CEC) and Election Commissioners (ECs).
What is in the act
Highlights of the Bill T

The Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act
of 1991 is being replaced by the Bill. It outlines the processes for selecting, paying, and dismissing Election
Commissioners (ECs) and the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC).
The President will appoint the CEC and ECs based on the Selection Committee's
0R1U proposal. The Prime Minister, a
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
Union Cabinet Minister, and the Leader of the Opposition/leader of the biggest opposition party in the Lok Sabha
1J
1F7A0A0CCommittee.
shall make up tr-
the Selection
5F8E
Even in the event that this Committee has a vacancy, the recommendations made by the Selection Committee will
remain in effect.
0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
A group of names will be recommended to the Selection Committee by the Search Committee, which is led by the
Cabinet Secretary. Possessing (or having held) a position comparable to that of Secretary to the central government
makes one eligible for the positions.
The CEC and ECs will have the same pay and working conditions as a cabinet secretary. It was the same as a Supreme
Court judge's remuneration under the 1991 Act.
63
Current Setup of Election Commission
The Election Commission is an independent, permanent organization that was created by the Indian Constitution
specifically to guarantee free and fair elections throughout the nation. The Constitution's Part XV, Articles (324–329),
addresses elections. Article 324: The President shall nominate the CEC and other ECs, subject to the provisions of
any legislation made thereto by Parliament. The Chief Election Commissioner and any additional Election
Commissioners, if any, will make up the Election Commission. The President may, at any time, fix the number of
Election Commissioners.
Appointment:
The Prime Minister is presented with a list of qualified applicants to choose from by the Law Minister.
On the PM's recommendation, the President appoints the new member.
In order to support the Election Commission, the President may additionally designate any regional commissioners he
deems necessary after consulting with the Election Commission. Sh. Rajiv Kumar, Election Commissioner in ECI
m
since 1st September 2020, took charge as the 25th Chief Election Commissioner on 15th May 2022.
Term of office:
c o
The tenure of CECs and other ECs in office is for a period of six years, or until they become sixty-five, whichever comes
first.
.
Conditions of service:
e
The President will decide on the terms of service and duration of the election commissioners' and regional
commissioners' offices.
k rs
Removal:
an
A Supreme Court judge's removal from office is comparable to that of the Chief Election Commissioner. This is
r
accomplished by an order from the President, which is based on a resolution that was approved by the majority of
members in each House of Parliament during the same session, and by at least two-thirds of those in attendance who
o
What are the key features of the new Bill?
p
cast ballots. Only the CEC's recommendation may result in the removal of an EC from office.
T
It repeals the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act,
1991.
It further states that the President will nominate the CEC and other ECs based on the Selection Committee's
recommendation. It further states that the President will nominate the CEC and other ECs based on the Selection
Committee's recommendation. The Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha as a
Member, and a Union Cabinet Minister recommended by the Prime Minister shall make up the Selection Committee.
The leader of the single largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha will take over as the Leader of Opposition if the
position has not been recognized.
0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
The Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha as a Member, and a Union Cabinet
0A0C1J
tr-5F8E1F7Aby
Minister recommended the Prime Minister shall make up the Selection Committee. The leader of the single largest
opposition party in the Lok Sabha will take over as the Leader of Opposition if the position has not been recognized.
A group of five candidates will be vetted by the Search Committee before being presented to the Selection
Committee. The Cabinet Secretary will serve as the committee's chair. 0R1Ube two additional members who hold
tr-5P8UThere
1P7L0Lwill
a position equivalent to that of Secretary to the Central Government and has expertise and experience in election-
related subjects. Candidates not on the Search Committee's prepared panel may also be taken into consideration by the
Selection Committee.
Eligibility for CEC and EC:

Individuals who currently hold or have held positions in the Central Government equivalent to that of Secretary, as
well as those with experience organizing and running elections. The Bill stipulates that the CEC and other ECs would
have the same pay, benefits, and terms of service as the Cabinet Secretary. The tenure specified in the 1991 Act is
maintained in the Bill. Furthermore, there will be no chance for the CEC and other ECs to be reappointed. The
64
Election Commission must act in unanimity when doing any business. If the CEC and the other ECs cannot agree on
anything, a majority vote will be used to decide the issue. The previous removal process is preserved in the Bill. The
Bill has the same provision of the 1991 Act in which the CEC and other ECs may submit their resignation to the President.
The Supreme Court decided in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India that the Prime Minister, the Leader of the
Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Chief Justice of India will consult with each other before appointing the CEC and
EC.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
161. Which of the following act has been repealed by the 163. Who among the following is not a member of
new CEC and EC Bill, 2023? selection of that will appoint Chief Election
(a) The Election Commission (Conditions of Service Commissioner and Election Commissioners as per
of Election Commissioners) Act, 1991. the new bill?
m
(b) The Election Commission (Conditions of Service (a) Prime Minister as Chairperson
of Election Commissioners and Transaction of (b) Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha as
Business) Act, 1991.
(c) The Election Commission (Conditions of Service
of Election Commissioners) Act, 1982.
member
c o
(c) Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime
.
Minister as member
rs
(d) The Election Commission (Conditions of Service (d) President of India
of Election Commissioners and Transaction of
e
Business) Act, 1981. 164. As per the new bill the salary and allowance and
service conditions of the CEC and other ECs will be
162. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed
from office in a manner similar to that of:
(a) President
an k the same as that of:

(a) Cabinet Secretary (b) President
(c) Vice President (d) Prime Minister
r
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Supreme Court Judge 165. Who is the current Chief Election Commissioner of
(d) High Court Judge
o p India?
(a) Rajiv Kumar
(c) Sushil Chandra
(b) Anup Chandra Pandey
(d) Arun Goel
161.
T ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS
(b) It repeals the Election Commission (Conditions of
Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of
Business) Act, 1991. It further states that the President
Chairperson, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok
Sabha as a Member, and a Union Cabinet Minister
recommended by the Prime Minister shall make up
will nominate the CEC and other ECs based on the the Selection Committee. The leader of the single
Selection Committee's recommendation. largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha will take
162. (c) A Supreme Court judge's removal from office is over as
0Rthe
1U Leader of Opposition if the position has
tr-5P8U 7L0L
1P
comparable to that of the Chief Election not been recognized.
Commissioner. 1F7A0Ais 0C 1J
tr-5F8EThis accomplished by an order 164. (a) The Bill stipulates that the CEC and other ECs would
from the President, which is based on a resolution have the same pay, benefits, and terms of service as
that was approved by the majority of members in each the Cabinet Secretary. The tenure specified in the 1991
House of Parliament during the same session, and by Act is maintained in the Bill. Furthermore, there will
at least two-thirds of those in attendance who cast be no chance for the CEC and other ECs to be
ballots. 1P7L0L0R1U
tr-5P8Ureappointed.
163. (d) The act further states that the President will nominate 165. (a) Sh. Rajiv Kumar, Election Commissioner in ECI since
the CEC and other ECs based on the Selection 1st September 2020, took charge as the 25th Chief
Committee's recommendation. The Prime Minister as Election Commissioner on 15th May 2022.
65
75 YEARS OF UDHR
Why in news
The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the UN General Assembly in Paris 75 years ago on
December 10. This proclamation, which sought to stop atrocities in the future, established the foundation for the post-
World War II international order.
What are Human Rights

All people have these rights by nature, regardless of their gender, color, nationality, ethnicity, language, religion, or any
other characteristic. These include the freedoms of opinion and expression, labor and education rights, freedom from
slavery and torture, and many more. "To deny people their human rights is to challenge their very humanity," said
Nelson Mandela. According to Article 1 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), "all human beings are
equal in dignity and rights and free from birth." The Indian Constitution's Articles 12 through 35 provide the following
rights: equality, freedom, protection from exploitation, freedom of religion, rights to culture and education,
preservation of certain laws, and constitutional remedies.
What is the Universal Declaration of Human Rights?

It declared that human rights would always be protected for the first time. All members of the UN Commission on
c o m
.
Human Rights debated and ultimately approved the UDHR, which was ratified by the General Assembly in 1948. It
rs
serves as a kind of international road map for equality and freedom. Every person's rights are safeguarded everywhere
by it. The proclamation is not legally enforceable on its own and is not a treaty. Numerous nations have integrated the
Declaration's tenets into their legal frameworks. It is thought to serve as the cornerstone of international human rights
law.
k e
n
Understanding the Universal Declaration of Human Rights
It describes essential freedoms and rights and consists of thirty articles plus a preamble. Articles highlight freedoms of
a
religion, opinion, expression, and assembly as well as equality in dignity and rights, nondiscrimination, the right to life
r
and liberty, the outlawing of slavery and torture, the right to a fair trial, and the right to refuge. The right to education
for everyone is also upheld by the declaration.
p
Origins and Development
To
Originating from the resolution to "never again" during the global conflicts and the Holocaust, it functioned as a "road
map" for personal freedoms. Over 50 countries contributed to the final text, which was drafted by a diverse group of
members from various geographical locations under the direction of Eleanor Roosevelt. The statement, which
guaranteed rights for everyone, including gender equality, was the result of a collaborative effort, even though it was
written during the height of colonial control.
Non-Binding Nature:
Its guiding ideas have impacted both international human rights accords and state laws, although not being a treaty or
legally binding. Global movements for human rights, anti-apartheid, and decolonization
0R1U
were sparked by it. It continues
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
to be a worldwide human rights standard in spite of criticism, influencing a number of later human rights agreements.
0C 1J
tr-5F8E1F7A0A
Human Rights Day
Every year on December 10th, the world observes International Human Rights Day, commemorating the signing of the
Universal Declaration of Human Rights in 1948. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was endorsed and adopted
by the UN General Assembly on December 10, 1948. The United Nations 7L General
0R1U Assembly met on December 4, 1950,
tr-5P8U1P 0L
and that day marked the official inauguration of Human Rights Day. Human Rights Day is observed on March 21st
in South Africa in commemoration of the Sharpeville massacre, which took place as a result of demonstrations
against the Apartheid government. The theme for 2023 is "Justice, Equality, and Freedom for Everyone."
Different Human Rights Conventions:
Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide (1948):
66
Also referred to as the Genocide Convention, it was the first human rights agreement ratified by the UN General
Assembly on December 9, 1948.
The Convention requires the parties to take action to deter and prosecute the crime of genocide.
The International Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Racial Discrimination (1965):
The convention calls on its members to outlaw hate speech and membership in racist organizations in order to end
racial discrimination and develop understanding among all races.
The Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination against Women (1979):
The convention aims to create gender equality by guaranteeing women's equal participation in and access to political
and public life. The nations agreed to implement a number of measures to put an end to discrimination against women
in all its manifestations when they ratified the agreement.
m
The Convention on the Rights of the Child (1989):
The convention lays out children's rights in the areas of civil rights, politics, economics, society, health, and culture.
o
International law binds ratified states. In addition, the convention permits parents to carry out their parental duties.
c
The convention also recognizes children's rights to privacy protection, abuse prevention, opinion expression, and being
heard and taken into consideration.
.
The Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (2006):
e rs
An international human rights convention that addresses the rights of individuals with disabilities is the UN Convention
on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities.
k
Conclusion:
an
The UNDR's resulting from accords expanding on the 1948 declaration, despite some complaints claiming its
r
inapplicability to some religions, cultures, or areas, emphasizes its ongoing significance. The UDHR's guiding principles
were reinforced, for example, by the 1993 Vienna Declaration and Program of Action.
o p PRACTICE QUESTIONS
166.
167.
(a) 10th December
(c) 3rd April
T
On which day Human Rights Day is observed?
(b) 12th May
(d) 31st January
What is the theme of Human Rights Day?

(a) Human Rights: The fundamental Rights
169.
(c) Article 2 (d) Article 1
Who chaired the drafting committee that led to

formation of Universal Declaration of Human
Rights?
(a) Eleanor Roosevelt (b) Huey Long
(b) Freedom, Equality and Justice for Everyone (c) Harry S. Truman (d) Herbert Hoover
(c) Freedom and Justice for Humanity
(d) Humanity and Justice for all living beings 170.tr-5P
Which declaration
8U1P7L0L 0R1U strengthened and solidified the
principles set forth in the UDHR?
0A0C1J
1F7AHuman Rights Declaration
168. Which Articletr-5Fof8Ethe (a) Paris Declaration
states that “all human beings are born free and equal (b) Vienna Declaration
in dignity and rights.”? (c) New York Declaration
(a) Article 10 (b) Article 20 (d) Montreal Declaration
0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L

166. (a) Every year on December 10th, the world observes demonstrations against the Apartheid government.
International Human Rights Day, commemorating The theme for 2023 is "Justice, Equality, and
the signing of the Universal Declaration of Human Freedom for Everyone."
Rights in 1948. 168. (d) All people have these rights by nature, regardless of
167. (b) Human Rights Day is observed on March 21st in their gender, color, nationality, ethnicity, language,
South Africa in commemoration of the Sharpeville religion, or any other characteristic. These include
massacre, which took place as a result of the freedoms of opinion and expression, labor and
67
education rights, freedom from slavery and torture, Over 50 countries contributed to the final text, which
and many more. "To deny people their human rights was drafted by a diverse group of members from
is to challenge their very humanity," said Nelson various geographical locations under the direction of
Mandela. According to Article 1 of the Universal Eleanor Roosevelt
Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), "all human 170. (b) The UNDR's resulting from accords expanding on the
beings are equal in dignity and rights and free from 1948 declaration, despite some complaints claiming
birth." its inapplicability to some religions, cultures, or areas,
169. (a) Originating from the resolution to "never again" emphasizes its ongoing significance. The UDHR's
during the global conflicts and the Holocaust, it guiding principles were reinforced, for example, by
functioned as a "road map" for personal freedoms. the 1993 Vienna Declaration and Program of Action.
INDIA SKILLS REPORT 2024

Why in news
The India Skills Report 2024, which highlights the nation's skill landscape and the effects of artificial intelligence (AI)
on the job market, was recently produced by the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE), Confederation
of Indian Industry, Association of Indian Universities, and Wheebox.
c o m
India Skills Report 2024: Key Highlights
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State of Employability in India: With 51.25% of the youngsters surveyed being deemed to be employable with the .
necessary abilities, it has improved.
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Telangana has the biggest concentration of employable talent in the 18–21 age bracket, with 85.45% of respondents
finding themselves employable, according to the State with Maximum Employability in India Skills Report 2024.
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Status of Young Employability in India Skills Report 2024:
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Age Range of 18-21 years: Haryana is a leading state in the development of young employability, as evidenced by the
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remarkable 76.47% of test takers who scored more than 60% on the WNET.
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Telangana, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, and Haryana have the highest concentration of young people who
are highly employable.
Age range of 22 to 25 years: At 74.77%, Uttar Pradesh has the highest talent concentration, closely followed by
Maharashtra at 71.97%.
(a) Computer Skills: Kerala ranked third overall among States, and Thiruvananthapuram grabbed the top spot among
cities for fostering computer skills.
(b) Skill Penetration: India stands at first position in AI skill penetration and talent concentration.
tr-5P8U1P7L0L0R1U
(c) Increase in Female LFPR: Female labor force participation (LFPR) is steadily rising, encouraging healthy
competition tr-5Fand
8E1Fprogressively
7A0A0C1J redressing gender disparities in societal and cultural spheres. o The labor force
participation rate (LFPR) is the proportion of the population that is employed, looking for work, or available for
employment.
Skills Distribution Across States and Cities in India 1U

5P8U1P7L0L0R
(a) English as a Second Language: Karnataka topped the listtr-with 73.33% competence, indicating how important
language skills are to the state. Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra come next, displaying a wide geographic distribution
of English proficiency.
(b) Numerical Skills : Telangana's numerical skills rate of 78.68% highlights the state's emphasis on quantitative
aptitude. Bihar and Uttar Pradesh with strong arithmetic skills demonstrate varying degrees of ability in other areas.
The cities of Bengaluru and Vijayawada dominate, demonstrating great numerical skills in significant urban centers.
Numerical proficiency is essential for jobs in finance, data analytics, and science.
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(c) Critical Thinking: Telangana leads the country in critical thinking (37.70%), demonstrating how much the state
values critical thinking. Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra closely follow, suggesting a tendency toward the
development of critical thinking abilities.
(d) Computer Skills: Kerala, Uttar Pradesh, and Maharashtra are the most computer-savvy states, demonstrating their
dedication to technical innovation. o Bengaluru became the leading city in the world for technology.
AI Leadership and Talent Concentration:

With a large pool of skilled AI workers, India is a leader in the world for both talent concentration and skill penetration.
There were 4.16 lakh AI specialists as of August 2023, ready to fulfill the growing need that is predicted to reach 1 million
by 2026. The demand-supply gap in India for critical roles like data scientist, data architect, DevOps engineer, and ML
engineer is between 60% and 73%.
Most Preferred State to Work:

For both male and female job takers, Kerala is the most desirable state in which to work, and for female job takers,
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Cochin is the most desirable location.
World Youth Skill Day:
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In 2014, the United Nations General Assembly declared 15 July as World Youth Skills Day, to celebrate the strategic
importance of equipping young people with skills for employment, decent work and entrepreneurship. The theme for
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World Youth Skills Day 2023 is Skilling teachers, trainers and youth for a transformative future. It highlights the
essential role that teachers, trainers and other educators play in providing skills for youth to transition to the labour
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market and to actively engage in their communities and societies.
Conclusion:
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The India Skills Report 2024 emphasizes the need for comprehensive collaboration and proactive actions to bridge the
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skill gap and prepare the workforce for the changing job market. It also stresses the transformative impact of AI,
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obstacles in skill development, and advances in employability.
171.
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Which among the following institution or body is
p PRACTICE QUESTIONS
173. As per the India Skills Report 2024 the number of AI
India Skills Report 2024

(a) Wheebox
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not the part of association that has launched the
(b) All India Council for Technical Education

(c) Confederation of Indian Industry
(d) NITI Aayog
174.
professionals will reached 1 million by:
(a) 2024
(c) 2026
(b) 2025
(d) 2030
As per the reports which state is the most preferred

state to work for both male and female employable
talent
172. As per the reports which state the highest (a) Haryana (b) Kerala
concentration of employable talent in the age group (c)
tr-5P8U
Tamil
1P7L0L Nadu
0R 1U (d) Madhya Pradesh
of 18-21?
0A0C1J
(a) Haryana tr-5F8E1F7A (b) Tamil Nadu 175. On which day World Youth Skills Day is observed?
(c) Telangana (d) Uttar Pradesh (a) 3rd August (b) 9th September
th
(c) 15 July (d) 27th November
1P7L0L0R1U
tr-5P8U
171. (d) The India Skills Report 2024, which highlights the 172. (c) Telangana has the biggest concentration of
nation's skill landscape and the effects of artificial employable talent in the 18–21 age bracket, with
intelligence (AI) on the job market, was recently 85.45% of respondents finding themselves
produced by the All India Council for Technical employable, according to the State with Maximum
Education (AICTE), Confederation of Indian Employability in India Skills Report 2024.
Industry, Association of Indian Universities, and 173. (c) With a large pool of skilled AI workers, India is a
Wheebox. leader in the world for both talent concentration and
skill penetration. There were 4.16 lakh AI specialists
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as of August 2023, ready to fulfill the growing need 175. (c) World Youth Skills Day is celebrated on July 15 every
that is predicted to reach 1 million by 2026. The year to emphasise the need for imparting the right
demand-supply gap in India for critical roles like data skills to youth for employment and entrepreneurship.
scientist, data architect, DevOps engineer, and ML With changes in the job market and constant
engineer is between 60% and 73%. technological progress, it is essential to equip young
174. (b) For both male and female job takers, Kerala is the people with adaptable skill sets
most desirable state in which to work, and for female
job takers, Cochin is the most desirable location.
ADANI HINDENBURG ISSUE

Why in news
Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud led a three-judge Supreme Court bench that denied requests on January 3, 2024,
to form a special investigation team (SIT) or to move the investigation into the charges made by Hindenburg against
the Adani Group to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). It placed trust in the Securities and Exchange Board
of India (Sebi), the capital markets regulator.
What is Hindenburg?
c o m
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• The institute known as Hindenburg specializes in "forensic financial research." Put another way, it searches for
signs of fraud or corruption in the corporate sector, such as abnormalities in accounting or dishonest management.
• The US-based investment research company Hindenburg focuses on activist short selling.
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• In 2017, certified financial analyst and alternative investment analyst Nate Anderson started Hindenburg
Research.
What is short selling?
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Selling a security or share that the seller does not own is known as short selling, according to the Securities and
a
r
Exchange Board of India (Sebi). An investor engages in short selling when they sell borrowed shares on the market with
the goal of repurchasing them at a lower cost.Put another way, short selling is the exact reverse of typical stock market
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investing, which involves purchasing a stock with the expectation that its price would increase in the future. When an
investor engages in short selling, they do so because they believe that the value of the stock will decline.It is not
necessary for an investor to possess shares of a certain firm in order to engage in short selling. Alternatively, they can
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borrow the company's assets or shares from any dealer or broker.
What is Hidenberg’s allegation against the Adani group?

The Adani Group was allegedly "engaged in a stock manipulation and accounting fraud," according to Hindenburg
Research. The Adani Group is involved in a number of industries, including real estate, solar energy, power generation,
agribusiness, ports and logistics, natural resources, financial services, and media.
Over the course of decades, the Adani group allegedly engaged in blatant stock manipulation and accounting fraud
schemes worth ₹17.8 trillion (US$ 218 billion), according to the study firm.
1P7L0L0R1U tr-5P8U
According to the 1F7A0A0C1J

Hindenburg
tr-5F8E report, the Adani family controlled offshore shell companies in tax havens from the
United Arab Emirates to the Caribbean and Mauritius. These companies allegedly siphoned off funds from the group's
listed companies and were used to facilitate money laundering, corruption, and taxpayer theft.
Committee formed by the court 0R1U

tr-5P8U1P7L0L
After Hindenburg Research accused the Adani Group of manipulating share prices and engaging in accounting fraud,
investors incurred large losses as a result of market instability. In response, the Supreme Court established the Justice
Sapre Committee in March 2023 to look into possible regulatory shortcomings.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
176. In which year Hindenburg a US-based investment (c) 2015 (d) 2017
research firm was formed?
(a) 2011 (b) 2013
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177. Which committee was formed by the SC to (a) sale of a security or share that the seller does not
investigate in Adani and Hindenburg issue? own.
(a) Justice Sapre Committee (b) borrowing a security or share and selling it with
(b) Justice Chandrachud Committee the intention of buying it back later at a lower
(c) Justice Khanna Committee price.
(d) Justice Bopanna Committee (c) purchasing a security or share with the
expectation of holding it for an extended
178. In which institution the Supreme Court showed its period.
trust and refused to transfer the investigation to (d) exchanging securities or shares between
another body in Adani Hindenburg issue? investors to manipulate market prices.
(a) SEBI
(b) CBI 180. Who is the founder of Hindenburg Research, the
(c) Enforcement Directorate body that accused the Adani Group for short selling
(d) Delhi Police of shares?
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(a) Alvina Stewart (b) Doris Hancox
179. Hindenburg has accused the Adani Group of the (c) Nate Anderson (d) Derrick Bowman
short selling. What is the short selling?
.c o
rs
e
176. (d) The US-based investment research company in the Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi),
Hindenburg focuses on activist short selling. In 2017, the capital markets regulator.
k
certified financial analyst and alternative investment 179. (a) Selling a security or share that the seller does not own
analyst Nate Anderson started Hindenburg Research. is known as short selling, according to the Securities
177. (a) After Hindenburg Research accused the Adani Group
of manipulating share prices and engaging in
r a
accounting fraud, investors incurred large losses as a
result of market instability. In response, the Supremen and Exchange Board of India (Sebi). An investor
engages in short selling when they sell borrowed
shares on the market with the goal of repurchasing
them at a lower cost.
Court established the Justice Sapre Committee in
shortcomings.
o
March 2023 to look into possible regulatory
p 180. (c) The institute known as Hindenburg specializes in

"forensic financial research." Put another way, it
searches for signs of fraud or corruption in the
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178. (a) Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud led a three- corporate sector, such as abnormalities in accounting
judge Supreme Court bench that denied requests on or dishonest management. The US-based investment
January 3, 2024, to form a special investigation team research company Hindenburg focuses on activist
(SIT) or to move the investigation into the charges short selling. In 2017, certified financial analyst and
made by Hindenburg against the Adani Group to the alternative investment analyst Nate Anderson started
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI). It placed trust Hindenburg Research.
OPEC AND RECENT ANGOLA ISSUE

tr-5P 8U1P7L0L0R1U
Why in the News?
Angola has decided 0C 1J
tr-5F8Eto leave
1F7A 0A the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) because of a disagreement
over oil output limits. Qatar, Indonesia, and Ecuador are among the other members of the club who have left
in recent years for various reasons.
Reason: 0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
After an argument over its output limit, Angola claims that OPEC no longer serves its interests. With Angola's departure,
OPEC's market share—which has been declining as a result of production cuts and increased supply from non-OPEC
nations—becomes even more vulnerable, joining Ecuador and Qatar as former members.
What will be the impact of this decision?
1) It will shrink membership of OPEC to 12 nations.

2) Angola’s departure raised concerns regarding the unity of the organization and resulted in a drop in international
oil prices.
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About OPEC:
The group in question is the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC), an intergovernmental alliance
of countries that produce oil and was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, during the Baghdad Conference in 1960. OPEC is an
organization that has 12 member countries in total: Algeria, Angola, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Iran, Iraq,
Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates, and Venezuela. Its headquarters are located in Vienna,
Austria. Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela are among its original members. When combined, these
countries account for about 44% of the world's oil output and have a huge 81.5 percent of the world's proved oil
reserves. In order to provide fair and stable prices for petroleum producers, OPEC's main goal is to coordinate and
harmonize petroleum policy among its member nations. The organization is essential in influencing the amount of oil
produced globally to satisfy market demand and protect the economic interests of its member countries. OPEC
conference meetings are where decisions on adjusting oil production to match projected demand are decided. Through
cooperative efforts, OPEC aims to protect member nations' interests in the dynamic global energy landscape and
preserve oil market stability.
The main goals of the organization are to maintain an effective, affordable, and consistent supply of petroleum to
consuming nations while also coordinating and harmonizing petroleum policies across member nations, guaranteeing
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fair and stable prices for petroleum producers. OPEC, which has its main office in Vienna, Austria, is a major playerm
in the world oil market, controlling more than 80% of the world's total reserves.
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About 40% of the world's oil production is produced by OPEC+, which consists of Russia and ten other significant oil-
exporting countries. The organization uses Brent Crude as a quality standard and WTI (West Texas Intermediate)
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as another important benchmark. It controls crude oil prices through procedures such as spot or future sales.
About Angola
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It is a nation in Southern Africa's west-central region. surrounded by the Atlantic Ocean to the west, Namibia to the
a
south, Zambia to the east, and the Democratic Republic of the Congo to the north. Luanda is Angola's capital and largest
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city.
Angola and OPEC relations:
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A disagreement over output limits has led Angola, one of Africa's two largest oil producers, to declare it is quitting the
Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). Angola claimed that the decision by OPEC and its ten
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allies to further reduce oil output in 2024 in an effort to stabilize unstable world markets goes against their strategy
of preventing decline and honoring agreements. OPEC is a permanent intergovernmental organization with its
headquarters located in Vienna, Austria. It was established by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela during
the Baghdad Conference in 1960. Angola is not the first nation to depart the cartel; it joined in 2007. Qatar, Ecuador,
and Indonesia have all followed suit. With Angola out of the group, OPEC will have 12 members.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
181. Which of the following country has not left the 184.tr-5PWhich
8U1P7Lconference
0L0R1U led to the formation of
Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries
0C1J
(OPEC)? tr-5F8E1F7A0A (OPEC)?
(a) Qatar (b) Indonesia (a) Baghdad Conference
(c) Ecuador (d) Saudi Arabia (b) Iran Conference
(c) Indonesia Conference
182. What will be the size of Organization of the 1U
tr-(d)
5P8UEcuador
1P7L0L0RConference
Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) after
Angola’s exit? 185. What was the reason of the Angola exist from the
(a) 14 members (b) 12 members OPEC?
(c) 13 members (d) 11 members (a) Angola argues that OPEC no longer serves its
interests, following a dispute over its output
183. In which year Organization of the Petroleum quota.
Exporting Countries (OPEC) was established? (b) Angola withdrew to pursue greater flexibility in
(a) 1955 (b) 1957 oil production and economic diversification
(c) 1960 (d) 1967 beyond OPEC constraints.
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(c) Geopolitical considerations drove Angola's (d) Angola left OPEC, emphasizing the need for
departure, as it sought new alliances in the independent decision-making in its oil
global energy market. production policies, diverging from the
collective approach of the organization.

181. (d) After an argument over its output limit, Angola claims intergovernmental alliance of countries that produce
that OPEC no longer serves its interests. With oil and was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, during the
Angola's departure, OPEC's market share—which has Baghdad Conference in 1960. OPEC is an
been declining as a result of production cuts and organization that has 12 member countries in total:
increased supply from non-OPEC nations—becomes Algeria, Angola, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon,
even more vulnerable, joining Ecuador and Qatar as Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Saudi Arabia, the
former members. United Arab Emirates, and Venezuela. Its
182. (b) Angola exist will shrink membership of OPEC to 12 headquarters are located in Vienna, Austria
nations. Angola’s departure raised concerns regarding
the unity of the organization and resulted in a drop in
international oil prices.
185.
m
(a) A disagreement over output limits has led Angola,
o
one of Africa's two largest oil producers, to declare it
is quitting the Organization of the Petroleum
c
.
183. (c) The group in question is the Organization of the Exporting Countries (OPEC). Angola claimed that
Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC), an the decision by OPEC and its ten allies to further
rs
intergovernmental alliance of countries that produce reduce oil output in 2024 in an effort to stabilize
oil and was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, during the unstable world markets goes against their strategy of
e
Baghdad Conference in 1960. preventing decline and honoring agreements.
184. (a) The group in question is the Organization of the
Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC), an
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RAM MANDIR AND AYODHYA VERDICT
a k
Why in news:
p r
The Pran Pratishtha, or consecration event, was a historic milestone, bringing an end to a 500-year quest for a Ram
Desgin of the temple:

To
Mandir in Ayodhya. This, according to the prime minister, is the culmination of a lengthy wait. He emphasized that fair
and unbiased construction methods were used to build the temple honoring Lord Ram, a symbol of justice. He thanks
the Indian judiciary for defending justice's fundamental values.
The Nagara Style of temple architecture is used in the design of the Ram temple. The Ramayana is well-known
outside of India, having spread from Laos, Cambodia, and Thailand in Asia to Guyana in South America and Mauritius
in Africa.
Story of the dispute from the beginning:

1U
7L0L0Rand
Started in 1751 when the Marathas demanded dominion over Ayodhya,
tr-5P8U1PKashi, Mathura from the Nawab of Awadh,
or Nawab Shuja-ud-Daula. The
0C 1J Marathas had supported the Nawab of Awadh in defeating the Pathan (local chieftain)
tr-5F8E1F7A0A
forces in the Doab Region and as a result, they desired authority over these key religious and cultural centres
like Ayodhya, Kashi (Varanasi), and Mathura.
The northern Indian region between the Ganges and Yamuna rivers is referred to as the "Doab Region." The initiative
picked up steam in the 19th century as court documents from tr-
1822 1P7L0L0R1U a mosque located atop Lord Ram's
5P8Umentioned
birthplace.
Tensions increased after a violent dispute between Hindus and Muslims near the Babri Masjid in 1855, which led to the
Hindus taking Janmasthan. There were demands for the building of a sizable temple following the 1949 installation of
the Ram Lalla deity in the mosque. A movement initiated in the 1980s by the Vishwa Hindu Parishad (VHP) focused
on the 'liberation' of Ram Janmabhoomi, Krishna Janmabhoomi, and Vishwanath temple. The Babri Masjid's locks were
opened in 1986 to allow Hindus to pray there following protracted legal wrangling. In the years that followed, there
were notable events like the foundation-laying ceremony in 1989 and the Rath Yatra in 1990, which was headed by LK
73
Advani and resulted in widespread violence.
A mob destroyed the Babri Masjid on December 6, 1992, sparking political backlash and legal actions.
The government was granted permission to purchase the disputed Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid land in 1993 when
the Acquisition of Certain Area at Ayodhya Act was passed by Parliament.
In 2009, the Liberhan Commission emphasized how planned the events of 1992 were.
In its Ayodhya title suit ruling in 2010, a special bench of the Allahabad High Court split the land in a 2:1 ratio, giving
two-thirds of the 2.77 acres—including the garbha griha—to the petitioners seeking to build a Ram temple, Shri Ram
Lala Virajman and Nirmohi Akhara.
A portion of the land was transferred to the Central Waqf Board of Sunnis.
Supreme Court’s verdict on the issue:

According to SC, it is not proper for it to interpret Hadees and act as a theologian. A collection of the Prophet
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Muhammad's customs and sayings is called a hadith. It is regarded as a primary source of moral instruction and religious
law, second only to the authority of the Quran. SC holds that Nirmohi Akhara is not the shebait [Shebait is that
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person who serves the deity, sanctified in the temple as a Devata] SC further declares Ramjanmabhoomi is not a juristic
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person. SC declares that the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) report leads to conclusion that Babri mosque was not
.
constructed on vacant ground. [There was a foundational framework that deviated from Islamic principles. Recovered
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artifacts are clearly not of an Islamic origin.] In doing so, the Supreme Court maintains the theory that a structure from
the 12th century existed. The SC noted that each believer's religion was unique. It claimed, therefore, that there could
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be no questioning the Hindus' belief in Lord Ram. A judgment, however, is made based on the evidence and cannot be
made based on faith or convictions. In this instance, there is no data on file that would refute Hindus' beliefs in the
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area. The SC observes that birthplaces have been located in close proximity to the contested territory. The presence of
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Bhandar Grih, Ram Chabutra, and Sita Rasoi attests to the area's religious significance. Hindus have also been praying
a
in large numbers in the site's exterior courtyard. The balance of probabilities indicates that even after a brick wall was
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built at the location, Hindus continued to worship in the outside courtyard. However, the SC agrees with the HC that
during the night of December 22–23, 1949, Hindu deities were positioned inside the Babri Masjid's central dome. On
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the Ayodhya issue, the SC rendered a unanimous decision. It gave the god Ram Lalla full ownership of the 2.77
acres of contested property in Ayodhya. Within three months, the Center must create a plan that will allow it to create
a trust and turn over control of the inner and outer courts to the trust. The government should provide representation
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in trust to Nirmohi Akhara. Muslims were unable to provide evidence that they owned the inner courtyard exclusively.
According to the SC, Muslims should receive alternative land in order to make up for losing a mosque. Five acres of land
in a "suitable, prominent place in Ayodhya" would be given to the Sunni Wakf Board.
Facts about temple and Lord Ram Sculpture:

Constructed in the classic Nagara style, this three-story temple rises majestically from the pink sandstone of Mirzapur
and the hills of Bansi-Paharpur, Rajasthan. Temple is a magnificent architectural work of art spanning 71 acres.
Constructed in the classic Nagara style, this three-story temple rises majestically from the pink sandstone of Mirzapur
and the hills of Bansi-Paharpur, Rajasthan. Temple is a magnificent architectural
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
0R1U work of art spanning 71 acres. Ram
Lalla idols are housed in the main Garbh Griha along with several mandaps, such as the Rang and Nritya mandaps.
1F7A
tr-5F8Eat 0A0C1J
Every Ram Navami midday, the sun's beams are directed towards Ram Lalla's idol by a system of mirrors and lenses.
This special salve doesn't require power because brass is used in place of iron or steel. Mysuru sculptor Arun Yogiraj
created the 51-inch-tall idol of five-year-old Ram Lalla, which was dedicated in a unique ceremony. The late Gupta
era in northern India around the fifth century CE saw the emergence of the Nagara style of temple architecture. It is
compared to the Dravida style, which also originated in southern tr-India 1U time period.
5P8Uat that
1P7L same
0L0R
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
186. In which temple Ram Temple at Ayodhya has been 187. In which year the Ram Lalla idol was placed at the
designed? disputed site?
(a) Phamsana style (b) Valabhi style (a) 1951 (b) 1953
(c) Nagara style (d) Shikhara style (c) 1950 (d) 1949
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188. What was the name of the commission which was 189. Who is the sculptor of idol of Ram Lalla?
found that the demolition of 1992 was a pre-planned (a) Arun Yogiraj (b) Neeraj Gupta
event? (c) Anish Kapoor (d) Pilloo Pochkhanawala
(a) Srikrishna Commission
(b) Liberhan Commission 190. What is the size of land which had been given to
(c) Atal Commission Sunni Wakf Board in 2019 Ayodhya Verdict?
(d) Rajamannar Committee (a) 5 Acres (b) 10 Acres
(c) 15 Acres (d) 20 Acres

186. (c) Constructed in the classic Nagara style, this three- thirds of the 2.77 acres—including the garbha griha—
story temple rises majestically from the pink to the petitioners seeking to build a Ram temple, Shri
sandstone of Mirzapur and the hills of Bansi- Ram Lala Virajman and Nirmohi Akhara.
m
Paharpur, Rajasthan. Temple is a magnificent 189. (a) Mysuru sculptor Arun Yogiraj created the 51-inch-tall
architectural work of art spanning 71 acres. idol of five-year-old Ram Lalla, which was dedicated
187. (d) There were demands for the building of a sizable
temple following the 1949 installation of the Ram
Lalla deity in the mosque. A movement initiated in
o
in a unique ceremony. The late Gupta era in northern
c
India around the fifth century CE saw the emergence
.
of the Nagara style of temple architecture.
rs
the 1980s by the Vishwa Hindu Parishad (VHP) 190. (a) Muslims were unable to provide evidence that they
focused on the 'liberation' of Ram Janmabhoomi, owned the inner courtyard exclusively. According to
Krishna Janmabhoomi, and Vishwanath temple. the SC, Muslims should receive alternative land in
188. (b) In 2009, the Liberhan Commission emphasized how
planned the events of 1992 were. In its Ayodhya title
suit ruling in 2010, a special bench of the Allahabad
k e order to make up for losing a mosque. Five acres of

land in a "suitable, prominent place in Ayodhya"
would be given to the Sunni Wakf Board.
High Court split the land in a 2:1 ratio, giving two-
r an
RED SEA CRISIS-YEMEN CRISIS HISTORY
Why in news
o p
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Since November, attacks by the Houthi militia of Yemen have rendered the Red Sea, a crucial marine route via the
Suez Canal, unsafe for cargo ships. This has led to a significant rerouting of cargo, with ships now taking the longer
Cape of Good Hope route, affecting global trade and increasing costs.
Impact of the crisis

90% of India's cargo traveling through the Cape of Good Hope is being redirected as a result of the strikes.
Depending on the kind of buyer-seller contract, different consignments may be delayed as a result of higher freight
expenses. The cost of freight has increased dramatically, often by six times, impacting all consignments but particularly
low-value, high-volume cargo and perishables. 0L0R1U tr-5P8U1P7L
Located between Africa 0C1J Asia, the Red Sea is an entrance of the Indian Ocean and one of the world's saltiest
1F7A0Aand
tr-5F8E
bodies of water.It divides into the Gulf of Suez and the Gulf of Aqaba at its northernmost point. The Gulf of Suez is
connected to the Mediterranean Sea via the Suez Canal. Via the Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb, it is connected to both the
Gulf of Aden and the outer Indian Ocean at its southernmost point. There is no significant freshwater inflow, and it is
encircled by desert or semi-arid regions.Six nations border the Red Sea: Yemen,
0R1U Sudan, Eritrea, Djibouti, Saudi
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
Arabia, and Egypt.
Response of India:
According to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (MoCI), growing tensions in the Red Sea and persistent drought
problems at the Panama Canal are causing disruptions to India's exports to Europe, particularly low-value goods like
textiles and agricultural. Concerns regarding possible effects on international trade were addressed in response at an
interministerial conference presided over by the Union Commerce Secretary and including important ministries such
as External Affairs, Defense, Shipping, and the Department of Financial Services (DFS) under the Ministry of Finance.
75
Due to increased security concerns in the Red Sea and Panama Canal, goods were rerouted through the Cape of Good
Hope. This resulted in delayed sailings and a notable increase in freight charges to Europe.
In April 2015, India began a large-scale air and maritime operation to remove nearly 4,000 of its citizens from
Yemen called operation Rahat.In the past, India has given Yemen food and medical assistance, and thousands of
Yemeni citizens have visited India for medical care in recent years.Additionally, India keeps enabling many Yemeni
nationals to attend different Indian universities.
How the crisis emerged?

The chemical tanker MV Chem Pluto, which is operated by the Netherlands, is owned by Japan, and is flying
the Liberian flag. It was carrying crude when it was attacked by a drone about 200 nautical miles off the coast of
Gujarat. The attack is thought to have been carried out by Houthi rebels from Yemen, who are believed to have been
protesting Israel's actions in Gaza and to be involved in a ten-year civil conflict with the Yemeni government.
Impact in Panama Canal:
m
Shipping through the 51-mile section of the Panama Canal has dropped by more than 50% as a result of the drought.
The drought in Panama is partly caused by a naturally occurring El Nino climate trend linked to warmer-than-normal
being forced to take the six-day longer Suez Canal route rather than the Panama Canal. Whereas the 100-year-old
. o
water in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. Due to the water scarcity, ships sailing from Asia to the US are
c
Panama Canal links the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans, the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait in the Red Sea region leads to the Suez
rs
Canal, which connects Asia to Europe. These two routes rank among the busiest worldwide.
e
What is Yemen Crisis and Houthi Rebels
an k
Two groups claiming to be the Yemeni government, together with their allies and supporters, are engaged in an
ongoing struggle that started in 2015. This conflict is known as the Yemeni Civil War. Houthi forces and forces
loyal to former president Ali Abdullah Saleh have clashed with forces supporting Southern separatists and the
r
administration of Abd Rabbuh Mansur Hadi, which is based in Aden. Both the Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant
(ISIL) and Al-Qaeda in the Arabian Peninsula (AQAP) have launched attacks; AQAP has taken control of large areas
of the hinterlands and the coast.
Houthis and their uprising
o p
T
 About one-third of Yemen's population is Shia Zaidi, which is the religion practiced by the Houthis. The group,
officially called as Ansarallah (the partisans of God), started out in the early 1990s as a movement advocating for
peace and tolerance in the Zaidi stronghold of North Yemen. Following a series of demonstrations that pitted it
against the government, the organization began an insurgency against Ali Abdullah Saleh, the then-ruler, in 2004
and it continued until 2010. They are seen by their adversaries as a proxy for Shia Iran. Although the group has
pledged to destroy al-Qaeda, it is still hostile toward the United States. They took part in the 2011 Arab Spring-
inspired revolution in Yemen that led to Abdrahbu Mansour Hadi's ouster of Saleh.
(a) The insurgency was sparked by the transitional government's inability to serve the interests of the Houthis, which
was established in 2012 with assistance from the Gulf Cooperation Council.
1U
1P7L0L0Rthe
(b) The Houthi-led insurgency is not the only armed war waging in8UYemen;
tr-5P Houthis hold a significant portion of
northwest Yemen,7Aincluding
0C 1J the capital city of Sana'a.In addition to Ansar al-Sharia, al-Qaeda in the Arabian
5F8E1F 0A
Peninsula tr-
(AQAP) is the leader of another Sunni Islamist insurgency in the southeast.
(c) The AQAP will undoubtedly get stronger as a result of the regional action against the Houthis. Together with the
economy's decline, the incapacity of the inept transitional government to lead a country that has been divided along
sectarian lines has allowed the various rebel factions to fortify their positions.
0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
• The consolidation of Houthi forces in the south may have created a chance for a new, legitimate, and inclusive
administration after a truce, but that possibility is now eliminated because Saudi participation has essentially
regionalized the fight.
"Believing Youth" (Muntada al-Shahabal-Mu'min), a Zaydi revivalist organization started in the early 1990s
by Hussein al-Houthi and his father, Badr al-Din al-Houthi, is where the Houthi movement had its start.
Northern Yemen was home to prominent Zaydi cleric Badr al-Din. Motivated by the 1979 Iranian revolution and
the 1980s Hezbollah ascendancy in southern Lebanon, Badr al-Din and his sons began creating extensive social and
religious networks among Yemen's Zaydis, who comprise around one-third of the country's population with a Sunni
majority.
76
Possible reasons behind this crisis
There are various reasons suggested like:
(a) The Saudi government interfered in Yemen in the 1970s and 1980s by constructing madrassas that propagated the
obviously anti-Shiite Wahabism. This clearly threatened the Zaydi community, a branch of Shi'a Islam, and a man
by the name of Hussein Badreddin al-Houthi made the decision to gather his people and start an organization that
bears his name, the Houthi movement. The movement quickly transformed into an insurgency against the
government, leading to the current Yemeni crisis.
(b) The Zaidi community in Yemen adheres to a particular branch of Shiite Islam. Though they are a minority
nationwide, they make up the majority in the far north. The bulk of Shafi'i people, on the other hand, adhere to a
branch of Sunni Islam. These groups pray in each other's mosques and have intermarried. While there is no history
of sectarian conflict in Yemen, there are significant geographical splits and political economy divisions that
occasionally coincide with the Zaidi-Shafi'i divides. Therefore, it is inaccurate to characterize it as a sectarian
struggle.
(c) As a result of fighting between forces loyal to President Abd-Rabbu Mansour Hadi and the Houthi rebels,
Yemen is currently in a state of crisis. Apart from the gunfights and bombardment of large cities, a coalition led by
m
Saudi Arabia has been attacking the Houthis with airstrikes for weeks, destroying infrastructure and structures.
191. Due to increased security concerns in the Red Sea

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
(c) Eritria
.c o (d) Bahrain
rs
and Panama Canal, goods were rerouted through
which passage? 194. What is the name of the operation launched by the
e
(a) Suez Canal (b) Cape of Good Hope Indian Government to evacuate Indian Nationals
(c) Port Said (d) Mediterranean Sea from Yemen?
192. What is the name of chemical tanker which has been

attacked by a drone about 200 nautical miles off the
an k (a) Operation Rahat

(b) Operation Ganga
(c) Operation Meghdoot
r
coast of Gujarat by the Houthi Rebels? (d) Operation Searchlight
(a) MV Chem Venus (b) MV Chem Pluto
193.
(c) MV Shipper Pluto (d) MV Shipper Venus
o
Red Sea does not border which of the following
p 195. Which group serves as the foundation for the Houthi
movement that started in the early 1990s?
(a) Believing youth (b) Al- Shabbab
T
countries? (c) Jamiat Islami (d) Al Madhi Group
(a) Egypt (b) Saudi Arabia

191. (b) Due to increased security concerns in the Red Sea and 194. (a) In April 2015, India began a large-scale air and
Panama Canal, goods were rerouted through the Cape maritime operation to remove nearly 4,000 of its
of Good Hope. This resulted in delayed sailings and a citizens from Yemen called operation Rahat.In the
notable increase in freight charges to Europe. past, India has given Yemen food and medical
192. (b) The chemical tanker MV Chem Pluto, which is assistance, and thousands of Yemeni citizens have
operated by the Netherlands, is owned by Japan, and tr-5P8U1P 7L0L0R1U
visited India for medical care in recent
is flying the Liberian flag. It1Jwas carrying crude when years.Additionally, India keeps enabling many
0A0C
it was attacked by1Fa7Adrone about 200 nautical miles
tr-5F8E Yemeni nationals to attend different Indian
off the coast of Gujarat. The attack is thought to have universities.
been carried out by Houthi rebels from Yemen 195. (a) "Believing Youth" (Muntada al-Shahabal-Mu'min), a
193. (d) Located between Africa and Asia, the Red Sea is an Zaydi revivalist organization started in the early 1990s
entrance of the Indian Ocean and one of the world's by Hussein al-Houthi and his father, Badr al-Din al-
saltiest bodies of water.It divides into the Gulf of Suez 1P7L0L0Ris1Uwhere the Houthi movement had its
tr-5P8UHouthi,
and the Gulf of Aqaba at its northernmost point. The start.Northern Yemen was home to prominent Zaydi
Gulf of Suez is connected to the Mediterranean Sea cleric Badr al-Din. Motivated by the 1979 Iranian
via the Suez Canal. Via the Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb, it revolution and the 1980s Hezbollah ascendancy in
is connected to both the Gulf of Aden and the outer southern Lebanon, Badr al-Din and his sons began
Indian Ocean at its southernmost point. There is no creating extensive social and religious networks
significant freshwater inflow, and it is encircled by among Yemen's Zaydis, who comprise around one-
desert or semi-arid regions.Six nations border the Red third of the country's population with a Sunni
Sea: Yemen, Sudan, Eritrea, Djibouti, Saudi Arabia, majority.
and Egypt.
77
INDIA-MALDIVES CRISIS
Why in news:
An online war of words set off by Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s posts pitching for tourism in the Lakshadweep islands
has dramatically escalated into a diplomatic row between India and the Maldives, worsening the already strained
relationship between the Indian Ocean neighbours.
The row intensified, as India expressed serious concerns through diplomatic channels, against the backdrop of travel
industry players suspending bookings to the island nation and Indian users and celebrities trending the ‘boycott
Maldives’ hashtag in protest.
How the crisis erupted:

The most recent catalyst was the use of crude language by Maldivian ministers against Indians in general and Prime
Minister Narendra Modi in particular. President Mohamed Muizzu's new administration requested that India remove
m
its military soldiers, and he made China the destination of one of his first foreign trips. During his visit, Maldives
o
President Muizzu also exhorts China to retake the top rank in tourist arrivals, which India has been holding for the past
few years.
c
Situation after protest:
rs .
Twenty "important" agreements, including those on disaster risk reduction, blue economy cooperation, and tourism,
were inked by the presidents of China and the Maldives. Additionally, it said that their bilateral relations will now be
elevated to a comprehensive strategic cooperative partnership.
k e
n
(a) The 'India Out' poll campaign propelled the current administration to power.
(b) The ruling coalition in the Maldives used anti-Indian sentiments and attempted to spread misinformation in the
Mission of the Maldives.
p a
2023 presidential elections, which Mr. Muizzu won, according to a report released by the EU Election Observation
r
(c) The Maldives also decided not to renew the agreement with India on a hydrographic survey of its waters.
(d) Under the terms of the 2019 agreement, India was able to research and map reefs, lagoons, coastlines, ocean
o
currents, and tide levels in addition to conducting a hydrographic survey of the Maldivian territorial seas.
T
Evolution of India and Maldives Relations
(a) Over time, geopolitical, economic, and strategic factors have shaped the relationship between India and the
Maldives.
(b) Early Diplomatic Relations (1965–1978): In 1965, the Maldives won their freedom from British rule and forged
diplomatic ties with India.
(c) One of the first nations to acknowledge the Maldives' independence was India.
(d) Strategic Partnership (1978–1988): The two nations' marine borders were defined in part by the 1979 signing of the
marine Boundary Agreement.
8U1P7L0L0R1U
tr-5PMaldives
(e) Political Unrest (1988–2008): When an attempted coup in the resulted in Indian military intervening in
Operationtr-Cactus, the
5F8E1F7A relationship
0A0C 1J encountered difficulties.
(f) India intervened militarily to stop the coup and maintain political stability in the Maldives.
(g) Although it was eventually resolved, this incident briefly damaged diplomatic relations.
(h) Normalization and Economic Cooperation (2008–2013): Mohamed Nasheed was elected president of the Maldives
following a peaceful political transition in 2008. 0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
(i) Trade, people-to-people contacts, and economic cooperation were the main areas of improvement in the
relationship between India and the Maldives.
(j) India helped the Maldives develop, especially with infrastructural and capacity building projects.
(k) Period of Strain (2013–2018): Under Abdulla Yameen's administration, the relationship had difficulties due to
worries about things like human rights, democratic regression, and what was seen as a bias in favor of China.
(l) India has strategic worries about the Maldives' increasing involvement with China, particularly the infrastructural
projects they are undertaking as part of the Belt and Road Initiative.
(m) Renewed Engagement (From 2018 onward): The Maldives' 2018 presidential election of Ibrahim Mohamed Solih
signaled a change in the country's bilateral ties. A fresh focus was placed on fortifying relations with India.
78
(n) Both nations reiterated their dedication to democratic principles, and India offered funding for a range of
development initiatives.
Significance of India for Maldives:
(a) During the 1988 coup attempt, India's prompt reaction and help established the groundwork for the growth of trust
and long-lasting, cordial bilateral relations with the Maldives. Promptly, the Indian Armed Forces launched
Operation Cactus.
(b) A brand-new terminal would be added to Hanimaadhoo International Airport under an Indian credit line,
able to handle 1.3 million passengers annually.
(c) India’s Minister of External Affairs launched the National College for Policing and Law Enforcement (NCPLE) in
2022.
(d) Defense cooperation includes Joint Exercises such as "Ekuverin," "Dosti," "Ekatha," and "Operation Shield."
(e) Essential Commodities: The Maldives receives its daily necessities from India, including rice, spices, fruits,
vegetables, poultry, medications, and life-saving medications.
(f) Education: Each year, students from the Maldives visit Indian universities.
(g) Economic dependence: India's exports to the Maldives accounted for Rs 49 crore of the Rs 50 crore in overall trade
between India and the Maldives in 2022. In 2022, India became the second-largest trading partner of the Maldives.
o m
(h) Disaster Relief Assistance: India was the first country to give assistance after a tsunami hit the islands in 2004.
c
(i) When the main desalination plant failed in 2014, Male experienced a drinking water crisis. India airlifted drinking
.
water to the islands over night.
rs
(j) During the Covid-19 pandemic, India sent essential medicines, masks, gloves, PPE kits and vaccines for the island
country.
196. Who is the current president of Maldives who asked

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
k e (a) Operation Crab (b) Operation Male

India to withdraw military personnel from the
country?
(a) Mohamed Muizzu
(b) Ibrahim Mohamed Solih
r an 199.
(c) Operation Cactus (d) Operation Crow
Which of the following is not a joint military exercise

between India and Maldives?
(c) Abdulla Yameen
(d) Mohamed Nasheed
o p (a) Ekuverin
(c) Operation Shield
(b) Dosti
(d) Yudh Abhyas
T
197. In which year Maldives faced a drinking water 200. Which international airport has been constructed in
crisis, in which India helped? Maldvies under an Indian credit line?
(a) 2011 (b) 2012 (a) The Hanimaadhoo International Airport
(c) 2013 (d) 2014 (b) The Gapo International Airport
(c) The Hoarafushi International Airport
198. What was the name of operation executed by Indian (d) The Kulhudhuffushi International Airport
Army to thwart the military coup in Maldives, that
provided the assistance to Maldives?
1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
0R
0C 1J
tr-5F8E1F7A0A
196. (a) The most recent catalyst was the use of crude growth of trust and long-lasting, cordial bilateral
language by Maldivian ministers against Indians in relations with the Maldives. Promptly, the Indian
general and Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Armed Forces launched Operation Cactus.
particular. President Mohamed Muizzu's new 199. (d) India’s Minister of External Affairs launched the
administration requested that India remove its National0RCollege
1U for Policing and Law Enforcement
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
military soldiers, and he made China the destination (NCPLE) in 2022. Defense cooperation includes Joint
of one of his first foreign trips. Exercises such as "Ekuverin," "Dosti," "Ekatha," and
197. (d) When the main desalination plant failed in 2014, Male "Operation Shield."
experienced a drinking water crisis. India airlifted 200. (a) A brand-new terminal would be added to
drinking water to the islands over night. Hanimaadhoo International Airport under an Indian
198. (c) During the 1988 coup attempt, India's prompt credit line, able to handle 1.3 million passengers
reaction and help established the groundwork for the annually.
79
IMPORTANT ONE LINERS FOR OLETs
NATIONAL
Paramilitary Forces Embrace ‘Sandes App’ for Secure Official Commute
 ‘Sandes App’ stems from the prevalent use of WhatsApp for internal communication within paramilitary forces.
 To enhance functionality and efficiency, the ‘Sandes App’ has been seamlessly integrated with NIC email,
DigiLocker, and e-office.
Government to Market FCI Rice as Bharat Brand

 India is contemplating a strategic move—selling rice under the ‘Bharat’ brand, a proposal that is currently under
consideration.
About Food Corporation of India (FCI):
Founded: 14 January 1965
Headquarters: New Delhi
Founder: Government of India
c o m
Women Make Up About 49% of Ayushman Cards: Health Ministry
 Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri — Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY) has emerged as a beacon of hope in India’s
rs .
e
healthcare landscape, particularly for women.
 Data released by the Health Ministry reveals a significant contribution by women to the scheme’s success, with
approximately 49% of the total Ayushman cards.
an
Uttar Pradesh to Implement Green Hydrogen Policy to Promote Clean Energy
k
 Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi Adityanath has directed officials to implement the state’s Green Hydrogen Policy-
2023.
p r
o
Surat Hosts 12th Divya Kala Mela 2023
 The Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan), under the Ministry of Social Justice
2024.
T
and Empowerment, Government of India, organised a distinctive event.
 The event, titled ‘Divya Kala Mela,’ took place in Surat, Gujarat, spanning from December 29, 2023, to January 7,
India-UAE Joint Exercise ‘Desert Cyclone 2024’ Kicks Off In Rajasthan

 Military exercise ‘Desert Cyclone 2024‘ is set to mark a significant milestone in the partnership between India and
the United Arab Emirates (UAE). Scheduled to take place in Rajasthan from January 2 to January 15.
 The inaugural India-UAE Joint Air Forces exercise held in September 2008 at the Al-Dhafra base in Abu Dhabi.
0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
Prime Minister Modi inaugurates initiatives valued at Rs 20,000 crore in Tamil Nadu.
7A0A0C1J
Source: NDTVtr-5F8E1F
 Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid the foundation stone for a slew of development projects worth over Rs 20,000
crore in Tiruchirappalli, Tamil Nadu.
 These projects includes a new terminal building at Tiruchirappalli International Airport, developed at a cost of over
0R1U
7L0Lmillion
Rs 1100 crore. The state-of-the-art terminal aims to serve more than
tr-5P 8U1P4.4 passengers annually, significantly
enhancing the region’s air connectivity.
 The projects encompass various sectors, including rail connectivity, roads, oil and gas, and shipping, and are poised
to contribute significantly to the state’s progress. These projects are instrumental in fostering progress, creating
employment opportunities for thousands, and enhancing travel facilities.
 The Prime Minister highlighted that these projects are not only integral to strengthening Tamil Nadu’s
infrastructure but also instrumental in fostering progress, creating employment opportunities for thousands, and
enhancing travel facilities. He extended his congratulations to the people of the state for their dedication and
perseverance in the pursuit of development.
80
Household Financial Savings And Liabilities In India: RBI’s Assessment.
Source: Mint
 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released its latest Financial Stability Report (FSR), revealing insights into the state
of household financial savings and liabilities in the fiscal year 2022-23 (FY23).
 Despite a decline in gross household financial savings to 10.9% of GDP, the report emphasizes a limited risk of
defaults by households, attributing it to the manageable exposure to higher mortgage payments and floating
interest rates.
 The FSR notes a significant increase in household financial liabilities, rising from 3.8% of GDP in FY22 to 5.8% in
FY23.
 This surge, driven by increased borrowings for physical asset creation, primarily in mortgages and vehicles,
contrasts with a marginal moderation in financial assets to 10.9% in FY23 from 11.1% in FY22.
Rajasthan Seeks Integration Of Chiranjeevi Scheme With Ayushman Bharat.

Source: Mint
m
 The newly elected BJP government in Rajasthan is making strides to merge its state health insurance scheme,
Chiranjeevi, with the central Ayushman Bharat programme.
Bharat Mukhyamantri Chiranjeevi Health Insurance Scheme.
. o
 This move, pending approval from the union health ministry, aims to create a unified initiative called the Ayushman
c
 Officials reveal that the integrated scheme will maintain Chiranjeevi’s existing benefits, providing a substantial ₹25
rs
lakh insurance cover applicable to both private and government hospitals.
 The Chiranjeevi scheme, initially introduced by former Chief Minister Ashok Gehlot of the Congress party, currently
offers significantly higher coverage compared to Ayushman Bharat’s ₹5 lakh.
k e
Tamil Nadu Fast Reactor Plant Inaugurated by Prime Minister with an investment of Rs 400 crore
Source: Narendra Modi
an
 Dedicating it to the nation, Prime Minister Narendra Modi unveiled the Demonstration Fast Reactor Fuel
r
Reprocessing Plant (DFRP) at the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), Kalpakkam, with a cost of
p
Rs 400 crore.
 The DFRP boasts a unique design, crafted entirely by Indian scientists. This facility is capable of reprocessing both
To
carbide and oxide fuels discharged from fast reactors, setting it apart as the only one of its kind globally.
 This facility is a significant step towards advancing India’s nuclear capabilities, designed to reprocess fuel from
Prototype Fast Breeder Reactors (PFBR).
 The fast reactor power generation company, Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Ltd (BHAVINI), based in
Kalpakkam, is at the forefront of this initiative.
Ahead of the Vibrant Gujarat Global Summit, agreements worth $86 billion are signed by the Gujarat
government
Source: The Economic Times
 In preparation for the upcoming biennial Vibrant Gujarat Global Summit, the Indian state of Gujarat has sealed
tr- 5P 8U1P7L0L0R1U
preliminary investment deals totaling 7.17 trillion Indian rupees ($86.07 billion) with 58 companies spanning sectors
like energy, oil8Eand
tr-5F 1F7Agas,
0A0Cand
1J chemicals.
 With NTPC and Torrent Power leading the charge, these strategic investments signal a robust push by Gujarat to
attract both foreign and domestic investors. This move is pivotal as Prime Minister Modi aims to bolster investment
in the country ahead of the national elections, where he seeks a third term.
1U
tr- 5P8U1P7L0L0R
2024 will witness the retirement of 68 Rajya Sabha members, a list that includes prominent figures such as
Manmohan Singh and Jaya Bachchan.
Source: NDTV
 Anticipating a transformative year ahead, the political scenario in India is set for a notable transformation with the
retirement of 68 Rajya Sabha members, including nine Union ministers. This development adds fervor to the
competition for sought-after six-year terms in the Upper House of Parliament.
 In April, a total of 57 leaders, a prominent among them being former Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and several
incumbent ministers, will complete their tenures.
81
 Uttar Pradesh will witness the highest number of vacancies, with 10 seats up for grabs, followed by Maharashtra
and Bihar with six each.
 Other states in the fray include Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal, Karnataka, Gujarat, Odisha, Telangana, Kerala,
Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, and Chhattisgarh.
Emerging as a trailblazer, Punjab has become the inaugural state to comprehensively map all sites prone to
accidents.
Source: India Today
 Paving the way for safety measures, Punjab emerges as the pioneer in India by intricately mapping all 784 accident-
prone areas through the innovative Mappls App, an advanced navigation system crafted by MapMyIndia.
 In a strategic move, the Punjab Police has teamed up with MapMyIndia to integrate real-time traffic updates and
alerts into the Mappls App. This collaboration aims to provide citizens with crucial information about black and
blind spots, ensuring a safer driving experience.
 This initiative aligns with the preparations for the launch of Chief Minister Bhagwant Singh Mann’s flagship project,
m
the ‘Sadak Suraksha Force.’ The comprehensive mapping of accident black spots is a crucial component of this
visionary project, aiming to create a robust system for ensuring road safety across the state.
Attaining international recognition, the Ayodhya Airport undergoes a name change to 'Maharishi Valmiki
International Airport.'
.c o
rs
Source: The Indian Express
 The Union Cabinet has greenlit the declaration of Ayodhya Airport as an international airport, with the proposed
k e
name "Maharishi Valmiki International Airport, Ayodhyadham." This decision, emphasizing the historical and
cultural significance of the region, signifies a notable step forward in the airport's recognition and status.
 According to the government’s press release, elevating Ayodhya Airport to international status is crucial for
n
realizing the city’s economic potential. Furthermore, it acknowledges Ayodhya’s significance as a global pilgrimage
a
site, with the international status expected to attract foreign pilgrims and tourists.
r
 The airport’s development will occur in phases. In its initial phase, the airport will have the capacity to handle 10
p
lakh (1 million) passengers annually. After the second phase of development, Maharishi Valmiki International
Airport is expected to cater to a staggering 60 lakh (6 million) commuters annually.
Source: BNN Breaking

o
Commencing a new phase, the Assam Government launches 'Gunotsav 2024.'
T
 The Assam government is gearing up for the fifth edition of ‘Gunotsav 2024,’ a comprehensive state-wide assessment
aimed at evaluating the performance of approximately 40 lakh students across government schools.
 The initiative, slated to run from January 3 to February 8, 2024, is poised to play a pivotal role in enhancing the
quality of education and improving learning outcomes in the state.
 ‘Gunotsav’ emphasizes active participation from all stakeholders, including teachers, students, administrators, and
local communities. This holistic engagement is expected to foster accountability and contribute to an overall
enhancement of the quality of education in Assam.
0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
The Ministry of5FEducation initiates the PRERANA program
0C1J
tr- 8E1F7A0A
Source: NDTV
 A transformative educational venture aimed at enhancing leadership qualities among students in classes IX to XII.
 Rooted in Indian values and NEP 2020, Prerana aims to empower students with leadership qualities.
 The week-long residential program in Vadnagar, Gujarat, focuses on nine core
0R1Uvalues, including courage, hard work,
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
compassion, diversity, and innovation.
 Developed by IIT Gandhi Nagar, the curriculum promotes holistic development and embraces India's cultural
heritage.
 Engaging activities include yoga, thematic workshops, historical site visits, and interactions with inspiring
personalities.
 Students can register on the official portal for a chance to become empowered changemakers after the
transformative experience.
82
India, USAID MoU for Indian Railways' net-zero emission by 2030.
Source: Business Standard
 The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, approves the Memorandum of Understanding
(MoU) between India and the United States Agency for International Development (USAID).
 The collaboration aims to assist Indian Railways in achieving 'net zero carbon emission' by the target year of 2030.
 The MoU, signed in June of the preceding year, focuses on utility modernization, advanced energy solutions,
regional energy integration, private sector engagement, and training in technology areas like renewable energy and
energy efficiency.
 The collaboration seeks to reduce Indian Railways' dependence on imported fuels like diesel and coal, promoting a
robust energy efficiency policy aligned with global sustainability practices.
 Long-term energy planning is a key aspect, guiding Indian Railways toward adopting cleaner energy methods with
a focus on technical support and planning for clean energy procurement.
 Collaborative initiatives include hosting events, conferences, and capacity-building programs to promote
knowledge sharing and innovation in clean energy technologies.
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 USAID/India's role is pivotal in supporting international development, contributing to economic growth,
agriculture, trade, clean energy, global health, democracy, humanitarian aid, climate change, and conflict
management.
West Bengal attains Geographical Indication (GI) tags for distinct products, bolstering local economies.
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Source: Telegraph India
 West Bengal secures Geographical Indication (GI) tags for cultural and agricultural heritage, a significant
achievement under the National GI Drive Mission.
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 Recognition of Sunderbans Honey – ‘Mouban’: The coveted GI tag has been granted to Sunderbans honey, locally
known as ‘Mouban,’ collected by the ‘Mouli’ community.
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 Black Nunia Rice – ‘Prince of Rice’: Hailing from Jalpaiguri district, Black Nunia rice, known as the ‘Prince of Rice,’
a
has earned its GI tag. This indigenous rice variety adds to the agricultural richness of the state.
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 Distinctive Sarees – Tangail, Gorod, and Kadiyal: West Bengal Forest Development Corporation Limited (WBFDCL)
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applied for the GI tag for Tangail, Gorod, and Kadiyal sarees, reflecting the rich textile heritage of the region.
Mirzapur in Murshidabad district is renowned for producing exclusive Kadiyal sarees.
Source: The Hindu
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Tamil Nadu unveils its vision for a $1 trillion economy in GIM 2024.
 Chief Minister MK Stalin announces Tamil Nadu's aspiration for a $1 trillion economy by 2030 at the Global Investors
Meet in Chennai on January 7.
 It strategically aims for $3.8-4.3 trillion in investments to attract FDI and boost local expansion. The goal is holistic
growth, ensuring prosperity across all regions with a focus on climate consciousness and sustainability in all
initiatives.
 Priorities include human capital growth, innovation through industry-academia partnerships, fostering an
industry-friendly climate, advocating transparent governance, and developing 0R1U
sustainable infrastructure.
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ONGC initiatestr-5Fthe
8E1Finaugural
7A0A0C1J oil production in the Krishna-Godavari deep-water block.
Source: The Times of India
 On January 7, Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), a prominent energy exploration and production company
in India, reached a noteworthy milestone by initiating the first oil production from the deep-water KG-DWN 98/2
Block. 0R1U
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 Located in the Krishna Godavari (KG) basin off the Bay of Bengal on the Kakinada coast, this development marks a
crucial step forward in India’s energy landscape.
 The anticipated peak production from the 98/2 field is remarkable, with expectations set at around 45,000 barrels
of oil per day and over 10 Million Metric Standard Cubic Metres per Day (MMSCMD) of gas.
 As the project advances, ONGC is actively working towards the final phase of the 98/2 block, with efforts underway
to commence the production of the remaining oil and natural gas by mid-2024.
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The government plans to invest ₹60,000 crores in the development of river cruise tourism and eco-friendly
vessels.
Source: Hindustan Times
 Union Minister Sarbananda Sonowal revealed a substantial government investment of Rs 60,000 crore by 2047 in
the advancement of river cruise tourism and environmentally friendly vessels. This initiative is geared towards
bolstering tourism, improving water transport infrastructure, and generating employment opportunities.
 Sonowal outlined the plan, stating that Rs.45,000 crore would be allocated to river cruise development, increasing
passenger capacity from 2 lakh to 15 lakh by 2047. Additionally, the government plans to invest Rs.15,000 crore over
the next decade in green transport, intending to develop 1,000 environmentally friendly vessels and ferries.
Ujjain introduces 'Prasadam,' India's first hygienic food street, showcasing a novel culinary experience.
Source: India Times
 Union Health Minister Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya inaugurated 'Prasadam,' India’s inaugural healthy and hygienic
food street, in a grand ceremony at Neelkanth Van, Mahakal Lok, Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.
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 Spanning an impressive 939 square meters, “Prasadam” stands as a symbol of holistic development. Positioned near
the Mahakaleshwar Temple, it is designed not just as a food street but as a multifaceted destination contributing
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to various aspects of community life. The food street comprises 17 shops, each offering a unique culinary experience.
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 “Prasadam” goes beyond offering a culinary delight. It provides an array of facilities, including a dedicated kids’ play
.
area, drinking water facility, CCTV surveillance, ample parking, public conveniences, and spacious seating areas.
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These facilities are aimed at enhancing the overall experience for visitors and locals alike.
designed specifically for the Indian Army

Source: The Indian Express
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The Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) has introduced the 'Ugram' assault rifle,
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 The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) of India, in a significant advancement, introduced
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‘Ugram,’ an advanced 7.62 x 51 mm calibre assault rifle.
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 ‘Ugram,’ meaning ‘ferocious’ in Sanskrit, aligns with the operational needs of India’s armed forces, paramilitary,
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and state police units.
 The rifle, notable for its effective range of 500 meters and lightweight design of under four kilograms, was developed
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at the DRDO’s Pune-based Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE).
 With a 20-round magazine capacity, Ugram offers versatility through its single and full-auto firing modes. Its design
parallels the modern AK and AR type rifles, yet stands out with a distinctive rivet-free construction, enhancing its
robustness and reliability in various combat scenarios.
Indian Navy gets first India-made long endurance Drishti 10 Starliner drone
 The Indian Navy has recently acquired its first indigenous medium-altitude long-endurance (MALE) drone, the
Drishti 10 Starliner unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV).
 The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is actively involved in developing a MALE UAV
called Tapas.
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New Republic Day Pact Allows
0C1J States One Tableau Every Three Years
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 Defence Ministry has proposed a rollover plan to give every State and Union Territory (UT) an opportunity to
showcase their tableaux within a three-year cycle.
 A three-year memorandum of understanding (MoU) has been proposed to facilitate the implementation of the
rollover plan. As of now, 28 States have signed the draft agreement. 0R1U
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 States and UTs were approached in advance for their willingness to participate in the Republic Day Parade for the
next three years (2024, 2025, and 2026).
Naveen Patnaik Inaugurates Malkangiri Airport in Odisha

 On January 9, Odisha’s Chief Minister, Naveen Patnaik, inaugurated the Malkangiri airport in Odisha.
 Ensuring the smooth operationalization of Malkangiri airport, the authorities at Biju Patnaik International Airport
in Bhubaneswar extended technical support.
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ANUBHAV Awards Scheme 2024
 The ANUBHAV Awards Scheme, initiated by the Department of Pension and Pensioners Welfare (DoPPW).
 Launched in 2015 under the guidance of the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India.
Fresh Oil Discovery in Krishna-Godavari Basin by ONGC

 The discovery, led by the state-owned Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), is located near Kakinada’s
coastline in the Bay of Bengal.
About ONGC:
Headquarters: Vasant Kunj, New Delhi
Founded: 14 August 1956
Key people: Arun Kumar Singh (Chairman& CEO)
PM Modi Inaugurates India’s Longest Sea Bridge – Atal Setu

 Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Mumbai Trans Harbour Link (MTHL), colloquially known as Atal
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Setu, India’s longest sea bridge spanning 21.8 km.
 This monumental infrastructure, dedicated to the late Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, was initiated with the
laying of its foundation stone in December 2016.
Ganga Sagar Mela 2024: India’s Second Largest Fair
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 The Ganga Sagar Mela stands as a testament to the vibrant cultural and spiritual tapestry of India.
 Held annually in Sagardwip, West Bengal, this magnificent fair has earned the distinction of being the second most
popular mela in the country, surpassed only by the revered Kumbh Mela.
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 The Ganga Sagar Mela stands as a testament to the vibrant cultural and spiritual tapestry of India. Held annually in
Sagardwip, West Bengal, this magnificent fair has earned the distinction of being the second most popular mela in
the country, surpassed only by the revered Kumbh Mela.
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International Camel Festival Kicked Off in Bikaner, Rajasthan
 Bikaji ki Tekri became the hub of creativity with competitions organized by the Tourism Department.
Rajasthan.
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 Three-day International Camel Festival kicked off with great fervor in the culturally rich district of Bikaner,
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Delhi LG Kicks off 2-Day Global ‘Patang Utsav’ At Baansera
 Delhi Lieutenant Governor VK Saxena inaugurated the much-anticipated ‘Patang Utsav’ at Baansera.
 The city’s first bamboo-theme park located at Sarai Kale Khan on the scenic banks of the Yamuna River.
Defense Minister Sanctions Insurance Scheme for BRO Workers

 India’s Defence Minister, Rajnath Singh, has recently approved a groundbreaking scheme aimed at providing
insurance cover to casual workers employed by the Border Roads Organisation.
tr-5P8U1PFirst Dark Sky Park 7L0L0R1U

Maharashtra’s Pench Tiger Reserve Achieves Milestone as India’s
 Pench Tiger Reserve
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in0CMaharashtra
8E1F7A0A has made history by securing recognition as India’s inaugural Dark Sky Park,
marking its position as the fifth in Asia.
PM Modi Releases First Instalment of PM-JANMAN Scheme for Pucca Homes

 Prime Minister Narendra Modi is set to release ₹540 crore, the inaugural tranche
0R1U of funding, for pucca homes under
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the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G) on January 15.
 The Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan (PM-JANMAN) was launched on November 15, 2023.
CM stalin to inaugurate state of the Madurai jallikattu stadium

 The newly-built jallikattu arena is all set to be inaugurated by CM MK Stalin on January 23 or 24, Commercial Taxes
and Registration Minister P Moorthy said.
 The jallikattu event commenced in the Alanganallur and Avaniyapuram in Madurai.
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Maiden national highway steel slag road on NH- 66 Mumbai-Goa inaugurated
 Dr. V.K. Saraswat, Member (S&T), NITI AAYOG inaugurated India’s First National Highway Steel Slag Road section
on NH- 66 Mumbai-Goa National Highway.
 Dr Saraswat said that the Steel Slag Road Technology, developed by CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-
CRRI) is transforming the waste of steel industries into wealth and is helping the National Highways Authority of
India (NHAI).
Ex-Ayutthaya: India-Thailand First Naval Exercise Connects to Ayodhya

 Indian Navy and Royal Thai Navy (RTN) joined forces for the maiden bilateral exercise named ‘Ex-Ayutthaya’ in
December 2023.
 Ex-Ayutthaya,’ held in December 2023, symbolizes the invincible spirit and cultural ties between Ayodhya (India)
and Ayutthaya (Thailand).
India to Host Year-long ‘Ramayan’ Festival from Delhi
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 India is set to launch a year-long festival, seeking global connections through the celebration of Ramayan.
 The festival is scheduled to commence from Delhi’s historic Purana Qila (Old Fort) on January 18 and will traverse
various cities such as Lucknow, Ayodhya, and Varanasi.
Bull-Taming Festival ‘Jallikattu’ Starts In Tamil Nadu
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 Tamil Nadu commenced the Jallikattu competition in Avaniyapuram, Madurai district.
 Jallikattu is a highlight of the Pongal harvest festival held in the second week of January.
verdict in May 2023.
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 After prolonged protests by the people of Tamil Nadu against the ban, the Supreme Court delivered a significant
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Ministry of Home Affairs Revokes FCRA Registration of Centre for Policy Research
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 The Ministry of Home Affairs in India has revoked the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Act, 2020,
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registration of the Centre for Policy Research (CPR) in New Delhi.
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 Established in 1973, CPR is a prominent policy think-tank.
Source: Telegraph India

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India records its first-ever confirmed sighting of a rare Tibetan Brown Bear
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 India’s wildlife conservation, the first-ever confirmed sighting of the rare Tibetan Brown Bear (scientific name:
Ursus arctos pruinosus) was recorded in the high altitudes of North Sikkim.
 The Tibetan Brown Bear is accorded the highest protection status under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar inaugurates 12th General Assembly of the Asian Buddhist Conference for
Peace
Source: News on AIR
 Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar has said that the world today faces0Rchallenges
1U like climate change, conflict,
terrorism and poverty. tr-5P8U1P7L0L
 He was speaking
tr-5F8E1Fafter
7A0A0C 1J
inaugurating the 12th General Assembly of the Asian Buddhist Conference for Peace in New
Delhi today.
Mamata Banerjee Opens 47th Kolkata Book Fair, Featuring the UK as the Theme Country
 Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee inaugurated the 47th International1PKolkata
7L0L0R1UBook Fair on January 18.
tr-5P8U
Tallest Ambedkar Statue to Be Unveiled Today In Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh

 The Andhra Pradesh government is set to unveil the world’s tallest statue of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the esteemed
architect of the Indian Constitution.
 The colossal structure, named the ‘Statue of Social Justice,’ stands at an impressive height of 206 feet.
Moh-Juj Fights: A Cultural Resurgence in Assam

 Moh-Juj, the traditional buffalo fights, have made a comeback in Assam.
 This revival, held during the Magh Bihu festival in mid-January 2024.
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 The tradition of Moh-Juj was suspended in 2015 following the Supreme Court’s ban on similar events like Jallikattu
in Tamil Nadu.
Assam Govt Unveils Mukhyamantri Mahila Udyamita Abhiyan

 Assam government recently launched a financial assistance scheme, the Mukhyamantri Mahila Udyamita Abhiyaan
(MMUA), with the aim of empowering rural women entrepreneurs.
 In the inaugural phase of the MMUA, each eligible applicant will receive a grant of ₹10,000 in the first year.
PM Launches Khelo India Youth Games 2023 in Chennai, Tamil Nadu

 The 13th edition of the Khelo India Youth Games was inaugurated with great enthusiasm by Prime Minister Shri
Narendra Modi in Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
 Prime Minister Modi mentioned India’s preparations for the Paris Olympics in the current year and the Los Angeles
Olympics in 2028.
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Defence Minister Unveils 35 BRO Projects in Border Regions
 The Defence Minister inaugurated 35 crucial projects, comprising 29 bridges and six roads, strategically positioned
across seven states and union territories.
LIC Introduces Jeevan Dhara II Deferred Annuity Plan
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 Unveiled by LIC Chairman Siddhartha Mohanty, the new Jeevan Dhara II plan offers a non-participating, individual
savings, deferred annuity option.
Gole Mela Festival Commenced At Jagannath Temple, Udhampur
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 The beautiful town of Udhampur witnessed a glorious spectacle today as the sacred precincts of the Jagannath
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Temple came alive with the vibrant celebrations of the much-anticipated ‘Gole Mela.‘
The Prime Minister has kickstarted eight AMRUT projects valued at Rs. 2,000 crores in the city of Solapur,
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Maharashtra.
 The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi, marked a historic day in Solapur, Maharashtra, by laying the foundation
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stone for 8 AMRUT projects and dedicating over 90,000 completed houses under PMAY-Urban.
 The event also witnessed the distribution of PM-SVANIDHI benefits to 10,000 beneficiaries, showcasing the
government’s commitment to inclusive development.
 The inauguration of 15,000 houses in the Raynagar Housing Society, Solapur, is particularly noteworthy, benefitting
handloom workers, vendors, power loom workers, rag pickers, Bidi workers, drivers, and others.
Himachal Pradesh introduces 'My School-My Pride,' an initiative aimed at transforming education in the state
 In a progressive move aligning with the National Education Policy (NEP)-2020, the state of Himachal Pradesh has
unveiled the ambitious ‘My School-My Pride’ campaign under the ‘Apna Vidyalay’ programme.
 This initiative is set to revolutionize the quality of education in government schools, providing a holistic approach
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to student growth and development.
Under thetr-‘Apna
5F8E1FVidyalay’
7A0A0C1J programme, stakeholders are not only encouraged to contribute their time and expertise
but also make monetary contributions for infrastructure development, sponsor events, provide scholarships, and
support the Mid-Day Meal (MDM) programme.
The solar-powered "Surya Tilak" for Ram Lalla has been introduced at0Lthe Ayodhya Ram Temple
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 The Ayodhya Ram Temple, a site of immense religious significance in India, is set to introduce a groundbreaking
feature – a solar-powered “Surya Tilak” for the deity Ram Lalla.
 The “Surya Tilak” is an ingenious system designed to adorn the forehead of Lord Ram’s idol with sunlight in the
form of a ‘Tilak’ (a traditional Hindu mark worn on the forehead). This unique feature is planned exclusively for the
annual Ram Navami celebration, marking Lord Ram’s birth.
 Developed by a team from the Central Building Research Institute (CBRI), led by Odia scientist Saroj Kumar
Panigrahi, the project involves no electricity, battery, iron, or steel. It is a manually operated system made of brass,
ensuring the traditional ethos of the temple is maintained.
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G. Kishan Reddy, the Union Minister, has inaugurated five new galleries at the Salar Jung Museum in
Hyderabad
 In a momentous event, Union Minister for Culture and Tourism, G. Kishan Reddy, inaugurated five new galleries
at the renowned Salar Jung Museum in Hyderabad.
 1) Indian Sculpture Gallery: Featuring nearly 40 artifacts, some dating back to the 2nd Century B.C., including a
fragment from Bharhut with a lotus medallion and the Kakatiya period’s ‘Anantsayana Vishnu.’
 2) Bidriware Gallery: Showcasing 300 unique objects, including exquisite ‘huqqa’ bases and ewers.
 3) Lamp and Chandelier Gallery: Displaying 180 antique objects from around the globe.
 4) European Bronze Gallery: Housing over 100 bronze statues.
 5) European Marble Gallery: Featuring 50 outstanding marble sculptures.
The 'Anuvadini' app, introduced by the central government, facilitates multilingual education
 The central government has taken a noteworthy step to encourage multilingualism in education by launching the
'Anuvadini' app, a platform driven by Artificial Intelligence.
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 The initiative aims to make study materials for all school and higher education courses available in digital form,
specifically in Indian languages listed in the 8th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
 This step aligns with the recommendations of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, emphasizing the
importance of studying in one’s mother tongue.
The University Grants Commission (UGC), All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE), and the Department of
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School Education have been instructed to ensure the availability of study materials in regional languages.
Rhythmic Gymnastics at the Khelo India Games
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Haryana secures the top position in the 10m Air Pistol Mixed Team category, while Maharashtra excels in
Source: Times of India
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 In Khelo India games today, Haryana won the gold medal and Rajasthan silver in the 10m air pistol mixed team
event. Tamil Nadu clinched bronze.
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 In the rhythmic gymnastics Hoop event, Maharashtra's Kimaya Karle and Sanyukta Kale took first and second
places, while Muskan Rana from J&K took the third place. In the rhythmic gymnastics Ball event, Sanyukta Kale
o
took the first place, Muskan Rana took the second place and Life Adlakha from Haryana took third place. In the
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Club event of the same sport, Muskan Rana ended up at the top of the podium. Parina Madanpotra from
Maharashtra stood second and Life Adlakha from Haryana came third.
CCI grants approval for JSW to acquire a stake of up to 38% in MG Motor India
Source: Business Today
 The Competition Commission of India (CCI) has given its approval for Sajjan Jindal-promoted JSW Group's
proposed acquisition of up to 38 per cent stake in MG Motor India.
 "The Acquirer is a newly incorporated entity and is not engaged in any activities as on date. It is a wholly owned
subsidiary of JSW International Tradecorp Pte. Limited and belongs to JSW Group," the CCI stated.
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"The Target is a company incorporated in India, engaged in the automobile original equipment manufacturing business
and after sale services.
tr-5F8E 1F7A0A0CThe
1J Target is primarily engaged in the manufacture and sale of passenger cars (including
electronic vehicles) under the Target’s brand ‘MG’," it further said.
President Droupadi Murmu inaugurates Kaushal Bhawan, marking a significant step towards empowering
skills 0R1U
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 In a historic moment, President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated Kaushal Bhawan, emphasizing India's steadfast
commitment to empowering its youth through skill development.
 Under the aegis of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE), the Bhawan is set to catalyze the
realization of aspirations and nurture the nation’s young talent, steering India toward a more skilled future.
 Kaushal Bhawan, equipped with state-of-the-art infrastructure, provides an ideal environment for ideation,
collaboration, and execution of groundbreaking skill development initiatives.
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Andhra Pradesh embarks on a comprehensive caste census, following Bihar as the second state to undertake
such an initiative
 The government of YS Jagan Mohan Reddy in Andhra Pradesh has launched a comprehensive caste census, making
it the second state in the country, after Bihar, to undertake such an extensive enumeration of castes.
 Launched with the aid of a specially designed phone app, this ambitious census aims to enumerate all castes in the
state and is expected to be completed within the next 20 days to one month.
 The cornerstone of this census initiative is a dedicated phone app developed by the government, enabling a more
efficient and streamlined data collection process. The app offers more than 700 caste options for the public to
choose from, with a notable inclusion being the ‘No caste’ option.
Odisha is preparing to establish the globe's premier 'Black Tiger Safari'

 Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik has unveiled plans for the establishment of the world’s first ‘black tiger safari’
near the Similipal Tiger Reserve (STR) in Mayurbhanj.
About Odisha:
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Capital: – Bhubaneswar
Chief Ministe:r – Naveen Patnaik
Governor: – Raghubar Das
India and Oman's IT Cooperation MoU got the cabinet nod
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 The Union Cabinet, under the leadership of Prime Minister Narendra Modi, has approved the MoU between the
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology of India and the Ministry of Transport, Communications, and
Information Technology of Oman.
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 The MoU, inked on December 15 last year, aims to foster collaboration and cooperation in the field of Information
Technology (IT).
k
an
The 63rd session of the Central Geological Programming Board (CGPB) convened in Bhopal
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 The 63rd assembly of the Central Geological Programming Board (CGPB) convened in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh,
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under the leadership of Shri V.L. Kantha Rao, Secretary of the Ministry of Mines.
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Nirmala Sitharaman is set to become the second Finance Minister to present six consecutive Union Budgets
 Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman is poised to make history as she prepares to deliver her sixth consecutive
Budget, comprising five annual Budgets and one interim Budget.
The RBI grants approval for LIC to acquire a stake of up to 9.99% in HDFC Bank
 The Reserve Bank of India has granted permission to Life Insurance Corp. of India to acquire up to 9.99 percent of
HDFC Bank, as disclosed by the country's largest private lender to stock exchanges on January 25.
 LIC owns a 5.19 percent stake in the bank, according to the lender's shareholding pattern as of December 31.
About RBI :
 Established : 1 April 1935
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 Headquarters : Mumbai, Maharashtra, India tr-5P8U1P7L0L
 Governor tr-
: Shaktikanta
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Bank of Baroda plans to issue Rs 5,000 crore worth of 10-year infrastructure bonds
 On January 24, state-owned Bank of Baroda issued infrastructure bonds worth Rs 5,000 crore with a maturity of 10
years, as reported by sources familiar with the matter. 0R1U
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 The bonds have a base issue of Rs 1,000 crore, with retain oversubscription of Rs 4,000 crore as greenshoe option.
M Modi announces major infrastructure projects in Bulandshahr, UP

Source: TET
 Prime Minister Modi inaugurated and laid the foundation stone for projects worth over Rs 19,100 crores in
Bulandshahr, Uttar Pradesh. The diverse projects spanned crucial sectors such as rail, road, oil and gas, and urban
development.
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Nitish Kumar takes oath as Bihar CM for a record 9th time with BJP's backing
Amidst anticipation for the upcoming Lok Sabha elections, Nitish Kumar, the leader of Janata Dal-United (JDU),
assumed office as Bihar's Chief Minister for an unprecedented ninth term. This move marked a departure from the
'Mahagathbandhan' alliance, as Kumar garnered backing from the BJP.
On the 75th Republic Day, THDC India Limited inaugurated India's largest Green Hydrogen Pilot Project
 On the 75th Republic Day, THDC India Limited (THDCIL), a prominent Power Sector PSU, proudly unveiled India’s
Largest Electrolyser End Fuel Cell-based Green Hydrogen Pilot Project at its office complex in Rishikesh.
 The initiative aligns with the “National Green Hydrogen Mission,” showcasing THDCIL’s commitment to
sustainable energy practices. The pilot project, utilizing a 1MW Rooftop Solar Plant, will produce 50KG of Green
Hydrogen daily.
The Fourth National Chilika Birds Festival was hosted in Odisha
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 The National Chilika Birds Festival, a significant event in Odisha's calendar, began with splendor on January 26.
The festival was inaugurated by Odisha Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik.
across India to celebrate the State of India’s Birds.
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 Hosted against the breathtaking backdrop of Chilika Lake, this festival brings together birders and enthusiasts from
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Himanta Biswa Sarma unveils inaugural volume of 'Political History of Assam (1947-1971)'
 Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma released the first volume of 'Political History of Assam (1947-1971),'
marking a significant step in documenting the state's political journey.
Recipients of the Republic Day Parade Awards 2024 announced
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their discipline and precision.
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 Among the Three Services: The Sikh Regiment Contingent was declared the best marching contingent, showcasing
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 Among CAPF/Other Auxiliary Forces: The Delhi Police Women Marching Contingent received the award,
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highlighting the increasing role of women in security forces.
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INTERNATIONAL
China’s Groundbreaking Voyage: Mengxiang Sets Sail for Earth’s Mantle Exploration
 China has introduced its groundbreaking ocean drilling vessel, Mengxiang, signifying a pivotal moment in scientific
exploration.
 Weighing an impressive 33,000 tonnes and stretching 179 meters (590 feet), Mengxiang is a colossal ship with
exceptional capabilities.
About China:
Capital: Beijing
President: Xi Jinping
Felix Tshisekedi Named President of the Democratic Republic of Congo

 Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC) is once again in the spotlight as President Felix Tshisekedi secures victory in
the highly contested December 20 election.
BRICS group to double in 2024 after Saudi, Iran, UAE, Egypt, Ethiopia join ranks
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.
 BRICS, the group of emerging-market nations comprising Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa, is poised
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to undergo a significant expansion on January 1.
 Representatives from the new invitees participated in a recent BRICS sherpa meeting in Durban, South Africa,
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indicating their acceptance of the invitation.
 The five countries are set to send officials to the next sherpa meeting in Moscow on January 30.
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 The term “BRIC” was coined in 2001 to highlight robust economic growth in Brazil, Russia, India, and China.
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In January, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) is set to disburse a $700 million bailout installment to
Pakistan.
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Source: The Week
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 Cash-strapped Pakistan is poised to receive a crucial $700 million bailout tranche from the International Monetary
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Fund (IMF) during the Executive Board meeting on January 11.
 The disbursement, under the existing $3 billion Stand-By Arrangement (SBA), is expected to provide much-needed
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financial support to Pakistan’s struggling economy.
 The IMF Executive Board is scheduled to discuss Pakistan’s case on January 11, potentially granting final approval
for the release of the $700 million tranche. The current SBA, initiated in 2019, is set to conclude in April 2024, with
approximately $1.8 billion remaining undisbursed.
 Despite earlier expectations for the Executive Board's approval in December, the decision has been deferred to
January 11, as a Staff-Level Agreement between the IMF staff and Pakistani authorities awaits the Board's approval.
The potential approval holds significance for Pakistan's economy, providing crucial financial support.
 Discussions between the IMF staff and Pakistani authorities continue regarding policies aimed at bolstering
macroeconomic stability in the upcoming year. The IMF tr- noted
5P8U1Pprogress
7L0L0R1U over the FY23 budget, but the latest
economic projections for Pakistan reveal a challenging outlook for 2024. The report added that the IMF predicts a
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contraction of8E0.5%
tr-5F in the real GDP for the year and a significant increase in the Consumer Price Index, suggesting
heightened inflationary pressures.
After 52 years on the throne, Queen Margrethe II of Denmark is set to abdicate

Source: Telegraph India 0R1U
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 On the 14th of January, during her New Year's speech, Queen Margrethe II of Denmark disclosed her choice to step
down from the throne after a remarkable 52 years of reign. This significant announcement coincides with the
anniversary of her accession to the throne at the age of 31, succeeding her father, King Frederik IX, who passed
away.
 Queen Margrethe II’s legacy is one of resilience, adventure, and unwavering dedication to her role as a monarch.
Her decision to abdicate the throne adds a new chapter to Denmark’s royal history, making way for her son, Crown
Prince Frederik, to assume the responsibilities of the monarchy.
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FIH Hockey5s World Cup Qualifiers scheduled to be hosted by Oman
Source: The Quint
 Oman is set to unveil its latest sports marvel—a cutting-edge complex designed to host the FIH Hockey5s World
Cup qualifiers, scheduled just ahead of the Summer 2024 Olympic Games in Paris.
 Promising to deliver an exhilarating spectacle, the FIH Hockey5s World Cup qualifiers will draw in eight
international teams competing for the opportunity to clinch three coveted tickets to the forthcoming Olympics.
 The newly constructed stadium boasts a remarkable capacity, accommodating over 5,000 spectators during the
tournament. Built in adherence to the latest standards and designs approved by the International Hockey
Federation, the stadium promises an unparalleled viewing experience for fans and players alike.
Former Indian Navy personnel in Qatar given 60 days to appeal against prison terms
Source: The Financial Express
 The Ministry of External Affairs has disclosed that the eight incarcerated former Indian Navy personnel in Qatar
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have been granted a 60-day window to file appeals against the diverse prison terms imposed by a Qatari court last
week. This decision follows the commutation of their earlier death sentences.
 The Court of Appeal in Qatar on December 28 commuted the death sentence handed down to the Indians in
October and sentenced them to prison for varying durations, weeks after their family members filed an appeal
against the earlier order by another court.
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 External Affairs Ministry spokesperson Randhir Jaiswal said the legal team of the Indian nationals received a copy
of the court order that he described as a "confidential document".
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 "On December 28, the Court of Appeal had given a judgement. Thereafter, we issued a press release giving details
(and) telling that the death penalty has been reduced. Now, we have the judgement order, which is a confidential
document," he said.
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During the 7th Nepal-India Joint Commission Meeting, Nepal and India finalize an agreement
 External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and Nepalese counterpart N P Saud inaugurate three cross-border
transmission lines.
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 A bilateral agreement is signed for Nepal to export 10,000 MW of power to India over the next 10 years. The
agreement, signed at the 7th Nepal-India Joint Commission Meeting, reinforces the commitment to a long-term
energy partnership.
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 Discussions cover various aspects of bilateral ties, including trade, economic relations, connectivity projects,
defence, security cooperation, and more. A Memorandum of Understanding for cooperation in renewable energy is
signed, emphasizing a joint commitment to sustainable energy solutions.
 Nepal's Prime Minister hails the power export agreement as a breakthrough in the nation's power sector, ensuring
energy security and sustainable development.
 External Affairs Minister Jaishankar highlights the comprehensive nature of discussions, covering land, rail, and air
connectivity, defence, agriculture, power, water resources, disaster management, tourism, civil aviation, and
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Kyrgyzstan designates the snow leopard as its national symbol.
Source: Down to Earth
 Kyrgyzstan, in Central Asia, designates the snow leopard as its national symbol, showcasing a deep dedication to
conservation and ecological harmony. 1U
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 President Zhaparov has directed the Cabinet of Ministers totr- actively recognize the snow leopard as a national
symbol and take measures to protect its population and the ecosystems it inhabits.
 President Sadyr Zhaparov, through a signed decree, emphasized the snow leopard’s role not only as a symbol of
natural wealth and cultural prosperity but also as a vital indicator of the stability and health of the mountain
ecosystems that cover a substantial portion of the global territory.
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Sheikh Hasina secures her fifth term in the 2024 Bangladesh Election despite opposition boycott.
 In a momentous turn of events, Bangladesh’s Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina has been re-elected for a fifth term,
marking a significant milestone in the country’s political landscape. According to the Election Commission and
reports from various TV stations, the Awami League secured 216 seats out of 299 in the parliamentary election.
 The ruling Awami League, under Hasina’s leadership, has triumphed once again, securing more than half of the
parliamentary seats. This victory reaffirms Sheikh Hasina’s position as the world’s longest-serving female head of
government.
'India has always been a first responder to various crises,' says Maldives' tourism industry amid row over
ministers' remarks
 According to official data, more than 2 lakh Indians have visited the Maldives annually in the last three years,
marking the highest influx from any country post-Covid pandemic.
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 • The Maldives Association of Tourism Industry (MATI) issued a statement on Monday, expressing strong
condemnation for the derogatory comments made by some Deputy Ministers on social media platforms, as the
India-Maldives row intensified amid concerns related to Lakshadweep.
 "The Maldives Association of Tourism Industry strongly condemns the derogatory comments made by some Deputy
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Ministers on social media platforms, directed towards the Prime Minister of India, His Excellency Narendra Modi
o
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as well as the people of India. India is one of our closest neighbours and allies. India has always been a first responder
to various crises throughout our history and we are immensely grateful to the close relationship that the
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Government as well as people of India have maintained with us," said MATI in a statement.
 Over 2 lakh Indians visited Maldives annually in the last three years, the highest from any country post-COVID 19
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pandemic, according to the official data, reported PTI, amid calls from several quarters to boycott the island nation
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as a travel destination following a diplomatic row between the two nations.
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 According to the Maldives Tourism Ministry statistics, over 17 lakh tourists visited the island nation in 2023, out of
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which more than 2,09,198 visitors were Indians followed by Russians (2,09,146) and China (1,87,118).
 The number of Indian visitors was more than 2.4 lakh in 2022 while over 2.11 lakh Indians flew to the Maldives in
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2021. The Maldives was also one of the few countries open for international tourists during the pandemic and nearly
63,000 Indians visited that country during that period.
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At the age of 34, Gabriel Attal has become the youngest-ever Prime Minister of France.
 In a noteworthy political maneuver, French President Emmanuel Macron has appointed Gabriel Attal as the new
Prime Minister of France.
 At 34 years old, Attal not only becomes the youngest prime minister in the country’s history but also the first openly
gay official to hold this prestigious position.
 Attal’s appointment comes in the midst of a cabinet reshuffle initiated by Macron to breathe new life into his
government. With the departure of outgoing Prime Minister Elisabeth Borne, Attal is expected to play a crucial role
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The United States has designated several countries, including China, North Korea, and Pakistan, for
violations of religious freedom
Source: The Hindu
 Under the leadership of Secretary of State Antony Blinken, the United States has designated several nations as
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'Countries of Particular Concern,' citing severe violations of religious freedom.
 This decision aligns with the International Religious Freedom Act of 1998, emphasizing the commitment to
advancing freedom of religion globally.
 China, North Korea, Pakistan, Cuba, Eritrea, Iran, Nicaragua, Russia, Saudi Arabia, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and
Myanmar have been labeled as ‘Countries of Particular Concern.’
Algeria, Azerbaijan, the Central African Republic, Comoros, and Vietnam are placed on the ‘Special Watch List’ for
tolerating severe religious freedom violations.
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South Korea Bans Trade of Dog Meat in New Law
 South Korea’s parliament made history by passing a groundbreaking bill that bans the eating and selling of dog
meat.
 Eating dog meat in South Korea was once considered a way to improve stamina, particularly during the humid
Korean summer.
 Support for the ban has grown significantly under the leadership of President Yoon Suk Yeol.
US and UK Launch Airstrikes on Yemen’s Huthi Rebels over Red Sea Attacks
 In response to the Iran-backed Huthi rebels’ escalating assaults on shipping in the Red Sea, the United States and
Britain carried out airstrikes using fighter jets and Tomahawk missiles.
 The Huthis, attributing their actions to Israel’s Gaza Strip bombardment, launched drones and missiles towards
Israel.
Shanghai’s NDB Commits $500 Million Loan for Gujarat’s Infrastructure Development
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 The Shanghai-based New Development Bank (NDB) inked an agreement during the Vibrant Gujarat Summit,
pledging a substantial $500 million loan to the Gujarat government.
 This financial infusion is earmarked for the Mukhayamantri Gram Sadak Yojana.
Security Agreement Signed Between Ukraine & Britain in Kyiv
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 Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskiy and British Prime Minister Rishi Sunak signed an unprecedented security
agreement between their nations in Kyiv.
Maldives asks India to withdraw troops by March 15
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 The signed security accord is poised to remain in effect until Ukraine becomes a member of NATO.
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 Maldives president Mohamed Muizzu asked India to withdraw its military personnel from his country by March 15.
 As per government figures, there are 88 Indian military personnel in the Maldives.
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Taiwan Elects Pro-Sovereignty William Lai in Historic Election, Further Straining China Ties
 Taiwanese voters have chosen William Lai Ching-te, a pro-sovereignty candidate from the Democratic Progressive
To
Party (DPP), as their president.
 Lai, the current vice president, secured an unprecedented third consecutive term for the DPP by defeating his
conservative rival, Hou Yu-ih of the Kuomintang (KMT), by over 900,000 votes.
Reformist Arevalo Sworn in as Guatemala President

 Bernardo Arévalo was officially sworn in as the President of Guatemala on January 15, 2024.
About Guatemala:
Capital: Guatemala City
Currency: Guatemalan Quetzal
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UNDP and the EU have earmarked over $420,000 for initiatives addressing deforestation, enhancing food
security, and combating climate change in Papua New Guinea.
 The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the European Union (EU) have allocated grants totaling
over US$420,000 (approximately 1.6 million PGK) to support initiatives 0R1U aimed at combating deforestation,
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improving food and nutrition security, and adapting to the impacts of climate change.
 The official handover of these grants took place during a workshop held at the Takeanda Museum in Wabag, Enga
Province, on 17 January 2024. These grants are set to benefit communities across six districts in Enga Province,
Papua New Guinea.
Solar power stations have been officially inaugurated at Egyptian World Heritage sites
 In a ceremony at the Manial Palace, the Ministry of Tourism and Antiquities, represented by the Supreme Council
for Antiquities (SCA), in collaboration with the Industrial Modernization Center and the United Nations
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Development Programme (UNDP) in Egypt, officially inaugurated solar power stations at five renowned Egyptian
world heritage sites and museums.
This initiative is part of the Egypt PV project, a groundbreaking effort aimed at fostering the market for rooftop
small-scale photovoltaic (PV) systems in Egypt. Funded by the Global Environment Facility (GEF) and the European
Union, the project operates under the auspices of the UNDP in partnership with Egypt’s COP27 Presidency.
Canada's Oakville, Brampton declare Jan 22 as 'Ayodhya Ram Mandir Day'

 The towns of Oakville and Brampton in Canada's Ontario declared January 22, 2024 as 'Ayodhya Ram Mandir Day'
to celebrate the grand opening of the temple in Ayodhya.
The mayors of Brampton, Patrick Brown and Oakville, Rob Burton, said the inauguration of the temple in Ayodhya
"holds immense cultural, religious, and historical significance for Hindus worldwide, signifying the culmination of
a centuries-old dream".
Cabo Verde has been granted certification by the World Health Organization (WHO) for achieving a malaria-
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free status
 In a recent announcement, the World Health Organization (WHO) has officially certified Cabo Verde as a malaria-
free country.
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 This accomplishment positions Cabo Verde alongside Mauritius and Algeria as the third nation in the WHO African
region to achieve malaria-free status.
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 Cabo Verde’s certification adds to the list of 43 countries and 1 territory globally that have been recognized as
‘malaria-free’ by the WHO. Notable instances in the South East Asian region include the Maldives (2015) and Sri
Lanka (2016), while India awaits such certification.
Sweden set to become NATO member as Turkey approves its membership bid
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Source: ThePrint
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 The Turkish parliament voted Tuesday to approve Sweden’s NATO membership bid, bringing the Nordic country
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one step closer to joining the military alliance after months of delays.
 Of the 346 members of parliament who voted, 287 were in favor of Sweden’s accession and 55 voted to reject it.
Four others abstained from voting.
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 The vote was the second step of Turkey’s ratification process after the parliament’s Foreign Affairs Commission
approved the bid last month. Turkish President Recep Tayyip Erdogan can now sign the protocol into law.
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 The outcome on Tuesday cleared a significant hurdle for the Nordic country’s accession into the military alliance,
with Hungary now set to be the only member state that has not yet ratified Sweden’s accession.
The Union Cabinet, led by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has approved an IT cooperation Memorandum
of Understanding (MoU) between India and Oman
 The Union Cabinet, led by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, has given the green light for the signing of a
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between India and Oman in the field of Information Technology (IT).
 The MoU, inked on December 15, 2023, between the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology of India
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tr-5P8U1P7L0LTechnology, aims to foster comprehensive
and Oman’s Ministry of Transport, Communications, and Information
collaboration through mutual
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Saudi Arabia is set to inaugurate its inaugural alcohol store, exclusively catering to diplomats
 Saudi Arabia will open its first alcohol store in the capital Riyadh which will serve exclusively non-Muslim
diplomats. 1U
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 Customers will have to register via a mobile app, get a clearancetr-code from the foreign ministry, and respect monthly
quotas with their purchases.
About Saudi Arabia:
 Capital- Riyadh
 Currency- Saudi riyal
 Prime minister- Mohammed bin Salman Al Saud
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Maersk unveils the largest ship globally powered by methanol
 Maersk, a leader in the maritime industry, takes a significant step towards sustainability with the introduction of
the Ane Maersk. This groundbreaking container vessel is powered by green methanol sourced from green hydrogen,
marking a monumental stride towards environmental stewardship.
Alabama carries out the inaugural nitrogen gas execution in the United States
 In a groundbreaking turn of events, Kenneth Smith, a convicted murderer, has become the first person in the United
States to be executed by nitrogen gas.
 The execution, which took place in Alabama, introduces a new method intended to be the most painless and
humane alternative to the previously predominant lethal injection.
Krutrim, founded by Ola's founder, emerges as India's first AI unicorn

 Krutrim, an AI startup founded by Ola's Bhavish Aggarwal, announces a funding round that values the company at
$1 billion.
 The startup, founded last year, is the fastest to become a unicorn in India, it claimed in a press statement.
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 It’s also the first Indian AI startup to become a unicorn, it stated.
Macron concludes India visit, seals key deals

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 French President Emmanuel Macron concluded his two-day visit to India, participating as the chief guest in the
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75th Republic Day celebrations.
Iran successfully sends three satellites into orbit
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 Iran has declared the prosperous deployment of three satellites into space utilizing a rocket that has encountered
numerous obstacles in the past. This milestone signifies the most recent progression in a program that Western
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nations allege is bolstering Tehran's ballistic missile capabilities.
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Qatar bolsters energy ties with Bangladesh through a 15-year gas supply deal
 Qatar Energy and Excelerate Energy finalize a significant 15-year LNG Sale and Purchase Agreement (SPA) to
provide LNG to Bangladesh.
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 The SPA outlines Excelerate's procurement of up to one million tons per annum (MTPA) of LNG from QatarEnergy,
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with deliveries commencing from January 2026 to floating storage and regasification units in Bangladesh.
SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

ISRO Launches XPoSat: India’s First X-Ray Polarimeter Satellite
 Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) marked the beginning of 2024 with a significant milestone, launching
its first mission of the year. On January 1, ISRO successfully lifted off the XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite) along
with 10 other satellites from the Sriharikota spaceport, using the reliable PSLV-C58 rocket.
 The agency underscores the significance of XPoSat as its first dedicated0Rscientific
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research in this specialized domain.
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Joint Exercise ‘Sahyog Kaijin’ Between Indian and Japanese Coast Guards
 The Indian and Japanese Coast Guards have recently conducted a successful joint exercise named ‘Sahyog Kaijin’
off the coast of Chennai.
 This exercise is a part of the ongoing collaboration between the
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Cooperation (MoC) signed in 2006.
DRDO Achieves Success in Akash-NG Missile Flight Test

 The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) achieved a significant milestone with the successful
flight test of the New Generation AKASH (AKASH-NG) missile.
 The test, conducted at the Integrated Test Range (ITR), Chandipur off the coast of Odisha.
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I-STEM to Launch ‘Samavesha’ At IISc Bengaluru to Enhance Research Collaboration
 The inauguration ceremony of ‘Samavesha’ is scheduled to take place at the prestigious Indian Institute of Science
(IISc) in Bengaluru.
 One of the pivotal aspects of the project is the establishment of an online portal that will connect researchers and
industries with scientific institutes.
AWARDS & RECOGNITION

Chaudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural University's Vice Chancellor Prof B R Kamboj honoured with
M S Swaminathan Award
Source: News on AIR
 Chaudhary Charan Singh Haryana Agricultural University's Vice Chancellor Prof. B.R. Kamboj has been honoured
with the prestigious M.S. Swaminathan Award in recognition of his contributions as a scientist and extension
specialist in the field of agronomy. Thawar Chand Gehlot, the Governor of Karnataka, presented him this award.
The award ceremony took place at the International Conference on 'One Health One World,' held at Rajmata
Vijayaraje Scindia Agricultural University at Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh.
 A special committee, constituted for the M.S. Swaminathan Award, selected Prof. B.R. Kamboj for his excellent
c o m
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achievements in the field of education, research, technology development and extension in agricultural science.
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 Vice Chancellor, Prof. B.R. Kamboj is well aware of the common problems, needs and socio-economical conditions
of the farmers. The agricultural recommendations put forth by Prof. Kamboj, stemming from his research work and
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collaborative extension activities with university scientists, have consistently proven to be highly advantageous for
farmers.
technical magazines.
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 Prof Kamboj has published about 300 research papers and articles in national and international journals, books and
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Awards Season Guide 2024: Every Date You Need for the Golden Globes, Oscars, GRAMMYs and More!
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 With the advent of the new year, we are on the brink of a whole new awards season, characterized by chic red carpet
ensembles, moving (and sometimes heartbreaking) speeches, and endeavors at comedic sketches by hosts and
presenters that will span from uproarious and unforgettable to remarkably cringe-worthy.
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 The awards season landscape has finally gotten back on track following several years of pandemic-related delays
and changes, and then the now-settled WGA and SAG-AFTRA strikes, which many worried would shake up the
awards show calendar once again.
 Music awards shows -- including the GRAMMY Awards and the Billboard Music Awards -- were less impacted by
the strikes, and are scheduled to go on as planned. Meanwhile, some film and TV-based awards that were postponed
have been rescheduled, including the Oscars and Golden Globes.
 Below, ET has your handy calendar that will be continuously updated with all the key dates and details as we learn
more about what's to come from the Golden Globes, SAG Awards, GRAMMYs, BAFTA Awards and more.
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Stepping into a pivotal role, Shashi Singh has been named the newly appointed President of AIRIA (All India
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Rubber Industries Association).
Source: The Hindu BusinessLine
 Undergoing a noteworthy shift in leadership dynamics, the All India Rubber Industries Association (AIRIA), the
premier representative body for India's rubber industry, has recently declared a substantial change in its leadership.
 Shashi Singh has been elected as the new President, succeeding 0R1U
8U1P7L0LKejriwal.
tr-5PRamesh This transition marks a new era
for AIRIA, with Singh set to advance the association’s mission and goals.
 Alongside Singh, Zafar Ahmed, the Managing Director of New India Rubber Works Pvt Ltd, has been elected as the
senior vice-president for 2023-24. In addition, Indra Parekh takes on the role of vice president. This new leadership
team is expected to bring a blend of experience, insight, and fresh perspectives to AIRIA.
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Taking the helm, Sanjiv Aggarwal assumes the role of CEO and MD of NIIFL (National Investment and
Infrastructure Fund Limited).
 The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Limited (NIIFL) has welcomed Sanjiv Aggarwal as its new Chief
Executive Officer and Managing Director.
 Aggarwal, formerly a partner at the UK-based private equity firm Actis, brings a wealth of experience in energy
investments, particularly in the Asian market, including India.
 Sanjiv Aggarwal’s impressive track record includes successful stints at renowned financial institutions such as
Citigroup and ANZ Investment Bank. Notably, his tenure at Actis saw remarkable accomplishments, including the
sale of the Indian renewable energy platform Sprng Energy to Shell Plc for an enterprise value of $1.55 billion in
April 2022.
Assuming a significant role, Senior IAS Officer Vikas Sheel is appointed as the Executive Director of the Asian
Development Bank.
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Source: Times Now
 Demonstrating India's active participation on the global stage, seven proficient civil servants have been appointed
to key positions overseas. Among them, Mr. Vikas Sheel, an adept bureaucrat, now assumes the role of Executive
Director at the Asian Development Bank (ADB) in Manila. This appointment underscores India's dedication to
contributing to international development initiatives.
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 Vikas Sheel, a 1994-batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer, is now the Executive Director at ADB. He
brings valuable experience from his current role as Additional Secretary and Mission Director of Jal Jeevan Mission,
contributing to India’s representation at this prestigious institution.
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 Smita Sarangi has been appointed as Adviser to the Executive Director at ADB in Manila, Philippines. Her expertise
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will play a vital role in India’s collaboration with ADB on important development initiatives.
Source: DD News
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Indian Missions in Vancouver, New York & Nicosia receive One District One Product Award
 ‘One District One Product’ is among the several initiatives of the Government of India in line with Prime Minister
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Modi’s vision of “Aatma Nirbhar Bharat”, a self-reliant India. The idea is to select, brand, and promote One Product
from each District of the country, harnessing traditional strengths and technology for holistic development.
 The prestigious ODOP Awards were conferred upon Indian Districts, States and Indian Missions abroad by EAM
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Dr. S. Jaishankar and Commerce and Industry Minister Mr. Piyush Goyal on January 3 as part of the ‘Aatma Nirbhar
Bharat Utsav’. The Awards aim to recognize and honor those who have demonstrated exceptional accomplishments
in furthering economic development through the ODOP approach.
 Consulate General of India in New York was among the three Indian Missions to receive the prestigious ODOP
Award 2023. It was declared the runners-up in the category of India’s Foreign Missions for its contribution in
promoting ODOP items in the world.
Jain University and Odisha Mining Corporation excel in National Sports Awards
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Source: DD News tr-5P8U1P7L0L
 The Ministry5Fof Youth 0C
Affairs
1J & Sports discloses awardees for 'Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar' 2023, recognizing
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outstanding contributions to sports promotion and development. They will be honored by President Droupadi
Murmu on January 9 at Rashtrapati Bhavan.
 The ‘Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar’ is conferred upon corporate entities in both the private and public sectors,
Sports Control Boards, NGOs, and sports bodies at the State and National levels that have played a visible role in
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promoting sports. tr-5P8U1P7L0L
 Applications for the awards were invited online, allowing sportspersons, coaches, and entities to self-apply through
a dedicated online portal.
 The ‘Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar’ is one of the six core awards that constitute India’s National Sports Awards,
along with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award (Khel Ratna), Arjuna Award, Dronacharya Award, Major
Dhyan Chand Award, and the Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy (MAKA Trophy).
Swachh Survekshan Awards 2023: Indore and Surat Share Cleanest City Title
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 In a prestigious ceremony hosted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), the Swachh Survekshan
Awards 2023 witnessed President Droupadi Murmu conferring accolades to 13 distinguished awardees across
various cleanliness categories.
 Indore, for the remarkable seventh consecutive time, secured the cleanest city title.
Savita Kanswal Posthumously Honored With Tenzing Norgay Award

 President Draupadi Murmu posthumously conferred the prestigious Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award
upon Savita Kanswal.
 The award, presented to her father Radheshyam Kanswal, is a testament to Savita’s exceptional achievements in the
field of mountaineering.
 Savita Kanswal made history by becoming the first Indian woman mountaineer to conquer both Mount Everest
(8848 m) and Mount Makalu (8485 m) within an astonishing span of 16 days.
NICMAR Hyderabad Achieves Platinum Certification under IGBC Green Campus Rating
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 The National Institute of Construction Management and Research (NICMAR), located in Hyderabad, has recently
been awarded the prestigious Platinum certification by the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) under its Green
Campus Rating program.
Deepa Bhandare Makes History as First Female to Receive VSI Award
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 Deepa Bhandare, associated with Shri Datta Cooperative Sugar Factory (SSK) in Shirol taluka of Kolhapur, emerged
as a trailblazer as she clinched the prestigious Best Environment Officer Award at the ceremony.
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 The award, conferred by VSI Chairman Sharad Pawar, marks a historic moment as Bhandare becomes the only
woman in the long and illustrious history of Maharashtra’s sugar industry to receive this accolade.
Source: PSU Connect
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REC Limited Wins ICAI Award for Excellence in Financial Reporting FY 2022-23
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 REC Limited, a prominent Maharatna Public Sector Unit and a leading Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC)
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under the Ministry of Power, has been honored with the prestigious ‘Plaque’ at the ICAI Awards for Excellence in
Financial Reporting.
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Established in 1969, REC Limited is a premier NBFC focused on Power Sector Financing and Development
throughout India.
Gianni Infantino Honored With Sports Personality Award in Dubai

 In a glittering ceremony at the Mohammed Bin Rashid Al Maktoum Creative Sports Awards, FIFA President Gianni
Infantino was bestowed with the prestigious International Sports Personality of the Year award.
 The event, inspired by the love of sport exhibited by Sheikh Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum, has been
recognizing outstanding achievements in the realm of sports since its inception in 2009.
 The UAE boasts a rich legacy of organizing FIFA tournaments, having held eight events in the last 21 years.
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Assam Govt to Honor Ex-CJI Ranjan Gogoi with ‘Assam Baibhav’ Award
 Former Chief Justice
tr-5F8E of India and current Rajya Sabha MP, Ranjan Gogoi, is set to be honored with the prestigious
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‘Assam Baibhav’ award, the highest civilian award in Assam.
 This announcement was made by the Chief Minister of Assam, Himanta Biswa Sarma, who highlighted Gogoi’s
significant contributions to the field of justice and jurisprudence.
 After retiring as Chief Justice, Ranjan Gogoi was nominated as a Member of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha.
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Skyways Air Services wins Best Cargo Services Award at Wings India Awards
 Skyways Air Services Pvt Ltd has been recognized for its outstanding cargo services at the prestigious Wings India
Awards held in Hyderabad.
 The GMR Group was recognized as the Best Aviation Service Provider, and Indian Oil Skytanking Pvt Ltd for fuel
services.
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Saudi Arabia's Joy Awards: Nelly Karim, Karim Abdel-Aziz, Eva Longoria, Anthony Hopkins among winners
 The grand ceremony for the 2024 Joy Awards took place on Saturday in Riyadh, featuring the most renowned names
from the Arab world and the international scene.
 Organized by Saudi Arabia's General Entertainment Authority in cooperation with MBC Group, the Joy Awards is
one of the largest award ceremonies in the Middle East.
 The awards were handed to nominated female and male celebrities across various genres and categories, covering
the film, television, sports, fashion, and social media segments.
Inaugural BRICS-CCI Annual Recognition Awards 2024 celebrate excellence, innovation, collaboration
 The first edition of the BRICS-CCI Annual Recognition Awards 2024 (BARA) was held here on Friday, celebrating
the unleashing of the power of the BRICS bloc and honouring achievements in various fields.
 Hosted by the BRICS Chamber of Commerce & Industry, India Chapter, at Le Meridian hotel here, the inaugural
ceremony had former President Ram Nath Kovind, as chief guest, sharing insightful perspectives that resonated
with the collective vision for expanding the BRICS bloc.
 “The awards being presented today recognise not only excellence but also responsible business practice. This
approach is in line with our commitment to sustainable development and the well-being of future generations,” he
said.
In the BCCI Awards 2023, Shubman Gill and Ravi Shastri are set to be recognized and honored
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cricket at the upcoming NAMAN Awards ceremony in Hyderabad.
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 The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) is gearing up to recognize outstanding contributions to Indian
 This prestigious event, held for the first time since 2019, celebrates the achievements of Indian cricketers in the
preceding year.
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 Shubman Gill is slated to receive the Cricketer of the Year award, acknowledging his extraordinary performance in
2023. Gill played 48 matches during the year, amassing an impressive 2,154 runs.
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 Ravi Shastri, a former all-rounder and head coach of the Indian cricket team, will be honoured with the Lifetime
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Achievement Award. Shastri’s illustrious career includes representing India in 80 Tests and 150 One Day
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Internationals (ODIs), scoring over 3,000 runs in both formats and taking 280 wickets.
2024 Padma awards
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 Former Vice-President M. Venkaiah Naidu, actors Chiranjeevi and Vyjayanthimala Bali, and Bharatanatyam dancer
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Padma Subrahmanyam will be conferred with Padma Vibhushan, the country’s second highest civilian award, the
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Central government announced on the eve of Republic Day. Bindeshwar Pathak, founder of Sulabh International,
will be conferred with the award posthumously.
Tableau showcasing 'India: Mother of Democracy' claims top position at Republic Day Parade 2024
 The Republic Day Parade 2024 featured a winning tableau on the theme 'India: Mother of Democracy,' securing the
first spot and captivating the audience.
 Presented by the Ministry of Culture, the tableau highlighted India's rich democratic heritage, emphasizing its
longstanding tradition of democratic values and practices.
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BOOK & AUTHOR
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Union Minister Bhupendra Yadav launched a book titled ‘Modi: Energising a Green Future’
 Union Minister Bhupender Yadav, heading the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC),
has recently unveiled an insightful book titled “Modi: Energising A Green Future”.
 Book is published by Pentagon Press in collaboration with the Dr. Shyama 0RPrasad
1U Mookerjee Research
Foundation. tr-5P8U1P7L0L
The book “An Uncommon Love: The Early Life of Sudha and Narayana Murthy” released
 The book “An Uncommon Love: The Early Life of Sudha and Narayana Murthy,” authored by Chitra Banerjee
Divakaruni.
 Sudha and Narayana Murthy are the co-founders of Infosys.
Conversations with Aurangzeb”: A Novel by Charu Nivedita

 “Conversations with Aurangzeb” is a novel by Tamil literary icon Charu Nivedita, translated into English by
Nandini Krishnan.
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IMPORTANT DAYs
DRDO Celebrates Its 66th Foundation Day
 India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) commemorated its 66th Foundation Day on
January 1, 2024.
 The celebrations commenced with paying floral tributes to former President Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam, the “Missile Man
of India,” and Dr. VS Arunachalam, the former DRDO chief.
 DRDO Chairman Dr. Samir V Kamat addressed the DRDO fraternity.
Global Family Day 2024: 1 January

 Global Family Day, celebrated annually on January 1, marks a universal commitment to peace, unity, and the shared
values of humanity.
 The theme for 2024, “Embracing Diversity, Strengthening Families”.
 By 1999, Global Family Day was established as a day dedicated to peace-building strategies.
International Mind-Body Wellness Day 2024
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 International Mind-Body Wellness Day, observed annually on January 3, is a global celebration dedicated to
fostering the harmonious coexistence of physical and mental health.
 This occasion serves as a reminder of the interconnectedness of our mind, body, and spirit, emphasizing the
importance of holistic well-being.
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 International Mind-Body Wellness Day urges people worldwide to prioritize self-care, mindfulness practices, and
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healthy lifestyle choices. In the midst of our fast-paced modern lives, this observance serves as a call to pause and
a
actively engage in behaviors that promote holistic well-being.
2024 Marks the Celebration of World Braille Day

Source: News18
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o
 World Braille Day, annually observed on January 4, is a profound tribute to Louis Braille, the visionary mind behind
the transformative braille system.
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 Born in 1809 in France, Louis faced the adversity of losing his sight in childhood. However, his resilience and
determination led to the creation of one of history’s most revolutionary systems.
 World Braille Day aims to raise awareness about the challenges faced by individuals with visual impairments,
advocating for their rights and societal integration.
 It serves as a poignant reminder of the importance of empathy and compassion towards those navigating a world
without sight.
Marking National Birds Day 2024, we rejoice in the splendor of avian beauty while emphasizing the
importance of conservation efforts tr-5P8U1P7L0L
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Source: Business Standard1J
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 Explore the
tr-5Fworld's most beautiful and unique birds, each possessing its own charm, on National Birds Day
celebrated annually on January 5.
 The day aims to raise awareness about bird conservation and the critical need to protect their habitats, given the
challenges they face from illegal pet trade, diseases, and habitat loss.
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 Founded in 2002 by the Avian Welfare Coalition, Nationaltr-Bird 7L0Lrecognizes
Day
5P8U1P birds as vital components of
ecosystems, acting as living links to the past and indicators of environmental health.
 Many bird species are endangered or protected due to habitat loss and illegal pet trade, emphasizing the urgency
of creating a sustainable relationship with these essential animals.
Observing the World Day of War Orphans in 2024

Source: ETV Bharat
 Marking January 6, 2024, the global community will come together to observe the World Day of War Orphans. This
day remains dedicated to shedding light on the challenges and requirements of the most vulnerable victims of
conflict—the children.
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 This day comes amidst ongoing global conflicts, serving as a poignant reminder of the deep and lasting impact war
has on the lives of innocent children.
 This year, World Day of War Orphans is marked with two powerful themes: “Orphan Lives Matter” and “Standing
Up for War-Affected Children.” These themes are a clarion call for global attention and action to support and
protect war-affected children.
Mahayana New Year, celebrated on January 7, marks a significant Buddhist observance.

Source: World History Encyclopaedia
 January 7 marks the celebration of Mahayana New Year for Buddhists globally. Mahayana, a significant branch of
Buddhism, is predominantly observed in Northeast Asia, encompassing Tibet, Taiwan, Mongolia, China, Japan,
Korea, and Taiwan. Unique customs and traditions characterize the practice of Mahayana Buddhism in each of
these regions, contributing to the rich tapestry of Buddhist philosophy and ideology.
ANC observes Foundation Day on January 8, 2024, marking its establishment in 1912.
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Source: India Today
 The African National Congress (ANC) celebrates its Foundation Day on January 8, recalling its establishment in
1912. This day signifies the ANC's enduring commitment to uniting African people and championing their rights
and freedoms.
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 The ANC, initially founded as the South African Native National Congress (SANNC) in Bloemfontein, symbolizes a
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landmark event in Africa’s struggle against centuries of exploitation and humiliation. Formed in a time of rapid
change, with the discovery of diamonds and gold in South Africa, the SANNC aimed to counter oppressive laws and
land rights, catalyzed the SANNC’s activism.
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taxes designed to dispossess Africans of their land. The notorious 1913 Land Act, which severely restricted African
 Since the transition to democracy in April 1994, the ANC has been the governing party of South Africa. Its journey
political landscape.
r an
from an organization fighting for basic rights to leading the nation signifies a monumental shift in the country’s
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Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, also referred to as NRI Day, is annually observed on the 9th of January
Source: News18
Pravasi Bharatiya Divas.

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 NRI Day 2024, also recognized as Pravasi Bharatiya Divas 2024, is observed on the 9th of January 2024.
 It was in 2000 when the Indian government decided to recognize the NRI community on January 9th by observing
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 Mahatma Gandhi returned to India on January 9, 1915, from South Africa, which gives the ninth of January its
significance as NRI Day.
 Despite being formally established in 2000, this day wasn't actually observed until 2003.
More information about the background of Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is provided here:
 The idea for NRI Day originated with Indian lawyer, diplomat, and author L.M. Singhvi.
 The day was then formally declared on January 9, 2002, by Atal Bihari Vajpayee, the country's then-prime minister.
 On 9th January 2006, the concept of OCI (Overseas Citizen of India) was introduced on Pravasi Bharatiya Divas.
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World Hindi tr-Day 7A0A0C1J on January 10th each year to promote and celebrate the Hindi language globally
5F8Eis1Fobserved
 World Hindi Day 2024 is observed on the 10th of January 2024.
 The inaugural World Hindi Conference, or Vishva Hindi Sammelan, was held in Nagpur, Maharashtra, in 1975,
which is when World Hindi Day first became a thing. 0R1U
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 This day was dedicated to honouring both the Hindi language and the many authors who have contributed to its
literature.
 Every year, Vishva Hindi Divas is observed to honour the Conference's anniversary.
 On January 10, Hindi-speaking people around the world celebrate World Hindi Day.
 Many public and private organizations in India hold celebrations for the day, and people who speak Hindi abroad
also commemorate it with equal fervor.
National Human Trafficking Awareness Day 2024: Date, History and Significance
 National Human Trafficking Awareness Day, observed annually on January 11.
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 In 2007, the United States Senate declared January 11 as National Human Trafficking Awareness Day. President
Barack Obama further dedicated the entire month of January 2010.
DPIIT organises Startup India Innovation Week 2024 from 10th-18th January 2024
 The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and
Industry, is set to orchestrate the Startup India Innovation Week 2024, spanning from January 10th to January 18th.
 January 11th, 2024, at the Tenth Vibrant Gujarat Global Summit in Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
 Speaker: Secretary, DPIIT, Shri Rajesh Kumar Singh.
 Theme: ‘Startups Unlocking Infinite Potential’.
National Youth Day 2024: 12th January

 The Government of India, in 1984, declared January 12 as National Youth Day.
 This day commemorates the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda.
 He is best known for his stirring speech at the 1893 Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago.
 The theme for National Youth Day 2024 is “Viksit Yuva-Viksit Bharat.”
Indian Army to Observe 2024 as the Year of Technology Absorption

 The Indian Army has declared 2024 as the “Year of Technology Absorption.”
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FCI (Food Corporation of India) Marks Its 60th Anniversary
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 FCI marks its 60th anniversary, with Union Minister Piyush Goyal praising India’s food self-sufficiency as a
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remarkable achievement in human history.
Pongal 2024: 15-18 January
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 It begins on January 15, lasting until January 18. The festival is dedicated to the Sun God, Lord Surya.
 The Pongal festival, also known as Bhogi Pongal, is a vibrant and auspicious harvesting festival widely celebrated in
a
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India. This four-day festival holds immense significance in the southern state of Tamil Nadu.
Indian Army Day 2024: 15th January
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 Indian Army Day is a special day celebrated on January 15 every year.
 It marks the anniversary of the Indian Army getting its first Indian chief in 1949.
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 This chief was General K.M. Cariappa, who took over from the British.
 The theme for Indian Army Day in 2024 is “In Service of the Nation.”
 In 2024, the main celebration will be in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
National Startup Day 2024, Date, History and Quotes

 In a significant declaration in 2021, Prime Minister Narendra Modi proclaimed January 16 as National Startup Day.
 National Startup Day was officially announced on January 15, 2022, with the inaugural observance taking place that
same year.
 Theme “Startups Unlocking Infinite Potential.” tr-5P8U1P7L0L
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tr-5F8E 0A0C1J
1F7A Jayanti 2024:17 January
Sri Guru Gobind Singh
 Guru Gobind Singh Jayanti, also known as Prakash Utsav, is a significant Sikh festival commemorating the birth
anniversary of Guru Gobind Singh Ji, the tenth and last Sikh Guru.
 At the age of nine, in 1676, Guru Gobind Singh was declared the tenth Guru of Sikhs.
 One of his most notable achievements was founding the Khalsa 0R1U
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tr-5PPanth
Parakram Diwas 2024

 On January 23rd, 2024, Parakram Diwas commemorates the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose, a key
figure in India's quest for independence.
 This day is celebrated to honour his indomitable spirit and invaluable contribution to India’s independence. This
year nation observe the 127th edition of Parakram Diwas 2024.
 Parakram Diwas 2024 is a national event celebrated annually in India since 2021. It commemorates Netaji’s birth
anniversary and is a tribute to his brave legacy. The day serves as a reminder of the courage and determination of
one of India’s most revered freedom fighters.
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International Day of Education: 24th January
Source: National Day Calendar
 International Day of Education 2024 is observed on the 24th January 2024
 The International Day of Education was declared by the UN General Assembly in December 2018 as a way to honor
education and to think about how crucial learning is to progress and peace.
 Each of us has a responsibility to advance high-quality education.
 Institutions are not the only ones that can impart knowledge.
 Access to education, which most of us probably take for granted, can help many people escape poverty and open
the door to a bright future.
14th National Voters Day 2024

 National Voters’ Day is celebrated annually on January 25 to commemorate the foundation day of the Election
Commission of India (ECI) in 1950. It’s a day dedicated to strengthening the democratic process by encouraging
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voter participation and emphasizing the importance of every vote in shaping the nation’s future.
 National Voters Day 2024 Theme: Making Every Vote Count: No Voter to be Left Behind. This theme emphasizes
the importance of inclusive and accessible elections, ensuring that every eligible voter has the opportunity to
exercise their franchise. It underscores the ECI’s commitment to reaching out to every corner of the country,
bridging the gap between eligible voters and the electoral process.
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26th January 2024 marked the celebration of Republic Day in India
 Republic Day 2024 is observed on the 26th January 2024.
 The day honours the promulgation of the Indian Constitution on January 26, 1950.
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International Day of Commemoration in Memory of the Victims of the Holocaust
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 January 27th marks a solemn occasion recognised globally as the International Day of Commemoration in memory
of the victims of the Holocaust.
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 This day serves as a poignant reminder of the horrors of the Holocaust and the enduring need to fight against
hatred, bigotry, and racism in all its forms.
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28 January- Birth Anniversary of Lala Lajpat Rai
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 Lala Lajpat Rai was born on 28 January, 1865 in Punjab. He was a prominent nationalist leader who played an
important role in India’s struggle for freedom. He also earned the title of 'Punjab Kesari' or 'the Lion of Punjab'. He
initiated the foundation of the Punjab National Bank. He died on 17 November 1928, due to serious injuries. The
University of Veterinary and Animal Sciences in Hisar, Haryana is named after Lala Lajpat Rai.
29 January- Indian Newspaper Day

Source: X.com
 A day set aside to honour the beginning of newspapers in India is known as Indian Newspaper Day. This day is
intended to raise awareness of Indian newspapers. Indian Newspaper 0L0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7LDay, which is observed on January 29th each
year, is today. However, there
0C1J
is no theme to observe this important occasion.
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January 30 is observed as Martyrs' Day or Shaheed Diwas
 Martyrs' Day, also known as Shaheed Diwas, is observed in India on January 30 annually. The day is dedicated to
pay homage to the courageous soldiers who sacrificed their lives for their motherland. It also marks the
assassination of Mahatma Gandhi in 1948. In 1949, Godse, a Hindu 1P7L0L0R1U was sentenced to death.
tr-5P8Unationalist,
International Zebra Day commemorated in 2024

 International Zebra Day, observed annually on January 31, is a significant event dedicated to raising awareness about
the conservation of zebras.
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OBITUARIES
Renowned academician and Padma Bhushan awardee, Professor Ved Prakash Nanda, has passed away.
Source: TIP
 Professor Ved Prakash Nanda, a luminary in the Indian diaspora, recently passed away, leaving behind a legacy of
profound contributions to literature, education, and international law.
 Born in 1934 in Gujranwala, British India, his journey transcended borders as his family migrated to India after the
partition in 1947.
 Prof. Nanda’s remarkable career, including being awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2018, reflects his dedication to
academia, international law, and fostering global understanding.
Four-time FIFA World Cup champion Mario Zagallo from Brazil has passed away
Source: Deccan Herald
 Mario Zagallo, who won two World Cups as a player, one as a coach and another as an assistant coach for Brazil,
has passed away at the age of 92.
About Mario Zagallo :
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 Zagallo began his career as a striker with Rio's America and later also played for Flamengo and Botafogo, one of the
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few Brazilian clubs which rivalled Pele's Santos in the 1960s.
 He holds the record for World Cup titles in general with four titles in total.
He also holds the record for World Cup finals with six participations.
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He was the first person to win the FIFA World Cup as both a manager and as a player, winning the competition in 1958
and 1962 as a player, in 1970 as manager., and in 1994 as assistant manager.
assistant in 2006.
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 Zagallo also coached Brazil in 1974 (finishing fourth) and in 1998 (finishing as runners-up) and was a technical
r
Franz Beckenbauer, the legendary German footballer and World Cup-winning captain, has passed away at the
age of 78
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 Franz Beckenbauer, one of only three men two have won the FIFA World Cup as a player and as a manager, has
died at the age of 78.
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 Born in Giesling, Munich, in September 1945, Franz Beckenbauer journey with football began in Bayern’s youth
squad, making his debut as a left-winger in 1964. Despite Bayern’s earlier struggles, Beckenbauer’s versatility and
leadership saw them rise, winning their first Bundesliga title in 1968-69.
 Beckenbauer’s international career started at 20, marking the beginning of a golden era for West Germany. He led
the team to victory in the 1972 European Championship and the 1974 World Cup, earning him the Ballon d’Or in
1972 and 1976. His impact extended beyond position norms, showcasing exceptional ball control and vision.
Ustad Rashid Khan, the maestro of Indian classical music, has passed away at 55
Source: The Print tr-5P8U1P7L0L
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 The Indian classical music community mourns the loss of Ustad Rashid Khan, a stalwart of the Rampur-Sahaswan
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Gharana. Passing at the age of 55 due to complications from prostate cancer, he leaves behind a legacy marked
by profound beauty and innovative musical spirit.
 Born in Uttar Pradesh’s Badayun, Rashid Khan’s musical lineage ran deep. His initial training came from his
maternal grand-uncle, Ustad Nissar Hussain Khan, laying the foundation for his exquisite vocal skills. Following his
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debut, Rashid Khan’s ascent was meteoric. tr-5P8U1P7L0L
 He graced the prestigious ITC concert in Delhi at 12 and joined the ITC Sangeet Research Academy in Calcutta at
just 14, immersing himself further in the rich tapestry of Hindustani classical music. This dedication translated into
mastery, with his renditions of Vilambit Khayal earning him widespread acclaim.
Renowned Urdu Poet Munawwar Rana Passes Away At 71

 Munawwar Rana, a celebrated Urdu poet, passed away at the age of 71.
 He was awarded the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award in 2014 for his poetry book ‘Shahdaba’.
Malayalam Music Director K J Joy Passes Away
 Malayalam music director K J Joy has passed away at the age of 77.
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Classical Singer Prabha Atre Passes Away at 91
 The Indian classical music fraternity Dr. Prabha Atre, a classical vocalist and a luminary of the Kirana Gharana has
passed away.
RANKS & REPORTS

Six Nations Top Global Passport Ranking, With Access to 194 Destinations
 France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Singapore, and Spain share the top spot in the quarterly ranking of the world’s most
powerful passports. Enjoying visa-free or visa-on-arrival access to an impressive 194 destinations, this marks a
historic high since the inception of the Henley Passport Index 19 years ago.
 Japan and Singapore, holding the top position for the past five years, now see a triumphant rise for Europe. Finland
and Sweden, tied with South Korea, secure the second spot.
Global Economic Resilience amid Dark Outlook: World Bank Report

 World Growth: Estimated at 2.6% (2023), 2.4% (2024), and 2.7% (2025).
 US: 2.5% (2023), 1.6% (2024), 1.7% (2025).
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 China: 5.2% (2023), 4.5% (2024), 4.3% (2025).
 India: Anticipated to maintain the fastest growth, ascending from 6.3% (2023-24) to 6.5% (2025-26).
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Hyderabad Ranks 9th Cleanest; Siddipet Tops In South India
 Hyderabad, the capital city of Telangana, achieved a significant milestone by securing the ninth position in
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cleanliness among cities with a population exceeding one lakh in the Swachh Survekshan Awards 2023.
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 Siddipet, a city in Telangana, proudly clinched the national award for being the cleanest city in south India within
the 50,000-1 lakh population category.
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US Leads 2024 Military Rankings, India Fourth, Bhutan Ranks Lowest
 The Global Firepower’s Military Strength Rankings for 2024 offer a comprehensive assessment of military
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capabilities worldwide. The rankings, encompassing 145 countries, take into account more than 60 factors.
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India Emerges as a Global Leader in Trust: Edelman Trust Barometer 2024
 The nation secures the 4th spot for media trust and the 5th position for trust in the government.
 In Edelman Trust Barometer 2024, India emerges as a global frontrunner in trust, topping the charts in confidence
in businesses and non-governmental organizations (NGOs).
TCS ranked second most valuable IT brand in global list

 Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) rated the second most valuable IT services brand in the world, according to the
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2024 Global 500 IT Services Ranking by Brand Finance. tr-5P8U1P7L0L
About Tata Consultancy Services:
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5F8E1F7A0A0C
Founders: J. R.tr-D. Tata, Faquir Chand Kohli
CEO: K. Krithivasan (1 Jun 2023–)
Headquarters: Mumbai
Founded: 1 April 1968
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SPORTS
Indian Teenager Anahat Singh Bags Girls’ U-19 2023 Scottish Junior Open Title at Edinburgh
 Anahat Singh, a rising star in Indian squash, secured victory in the girls’ under-19 category at the 2023 Scottish
Junior Open squash held in Edinburgh.
Hyderabad and Bengaluru airports achieve commendable positions in the global on-time performance
rankings.
 In a recent on-time performance review conducted by aviation analytics firm Cirium, Hyderabad and Bengaluru
airports have emerged as global leaders in punctuality, securing the second and third ranks, respectively.
 With over 84 per cent on-time departures, these airports have showcased their commitment to efficiency and
reliability in air travel.
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 IndiGo, which stood fourth among Asia Pacific airlines with over 82 per cent on-time arrivals, plays a crucial role
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in contributing to the punctuality at these airports. Approximately half of all flights at Bengaluru and 65 per cent
in Hyderabad are operated by IndiGo.
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 The Circum report stated that a flight is considered punctual if it departs or arrives with a difference of 15 minutes
from the scheduled time. The Kempegowda International Airport has achieved 84.08 % punctuality rate in the year
2023, making it one of the most punctual airports in the world. However, Hyderabad’s Rajiv Gandhi International
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Airport beat Bengaluru airport with a slightly higher punctuality rate stands at 84.42%.
 Meanwhile, America’s Minneapolis’ St Paul International Airport topped the list of most airports across the globe
with a punctuality rate of 84.44%
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 In 2022, Bengaluru airport was ranked 20th position in the list, and it hints that the most flights arrived and departed
on-time this year.
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Source: BBC
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In the Barcelona event, a new 5 km world record is established by Beatrice Chebet
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 Concluding her remarkable year with a spectacular showcase of athletic prowess, Kenya's Beatrice Chebet shattered
the world record for the women's 5 km marathon at the Cursa dels Nassos in Barcelona.
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 Clocking an astounding 14:13, Chebet outpaced her competitors and bettered the previous record by six seconds,
setting the stage for a memorable achievement.
 The final showdown was between Beatrice Chebet and Ejegayehu Taye, the former record holder. In a thrilling
sprint, Chebet surged ahead in the last 500m, securing her victory with a clear lead.
Rohit Sharma rates Cape Town win as 'one of India's best Test match victories'
 Bestowing high praise, India's captain Rohit Sharma has acclaimed the nation's historic Test triumph at Newlands
in Cape Town, labeling it as "one of the most exceptional victories"
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1U of India's cricketing history.
 With their backs against1J the wall after experiencing a crushing defeat in the opening Test of the series at the
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SuperSport Centurion, Rohit and his men scripted a praiseworthy comeback and turned the tables to defeat
South Africa by seven wickets on a pacer-friendly surface in the New Year's Test at the Newlands.
 "It'll be one of our best Test match victories," Rohit told the reporters after India's triumph in the shortest Test ever
played (in terms of balls bowled).
 "Having not won here in Cape Town [before], obviously this puts up1Uthere with all the victories that we've
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had. It's very hard to compare the Test matches that you play because every Test match has its own importance and
own relevance. The Test match that we won at The Gabba as well. The last test match that was lost by Australia in
Brisbane was in 1988, I think. Nearly after 23, 24 years (32 years), we won the Test match there. It kind of became
like their fortress. They never lose a test match there," Rohit said.
 "And the way we won that Test match as well was quite important. From where we came, we were 1-nil down, we
won in Melbourne and then we drew the Test match in Sydney and then won in Brisbane. So you can't really rank
the Test matches, but this has to be right up there because we had not won here. That shows how important a
venue this is for us to come here and perform. I give a lot of credit to our team to put up a performance like that
and win the game," the India captain said.
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Yuki Bhambri and Robin Haase face defeat in the semifinals of the Brisbane International, signaling an end
to their campaign in the tournament.
 Yuki Bhambri-Robin Haase lost in their semi-final match, at the Brisbane International.
 Yuki Bhambri and his partner Robin Haase faced a setback in the Brisbane International ATP Tour tournament
semifinals on Saturday. The Indo-Dutch pair, seeded eighth, experienced a close match against the second-seeded
duo of Lloyd Glasspool (England) and Jean-Julien Rojer (Netherlands), ultimately losing 3-6, 7-6, 9-11. The fiercely
contested match lasted for one hour and 40 minutes.
 The Bhambri-Haase duo had beaten the American pair of Nathaniel Lammons and Jackson Withrow in straight sets
-- 7-6 (5), 7-6 (6) -- in the quarterfinals.
 Last year, the 31-year-old Bhambri from New Delhi won his maiden ATP title at the Mallorca Championships
doubles competition, partnering with South African Lloyd Harris.
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Divyakriti Singh Becomes 1st Indian Woman Arjuna Awardee for Equestrian Sports
 Divyakriti Singh, has been conferred with the prestigious Arjuna Award, making her the first woman from Rajasthan
to achieve this honour. The award was presented in a grand ceremony at Rashtrapati Bhavan by the President of
India, Droupadi Murmu.
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Rhythm Sangwan Clinches 16th Olympic Quota for 2024 Paris Games
 The Asian Shooting Championships 2024 in Jakarta, Indonesia, Rhythm Sangwan secured a bronze medal in the
women’s 25m pistol event, obtaining a Paris 2024 Olympic quota for India.
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 During the intense 25m pistol final, Rhythm Sangwan showcased her skills, scoring 28 out of 45 to claim the bronze.
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9th Asian Winter Games, set to illuminate the winter sports landscape in 2025
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 This grand reveal, hosted in the capital city of Heilongjiang Province, China, marks a significant milestone as the
Games draw closer.
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 The heart and soul of the Games are personified in its mascots, “Binbin” and “Nini”, two charming Siberian tiger
cubs.
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Aman Sherawat Secures 57kg Gold In 2024 Zagreb Open singles
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 India’s young wrestling sensation, Aman Sehrawat, set the stage on fire at the Zagreb Open 2024 by winning a gold
medal in the 57 kg category of the men’s singles event.
 As Sehrawat is often regarded as India’s next big wrestling sensation.
Real Madrid Wins against Barcelona in Spanish Super Cup

 Real Madrid played against Barcelona and won 4-1. This big game was part of the Spanish Super Cup final and
happened on January 14, 2024.
 It took place in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia.
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Rohit sharma first men's0Cplayer
1J with 150 t20 appearances and 100 win
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 Rohit Sharma has created history with his appearance in the second match against Afghanistan as he became the
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first men's cricketer to play 150 T20Is on Sunday.

 Rohit also has hit the most sixes in T20Is with 182 to his name.
Indian President Launches 5th Meghalaya Games 0R1U

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 On January 15, 2024, the President of India, Smt Droupadi Murmu, inaugurated the 5th Edition of the Meghalaya
Games in Tura, Meghalaya.
ICC Players of the Month for December 2023

 Players of the Month for December 2023 for Men’s Pat Cummins (Australia).
 Players of the Month for December 2023 for Women’s Deepti Sharma (India).
About ICC:
Headquarters: Dubai, United Arab Emirates
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Founded: 15 June 1909
CEO: Geoff Allardice
Chairman: Greg Barclay
Sue Redfern: ICC’s First Female Neutral Umpire in Bilateral Series

Source: ICC Cricket
 Sue Redfern from England is set to become the first ICC-appointed female neutral umpire to officiate in a bilateral
series.
 This historic moment is scheduled to take place during the upcoming WT20I between Australia and South Africa.
About ICC:
Headquarters: Dubai, United Arab Emirates
Founded: 15 June 1909
CEO: Geoff Allardice
Chairman: Greg Barclay
Asian Shooting Championship 2024

Source: BNN Breaking
 Yogesh Singh showcased exceptional marksmanship in the men’s 25m centre fire pistol competition, claiming the
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individual gold medal with a score of 573.
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 In the shotgun qualifiers held in Kuwait City, Lakshay demonstrated his prowess by securing the bronze medal. He
shot a commendable 33 in the six-man final, finishing fourth in the qualification round with a score of 119.
Carlos Sainz’s Historic Victory in Dakar Rally 2024
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 Carlos Sainz, at the age of 61, has made history by winning the Dakar Rally for the fourth time.
 Sainz, also known as ‘El Matador’
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 His latest victory in the 2024 rally marks him as the oldest winner of this gruelling race.
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Tata Group Secures IPL Title Sponsorship for Next 5 Years
Tata Sons Private Limited has successfully utilized its Right to Match card, retaining the prestigious title sponsorship
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of the Indian Premier League (IPL) for the upcoming five seasons, spanning 2024 to 2028.
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Asian championship: India wins bronze in mixed skeet
 Young Raiza Dhillon, who secured a Paris Olympics quota for India, teamed up with Gurjoat Khangura to secure a
bronze in the skeet mixed team event, marking her third medal at the Asia Olympic Qualification Shotgun
competition held on Sunday. In the second bronze medal match, the Indian duo outshot the local favorites Abdullah
Alrashidi and Eman Al Shama, finishing with a score of 41-39.
The complete medal tally for the 2024 Khelo India Youth Games
 The Khelo India Youth Games 2024 has kicked off in Tamil Nadu, showcasing the nation’s young sporting talent in
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a celebration of skill, determination, and sportsmanship. tr-5P8U1P7L0L
 With over 5,600 athletes
0C1Jnationwide, this sixth edition of KIYG promises to be a spectacular event, running from
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January 19 to 31. Hosted in four vibrant cities – Chennai, Madurai, Trichy, and Coimbatore – the games are a
testament to India’s commitment to nurturing sports at the grassroots level.
 This year’s KIYG witnesses the participation of athletes from all 36 States and Union Territories of India, reflecting
the diverse and widespread engagement in sports across the nation. Tamil 1UNadu, as the host, boasts the largest
contingent with 559 athletes, setting the stage for an exciting tr- 5P8U1P7L0L0R
competition.
For 2023, the International Cricket Council (ICC) has revealed the Men's and Women's T20 International
Teams of the Year
 The International Cricket Council (ICC) has revealed the T20I Teams of the Year for both Men and Women in 2023,
acknowledging outstanding performances in the shortest format of the game. The selection showcases individuals
who have demonstrated excellence either as batsmen, bowlers, or all-rounders over the course of the calendar year.
 The Men’s T20I Team of the Year 2023 is a blend of emerging stars and established talents from across the globe. It
features players from India, England, the West Indies, New Zealand, Zimbabwe, Uganda, and Ireland.
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 The Women’s T20I Team of the Year 2023 also features a mix of established and emerging players from various
cricketing nations. The team is characterized by its blend of youthful exuberance and experienced campaigners.
The presence of players from non-traditional cricketing nations like Uganda is a testament to the growing global
reach of T20 cricket.
In the Khelo India Youth Games hosted in Chennai, gymnast Aaryan Davande from Maharashtra clinched the
gold medal in the boys' artistic all-round category
Source: News18
 In the Khelo India Youth Games 2023, defending champions Maharashtra opened their gold medal account when
gymnast Aaryan Davande clinched the Boys Artistic All-Round crown at the SDAT Aquatics complex in Chennai.
 Davande accumulated a total of 73 points to beat Uttar Pradesh’s Pranav Mishra. Harshit of UP clinched the bronze
in the event.
 Girls team from Tamilnadu won the gold medal, Rajasthan bagged silver and Maharashtra got Bronze in Cycling
team sprint event.
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 In the 500-metre trial girls category, J. Srimathi won gold, Vimla from Rajasthan bagged silver and R. Tamilarasi
from Tamilnadu got the bronze medal.
The International Cricket Council (ICC) announces the winners for the 2023 ICC Awards, recognizing
outstanding performances in international cricket
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 The ICC Awards 2023, organized by the International Cricket Council, represents the pinnacle of recognition for
international cricket players.
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 Bas de Leede was named as the ICC Men’s Associate Cricketer of the Year 2023 for his remarkable all-round run in
the year. He was the standout player for the Netherlands at the ICC Men’s Cricket World Cup 2023 Qualifier and
the World Cup in India.
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 Queentor Abel made Kenya proud by winning the ICC Women’s Associate Cricketer of the Year for 2023. She picked
30 T20I wickets at an unreal average of 7.36, and scored 476 T20I runs at 34.
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Nikita Kumari from Rajasthan clinches gold in discus throw at the Khelo India Youth Games
 In the Khelo India youth games, Nikita Kumari of Rajasthan won the gold in the discus throw event.
bronze.
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 She was followed by Riddhi from Haryana winning the silver while Bhakti Gawade from Maharashtra won the
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Virat Kohli secures the ICC Men’s ODI Cricketer of the Year Award for 2023
 Indian cricket icon Virat Kohli was honored as the ICC men’s ODI Cricketer of the Year for 2023, recognizing his
stellar performance in the format, notably his remarkable display during the World Cup held in his home country.
 This is the fourth such award for Kohli, who was the second most prolific run-scorer in ODIs last year behind
compatriot Shubman Gill.
Rohan Bopanna, the oldest Grand Slam winner, claimed victory at the 2024 Australian Open
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 India's tennis ace Rohan Bopanna, alongside his Australian partner Matthew Ebden, secured the Grand Slam title
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at the Australian
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7A0A0C2024
1J by defeating Italy's Simone Bolelli and Andrea Vavassori in the men's doubles final at
Melbourne Park.
 The 43-year-old Rohan Bopanna, who recently became World No. 1 in the ATP men's doubles rankings is now the
oldest grand slam winner.
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The Netherlands clinched the FIH Hockey5s Women’s Worldtr-Cup
Source: Hockey India
 India finished as runner-up at the inaugural edition of the FIH Hockey 5s Women’s World Cup after a 7-2 loss to
the Netherlands in the final in Muscat.
 India tried to make a comeback and scored twice – Jyoti Chhatri (20th minute) and Rutaja Dadaso Pisal (23rd
minute) – but could not catch the Dutch team which added one more goal courtesy of Kalse before the full-time
hooter.
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Tanmay Agarwal's exceptional triple century made history in the Ranji Trophy
 Hyderabad’s Tanmay Agarwal scored an unbeaten 323 off just 160 balls against Arunachal Pradesh in the Ranji
Trophy Plate Group game. His innings included 33 fours and 21 sixes, showcasing his aggressive batting style.
Naorem Roshibina Devi was honored as the Female Wushu Athlete of the Year
 Naorem Roshibina Devi, the pride of Manipur, has clinched the prestigious title of International Wushu Federation
Female Athlete of the Year, solidifying her place as a powerhouse in the world of wushu.
 Roshibina’s triumphs at the Asian Games in 2018 and 2022 have been pivotal moments in her career, showcasing
her dominance in the sport. Her silver and bronze medals in the sanda category have earned her widespread
recognition and admiration.
Indian boxer Mandeep Jangra clinches U.S Intercontinental Title

 Indian boxer Mandeep Jangra secured victory at the NBA's intercontinental super featherweight championship in
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the US, defeating American Gerardo Esquivel in Toppenish City, Washington.
 Notably, Jangra transitioned from the 75kg weight class to compete in the intercontinental super featherweight
division, showcasing exceptional skills and strategic brilliance.
Sonam Maskar secures silver in women’s air rifle event in Cairo, Egypt
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 Sonam Maskar impressively debuted at the Cairo Shooting World Cup, securing the women's air rifle silver medal,
narrowly losing to Germany's Anna Janssen by just 0.9 points.
out on a medal by a slim margin of 0.2 points, highlighting the intense competition.
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 Nancy Mandhotra, joining Maskar in the final, displayed excellent form during the qualification round but missed
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Wardwizard Foods Inks MoU with Gujarat govt to Expand Operations
 Wardwizard Foods and Beverages Limited recently witnessed a significant surge in its shares, rising by 9.98 per
cent, following the company’s collaboration with the government of Gujarat.
About Gujarat:
Capital: Gandhinagar
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Chief Minister: Bhupendrabhai Patel
Governor: Acharya Devvrat
PM Modi to Ignite Youth Potential at 27th National Youth Festival in Nashik

 Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the 27th National Youth Festival in Nashik, Maharashtra, on January
12th, 2024.
 This year’s theme, “MYBharat-ViksitBharat@2047 – By the Youth, For
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Youth”.
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5F8E1F Sign 20 Agreements for Diverse Cooperation
Maldives andtr-China
 Chinese President Xi Jinping and Maldivian President Mohamed Muizzu recently held significant talks, culminating
in the signing of 20 key agreements.
India Secures Lithium Blocks in Argentina to address ₹24,000 8U1P7L

Crore
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Import
 The deal finalized between Khanij Bidesh India Ltd. (KABIL) and Catamarca Minera Y Energética Sociedad Del
Estado (CAMYEN), an Argentine state-owned mining and energy company.
 India is also set to establish an offshore office for KABIL in Catamarca, Argentina.
 Argentina, holding 21% of the world’s lithium reserves concentrated in the Lithium.
Switzerland to Host Ukraine Peace Summit on Zelenskiy’s Request

 Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskiy has secured Switzerland’s agreement to host a global peace summit
aimed at resolving the conflict sparked by Russia’s incursion into Ukraine on Feb.
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Maharashtra inked MoUs worth Rs 3.53 lakh crore at WEF in Davos: CM Eknath Shinde
Source: NDTV Profit
 Maharashtra government has inked memorandums of understanding (MoUs) with an investment potential of Rs
88,420 crore over the last two days at the World Economic Forum currently underway in Davos.
About Maharashtra:
Chief Minister: Eknath Shinde
Founded: 1 May 1960
Governor: Ramesh Bais
Capital: Mumbai
BANKING & ECONOMY

Core Sector Output Growth Hits Six-Month Low at 7.8% in November
 In November, the production growth of eight crucial infrastructure sectors hit a six-month low at 7.8%, primarily
attributed to declines in the crude oil and cement sectors.
Tata Power Secures Rajasthan Transmission Project
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 Tata Power has emerged victorious in the bid for the Bikaner-III Neemrana-II Transmission project, a Special
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Purpose Vehicle (SPV) established by PFC Consulting, a subsidiary of Power Finance Corporation.
About Rajasthan:
Capital: Jaipur (Executive Branch)
Chief Minister: Bhajan Lal Sharma
Governor: Kalraj Mishra
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AIIB Takes Lead in Rs 2.5k Crore Funding for Mahindra-OTPP’s Green InvIT
a
 Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is set to spearhead a fundraising round worth Rs 2,500 crore for the
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Sustainable Energy Infrastructure Investment Trust (InvIT) supported by the Mahindra Group.
About Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank:
Headquarters: Beijing, China
Formation: 16 January 2016
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Membership: 109 member states
FinMin allows 30th tranche of electoral bonds

 The Indian government has granted approval for the release of the 30th tranche of electoral bonds, set to go on sale
from January 2 to January 11, 2024.
 The inaugural sale of electoral bonds took place in March 2018.
Despite a year-on-year increase, India's gross GST revenue experiences a three-month low in December.
Source: The Economic times 0R1U
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 India GST revenue: India's Goods and Services tax revenue continued to rise on an annual basis, but it dropped to
a three month 0C1J
in0ADecember.
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1F7A
 India's GST collections rose 10.28 percent to reach Rs 1.65 lakh crore in December, the Finance Ministry announced
today. The Goods and Services Tax (GST) mop-up was nearly Rs 1.50 lakh crore in December 2022. The December
2023 collections are, however, lower than Rs1.68 lakh crore collected in November and even down from Rs 1.72 lakh
crore mopped up in October, which was the second-highest collection ever
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since the GST rollout.
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 "During the month, the revenues from domestic transactions (including import of services) are 13% higher than the
revenues from these sources during the same month last year," the finance ministry said in a statement.
 The average gross monthly GST collection in the FY 2023-24 now stands at Rs. 1.66 lakh crore and is 11% per cent
more than that in the same period in the previous financial year," the finance ministry said in a statement.
 "The remarkable growth in GST collections over the past few months is not only on account of the underlying strong
economic factors, but also due to the efforts of the tax authorities in deploying tools to compare data sets to
determine short payment and evasion, ” MS Mani, partner, Deloitte said.
 “The growing emphasis on audits led by specific information available on various databases, not only on the GST
portal, has led to a significant increase in compliance across sectors and states,” Mani added.
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India Ratings Upgrades PNB Housing Finance's NCD Ratings to IND AA+ with a Stable Outlook
 Upgrading PNB Housing Finance Limited's non-convertible debentures (NCDs), India Ratings and Research (Ind-
Ra) has revised the rating to 'IND AA+' from 'IND AA' while maintaining a stable outlook.
 PNBHF is a major housing finance player with an AUM of INR 674 billion, focusing on retail loans and boasting
over three decades of operational experience.
 PNBHF has diverse funding sources, including deposits, banking lines, and external commercial borrowings,
ensuring flexibility and stability in its resource profile. The company’s focus on a low-ticket, granular mortgage
portfolio has contributed to improved profitability, with a return on assets of 2.2% in 1HFY24.
December Witnesses Festival Demand Slowdown as PMI Manufacturing Records an 18-Month Low at 54.9
Source: The Hindu BusinessLine
 The HSBC India Purchasing Managers’ Index (PMI) for manufacturing dropped to an 18-month low of 54.9 in
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December, down from 56 in November, signaling a slowdown.
 Despite this, the sector remains in expansion mode, marking 30 consecutive months with the index above 50,
indicative of growth. The decline was attributed to a weaker rise in new orders and output.
 The manufacturing sector continued to expand in December, albeit at a softer pace, maintaining growth
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momentum despite a decline. New business gains, favorable market conditions, fairs, and expositions contributed o
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to a sharp increase in manufacturing during December.
heights in the month of December

Source: Zee Business
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Propelled by record Foreign Portfolio Investor (FPI) acquisitions, Indian equities surge to unprecedented
n
 Setting a historic milestone, Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPI) recorded monumental monthly acquisitions of Indian
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equities, surging to 661.35 billion rupees ($8 billion) in December, as per data from the National Securities
Depository.
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 This surge catapulted India’s Nifty 50 and Sensex benchmarks to fresh record highs. The first half of December
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alone witnessed a record fortnightly purchase of shares worth 427.33 billion rupees, attributed to lower U.S. bond
yields and expectations of Federal Reserve interest rate cuts.
 Faster-than-expected quarterly GDP growth prompted the Reserve Bank of India to revise upwards its fiscal 2024
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growth forecast. State election results signaled policy continuity in 2024, adding to the positive sentiment.
Committing substantial resources, REC (Rural Electrification Corporation) invests Rs. 35,000 crore in multi-
modal projects, collaborating with Rail Vikas Nigam for a comprehensive five-year initiative.

 In a strategic move, REC Limited, a distinguished Maharatna Central Public Sector Enterprise founded in 1969
under the Ministry of Power, has inked a recent Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Rail Vikas Nigam
0R1U
Limited (RVNL). tr-5P8U1P7L0L
 This collaboration aims0Cto
1J provide financial support of up to Rs. 35,000 Crores for a range of Infrastructure Projects
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over the next 5 years, showcasing the commitment of both entities to drive essential developments in the sector.
 The infrastructure projects set to benefit from this collaboration span various domains, including multi-modal
logistics hubs, rail infrastructure, roads, ports, and metro projects.
tr-5P 8U1P7L0L0R1U
Propelling forward with a strategic vision, India outlines its proposal for a 'Bharat Park' Trade Zone in the
UAE
Source: Indian Retailer
 The Indian government is strategically laying the groundwork for 'Bharat Park,' a specialized trade zone within the
UAE. This envisioned zone will incorporate showrooms and warehouses, providing a prominent platform to exhibit
and store Indian-manufactured goods, catering to a global audience.
 Addressing the future of the textile industry, Goyal underscores the prominence of Man Made Fibre Textiles due to
challenges in meeting the increasing demand for cotton.
113
 He encourages industry players to leverage free trade agreements with Japan, Australia, UAE, and South Korea,
expressing concern over underutilization.
The National Statistical Office (NSO) data reveals that India's GDP growth projection for the fiscal year 2023-
24 stands at 7.3%
Source: Mint
 The inaugural advance estimates from the National Statistical Office (NSO) foresee a sturdy growth of 7.3% for
India's GDP in the fiscal year 2023-24. This initial projection reflects a promising outlook for the country's economic
trajectory in the upcoming financial year.
 This surpasses the 7.2% growth recorded in the previous financial year. Notably, the construction sector is expected
to lead with double-digit growth at 10.7%.
 Real GDP at Constant Prices in FY24 is projected to reach ₹171.79 lakh crore, compared to the provisional estimate
of ₹160.06 lakh crore for FY23.
m
India's foreign exchange reserves witness a surge, reaching $623.2 billion
Source: The Financial Express
 In the week ending December 29, India's foreign exchange reserves experienced a substantial increase, rising by
$2.759 billion and reaching a total of $623.2 billion, as reported by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
.c o
 Foreign Currency Assets (FCAs), a major contributor to reserves, grew by $1.869 billion, reaching $551.615 billion.
rs
FCAs are influenced by fluctuations in the value of non-US units like the euro, pound, and yen.
 Gold reserves recorded a significant rise of $853 million, totaling $48.328 billion, contributing to the overall strength
of India’s reserve portfolio.
k e
 Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) increased by $38 million, reaching $18.365 billion, while India’s reserve position with
the International Monetary Fund (IMF) experienced a marginal decrease, down by $2 million to $4.892 billion.
an
RBI implements safeguards for individual investors in case of issuer default on short-term financial
instruments.
r
p
 RBI ensures minimal losses for individual investors in case of issuer defaults on short-term financial instruments,
effective April 01, 2024.
Key Highlights :
To
 Individual Investor Limits : Individual investors' investment in short-term Commercial Papers (CPs) and Non-
Convertible Debentures (NCDs) is now capped at 25% of the issue size.
Previously, there were no specific limits for individual investors' investments in such instruments.
 Applicability of the Rule : The 25% limit applies to the total subscription by all individuals, including Hindu
Undivided Families (HUF), in any primary issuance of CPs or NCDs.
 Information Disclosure by Issuers : Moreover, issuers of non-convertible debentures (NCDs) and commercial
papers (CPs) are required to provide information on any payment default via a variety of means.
tr-5P8U1P 7L0L0R1U
Paytm collaborates with Ayodhya Nagar Nigam to enable mobile payments citywide.
Source: BNN tr-
Breaking
5F8E1F7A0A 0C 1J
 One97 Communications, the owner of Paytm, signs an MoU with Ayodhya Nagar Nigam to introduce mobile
payments using Paytm's QR code, Soundbox, and card machines for Nagar Nigam facilities.
 This is aimed at providing seamless mobile payment services during the inauguration of the Ram Mandir in the
city. 0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
 With this, the company will enable mobile payments at various departments in collaboration with Ayodhya Nagar
Nigam.
 Through this MoU, the company will also deploy Paytm card machines at cash collection centres under State Nagar
Nigam departments.
 This MoU was signed in presence of Girish Pati Tripathi, Mayor, Ayodhya Nagar Nigam.
About Paytm :
 Founded : August 2010
 Headquarters : Noida, Uttar Pradesh, India
 Founder & CEO : Vijay Shekhar Sharma
114
Narayana Health has received approval from the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
(IRDAI) to launch its health insurance business.
 Narayana Health has obtained approval from the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
(IRDAI) to enter the health insurance business in the country.
 The company operates one of the largest hospital chains, known by the brand name Narayana Hospital.
 With this approval, the count of Standalone Health Insurance Companies (SAHI) will increase from 5 to 6.
 This marks the fifth registration granted by IRDAI in approximately one year, encompassing Life, Non-life, and
Health segments.
 IRDAI has set a goal of achieving 'Insurance for All' by 2047, with a particular focus on improving the penetration
of non-life insurance companies, which currently stands at 1 percent.
 India's overall insurance penetration is expected to decrease to 4 percent in the financial year 2022-23 from the
previous level of 4.2 percent in 2021-22.
About IRDAI :
Established : 1999
Headquarters : Hyderabad, Telangana
Chairman : Debasish Panda
c o m
.
The IRDAI is a statutory body under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Finance (MoF) ,Government of India GoI) and
rs
is tasked with regulating and licensing the insurance and reinsurance industries in India.
IndusInd Bank has introduced the 'Samman RuPay Credit Card' specifically designed for government
employees
Source: Mint
k e
 IndusInd Bank has partnered with the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to unveil the 'Samman RuPay
n
Credit Card,' a UPI-enabled card crafted exclusively for government sector employees.
a
 The Samman RuPay Credit Card combines traditional credit card advantages with advanced UPI features,
streamlining financial transactions.
r
 Benefits include cashback on various expenditures, complimentary movie tickets, no cash advance charges, and
surcharge waivers for IRCTC and fuel transactions.
o p
 The card not only offers financial incentives but also aims to simplify and enrich the day-to-day transactional
experience for government employees. Users can link RuPay credit cards to UPI IDs, facilitating secure and
T
convenient payment transactions.
NPCI Launches UPI-PayNow Linkage for Cross-Border Remittances between India and Singapore
 The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has introduced the UPI-PayNow linkage, facilitating direct
remittances between India and Singapore.
 This collaboration, a result of close coordination between the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Monetary
Authority of Singapore (MAS).
Government Reduces Windfall Tax on Crude Oil amid Global Economic Concerns
0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
 In response to the evolving dynamics of the global oil market, the Indian government has decided to slash the
windfall tax on
tr-5F 1F7A0A0C1J
8Edomestically-produced crude oil, effective January 16.
 Indian government slashes windfall tax on domestically-produced crude oil from Rs 2,300 to Rs 1,700 per tonne.
RBI Releases Draft Norms for fintech Self-Regulatory Organisations

 RBI has unveiled a draft framework for the establishment and recognition 0Rof
1Uself-regulatory organizations (SROs)
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
in the fintech sector.
 SRO-FT should be set up as a not-for-profit company under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013.
L&T Secures ‘Mega Order’ for Mumbai-Ahmedabad Bullet Train Electrification Project
Source: Mint
 L&T Construction’s railways strategic business group has clinched a significant contract valued between ₹10,000 to
₹15,000 crore for a pivotal segment of the Mumbai-Ahmedabad bullet train project.
 The ‘mega’ order, received from a Japanese agency overseeing the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail Project
(MAHSR).
115
Foxconn and HCL Group Forge Partnership for Chip Packaging Unit in India
 Taiwanese tech giant Foxconn, a long-time Apple Inc. partner, is diversifying from China and joining forces with
HCL Group to establish a chip packaging and testing facility in India.
 Foxconn’s subsidiary, Foxconn Hon Hai Technology India Mega Development, will invest $37.2 million for a 40%
stake, with the remaining held by HCL.
ICICI Bank Canada Launches ‘Money2India (Canada)’ Mobile Banking App

 ICICI Bank Canada, a wholly-owned subsidiary of ICICI Bank Limited, has introduced its latest mobile banking app,
‘Money2India (Canada).
Apple Surpasses Samsung as Top Smartphone Maker for the First Time Since 2010
 Apple Inc.’s iPhone has outpaced Samsung Electronics Co. devices, securing the title of the best-selling smartphone
series in 2023.
 This marks the first time since 2010 that Samsung has conceded the top spot in the smartphone market.
SEBI Chairperson Launches CDSL’s Multi-Lingual Initiatives for Investor Ease
o
 In celebration of its silver jubilee year, Central Depository Services (India) Limited (CDSL), Asia’s first listed
c m
.
depository, took a significant step towards inclusivity and accessibility in the capital market landscape.
 SEBI Chairperson Madhabi Puri Buch launched two groundbreaking multi-lingual initiatives at the silver jubilee
rs
function held on January 17.
LIC has unveiled the Jeevan Dhara II Deferred Annuity Plan
k e
 Unveiled by LIC Chairman Siddhartha Mohanty, the new Jeevan Dhara II plan offers a non-participating, individual
savings, deferred annuity option.
n
 Jeevan Dhara II offers life cover during the deferment period, enhancing the financial security of policyholders. The
a
plan provides higher annuity rates as policyholders age, ensuring a secure and stable income stream in later years.
r
Praveen Achuthan Kutty has been granted approval by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to serve as the
o p
Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of DCB Bank
 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has granted approval for the appointment of Praveen Achuthan Kutty as the
Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of DCB Bank.
T
 The official confirmation came on January 16, signaling a tenure of three years starting from April 29, 2024, as
outlined in the regulatory filing.
 Praveen Achuthan Kutty brings a wealth of experience, boasting over 32 years in Retail and SME banking. Having
been an integral part of DCB Bank’s leadership for the past 16 years, Kutty currently oversees Retail, SME, and Agri
Banking.
YES BANK has achieved a significant milestone by becoming the first Indian bank to join RXIL's ITFS (Invoice
Trading and Financing System) platform
 In a historic development, YES BANK has achieved the distinction of being
0R1U the first Indian bank to conduct an
tr-5P8U1P7L0L
export finance transaction on RXIL Global IFSC Limited’s International Trade Financing Services Platform (ITFS).
This partnership 7A0A0C1Ja major advancement in digitalization and cross-border business initiatives for YES BANK.
tr-5F8E1Fsignifies
 The platform, registered under the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA), offers a digital
avenue for arranging credit through Factoring, Forfaiting, and other trade financing services at competitive rates
with swift processing. This historic transaction is the first of its kind on the ITFS platform in conjunction with any
bank in India. 1P7L0L0R1U tr-5P8U
Indian Bank is in the process of setting up an operations support subsidiary, emphasizing cost optimization
as a key focus area
 Chennai-based Indian Bank is in the process of establishing an operations support subsidiary to offer value-added
services while optimizing costs, particularly for operations in non-metropolitan areas.
 Two large public sector banks -State Bank of India (SBI) and Bank of Baroda (BoB) have already formed such units
for servicing customers in rural and semi-urban areas.
116
About Indian Bank:
Established: 15 August 1907
Headquarters: Chennai, Tamil Nadu
MD & CEO: Shanti Lal Jain
Tagline : Your Own Bank
The Direct Tax-to-GDP ratio reached a 23-year high in FY23, as reported by the Central Board of Direct Taxes
(CBDT)
 The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) released data, revealing that the direct tax-to-GDP ratio for the fiscal
year 2022-23 (FY23) reached a remarkable 23-year high, standing at 6.11%.
 Direct tax collections witnessed a robust year-on-year growth of 17.8%, totaling Rs.16.6 trillion in FY23. Notably,
corporate tax collections reached Rs.8.26 trillion, marking a 16% increase, while income tax collections stood at
Rs.8.33 trillion, reflecting a significant 19.6% YoY growth.
 The total number of income tax returns filed in FY23 rose to 77.82 million, compared to 73.05 million in FY22,
indicating an upward trend in tax compliance.
SBI Life Insurance launched two new products
o m
 SBI Life Insurance, one of the most trusted private life insurers in the country, launched two products– ‘SBI Life -
Saral Swadhan Supreme’ and ‘SBI Life - Smart Swadhan Supreme’,.
c
 These products aim not only to provide life cover but also to offer the return of premiums at maturity.
Bank of Baroda's subsidiary has been rebranded as 'BOBCARD Limited'
rs
 Bank of Baroda's card subsidiary, 'BOB Financial Solutions Limited', has undergone a rebranding to 'BOBCARD .
Limited', accompanied by the tagline "Credit Reimagined".
k e
 The NBFC has also unveiled a new logo called ‘Baroda Sun’, which comprises dual ‘B’ letterforms that hold the rays
n
of the rising sun.
a
ICRA upgrades its bank credit growth forecast for FY24 to 15% from 13%.
r
 ICRA has upgraded its forecast for bank credit growth in the current fiscal year (FY24) to 14.9-15.3%, up from the
p
previous estimate of 12.8-13.0%, citing robust demand in the retail segment and from non-banking finance
companies (NBFCs).
o
 Anil Gupta, Senior Vice President at ICRA, said the retail credit and bank lending to NBFCs have been strong in the
nine months ended December 2023, which has led to the revision.
T
Zomato Payments approved as online payment aggregator by RBI
 Zomato Payments, a wholly owned subsidiary of Zomato Limited, has received the certificate of authorisation from
the Reserve Bank of India to operate as an online payment aggregator.
 In an exchange filing, the food delivery platform stated the central bank has allowed it to carry out the business as
payment aggregator and issuer of pre-paid payment instruments with effect from January 24, 2024.
Union Budget 2024

0L0R1U
tr-5P8U1P7Lis
 On February 1, 2024, Mrs. Nirmala Sitharaman, the Finance Minister, scheduled to present her sixth budget. This
Union Budget marks
5F8E1F7A0A
the
0C 15th
1J interim budget.
tr-
Finance Ministry releases 'Indian Economy – A Review' report in lieu of Economic Survey
 In 2024, India will not have the usual Economic Survey traditionally presented before the Union Budget. Instead,
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman will present an interim budget, known as a vote-on-account, on February 1,
0R1U
2024. tr-5P8U1P7L0L
 The reason for not presenting the Economic Survey this year is the election context. 2024 is an election year in
India, and presenting the Economic Survey could lead to politicization due to the potential change in government
after the elections. This could disrupt the regular Budget process.

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1

S. No. Contents Page No.

Key a`spects of Indo-Argentine relations

r an 4. What is the full form of NALCO?

What is the atomic number of Lithium?

Which country is the host of COP 28?

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

Highlights of Aditya L1 Mission

Significance of Aditya L-1 Mission

About Lagrange Points

Challenges in Aditya L1 Mission

Who is the current Minister of State (Independent

8. ISRO was previously known as

an k learn more about objects found via

To ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

ULFA PEACE PACT AND ASSAM ISSUES

Key Elements of the Peace Accord:

Background on ULFA and Assam's Issues:

marked by the signing of a Suspension of Operations (SoO) agreement.

.c o (b) Motilal Shah

BHARATRATNA AND OTHER PADMA AWARDS

Controversies and Criticisms:

Significance and Impact:

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

an k presidential election as a candidate of the Bharatiya

Cheetah Reintroduction Project

Project Cheetah's Objectives:

the interconnectedness of all living beings.

Challenges and Concerns:

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

Hit and Run Law

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

k e reform India's criminal justice system. It presented its

T ANTI MICROBIAL RESISTANCE

Factors Contributing to Antimicrobial Resistance:

Global Initiatives to Combat Antimicrobial Resistance:

k e (c) The main factor contributing to the development of

Unprecedented Global Temperature Surge:

Regional Disparities and Extreme Weather Events:

risks to vulnerable communities.

 Urgency of Climate Action:

Adaptation Strategies and Resilience Building:

36. Who is the Administrator of NASA? (b) The tiny object

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

r an 40. (a) World Meteorological Organsiation has its

Highlights of World Economic Situation and Prospects Report

Key Economic Indicators:

Sustainable Development Goals and Challenges:

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

k e (a) The Phillips curve illustrates that there is an inverse

r an 45. (b) Consumer Price Index or CPI is used to measure

Highlights of Atal Setu

Engineering Feats and Design:

measures to minimize its ecological footprint.

Economic and Social Impacts:

46. Who is the present chief minister of Maharashtra?

The Atal Setu bridge has been named after

The Atal Setu project is financed by?

Which of the following is not among four factor of

r an (a) Tata Capital Financial Services Ltd

(b) Ramesh Bais is an Indian politician and is the 23rd

GLOBAL RISK REPORT : 2024

an k is the Founder and Executive Chairman of the World