Executive Garden Institute

CHEMISTRY 0620/22
Paper 2 Multiple Choice (Extended) February/March 2024
45 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.
 The Periodic Table is printed in the question paper.

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

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1 Substance M is a solid at 30 C.

The substance is heated to 80 C and its temperature measured as it cools down to room
temperature.

The cooling curve is shown.

80 P
temperature / C
60
R
40 Q
20 S T
0
0
time

Between which times is substance M freezing?

A Q to R B P to Q C S to T D R to S

2 Which gas has the slowest rate of diffusion?

A Ar B C2H6 C HCl D H2S

3 When a dark grey solid element is heated, it changes directly into a purple gas.

Which word describes this change?

A boiling
B evaporation
C melting
D sublimation

4 There are two stable isotopes of bromine.

The mass number of isotope 1 is 79.

The mass number of isotope 2 is 81.

Which statement is correct?

A The isotopes have different numbers of protons.

B The isotopes have different chemical properties.
C The isotopes have the same number of neutrons
D The isotopes have the same number of outer electrons.

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5 Molecules containing only non-metal atoms are covalently bonded.

The formulae of four covalently bonded molecules are given below:

1 nitrogen, N2
2 carbon dioxide, CO2
3 ethene, C2H4
4 methanol, CH3OH

Which of the molecules contain double bonds?

A 1 and 4 B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 4 only

6 The arrangements of the electrons in two ions formed from elements X and Y are shown.

X Y

n = 20 n = 20
p = 19 p = 17

Which equation represents the reaction between elements X and Y?

A X2 + 2Y  2X+ + 2Y–B

X2 + 2Y  2X– + 2Y+ C

2X + Y2  2X+ + 2Y– D

2X + Y2  2X– + 2Y+

7 Which statement about ions and ionic bonds is correct?

A Bromine atoms form negatively charged bromide ions.

B Ionic bonds form between elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table.
C Positive ions are formed when atoms lose protons.
D Potassium iodide contains negatively charged potassium ions.

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8 Which diagram shows the outer-shell electron arrangement in a molecule of ammonia?

A B

H N H H N H

H H

C D

H N H H N H

H H

9 Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

F G

Which type of chemical bonding is present in the oxide of F and in the oxide of G?

oxide of F oxide of G

A ionic ionic
B covalent ionic
C ionic covalent
D covalent ionic

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10 Elements X and Y react to form a compound.

Element X loses three electrons and element Y gains two electron.

What is the charge on the ions of elements X and Y and what is the formula of the compound?

formula of
charge on X charge on Y
compound

A 3+ – X3Y2
B 3+ – X2Y3
C 3– + X3Y2
D 3– + X2Y3

11 Which statement about graphite explains why it is used as an electrode?

A It contains ions.
B It has a giant covalent structure.
C It is a metal.
D It has mobile electrons.

12 Which structure does silicon(IV) oxide most closely resemble?

A diamond
B graphite
C sodium chloride

D carbon dioxide

13 An electrolysis experiment is done using carbon electrodes.

Hydrogen and oxygen are formed at the electrodes.

What is the electrolyte?

A aqueous copper(II) sulfate

B concentrated hydrochloric acid
C dilute aqueous sodium chloride
D molten potassium oxide

14 Concentrated aqueous copper(II) sulfate is electrolysed using copper electrodes.

Which ionic half-equation describes the reaction taking place at the anode?

A 2H+ + 2e–  H2

B 4OH–  O2 + 2H2O + 4e–

C Cu  Cu2+ + 2e–

D Cu2+ + 2e–  Cu

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15 When powdered sodium carbonate and aqueous ethanoic acid are mixed, the temperature of the
mixture falls.

Which statement about this reaction is correct?

A The reaction is exothermic and H is negative.

B The reaction is exothermic and ∆H is positive.

C The reaction is endothermic and ∆H is negative.
D The reaction is endothermic and ∆H is positive.
16 Magnesium powder reacts with an excess of dilute hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen gas.

Which statements about this reaction are correct?

1 The smaller the particles of magnesium powder, the more slowly the hydrogen is
produced.
2 The higher the temperature, the faster the magnesium powder disappears.
3 The lower the concentration of dilute hydrochloric acid, the faster the rate of
reaction.
4 The faster the magnesium powder disappears, the faster the rate of reaction.

A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

17 Hydrogen reacts with iodine to form hydrogen iodide.

H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)

Which statements explain why the reaction is faster when the pressure is increased, at constant
temperature?

1 At higher pressure, the molecules are moving faster.

2 At higher pressure, more of the molecules have the required activation energy.
3 At higher pressure, the molecules are closer together.
4 At higher pressure, the molecules collide more frequently.

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 3 and 4

18 The reaction between two aqueous compounds, X and Y, is slow and exothermic.

The graph shows how the rate of this reaction changes with time.

rate

0
0
time

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A student suggests that the rate of reaction decreases with time because:

1 the activation energy decreases

2 the speed of the molecules of X and Y decreases
3 the concentration of both X and Y decreases with time.

Which suggestions are correct?

A 1 and 2 B 1 and 3 C 2 only D 3 only

19 Ammonium sulfate is used as a fertiliser.

It is made from ammonia and sulfuric acid.

The ......1...... is made by the ......2...... process in which ......3........is used as a catalyst.

Which words complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

1 2 3

A ammonia Contact iron

B ammonia Haber vanadium(V) oxide
C sulfuric acid Contact vanadium(V) oxide
D sulfuric acid Haber iron

20 The reversible reaction shown takes place in a closed system at constant temperature.

P(g) + Q(g) + R(g) S(g) + T(g)

When the reaction has reached equilibrium, more T is added.

After the addition of T, which other substances increase in concentration?

A P, Q, R and S
B P and Q only
C P, Q and R only
D S only

21 In which equation is the underlined substance acting as a reducing agent?

A 3CO + Fe2O3  2Fe + 3CO2

B CO2 + C  2CO

C CuO + H2  Cu + H2O

D CaO + H2O  Ca(OH)2

22 What is the symbol of the metal used in the manufacture of aircraft because of its low density?

A Al B Cu C Fe D Zn
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23 The diagram shows a chromatogram obtained from the colours of three different sweets, X, Y
and Z.

red red

yellow yellow yellow

red red

sweet X sweet Y sweet Z

How many different red dyes are present in the sweets?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

24 A mixture contains sand and an aqueous solution of sodium chloride.

Which processes are used to obtain a sample of solid sand and a sample of solid
sodium chloride from the mixture?

A crystallisation followed by filtration

B evaporation followed by filtration
C filtration followed by crystallisation
D simple distillation followed by crystallisation
25 Part of the Periodic Table is shown.
Which element has two electrons in its outer shell and three electron shells?

A B
C D

26 Rock salt is a mixture of salt and sand.

The method used to separate the sand from the salt is listed.

step 1 Crush the rock salt, add to warm water and stir.

step 2 Pour the mixture through a filter paper held in a funnel.

step 3 Evaporate the water to crystallise the salt.

Which statement about the method is correct?

A The filtrate in step 2 is pure water.

B The residue in step 2 is pure crystals of salt.
C The solute is salt.
D The solvent is a mixture of salt and water.
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27 Rubidium is in Group I of the Periodic Table and bromine is in Group

VII.Rubidium reacts with bromine to form an ionic compound.

Which row shows the electron change taking place for rubidium and the correct formula of the
rubidium ion?

electron change formula of ion formed

A electron gained Rb+

B electron gained Rb–
C electron lost Rb+
D electron lost Rb–

28 The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5.

When calculating relative atomic mass, which particle is the mass of a chlorine atom compared
to?

A a neutron
B a proton
C an atom of carbon-12
D an atom of hydrogen-1

29 Which statement explains why graphite is used as a lubricant?

A All bonds between the atoms are weak.

B It conducts electricity.
C It has a low melting point.
D Layers in the structure can slide over each other.

30 Which statements about clean, dry air are correct?

1 It is a mixture of elements only.

2 It is a mixture of elements and compounds.
3 It contains only non-metals.

A 1 and 3 B 1 only C 2 and 3 D 2 only

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31 A representation of an atom is shown.

+ +
– – + + + – –
+

What is the nucleon number of this atom?

A 6 B 7 C 12 D 13

32 Which substance has the lowest melting point?

A graphite
B methanol

C silicon(IV) oxide

D sodium chloride

33 A hydrocarbon contains 85.7% of carbon by mass.

What is the empirical formula of the hydrocarbon?

A CH2 B CH4 C C2H5 D C3H6

34 The formula of a compound containing element X is Na2X2O3.

The relative formula mass of the compound is 158.

What is the relative atomic mass of X?

A 32 B 59.5 C 64 D 119

35 Hydrochloric acid is added to excess calcium carbonate in two separate experiments.

Two different concentrations of hydrochloric acid are used but the temperature is the same in
both experiments.

The graph of the results shows the volume of carbon dioxide gas given off over time.

2.0 mol / dm3

volume of
carbon dioxide
given off

1.0 mol / dm3

time
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Which row is correct?

particles in 2.0 mol / dm3

compared to 1.0 mol / dm3
collision rate collision energy

A higher no change
B higher higher
C lower no change
D lower higher
36 The initial and final temperatures of four different reactions are measured.

Which reaction is the least exothermic?

initial final
temperature temperature
/ C / C

A 19 25
B 21 18
C 22 17
D 22 26

37 Which equation represents an endothermic reaction?

A Cl 2(g)  2Cl (g)

B CH4(g) + 2O2(g)  CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)

C H(g) + H(g)  H2(g)

D 2K(s) + 2H2O(l)  2KOH(aq) + H2(g)

38 Which substance does not require oxygen in order to produce energy?

A coal
B hydrogen
C natural gas
235
D U
39 Which reaction of hydrochloric acid is a redox reaction?

A 2Na + 2HCl  2NaCl + H2

B Na2O + 2HCl  2NaCl + H2O

C NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O

D Na2CO3 + 2HCl  2NaCl + H2O + CO2

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40 Two compounds, M and N, are dissolved in water and separated by chromatography.

The results are shown.

solvent front

10 cm

2 cm baseline

What is the Rf value of M and which compound is most soluble in water?

most soluble
Rf value of M
compound

A 0.2 M
B 0.2 N
C 5.0 M
D 5.0 N

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 The Periodic Table of Elements
Group
I II III IV V VI VII VIII
1 2

H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1 4
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
7 9 relative atomic mass 11 12 14 16 19 20
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36

K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39 40 45 48 51 52 55 56 59 59 64 65 70 73 75 79 80 84
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54

Rb Sr Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe

16
Y
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85 88 89 91 93 96 – 101 103 106 108 112 115 119 122 128 127 131
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86

Cs Ba lanthanoids
Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
133 137 178 181 184 186 190 192 195 197 201 204 207 209 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118

Fr Ra actinoids
Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Nh Fl Mc Lv Ts Og
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium nihonium flerovium moscovium livermorium tennessine oganesson
– – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71

lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
139 140 141 144 – 150 152 157 159 163 165 167 169 173 175
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103

actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232 231 238 – – – – – – – – – – –

The volume of one mole of any gas is 24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure (r.t.p.).