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S.NO. SUBJECT NAME PAGE NO.
1. SESSION 1 01 – 136
2. SESSION 2 137 – 274

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JEE (MAIN) 2023 (SESSION 1)
TEST PAPERS
S.NO. CONTENT PAGE NO.
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01. SET-01 03
02. SET-02 13
03. SET-03 24
04. SET-04 35
05. SET-05 47
06. SET-06 57
07. SET-07 67
08. SET-08 78
09. SET-09 89
10. SET-10 99
11. SET-11 109
12. SET-12 121
13. ANSWER KEY 133

IMPORTANT NOTE
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® JEE (MAIN) 2023 (Session 1) Test Papers 
SET # 01
PHYSICS 4. The weight of a body at the surface of earth is
SECTION-A 18 N. The weight of the body at an altitude of
1. Two long straight wires P and Q carrying equal 3200 km above the earth’s surface is (given,
current 10A each were kept parallel to each radius of earth Re = 6400 km)
other at 5 cm distance. Magnitude of magnetic (1) 9.8 N (2) 4.9 N
force experienced by 10 cm length of wire P is (3) 19.6 N (4) 8 N
F1. If distance between wires is halved and 5. A 100 m long wire having cross-sectional area
currents on them are doubled, force F2 on 10 cm 6.25 × 10–4 m2 and Young’s modulus is
length of wire P will be : 1010 Nm–2 is subjected to a load of 250 N, then
(1) 8 F1 (2) 10 F1 the elongation in the wire will be :
(3) F1/8 (4) F1/10 (1) 6.25 × 10–3 m (2) 4 × 10–4 m
2. Given below are two statements : (3) 6.25 × 10–6 m (4) 4 × 10–3 m
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Statement-I : An elevator can go up or down 6. 1g of a liquid is converted to vapour at 3×105 Pa
with uniform speed when its weight is balanced pressure. If 10% of the heat supplied is used for
with the tension of its cable. increasing the volume by 1600 cm3 during this
Statement-II : Force exerted by the floor of an phase change, then the increase in internal
elevator on the foot of a person standing on it is energy in the process will be :
more than his/her weight when the elevator goes (1) 4320 J (2) 432000 J
down with increasing speed. (3) 4800 J (4) 4.32 × 108 J
In the light of the above statements, choose the 7. A modulating signal is a square wave, as shown
correct answer from the options given below : in the figure.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false
1
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true m(t) 0 1 2 t(s)
volts
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
3. From the photoelectric effect experiment, If the carrier wave is given as c(t) = 2 sin (8πt)
following observations are made. Identify volts, the modulation index is :
node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\01_January\SET-1 & 2.docx"
which of these are correct (1) 1/4 (2) 1

A. The stopping potential depends only on the (3) 1/3 (4) 1/2
work function of the metal. 8. As per given figure, a weightless pulley P is
B. The saturation current increases as the attached on a double inclined frictionless
intensity of incident light increases. surface. The tension in the string (massless) will
C. The maximum kinetic energy of a photo be (if g = 10 m/s2)
electron depends on the intensity of the
incident light. P
D. Photoelectric effect can be explained using
wave theory of light. 4 kg 1 kg
Choose the correct answer from the options 60° 30°
given below:
(1) (4 3 + 1)N (2) 4( 3 + 1)N
(1) B, C only (2) A, C, D only
(3) B only (4) A, B, D only (3) 4( 3 − 1)N (4) (4 3 − 1)N
E 3
JEE (MAIN) 2023 (Session 1) Test Papers  ®
9. Given below are two statements : one is labelled R1 = 2Ω R4 =
R3 = 2Ω R6 = 2Ω
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
R2 = 2Ω R5 = 5Ω
Assertion A : Photodiodes are preferably
+ –
operated in reverse bias condition for light (24V,3Ω)
intensity measurement. 8 2
=
(1) I 4 =A and I5 A
Reason R : The current in the forward bias is 5 5
24 6
more than the current in the reverse bias for a = (2) I 4 = A and I5 A
5 5
p – n junction diode.
6 24
In the light of the above statement, choose the = (3) I 4 =A and I5 A
5 5
correct answer from the options given below : 2 8
= (4) I 4 =A and I5 A
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(1) A is false but R is true 5 5
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the 14. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : If the Brewster’s angle for the
correct explanation of A
light propagating from air to glass is θB, then
(3) A is true but R is false Brewster’s angle for the light propagating from
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct π
glass to air is − θB .
explanation of A 2
  Statement II : The Brewster’s angle for the
10. If E and K represent electric field and light propagating from glass to air is tan–1 (µg)
propagation vectors of the EM waves in where µg is the refractive index of glass.
vacuum, then magnetic field vector is given by : In the light of the above statements, choose the
(ω - angular frequency) : correct answer from the options given below :
1     (1) Both Statements I and Statement II are true.
(1) ω (K × E) (2) ω(E × K)
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
   
(3) ω(K × E) (4) K × E (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
11. A circular loop of radius r is carrying current I (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
A. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of 15. If two charges q1 and q2 are separated with
circular loop and at a distance r from the center distance ‘d’ and placed in a medium of dielectric
of the loop on its axis is :
constant K. What will be the equivalent distance
(1) 1: 3 2 (2) 3 2 : 2
between charges in air for the same electrostatic
(3) 2 2 :1 (4) 1: 2 force ?
12. A travelling wave is described by the equation
(1) d k (2) k d
y(x, t) = [0.05 sin (8x – 4t] m
The velocity of the wave is : [all the quantities (3) 1.5d k (4) 2d k
are in SI unit] 16. Consider the following radioactive decay process
(1) 4 ms–1 (2) 2 ms–1 α β − γ
–1
218
84 A  → A1 → A 2  → A3
(3) 0.5 ms (4) 8 ms–1
α β + γ
13. As shown in the figure, a network of resistors is  → A 4 → A5  → A6
connected to a battery of 24 V with an internal The mass number and the atomic number A6 are
resistance of 3Ω. The currents through the given by :
resistors R4 and R5 are I4 and I5 respectively. (1) 210 and 82 (2) 210 and 84
The values of I4 and I5 are : (3) 210 and 80 (4) 211 and 80
4 E
17. Given below are two statements : SECTION-B
Statements I : The temperature of a gas is
21. A spherical body of mass 2 kg starting from rest
– 73°C. When the gas is heated to 527°C, the
acquires a kinetic energy of 10000 J at the end
root mean square speed of the molecules is
of 5th second. The force acted on the body is
doubled.
____ N.
Statement II : The product of pressure and
22. A block of mass 2 kg is attached with two
volume of an ideal gas will be equal to
identical springs of spring constant 20 N/m
translational kinetic energy of the molecules.
each. The block is placed on a frictionless
In the light of the above statements, choose the
surface and the ends of the springs are attached
correct answer from the options given below :
to rigid supports (see figure). When the mass is
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true
displaced from its equilibrium position, it
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(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false executes a simple harmonic motion. The time
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true π

period of oscillation is in SI unit. The
18. The maximum vertical height to which a man x
can throw a ball is 136 m. The maximum value of x is ____________ .

horizontal distance upto which he can throw the
2 Kg
same ball is
(1) 192 m (2) 136 m 23. A hole is drilled in a metal sheet. At 27°C, the
(3) 272 m (4) 68 m
diameter of hole is 5 cm. When the sheet is
10 heated to 177°C, the change in the diameter of
19. A conducting loop of radius cm is placed
π
hole is d × 10–3 cm. The value of d will be
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of _______ if coefficient of linear expansion of the
0.5T. The magnetic field is decreased to zero in metal is 1.6 × 10–5/°C.
0.5 s at a steady rate. The induced emf in the
24. In the circuit shown in the figure, the ratio of
circular loop at 0.25 s is:

the quality factor and the band width is ___ s.
(1) emf = 1 mV (2) emf = 10 mV
10Ω
(3) emf = 100 mV (4) emf = 5 mV
20. Match List I with List II 27µF
230V
List-I List-II
A. Planck's constant(h) I. [M1 L2 T–2]
3.0H
B. Stopping potential (Vs) II. [M1 L1 T–1]
C. Work function (∅) III. [M1 L2 T–1] 25. A hollow cylindrical conductor has length of
D. Momentum (p) IV. [M1 L2 T–3 A–1]
3.14 m, while its inner and outer diameters are
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV 4 mm and 8 mm respectively. The resistance of
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II the conductor is n × 10–3 Ω.
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
If the resistivity of the material is 2.4 × 10–8 Ωm.
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
The value of n is ______ .
E 5
26. As shown in the figure, a combination of a thin CHEMISTRY
plano concave lens and a thin plano convex lens SECTION-A
is used to image an object placed at infinity. The
31. Compound (X) undergoes following sequence
radius of curvature of both the lenses is
of reactions to give the Lactone (Y).
30 cm and refraction index of the material for
both the lenses is 1.75. Both the lenses are placed
at distance of 40 cm from each other. Due to the
combination , the image of the object is formed
at distance x = _______ cm, from concave lens.
40 cm
(1)
(2)
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O x
27. Solid sphere A is rotating about an axis PQ. If (3)

the radius of the sphere is 5 cm then its radius of
gyration about PQ will be x cm . The value (4)
of x is ______ .
P 32. Assertion A : Hydrolysis of an alkyl chloride is
a slow reaction but in the presence of NaI, the
A rate of the hydrolysis increases.
Reason R : I– is a good nucleophile as well as a
good leaving group.
10cm
Q In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
28. Vectors aiˆ + bjˆ + kˆ and 2iˆ − 3jˆ + 4kˆ are
(1) A is false but R is true
perpendicular to each other when 3a + 2b = 7,
(2) A is true but R is false
x
the ratio of a to b is . The value of x is ____. (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
2
29. Assume that protons and neutrons have equal explanation of A
masses. Mass of a nucleon is 1.6 × 10–27 kg and (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
radius of nucleus is 1.5 × 10–15 A1/3 m. The
approximate ratio of the nuclear density and
water density is n × 1013. The value of n is ___ . 33. Order of Covalent bond;
30. A stream of a positively charged particles A. KF > KI; LiF > KF
q C B. KF < KI; LiF > KF
having = 2 × 1011 and velocity
m kg
C. SnCl4 > SnCl2; CuCl > NaCl

v 0 = 3 × 107 î m / s is deflected by an electric D. LiF > KF; CuCl < NaCl
ˆ
field 1.8jkV / m. The electric field exists in a E. KF < KI; CuCl > NaCl
region of 10 cm along x direction. Due to the (1) C, E only (2) B, C only
electric field, the deflection of the charge
(3) B, C, E only (4) A, B only
particles in the y direction is _____ mm.
6 E
34. Increasing order of stability of the resonance 38. Which of the Phosphorus oxoacid can create
structure is : silver mirror from AgNO3 solution ?
(1) (HPO3)n (2) H4P2O5
A.
(3) H4P2O6 (4) H4P2O7
39. The primary and secondary valencies of cobalt
B. respectively in [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 are :
(1) 3 and 5 (2) 2 and 6
(3) 2 and 8 (4) 3 and 6
C. 40. An ammoniacal metal salt solution gives a
brilliant red precipitate on addition of
dimethylglyoxime. The metal ion is :
D. (1) Cu2+ (2) Co2+
(3) Fe2+ (4) Ni2+
(1) C, D, B, A (2) C, D, A, B 41. 'R' formed in the following sequence of reaction is:
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O
(3) D, C, A, B (4) D, C, B, A
NaCN EtOH (i) 2MeMgBr

HOAc → 'P' 
H+
→ 'Q' 
(ii) H O+
→ 'R '
35. The magnetic moment of a transition metal 3 major product
compound has been calculated to be 3.87 B.M. Cl
The metal ion is
(1) Cr2+ (2) Mn2+
(1)
(3) V2+ (4) Ti2+
36. Match List I with List II.
List-I List-II
A. Reverberatory furnance I. Pig Iron (2)
B. Electrolytic cell II. Aluminum
C. Blast furnace III. Silicon
D. Zone Refining Furnace IV. Copper
(1) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III (3)
(2) A – I, B – IV, C – II, D – III
(3) A – I, B – III, C – II, D – IV
(4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

(4)
37. It is observed that characteristic X-ray spectra
of elements show regularity. When frequency to
the power 'n' i.e. vn of X-rays emitted is plotted 42. Match List I with List II.
against atomic number 'Z', following graph is List-I List-II
obtained. A. Chlorophyll I. Na2CO3
B. Soda ash II. CaSO4
C. Dentistry, Ornamental III. Mg2+
work
vn D. Used in white washing IV. Ca(OH)2
Choose the correct answer from the options
Z given below :
The value of 'n' is (1) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
(1) 1 (2) 2 (2) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
1 (3) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(3) (4) 3
2 (4) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
E 7
43. Statement I : For colloidal particles, the values 46. In the following given reaction 'A' is
of colligative properties are of small order as
compared to values shown by true solutions at
same concentration.
Statement II : For colloidal particles, the 'A'
potential difference between the fixed layer and HBr major product
the diffused layer of same charges is called the
electrokinetic potential or zeta potential.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1)
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (2)
44. Reaction of BeO with ammonia and hydrogen
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fluoride gives 'A' which on thermal decomposition
gives BeF2 and NH4F. What is 'A' ?
(1) (NH4)2BeF4 (2) H3NBeF3
(3) (NH4)BeF3 (4) (NH4)Be2F5 (3)
45. 'A' and 'B' formed in the following set of
reactions are :
OH
HBr
A (4)
∆
CH2OH
OH 47. Decreasing order of the hydrogen bonding in
HBr following forms of water is correctly represented
B
∆ by
OCH3 A. Liquid water

Br Br B. Ice
(1) A = ,B= C. Impure water

(1) A = B > C (2) B > A > C
CH2OH Br (3) C > B > A (4) A > B > C
OH Br 48. Given below are two statements :
(2) A = ,B= Statement I : Noradrenaline is a neurotransmitter.
Statement II : Low level of noradrenaline is
CH2Br OCH3 not the cause of depression in human.
OH OH In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) A = ,B= correct answer from the options given below
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
CH2Br Br
OH (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
OH
correct
(4) A = ,B= (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
CH2Br OH incorrect
8 E
49. In the depression of freezing point experiment 54. The number of correct statement/s from the
A. Vapour pressure of the solution is less than following is _______.
A. Larger the activation energy, smaller is the
that of pure solvent
value of the rate constant.
B. Vapour pressure of the solution is more than
B. The higher is the activation energy, higher is
that of pure solvent the value of the temperature coefficient.
C. Only solute molecules solidify at the freezing C. At lower temperatures, increase in
point temperature causes more change in the value
D. Only solvent molecules solidify at the of k than at higher temperature.

1
freezing point D. A plot of ln k vs is a straight line with
T
(1) A and D only (2) B and C only
Ea
slope equal to −
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(3) A and C only (4) A only R
50. Which of the following is true about freons ? 55. At 298 K, a 1 litre solution containing 10 mmol
(1) These are chlorofluorocarbon compounds of Cr2O72– and 100 mmol of Cr3+ shows a pH of
3.0.
(2) These are chemicals causing skin cancer
Given : Cr2O72– → Cr3+; E0 = 1.330 V and
(3) These are radicals of chlorine and chlorine
2.303 RT
monoxide = 0.059 V
F
(4) All radicals are called freons
The potential for the half cell reaction is x × 10–3 V.
SECTION-B The value of x is _______.
51. The dissociation constant of acetic is x × 10–5. 56. When Fe0.93O is heated in presence of oxygen, it
When 25 mL of 0.2 M CH3COONa solution is converts to Fe2O3. The number of correct
statement/s from the following is _______.
mixed with 25 mL of 0.02 M CH3COOH
solution, the pH of the resultant solution is A. The equivalent weight of Fe0.93O is
Molecular weight
found to be equal to 5. The value of x is ___. .
0.79
52. 5 g of NaOH was dissolved in deionized water
B. The number of moles of Fe2+ and Fe3+ in
to prepare a 450 mL stock solution. What 1 mole of Fe0.93O is 0.79 and 0.14
volume (in mL) of this solution would be respectively.
required to prepare 500 mL of 0.1 M solution ? C. Fe0.93O is metal deficient with lattice
Given : Molar Mass of Na, O and H is 23, 16 comprising of cubic closed packed
arrangement of O2– ions.
and 1 g mol–1 respectively
D. The % composition of Fe2+ and Fe3+ in
53. If wavelength of the first line of the Paschen
Fe0.93O is 85% and 15% respectively.
series of hydrogen atom is 720 nm, then the
57. The d-electronic configuration of [CoCl4]2– in
wavelength of the second line of this series is tetrahedral crystal field is emt2n. Sum of 'm' and
_______ nm. (Nearest integer) 'number of unpaired electrons is _______.
E 9
   
58. For independent process at 300 K. 63.  v = 2i + j − k,
Let u = i − j − 2k,  v.w = 2 and
Process ∆H/kJ mol–1 ∆S/J K–1
     
v × w= u + λv . Then u.w is equal to
A. –25 –80
B. –22 40 3
(1) 1 (2)
C. 25 –50 2
D. 22 20 2
(3) 2 (4) −
The number of non-spontaneous process from 3
22
∑
the following is _______. 22
64. The value C r 23C r is
59. Uracil is base present in RNA with the r =0
45 44
following structure. % of N in uracil is ____. (1) C 23 (2) C 23
45 44
(3) C 24 (4) C 22
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65. Let a tangent to the curve y2 = 24x meet the
curve xy = 2 at the points A and B. Then the
mid points of such line segments AB lie on a

Given :
parabola with the
Molar mass N = 14 g mol–1; O = 16 g mol–1;
C = 12 g mol–1; H = 1 g mol–1; (1) directrix 4x = 3
60. Number of moles of AgCl formed in the (2) directrix 4x = –3

following reaction is _______. 3
(3) Length of latus rectum
2
Cl
Cl
Cl AgNO3 (4) Length of latus rectum 2
(A) + X AgCl ↓
H
66. Let N denote the number that turns up when a
Cl
fair die is rolled. If the probability that the

MATHEMATICS
SECTION-A system of equations
61. The distance of the point (7, –3, –4) from the x+y+z=1
plane passing through the points (2,–3,1), 2x + Ny + 2z = 2
(–1, 1, –2) and (3, –4, 2) is :
3x + 3y +Nz = 3
(1) 4 (2) 5
𝑘
has unique solution is , then the sum of value
(3) 5 2 (4) 4 2 6
sin 2 t of k and all possible values of N is

 sin12 t 1 1

62. lim  1 +2 sin 2 t
+ .... + n 
sin 2 t
is equal to
(1) 18
t →0
 
(1) n2 + n (2) n (2) 19
n ( n + 1) (3) 20
(3) (4) n2
2 (4) 21
10 E
 1+ 3   8+ 4 3  72. Let 𝛼 be a root of the equation

67. tan −1   + sec −1   is equal to (a – c) x2 + (b – a) x + (c – b) = 0 where a, b, c
   6+3 3 
 3+ 3    are distinct real numbers such that the matrix
α 2 α 1
π π  
(1) (2)
4 2 1 1 1
a b c 

π π
(3) (4) is singular. Then the value of
3 6
( a − c ) 2 + ( b − a ) 2 + ( c − b) 2
68. Let PQR be a triangle. The points A, B and C ( b – a )( c − b) ( a − c)( c − b) ( a − c)( b − a )
are on the sides QR, RP and PQ respectively
is
QA RB PC 1
such that = = = . Then (1) 6 (2) 3
AR BP CQ 2 (3) 9 (4) 12
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Area ( ∆PQR ) 73. The distance of the point (–1, 9, –16) from the
is equal to
Area ( ∆ABC) plane 2x + 3y – z = 5 measured parallel to the
x+ 4 2−y z−3
(1) 4 (2) 3 line = = is
5 3 4 12
(3) 2 (4)
2
(1) 13 2 (2) 31
69. If A and B are two non-zero n × n matrics such
(3) 26 (4) 20 2
that A2 + B = A2 B, then 74. For three positive integers p, q, r,
x pq= y=
2 2
qr
(1) AB = I z p r and r = pq + 1 such that 3, 3
(2) A2B = I logyx, 3logzy, 7logxz are in A.P. with common

1
(3) A2 = I or B = I difference . Then r – p – q is equal to
2
(4) A2B = BA2 (1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 12 (4) –6
70. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
( ) =2199 ( p + iq ) ,
200
Let p, q ∈ and 1 − 3i
equation x3 dy + (xy – 1) dx = 0, x > 0, 75.

 1 i= −1 Then p + q + q2 and p – q + q2 are
y  = 3 − e . Then y(1) is equal to
 2 roots of the equation.
(1) 1 (2) e (1) x 2 + 4x − 1 =0
(3) 2–e (4) 3 (2) x 2 − 4x + 1 =0
2
(3) x 2 + 4x + 1 =0
71. The area enclosed by the curves y + 4x = 4 and
(4) x 2 − 4x − 1 =0
y–2x = 2 is : 76. The relation
R= {( a, b ) : gcd ( a, b ) =1, 2a ≠ b, a, b ∈ } is: ___
25 22
(1) (2) (1) transitive but not reflexive
3 3
(2) symmetric but not transitive
23 (3) reflexive but not symmetric
(3) 9 (4)
3 (4) neither symmetric nor transitive
E 11
77. The compound statement 3
( ~ ( P ∧ Q ) ) ∨ (( ~ P) ∧ Q ) ⇒ (( ~ P) ∧ ( ~ Q ) ) ∫
The value of 12 x − 3x + 2 dx is _______
2
83.
0
is equivalent to
(1) (( ~ P) ∨ Q ) ∧ (( ~ Q ) ∨ P ) 84. The number of 9 digit numbers, that can be
formed using all the digits of the number
(2) ( ~ Q ) ∨ P
123412341 so that the even digits occupy only
(3) (( ~ P) ∨ Q ) ∧ ( ~ Q ) even places, is___
(4) ( ~ P) ∨ Q
85. Let λ ∈ and let the equation E be
 2  1
x sin   ,x ≠ 0 x − 2 x + λ − 3 =0 .
2
Then the largest
78. Let f(x) =   x ; Then at x = 0
 ,x = 0 element in the set S =
 0
(1) f is continuous but not differentiable { x + λ : x is an integer solution of E} is_____
®
(2) f is continuous but f ′ is not continuous 86. A boy needs to select five courses from
(3) f and f ′ both are continuous
12 available courses, out of which 5 courses are
(4) f ′ is continuous but not differentiable
79. The equation x2 – 4x + [x] + 3 = x[x], where [x] language courses. If he can choose at most two
denotes the greatest integer function, has: language courses, then the number of ways he
(1) exactly two solutions in ( −∞, ∞) can choose five courses is
(2) no solution 87. Let a tangent to the Curve 9x2 + 16y2 = 144
(3) a unique solution in ( −∞,1)
intersect the coordinate axes at the points A and
(4) a unique solution in ( −∞, ∞) B. Then, the minimum length of the line
80. Let Ω be the sample space and A ⊆ Ω be an segment AB is________
event. Given below are two statements :
π
(S1) : If P (A) = 0, then A = φ 82 ( cos x) 2023
(S2) : If P (A) = 1, then A = Ω

88. The value of ∫
π 0 ( sin x ) 2023 + ( cos x ) 2023
dx
Then
is _______.
(1) only (S1) is true
(2) only (S2) is true 89. The shortest distance between the lines
(3) both (S1) and (S2) are true x − 2 y +1 z − 6 x − 6 1− y z + 8

= = and = =
(4) both (S1) and (S2) are false 3 2 2 3 2 0
SECTION-B is equal to _______
90. The 4th term of GP is 500 and its common ratio
81. Let C be the largest circle centred at (2, 0) and
1
inscribed in the ellipse =
x2 y2
+ =
1. is , m ∈ N . Let Sn denote the sum of the
36 16 m
If (1, 𝛼) lies on C, then 10 𝛼2 is equal first n terms of this GP. If S6 > S5 + 1 and
to________
1
2023 S7 < S6 + , then the number of possible
82. Suppose ∑r
r =0
=
C r 2023 × α × 2 2022 . Then
2 2023
2
values of m is ______
the value of 𝛼 is _________
12 E
SET # 02
PHYSICS 5. Match List I with List II
SECTION-A
LIST I LIST II
1. The electric potential at the centre of two A. AM Broadcast I. 88-108 MHz
concentric half rings of radii R1 and R2, having B. FM Broadcast II. 540-1600 kHz
same linear charge density λ is C, Television III. 3.7-4.2 GHz
λ++++++ D. Satellite Communication IV. 54MHz - 590MHz
++ ++
++ +
+ + + λ+ + + +
+ + + + Choose the correct answer from the options
+ + +
+ R2 + +
+ + + given below:
+ + +
+ +
+ + +
+ + R1 + + (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
+ + + +
O (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
2λ λ
(1) (2) (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
∈0 2 ∈0
®
λ λ (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) (4)
4 ∈0 ∈0 6. The logic gate equivalent to the given circuit
2. Let γ1 be the ratio of molar specific heat at
diagram is :
constant pressure and molar specific heat at
constant volume of a monoatomic gas and γ2 be
+5V
the similar ratio of diatomic gas. Considering
the diatomic gas molecule as a rigid rotator, the A1
γ1 1 (Glow)
ratio, is
γ2 B1
Y
27 35
(1) (2)
35 27
25 21
(3) (4)
21 25
3. An α-particle, a proton and an electron have the
same kinetic energy. Which one of the (1) OR (2) NAND
following is correct in case of their De-Broglie

(3) NOR (4) AND
wavelength:
(1) λα > λp > λe 7. A long solenoid is formed by winding
(2) λα < λp < λe 70 turns cm–1. If 2.0 A current flows, then the
(3) λα = λp = λe
magnetic field produced inside the solenoid is
(4) λα > λp < λe
4. If the distance of the earth from Sun is 1.5 × 106 km. _________ (µ0 = 4π × 10–7 TmA–1)
Then the distance of an imaginary planet from
(1) 1232 × 10–4 T
Sun, if its period of revolution is 2.83 years is:
(1) 6 × 107 km (2) 176 × 10–4 T
(2) 6 × 106 km
(3) 352 × 10–4 T
(3) 3 × 106 km
(4) 3 × 107 km (4) 88 × 10–4 T
E 13
8. Given below are two statements: 10. When a beam of white light is allowed to pass
Statement I: Acceleration due to earth's gravity through convex lens parallel to principal axis,
decreases as you go 'up' or 'down' from earth's the different colours of light converge at
surface. different point on the principle axis after
Statement II: Acceleration due to earth's refraction. This is called :
gravity is same at a height 'h' and depth 'd' from (1) Scattering
earth's surface, if h = d. (2) Chromatic aberration
(3) Spherical aberration
In the light of above statements, choose the
(4) Polarisation
most appropriate answer form the options given
below 11. The frequency (ν) of an oscillating liquid drop
may depend upon radius (r) of the drop, density
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(ρ) of liquid and the surface tension (s) of the
correct
®
liquid as :
ν = ra ρb sc. The values of a, b and c respectively
incorrect
are
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
 3 1 1 3 1 1
incorrect (1)  − , − ,  (2)  , − , 
 2 2 2 2 2 2
(4) Both Statement I and II are correct
3 1 1  3 1 1
9. A metallic rod of length 'L' is rotated with an (3)  , , −  (4)  − , , 
2 2 2  2 2 2
angular speed of ‘ω’ normal to a uniform
12. A body of mass 200g is tied to a spring of
magnetic spring constant 12.5 N/m, while the other end of
field 'B' about an axis passing through one end spring is fixed at point O. If the body moves
of rod as shown in figure. The induced emf will about O in a circular path on a smooth
be : horizontal surface with constant angular speed
x x x x x x x x x x x x x x
5 rad/s, then the ratio of extension in the spring
x x x x x x x x x x x x x
x x x x x x x x x x x x to its natural length will be :
ω
x x x x x x x x x x x x
(1) 1:2 (2) 1:1
x x x x x x x x x x x x x
x x x x x x x L x x x x x x (3) 2:3 (4) 2:5
13. A cell of emf 90 V is connected across series
x x x x x x x x x x x x x x combination of two resistors each of 100Ω
x x x x x x x x x x x x x x resistance. A voltmeter of resistance 400 Ω is
1 2 used to measure the potential difference across
(1) B Lω
4 each resistor. The reading of the voltmeter will
1 2 be :
(2) BL ω
4
(1) 40 V
1
(3) BL2 ω (2) 45 V
2
(3) 80 V
1
(4) B2 L2 ω (4) 90 V
2
14 E
14. The electric field and magnetic field 17. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
components of an electromagnetic wave going as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
through vacuum is described by Reason R.
Ex = E0 sin (kz – ωt)
Assertion A: A pendulum clock when taken to
By = B0 sin (kz – ωt)
Then the correct relation between E0 and B0 is Mount Everest becomes fast.
given by Reason R: The value of g (acceleration due to
(1) kE0 = ωB0
gravity) is less at Mount Everest than its value
(2) E0B0 = ωk
(3) ωE0 = kB0 on the surface of earth.
(4) E0 = kB0
15. The velocity time graph of a body moving in a
®
straight line is shown in figure. most appropriate answer from the options given
8
below
6
4 (1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
–1
2
v(ms ) 0 2 4 6 8 10 correct explanation of A
–2
–4
–6 (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the
time (s)
The ratio of displacement to distance travelled correct explanation of A

by the body in time 0 to 10s is
(1) 1:1 (2) 1:4 (3) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) 1:2 (4) 1:3

(4) A is correct but R is not correct
16. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as 18. A photon is emitted in transition from n = 4 to
Reason R
n = 1 level in hydrogen atom. The
Assertion A: Steel is used in the construction of
buildings and bridges. corresponding wavelength for this transition
Reason R: Steel is more elastic and its elastic
is
limit is high.
In the light of above statements, choose the (given, h = 4 × 10–15 eVs) :
most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) 94.1 nm
below
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
(2) 941 nm
(2) A is not correct but R is correct (3) 97.4 nm
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the
correct explanation of A (4) 99.3 nm
E 15
19. In an Isothermal change, the change in pressure SECTION-B
and volume of a gas can be represented for
three different temperature; T3 > T2 > T1 as : 21. A uniform solid cylinder with radius R and
T2 T1 length L has moment of inertia I1, about the axis
P
of cylinder. A concentric solid cylinder of
T3
R L
radius R ' = and length L ' = is caned out
2 2
(1)
of the original cylinder. If I2 is the moment of
inertia of the carved out portion ot the cylinder
I1
V then = __________
I2
T2 T1
P T3
(Both I1 and I2 are about the axis of the
®
cylinder)
22. A mass m attached to free end of a spring
(2)
executes SHM with a period of 1s. If the mass
is increased by 3 kg the period of oscillation
increases by one second, the value of mass m is
V
T2 T3 ________ kg.
P T1
23. The energy released per fission of nucleus of
240
X is 200 MeV. The energy released if all the
240
(3) atoms in 120g of pure X undergo fission is
_____ × 1025 MeV. (Given NA = 6 × 1023)
24. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the

V plate has a capacitance of 15pF. The separation
P T1 T2 T3
between the plate becomes twice and the space
between them is filled with a medium of
dielectric constant 3.5. Then the capacitance
(4)
x
becomes pF. The value of x is __________.
4
25. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the

V
 action of a time dependent force
20. If two vectors P=i + 2mjˆ + mkˆ
ˆ and


Q = 4iˆ − 2ˆj + mkˆ are perpendicular to each = ( )
F t î + 3t 2 ˆj N . where î and ˆj are the unit
other. Then, the value of m will be : vectors along x and y axis. The power
(1) l (2) –1 developed by above force, at the time t = 2s.
(3) – 3 (4) 2 will be _______W.
16 E
26. If a copper wire is stretched to increase its CHEMISTRY
length by 20°%. The percentage increase in SECTION-A
resistance of the wire is __________ %. 31. Which one amongst the following are good
oxidizing agents?
27. A single turn current loop in the shape of a right 2+ 2+ 4+ 4+
A. Sm B. Ce C. Ce D. Tb
angle triangle with sides 5 cm, 12 cm, 13 cm is Choose the most appropriate answer from the
carrying a current of 2A. The loop is in a options given below :
uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.75 T (1) C only
whose direction is parallel to the current in the (2) D only
13 cm side of the loop. The magnitude of the (3) A and B only
x (4) C and D only
magnetic force on the 5 cm side will be N.
130 32. What is the number of unpaired electron(s) in
The value of x is ___________. the highest occupied molecular orbital of the
®
+ +
following species : N 2 : N2 ; O2; O2 ?
28. Three identical resistors with resistance
(1) 0, 1, 2, 1 (2) 2, 1, 2, 1
R = 12Ω and two identical inductors with sell
(3) 0, 1, 0, 1 (4) 2, 1, 0, 1
inductance L=5 mH are connected to an ideal 33. Which of the following cannot be explained by
battery with emf of 12 V as shown in figure. crystal field theory?
The current through the battery long after the (1) The order of spectrochemical series
(2) Magnetic properties of transition metal
switch has been closed will be________A.
complexes
L R (3) Colour of metal complexes
(4) Stability of metal complexes
R 34. A student has studied the decomposition of a
gas AB3 at 25°C. He obtained the following
R L data.
p (mm Hg) 50 100 200 400

()
12V k Relative t1/2 (s) 4 2 1 0.5
29. A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and focal

The order of the reaction is
length 18 cm in air is immersed in water. The
(1) 0.5 (2) 2
change in focal length of the lens will
be_____cm. (3) 1 (4) 0 (zero)
35. The number of s-electrons present in an ion
4
(Given refractive index of water = ) with 55 protons in its unipositive state is
3
(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 12 (4) 10
30. A Spherical ball of radius 1mm and density
36. In which of the following reactions the
10.5 g/cc is dropped in glycerine of coefficient of hydrogen peroxide acts as a reducing agent?
viscosity 9.8 poise and density 1.5 g/cc. Viscous
(1) PbS + 4H 2O 2 → PbSO 4 + 4H 2O
force on the ball when it attains constant velocity
(2) 2Fe 2+ + H 2O 2 → 2Fe3+ + 2OH −
is 3696 x 10–x N. The value of x is
(3) HOCl + H 2O 2 → H 3O + + Cl− + O 2
22
(Given, g = 9.8 m/s2 and π = ) (4) Mn 2+ + H 2O 2 → Mn 4+ + 2OH −
7
E 17
37. The metal which is extracted by oxidation and 40. Match List I with List II
subsequent reduction from its ore is :
LIST I LIST II
(1) Al (2) Ag
(3) Cu (4) Fe Type Name
38. Given below are two statements :
O Antifertility
A. I. Norethindrone
Statement I : H 2N under drug
O B. Tranquilizer II. Meprobomate
Clemmensen reduction conditions will give
HOOC C. Antihistamine III. Seldane
.
O D. Antibiotic IV. Ampicillin
Statement II : under Wolff-
Cl
Kishner reduction condition will give
®
given below:
Cl
In the light of the above statements, choose the (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
correct answer from the options given below : (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 41. Given below are two statements, one is labelled
39. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Reason R.
Assertion A : Benzene is more stable than
Assertion A : Beryllium has less negative value
hypothetical cyclohexatriene.
of reduction potential compared to the other
alkaline earth metals. Reason R : The delocalized π electron cloud is

Reason R : Beryllium has large hydration attracted more strongly by nuclei of carbon
2+
energy due to small size of Be but relatively atoms.
large value of atomization enthalpy.
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is true but R is false.
below.
(1) A is correct but R is not correct (2) A is false but R is true.
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the (3) Both A and R are correct and R is the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
(3) A is not correct but R is correct (4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
18 E
42. Choose the correct representation of 44. Correct statement is :
conductometric titration of benzoic acid vs (1) An average human being consumes more
sodium hydroxide. food than air
(2) An average human being consumes nearly
Conductance
15 times more air than food

(1) (3) An average human being consumes equal
amount of food and air
vNaOH
(4) An average human being consumes
100 times more air than food
Conductance

Statement I : Pure Aniline and other
®
(2)
arylamines are usually colourless.
vNaOH Statement II : Arylamines get coloured on
storage due to atmospheric reduction.
Conductance

(3)
below :
vNaOH (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are

incorrect
Conductance
correct
(4)
incorrect
vNaOH
43. Find out the major products from the following (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
reactions.
correct
Hg(OAc) ,H O BH ,THF 46. Which will undergo deprotonation most readily
2 2
B←
NaBH  
3
H O /OH−
→A
4 2 2
in basic medium?
OH O O O O O O
(1) A = , B=
OH
MeO OMe OMe
a b c
OH
(2) A = , B= OH (1) a only
OH OH (2) c only
(3) A = , B=
(3) Both a and c
(4) A = , B= (4) b only
OH OH
E 19
47. Choose the correct colour of the product for the SECTION-B
following reaction. 51. The number of statement/s which are the
characteristics of physisorption is ________.
N = N– OOCCH3
A. It is highly specific in nature
B. Enthalpy of adsorption is high
+1–Naphthyl amine
C. It decreases with increase in temperature
SO3H D. It results into unimolecular layer
E. No activation energy is needed
(1) Yellow (2) White
52. Sum of π-bonds present in peroxodisulphuric
(3) Red (4) Blue acid and pyrosulphuric acid is
48. Identify the correct statements about alkali 53. Maximum number of isomeric monochloro
derivatives which can be obtained from 2,2,5,5-
metals. tetramethylhexane by chlorination is _________
A. The order of standard reduction potential 54. Total number of tripeptides possible by mixing
of valine and proline is _________
®
+
(M | M) for alkali metal ions is Na > Rb >
55. The number of units, which are used to express
Li. concentration of solutions from the following is_.
B. CsI is highly soluble in water. Mass percent, Mole, Mole fraction, Molarity,
ppm, Molality.
C. Lithium carbonate is highly stable to heat. 56. The number of statement's, which are correct
D. Potassium dissolved in concentrated liquid with respect to the compression of carbon
dioxide from point (a) in the Andrews isotherm
ammonia is blue in colour and from the following is _________.
paramagnetic.
E. All the alkali metal hydrides are ionic solids.
Choose the correct answer from the options d
Pressure
given below
(1) A, B, D only (2) C and E only
(3) A and E only (4) A, B and E only c b a
49. The hybridization and magnetic behaviour of Volume
cobalt ion in [Co(NH 3 )6 ]3+ complex, respectively A. Carbon dioxide remains as a gas upto point
is (b) node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\01_January\SET-1 & 2.docx"
3 2
(1) sp d and diamagnetic B. Liquid carbon dioxide appears at point (c)
2 3 C. Liquid and gaseous carbon dioxide coexist
(2) d sp and paramagnetic between points (b) and (c)
2 3
(3) d sp and diamagnetic D. As the volume decreases from (b) to (c), the
3 2 amount of liquid decreases
(4) sp d and paramagnetic
57. The Total pressure observed by mixing two
50. K2Cr2O7 paper acidified with dilute H2SO4 turns liquid A and B is 350 mm Hg when their mole
fractions
green when exposed to are 0.7 and 0.3 respectively.
(1) Carbon dioxide The Total pressure becomes 410 mm Hg if the
(2) Sulphur trioxide mole fractions are changed to 0.2 and 0.8
respectively for A and B. The vapour pressure
(3) Hydrogen sulphide of pure A is ______ mm Hg. (Nearest integer)
(4) Sulphur dioxide Consider the liquids and solutions behave
ideally.
20 E
58. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is MATHEMATICS
subjected to changes as shown in the graph. The SECTION-A
magnitude of the work done (by the system or 61. Let the six numbers a1, a2, a3, a4, a5, a6 be in
on the system) is _______ J (nearest integer).
A.P. and a1 + a3 = 10. If the mean of these six
1
1.0 2 19
and their variance is σ , then
2
numbers is
2
Pressure (bar)
8σ2 is equal to
0.5 3 (1) 220
(2) 210
(3) 200
20 40 (4) 105
Volume (L) 62. Let f(x) be a function such that f(x + y) = f(x) ·
®
Given : log 2 = 0.3, ln 10 = 2.3 f(y) for all x, y ∈ N. If f(1) = 3 and
59. If the pKa of lactic acid is 5, then the pH of n
0.005 M calcium lactate solution at 25° C is ∑ f(k) = 3279, then the value of n is
k =1
–1
__________ × 10 (Nearest integer)
(1) 6
H
| (2) 8
Lactic acid CH 3 − C − COOH
| (3) 7
OH
(4) 9
60. Following figure shows spectrum of an ideal
black body at four different temperatures. The 63. The number of real solutions of the equation
number of correct statement/s from the  1  1
3  x 2 + 2  − 2  x +  + 5 = 0, is
following is _______.  x   x
T1 (1) 4 (2) 0
(3) 3 (4) 2
Energy distribution
T2
22x
T3 64. If f(x) = 2x , x ∈ R,
2 +2
T4  1   2   2022 
then f   +f  + ….…+ f 
 2023 
is
 2023   2023 
equal to
Wavelength
(1) 2011
(2) 1010
A. T4 > T3 > T2 > T1
(3) 2010
B. The black body consists of particles (4) 1011
If f(x) = x – x 2f '(1) + xf "(2) − f "'(3) , x ∈ R,
performing simple harmonic motion. 3
65.
C. The peak of the spectrum shifts to shorter then
wavelength as temperature increases. (1) 3f(1) + f(2) = f(3)
T1 T2 T3
D. = = ≠ constant (2) f(3) – f(2) = f(1)
v1 v 2 v3
(3) 2f(0) – f(1) + f(3) = f(2)
E. The given spectrum could be explained using
quantisation of energy. (4) f(1) + f(2) + f(3) = f(0)
E 21
66. The number of integers, greater than 7000 that 71. If (30C1)2 + 2(30C2)2 + 3(30C3)2 + ……. +
can be formed, using the digits 3, 5, 6, 7, 8 α 60!
30(30C30)2 = , then α is equal to
without repetition, is (30!)2
(1) 120 (2) 168 (1) 30 (2) 60
(3) 220 (4) 48 (3) 15 (4) 10
67. If the system of equations 72. Let the plane containing the line of intersection
x + 2y + 3z = 3 of the planes
4x + 3y – 4z = 4 P1: x + (λ + 4)y + z = 1 and
8x + 4y – λz = 9 + µ P2 : 2x + y + z = 2 pass through the points

(0, 1, 0) and (1, 0, 1). Then the distance of the
has infinitely many solutions, then the ordered
point (2λ, λ, – λ) from the plane P2 is
pair (λ, µ) is equal to
®
 72 21  −72 −21 (1) 5 6 (2) 4 6
(1)  ,  (2)  , 
 5 5  5 5  (3) 2 6 (4) 3 6
  
 72 −21  −72 21 73. Let α= 4iˆ + 3ˆj + 5kˆ and β = î + 2 ˆj − 4kˆ . Let β1
(3)  ,
 5 5 
(4) 
 5 5 
,
  
be parallel to α and β2 be perpendicular to α .
3
 2π 2π     
1 + sin + i cos If β = β1 + β2 , then the value of 5β2 · (iˆ + ˆj + k)
ˆ
 9 9  is
68. The value of 
2π 2π 
 1 + sin − i cos  is
9 9 
(1) 6 (2) 11
−1 1
(1) (1 − i 3) (2) (1 − i 3) (3) 7 (4) 9
2 2
74. The locus of the mid points of the chords of the
−1 1
(3) ( 3 − i) (4) ( 3 + i) circle C1: (x – 4)2 + (y – 5)2 = 4 which subtend
2 2
69. The equations of the sides AB and AC of a an angle θi at the centre of the circle C1, is a
triangle ABC are π 2π

circle of radius ri. If θ1 = , θ3 = and
3 3
(λ + 1) x + λy = 4 and λx + (1 – λ) y + λ = 0
2
respectively. Its vertex A is on the y-axis and its r1= r22 + r32 , then θ2 is equal to
orthocentre is (1, 2). The length of the tangent
π 3π
from the point C to the part of the parabola (1) (2)
4 4
y2 = 6x in the first quadrant is π π
(3) (4)
(1) 6 (2) 2 2 6 2
(3) 2 (4) 4 75. If the foot of the perpendicular drawn from
70. The set of all values of a for which (1, 9, 7) to the line passing through the point
Lim ([x − 5] − [2x + 2]) = 0, where [∝] denotes (3, 2, 1) and parallel to the planes x + 2y + z = 0
x→a
and 3y – z = 3 is (α, β, γ), then α + β + γ is
the greater integer less than or equal to ∝ is
equal to equal to
(1) (– 7.5, –6.5) (2) (– 7.5, –6.5] (1) –1 (2) 3
(3) [– 7.5, –6.5] (4) [– 7.5, –6.5) (3) 1 (4) 5
22 E
76. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential 82. If the area of the region bounded by the curves
2 2 2
equation (x – 3y )dx + 3xy dy = 0, y(1) = 1. y – 2y = –x, x + y = 0 is A, then 8A is equal to
2
Then 6y (e) is equal to
13 + 23 + 33 + …….upto n terms 9
(1) 3e
2
(2) e
2 83. If = ,
1 · 3 + 2 · 5 + 3 · 7 + …….upto n terms 5
3e2 then the value of n is
(3) 2e2 (4)
2
84. Let f be a differentiable function defined on
77. Let p and q be two statements.
 π
Then ~ ( p ∧ (p ⇒ ∼ q) ) is equivalent to 0, 2  such that f(x) > 0 and
 
(1) p ∨ ( p ∧ (∼ q) ) (2) p ∨ ( (~ p) ∧ q ) x
 π
f(x) + ∫ f(t) 1 − ( loge f(t) )2 dt = e, ∀ x ∈ 0,  .
(3) (~ p) ∨ q (4) p ∨ (p ∧ q) 0  2
2
78. The number of square matrices of order 5 with   π
Then  6 loge f    is equal to
®
  6
entries from the set {0, 1}, such that the sum of
85. The minimum number of elements that must be
all the elements in each row is 1 and the sum of
added to the relation R = {(a, b), (b, c), (b, d)}
all the elements in each column is also 1, is
on the set {a, b, c, d} so that it is an equivalence
(1) 225 (2) 120
relation, is _________.
(3) 150 (4) 125
   
3 3 86. Let a = î + 2 ˆj + λkˆ , b= 3iˆ − 5ˆj − λkˆ , a · c = 7,
       
4 48 2 b · c + 43 = 0, a × c = b × c . Then | a · b | is
79. ∫ dx is equal to
3 2 9 − 4x 2 equal to
4 87. Let the sum of the coefficients of the first three
π π π  3
n
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2π terms in the expansion of  x − 2  , x ≠ 0,
3 2 6  x 
80. Let A be a 3 × 3 matrix such that n ∈ N, be 376. Then the coefficient of x4 is ___.
adj ( adj(adjA) ) = 124. Then | A–1adj A | is 88. If the shortest between the lines
equal to
x+ 6 y− 6 z− 6
= = and
(1) 2 3 (2) 6 2 3 4
(3) 12 (4) 1
x−λ y−2 6 z+2 6
SECTION-B = = is 6, then the
3 4 5
81. The urns A, B and C contain 4 red, 6 black;
square of sum of all possible values of λ is
5 red, 5 black and λ red, 4 black balls
89. Let S = {θ ∈ [0, 2π) : tan (πcos θ) + tan (πsin θ) = 0}.
respectively. One of the urns is selected at  π
Then ∑ sin 2  θ +  is equal to
random and a ball is drawn. If the ball drawn is θ∈S  4
red and the probability that it is drawn from urn 90. The equations of the sides AB, BC and CA of a
C is 0.4 then the square of the length of the side triangle ABC are: 2x + y = 0, x + py = 21a,
of the largest equilateral triangle, inscribed in (a ≠ 0) and x – y = 3 respectively. Let P (2, a)
the parabola y = λx with one vertex at the
2
be the centroid of ∆ABC. Then (BC)2 is equal
vertex of the parabola is to
E 23
SET # 03
PHYSICS 4. T is the time period of simple pendulum on the
SECTION-A
earth's surface. Its time period becomes x T
1. Electron beam used in an electron microscope, when taken to a height R (equal to earth's
when accelerated by a voltage of 20 kV. has a radius) above the earth's surface. Then, the
de-Broglie wavelength of λo. If the voltage is value of x will be:
increased to 40 kV. then the de-Broglie (1) 4 (2) 2
wavelength associated with the electron beam 1 1
(3) (4)
would be: 2 4
(1) 3λ0 5. Assume that the earth is a solid sphere of
(2) 9λ0 uniform density and a tunnel is dug along its
®
λ0 diameter throughout the earth. It is found that
(3)
2 when a particle is released in this tunnel, it
λ0 executes a simple harmonic motion. The mass
(4)
2 of the particle is 100 g. The time period of the
2. An object of mass 8 kg is hanging from one end motion of the particle will be (approximately)
of a uniform rod CD of mass 2 kg and length
(take g = 10 ms-2,radius of earth = 6400 km )
1 m pivoted at its end C on a vertical wall as
(1) 24 hours
shown in figure. It is supported by a cable AB
(2) 1 hour 24 minutes
such that the system is in equilibrium. The
(3) 1 hour 40 minutes
tension in the cable is :
(4) 12 hours
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
6. A car travels a distance of 'x' with speed V1 and
A
then same distance 'x' with speed V2 in the same
30° B direction. The average speed of the car is:
C D
90° v1v2 v1 + v2
(1) (2)
60 cm 40 cm 2 ( v1 + v2 ) 2
Wall
8kg 2x 2v1v2
(3) (4)
v1 + v2 v1 + v2
(1) 240 N (2) 90 N
7. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area 40cm2
(3) 300 N (4) 30 N
and plates separation 2 mm. The space between
3. A Carnot engine with efficiency 50% takes heat
the plates is filled with a dielectric medium of a
from a source at 600 K. In order to increase the
thickness 1 mm and dielectric constant 5. The
efficiency to 70%, keeping the temperature of
capacitance of the system is :
sink same, the new temperature of the source
3
will be : (1) 24ε 0 F (2) ε0 F
10
(1) 360 K (2) 1000 K 10
(3) ε0 F (4) 10ε 0 F
(3) 900 K (4) 300 K 3
24 E
8. The root mean square velocity of molecules of 13. All electromagnetic wave is transporting energy
gas is in the negative z direction. At a certain point
2
(1) Proportional to square of temperature (T ). and certain time the direction of electric field of
(2) Inversely proportional to square root of the wave is along positive y direction. What
1 will be the direction of the magnetic field of the
temperature .
T wave at that point and instant?
(3) Proportional to square root of temperature (1) Positive direction of x
T. (2) Positive direction of z
(4) Proportional to temperature (T). (3) Negative direction of x
9. Match List I with List II (4) Negative direction of y
List-I List-II 14. In Young's double slits experiment, the position of
®
-1 -1
A Surface tension I. Kg m s 5th bright fringe from the central maximum is
B Pressure II. Kg ms-1 5 cm. The distance between slits and screen is
-1 -2
C Viscosity III. Kg m s 1 m and wavelength of used monochromatic light
-2
D Impulse IV. Kg s is 600 nm. The separation between the slits is:
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) 60 µm (2) 48 µm
given below :
(3) 12 µm (4) 36 µm
(1) A-IV, B-III, C- II, D- I
15. Math List I with List II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
List-I List-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(Current configuration) (Magnetic field
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
at point O)
10. In an LC oscillator, if values of inductance and
A r µ0 I
[π + 2]
O
capacitance become twice and eight times, I. =
B0
I I 4π r
respectively, then the resonant frequency of
oscillator becomes x times its initial resonant B I
µ0 I
B0 =
O II.
frequency ω0. The value of x is: I
r 4 r
(1) 1/4 (2) 16
(3) 1/16 (4) 4 C I
µ0 I
11. The ratio of the density of oxygen nucleus I O
III.=
B0
2π r
[π − 1]
r
( O ) and helium nucleus ( He ) is

16
8
4
2
D µ0 I
[π + 1]
O
I
r
I IV =
B0
(1) 4:1 (2) 8:1 4π r
(3) 1:1 (4) 2:1 Choose the correct answer from the option
12. A message signal of frequency 5 kHz is used to given below:
modulate a carrier signal of frequency 2 MHz. (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
The bandwidth for amplitude modulation is: (2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(1) 5 kHz (2) 20 kHz (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) 10 kHz (4) 2.5 kHz (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
E 25
16. Given below are two statements : one is labeled 18. A uniform metallic wire carries a current
2 A. when 3.4 V battery is connected across it.
as Assertion A and the other is labeled as
The mass of uniform metallic wire is 8.92×10–3
Reason R
kg. density is 8.92 ×103 kg/m3 and resistivity is
Assertion A: Photodiodes are used in forward 1.7 × 10–8 Ω –m. The length of wire is :
bias usually for measuring the light intensity. (1) l =6.8 m

(2) l = 10 m
Reason R: For a p-n junction diode, at applied
(3) l = 5 m
voltage V the current in the forward bias is (4) l = 100 m
more than the current in the reverse bias for 19. A bowl filled with very hot soup cools from
98°C to 86°C in 2 minutes when the room
Vz > ± V ≥ V0 where Vo is the threshold
®
temperature is 22°C. How long it will take to
voltage and Vz is the breakdown voltage. cool from 75°C to 69°C ?
(1) 2 minutes (2) 1.4 minutes
(3) 0.5 minute (4) 1 minute
correct answer from the options given below
20. A car is moving with a constant speed of
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct
20 m/s in a circular horizontal track of radius 40
explanation A
m. A bob is suspended from the roof of the car
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the by a massless string. The angle made by the
string with the vertical will be :
correct explanation A
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
π π
(1) (2)
(4) A is true but R is false 6 2
π π
17. A solenoid of 1200 turns is wound uniformly in (3) (4)
4 3
a single layer on a glass tube 2 m long and
SECTION-B
0.2 m in diameter. The magnetic intensity at the
21. A ray of light is incident from air on a glass
center of the solenoid when a current of 2 A
plate having thickness 3 cm and refractive
flows through it is:
index 2 . The angle of incidence of a ray is
(1) 2.4 × 103 A m-1
equal to the critical angle for glass-air interface
(2) 1.2 × 103 A m-1
. The lateral displacement of the ray when it
(3) 1 A m-1
passes through the plate is___×10–2cm. (given
-3 -1
(4) 2.4 × 10 A m
sin 15° = 0.26)
26 E
22. In the given circuit, the equivalent resistance 26. ICM is moment of inertia of a circular disc about
between the terminal A and B is_____Ω. an axis (CM) passing through its center and
A
3Ω 2Ω 4Ω perpendicular to the plane of disc. IAB is it's
moment of inertia about an axis AB
2Ω 2Ω
perpendicular to plane and parallel to axis CM
B 2
6Ω 4Ω at a distance R from center. Where R is the
3
23. As shown in the figure, in an experiment to
radius of the disc. The ratio of IAB and ICM is
determine Young's modulus of a wire, the
x : 9. The value of x is___.
extension-load curve is plotted. The curve is a
C A
straight line passing through the origin and makes
an angle of 45° with the load axis. The length of
wire is 62.8 cm and its diameter is 4 mm. The R
4 -2
®
Young's modulus is found to be x × 10 Nm .
The value of x is _____.
2
Extension (m)
R
3
M B
o
45 27. The distance between two consecutive points
with phase difference of 60° in a wave of
Load(N)
frequency 500 Hz is 6.0 m. The velocity with
24. An object of mass 'm' initially at rest on a
which wave is traveling is______ km/s
smooth horizontal plane starts moving under the
28. A uniform electric field of 10 N/C is created
action of force F = 2N. In the process of its
between two parallel charged plates (as shown in
linear motion, the angle θ (as shown in figure)
figure). An electron enters the field symmetrically
between the direction of force and horizontal
between the plates with a kinetic energy 0.5 eV.
varies as θ = kx, where k is a constant and x is
The length of each plate is 10 cm. The angle (θ) of
the distance covered by the object from its
deviation of the path of electron as it comes out of
initial position. The expression of kinetic
the field is ___ (in degree).
n
energy of the object will be E = sin θ . The
k
θ
value of n is___.
F E
m
θ 10 cm
29. An LCR series circuit of capacitance 62.5 nF
Smooth horizontal surface
and resistance of 50 Ω. is connected to an A.C.
25. The wavelength of the radiation emitted is λ0 source of frequency 2.0 kHz. For maximum
when an electron jumps from the second excited value of amplitude of current in circuit, the
state to the first excited state of hydrogen atom. value of inductance is _____mH. (take π2 = 10)
If the electron jumps from the third excited state  
30. If P =3iˆ + 3ˆj + 2kˆ and Q =4iˆ + 3ˆj + 2.5 kˆ
to the second orbit of the hydrogen atom, the  
then, The unit vector in the direction of P × Q is
wavelength of the radiation emitted will be
20
λ0 . The value of x is_____.
1
x
( )
3iˆ + ˆj − 2 3kˆ . The value of x is
x
E 27
CHEMISTRY 33. Identify the product formed (A and E)
SECTION-A Me
Br2 NaNO2/HCl H PO /H O (i) KMnO4/KOH

31. The compound which will have the lowest rate A Sn/HCl B C 3 2 2 D + E
273-278K (ii) H O
3
NO2
towards nucleophilic aromatic substitution on
Me COOH
treatment with OH– is Br Br
(1) A = ,E=
Cl Br Br
2 NO2
(1) (2) Me COOH
Br Br
NO2 2 (2) A = ,E=
NO2
(3) (4)
®
2
Me Me
2 Br Br
(3) A = ,E=
32. The variation of the rate of an enzyme catalyzed
reaction with substrate concentration is NO2
correctly represented by graph Me COOH

Br Br
Rate of reaction
(4) A = ,E=
(a) NO2 OH
34. Match List I with List II
O Substrate concentration
List I List II
Elements Colour imparted to the flame
Rate of reaction
A K I Brick Red
(b) B Ca II Violet
C Sr III Apple Green
O Substrate concentration D Ba IV Crimson Red
Choose the correct answer from the options node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\01_January\SET-3 & 4.docx"
Rate of reaction
given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III. D-IV
(c)
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I. D-III
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV. D-III
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II. D-I
35. Reaction of thionyl chloride with white
Rate of reaction
phosphorus forms a compound [A], which on

(d) hydrolysis gives [B], a dibasic acid. [A] and [B]
are respectively
(1) P4O6 and H3PO3
(2) PCl3 and H3PO3
(1) b (2) c (3) PCl5 and H3PO4
(3) d (4) a (4) POCl3 and H3PO4
28 E
36. A cubic solid is made up of two elements X and HOCH2 O OH
Y. Atoms of X are present on every alternate (S)
H H HO CH OH
2
rd
1
corner and one at the center of cube. Y is at OH H
3
Row II :
of the total faces. The empirical formula of the (i) α-D-(–) Fructofuranose.
compound is (ii) β-D-(–) Fructofuranose
(1) X2Y1.5 (2) X2.5Y (iii) α-D-(-) Glucopyranose.
(3) XY2.5 (4) X1.5Y2 (iv) β-D-(-) Glucopyranose
37. The radius of the 2nd orbit of Li2+ is x. The Correct match is
rd 3+
expected radius of the 3 orbit of Be is (1) P→iv, Q→iii, R→i, S→ii
9 4 (2) P→i, Q→ii, R→iii, S→iv
(1) x (2) x
4 9 (3) P→iii, Q→iv, R→ii, S→i
®
27 16 (4) P→iii, Q→iv, R→i, S→ii
(3) x (4) x
16 27
40. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
38. Which of the following conformations will be as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
the most stable ? Reason R :
Me
Assertion A : Acetal/Ketal is stable in basic
H H Me medium.
Me
(1) (2) Reason R : The high leaving tendency of
H H alkoxide ion gives the stability to acetal/ketal in
H H
Me H H basic medium.
Me In the light of the above statements, choose the
H Me Me correct answer from the options given below:
H (1) A is true but R is false
(3) (4)
H H (2) A is false but R is true
H Me (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
H H H
explanation of A
39. Match items of Row I with those of Row II.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the

Row I :
CH2OH
41. Inert gases have positive electron gain enthalpy.
O
H H
H Its correct order is
(P) OH H
OH (1) Xe < Kr < Ne < He
OH
H OH (2) He < Ne < Kr < Xe
CH2OH (3) He < Xe < Kr < Ne
O (4) He < Kr < Xe < Ne
H OH
H
(Q) OH H 42. Which one of the following reactions does not
H
OH occur during extraction of copper ?
H OH
(1) 2Cu2S + 3O2 → 2Cu2O + 2SO2
HOCH2 O CH2OH
(2) 2FeS + 3O2 → 2FeO + 2SO2
(R)
HH OH OH (3) CaO + SiO2 → CaSiO3
OH H (4) FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3
E 29
43. ? 47. Compound A reacts with NH4Cl and forms a
PhCOOH + PhCH 2OH
P Q R compound B. Compound B reacts with H2O and
The correct sequence of reagents for the excess of CO2 to form compound C which on
preparation of Q and R is : passing through or reaction with saturated NaCl
(1) (i) Cr2O3, 770 K, 20 atm ; solution forms sodium hydrogen carbonate.
(ii) CrO2Cl2, H3O+ ; Compound A. B and C, are respectively.
(iii) NaOH ; (1) CaCl2, NH3, NH4HCO3
(iv) H3O+
(2) CaCl2, NH4+, (NH4)2CO3
+
(2) (i) CrO2Cl2, H3O ; (ii) Cr2O3, 770 K, 20 atm;
(3) Ca(OH)2, NH3, NH4HCO3
(iii) NaOH ; (iv) H3O+
–
(4) Ca(OH)2, NH4+, (NH4)2CO3
(3) (i) KMnO4, OH ; (ii) Mo2O3, A;
48. Some reactions of NO2 relevant to
(iii) NaOH; (iv) H3O+
®
photochemical smog formation are
(4) (i) Mo2O3, ∆; (ii) CrO2Cl2, H3O+;
Sunlight
NO2 X+Y
(iii) NaOH ; (iv) H3O+
A
44. The correct order in aqueous medium of basic B
strength in case of methyl substituted amines is
Identify A, B, X and Y
(1) Me2NH > MeNH2 > Me3N > NH3
(1) X = [O], Y = NO, A = O2, B = O3
(2) Me2NH > Me3N > MeNH2 > NH3
(2) X = N2O, Y = [O], A = O3, B = NO
(3) NH3 > Me3N > MeNH2 > Me2NH
1
(3) X = O2, Y = NO2, A = O3, B = O2
(4) Me3N > Me2NH > MeNH2 > NH3 2
45. '25 volume' hydrogen peroxide means (4) X = NO, Y = [O], A = O2, B = N2O3
(1) 1 L marketed solution contains 250 g of 49. Match the List-I with List-II :
H2O2. Cations Group reaction
(2) 1 L marketed solution contains 75 g of P → Pb , Cu
2+ 2+
(i) H2S gas in presence of dilute HCl
H2O2. Q → Al3+, Fe3+ (ii) (NH4)2CO3 in presence of NH4OH

R → Co2+, Ni2+ (iii) NH4OH in presence of NH4CI
(3) 100 mL marketed solution contains 25 g of
S → Ba2+, Ca2+ (iv) H2S in presence of NH4OH
H2O2.
(1) P→i, Q→iii, R→ii, S→iv
(4) 1 L marketed solution contains 25 g of H2O2.
(2) P→iv, Q→ii, R→iii, S→i
46. Which of the following statements is incorrect
(3) P→iii, Q→i, R→iv, S→ii
for antibiotics?
(4) P→i, Q→iii, R→iv, S→ii
(1) An antibiotic must be a product of
50. In the cumene to phenol preparation in presence
metabolism.
of air, the intermediate is
(2) An antibiotic is a synthetic substance produced
O
as a structural analogue of naturally occurring
O CH3 O
antibiotic.
(3) An antibiotic should promote the growth or (1) (2)
survival of microorganisms. O–O–H
(4) An antibiotic should be effective in low
(3) (4)
concentrations.
30 E
SECTION-B 54. How many of the following metal ions have
51. An athlete is given 100 g of glucose (C6H12O6) similar value of spin only magnetic moment in
for energy. This is equivalent to 1800 kJ of gaseous state ?___________

(Given: Atomic number : V,23 ;Cr, 24 ; Fe, 26 ;
energy. The 50% of this energy gained is
Ni, 28)
utilized by the athlete for sports activities at the
V3+. Cr3+, Fe2+, Ni3+
event. In order to avoid storage of energy, the
55. The density of a monobasic strong acid (Molar
weight of extra water he would need to perspire mass 24.2 g mol) is 1.21 kg L. The volume of
is_______g (Nearest integer) its solution required for the complete
Assume that there is no other way of consuming neutralization of 25 mL of 0.24 M NaOH
stored energy. is_______× 10–2 mL (Nearest integer)
®
Given : The enthalpy of evaporation of water is 56. For the first order reaction A → B Br the half
life is 30 mm. The time taken for 75%
45 kJ mol–1
completion of the reaction is_____mm. (Nearest
Molar mass of C, H & O are 12. 1 and 16 g mol–1.
mteger)
52. A litre of buffer solution contains 0.1 mole of
Given : log 2 = 0.3010
each of NH3 and NH4Cl. On the addition of log 3 = 0.4771
0.02 mole of HCl by dissolving gaseous HCl, log 5 = 0.6989
the pH of the solution is found to be 57. The total number of lone pairs of electrons on
_________× 10–3 (Nearest integer) oxygen atoms of ozone is_____
[Given : pKb(NH3) = 4.745 58. In sulphur estimation. 0.471 g of an organic

compound gave 1.4439 g of barium sulphate.
log 2 = 0.301
The percentage of sulphur in the compound
log 3 = 0.477
is_____________(Nearest Integer)
T = 298 K]
(Given: Atomic mass Ba: 137 u: S: 32 u, O: 16 u )
53. The osmotic pressure of solutions of PVC in 59. The number of paramagnetic species from the
cyclohexanone at 300 K are plotted on the following is_____.
graph. [Ni(CN)4]2–, [Ni(CO)4], [NiCl4]2–
The molar mass of PVC is___________g mol–1 [Fe(CN)6]4–, [Cu(NH3)4]2+

[Fe(CN)6]3– and [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(Nearest integer)
60. Consider the cell
π Pt(s) H 2 (s) (1atm) H + (aq,[H + ] = 1) Fe 3+ (aq), Fe 2+ (aq) Pt(s)
C
(Atm/g L–1) Given : E °Fe3+ / Fe2+ = 0.771V and E ° +=
1 = 298K
0V,T
H / H2
2
If the potential of the cell is 0.712 V the ratio of

C(g L –1)
concentration of Fe2+ to Fe2+ is____(Nearest
(Given : R = 0.083 L atm K–1 mol–1) integer)
E 31
MATHEMATICS 64. The value of
SECTION-A
61. Let M be the maximum value of the product of 1 + 2 − 3 + 4 + 5 − 6 + ... + (3n − 2) + (3n − 1) − 3n
Lim
two positive integers when their sum is 66. Let
n→∞
2n 4 + 4n + 3 − n 4 + 5n + 4
is :
the sample space S =  x ∈ Z : x(66 − x) ≥ 5 M 
 9  2 +1
(1) (2) 3( 2 + 1)
=
and the event A { x ∈S : x is a multiple of 3} . 2
3 3
Then P(A) is equal to (3) ( 2 + 1) (4)
2 2 2
15 1
(1) (2) 65. The points of intersection of the line
44 3
ax + by = 0, (a ≠ b) and the circle
1 7
(3)
5
(4)
22 x 2 + y 2 − 2x =
0 are A(α,0) and B(1, β) .
®
   The image of the circle with AB as a diameter
62. Let a, b and c be three non zero vectors such
  in the line x + y + 2 = 0 is :
    b−c 
that b·c = 0 and a × (b × c) = . If d be a (1) x 2 + y 2 + 5x + 5y + 12 =
0
2
  (2) x 2 + y 2 + 3x + 5y + 8 =0
vector such that b·d = a·b , then
    (3) x 2 + y 2 + 3x + 3y + 4 =0
(a × b)·(c × d) is equal to
(4) x 2 + y 2 − 5x − 5y + 12 =
0
3 1
(1) (2) 66. The mean and variance of the marks obtained
4 2
1 1 by the students in a test are 10 and 4
(3) − (4) respectively. Later, the marks of one of the
4 4
students is increased from 8 to 12. If the new
63. Let y = y(x) be the solution curve of the
mean of the marks is 10.2. then their new
differential equation dy =y (1 + xy 2 (1 + log e x)) ,
dx x variance is equal to :
(1) 4.04 (2) 4.08
y 2 (x)
x > 0, y(1) = 3. Then is equal to : (3) 3.96 (4) 3.92
9
67. Let
x2
(1) y(x) =+
(1 x)(1 + x 2 )(1 + x 4 )(1 + x 8 )(1 + x16 ) .
5 − 2x 3 (2 + log e x 3 )
Then y '− y" at x = −1 is equal to
(1) 976 (2) 464
x2
(2) (3) 496 (4) 944
2x 3 (2 + log e x 3 ) − 3 
68. The vector a =− î + 2ˆj + kˆ is rotated through a
right angle, passing through the y-axis in its
x2 
(3)
3x 3 (1 + log e x 2 ) − 2 way and the resulting vector is b . Then the
  
projection of 3a + 2b on c = 5iˆ + 4ˆj + 3kˆ is
x2 (1) 3 2 (2) 1
(4)
7 − 3x 3 (2 + log e x 2 )
(3) 6 (4) 2 3
32 E
69. The minimum value of the function 73. The distance of the point (6, −2 2) from the
2
common tangent y = mx + c, m > 0, of the
f (x) = ∫ e x − t dt is
0 curves x = 2y 2 and x = 1 + y 2 is
(1) 2(e − 1) (2) 2e − 1 1 14
(1) (2) 5 (3) (4) 5 3
(3) 2 (4) e(e − 1) 3 3
74. Let S1 and S2 be respectively the sets of all
70. Consider the lines L1 and L2 given by
a ∈ R − {0} for which the system of linear
x −1 y − 3 z − 2
L1 : = = equations
2 1 2
ax + 2ay − 3az =
1
x−2 y−2 z−3
L2 : = = (2a + 1)x + (2a + 3)y + (a + 1)z =
2
1 2 3
(3a + 5)x + (a + 5)y + (a + 2)z =
3
A line L3 having direction ratios 1, –1, –2,
has unique solution and infinitely many
intersects L1 and L2 at the points P and Q
®
solutions. Then
respectively. Then the length of line segment PQ is
(1) n(S1) = 2 and S2 is an infinite set
(1) 2 6 (2) 3 2 (2) S1 is an infinite set an n(S2) = 2
(3) 4 3 (4) 4 (3) S1 = Φ and S2=  − {0}
71. Let x = 2 be a local minima of the function (4) S=
1  − {0} and S2 = Φ
f (x) = 2x 4 − 18x 2 + 8x + 12 , x ∈ ( −4,4) . If 2x
75. Let f (x) = ∫ (x 2
+ 1)(x 2 + 3)
dx .
M is local maximum value of the function f in
1
(–4, 4), then M = =
If f (3) (log e 5 − log e 6) , then f(4) is equal to
2
33 31
(1) 12 6 − (2) 12 6 − 1
2 2 (1) (log e 17 − log e 19) (2) log e 17 − log e 18
2
33 31 1
(3) 18 6 − (4) 18 6 − (3) (log e 19 − log e 17) (4) log e 19 − log e 20
2 2 2
72. Let z1= 2 + 3i and z 2= 3 + 4i . The set 76. The statement (p ∧ (  q)) ⇒ (p ⇒ (  q)) is
(1) equivalent to (  p) ∨ (  q)
{z ∈C : z − z }
2 2 2
S= 1 − z − z 2 = z1 − z 2
(2) a tautology
(3) equivalent to p ∨ q
represents a
(4) a contradiction
(1) straight line with sum of its intercepts on the 77. Let f : (0,1) →  be a function defined by
1
coordinate axes equals 14 f (x) = , and
1 − e− x
(2) hyperbola with the length of the transverse g(x) = (f ( − x) − f (x)) . Consider two statements
(I) g is an increasing function in (0, 1)
axis 7
(II) g is one-one in (0, 1)
(3) straight line with the sum of its intercepts on Then,
(1) Only (I) is true
the coordinate axes equals –18 (2) Only (II) is true
(3) Neither (I) nor (II) is true
(4) hyperbola with eccentricity 2
(4) Both (I) and (II) are true
E 33
Let S =α : log 2 (92 α−4 + 13) − log 2  5 .32 α−4 + 1 =2 .
78. The distance of the point P(4, 6, –2) from the
84.
line passing through the point (–3, 2, 3) and  2  
parallel to a line with direction ratios 3, 3, –1 is Then the maximum value of β for which the
equal to : 2
 
(1) 3 (2) 6 equation x − 2  ∑ α  x + ∑ (α + 1) 2 β = 0
2
 α∈s  α∈s
(3) 2 3 (4) 14 has real roots, is ____ .

79. Let x, y,z > 1 and 85. The constant term in the expansion of
5
1 log x y log x z   1 2
  2x + 7 + 3x  is ____ .
A = log y x 2 log y z  . x
log z x log z y 3  86. Let A1, A2, A3 be the three A.P. with the same
common difference d and having their first
Then adj(adj A 2 ) is equal to terms as A, A + 1, A + 2, respectively. Let a, b,
®
c be the 7th, 9th, 17th terms of A1, A2, A3,
(1) 64 (2) 28
(3) 48 (4) 24 a 7 1
80. If ar is the coefficient of x10–r in the Binomial respectively such that 2b 17 1 + 70 =
0
2 c 17 1
 a  10
expansion of (1 + x) , then ∑ r  r  is
10 3
If a = 29, then the sum of first 20 terms of an
r =1  a r −1 
AP whose first term is c – a – b and common
equal to d
(1) 4895 (2) 1210 difference is , is equal to ______ .
12
(3) 5445 (4) 3025 87. If the sum of all the solutions of
SECTION-B
 2x  −1  1 − x  π
2
tan −1  2
+ cot   = ,
81. Let S = {1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 10, 11}. The number of 1− x   2x  3
non-empty subsets of S that have the sum of all 4
−1 < x < 1, x ≠ 0, is α − , then α is equal
elements a multiple of 3, is ____ . 3
82. For some a, b,c ∈ , let f(x) = ax – 3 and to ____ .
88. Let the equation of the plane passing through
g(x) =x b + c, x ∈ .
If
the line x − 2y − z − 5 = 0 = x + y + 3z − 5
 x − 7
1/3
and parallel to the line x + y + 2z – 7 = 0 = 2x +
(fog) −1 (x) = 
 2 
, then (fog) (ac) + (gof)
3y + z – 2 be ax + by + cz = 65. Then the
distance of the point (a, b, c) from the plane
(b) is equal to ____ .
2x + 2y – z + 16 = 0 is __ .
83. The vertices of a hyperbola H are ( ±6,0) and 89. Let x and y be distinct integers where
1 ≤ x ≤ 25 and 1 ≤ y ≤ 25 . Then, the number
5
its eccentricity is . Let N be the normal to of ways of choosing x and y, such that x + y is
2
divisible by 5, is _____ .
H at a point in the first quadrant and parallel to
90. It the area enclosed by the parabolas
the line 2x + y =2 2 . If d is the length of P1 : 2y = 5x2 and P2 : x2 – y + 6 = 0 is equal to
the area enclosed by P1 and y = αx, α > 0 ,
the line segment of N between H and the y-axis
then d2 is equal to _____ . then α 3 is equal to _____.
34 E
SET # 04
PHYSICS 4. For a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection
SECTION-A in the coil is 0.05 rad when a current of 10 mA
1. Match List-I with List-II is passed through it. If the torsional constant of
suspension wire is 4.0 × 10–5 Nm rad–1, the
List-I List-II
magnetic field is 0.01 T and the number of turns
A. Young's Modulus (Y) I. [M L–1 T–1]
in the coil is 200, the area of each turn (in cm2)
B. Co-efficient of Viscosity (η) II. [M L2 T–1]
is :
C. Planck's Constant (h) III. [M L–1 T–2]
(1) 2.0 (2) 1.0
D. Work Function (φ) IV. [M L2 T–2]
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) 1.5 (4) 0.5
given below: 5. The graph between two temperature scales P
®
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I and Q is shown in the figure. Between upper
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
fixed point and lower fixed point there are 150
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
equal divisions of scale P and 100 divisions on
scale Q. The relationship for conversion
2. According to law of equipartition of energy the
molar specific heat of a diatomic gas at constant between the two scales is given by :
volume where the molecule has one additional

vibrational mode is :-
180
9 5
Temperature (°P)
(1) R (2) R
2 2
(3)
3
R (4)
7
R ∆tP = 150°
2 2
3. The light rays from an object have been

reflected towards an observer from a standard

∆tq = 100°
flat mirror, the image observed by the observer
Temperature (°Q)
are :-
A. Real
B. Erect tQ t P − 180
(1) =
C. Smaller in size then object 150 100
D. Laterally inverted
tQ t P − 30
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (2) =
100 150
options given below :
tP t − 40
(1) B and D only (3) = Q
180 100
(2) B and C only
(3) A and D only tP t − 180
(4) = Q
(4) A, C and D only 100 150
E 35
6. Match List I with List II : 8. Consider a block kept on an inclined plane
A. Gauss’s Law in I.   dφ (inclined at 45°) as shown in the figure. If the
Electrostatics
∫ .dl = − dtB
E force required to just push it up the incline is
  2 times the force required to just prevent it from

B. Faraday’s Law II.
∫ B.dA =0 sliding down, the coefficient of friction between
the block and inclined plane (µ) is equal to :
C. Gauss’s Law in III.   dφ
∫ B.dl = µ0iC + µ0 ∈0 dtE
Magnetism
D. Ampere- IV.   q
Maxwell Law
∫ E.ds =
∈0
45o
(1) 0.33 (2) 0.60

(3) 0.25 (4) 0.50
®
given below :
9. A point charge of 10 µC is placed at the origin.
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
At what location on the X-axis should a point
charge of 40µC be placed so that the net electric
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II field is zero at x = 2 cm on the X-axis ?
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(1) x = 6 cm (2) x = 4 cm
7. Statement I : When a Si sample is doped with
(3) x = 8 cm (4) x = –4 cm
Boron, it becomes P type and when doped by
Arsenic it becomes N-type semi conductor such 10. The energy levels of an atom is shown is figure.
Which one of these transitions will result in the
that P-type has excess holes and N-type has
emission of a photon of wavelength 124.1 nm ?
excess electrons.
Given (h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js)
Statement II : When such P-type and N-type
A B D
semi-conductors, are fused to make a junction, a 1 0.0 eV
C
current will automatically flow which can be 2 –2.2 eV

detected with an externally connected ammeter. 3 –5.2 eV
In the light of above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.
4 –10.0 eV
Options:
(1) B (2) A (3) C (4) D
(1) Both Statement I and statement II are
incorrect 11. A particle executes simple harmonic motion
between x = –A and x = +A. If time taken by
A
correct particle to go from x = 0 to is 2s; then time
2
(3) Both Statement I and statement II are
A
correct taken by particle in going from x = to A is :
2
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is (1) 3 s (2) 2 s
incorrect (3) 1.5 s (4) 4 s
36 E
12. Match List I with List II : 14. A body of mass is taken from earth surface to
List I List II the height h equal to twice the radius of earth
A. Isothermal I. Work done by the (Re), the increase in potential energy will be :
Process gas decreases (g = acceleration due to gravity on the surface
internal energy of Earth)
B. Adiabatic II. No change in (1) 3mgRe
Process internal energy
1
C. Isochoric III. The heat absorbed (2) mgR e
3
Process goes partly to
increase internal
2
(3) mgR e
energy and partly 3
to do work 1
(4) mgR e
®
D. Isobaric IV. No work is done 2
Process on or by the gas 15. A wire of length 1 m moving with velocity
Choose the correct answer from the options 8 m/s at right angles to a magnetic field of 2T.
given below :
The magnitude of induced emf, between the
ends of wire will be _______ :
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(1) 20 V (2) 8 V
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (3) 12 V (4) 16 V
13. Match List I with List II 16. The distance travelled by a particle is related to
List I List II time t as x = 4t2. The velocity of the particle at

A. Troposphere I. Approximate t = 5s is .
65-75 km over (1) 40 ms–1 (2) 25 ms–1
Earth’s surface (3) 20 ms–1 (4) 8 ms–1
B. E-Part of II. Approximate 17. Two objects are projected with same velocity
Stratosphere 300 km over
‘u’ however at different angles α and β with the

Earth’s surface
C. F2-Part of III. Approximate horizontal. If α + β = 90°, the ratio of horizontal
Thermosphere 10 km over range of the first object to the 2nd object will
Earth’s surface be:
D. D-Part of IV. Approximate (1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
Stratosphere 100 km over
Earth’s surface (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1
Choose the correct answer from the options 18. The resistance of a wire is 5 Ω. It’s new
given below :
resistance in ohm if stretched to 5 times of it’s
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
original length will be :
(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(1) 625 (2) 5
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (3) 125 (4) 25
E 37
19. Given below are two statements : SECTION-B
Statement I : Stopping potential in 21. A capacitor has capacitance 5µF when it’s
photoelectric effect does not depend on the parallel plates are separated by air medium of
power of the light source. thickness d. A slab of material of dielectric
Statement II : For a given metal, the maximum constant 1.5 having area equal to that of plates
kinetic energy of the photoelectron depends on d

but thickness is inserted between the plates.
the wavelength of the incident light. 2
Capacitance of the capacitor in the presence of
slab will be _____µF.
22. A train blowing a whistle of frequency 320 Hz
below.
Options : approaches an observer standing on the
®
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is platform at a speed of 66 m/s. The frequency
correct
observed by the observer will be (given speed
of sound = 330 ms–1) _______ Hz.
incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is 23. An object is placed on the principal axis of
incorrect
convex lens of focal length 10 cm as shown. A
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
plane mirror is placed on the other side of lens
20. Every planet revolves around the sun in an
elliptical orbit : at a distance of 20 cm. The image produced by
A. The force acting on a planet is inversely the plane mirror is 5 cm inside the mirror. The
proportional to square of distance from sun.
distance of the object from the lens is ____ cm.
B. Force acting on planet is inversely

proportional to product of the masses of the
O
planet and the sun
C. The centripetal force acting on the planet is 20 cm
directed away from the sun. L M
D. The square of time period of revolution of 24. Two long parallel wires carrying currents 8A
planet around sun is directly proportional to and 15 A in opposite directions are placed at a
cube of semi-major axis of elliptical orbit. distance of 7 cm from each other. A point P is at
Choose the correct answer from the options equidistant from both the wires such that
given below : the lines joining the point P to the wires
Options : are perpendicular to each other. The magnitude

of magnetic field at P is __________ × 10–6 T.
(1) A and D only (2) C and D only
(3) B and C only (4) A and C only
(Given : 2 = 1.4)
38 E
25. A spherical drop of liquid splits into 1000 CHEMISTRY
identical spherical drops. If ui is the surface SECTION-A
energy of the original drop and uf is the total 31. Match List I with List II
surface energy of the resulting drops, the
List I List II
u  10 
(ignoring evaporation). f =   . Then value A. Cobalt catalyst I. (H2 + Cl2)
ui  x 
production
of x is _____ :
26. A body of mass 1 kg collides head on elastically B. Syngas II. Water gas
with a stationary body of mass 3 kg. After production
collision, the smaller body reverses its direction C. Nickel catalyst III. Coal
of motion and moves with a speed of 2m/s. The
gasification
initial speed of the smaller body before collision
is _______ ms–1. D. Brine solution IV. Methanol
®
27. A nucleus disintegrates into two smaller parts, production
which have their velocities in the ratio 3 : 2. Choose the correct answer from the options
1
given below :-
 x 3
The ratio of their nuclear sizes will be   .
3 (1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
The value of ‘x’ is : (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

28. Two cells are connected between points A and (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
B as shown. Cell 1 has emf of 12 V and internal (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
resistance of 3Ω. Cell 2 has emf of 6V and
32. Given below are two statements :-
internal resistance of 6Ω. An external resistor R
Statement I :- In froth floatation method a
of 4Ω is connected across A and B. The current
flowing through R will be ______ A. rotating paddle agitates the mixture to drive air
12 V Cell 1 out of it.
3Ω Statement II :- Iron pyrites are generally
B avoided for extraction of iron due to

A
environmental reasons.
6V 6Ω Cell 2
29. A series LCR circuit is connected to an AC
source of 220 V, 50 Hz. The circuit contains a correct answer from the options given below :-
resistance R = 80Ω, an inductor of inductive (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
reactance XL = 70 Ω, and a capacitor of (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
capacitive reactance XC = 130 Ω. The power (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
x
factor of circuit is . The value of x is : (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
10
33. Which of the following represents the correct
30. If a solid sphere of mass 5 kg and a disc of mass
order of metallic character of the given elements ?
4 kg have the same radius. Then the ratio of
(1) Si < Be < Mg < K
moment of inertia of the disc about a tangent in
(2) Be < Si < Mg < K
its plane to the moment of inertia of the sphere
(3) K < Mg < Be < Si
x
about its tangent will be . The value of x is _. (4) Be < Si < K < Mg
7
E 39
34. Given below are two statements, one is labelled 37. Given below are two statements, one is labelled
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R Reason R
Assertion A :- The alkali metals and their salts
Assertion A :- Butylated hydroxyl anisole
impart characteristic colour to reducing flame.
when added to butter increases its shelf life.
Reason R :- Alkali metals can be detected
using flame tests. Reason R :- Butylated hydroxyl anisole is more
In the light of the above statements, choose the reactive towards oxygen than food.
most appropriate answer form the options given In the light of the above statements, choose the
below
below :-
®
(2) A is correct but R is not correct. (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
(3) A is not correct but R is correct correct explanation of A.
correct explanation of A. (2) A is correct but R is not correct.
35. What is the mass ratio of ethylene glycol (3) A is not correct but R is correct.
(C2H6O2, molar mass = 62 g/mol) required for
making 500 g of 0.25 molal aqueous solution (4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
and 250 mL of 0.25 molar aqueous solution ? correct explanation of A.
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 38. A. Ammonium salts produce haze in
36. Statement I :- Dipole moment is a vector atmosphere.
quantity and by convention it is depicted by a B. Ozone gets produced when atmospheric
small arrow with tail on the negative centre and
oxygen reacts with chlorine radicals.
head pointing towards the positive centre.

Statement II :- The crossed arrow of the dipole C. Polychlorinated biphenyls act as cleansing
moment symbolizes the direction of the shift of
solvents.
charges in the molecules.
In the light of the above statements, choose the D. ‘Blue baby’ syndrome occurs due to the
most appropriate answer from the options given presence of excess of sulphate ions in water.
below :- Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :-
correct.
(1) A, B and C only
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct. (2) B and C only
incorrect. (3) A and D only
(4) A and C only
incorrect.
40 E
39. Match List I with List II 42. Match List I with List II
List I (Amines) List II (pKb) List I List II (Uses)
(Name of polymer)
A. Aniline I. 3.25 A. Glyptal I. Flexible pipes
B. Ethanamine II. 3.00 B. Neoprene II. Synthetic wool
C. Acrilan III. Paints and Lacquers
C. N-Ethylethanamine III. 9.38
D. LDP IV. Gaskets
D. N, N-Diethylethanamine IV. 3.29 Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :-
(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
given below :-
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
43. Given below are two statements, one is labelled
®
Reason R
40. Which one among the following metals is the Assertion A :- Carbon forms two important
weakest reducing agent ? oxides – CO and CO2. CO is neutral whereas
CO2 is acidic in nature.
(1) K (2) Rb
Reason R :- CO2 can combine with water in a
(3) Na (4) Li
limited way to form carbonic acid, while CO is
41. Match List I with List II. sparingly soluble in water.
List I List II In the light of the above statements, choose the
Isomeric pairs Type of isomers
below :-
A. Propanamine and I. Metamers
N-Methylethanamine correct explanation of A.
B. Hexan-2-one and II. Positional (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the
Hexan-3-one isomers
(3) A is not correct but R is correct.

C. Ethanamide and III. Functional (4) A is correct but R is not correct.
Hydroxyethanimine isomers 44. Potassium dichromate acts as a strong oxidizing
D. o-nitrophenol and IV. Tautomers agent in acidic solution. During this process, the
oxidation state changes from
p-nitrophenol
(1) + 3 to + 1 (2) + 6 to + 3
(3) + 2 to + 1 (4) + 6 to + 2
45. When the hydrogen ion concentration [H+]
given below :- changes by a factor of 1000, the value of pH of
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II the solution _______.
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (1) increases by 1000 units
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (2) decreases by 3 units
(3) decreases by 2 units
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) increases by 2 units
E 41
46. Match List I with List II 48. ‘A’ in the given reaction is
List-I List-II
+
Coordination Wavelength of
entity light absorbed
in nm
A. [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ I. 310 (1)
B. [Co(NH3)6]3+ II. 475
C. [Co(CN)6]3– III. 535

(2)
D. [Cu(H2O)4]2+ IV. 600
®
given below :- (3)
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4)
(4) A- II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 49. The isomeric deuterated bromide with
molecular formula C4H8DBr having two chiral
47. Find out the major product from the following
carbon atoms is
reaction.
(1) 2–Bromo–1–deuterobutane
2 4 (2) 2–Bromo–2–deuterobutane
(3) 2–Bromo–3–deuterobutane
(4) 2–Bromo–1–deutero–2–methylpropane
50. A chloride salt solution acidified with dil.
(1)
HNO3 gives a curdy white precipitate, [A], on
addition of AgNO3. [A] on treatment with
NH4OH gives a clear solution, B.
(2) (1) H[AgCl3] & [Ag(NH3)2]Cl
(2) H[AgCl3] & (NH4)[Ag(OH)2]
(3) AgCl & [Ag(NH3)2]Cl
(4) AgCl & (NH4)[Ag(OH)2]
(3)
SECTION-B
51. The number of given orbitals which have
electron density along the axis is _______
(4)
p x ,p y ,pz ,d xy ,d yz ,d xz ,d 2 ,d
z x2 −y2
42 E
52. Number of compounds giving (i) red 56. Number of hydrogen atoms per molecule of a
colouration with ceric ammonium nitrate and hydrocarbon A having 85.8% carbon is __
also (ii) positive iodoform test from the (Given : Molar mass of A = 84 g mol–1)
following is _______
57. Pt ( s ) H2 ( g ) (1bar ) H+ ( aq ) (1M) M3+ ( aq ),M+ ( aq ) Pt ( s )
The Ecell for the given cell is 0.1115 V at 298 K

3
 M + ( aq ) 
when   = 10a
+
 M ( aq ) 
3
 
The value of a is ________
Given : E θM3+ /M+ = 0.2 V
®
2.303 RT
= 0.059 V
F
53. The number of pairs of the solution having the 58. Based on the given figure, the number of
same value of the osmotic pressure from the correct statement/s is/are _______
following is ________.
(Assume 100% ionization)
A. 0.500 M C2H5OH (aq) and 0.25 M KBr (aq)
B. 0.100 M K4[Fe(CN)6] (aq) and 0.100 M
FeSO4(NH4)2SO4 (aq)
C. 0.05 M K4[Fe(CN)6] (aq) and 0.25 M NaCl
(aq)
D. 0.15 M NaCl (aq) and 0.1 M BaCl2 (aq)
E. 0.02 M KCl. MgCl2. 6H2O (aq) and 0.05 M
KCl (aq) A. Surface tension is the outcome of equal

54. 28.0 L of CO2 is produced on complete attractive and repulsion forces acting on the
combustion of 16.8 L gaseous mixture of ethene liquid molecule in bulk.
and methane at 25ºC and 1 atm. Heat evolved B. Surface tension is due to uneven forces
during the combustion process is ________ kJ. acting on the molecules present on the
Given : ∆HC (CH4) = –900 kJ mol–1 surface.
∆HC (C2H4) = –1400 kJ mol–1 C. The molecule in the bulk can never come to
55. Total number of moles of AgCl precipitated on the liquid surface.
addition of excess of AgNO3 to one mole each D. The molecules on the surface are
of the following complexes [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl, responsible for vapour pressure if the

[Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 , [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] and [Pd(NH3)4]Cl2 system is a closed system.
is
E 43
59. A first order reaction has the rate constant, 62. Let z be a complex number such that
–3 –1
k = 4.6 × 10 s . The number of correct
z − 2i
statement/s from the following is/are ________. = 2, z ≠ −i. Then z lies on the circle of
z+i
Given : log 3 = 0.48
radius 2 and centre
A. Reaction completes in 1000 s.
(1) (2, 0) (2) (0, 0)
B. The reaction has a half-life of 500 s.
(3) (0, 2) (4) (0, –2)
C. The time required for 10% completion is 25
63. If the function
times the time required for 90% completion.
 λ π
D. The degree of dissociation is equal to (1 + cos x ) cos x , 0 < x < 2

 π
®
(1 – e–kt). f (x) =
 µ , x = is continuous
 2
E. The rate and the rate constant have the same  cot 6x
π
 e
cot 4x
, <x<π
unit.  2
π
60. The number of incorrect statement/s from the at x = , then 9λ + 6 log e µ + µ 6 − e6 λ is
2
following is/are _______
equal to
A. Water vapours are adsorbed by anhydrous (1) 11 (2) 8
calcium chloride. 4
(3) 2e +8 (4) 10
B. There is a decrease in surface energy during 64. Let f(x) = 2x n + λ, λ ∈ , n ∈  , and
adsorption.
f(4)=133, f(5)=255. Then the sum of all the
C. As the adsorption proceeds, ∆H becomes
positive integer divisors of (f(3)–f(2)) is
more and more negative.
(1) 61 (2) 60
D. Adsorption is accompanied by decrease in
entropy of the system. (3) 58 (4) 59
MATHEMATICS
65. If the four points, whose position vectors are
SECTION-A
61. Let the function f(x)=2x3 + (2p–7)x2+3(2p–9)x–6 3iˆ − 4ˆj + 2k,
ˆ î + 2ˆj − k,
ˆ −2iˆ − ˆj + 3kˆ and
have a maxima for some value of x < 0 and a

5iˆ − 2αˆj + 4kˆ are coplanar, then α is equal to
minima for some value of x > 0. Then, the set of
all values of p is 73 107
(1) (2) −
9   9 17 17
(1)  , ∞  (2)  0, 
2   2 73 107
(3) − (4)
 9  9 9 17 17
(3)  −∞,  (4)  − , 
 2  2 2
44 E
 1 3  71. Let f :  →  be a function defined by

 10 
66. Let A=
10
 and
1 − i 
B= ,
f(x) = log m { }
2(sin x − cos x) + m − 2 , for
 −3 1  0 1
 10 
some m, such that the range of f is [0, 2]. Then
 10
the value of m is _______
where i= −1. If M=A BA, then the inverse
T
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4
2023 T
of the matrix AM A is 72. Let A, B, C be 3 × 3 matrices such that A is
1 − 2023i  1 0 symmetric and B and C are skew-symmetric.

(1) 
1 
(2)  
 −2023i 1 
Consider the statements
0
(S1)A13B26–B26A13 is symmetric
1 0 1 2023i  (S2) A26C13–C13A26 is symmetric
(3) 
1 
(4) 
 2023i 0 1  Then,
®
67. Let ∆, ∇ ∈ {∧, ∨} be such that (1) Only S2 is true
(2) Only S1 is true
(p → q)∆(p∇q) is a tautology. Then
(3) Both S1 and S2 are false
(1) ∆ = ∧, ∇ = ∨ (2) ∆ = ∨, ∇ = ∧ (4) Both S1 and S2 are true
(3) ∆ = ∨, ∇ = ∨ (4) ∆ = ∧, ∇ = ∧ 73. Let y = y(t) be a solution of the differential

dy
68. The number of numbers, strictly between equation + αy = γe −βt Where, α > 0, β > 0
dt
5000 and 10000 can be formed using the digits
and γ > 0. Then Lim y(t)
t →∞
1,3,5,7,9 without repetition, is
(1) is 0 (2) does not exist
(1) 6 (2) 12
(3) is 1 (4) is –1
(3) 120 (4) 72
6
69. The number of functions 74. ∑
k =0
51− k
C3 is equal to
f :{1, 2,3, 4} → {a ∈  : a ≤ 8} satisfying (1) 51

C4 – 45C4 (2) 51C3– 45C3
(3) 52C4–45C4
1 (4) 52C3–45C3
f(n)+ f (n + 1) = 1, ∀n ∈ {1, 2,3} is
n 75. The shortest distance between the lines
(1) 3 (2) 4 x + 1 = 2y = –12z and x = y + 2 = 6z – 6 is
(3) 1 (4) 2 5 3
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) (4)
2 2
70. The equations of two sides of a variable triangle
76. Let N be the sum of the numbers appeared
are x = 0 and y = 3, and its third side is a
when two fair dice are rolled and let the
tangent to the parabola y2 = 6x. The locus of its
probability that N − 2, 3N, N + 2 are in
circumcentre is :
k
(1) 4y2–18y–3x–18=0 geometric progression be . Then the value
48
(2) 4y2+18y+3x+18=0
of k is
(3) 4y2–18y+3x+18=0 (1) 2 (2) 4
2
(4) 4y –18y–3x+18=0 (3) 16 (4) 8
E 45
2
dx 82. Points P(–3,2),Q(9,10) and R(α,4)lie on a circle
77. The integral 16 ∫x is equal to
(x + 2)
C with PR as its diameter. The tangents to C at
3 2 2
1
the points Q and R intersect at the point S. If S
11 11 lies on the line 2x – ky = 1, then k is equal to__.
(1) + log e 4 (2) + log e 4 83. Let a ∈ R and let α, β be the roots of the
6 12
1
11 11 equation x 2 + 60 4 x + a =0 . If α4 + β4 = – 30,
(3) − log e 4 (4) − log e 4
12 6 then the product of all possible values of a is___.
78. Let T and C respectively be the transverse and 84. Suppose Anil’s mother wants to give 5 whole
conjugate axes of the hyperbola fruits to Anil from a basket of 7 red apples,
5 white apples and 8 oranges. If in the selected
16x2–y2+64x+4y+44 = 0. Then the area of the
5 fruits, at least 2 orange, at least one red apple
region above the parabola x2=y+4, below the and at least one white apple must be given, then
transverse axis T and on the right of the the number of ways, Anil’s mother can offer
®
conjugate axis C is: 5 fruits to Anil is____
85. If m and n respectively are the numbers of
44 28 positive and negative value of θ in the
(1) 4 6 + (2) 4 6 +
3 3 interval [–π, π]that satisfy the equation
44 28 θ 9θ
(3) 4 6 − (4) 4 6 − cos2θ cos =cos3θ cos , then mn is equal to
3 3 2 2
     ____.
79. Let a =− î − ˆj + k,
ˆ a.b =1 and a × b = î − ˆj . Then
 
3
m  n2 
a − 6b is equal to
86. If ∫ loge x dx =
1 n
log e   , where m and n are
 e 
( ) ( )
3
(1) 3 î − ˆj − kˆ (2) 3 î + ˆj + kˆ coprime natural numbers, then m2 + n2 – 5 is
(3) 3 ( î − ˆj + kˆ ) (4) 3 ( î + ˆj − kˆ )
equal to _____.
87. The remainder when (2023)2023 is divided by
80. The foot of perpendicular of the point (2, 0, 5) 35 is______.
88. If the shortest distance between the line joining
x +1 y −1 z +1
on the line = = is (α, β, γ). the points(1, 2, 3) and (2, 3, 4), and the line
2 5 −1
x −1 y +1 z − 2
Then. Which of the following is NOT correct? = = is α, then 28α2 is equal
2 −1 0
αβ 4 α to____.
(1) = (2) = −8
γ 15 β 89. 25% of the population are smokers. A smoker
has 27 times more chances to develop lung
β γ 5
(3) = −5 (4) = cancer then a non-smoker. A person is
γ α 8
diagnosed with lung cancer and the probability
SECTION-B k
that this person is a smoker is .Then the
81. For the two positive numbers a, b, if a, b and 10
value of k is _____.
1 1
are in a geometric progression, while , 10 90. A triangle is formed by X – axis, Y– axis and
18 a
the line 3x + 4y = 60. Then the number of
1
and are in an arithmetic progression, then, points P(a, b)which lie strictly inside the
b
triangle, where a is an integer and b is a
16a + 12b is equal to _____.
multiple of a, is_____.
46 E
SET # 05
PHYSICS By (0, a, z) By (0, a, z)
SECTION-A
(1) z (2) z
1. Match List I with List II :
List-I (Physical List-II
By (0, a, z) By (0, a, z)
Quantity) (Dimensional Formula)
A Pressure I  M 0 L2 T −2  (3) z (4) z
gradient
B Energy II  M1 L−1 T −2  5. The magnitude of magnetic induction at mid-
density point O due to current arrangement as shown in
C Electric Field III  M1 L−2 T −2 
Fig will be :
D Latent heat IV  M1 L1 T −3 A −1  T
®
I
Choose the correct answer from the options a
I B
given below: A
O E D
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV a
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I C
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
2. In a cuboid of dimension 2L × 2L × L , a charge
q is placed at the centre of the surface ‘S’ µ0 I
(1) (2) 0
having area of 4 L2. The flux through the 2 πa
opposite surface to ‘S’ is given by µ0 I µ0 I
q q (3) (4)
(1) (2) 4 πa πa
12ε 0 3ε0
6. Find the mutual inductance in the arrangement,
q q
(3) (4) when a small circular loop of wire of radius ‘R’
2ε0 6ε0
is placed inside a large square loop of wire of
3. Ratio of thermal energy released in two resistor
side L (L >> R). The loops are coplanar and
R and 3R connected in parallel in an electric
their centres coincide :
circuit is :
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 27
4. A single current carrying loop of wire carrying R
L L
current I flowing in anticlockwise direction seen O
from +ve z direction and lying in xy plane in
shown in figure. The plot of ĵ component of
magnetic field (By) at a distance ‘a’ (less than L
radius of the coil) and on yz plane vs z coordinate
2µ 0 R 2
look like (1) M =
L
y
2 2µ 0 R
(2) M =
L2
a 2 2µ 0 R 2
(3) M =
(0,0,0) z L
2µ 0 R
(4) M =
L2
E 47
7. Which of the following are true? 11. A car is moving on a horizontal curved road
A. Speed of light in vacuum is dependent on with radius 50 m. The approximate maximum
the direction of propagation. speed of car will be, if friction between tyres
B. Speed of light in a medium in independent and road is 0.34. [Take g = 10 ms-2]
of the wavelength of light. (1) 3.4 ms−1 (2) 22.4 ms−1
C. The speed of light is independent of the (3) 13 ms−1 (4) 17 ms−1
motion of the source. 12. Two particles of equal mass ‘m’ move in a
D. The speed of light in a medium is circle of radius ‘r’ under the action of their
independent of intensity. mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of
Choose the correct answer from the option each particle will be :
given below : GM 4GM
(1) (2)
2r r
(1) A and C only (2) B and D only
(3) B and C only (4) C and D only GM GM
(3) (4)
®
r 4r
8. In a Young’s double slit experiment, two slits
13. Surface tension of a soap bubble is
are illuminated with a light of wavelength
2.0 × 10 Nm −1 . Work done to increase the
−2
800 nm. The line joining A1P is perpendicular
radius of soap bubble from 3.5 cm to 7 cm will
to A1A2 as shown in the figure. If the first
22
minimum is detected at P, the value of slits be : [Take π = ]
7
separation ‘a’ will be :
(1) 0.72 × 10 −4 J (2) 5.76 × 10 −4 J
Source P (3) 18.48 × 10 −4 J (4) 9.24 × 10 −4 J
800 nm 14. Given below are two statements. One is labelled
A1 P
{
a as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
A2 Reason R.
D Assertion A : If dQ and dW represent the heat
supplied to the system and the work done on the
The distance of screen from slits D = 5 cm system respectively. Then according to the first
(1) 0.4 mm (2) 0.5 mm law of thermodynamics dQ = dU − dW .
(3) 0.2 mm (4) 0.1 mm Reason R : First law of thermodynamics is
9. A stone is projected at angle 30º to the based on law of conservation of energy.
horizontal. The ratio of kinetic energy of the In the light of the above statements, choose the
stone at point of projection to its kinetic energy correct answer from the option given below :
at the highest point of flight will be :
(2) A is not correct but R is correct
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 4 : 3
10. A block of mass m slides down the plane (4) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
g correct explanation of A
inclined at angle 30º with an acceleration . The
4 15. A bicycle tyre is filled with air having pressure
value of coefficient of kinetic friction will be : of 270 kPa at 27ºC. The approximate pressure
2 3 +1 1 of the air in the tyre when the temperature
(1) (2) increases to 36ºC is
2 2 3
3 2 3 −1 (1) 270 kPa (2) 262 KPa
(3) (4)
2 2 (3) 278 kPa (4) 360 kPa
48 E
16. A person observes two moving trains, ‘A’ Choose the correct answer from the options
reaching the station and ‘B’ leaving the station given below :
with equal speed of 30 m/s. If both trains emit
(1) C and D (2) A
sounds with frequency 300 Hz, (Speed of sound
(3) C (4) B
: 330 m/s) approximate difference of
frequencies heard by the person will be : SECTION-B
(1) 33 Hz (2) 55 Hz 21. A radioactive element 242
92 X emits two
(3) 80 Hz (4) 10 Hz α -particles, one electron and two positrons.
17. If the height of transmitting and receiving 234
The product nucleus is represented by P Y.
antennas are 80 m each, the maximum line of
The value of P is ____
sight distance will be :
Given : Earth’s radius = 6.4 × 106 m. 22. Two simple harmonic waves having equal
amplitudes of 8 cm and equal frequency of 10
(1) 32 km (2) 28 km
Hz are moving along the same direction. The
®
(3) 36 km (4) 64 km
resultant amplitude is also 8 cm. The phase
18. The threshold wavelength for photoelectric
difference between the individual waves is
emission from a material is 5500 Ǻ.
_____ degree.
Photoelectrons will be emitted, when this
23. A body cools from 60ºC to 40ºC in 6 minutes.
material is illuminated with monochromatic
If, temperature of surroundings is 10ºC. Then,
radiation from a
A. 75 W infra-red lamp after the next 6 minutes, its temperature will be
B. 10 W infra-red lamp ____ ºC.
C. 75 W ultra-violet lamp 24. A solid sphere of mass 2kg is making pure
D. 10 W ultra-violet lamp rolling on a horizontal surface with kinetic
Choose the correct answer from the options energy 2240 J. The velocity of centre of mass of
given below : the sphere will be ____ ms–1.
(1) B and C only (2) A and D only 25. A 0.4 kg mass takes 8s to reach ground when
(3) C only (4) C and D only dropped from a certain height ‘P’ above surface
19. If a radioactive element having half-life of
of earth. The loss of potential energy in the last
30 min is undergoing beta decay, the fraction of
second of fall is ____ J. [Take g = 10 m/s2]

radioactive element remains undecayed after
26. A tennis ball is dropped on to the floor from a
90 min. will be :
height of 9.8 m. It rebounds to a height 5.0 m.
1 1
(1) (2) Ball comes in contact with the floor for 0.2s.
8 16
The average acceleration during contact is ____
1 1
ms−2 . [Given g = 10 ms ]
–2
(3) (4)
4 2
20. Which of the following statement is not correct 27. A point charge q1 = 4q 0 is placed at origin.
in the case of light emitting diodes? Another point charge q 2 = −q 0 is placed at
A. It is a heavily doped p-n junction.
x = 12 cm. Charge of proton is q 0 . The proton
B. It emits light only when it is forward biased.
C. It emits light only when it is reverse biased. is placed on x-axis so that the electrostatic force
D. The energy of the light emitted is equal to or on the proton in zero. In this situation, the
slightly less than the energy gap of the position of the proton from the origin is ___ cm.
semiconductor used.
E 49
28. In a metre bridge experiment the balance point 32. The shortest wavelength of hydrogen atom in
in obtained if the gaps are closed by 2Ω and Lyman series is λ. The longest wavelength in
3Ω . A shunt of XΩ is added to 3Ω resistor to Balmer series of He+ is
shift the balancing point by 22.5 cm. The value 5 9λ 36λ 5λ
(1) (2) (3) (4)
of X is ____ 9λ 5 5 9
33. Which of the following salt solutions would
29. A certain elastic conducting material is
coagulate the colloid soloution formed when FeCl3
stretched into a circular loop. It is placed with
is added to NaOH solution, at the fastest rate?
its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic
(1) 10 mL of 0.2 mol dm-3 AlCl3
field
(2) 10 mL of 0.1 mol dm-3 Na2SO4
B = 0.8 T. When released the radius of the loop
(3) 10 mL of 0.1 mol dm-3 Ca3(PO4)2
starts shrinking at a constant rate of 2 cm–1. The
(4) 10 mL of 0.15 mol dm-3 CaCl2
induced emf in the loop at an instant when the
34. The bond dissociation energy is highest for
®
radius of the loop is 10 cm will be ____ mV.
(1) Cl2 (2) I2 (3) Br2 (4) F2
30. As shown in figures, three identical polaroids
35. The reaction representing the Mond process for
P1, P2 and P3 are placed one after another. The metal refining is ______
pass axis of P2 and P3 are inclined at angle of ∆
(1) Ni + 4CO → Ni(CO)4
60º and 90º with respect to axis of P1. The
∆
source S has an intensity of 256
W
. The (2) 2K[Au(CN)2]+Zn → K2 [Zn(CN)4]+2 Au
m2 ∆
(3) Zr + 2I2 → Zr I4
W
intensity of light at point O is − − − − − 2 . ∆
m (4) ZnO + C → Zn + CO
z 36. Which of the given compounds can enhance the
60° 90°
S efficiency of hydrogen storage tank?
O y
x (1) Li/P4
P1 P2 P3 (2) SiH4
CHEMISTRY (3) NaNi5

(4) Di-isobutylaluminium hydride
SECTION-A
37. The correct order of hydration enthalpies is
31. For 1 mol of gas, the plot of pV vs p is shown
(A) K+ (B) Rb+
below. p is the pressure and V is the volume of
(C) Mg2+ (D) Cs+
the gas.
(E) Ca2+
given below:
(1) C > A > E > B > D (2) E > C > A > B > D
(3) C > E > A > D > B (4) C > E > A > B > D
What is the value of compressibility factor at 38. The magnetic behaviour of Li2O, Na2O2 and
point A? KO2, respectively, are
a b (1) diamagnetic, paramagnetic and diamagnetic
(1) 1 − (2) 1 +
RTV V (2) paramagnetic, paramagnetic and diamagnetic
b a (3) paramagnetic, diamagnetic and paramagnetic
(3) 1 − (4) 1 +
V RTV (4) diamagnetic, diamagnetic and paramagnetic
50 E
39. “A” obtained by Ostwald’s method involving 44. The increasing order of pKa for the following
air oxidation of NH3, upon further air oxidation phenols is
produces “B”. “B” on hydration forms an (1) 2, 4-Dinitrophenol
oxoacid of Nitrogen along with evolution of
(2) 4 - Nitrophenol
“A”. The oxoacid also produces “A” and gives
(3) 2, 4, 5- Trimethylphenol
positive brown ring test
(4) 3-Chlorophenol
(1) NO2, N2O5 (2) NO2, N2O4
(3) NO, NO2 (4) N2O3, NO2 45. Match List I with List II.
40. The standard electrode potential (M3+/M2+) for List-I List-II
V, Cr, Mn & Co are -0.26 V, - 0.41 V, + 1.57 V Reaction Reagents
and +1.97 V, respectively. The metal ions (A) Hoffmann (I) Conc.KOH, ∆
which can liberate H2 from a dilute acid are Degradation
(1) V2+ and Mn2+ (2) Cr2+ and CO2+ (B) Clemenson (II) CHCl3,
®
(3) V2+ and Cr2+ (4) Mn2+ and Co2+ reduction NaOH/H3O+
41. Correct statement about smog is (C) Cannizaro (III) Br2, NaOH
(1) NO2 is present in classical smog
reaction
(2) Both NO2 and SO2 are present in classical smog
(D) Reimer-Tiemann (IV) Zn-Hg/HCl
(3) Photochemical smog has high concentration
reaction
of oxidizing agents
(4) Classical smog also has high concentration (1) (A) – III, (B) – IV, (C) – II, (D) - I
of oxidizing agents (2) (A) – II, (B) – IV, (C) – I, (D) - III
42. Chiral complex from the following is :
(3) (A) – III, (B) – IV, (C) – I, (D) - II
Here en = ethylene diamine
(4) (A) – II, (B) – I, (C) – III, (D) - IV
(1) cis – [PtCl2 (en)2]2+
(2) trans – [PtCl2(en)2]2+ 46. The major product ‘P’ for the following
(3) cis – [PtCl2(NH3)2] sequence of reactions is:
(4) trans – [Co(NH3)4 Cl2]+
43. Identify the correct order for the given property
for following compounds

(A) Boiling Point : Cl < Cl < Cl
(B) Density : Br < Cl < I (1)
Br Br OH
Br
(C) Boiling Point : Br < Br < Br
(2) Ph NH2
I< Br < Cl (3) Ph NH2

(D) Density:
Br
Br OH OH
(4) Ph NH2
(E) Boiling Point : Cl > Cl > Cl
Choose the correct answer from the option 47. During the borax bead test with CuSO4, a blue
given below :- green colour of the bead was observed in
(1) (B), (C) and (D) only oxidising flame due to the formation of
(2) (A), (C) and (E) only
(1) Cu3B2 (2) Cu
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only
(4) (A), (B) and (E) only (3) Cu(BO2)2 (4) CuO
E 51
48. Match List I with List II 54. Solid Lead nitrate is dissolved in 1 litre of
List I List II water. The solution was found to boil at
Antimicrobials Names 100.15ºC. When 0.2 mol of NaCl is added to
(A) Narrow Spectrum (I) Furacin the resulting solution, it was observed that the
Antibiotic solution froze at –0.8º C. The solutbility product
(B) Antiseptic (II) Sulphur dioxide of PbCl2 formed is ____ × 10–6 at 298 K.
(C) Disinfectants (III) Penicillin-G (Nearest integer)
(D) Broad spectrum (IV) Given : Kb = 0.5 K kg mol–1 and Kf = 1.8 kg mol–1.
antibiotic Chloramphenicol Assume molality to be equal to molarity in all
(1) (A) – III, (B) – I, (C) – II, (D) - IV cases.
(2) (A) – I, (B) – II, (C) – IV, (D) - III 55. Water decomposes at 2300 K
(3) (A) – II, (B) – I, (C) – IV, (D) - III 1
®
H 2 O(g) → H 2 ( g ) + O 2 (g)
(4) (A) – III, (B) – I, (C) – IV, (D) - II 2
49. Number of cyclic tripeptides formed with The percent of water decomposing at 2300 K
2 amino acids A and B is: and 1 bar is ________ (Nearest integer).
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 4
Equilibrium constant for the reaction is 2×10–3
50. Compound that will give positive Lassaigne’s
at 2300 K
test for both nitrogen and halogen is
56. Following figure shows dependence of molar
(1) N2H4.HCl (2) CH3NH2. HCl
conductance of two electrolytes on concentration.
(3) NH4Cl (4) NH2OH.HCl
0
SECTION-B Λ m is the limiting molar conductivity.
51. Millimoles of calcium hydroxyide required to
mol–1
produce 100 mL of the aqueous solution of pH 12

2
is x × 10–1. The value of x is __ (Nearest integer).

^m/s cm
Assume complete dissociation.

52. The number of molecules or ions from the

following, which do not have odd number of (mol / L)1/2
electrons are ________ . The number of Incorrect statement(s) from the
–
(A) NO2 (B) ICl 4 following is ________
(C) BrF3 (D) ClO2 0
(A) Λ m for electrolyte A is obtained by
(E) NO +2 (F) NO
extrapolation
53. Consider the following reaction approaching
(B) For electrolyte B, vx Λm vs c graph is a
equilibrium at 27ºC and 1 atm pressure
0

K f =103
C + D straight line with intercept equal to Λ m
A + B 
2 
K r =10
(C) At infinite dilution, the value of degree of
The standard Gibb’s energy change ∆ r G o ( ) at dissociation approach zero for electrolyte B.
0
27ºC is (–) _______ kJ mol–1 (Nearest integer). (D) Λ m for any electrolyte A or B can be
(Given : R = 8.3 J K–1 mol–1 and ln 10 = 2.3) calculated using λ º for individual ions.
52 E
57. For certain chemical reaction X → Y, the rate of MATHEMATICS
formation of product is plotted against the time SECTION-A
as shown in the figure. The number of Correct log ( x +1) ( x − 2 )

61. domain of f ( x )
The= , x ∈ R is
statement/s from the following is _______ e 2loge x − ( 2 x + 3)
y (1)  − {1 − 3}
Rate of
formation (2) (2, ∞) −{3}
(3) ( −1, ∞ ) − {3}
of product
(4)  − {3}
Linear Asymptotic Constant
x
Time
62. Let f :R → R be a function such that
(A) Over all order of this reaction is one
x 2 + 2x + 1
(B) Order of this reaction can’t be determined f (x) = . Then
x2 + 1
®
(C) In region-I and III, the reaction is of first (1) f(x) is many-one in (–∞, −1)
and zero order respectively (2) f(x) is many-one in (1, ∞)
(3) f(x) is one-one in [1, ∞) but not in (–∞, ∞)
(D) In region-II, the reaction is of first order
(4) f(x) is one-one in (–∞, ∞)
(E) In region-II, the order of reaction is in the
63. For two non-zero complex number z1 and z2, if
range of 0.1 to 0.9.
Re(z1z2) = 0 and Re(z1 + z2) = 0, then which of
58. The sum of bridging carbonyls in W(CO)6 and the following are possible ?
Mn2 (CO)10 is ________ . (A) Im(z1) > 0 and Im(z2) > 0
59. Following chromatogram was developed by (B) Im(z1) < 0 and Im(z2) > 0
adsorption of compound ‘A’ on a 6 cm TLC (C) Im(z1) > 0 and Im(z2) < 0
glass plate. Retardation factor of the compound (D) Im(z1) < 0 and Im(z2) < 0
‘A’ is ______ × 10–1. Choose the correct answer from the options
0.5 cm
Solvent Front
given below :
Compound A (1) B and D (2) B and C
3.5 cm
(3) A and B (4) A and C
64. Let λ ≠ 0 be a real number. Let α, β be the
0.5 cm
roots of the equation 14x2 – 3lx + 3λ = 0 and
60. 17 mg of a hydrocarbon (M.F. C10H16) takes up α, γ be the roots of the equation 35x2 – 53x + 4λ = 0.
8.40 mL of the H2 gas measured at 0ºC and 3α 4α
Then and are the roots of the
760 mm of Hg. Ozonolysis of the same β γ
hydrocarbon yields equation:
CH 3 – C – CH 3 –, H–C–H, H–C–CH 2 – CH 2 – C – C – H (1) 7x2 + 245x – 250 = 0

    
O O O O O (2) 7x2 − 245x + 250 = 0
The number of double bond/s present in the (3) 49x2 − 245x + 250 = 0
hydrocarbon is ________. (4) 49x2 + 245x + 250 = 0

E 53
65. Consider the following system of questions 69. Let
αx + 2y + z = 1
{
A = (x, y) ∈  2 : y ≥ 0, 2x ≤ y ≤ 4 − (x − 1) 2 }
2αx + 3y + z = 1
and
3x + αy + 2z = β
For some α , β ∈  . Then which of the
{ {
B = (x, y) ∈  ×  : 0 ≤ y ≤ min 2x, 4 − (x − 1) 2 }}
following is NOT correct. Then the ratio of the area of A to the area of B
(1) It has no solution if α = –1 and β ≠ 2 is
(2) It has no solution for α = –1 and for all β ∈ π −1 π

(1) (2)
π +1 π −1
(3) It has no solution for α = 3 and for all β ≠ 2
π π +1
(3) (4)
(4) It has a solution for all α ≠ −1 and β =2 π +1 π −1
®
66. Let α and β be real numbers. Consider a 70. Let ∆ be the area of the region
3 × 3 matrix A such that A2 = 3A + αI. If {(x, y) ∈  2 : x 2 + y 2 ≤ 21, y 2 ≤ 4x, x ≥ 1} . Then
A4 = 21A +βI, then 1 2 

 ∆ − 21sin −1  is equal to
(1) α = 1 (2) α = 4 2 7
(3) β =8 (4) β = −8 (1) 2 3 −

1
3
67. Let x = 2 be a root of the equation x2 + px + q = 0
2
1 − cos(x 2 − 4px + q 2 + 8q + 16) (2) 3−
and  , x ≠ 2p 3
f (x) =  (x − 2p) 4
 , x = 2p
 0 2
(3) 2 3 −
Then lim+ [f (x)] 3
x → 2p
4
(4) 3−
where [ . ] denotes greatest integer function, is 3
(1) 2 (2) 1 71. A light ray emits from the origin making an
(3) 0 (4) –1
angle 30º with the positive x-axis. After getting
a b
68. Let f ( x) =
x+ 2 sin x + 2 cos x , reflected by the line x + y = 1, if this ray
π −4 π −4
intersects x-axis at Q, then the abscissa of Q is
x∈ be a function which satisfies
π /2
2
( )
(1)
f ( x) =
x + ∫ sin ( x + y ) f ( y ) dy . Then 3 −1
0
(a + b) is equal to 2
(2)
3+ 3
(1) −π (π + 2 )
2
(2) −2π (π + 2 )
(3)
3− 3
(3) −2π (π − 2 ) 3
( )
(4)
3 +1
(4) −π (π − 2 )
2
54 E
ALLEN® JEE (MAIN) 2023 (Session 1) Test Papers
72. Let B and C be the two points on the line 76. Fifteen football players of a club-team are given
y + x = 0 such that B and C are symmetric with 15 T-shirts with their names written on the
respect to the origin. Suppose A is a point on backside. If the players pick up the T-shirts
y – 2x = 2 such that DABC is an equilateral randomly, then the probability that at least
triangle. Then, the area of the DABC is 3 players pick the correct T-shirt is
(1) 3 3 (2) 2 3 5 2
(1) (2)
24 15
8 10
(3) (4)
3 3 1 5
(3) (4)
6 36
73. Let the tangents at the points A (4, –11) and
æ æ 3p ö
B(8, –5) on the circle x2 + y2–3x + 10y – 15 = 0, 77. Let f ( q ) = 3 ç sin 4 ç
è è 2
ö
ø ø
(
- q ÷ + sin 4 ( 3p + q ) ÷ - 2 1 - sin 2 2q )
intersect at the point C. Then the radius of the
®
ìï 3 üï
circle, whose centre is C and the line joining A and S = íq Î [ 0, p ] : f ' (q ) = - ý.
ïî 2 ïþ
and B is its tangent, is equal to
3 3
(1)
4
(2) 2 13 If 4 b = å q , then f ( b ) is equal to
q ÎS
2 13 11 5
(3) 13 (4) (1) (2)
3 8 4
74. Let [x] denote the greatest integer £x. 9 3
(3) (4)
Consider the function f(x) = max {x2, 1+[x]}. 8 2
2
78. If p, q and r are three propositions, then which
Then the value of the integral ò f (x)dx is :
0 of the following combination of truth values of
5+4 2 p, q and r makes the logical expression
(1)
3
{( p Ú q ) Ù (( ~ p ) Ú r )} ® (( ~ q ) Ú r ) false ?
8+4 2
(2) (1) p = T, q = F, r = T
3
(2) p = T, q = T, r = F
1+ 5 2
(3)
3 (3) p = F, q = T, r = F
4+5 2 (4) p = T, q = F, r = F
(4)
3 79. There rotten apples are mixed accidently with
r r
75. If the vectors a = l iˆ + m ˆj + 4kˆ, b = - 2iˆ + 4 ˆj - 2kˆ and seven good apples and four apples are drawn
r one by one without replacement. Let the
c = 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + kˆ are coplanar and the projection
r r random variable X denote the number of rotten
of a on the vector b is 54 units, then the
apples. If m and s2 represent mean and variance
sum of all possible values of l + m is equal to
of X, respectively, then 10 (m2 + s2) is equal to
(1) 0 (2) 6
(1) 20 (2) 250
(3) 24 (4) 18
(3) 25 (4) 30
E 55
80. Let y = f(x) be the solution of the differential   
85. Let a , b and c be three non-zero non-
equation y(x + 1) dx – x2dy = 0, y(1) = e. Then coplanar vectors. Let the position vectors of
  
lim+ f ( x ) is equal to four points A, B, C and D be a − b + c ,
x →0
        
1 λa − 3b + 4c , −a + 2b − 3c and 2a − 4b + 6c
(1) 0 (2)   
e respectively. If AB, AC and AD are coplanar,
1 then λ is :
(3) e2 (4)
e2 86. If all the six digit numbers x1 x2 x3 x4 x5 x6 with
SECTION-B
0 < x1 < x2 < x3 < x4 < x5 < x6 are arranged in
81. Let the co-ordinates of one vertex of ∆ABC be
the increasing order, then the sum of the digits
A(0, 2, α) and the other two vertices lie on the
in the 72th number is _____.
®
x + α y −1 z + 4
line = = . For α ∈  , if the 87. Let f :  →  be a differentiable function that
5 2 3
satisfies the relation f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) –1,
area of ∆ABC is 21 sq. units and the line
∀x , y ∈  . If f '(0) = 2, then |f(–2)| is equal
segment BC has length 2 21 units, then α 2 is to____.
11
equal to _____.  3 1 
If the co-efficient of x in  αx +
9
βx 
88. and the

82. Let the equation of the plane P containing the
11
8− y  1 
line x + 10= = z be ax + by + 3z = 2(a+b) co-efficient of x –9
in  αx − 3  are equal,
2  βx 
and the distance of the plane P from the point then (αβ) 2 is equal to ____.
(1, 27, 7) be c. Then a2 + b2 + c2 is equal to
89. Let the coefficients of three consecutive terms
____.
in the binomial expansion of (l + 2x)n be in the
83. Suppose f is a function satisfying f(x + y) = f(x) +
1
f(y) for all x, y ∈  and f (1) = . If ratio
5
m
f (n) 1 2 : 5 : 8. Then the coefficient of the term, which
∑ n(n + 1)(n + 2) = 12 ,
n =1
then m is equal
is in the middle of these three terms, is______.
to_____.
84. Let a1, a2, a3, ..... be a GP of increasing positive 90. Five digit numbers are formed using the digits
numbers. If the product of fourth and sixth 1, 2, 3, 5, 7 with repetitions and are written in
terms is 9 and the sum of fifth and seventh descending order with serial numbers. For
terms is 24, then a1a9 + a2a4a9 + a5 + a7 is equal example, the number 77777 has serial number
to ____. 1. Then the serial number of 35337 is_____.
56 E
SET # 06
PHYSICS 5. The time taken by an object to slide down 45°
SECTION-A rough inclined plane is n times as it takes to
1. Substance A has atomic mass number 16 and slide down a perfectly smooth 45° incline plane.
half life of 1 day. Another substance B has The coefficient of kinetic friction between the
1 object and the incline plane is
atomic mass number 32 and half life of day.
2 1 1
If both A and B simultaneously start undergo (1) (2) 1−
1− n 2
n2
radio activity at the same time with initial mass
1 1
320 g each, how many total atoms of A and B (3) 1 + 2
(4) 1 −
n n2
combined would be left after 2 days.
6. Force acts for 20 s on a body of mass 20 kg,
(1) 3.38 × 1024 (2) 6.76 × 1024
(3) 6.76 × 10 23
(4) 1.69 × 1024 starting from rest, after which the force ceases
®
2. At 300 K, the rms speed of oxygen molecules is and then body describes 50 m in the next 10 s.
α+5 The value of force will be :
times to that of its average speed in the
α (1) 40 N (2) 5 N (3) 20 N (4) 10 N
22 7. A fully loaded boeing aircraft has a mass of
gas. Then, the value of α will be (used π = )
7 5.4 × 105 kg. Its total wing area is 500 m2. It is
(1) 32 (2) 28 in level flight with a speed of 1080 km/h. If the
(3) 24 (4) 27 density of air ρ is 1.2 kg m–3, the fractional
3. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of an increase in the speed of the air on the upper
α-particle and a proton accelerated from rest by surface of the wing relative to the lower surface
1 in percentage will be (g = 10 m/s2)
the same potential is , the value of m is (1) 16 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10
m
8. Identify the correct statements from the
(1) 4 (2) 16
following:
(3) 8 (4) 2
(A) Work done by a man in lifting a bucket out
4. For the given logic gates combination, the
of a well by means of a rope tied to the
correct truth table will be
bucket is negative.
A (B) Work done by gravitational force in lifting

a bucket out of a well by a rope tied to the
X bucket is negative.
(C) Work done by friction on a body sliding
B down an inclined plane is positive.
A B X A B X (D) Work done by an applied force on a body
(1) 0 0 1 (2) 0 0 0 moving on a rough horizontal plane with
0 1 0 0 1 1 uniform velocity in zero.
1 0 0 1 0 1
(E) Work done by the air resistance on an
1 1 0 1 1 0
oscillating pendulum in negative.
A B X A B X
(3) 0 0 1 (4) 0 0 0
given below:
0 1 0 0 1 1
1 0 1 1 0 1 (1) B and E only (2) A and C only
1 1 0 1 1 1 (3) B, D and E only (4) B and D only
E 57
9. An object moves at a constant speed along a 13. With the help of potentiometer, we can
circular path in a horizontal plane with centre at determine the value of emf of a given cell. The
sensitivity of the potentiometer is
the origin. When the object is at x = +2m, its
(A) directly proportional to the length of the
velocity is −4 ˆj m / s . The object’s velocity (v) potentiometer wire
and acceleration (a) at x = –2 m will be (B) directly proportional to the potential
gradient of the wire
= =
ˆ m / s, a 8ˆj m / s2
(1) v 4i
(C) inversely proportional to the potential
=
(2) v 4=
ˆj m / s, a 8iˆ m / s 2
gradient of the wire
(D) inversely proportional to the length of the
(3) v =
−4 ˆj m / s, a =
8iˆ m / s2
potentiometer wire
®
(4) v =
−4iˆ m / s, a =
−8ˆj m / s2 Choose the correct option for the above
statements:
10. A point charge 2 × 10–2 C is moved from P to S (1) B and D only (2) A and C only
(3) A only (4) C only
in a uniform electric field of 30 NC–1 directed
14. A scientist is observing a bacteria through a
along positive x-axis. If coordinates of P and S compound microscope. For better analysis and
are (1, 2, 0) m and (0, 0, 0) m respectively, the to improve its resolving power he should.
(Select the best option)
work done by electric field will be
(1) Increase the wave length of the light
(1) 1200 mJ (2) 600 mJ
(2) Increase the refractive index of the medium
(3) –600 mJ (4) –1200 mJ between the object and objective lens
11. The modulation index for an A.M. wave having (3) Decrease the focal length of the eye piece
(4) Decrease the diameter of the objective lens
maximum and minimum peak to peak voltages
15. Given below are two statements:
of 14 mV and 6 mV respectively is :
Statement I : Electromagnetic waves are not
(1) 1.4 (2) 0.4 deflected by electric and magnetic field.
(3) 0.2 (4) 0.6 Statement II : The amplitude of electric field
12. The electric current in a circular coil of four and the magnetic field in electromagnetic waves
µ0
turns produces a magnetic induction 32 T at its are related to each other as E 0 = B
ε0 0
centre. The coil is unwound and is rewound into
a circular coil of single turn, the magnetic
induction at the centre of the coil by the same (1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
current will be : (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(1) 8T (2) 4T (3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(3) 2T (4) 16T
58 E
16. Heat energy of 184 kJ is given to ice of mass 19. The equation of a circle is given by x2 + y2 = a2,
600 g at -12°C, Specific heat of ice is where a is the radius. If the equation is modified
2222.3 J kg–1° C–1 and latent heat of ice in to change the origin other than (0, 0), then find
336 kJ/kg–1 out the correct dimensions of A and B in a new
2
(A) Final temperature of system will be 0°C.  t
equation : (x − At) 2 +  y −  =
a2 .
(B) Final temperature of the system will be  B
greater than 0°C. The dimensions of t is given as [T–1].
(C) The final system will have a mixture of ice (1) A = [L–1 T], B = [LT–1]
and water in the ratio of 5 : 1. (2) A = (LT], B = [L–1T–1]
(D) The final system will have a mixture of ice (3) A = [L–1T–1], B = [LT–1]
and water in the ratio of 1 : 5. (4) A = [L–1T–1], B = [LT]
(E) The final system will have water only. 20. A square loop of area 25cm2 has a resistance of
10Ω. The loop is placed in uniform magnetic
®
given below: field of magnitude 40.0 T. The plane of loop is
(1) A and D only (2) B and D only perpendicular to the magnetic field. The work
(2) A and E only (4) A and C only done in pulling the loop out of the magnetic
17. For the given figures, choose the correct field slowly and uniformly in 1.0 sec, will be
options: (1) 2.5 × 10–3 J (2) 1.0 × 10–3 J
40Ω 50 mH 0.5 µF (3) 1.0 × 10–4 J (4) 5 × 10–3 J
40Ω SECTION-B
21. When two resistance R1 and R2 connected in
series and introduced into the left gap of a meter
bridge and a resistance of 10 Ω is introduced
220 V,50Hz 220 V,50Hz
(a) (b)
into the right gap, a null point is found at 60 cm
from left side. When R1 and R2 are connected in
(1) The rms current in circuit (b) can never be parallel and introduced into the left gap, a
resistance of 3 Ω is introduced into the right-
larger than that in (a)
gap to get null point at 40 cm from left end. The
(2) The rms current in figure (a) is always equal

product of R1 R2 is _____ Ω2
to that in figure (b)
22. A particle of mass 100 g is projected at time
(3) The rms current in circuit (b) can be larger t = 0 with a speed 20 ms–1 at an angle 45° to the
than that in (a) horizontal as given in the figure. The magnitude
(4) At resonance, current in (b) is less than that in (a) of the angular momentum of the particle about
18. The time period of a satellite of earth is 24 the starting point at time t = 2s is found to be
hours. If the separation between the earth and Kkg m 2 / s. The value of K is ________.
the satellite is decreased to one fourth of the (Take g = 10 ms–2)
previous value, then its new time period will Y
become.
(1) 4 hours (2) 6 hours
o
45
(3) 12 hours (4) 3 hours
0 X
E 59
23. In an experiment of measuring the refractive 27. A metal block of base area 0.20 m2 is placed on
index of a glass slab using travelling a table, as shown in figure. A liquid film of
microscope in physics lab, a student measures thickness 0.25 mm is inserted between the block
real thickness of the glass slab as 5.25 mm and and the table. The block is pushed by a
apparent thickness of the glass slab at 5.00 mm. horizontal force of 0.1 N and moves with a
Travelling microscope has 20 divisions in one
constant speed. If the viscosity of the liquid is
cm on main scale and 50 divisions on Vernier
5.0 × 10–3 Pl, the speed of block is __× 10–3 m/s.
scale is equal to 49 divisions on main scale. The
0.1 N
estimated uncertainty in the measurement of film
x
refractive index of the slab is × 10 −3 , where
10 Table
®
x is _________
24. For a charged spherical ball, electrostatic
potential inside the ball varies with r as
28. A particle of mass 250 g executes a simple
V = 2ar2 + b.
harmonic motion under a periodic force
Here, a and b are constant and r is the distance
F = (–25 x) N. The particle attains a maximum
from the center. The volume charge density
speed of 4m/s during its oscillation. The
inside the ball is –λaε. The value of λ is ____.
amplitude of the motion is ______cm.
ε = permittivity of medium.
29. Unpolarised light is incident on the boundary
25. A car is moving on a circular path of radius
between two dielectric media, whose dielectric
600 m such that the magnitudes of the
constants are 2.8 (medium –1) and 6.8
tangential acceleration and centripetal
(medium –2), respectively. To satisfy the
acceleration are equal. The time taken by the
condition, so that the reflected and refracted
car to complete first quarter of revolution, if it is
rays are perpendicular to each other, the angle
moving with an initial speed of 54 km/hr is
1
t(1–e–π/2)s. The value of t is ______. −1  10  2
of incidence should be tan 1 +  the
θ
26. An inductor of inductance 2 µH is connected in
value of θ is _____.
series with a resistance, a variable capacitor and
(Given for dielectric media, µr = 1)
an AC source of frequency 7 kHz. The value of
30. A null point is found at 200 cm in potentiometer
capacitance for which maximum current is drawn
1 when cell in secondary circuit is shunted by 5Ω.
into the circuit is F, where the value of x
x When a resistance of 15 Ω is used for shunting
is______. null point moves to 300 cm. The internal
22
(Take π = ) resistance of the cell is ______Ω.
7
60 E
CHEMISTRY 34. The set of correct statements is:
SECTION-A (i) Manganese exhibits +7 oxidation state in
31. Given below are two statements: its oxide.
Statement I : The decrease in first ionization
enthalpy from B to Al is much larger than that (ii) Ruthenium and Osmium exhibit +8
from Al to Ga. oxidation in their oxides.
Statement II : The d orbitals in Ga are (iii) Sc shows +4 oxidation state which is
completely filled.
oxidizing in nature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below (iv) Cr shows oxidising nature in +6 oxidation
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct. state.
(2) Both the statements I and II are correct (1) (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
incorrect
®
(4) Both the statements I and II are incorrect 35. Match List-I and List-II.
32. Correct order of spin only magnetic moment of List-I List-II
the following complex ions is:
A. Elastomeric I. Urea formaldehyde
(Given At. No. Fe: 26, Co:27)
polymer resin
(1) [FeF6 ]3− > [CoF6 ]3− > [Co(C2 O 4 )3 ]3−
B. Fibre polymer II. Polystyrene
(2) [Co(C2 O 4 )3 ]3− > [CoF6 ]3− > [FeF6 ]3−
C. Thermosetting III. Polyester
(3) [FeF6 ]3− > [Co(C2 O 4 )3 ]3− > [CoF6 ]3−
polymer
(4) [CoF6 ]3− > [FeF6 ]3− > [Co(C2 O 4 )3 ]3−
D. Thermoplastic IV. Neoprene
33. Match List-I and List-II.
polymer
List-I List-II
A. Osmosis I. Solvent molecules pass Choose the correct answer from the options
through semi permeable given below:
membrane towards solvent (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
side.
B. Reverse osmosis II. Movement of charged
colloidal particles under the (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

influence of applied electric (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
potential towards oppositely 36. An indicator ‘X’ is used for studying the effect
charged electrodes.
of variation in concentration of iodide on the
C. Electro osmosis III. Solvent molecules pass
through semi permeable rate of reaction of iodide ion with H2O2 at room
membrane towards solution temp. The indicator ‘X’ forms blue colored
side. complex with compound ‘A’ present in the
D. Electrophoresis IV. Dispersion medium
solution. The indicator ‘X’ and compound ‘A’
moves in an electric field.
Choose the correct answer from the options respectively are
given below: (1) Starch and iodine
(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (2) Methyl orange and H2O2
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (3) Starch and H2O2
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) Methyl orange and iodine
E 61
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SET # 07
PHYSICS 5. Choose the correct relationship between
SECTION-A Poisson ratio ( σ ). bulk modulus (K) and
1. The charge flowing in a conductor changes with modulus of rigidity ( η ) of a given solid object:
time as Q ( t ) = αt − βt + γt . Where α, β and
2 3
3K − 2η 6K + 2η
(1) σ = (2) σ =
γ are constants. Minimum value of current is : 6K + 2η 3K − 2η
3β2 γ2 3K + 2η 6K − 2η
(1) α − (2) α − (3) σ = (4) σ =
γ 3β 6K + 2η 3K − 2η
α2 β2
(3) β − (4) α − 6. The magnetic moments associated with two
3γ 3γ
2. The pressure (P) and temperature (T) relationship closely wound circular coils A and B of radius
®
of an ideal gas obeys the equation rA = 10 cm and rB = 20 cm respectively are
2
PT = constant. The volume expansion equal if: (Where NA, IA and NB, IB are number
coefficient of the gas will be:
of turn and current of A and B respectively)
2 3
(1) 3T (2) 2
T
(1) 2N A I A = N B I B
3 3
(3) 3 (4) (2) N A = 2N B
T T
3. A person has been using spectacles of power- (3) N A I A = 4N B I B
1.0 diopter for distant vision and a separate
(4) 4N A I A = N B I B
reading glass of power 2.0 diopters. What is the
least distance of distinct vision for this person: 7. A small object at rest, absorbs a light pulse of
(1) 10 cm (2) 40 cm
power 20 mW and duration 300 ns. Assuming
(3) 30 cm (4) 50 cm
speed of light as 3 × 108 m/s. the momentum of
4. As per the given figure, a small ball P slides
the object becomes equal to :
down the quadrant of a circle and hits the other
(1) 0.5 × 10 −17 kg m/s
ball Q of equal mass which is initially at rest.

Neglecting the effect of friction and assume the (2) 2 × 10 −17 kg m/s
collision to be elastic, the velocity of ball Q
(3) 3 × 10 −17 kg m/s
after collision will be : (g = 10 m/s2)
(4) 1 × 10 −17 kg m/s
8. Speed of an electron in Bohr’s 7th orbit for

Hydrogen atom is 3.6 × 106 m/s. The
corresponding speed of the electron in 3rd orbit,
in m/s is :
(
(1) 1.8 × 106 ) (
(2) 7.5 × 106 )
(1) 0 (2) 0.25 m/s
(3) 2 m/s (4) 4 m/s (
(3) 3.6 × 106 ) (
(4) 8.4 × 106 )
E 67
9. A massless square loop, of wire of resistance 12. Electric field in a certain region is given by
10 Ω . supporting a mass of I g. hangs vertically  A B 
=E  2 i + 3 j  . The SI unit of A and B are :
with one of its sides in a uniform magnetic field x y 
of 103 G, directed outwards in the shaded (1) Nm 3 C−1 ;Nm 2 C−1 (2) Nm 2 C−1 ;Nm 3 C−1
region. A dc voltage V is applied to the loop. (3) Nm 3 C;Nm 2 C (4) Nm 2 C;Nm 3 C
For what value of V. the magnetic force will 13. The output waveform of the given logical
exactly balance the weight of the supporting circuit for the following inputs A and B as
mass of 1g? shown below, is :
(If sides of the loop = 10 cm, g = 10 ms-2) A
Y
B
®
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
1
A0
1
B0
Inputs
1
(1) V (2) 100 V t6
10 t1 t2 t3 t4 t5
(3) 1 V (4) 10 V (1) 1
10. Two isolated metallic solid spheres of radii R 0

and 2R are charged such that both have same t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
charge density σ . The spheres are then (2) 1
connected by a thin conducting wire. If the new
charge density of the bigger sphere is σ ' . The 0
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
σ'
ratio is :
σ 1
(3)
9 4 5 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) 0
4 3 3 6
11. Heat is given to an ideal gas in an isothermal t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
process. (4) 1
A. Internal energy of the gas will decrease. 0
B. Internal energy of the gas will increase. 14. The height of liquid column raised in a capillary
C. Internal energy of the gas will not change. tube of certain radius when dipped in liquid A
D. The gas will do positive work. vertically is, 5 cm. If the tube is dipped in a
E. The gas will do negative work. similar manner in another liquid B of surface
tension and density double the values of liquid A,
the height of liquid column raised in liquid B
given below : would be ______ m.
(1) A and E only (2) B and D only (1) 0.20 (2) 0.5
(3) C and E only (4) C and D only (3) 0.05 (4) 0.10
68 E
15. A sinusoidal carrier voltage is amplitude 19. Match Column-I with Column-II :
modulated. The resultant amplitude modulated Column-I Column-II

(x-t graphs) (v-t graphs)
wave has maximum and minimum amplitude of
120 V and 80 V respectively. The amplitude of

A. I.
each sideband is :
(1) 15 V (2) 10 V
(3) 20 V (4) 5V B. II.

16. In a series LR circuit with XL = R. power factor
is P1. If a capacitor of capacitance C with
®
XC = XL is added to the circuit the power factor
C. III.
becomes P2. The ratio of P1 to P2 will be :
(1) 1: 3 (2) 1: 2
(3) 1:1 (4) 1: 2

D. IV.
17. If the gravitational field in the space is given as
 K
 − 2  . Taking the reference point to be at Choose the correct answer from the options
 r 
given below:
r = 2 cm with gravitational potential (1) A- II B-IV, C-III, D-I
V = 10 J/kg. Find the gravitational potential at (2) A- I. B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A- II B-III, C-IV, D-I
r = 3 cm in SI unit (Given, that K = 6 J cm/kg)
(4) A- I, B-III. C-IV, D-II
(1) 9 (2) 11 20. The figure represents the momentum time (p-t)
(3) 12 (4) 10 curve for a particle moving along an axis under
the influence of the force. Identify the regions

18. A ball of mass 200 g rests on a vertical post of
on the graph where the magnitude of the force
height 20 m. A bullet of mass 10 g, travelling in
is maximum and minimum respectively ?
horizontal direction, hits the centre of the ball. If (t3 – t2) < t1.
After collision both travels independently. The
ball hits the ground at a distance 30 m and the
bullet at a distance of 120 m from the foot of
the post. The value of initial velocity of the
bullet will be (if g = 10 m/s2) :
(1) 120 m/s (2) 60 m/s (1) c and a (2) b and c

(3) 400 m/s (4) 360 m/s (3) c and b (4) a and b
E 69
SECTION-B 25. A horse rider covers half the distance with
21. The general displacement of a simple harmonic 5 m/s speed. The remaining part of the distance
oscillator =
is x A sin ωt. Let T be its time period. was travelled with speed 10 m/s for half the
The slope of its potential energy (U) – time (t) time and with speed 15 m/s for other half of the
T time. The mean speed of the rider averaged over
curve will be maximum when t = . The value the whole time of motion is x/7 m/s. The value
β
of x is
of β is ____ .
26. A point source of light is placed at the centre of
22. A capacitor of capacitance 900 µF is charged by a
curvature of a hemispherical surface. The
100 V battery. The capacitor is disconnected from
source emits a power of 24 W The radius of
the battery and connected to another uncharged
curvature of hemisphere is 10 cm and the inner
identical capacitor such that one plate of
uncharged capacitor connected to positive plate surface is completely reflecting. The force on
®
and another plate of uncharged capacitor the hemisphere due to the light falling on it is
connected to negative plate of the charged _______ × 10-8 N.
capacitor. The loss of energy in this process is dI
-2
27. As per the given figure, if = −1 A/s then the
measured as x × 10 J. The value of x is __. dt
23. In Young’s double slit experiment, two slits S1 value of VAB at this instant will be _____ V.
and S2 are ‘d’ distance apart and the separation
from slits to screen is D (as shown in figure).
Now if two transparent slabs of equal thickness
0.1 mm but refractive index 1.51 and 1.55 are
introduced in the path of beam ( λ = 4000Å)
from S1 and S2 respectively. The central bright
28. In a screw gauge, there are 100 divisions on the
fringe spot will shift by ____ number of fringes. circular scale and the main scale moves by
0.5 mm on a complete rotation of the circular
scale. The zero of circular scale lies 6 divisions

below the line of graduation when two studs are
brought in contact with each other. When a wire
is placed between the studs, 4 linear scale
divisions are clearly visible while 46th division
the circular scale coincide with the reference
24. In the following circuit, the magnitude of line. The diameter of the wire is ___ × 10-2 mm.
current I1, is _____ A. 29. In an experiment for estimating the value of
focal length of converging mirror, image of an
object placed at 40 cm from the pole of the
mirror is formed at distance 120 cm from the
pole of the mirror. These distances are
measured with a modified scale in which there
are 20 small divisions in 1 cm. The value of
error in measurement of focal length of the
mirror is 1/K cm. The value of K is ______ .
70 E
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44. During the qualitative analysis of SO32 − using Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
dilute H 2SO 4 ,SO 2 gas is evolved which turns
(1) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
K 2 Cr2 O7 solution (acidified with dilute (2) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
H 2SO 4 ): (3) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(4) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(1) Black (2) Red
48. For OF2 molecule consider the following:
(3) Green (4) Blue
(A) Number of lone pairs on oxygen is 2.
45. To inhibit the growth of tumours, identify the
(B) FOF angle is less than 104.5o .
compounds used from the following: (C) Oxidation state of O is –2.
(A) EDTA (D) Molecule is bent ‘V’ shaped.
(B) Coordination Compounds of Pt (E) Molecular geometry is linear.
Correct options are:
®
(C) D – Penicillamine
(D) Cis – Platin (1) C, D, E only (2) B, E, A only
(3) A, C, D only (4) A, B, D only
Choose the correct answer from the option
49. Lithium aluminium hydride can be prepared
given below:
from the reaction of
(1) B and D Only
(2) C and D Only (1) LiCl and Al2 H 6
(3) A and B Only (2) LiH and Al2 Cl6
(4) A and C Only
(3) LiCl, Al and H 2
46. In the wet tests for identification of various
cations by precipitation, which transition (4) LiH and Al ( OH )3
element cation doesn’t belong to group IV in
50. Match List – I with List – II
qualitative inorganic analysis?
(1) Fe3+
LIST–I LIST–II
(2) Zn 2 +
(Atomic number) (Block of periodic

2+
(3) Co table)
2+
(4) Ni (A) 37 I. p–block
47. Match List I with List II (B) 78 II. d–block
(C) 52 III. f–block
LIST–I LIST–II
(D) 65 IV. s–block
(molecules/ions) (No. of lone pairs of
e– on central atom) Choose the correct answer from the options
(A) IF7 I. Three given below:
(1) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III
(B) ICl−4 II. One
(2) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
(C) XeF6 III. Two
(3) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
(D) XeF2 IV. Zero
(4) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III
E 73
SECTION-B 56. The number of electrons involved in the
51. Consider the cell reduction of permanganate to manganese
Pt ( s ) H 2 ( g,1atm ) H + ( aq,1M ) dioxide in acidic medium is ________.
Fe3+ ( aq ) , Fe 2+ ( aq ) Pt ( s ) 57. When 2 litre of ideal gas expands isothermally
When the potential of the cell is 0.712 V at into vacuum to a total volume of 6 litre, the
298 K, the ratio  Fe 2 +  /  Fe3+  is _________. change in internal energy is _____________ J.
(Nearest integer) (Nearest integer)
=
Given: Fe3+ + e − Fe 2 +=
, E o Fe3+ , Fe 2 + Pt 0.771 58. 600 mL of 0.01M HCl is mixed with 400 mL of
2.303RT 0.01 M H 2SO 4 . The pH of the mixture is

= 0.06 V
F
®
________ ×10−2 . (Nearest integer)
52. A 300 mL bottle of soft drink has 0.2 M CO 2
[Given log 2 = 0.30 , log 3 = 0.48
dissolved in it. Assuming CO 2 behaves as an
ideal gas, the volume of the dissolved CO 2 at log 5 = 0.69 log 7 = 0.84
STP is _________ mL. (Nearest integer) log11 = 1.04 ]

Given: At STP, molar volume of an ideal gas is
59. A trisubstituted compound ‘A’, C10 H12 O 2 gives
−1
22.7 L mol
neutral FeCl3 test positive. Treatment of
53. A solution containing 2 g of a non–volatile
solute in 20 g of water boils at 373.52 K. The compound ‘A’ with NaOH and CH 3 Br gives
molecular mass of the solute is ______ g mol−1 . C11H14 O 2 , with hydroiodic acid gives methyl
(Nearest integer)
iodide and with hot conc. NaOH gives a
Given, water boils at 373 K, K b for water
compound B, C10 H12 O 2 . Compound ‘A’ also
−1
= 0.52 K kg mol
decolorises alkaline KMnO 4 . The number of π
54. If compound A reacts with B following first
order kinetics with rate constant 2.011 × 10−3 s −1 . bond/s present in the compound ‘A’ is _______.
The time taken by A (in seconds) to reduce 60. Some amount of dichloromethane ( CH 2 Cl2 ) is
from 7 g to 2 g will be ________. (Nearest
added to 671.141 mL of chloroform ( CHCl3 )
Integer)
= =
[ log 5 0.698,log =
7 0.845,log 2 0.301 ] to prepare 2.6 × 10−3 M solution of
55. The energy of one mole of photons of radiation CH 2 Cl2 ( DCM ) . The concentration of DCM is
−1
of frequency 2 × 10 Hz in J mol
12
is _______.
______ ppm (by mass).
(Nearest integer)
Given: Atomic mass : C = 12; H : 1; Cl = 35.5
=
(Given: h 6.626 × 10−34 Js
density of CHCl3 = 1.49g cm −3
N A 6.022 × 1023 mol−1 )
=
74 E
MATHEMATICS 66. Suppose f : R → ( 0, ∞ ) be a differentiable
SECTION-A function such that
5f ( x + y )= f ( x ) ⋅ f ( y ) , ∀x, y ∈ R .
m n
61. Let =
A  d A ≠ 0 A − d ( AdjA ) =
 ,= 0. 5
 p q If f ( 3) = 320, then ∑ f ( n ) is equal to :

n =0
Then
(1) 6875 (2) 6575
(1) (1 + d ) = ( m + q )
2 2
(3) 6825 (4) 6528
(2) 1 + d 2 = ( m + q )
2 −2
67. If a n = , then a1 + a2 +..…+ a25
4n − 16n + 15
2
(3) (1 + d ) = m 2 + q 2
2
is equal to :
(4) 1 + d = m + q
2 2 2
51 49
62. The line l1 passes through the point (2,6,2) and (1) (2)
144 138
is perpendicular to the plane 2x + y – 2z = 10.
50 52
®
Then the shortest distance between the line l1 (3) (4)
x +1 y + 4 z 141 147
and the line = = is :
2 −3 2 68. If the coefficient of x15 in the expansion of
19 19 15
(1) 7 (2) (3) (4) 9  
3 3  ax 3 + 1  is equal to the coefficient of x–15
63. If an unbiased die, marked with –2, –1, 0, 1, 2,  1

 bx 3 
3 on its faces, is through five times, then the
15
probability that the product of the outcomes is  13 1 
positive, is : in the expansion of  ax − 3  , where a
 bx 
881 521 440 27
(1) (2) (3) (4) and b are positive real numbers, then for each
2592 2592 2592 288
64. Let the system of linear equations such ordered pair (a, b) :
x + y + kz =2 (1) a = b (2) ab = 1
2x + 3y − z =
1 (3) a = 3b (4) ab = 3
3x + 4y + 2z =
k   
69. If a, b, c are three non-zero vectors and n̂ is a
have infinitely many solutions. Then the system 
unit vector perpendicular to c such that

( k + 1) x + ( 2k − 1) y =
7
  
a= ˆ (α ≠ 0 ) and b.c = 12 , then
α b − n,
( 2k + 1) x + ( k + 5) y =
10 has :
  
(1) infinitely many solutions ( )
c × a × b is equal to :
(2) unique solution satisfying x – y = 1
(3) no solution (1) 15 (2) 9
(4) unique solution satisfying x + y = 1 (3) 12 (4) 6
1 1 70. The number of points on the curve
65. If tan15° + + + tan195° = 2a ,
tan 75° tan105° 5 4 3
y = 54x – 135x – 70x + 180x +210x at which 2
 1
then the value of  a +  is : the normal lines are parallel to x + 90y + 2 = 0
 a
is :
(1) 4 (2) 4 − 2 3 (1) 2 (2) 3
3
(3) 2 (4) 5 − 3 (3) 4 (4) 0
2
E 75
71. Let y =
x + 2, 4y =+ = 4x + 1 be
3x 6 and 3y 74. If [t denotes the greatest integer ≤ 1, then the
three tangent lines to the circle
3 ( e − 1)
2 2
[ x ]+  x 3 
(x − h) + (y − k) ∫x e
2 2 2
= 2
r . Then h + k is equal value of
e
dx is :
1
to:
(1) e9 – e (2) e8 – e
(1) 5 (
(2) 5 1 + 2 ) (3) e7 – 1 (4) e8 – 1
(3) 6 (4) 5 2
75. If P(h,k) be point on the parabola x = 4y2, which
72. Let the solution curve y = y ( x ) of the
is nearest to the point Q(0,33), then the distance
differential equation −
5
dy 3x tan x
−1
( )y=
3
2x of P from the directrix of the parabola

3
dx
(
1+ x6 2 )
y 2 4 ( x + y ) is equal to :
®
=
x 3 − tan −1 x 3
exp pass through the origin. (1) 2 (2) 4
(1 + x )
6
(3) 8 (4) 6
Then y(1) is equal to :
76. A straight line cuts off the intercepts OA = a
 4 −π  π −4
(1) exp   (2) exp   and OB = b on the positive directions of x–axis
4 2 4 2
and y–axis respectively. If the perpendicular
 1− π   4+π 
(3) exp   (4) exp   π
4 2 4 2 from origin O to this line makes an angle of
6
73.  make angle α , β , γ with

Let a unit vector OP with positive direction of y–axis and the area of
the positive directions of the co-ordinate axes
98
∆OAB is 3 , then a 2 − b 2 is equal to:
 π 3
OX, OY, OZ respectively, where β ∈  0, 
 2
392
 is perpendicular to the plane through points
OP
(1)
3
(2) 196
(1, 2, 3), (2, 3, 4) and (1, 5, 7), then which one

196
of the following is true ? (3) (4) 98
3
π  π 
(1) α ∈  , π  and γ ∈  , π  301
2  2  77. The coefficient of x in
 π  π (1 + x )
500
+ x (1 + x )
499
+ x 2 (1 + x )
498
+ ..... + x 500
(2) α ∈  0,  and γ ∈  0, 
 2  2
is:
π   π
(3) α ∈  , π  and γ ∈  0,  (1) 501
C302 (2) 500
C301
2   2
 π π 
 and γ ∈  , π 
500 501
(4) α ∈  0, (3) C300 (4) C200
 2 2 
76 E
78. Among the statements: 1 + iz 12
84. Let z = 1 +=
i and z1 ⋅ Then
π
(S1) (( p ∨ q ) ⇒ r ) ⇔ ( p ⇒ r ) z (1 − z ) +
1
z
(S2 ) (( p ∨ q ) ⇒ r ) ⇔ (( p ⇒ r ) ∨ ( q ⇒ r )) arg ( z1 ) is equal to _______ .
(1) Only (S1) is a tautology
x
(2) Neither (S1) nor (S2) is a tautology 48 t 3
x →0 x 4 ∫ t 6 + 1
85. lim dt is equal to ______.
(3) Only (S2) is a tautology 0
(4) Both (S1) and (S2) are tautologies 86. The mean and variance of 7 observations are 8
79. The minimum number of elements that must be and 16 respectively. If one observation 14 is
added to the relation R = {( a, b ) , ( b,c )} on the omitted a and b are respectively mean and
set {a, b,c} so that it becomes symmetric and variance of remaining 6 observation, then
transitive is:
a + 3b − 5 is equal to ______.
(1) 4 (2) 7
®
(3) 5 (4) 3 87. If the equation of the plane passing through the
80. If the solution of the equation
 π
point (1,1,2 ) and perpendicular to the line
log cos x cot x + 4log sin x tan x = 1, x ∈  0,  , is
 2 x − 3y + 2z − 1 =0 4x − y + z is
α+ β
sin −1 
 2 
, where α , β are integers, then Ax + By + Cz =
1 , then 140 ( C − B + A ) is
 
α + β is equal to: equal to _____.
n 3 ( ( 2n )!) + ( 2n − 1)( n!)

(1) 3 (2) 5 ∞
b
(3) 6 (4) 4 88. Let ∑ n =0 ( n!) ( ( 2n )!)
= ae +
e
+c,
SECTION-B
Let S = {1, 2,3, 4,5,6} . Then the number of
∞
1
81. where a, b,c ∈  and e = ∑ Then a 2 − b + c
one–one functions f :S → P ( S) , where P ( S) n =0 n!
denote the power set of S, such that is equal to ________.

f ( n ) ⊂ f ( m ) where n < m is ______. 89. Number of 4–digit numbers (the repetition of
82. Let α be the area of the larger region bounded
digits is allowed) which are made using the

by the curve y 2 = 8x and the lines y = x and
digits 1, 2, 3 and 5, and are divisible by 15, is
x = 2 , which lies in the first quadrant. Then the
value of 3α is equal to __________. equal to ______
83. If λ1 < λ 2 are two values of λ such that the

3x + 2  −3 
90. Let f=
1
(x) ,x∈R −  

(
angle between the planes P1 : r 3i − 5j + k =
7 ) 2x + 3 2
2 6  For n ≥ 2 , define f n ( x ) = f 1 0f n −1 ( x ) .
and

( )
P2 : r ⋅ λi + j − 3k =9
−1
is sin 
 5 
 
,
ax + b
If f 5 ( x )
= = ,gcd ( a, b ) 1 , then a + b is
then the square of the length of perpendicular bx + a
from the point ( 38λ1 ,10λ 2 ,2 ) to the plane P1
equal to ______.
is __.
E 77
SET # 08
PHYSICS 4. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
SECTION-A as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
1. A block of 3 kg is attached to a string whose Assertion A : The nuclear density of nuclides
10
5 B, 36 Li, 56 20
26 Fe, 10 Ne and 209
83 Bi can be
other end is attached to the wall. An unknown
arranged as ρBi
N
> ρFe
N
> ρ NNe > ρBN > ρLi
N
.
force F is applied so that the string makes an
Reason R : The radius R of nucleus is related to
angle of 30° with the wall. The tension T is : its mass number A as R = R0 A1/3, where R0 is a
constant.
(Given g = 10 ms–2) In the light of the above statement, choose the
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
®
explanation of A
5. A thin prism P1 with an angle 6° and made of
glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined with
(1) 20 N (2) 25 N
another prism P2 made from glass of refractive
(3) 10 N (4) 15 N index 1.72 to produce dispersion without
2. A flask contains hydrogen and oxygen in the average deviation. The angle of prism P2 is :
ratio of 2 : 1 by mass at temperature 27°C. The (1) 6° (2) 1.3°
ratio of average kinetic energy per molecule of (3) 7.8° (4) 4.5°
hydrogen and oxygen respectively is : 6. The output Y for the inputs A and B of circuit is
(1) 2 : 1 given by
A
(2) 1 : 1

(3) 1 : 4
Input Y = Onput
(4) 4 : 1
3. The equivalent resistance between A and B is
B
Truth table of the shown circuit is :
A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 1
(1) 0 1 1 (2) 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 1
2 1 A B Y A B Y
(1) Ω (2) Ω 0 0 0 0 0 0
3 2
(3) 0 1 1 (4) 0 1 1
3 1 1 0 1 1 0 1
(3) Ω (4) Ω 1 1 1 1 1 0
2 3
78 E
7. A vehicle travels 4 km with speed of 3 km/h 11. A machine gun of mass 10 kg fires 20 g bullets
and another 4 km with speed of 5 km/h, then its at the rate of 180 bullets per minute with a
average speed is : speed of 100 m s–1 each. The recoil velocity of
(1) 4.25 km/h (2) 3.50 km/h the gun is :
(3) 4.00 km/h (4) 3.75 km/h (1) 0.02 m/s (2) 2.5 m/s
8. As shown in the figure, a point charge Q is (3) 1.5 m/s (4) 0.6 m/s
placed at the centre of conducting spherical 12. Given below are two statements : one is
shell of inner radius a and outer radius b. The labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
electric field due to charge Q in three different as Reason R.
regions I, II and III is given by : (I : r < a, II : a Assertion A : Efficiency of a reversible heat
< r < b, III : r > b) engine will be highest at –273°C temperature of
cold reservoir.
Reason R : The efficiency of Carnot’s engine
depends not only on temperature of cold
reservoir but it depends on the temperature of
®
 T 
hot reservoir too and is given as η= 1 − 2  .
 T1 
(1) EI = 0, EII = 0, EIII ≠ 0 correct answer from the options given below :
(2) EI ≠ 0, EII = 0, EIII ≠ 0 (1) A is true but R is false
(3) EI ≠ 0, EII = 0, EIII = 0 (2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(4) EI = 0, EII = 0, EIII = 0
9. As shown in the figure, a current of 2A flowing in (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
an equilateral triangle of side 4 3 cm . The explanation of A
magnetic field at the centroid O of the triangle is : 13. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A Torque I. kg m–1 s–2
B Energy density II. kg ms–1
C Pressure gradient III. kg m–2 s–2
D Impulse IV. kg m2 s–2
(Neglect the effect of earth’s magnetic field.) Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) 4 3 × 10−4 T (2) 4 3 × 10−5 T (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) 3 × 10−4 T (4) 3 3 × 10−5 T (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
10. In the given circuit, rms value of current (Irms) (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
through the resistor R is :
14. For a simple harmonic motion in a mass spring
XL=200Ω, XC=100Ω system shown, the surface is frictionless. When
R=100Ω the mass of the block is 1 kg, the angular
frequency is ω1. When the mass block is 2 kg
the angular frequency is ω2. The ratio ω2/ω1 is :
Vrms = 200
1
(1) 2A (2) A
2
1 1
(3) 20 A (4) 2 2A (1) 2 (2) (3) 2 (4)
2 2
E 79
15. An electron accelerated through a potential 18. A force is applied to a steel wire ‘A’, rigidly
difference V1 has a de-Broglie wavelength of λ.
clamped at one end. As a result elongation in
When the potential is changed to V2, its
de-Broglie wavelength increases by 50%. The the wire is 0.2 mm. If same force is applied to
V 
value of  1  is equal to : another steel wire ‘B’ of double the length and a
 V2 
9 3 diameter 2.4 times that of the wire ‘A’, the
(1) 3 (2)(3) (4) 4
4 2
16. Match List I with List II : elongation in the wire ‘B’ will be (wires having
List I List II uniform circular cross sections)
A. Attenuation I
Combination of a
receiver and (1) 6.06 × 10–2 mm
transmitter.
(2) 2.77 × 10–2 mm
®
B. Transducer II Process of retrieval of
information from the (3) 3.0 × 10–2 mm
carrier wave at
received (4) 6.9 × 10–2 mm
C. Demodulation III Converts one form of
19. An object is allowed to fall from a height R
energy into another
D. Repeater IV Loss of strength of a above the earth, where R is the radius of earth.
signal while Its velocity when it strikes the earth’s surface,
propagating through a
ignoring air resistance, will be :
medium
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) 2 gR (2) gR
given below :
gR
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (3) (4) 2gR
2
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 20. A point source of 100 W emits light with 5%
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I efficiency. At a distance of 5 m from the source,

17. A current carrying rectangular loop PQRS is the intensity produced by the electric field
made of uniform wire. The length PR=QS=5 cm
component is :
and PQ = RS = 100 cm. If ammeter current
reading changes from I to 2I, the ratio of 1 W 1 W
(1) (2)
2π m 2 40π m 2
magnetic forces per unit length on the wire PQ
due to wire RS in the two cases respectively 1 W 1 W
(3) (4)
(f I
PQ : f 2I
PQ ) is : 10π m 2 20π m 2
SECTION-B
21. A faulty thermometer reads 5°C in melting ice

and 95°C in steam. The correct temperature on
absolute scale will be………. K when the faulty
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4 thermometer reads 41°C.
(3) 1 : 5 (4) 1 : 3
80 E
22. If the potential difference between B and D is 27. As shown in figure, a cuboid lies in a region
zero, the value of x is

1
Ω . The value of n is . with electric field E = 2x 2 i − 4yj + 6kˆ N/C. The
n
magnitude of charge within the cuboid is
n ∈0 C . The value of n is ______ (if dimension
of cuboid is 1 × 2 × 3 m3)
23. The velocity of a particle executing SHM varies
®
with displacement (x) as 4v2 = 50 – x2. The time
28. In an ac generator, a rectangular coil of 100
x turns each having area 14 × 10–2 m2 is rotated at
period of oscillations is s. The value of x is
7
360 rev/min about an axis perpendicular to a
 22  uniform magnetic field of magnitude 3.0 T. The
………  Take π = 
 7  maximum value of the emf produced will be
24. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensities
 22 
________ V.  Take π = 
λ  7 
at two points, for the path difference and
4 29. A stone tied to 180 cm long string at its end is
λ making 28 revolutions in horizontal circle in
(λ being the wavelength of light used) are
3 every minute. The magnitude of acceleration of
I1 and I2 respectively. If I0 denotes the intensity 1936 −2
stone is ms . The value of x ____.
produced by each one of the individual slits, x
I1 + I 2  22 
then = .......  Take π = 
I0  7 
25. A radioactive nucleus decays by two different 30. A uniform disc of mass 0.5 kg and radius r is
projected with velocity 18 m/s at t = 0 s on a
process. The half life of the first process is
rough horizontal surface. It starts off with a
5 minutes and that of the second process is 30s.
purely sliding motion at t = 0 s. After 2s it
The effective half-life of the nucleus is
acquires a purely rolling motion (see figure).
α The total kinetic energy of the disc after 2s will
calculated to be s. The value of α is _____.
11 be ________ J
26. A body of mass 2 kg is initially at rest. It starts (given, coefficient of friction is 0.3 and
moving unidirectionally under the influence of a g = 10 m/s2).
source of constant power P. Its displacement in
1 2
4s is α P m. The value of α will be ……
3
E 81
CHEMISTRY CH3 CH3
35.
SECTION-A
31. Which of the following reaction is correct ?
∆
(1) 2LiNO3  → 2LiNO 2 + O 2 Br Br
(2) 4LiNO3  ∆
→ 2Li 2 O + 2N 2 O 4 + O 2 NO2
∆
(X) (Y)
(3) 4LiNO3  → 2Li 2 O + 4NO 2 + O 2 In the above conversion of compound (X) to
∆
(4) 2LiNO3  → 2Li + 2NO 2 + O 2 product (Y), the sequence of reagents to be used
32. The most stable carbocation for the following will be:
is:
(1) (i) Br2, Fe (ii) Fe, H+ (iii) LiAlH4
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2
(2) (i) Br2(aq) (ii) LiAlH4 (iii) H3O+
+ +
®
(3) (i) Fe, H+ (ii) Br2(aq) (iii) HNO2 (iv) CuBr
+
+ (4) (i) Fe, H+ (ii) Br2(aq) (iii) HNO2 (iv) H3PO2
(a) (b) (c) (d) 36. Maximum number of electrons that can be
(1) c (2) d accommodated in shell with n = 4 are:
(3) b (4) a (1) 16 (2) 32
33. The correct order of pKa values for the
(3) 50 (4) 72
following compounds is:
OH OH OH OH 37. Match List I with List II:
List I List II
(Complexes) (Hybridisation)
(A) [Ni(CO)4] I sp3
N NO2
(B) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ II dsp2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) c > a > d > b (C) [Fe(NH3)6]2+ III sp3d2

(2) b > d > a > c (D) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ IV d2sp3
(3) b > a > d > c
(1) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV
(4) a > b > c > d
34. Decreasing order towards SN1 reaction for the (2) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
following compounds is: (3) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(4) A – I, B– II, C – IV, D – III
38. The Cl – Co – Cl bond angle values in a fac-
[Co(NH3)3Cl3] complex is/are:
(1) 90° & 180°
(2) 90°
(1) a > c > d > b (2) a > b > c > d (3) 180°
(3) b > d > c > a (4) d > b > c > a
(4) 90° & 120°
82 E
39. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as 43. KMnO4 oxidises I– in acidic and neutral/faintly
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. alkaline solution, respectively to
O
(1) I2 & IO3−
Assertion A : can be easily reduced
OH (2) IO3− & I2
using Zn-Hg/ HCl to (3) IO3− & IO3−
Reason R : Zn-Hg/HCl is used to reduce (4) I2 & I2

carbonyl group to –CH2 – group. 44. Bond dissociation energy of E–H bond of the
In the light of the above statements, choose the “H2E” hydrides of group 16 elements (given
correct answer from the options given below: below), follows order.
(1) A is false but R is true (A) O
(B) S
®
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(C) Se
(D) Te
explanation of A (1) A > B > C > D
40. Chlorides of which metal are soluble in organic (2) A > B > D > C
solvents: (3) B > A > C > D
(1) Ca (2) Mg (4) D > C > B > A
(3) K (4) Be 45. The water quality of a pond was analysed and
41. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as
its BOD was found to be 4. The pond has
Assertion A and the other labelled as Reason R.
(1) Highly polluted water
Assertion A: Antihistamines do not affect the
(2) Water has high amount of fluoride compounds
secretion of acid in stomach.
Reason R : Antiallergic and antacid drugs work (3) Very clean water
on different receptors. (4) Slightly polluted water
In the light of the above statements, choose the 46. Match List I with List II:
List II
(1) A is false but R is true List I (Mixture) (Separation
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Technique)
explanation of A (A) CHCl3 + C6H5NH2 I Steam distillation
Differential
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the (B) C6H14 + C5H12 II
extraction
(C) C6H5NH2 + H2O III Distillation
42. The wave function (Ψ) of 2s is given by
Organic compound Fractional
1/ 2 (D) IV
1 1  r  − r / 2a 0 in H2O distillation
=Ψ 2s    2 − e
2 2π  a 0   a0 
At r = r0, radial node is formed. Thus, r0 in terms
of a0
(1) r0 = a0 (2) r0 = 4a0 (3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
a
(3) r0 = 0 (4) r0 = 2a0 (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
2
E 83
47. Boric acid in solid, whereas BF3 is gas at room SECTION-B
temperature because of 51. 1 mole of ideal gas is allowed to expand
(1) Strong ionic bond in Boric acid
reversibly and adiabatically from a temperature
(2) Strong van der Waal’s interaction in Boric acid
of 27°C. The work done is 3 kJ mol-1. The final
(3) Strong hydrogen bond in Boric acid
(4) Strong covalent bond in BF3 temperature of the gas is _______K (Nearest
48. Given below are two statements: integer). Given Cv=20 J mol–1K–1.
Statement I: During Electrolytic refining, the 52. Iron oxide FeO, crystallises in a cubic lattice
pure metal is made to act as anode and its
with a unit cell edge length of 5.0Å. If density
impure metallic form is used as cathode.
of the FeO in the crystal is 4.0 g cm–3, then the
Statement II: During the Hall-Heroult
number of FeO units present per unit cell is
electrolysis process, purified Al2O3 is mixed
®
with Na3AlF6 to lower the melting point of the _____ (Nearest integer)
mixture. Given : Molar mass of Fe and O is 56 and 16g

In the light of the above statements, choose the mol–1 respectively.
most appropriate answer from the options
NA = 6.0 × 1023 mol–1
given below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 53. An organic compound undergoes first order
correct decomposition. If the time taken for the 60%
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are decomposition is 540 s, then the time required
incorrect for 90% decomposition will be is _______ s.
(Nearest integer).
incorrect
Given : ln 10 = 2.3; log 2 = 0.3
correct 54. Lead storage battery contains 38% by weight
49. Formulae for Nessler’s reagent is: solution of H2SO4. The van’t Hoff factor is

(1) KHg2I2 (2) KHgI3 2.67 at this concentration. The temperature in
(3) K2HgI4 (4) HgI2 Kelvin at which the solution in the battery will
freeze is ____ (Nearest integer).
50. 1 L, 0.02 M solution of [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br is
mixed with 1L, 0.02 M solution of Given Kf = 1.8 K kg mol–1
[Co(NH3)5Br]SO4. The resulting solution is 55. Consider the following equation :
divided into two equal parts (X) and treated 2SO 2 (g) + O 2 (g)  2SO3 (g), ∆H =−190 kJ
with excess AgNO3 solution and BaCl2 solution The number of factors which will increase the
respectively as shown below: yield of SO3 at equilibrium from the following
1 L Solution (X) + AgNO3 solution (excess)→Y is _______
1 L Solution (X) + BaCl2 solution (excess)→Z A. Increasing temperature
The number of moles of Y and Z respectively are B. Increasing pressure
C. Adding more SO2
(1) 0.02, 0.02 (2) 0.01, 0.01
D. Adding more O2
(3) 0.02, 0.01 (4) 0.01, 0.02 E. Addition of catalyst
84 E
x 60. The electrode potential of the following half
56. The graph of log vs log p for an adsorption
m
cell at 298 K.
process is a straight line inclined at an angle of
X | X2+ (0.001 M) || Y2+ (0.01 M) | Y
45° with intercept equal to 0.6020. The mass of
is _____×10–2 V (Nearest integer).
gas adsorbed per unit mass of adsorbent at the
pressure of 0.4 atm is __×10–1 (Nearest integer) Given : E 0x 2+ |x = −2.36V
Given : log 2 = 0.3010

E 0Y2+ |Y = +0.36V
57. Number of compounds from the following
2.303RT
= 0.06V
which will not dissolve in cold NaHCO3 and F
®
NaOH solutions but will dissolve in hot NaOH MATHEMATICS
solution is _____ . SECTION-A
O O 61. Consider the following statements:

OH O P : I have fever
, , Q : I will not take medicine
R : I will take rest
The statement “If I have fever, then I will take
medicine and I will take rest” is equivalent to:
((  P ) ∨  Q) ∧ ((  P ) ∨ R )
O
(1)
O
((  P ) ∨  Q) ∧ ((  P ) ∨  R )
O (2)
H3C CH3
,
(3) ( P ∨ Q ) ∧ ((  P ) ∨ R )
58. A short peptide on complete hydrolysis
produces 3 moles of glycine (G), two moles of (4) ( P∨  Q ) ∧ ( P∨  R )
leucine (L) and two moles of valine (V) per
mole of peptide. The number of peptide 62. Let A be a point on the x-axis. Common
linkages in it are _______ . tangents are drawn from A to the curves

x2 + y2 = 8 and y2 = 16x. If one of these
59. The strength of 50 volume solution of hydrogen
tangents touches the two curves at Q and R,
peroxide is ______ g/L (Nearest integer).
then (QR)2 is equal to
–1
Given : Molar mass of H2O2 is 34 g mol
(1) 64 (2) 76
Molar volume of gas at STP = 22.7 L. (3) 81 (4) 72
E 85
63. Let q be the maximum integral value of p in
(8 ) (7 )
13 9
67. =
Let x 3 + 13 =
and y 2 + 9 . If
[0, 10] for which the roots of the equation
5 [t] denotes the greatest integer ≤ t, then
x 2 − px + p =
0 are rational. Then the area
4
(1) [x] + [y] is even
of the region {(x, y) : 0 ≤ y ≤ (x – q)2,
0 ≤ x ≤ q} is (2) [x] is odd but [y] is even
(1) 243 (2) 25 (3) [x] is even but [y] is odd
125 (4) [x] and [y] are both odd

(3) (4) 164
3 
68. A vector v in the first octant is inclined to the
x3 ax 2
64. If the functions f ( x ) = + 2bx + and x-axis at 60°, to the y-axis at 45° and to the
3 2
®
z-axis at an acute angle. If a plane passing
( )
3
x
g(x) = + ax + bx 2 , a ≠ 2b have a common through the points 2, −1,1 and (a, b, c), is
3

normal to v , then
extreme point, then a + 2b + 7 is equal to
3 (1) 2a + b + c =
1 (2) a + b + 2c =
1
(1) 4 (2)
2 (3) a + 2b + c =
1 (4) 2a − b + c =
1
(3) 3 (4) 6 69. Let f, g and h be the real valued functions
65. The range of the function x

 , x≠0
defined on  as f ( x ) =  x ,
f (x) = 3 − x + 2 + x is
 1, x = 0

(1)  5, 10  (2)  2 2, 11 
     sin ( x + 1)
, x ≠ −1
(3)  5, 13  (4)  2, 7  ( x )  ( x + 1)
g= and
    
 1, x = −1

66. The solution of the differential equation
h(x) = 2[x] – f(x), where [x] is the greatest
 x 2 + 3y 2 
dy
= − 2 2 
, y(1) = 0 is (
integer ≤ x. Then the value of lim g h ( x − 1) )
 3x + y 
x →1
dx
is
xy
(1) log e x + y − =
0 (1) 1 (2) sin(1)
( x + y)
2
(3) –1 (4) 0
xy 70. The number of ways of selecting two numbers a
(2) log e x + y + =
0
( x + y) and b, a ∈ {2, 4, 6,.....,100} and
2
2xy b ∈ {1,3,5,.....,99} such that 2 is the remainder

(3) log e x + y + =
0
( x + y)
2
when a + b is divided by 23 is
2xy (1) 186 (2) 54
(4) log e x + y − =
0
( x + y)
2
(3) 108 (4) 268
86 E
71. If P is a 3 × 3 real matrix such that PT = aP + (a – 1)I, 75. The parabolas : ax2 + 2bx + cy = 0 and dx2 + 2ex + fy = 0
where a > 1, then intersect on the line y = 1. If a, b, c, d, e, f are
(1) P is a singular matrix
positive real numbers and a, b, c are in G.P.,
(2) Adj P > 1
then
1
(3) Adj P = (1) d, e, f are in A.P.
2
d e f
(4) Adj P = 1 (2) , , are in G.P.
a b c
 
72. Let λ ∈ , a = λ î + 2ˆj − 3k,
ˆ b = î − λˆj + 2k.
ˆ
(3)
d e f
, , are in A.P.
a b c
If
      (4) d, e, f are in G.P.
(( ) ( )) ( )
a + b × a × b × a − b = 8iˆ − 40ˆj − 24k,
ˆ
76. If a plane passes through the points (–1, k, 0),
®
 
( ) ( )
2 (2, k, –1), (1, 1, 2) and is parallel to the line
then λ a + b × a − b is equal to
x − 1 2y + 1 z +1
= = , then the value of
(1) 140 (2) 132 1 2 −1
(3) 144 (4) 136 k2 +1
    is
73. Let a and b be two vectors. Let =
a 1,=
b 4 ( k − 1)( k − 2 )
17 5
     
and a ⋅ b =2. If c = ( )
2a × b − 3b, then the
(1)
5
(2)
17
  6 13
(3) (4)
value of b ⋅ c is 13 6
77. Let a, b, c > 1, a3, b3 and c3 be in A.P., and
(1) –24 (2) –48
logab, logca and logbc be in G.P. If the sum of
(3) –84 (4) –60 first 20 terms of an A.P., whose first term is
74. Let a1 = 1, a 2 , a 3 , a 4 ,..... be consecutive natural a + 4b + c

and the common difference is
3
numbers. Then  1  −1  1 
tan −1   + tan  
 1 + a 1 2 
a  1 + a 2a 3  a − 8b + c
is – 444, then abc is equal to
 1  10
+..... + tan −1   is equal to
 1 + a 2021a 2022  (1) 343 (2) 216
π
(1) − cot −1 ( 2022 ) (3)
343
(4)
125
4 8 8
π
(2) cot −1 ( 2022 ) − 78. Let S be the set of all values of a1 for which the
4 mean deviation about the mean of 100
π
(3) tan −1 ( 2022 ) − consecutive positive integers a1, a2, a3, ….., a100
4
is 25. Then S is
π
(4) − tan −1 ( 2022 ) (1) φ (2) {99}
4
(3)  (4) {9}
E 87
3   1   85. Let a line L pass through the point P(2, 3, 1)
2 2 2
1  2 
79. lim 4 +  2 +  +  2 +  + ... +  3 −  
n →∞ n
  n  n  n  
and be parallel to the line x + 3y – 2z – 2 = 0 =
is equal to
19
(1) 12 (2) x – y + 2z. If the distance of L from the point
3
(3) 0 (4) 19
(5, 3, 8) is α, then 3α2 is equal to _____.
80. For α, β ∈ , suppose the system of linear
equations
86. If  1  +
x–y+z=5 ∫ sec 2x − 1 dx = α log e cos 2x + β + cos 2x 1 + cos x 
 β 
2x + 2y + αz = 8
constant, then β – α is equal to _____.
3x – y + 4z = β
has infinitely many solutions. Then α and β are 87. If the value of real number a > 0 for which
®
the roots of x2 – 5ax + 1 = 0 and x2 – ax – 5 = 0 have a
(1) x 2 − 10x + 16 =
0 (2) x 2 + 18x + 56 =
0
3
0 (4) x 2 + 14x + 24 =
(3) x 2 − 18x + 56 = 0 common real roots is then β is equal
2β
SECTION-B
to__.
81. 50th root of a number x is 12 and 50th root of
another number y is 18. Then the remainder 88. The number of seven digits odd numbers, that
obtained on dividing (x + y) by 25 is _____. can be formed using all the seven digits 1, 2, 2, 2,
3, 3, 5 is _____.
82. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 9}. Then the number of
possible functions f :A → A such that 89. A bag contains six balls of different colours.
f ( m ⋅ n=
) f ( m ) ⋅ f ( n ) for every m, n ∈ A Two balls are drawn in succession with
with m ⋅ n ∈ A is equal to _____.

replacement. The probability that both the balls
83. Let P ( a1 , b1 ) and Q ( a 2 , b 2 ) be two distinct
are of the same colour is p. Next four balls are
points on a circle with center C ( )
2, 3 . Let
drawn in succession with replacement and the
O be the origin and OC be perpendicular to both
probability that exactly three balls are of the
CP and CQ. If the area of the triangle OCP is
35 same colours is q. If p : q = m : n, where m and

, then a12 + a 22 + b12 + b 22 is equal to ___.
2 n are coprime, then m + n is equal to _____.
84. The 8th common term of the series
90. Let A be the area of the region
S1 = 3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + 19 + .....,
S2 =1 + 6 + 11 + 16 + 21 + .... {( x, y ) : y ≥ x , y ≥ (1 − x ) , y ≤ 2x (1 − x )}.
2 2
is _____. Then 540 A is equal to

88 E
SET # 09
PHYSICS 5. The initial speed of a projectile fired from
SECTION-A ground is u. At the highest point during its
3
1. A bar magnet with a magnetic moment 5.0 Am2 is motion, the speed of projectile is u. The
2
placed in parallel position relative to a magnetic
time of flight of the projectile is:
field of 0.4 T. The amount of required work done
u u 2u 3u
in turning the magnet form parallel to antiparallel (1) (2) (3) (4)
2g g g g
position relative to the field direction is _____.
6. Spherical insulating ball and a spherical
(1) 4 J (2) 1 J metallic ball of same size and mass are dropped
(3) 2 J (4) Zero from the same height. Choose the correct
2. If a source of electromagnetic radiation having statement out of the following {Assume
power 15 kW produces 1016 photons per second,
®
negligible air friction}
the radiation belongs to a part of spectrum is. (1) Time taken by them to reach the earth's
(Take Planck constant h = 6 × 10 − 34 Js) surface will be independent of the
(1) Micro waves (2) Ultraviolet rays properties of their materials
(3) Gamma rays (4) Radio waves (2) Insulating ball will reach the earth's surface
earlier than the metal ball
3. The amplitude of 15sin(1000πt) is modulated
(3) Both will reach the earth's surface
by 10sin(4πt) signal. The amplitude modulated
simultaneously
signal contains frequency(ies) of
(4) Metal ball will reach the earth's surface
(A) 500 Hz (B) 2 Hz earlier than the insulating ball.
(C) 250 Hz (D) 498 Hz 7. A free neutron decays into a proton but a free
(E) 502 Hz proton does not decay into neutron. This is because
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) neutron is an uncharged particle
given below: (2) proton is a charged particle
(1) A only (2) A, D and E only (3) neutron is a composite particle made of a
proton and an electron
(3) B only (4) A and B only

4. As shown in figure, a 70 kg garden roller is (4) neutron has larger rest mass than proton
 8. The effect of increase in temperature on the
pushed with a force of F = 200 N at an angle of
number of electrons in conduction band (ne) and
30o with horizontal. The normal reaction on the resistance of a semiconductor will be as:
roller is (Given g = 10 m s − 2) (1) Both ne and resistance decrease
(2) Both ne and resistance increase
(3) ne increases, resistance decreases
(4) ne decreases, resistance increases
9. The maximum potential energy of a block
executing simple harmonic motion is 25 J. A is
amplitude of oscillation. At A , the kinetic
2
energy of the block is
(1) 800 2 N (2) 600 N
(1) 37.5 J (2) 9.75 J
(3) 800 N (4) 200 3 N (3) 18.75 J (4) 12.5 J
E 89
10. The pressure of a gas changes linearly with (1) A is correct but R is not correct
volume from A to B as shown in figure. If no (2) A is not correct but R is correct
heat is supplied to or extracted from the gas (3) Both A and R are correct but R is Not the
then change in the internal energy of the gas
will be
13. The drift velocity of electrons for a conductor
connected in an electrical circuit is Vd. The
conductor in now replaced by another conductor
with same material and same length but double
®
the area of cross section. The applied voltage
remains same. The new drift velocity of
electrons will be
(1) 6 J (2) Zero
Vd
(3) −4.5J (4) 4.5 J (1) Vd (2)
2
11. Which of the following correctly represents the
Vd
variation of electric potential (V) of a charged (3) (4) 2Vd
4
spherical conductor of radius (R) with radial
14. At a certain depth "d" below surface of earth.
distance (r) from the centre?
value of acceleration due to gravity becomes
four times that of its value at a height 3R above
(1) (2)
earth surface. Where R is Radius of earth (Take
R = 6400 km). The depth d is equal to
(1) 5260 km (2) 640 km

(3) (4)
(3) 2560 km (4) 4800 km
15. If 1000 droplets of water of surface tension
12. Given below are two statements: One is labelled 0.07 N/m. having same radius 1 mm each,
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as combine to from a single drop. In the process
Reason R the released surface energy is-
Assertion A: The beam of electrons shows
 22 
wave nature and exhibit interference and  Take π = 7 
 
diffraction. Reason R : Davisson Germer
Experimentally verified the wave nature of (1) 7.92 × 10 −6 J
electrons.
(2) 7.92 × 10 −4 J
In the light of the above statements. Choose the
most appropriate answer from the options (3) 9.68 × 10 −4 J
given below : (4) 8.8 × 10 −5 J

90 E
16. A rod with circular cross-section area 2 cm2 and 20. 100 balls each of mass m moving with speed v
length 40 cm is wound uniformly with 400 turns simultaneously strike a wall normally and
of an insulated wire. If a current of 0.4 A flows reflected back with same speed, in time t s. The
in the wire windings, the total magnetic flux total force exerted by the balls on the wall is
−6
produced inside windings is 4 π × 10 Wb. The (1)
100mv
(2)
200mv
relative permeability of the rod is t t
(Given : Permeability of vacuum mv

(3) 200 mvt (4)
100t
µ 0 = 4 π × 10 −7 NA −2 )
SECTION-B
32
(1) 12.5 (2)
5 21. A thin rod having a length of 1 m and area of
5 cross-section 3 × 10 −6 m 2 is suspended
(3) 125 (4)
16 vertically from one end. The rod is cooled from
®
Cp 210°C to 160°C. After cooling, a mass M is
17. The correct relation between γ = and
cv attached at the lower end of the rod such that
temperature T is : the length of rod again becomes 1 m. Young's
1 modulus and coefficient of linear expansion of
(1) γ ∝
T the rod are 2 × 1011 N m −2 and 2 × 10 −5 K −1 ,
(2) γ ∝ T o respectively. The value of M is______ kg.
1 (Take g = 10 m s-2)
(3) γ ∝
T 22. The speed of a swimmer is 4 km h-1 in still
(4) γ ∝T water. If the swimmer makes his strokes normal
18. Two polaroide A and B are placed in such a to the flow of river of width 1 km, he reaches a
way that the pass-axis of polaroids are point 750 m down the stream on the opposite
perpendicular to each other. Now, another bank.
polaroid C is placed between A and B bisecting The speed of the river water is _______km h −1 .
angle between them. If intensity of unpolarised

23. In the figure given below. a block of mass
light is I0 then intensity of transmitted light after
M = 490 g placed on a frictionless table is
passing through polaroid B will be :
connected with two springs having same spring
I I
(1) 0 (2) 0 constant (K = 2 N m-1). If the block is
4 2
horizontally displaced through 'X'm then the
I
(3) 0 (4) Zero number of complete oscillations it will make in
8
14 π seconds will be________
19. If R, XL. and XC represent resistance, inductive
reactance and capacitive reactance. Then which
of the following is dimensionless:
M
R K K
(1) R X L X C (2)
XL XC
R XL
(3) (4) R
XL XC XC
E 91
24. In a medium the speed of light wave decreases 29. For hydrogen atom, λ1 and λ2 are the
to 0.2 times to its speed in free space The ratio wavelengths corresponding to the transitions 1
of relative permittivity to the refractive index of and 2 respectively as shown in figure. The ratio
x
the medium is x : 1. The value of x is _____. of λ1 and λ2 is . The value of x is ______.
32
(Given speed of light in free space = 3 × 108 m s-1 n=3
and for the given medium µ r =1 ) Excited states
n=2
25. A solid sphere of mass 1 kg rolls without
2 1
slipping on a plane surface. Its kinetic energy is Ground
-3
n=1 state
7 × 10 J. The speed of the centre of mass of
30. Two identical cells, when connected either in
the sphere is ______ cm s-1. parallel or in series gives same current in an
®
26. An inductor of 0.5 mH, a capacitor of 20 µF external resistance 5Ω. The internal resistance
of each cell will be ________ Ω.
and resistance of 20 Ω are connected in series
CHEMISTRY
with a 220 V ac source. If the current is in phase SECTION-A
2+
with the emf, the amplitude of current of the 31. Nd = _______
circuit is x A. The value of x is - (1) 4f 6s2
2
(2) 4f4
(3) 4f3 (4) 4f46s2
27. Expression for an electric field is given by
32. The methods NOT involved in concentration of
 V
E = 4000 x 2 î . The electric flux through the ore are
m
(A) Liquation
cube of side 20 cm when placed in electric field
(B) Leaching
(as shown in the figure) is _______ V cm. (C) Electrolysis
y (D) Hydraulic washing
(E) Froth floatation

20 cm given below :
(0,0,0) (1) B, D and C only (2) C, D and E only
(3) A and C only (4) B, D and E only
cm
33. Consider the following reaction

20
20 cm
z Propanal + Methanal = 
(i)dil.NaOH
(ii) ∆ → Product B
(iii)NaCN
+
(C 5 H8O3 )
28. A lift of mass M = 500 kg is descending with (iv)H3O
speed of 2 ms-1. Its supporting cable begins to The correct statement for product B is. It is
(1) optically active and adds one mole of bromine
slip thus allowing it to fall with a constant
(2) racemic mixture and is neutral
acceleration of 2 ms-2. The kinetic energy of the
(3) racemic mixture and gives a gas with
lift at the end of fall through to a distance of
saturated NaHCO3 solution
6 m will be ____kJ. (4) optically active alcohol and is neutral
92 E
34. The correct order of basicity of oxides of 37. Cobalt chloride when dissolved in water forms
vanadium is pink colored complex X which has octahedral
(1) V2O3 > V2O4 > V2O5 geometry. This solution on treating with cone
(2) V2O3 > V2O5 > V2O4 HCl forms deep blue complex, Y which has a Z
(3) V2O5 > V2O4 > V2O3 geometry. X, Y and Z, respectively, are
(4) V2O4 > V2O3 > V2O5 (1) X=[Co(H2O)6]2+, Y=[CoCl4]2-, Z=Tetrahedral
35. When Cu2+ ion is treated with KI, a white (2) X=[Co(H2O6)]2+, Y=[CoCl6]3-, Z=Octahedral
precipitate, X appears in solution. The solution
(3) X=[Co(H2O)6]3+, Y=[CoCl6]3-, Z=Octahedral
is titrated with sodium thiosulphate, the
compound Y is formed. X and Y respectively (4)X=[Co(H2O)4Cl2]+, Y=[CoCl4]2-, Z=Tetrahedral
are 38. Identify X, Y and Z in the following reaction.
®
(1) X = Cu2I2 Y=Na2S4O5 (Equation not balanced)
(2) X=Cu2I2 Y=Na2S4O6 •
(3) X=CuI2 Y=Na2S4O3 Cl O+ NO2 → X 

H2 O
→Y + Z
(4) X=CuI2 Y=Na2S4O6 (1) X=ClONO2, Y=HOCl, Z = NO2
2
(2) X=ClNO2, Y=HCl, Z=HNO3
H2/Pd (CH3CO)2O (3) X=ClONO2, Y=HOCl, Z=HNO3
36.
C2H5OH Pyridine
(4) X=ClNO3, Y=Cl2, Z=NO2
39. The correct order of melting point of
O dichlorobenzenes is
Cl Cl Cl
C
2
Cl
2
(1) > >
(1)
Cl
Cl
O
Cl Cl Cl
C Cl
CH2NH 2
(2) (2) > >
Cl
O Cl
Cl Cl Cl
C Cl
NHCH2 OH
(3) > >
(3) Cl
Cl
O
Cl Cl Cl
C Cl
NH CH 3
(4) > >
(4)
Cl
Cl
E 93
40. A protein ‘X’ with molecular weight of 70,000 u, 44. H2O2 acts as a reducing agent in
on hydrolysis gives amino acids. One of these
(1) 2NaOCl + H 2 O 2 → 2NaCl + H 2 O + O 2
amino acid is
(1) NH 2 − CH 2 − CH − CH 2 CH 2 COOH (2) 2Fe 2 + + 2H + + H 2 O 2 → 2Fe 3+ + 2H 2 O
|
CH 3
CH 3 (3) Mn 2 + + 2H 2 O 2 → MnO 2 + 2H 2 O
|
(2) CH 3 − CH − CH 2 − CH − COOH (4) Na 2 S + 4H 2 O 2 → Na 2 SO 4 + 4H 2 O
|
NH 2 45. Which of the following artificial sweeteners has
CH 3
| the highest sweetness value in comparison to
(3) CH − CH − CH − CH COOH
3 2
| cane sugar?
NH 2
(1) Aspartame
®
CH 3
| (2) Sucralose
(4) CH − C − CH − CH COOH
3 2 2
| (3) Alitame
NH 2
41. Which transition in the hydrogen spectrum (4) Saccharin
would have the same wavelength as the Balmer 46. Match List I with List II
type transition from n=4 to n = 2 of He+
spectrum List I List II
(1) n = 2 to n = 1 (2) n = 1 to n = 3 A. XeF4 I.See − saw
(3) n = 1 to n = 2 (4) n = 3 to n = 4 B.SF4 II. Square planar
42. Match items of column I and II
C.NH +4 III. Bent T − shaped
Column I Column II D.BrF3 IV. Tetrahedral
(Mixture of compounds) (Separation Technique)
A. H2O/CH2Cl2 Crystallization Choose the correct answer from the options
O OH
given below :
B. ii. Differential solvent extraction
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

NO2
C. Kerosene/Naphthalene iii. Column chromatography (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
D. C6H 12O6 /NaCl iv. Fractional Distillation (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Correct match is : (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i) 47. Choose the correct set of reagents for the
(2) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
following conversion
(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii) trans (Ph-CH=CH–CH3) → cis (Ph-CH=CH–CH3)
43. The correct increasing order of the ionic radii is (1) Br2 , alc KOH, NaNH 2 , Na(Liq NH 3 )
− 2+ + 2−
(1) Cl < Ca <K <S
(2) Br2 , alc KOH, NaNH 2 , H 2 Lindlar Catalyst
(2) K + < S2 − < Ca 2 + < Cl −
(3) S2 − < Cl − < Ca 2 + < K + (3) Br2 , aq KOH, NaNH 2 , H 2 Lindlar Catalyst
(4) Ca 2 + < K + < Cl − < S2 − (4) Br2 , aq KOH, NaNH 2 , Na(Liq NH 3 )
94 E
48. Adding surfactants in non polar solvent, the SECTION-B
micelles structure will look like 51. The logarithm of equilibrium constant for the
reaction Pd 2 + + 4Cl −  PdCl 24 − is_________
(Surfactant structure) (Nearest integer)

polar non-polar 2.303RT
head tail Given : = 0.06V
F
(a) Non Polar Solvent (b) Non Polar Solvent 2+
Pd (aq) + 2e −  Pd(s) E o = 0.83V
PdCl 24− (aq) + 2e −  Pd(s) + 4Cl − (aq)
E ο = 0.65V
52. A→B
Non Polar Solvent (d) Non Polar Solvent The rate constants of the above reaction at 200 K
and 300K are 0.03 min–1 and 0.05 min–1
®
respectively. The activation energy for the
reaction is _______ J (Nearest integer)
(Given : In 10 = 2.3
R = 8.3 J K-1 mol-1
(1) b (2) c log5 = 0.70
log3=0.48
(3) a (4) d
log2 = 0.30
49. An organic compound ‘A’ with empirical 53. The enthalpy change for the conversion of
formula C6H6O gives sooty flame on burning. 1
Cl 2 (g) to Cl– (aq) is (-) _____________
2
Its reaction with bromine solution in low
kJ mol–1 (Nearest integer)
polarity solvent results in high yield of B. B is
240kJmol −1 .
Given : ∆ dis H oCl2( g) =
CH2CH2 Br
OH
∆ eg H Cl
o
( g)
−350kJmol −1 ,
=
(1) (2)
∆ hyd H Cl
o
− −380kJmol −1
=
O ( g)
Br 54. On complete combustion, 0.492 g of an organic

compound gave 0.792 g of CO2.
Br
Br CH 2CH 3
OH The % of carbon in the organic compound is
(3) (4) _____ (Nearest integer)
Br 55. At 27oC, a solution containing 2.5 g of solute in
O
250.0 mL of solution exerts an osmotic pressure
of 400 Pa. The molar mass of the solute is ____
50. Which one of the following statements is
g mol-1 (Nearest integer)
correct for electrolysis of brine solution? (Given : R = 0.083 L bar K–1 mol–1)
56. Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid to give
(1) Cl2 is formed at cathode hydrogen and zinc chloride. The volume of
hydrogen gas produced at STP from the
(2) O2 is formed at cathode
reaction of 11.5 g of zinc with excess HCl is
(3) H2 is formed at anode ______ L (Nearest integer)
(Given : Molar mass of Zn is 65.4g mol-1 and
(4) OH– is formed at cathode Molar volume of H2 at STP = 22.7L)
E 95
57. How many of the transformation given below 62. For all z ∈ C on the curve C1 : | z | = 4, let the
would result in aromatic amines? 1
locus of the point z + be the curve C2. Then
z
O
(1) (1) the curves C1 and C2 intersect at 4 points
NH2+Br2+NaOH
(2) the curves C1 lies inside C2
Cl (3) the curves C1 and C2 intersect at 2 points

O
(4) the curves C2 lies inside C1
(2) NK
63. A wire of length 20 m is to be cut into two
O pieces. A piece of length  1 is bent to make a
NO2
H2 square of area A1 and the other piece of length
(3)
Pd/C
 2 is made into a circle of area A2. If 2A1 + 3A2
®
NH COCH 3
is minimum then (π  1 ) :  2 is equal to:
(4) dil H2SO4
(1) 6 : 1 (2) 3 : 1

(3) 1 : 6 (4) 4 : 1
1 64. For the system of linear equations
58. For reaction : SO 2 (g) + O2 (g)  SO3 (g)
2 x+y+z=6
12 o
KP = 2 × 10 at 27 C and 1 atm pressure. The αx + βy + 7z = 3
13
Kc for the same reaction is _______ × 10 . x + 2y + 3z = 14,
(Nearest integer) which of the following is NOT true ?
–1 –1
(Given R = 0.082 L atm K mol )
(1) If α = β = 7, then the system has no solution
59. The oxidation sate of phosphorus in
(2) If α = β and α ≠ 7 then the system has a
hypophosphoric acid is + ________ .
unique solution.
60. The total pressure of a mixture of non-reacting
(3) There is a unique point (α, β) on the line
gases X (0.6 g) and Y (0.45 g) in a vessel is
x + 2y + 18 = 0 for which the system has
740 mm of Hg. The partial pressure of the gas
infinitely many solutions
X is _________ mm of Hg. (Nearest Integer)
(4) For every point (α, β) ≠ (7, 7) on the line
(Given : molar mass X = 20 and Y = 45 g mol-1)
x – 2y + 7 = 0, the system has infinitely
SECTION-A
many solutions.
61. If the maximum distance of normal to the
65. Let the shortest distance between the lines
x2 y2
ellipse + =
1 , b < 2, from the origin is 1, x−5 y−λ z+λ
4 b2 L: = = , λ > 0 and L1: x + 1 =
−2 0 1
then the eccentricity of the ellipse is:
y – 1 = 4 – z be 2 6 . If (α, β, γ) lies on L, then
1 3
(1) (2) which of the following is NOT possible?
2 2
(1) α + 2γ = 24 (2) 2α + γ = 7
1 3
(3) (4) (3) 2α – γ = 9 (4) α – 2γ = 19
2 4
96 E
66. Let y = f(x) represent a parabola with focus 71. The number of real roots of the equation
æ 1 ö 1 x 2 - 4x + 3 + x 2 - 9 = 4x 2 - 14x + 6 , is:
ç - 2 ,0 ÷ and directrix y = - 2 .
è ø (1) 0 (2) 1
Then (3) 3 (4) 2
ì
S = í x Î ¡ : tan -1
î
( f ( x ) + sin -1 ( f (x ) + 1 )) pü
= ý:
2þ
72. Let a differentiable function f satisfy
x
f (t )
(1) contains exactly two elements f (x) + ò dt= x + 1, x ³ 3 . Then 12f(8) is
3 t
(2) contains exactly one element
equal to:
(3) is an infinite set
(1) 34 (2) 19
(4) is an empty set
(3) 17 (4) 1
æ1 0 0 ö
67. Let A = çç 0 4 -1 ÷÷ . Then the sum of the 73. If the domain of the function f ( x ) = ,
[ x]
1 + x2
®
ç 0 12 -3 ÷
è ø where [x] is greatest integer < x, is [2, 6), then
diagonal elements of the matrix (A + I)11 is its range is
equal to: æ 5 2 ù ì 9 27 18 9 ü
(1) ç , ú - í , , , ý
(1) 6144 (2) 4094 è 26 5 û î 29 109 89 53 þ
(3) 4097 (4) 2050 æ 5 2ù
(2) ç , ú
68. Let R be a relation on N ´ N defined by (a, b) R è 26 5 û
æ 5 2 ù ì 9 27 18 9 ü
(c, d) if and only if ad(b – c) = bc(a – d). Then (3) ç , ú - í , , , ý
è 37 5 û î 29 109 89 53 þ
R is æ 5 2ù
(4) ç , ú
(1) symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive è 37 5 û
r r r
74. Let a = 2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ , and b and c be two nonzero
(2) transitive but neither reflexive nor symmetric
r r r r r r
vectors such that a + b + c = a + b - c and
(3) reflexive and symmetric but not transitive rr
b.c = 0 . Consider the following two statement:
(4) symmetric and transitive but not reflexive r r r
(A) a + lc ³ a for all l Î ¡ .
r r
Let y = f ( x ) = sin 3 çæ p çæ cos çæ p ( -4x3 + 5x 2 + 1) 2 ö÷ ÷ö ÷ö .
3
69. (B) a and c are always parallel
ç ç ÷÷
è3è è3 2 øøø (1) only (B) is correct
Then, at x = 1, (2) neither (A) nor (B) is correct
(1) 2y '+ 3p y = 0 2
(2) 2y '+ 3p 2 y = 0 (3) only (A) is correct
(3) 2y '- 3p2 y = 0 (4) y '+ 3p 2 y = 0 (4) both (A) and (B) are correct.
75. Let a Î (0, 1) and b = loge(1 – a). Let
70. If the sum and product of four positive
consecutive terms of a G.P., are 126 and 1296, x2 x3 xn
Pn ( x ) = x + + + ..... + , x Î (0, 1).
respectively, then the sum of common ratios of 2 3 n
a
all such GPs is t 50
9
Then the integral ò0 1 - t dt is equal to
(1) 7 (2)
2 (1) b – P50 (a) (2) – (b + P50 (a))
(3) 3 (4) 14 (3) P50 (a) – b (4) b + P50 (a)
E 97
α 4 77 82. Let a1, a2, ……,an be in A.P. If a5 = 2a7 and
76. If sin −1 + cos−1 − tan −1 = 0 , 0 < α < 13,
17 5 36 a11 = 18, then
then sin–1(sin α) + cos–1(cos α) is equal to
 
(1) π (2) 16 12 
1
+
1
+ .....
1
 is
(3) 0 (4) 16 – 5π  a + a a + a a + a 
 10 11 11 12 17 18 
77. Let a circle C1 be obtained on rolling the circle
equal to _________.
x2 + y2 – 4x – 6 y + 11 = 0 upwards 4 units on
the tangent T to it at the point (3, 2). Let C2 be 83. Let θ be the angle between the planes
the image of C1 in T. Let A and B be the centers P=
1
 ˆ ˆ
( )
r. i + j + 2kˆ = 9 and =

P2 r. 2iˆ − ˆj + = (
kˆ 15 . )
of circles C1 and C2 respectively, and M and N
Let L be the line that meets P2 at the point
be respectively the feet of perpendiculars drawn
(4, –2, 5) and makes an angle θ with the normal
from A and B on the x-axis. Then the area of
the trapezium AMNB is : of P2. If α is the angle between L and P2 then
(
(1) 2 2 + 2 ) ( )
(2) 4 1 + 2 (tan2θ)(cot2α) is equal to ________.
®
Let α > 0, be the smallest number such that the
(4) 2 (1 + 2 )
84.
(3) 3 + 2 2 30
 23 2 
x + 3 
( S1)( p ⇒ q ) ∨ ( p ∧ ( ~ q ) ) is a tautology
expansion of has a term
78.  x 
( S2 ) ( ( ~ p ) ⇒ ( ~ q ) ) ∧ ( ( ~ p ) ∨ q ) is a βx −α , β ∈  . Then α is equal to _________.
Contradiction. Then   
85. Let a and b be two vector such that a = 14 ,
(1) only (S2) is correct     2
(2) both (S1) and (S2) are correct b = 6 and a × b =48 . Then ( a.b ) is
(3) both (S1) and (S2) are wrong equal to _________.
(4) only (S1) is correct x −1 y +1 z − 3
86. Let the line L : = = intersect the
π 2 −1 1
2
( 2 + 3sin x )
79. The value of ∫ sin x (1 + cos x ) dx is equal to
π
plane 2x + y + 3z = 16 at the point P. Let the
point Q be the foot of perpendicular from the
3
7 point R(1, –1, –3) on the line L. If α is the area

(1) − 3 − log e 3 (2) −2 + 3 3 + log e 3
2 of triangle PQR. then α2 is equal to _________.
10 10
(3) − 3 + log e 3 (4) − 3 − log e 3 87. The remainder on dividing 599 by 11 is _____.
3 3
80. A bag contains 6 balls. Two balls are drawn 88. If the variance of the frequency distribution
from it at random and both are found to be xi 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
black. The probability that the bag contains at Frequency fi 3 6 16 α 9 5 6
least 5 black balls is 89. Let for x ∈ R
5 2 3 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) x+ x  x, x<0
7 7 7 6 f (x) = and g ( x ) =  2 .
2 x x≥0
SECTION-B
81. Let 5 digit numbers be constructed using the Then area bounded by the curve y = (fog)(x)
digits 0, 2, 3, 4, 7, 9 with repetition allowed, and the lines y = 0, 2y – x = 15 is equal to ____.
and are arranged in ascending order with serial 90. Number of 4-digit numbers that are less than or
numbers. Then the serial number of the number equal to 2800 and either divisible by 3 or by 11,
42923 is ______. is equal to _________.
98 E
SET # 10
PHYSICS 5. For a solid rod, the Young's modulus of
SECTION-A elasticity is 3.2 × 1011 Nm-2 and density is
1. The H amount of thermal energy is developed 8 × 103 kg m-3. The velocity of longitudinal
by a resistor in 10 s when a current of 4A is wave in the rod will be.
passed through it. If the current is increased to (1) 145.75 × 103 ms-1
16A, the thermal energy developed by the (2) 3.65 × 103 ms-1
resistor in 10 s will be:
(3) 18.96 × 103 ms-1
(1) H (2) 16H
(4) 6.32 × 103 ms-1
H 6. A long conducting wire having a current I
(3) (4) 4H
4 flowing through it, is bent into a circular coil of
2. A body is moving with constant speed, in a
®
N turns. Then it is bent into a circular coil of n
circle of radius 10 m. The body completes one
turns. The magnetic field is calculated at the
revolution in 4 s. At the end of 3rd second, the
centre of coils in both the cases. The ratio of the
displacement of body (in m) from its starting
magnetic field in first case to that of second
point is:
case is:
(1) 30 (2) 15𝜋
(1) N : n (2) n2 : N2
(3) 5𝜋 (4) 10√2
(3) N2 : n2 (4) n : N
3. A microscope is focused on an object at the
bottom of a bucket. If liquid with refractive 7. Heat energy of 735 J is given to a diatomic gas
5 allowing the gas to expand at constant pressure.
index is poured inside the bucket, then
3
Each gas molecule rotates around an internal
microscope have to be raised by 30 cm to focus
axis but do not oscillate. The increase in the
the object again. The height of the liquid in the
internal energy of the gas will be:
bucket is :
(1) 525 J (2) 441 J
(1) 75 cm (2) 50 cm
(3) 572 J (4) 735 J

(3) 18 cm (4) 12 cm
8. Given below are two statements
4. A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to end of a massless Statement I: For transmitting a signal, size of
string of length 1 m. If the breaking tension of antenna (l) should be comparable to wavelength
𝜆
of signal (at least l = in dimension).
the string is 400 N, then maximum linear 4
Statement II: In amplitude modulation,

velocity, the stone can have without breaking
amplitude of carrier wave remains constant
the string, while rotating in horizontal plane, is:
(unchanged).
-1 -1
(1) 20 ms (2) 40 ms In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) 400 ms-1 (4) 10 ms-1 most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
E 99
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are 12. Match List-I with List-II.
correct List-I List-II
A. Angular momentum I [ML2T–2]
B Torque II [ML–2T–2]
incorrect
C Stress III [ML2T–1]
D Pressure gradient IV [ML–1T–2]
correct
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is given below:
incorrect (1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
9. The number of turns of the coil of a moving coil
galvanometer is increased in order to increase
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
®
current sensitivity by 50%. The percentage
13. An alternating voltage source V = 260 sin
change in voltage sensitivity of the (628t) is connected across a pure inductor of
galvanometer will be : 5 mH. Inductive reactance in the circuit is:
(1) 3.14Ω (2) 6.28Ω
(1) 100% (2) 50%
(3) 0.5Ω (4) 0.318Ω
(3) 75% (4) 0% 14. Match List-I with List-II.
10. If the two metals A and B are exposed to List-I List-II
radiation of wavelength 350 nm. The work Microwaves Physiotherapy
A. I
functions of metals A and B are 4.8 eV and
B UV rays II Treatment of cancer
2.2 eV. Then choose the correct option
C Infra-red rays III Lasik eye surgery
(1) Metal B will not emit photo-electrons
D X-rays IV Aircraft navigation
(2) Both metals A and B will emit photo-
Choose the correct answer from the option
electrons given below:
(3) Both metals A and B will not emit photo- (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
electrons
(4) Metal A will not emit photo-electrons (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
15. The radius of electron's second stationary orbit in
11. A body weight W, is projected vertically
Bohr's atom is R. The radius of 3rd orbit will be
upwards from earth's surface to reach a height R
(1) (2) 2.25R (3) 3R (4) 9R
above the earth which is equal to nine times the 3
radius of earth. The weight of the body at that 16. Under the same load, wire A having length
5.0 m and cross section 2.5 × 10-5 m² stretches
height will be:
uniformly by the same amount as another wire
W W B of length 6.0 m and a cross section of
(1) (2)
91 100 3.0 × 10-5 m² stretches. The ratio of the Young's
W W modulus of wire A to that of wire B will be:
(3) (4)
9 3 (1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 10 (4) 1 : 2
100 E
17. Considering a group of positive charges, which SECTION-B
of the following statements is correct? 21. A series LCR circuit consists of R=80 Ω.
(1) Net potential of the system cannot be zero XL = 100 Ω, and XC = 40Ω. The input voltage is
at a point but net electric field can be zero 2500 cos(100 πt) V. The amplitude of current,
at that point. in the circuit, is_________A.
(2) Net potential of the system at a point can 22. Two light waves of wavelengths 800 and
be zero but net electric field can't be zero at 600 nm are used in Young's double slit
experiment to obtain interference fringes on a
that point.
screen placed 7 m away from plane of slits. If
(3) Both the net potential and the net field can the two slits are separated by 0.35 mm, then
be zero at a point. shortest distance from the central bright
(4) Both the net potential and the net electric maximum to the point where the bright fringes
field cannot be zero at a point. of the two wavelength coincide will be____mm.
18. A body of mass 10 kg is moving with an initial 23. A water heater of power 2000 W is used to heat
water. The specific heat capacity of water is
®
speed of 20 m/s. The body stops after 5 s due to 4200 J kg–1 K–1. The efficiency of heater is
friction between body and the floor. The value 70%. Time required to heat 2 kg of water from
of the coefficient of friction is: 10°C to 60°C is ______s. (Assume that the
(Take acceleration due to gravity g = 10 ms-2) specific heat capacity of water remains constant
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.3 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.4 over the temperature range of the water).
19. A hypothetical gas expands adiabatically such 24. A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m. If the
coefficient of restitution for the collision
that its volume changes from 08 litres to
between ball and floor is 0.5, after hitting the
27 litres. If the ratio of final pressure of the gas floor, the ball rebounds to a height of____m.
16 25. Two discs of same mass and different radii are
to initial pressure of the gas is . Then the
81 made of different materials such that their
CP thicknesses are 1 cm and 0.5 cm respectively.
ratio of will be. The densities of materials are in the ratio 3:5.
CV
The moment of inertia of these discs
4 3 1 3 respectively about their diameters will be in the
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 1 2 2 ratio of x . The value of x is_______.
20. Given below are two statements: 6
Statement I: In a typical transistor, all three 26. If the binding energy of ground state electron in
a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, then, the energy

regions emitter, base and collector have same
required to remove the electron from the second
doping level. excited state of Li 2+ will be: x × 10-1 eV. The
Statement II: In a transistor, collector is the value of x is _____.
thickest and base is the thinnest segment. 27. For the given circuit, in the steady state,
In the light of the above statements, choose the |VB–VD| = _______V.
most appropriate answer from the options B
2Ω
given below. 1µF
2Ω 1µF
1Ω C
correct A
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are 10Ω
2Ω
incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is D
correct
incorrect 6V
E 101
28. Two parallel plate capacitors C1 and C2 each 33. Which of the following compounds are not used
having capacitance of 10 µF are individually
as disinfectants?
charged by a 100 V D.C. source. Capacitor C1 is
kept connected to the source and a dielectric (A) Chloroxylenol
slab is inserted between it plates. Capacitor C2 (B) Bithional
is disconnected from the source and then a
(C) Veronal
dielectric slab is inserted in it. Afterwards the
capacitor C1 is also disconnected from the (D) Prontosil
source and the two capacitors are finally (E) Terpineol
connected in parallel combination. The common
potential of the combination will be ______V.
(Assuming Dielectric constant = 10) given below:
29. The displacement equations of two interfering
®
(1) A, B, E (2) A, B
waves are given by
𝜋 (3) B, D, E (4) C, D
y1=10sin (ωt + 3 ) cm,
y 2 =5�sin(𝜔𝑡) + √3 cos 𝜔𝑡�cm respectively. The 34. A hydrocarbon ‘X’ with formula C 6 H8 uses two
amplitude of the resultant wave is _______cm. moles of H 2 on catalytic hydrogenation of its
30. Two bodies are projected from ground with
same speeds 40 ms-1 at two different angles one mole. On ozonolysis, ‘X’ yields two moles
with respect to horizontal. The bodies were of methane dicarbaldehyde. The hydrocarbon
found to have same range. If one of the body
‘X’ is :
was projected at an angle of 60°, with
horizontal then sum of the maximum heights, (1) hexa-1, 3, 5-triene
attained by the two projectiles, is _______m.
(2) 1-methylcyclopenta-1, 4-diene
(Given g=10ms-2)
CHEMISTRY (3) cyclohexa-1, 3-diene
SECTION-A
(4) cyclohexa-1, 4-diene
31. In the following halogenated organic
compounds the one with maximum number of 35. Cyclohexylamine when treated with nitrous
chlorine atoms in its structure is : acid yields (P). On treating (P) with PCC results
(1) Chloral (2) Gammaxene
(3) Chloropicrin (4) Freon -12 in (Q). When (Q) is heated with dil. NaOH we
32. Incorrect statement for the use of indicators in get (R) The final product (R) is :
acid-base titration is :
(1) Methyl orange may be used for a weak acid O O
vs weak base titration. (1) (2)
(2) Methyl orange is a suitable indicator for a
strong acid vs weak base titration
(3) Phenolphthalein is a suitable indicator for a O O O
OH
weak acid vs strong base titration (3) (4)
(4) Phenolphthalein may be used for a strong
acid vs strong base titration.
102 E
36. Given below are two statements : 38. Compound A, C 5 H10 O5 , given a tetraacetate
Statement I : Upon heating a borax bead with Ac 2 O and oxidation of A with Br2 − H 2 O
dipped in cupric sulphate in a luminous flame, gives an acid, C 5 H10 O6 . Reduction of A with
HI gives isopentane. The possible structure of A
the colour of the bead becomes green.
is :
Statement II : The green colour observed is
due to the formation of copper(I) metaborate.
(1)
In the light of the above statements, choose the 2 2
most appropriate answer from the options

given below :
(2) H2
2
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II isfalse
®
2
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II arefalse

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II istrue
37. Evaluate the following statements for their (3)
2 2
correctness.
(A) The elevation in boiling point temperature
(4)
of water will be same for 0.1 M NaCl and
0.1 M urea.
39. Arrange the following orbitals in decreasing
(B) Azeotropic mixtures boil without change
order of energy ?
in their composition
(A) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0
(C) Osmosis always takes place from
(B) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0
hypertonic to hypotonic solution
(C) n = 3, l = 1, m = 0
(D) The density of 32% H 2 SO 4 solution having
(D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1
molarity 4.09 M is approximately The correct option for the order is :

−1
1.26 g mL (1) B > D > C > A
(E) A negatively charged sol is obtained when (2) D > B > C > A
KI solution is added to silver nitrate (3) A > C > B > D
solution. (4) D > B > A > C

40. The Lewis acid character of boron tri halides
follows the order :
given below :
(1) BBr3 > BI3 > BCI 3 > BF3
(1) B, D, and E only
(2) A, B, and D only (2) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3 > BI 3
(3) A and C only (3) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI 3
(4) B and D only (4) BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
E 103
41. Match List-I with List-II 44. Given below are two statements :
List-I List-II Statement I : H 2 O2 is used in the synthesis
(A) Physisorption I Single layer of Cephalosporin
adsorption Statement II : H 2 O2 is used for the restoration
(B) Chemisorption II 20-40 kJ mol-1 of aerobic conditions to sewage wastes.

Fe(s) In the light of the above statements, choose
(C) N 2 (g) + 3H 2 (g) → 2NH3 (g) III Chromatography
the most appropriate answer from the
(D) Analytical Application IV Heterogeneous options given below :
or Adsorption catalysis (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
given below : is correct
(1) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
®
(2) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D - II incorrect
(3) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D - I (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
(4) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
45. The normal rain water is slightly acidic and its pH
42. Given below are two statements : one is
value is 5.6 because of which one of the following?
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is (1) CO2 + H 2 O → H 2 CO3
labelled as Reason (R) (2) 4NO2 + O2 + 2H 2 O → 4HNO3
Assertion (A) : The first ionization enthalpy
(3) 2SO2 + O2 + 2H 2 O → 2H 2SO 4
of 3d series elements is more than that of
(4) N 2 O5 + H 2 O → 2HNO3
group 2 metals
46. When a hydrocarbon A undergoes complete
Reason (R) : In 3d series of elements combustion it requires 11 equivalents of oxygen
successive filling of d-orbitals takes place. and produces 4 equivalents of water. What is
In the light of the above statements, choose the molecular formula of A ?
the correct answer from the options given (1) C 9 H8 (2) C11H 4 (3) C 5H8 (4) C11H8
below : 47. An organic compound [ A ] ( C 4 H11N ) , shows node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\01_January\SET-9 & 10.docx"
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the optical activity and gives N 2 gas on treatment
correct explanation of (A) with HNO2 . The compound [ A ] reacts with
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not PhSO2 Cl producing a compound which is
the correct explanation of (A) soluble in KOH. The structure of A is:
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false (1) (2)
43. The element playing significant role in
neuromuscular function and interneuronal Me
transmission is :
(3) N (4)
(1) Be (2) Ca
(3) Li (4) Mg H
104 E
48. Which one of the following statements is 55. A sample of a metal oxide has formula
incorrect ? M 0.83O1.00 . The metal M can exist in two
(1) Boron and Indium can be purified by zone
oxidation states +2 and + 3 . In the sample of
refining method.
(2) Van- Arkel method is used to purify M 0.83O1.00 , the percentage of metal ions existing
tungsten. in +2 oxidation state is _____ % (nearest integer)
(3) Cast iron is obtained by melting pig iron 56. Assume carbon burns according to following
with scrap iron and coke using hot air equation :
blast.
2C( s ) + O2( g ) → 2CO ( g )
(4) The malleable iron is prepared from cast
iron by oxidising impurities in a When 12 g carbon is burnt in 48 g of oxygen,
reverberatory furnace.
the volume of carbon monoxide produced is
49. Which of the following elements have half-
filled f-orbitals in their ground state ? ______ ×10 −1 L at STP [nearest integer]
(Given : atomic number [Given : Assume CO as ideal gas, Mass of C is
= = = = = 12 g mol −1 , Mass of O is 16 g mol −1 and molar
®
Sm 62; Eu 63; Tb 65; Gd 64, Pm 61 )
A. Sm B. Eu C. Tb
volume of an ideal gas at STP is 22.7 L mol −1 ]
D. Gd E. Pm
Choose the correct answer from the options 57. The number of alkali metal(s), from
given below: Li, K, Cs, Rb having ionization enthalpy greater
(1) B and D only (2) A and E only than 400 kJ mol −1 and forming stable super oxide
(3) A and B only (4) C and D only
is _____.
50. In Dumas method for the estimation of N 2 , the
58. Enthalpies of formation of
sample is heated with copper oxide and the gas
CCl 4 ( g ) , H 2 O ( g ) , CO2 ( g ) and
evolved is passed over :
(1) Ni (2) Copper gauze HCl ( g ) are − 105, − 242, − 394 and − 92 kJ mol −1
(3) Pd (4) Copper oxide respectively. The magnitude of enthalpy of the
SECTION-B
3+ reaction given below is ______ kJ mol −1
51. If the CFSE of  Ti ( H 2 O )6  is −96.0 kJ / mol ,
(nearest integer)
this complex will absorb maximum at CCl 4 ( g ) + 2H 2 O ( g ) → CO2 ( g ) + 4HCl ( g )
wavelength ___ nm. (nearest integer)
Assume Planck’s constant ( h= ) 6.4 × 10 −34 Js 59. The number of molecules which gives haloform
test among the following molecules is ______ .

Speed of light ( c=
) 3.0 × 108 m / s and Avogadro’s
constant ( N A )= 6 × 10 23 / mol .
52. Amongst the following, the number of species
having the linear shape is _____.
XeF2 , I3+ , C3O2 , I3− , CO2 , SO2 , BeCl and BCl Θ
2
53. The resistivity of a 0.8 M solution of an
electrolyte is 5 × 10 −3 Ωcm . Its molar
60. The rate constant for a first order reaction is
conductivity is _______ ×10 4 Ω −1 cm 2 mol −1 .
(Nearest integer) 20 min −1 . The time required for the initial
54. At 298 K, the solubility of silver chloride in water concentration of the reactant to reduce to its
−3 −1
is 1.434 × 10 g L . The value of − log K sp for 1
level is _____ ×10 −2 min . (Nearest integer)
silver chloride is ______. 32
(Given mass of Ag is 107.9 g mol −1 and mass (Given : ln 10 = 2.303
log 2 = 0.3010)
of Cl is 35.5 g mol −1 )
E 105
MATHEMATICS 65. Let y = y ( x ) be the solution of the differential
SECTION-A
( ) (
equation 3y 2 − 5x 2 y dx + 2x x 2 − y 2 dy =
0 )
=
61. If φ ( x )
1 x
xπ
( )
∫ 4 2 sin t − 3φ ' ( t ) dt, x >0,
such that y (1) = 1. then ( y ( 2 ) ) − 12y ( 2 ) is
3
4
π equal to:
then φ '   is equal to :
4
(1) 32 2 (2) 64
8 4
(1) (2) (3) 16 2 (4) 32
π 6+ π
8 4 66. The set of all values of a 2 for which the line
(3) (4)
6+ π 6− π x+y=
0 bisects two distinct chords drawn from
62. If a point P ( α, β, γ ) satisfying
1+ a 1− a 
a point P ,  on the circle
®
 2 10 8   2 2 
( α β γ )  9 3 8  =( 0 0 0 ) lies on the plane
2x 2 + 2y 2 − (1 + a ) x − (1 − a ) y =
0 is equal to:
 8 4 8
2x + 4y + 3z =
5, then 6α + 9β + 7 γ is equal to: (1) ( 8, ∞ ) (2) ( 4, ∞ )
11 (3) (0, 4] (4) (2,12]
(1) – 1 (2)
5
67. Among the relations
5
(3) (4) 11
 a 
4 =S (a, b) : a, b ∈  − {0}, 2 + > 0 
63. Let a1 , a 2 , a 3 ,..... be an A.P. If a 7 = 3, the  b 
product a1a 4 is minimum and the sum of its =
And T {(a, b) : a, b ∈ , a 2 − b 2 ∈ Z},
first n terms is zero, then n! − 4a n ( n + 2 ) is equal (1) S is transitive but T is not
to : (2) T is symmetric but S is not
33 (3) Neither S nor T is transitive

(1) 24 (2)
4 (4) Both S and T are symmetric

381 68. The equation
(3) (4) 9
4
e 4x + 8e3x + 13e 2x − 8e x + 1= 0, x ∈ R has:
64. Let (a, b) ⊂ ( 0, 2π ) be the largest interval for
(1) two solutions and both are negative
which sin −1 ( sin θ ) − cos −1 ( sin θ ) > 0, θ∈ ( 0, 2π ) ,
(2) no solution
holds. If (3) four solutions two of which are negative
αx + βx + sin
2 −1
(x 2
)
− 6x + 10 + cos −1
(4) two solutions and only one of them is negative
(x 2
)
− 6x + 10 =
0 69. The number of values of r ∈ {p, q, ~ p, ~ q} for
and α − β= b − a , then α is equal to : which ( ( p ∧ q ) ⇒ ( r ∨ q ) ) ∧ ( ( p ∧ r ) ⇒ q ) is a
π π
(1) (2) tautology, is:
48 16
(1) 3 (2) 2
π π
(3) (4)
8 12 (3) 1 (4) 4
106 E
70. Let f :  − {2, 6} →  be real valued function 74. Let the plane P : 8x + α1 y + α 2 z + 12 =0 be
x 2 + 2x + 1 x + 2 y−3 z+ 4
defined as f(x) = . Then range of parallel to the line L : = = . If
2 3 5
x 2 − 8x + 12
the intercept of P on the y-axis is 1, then the
f is
distance between P and L is :
 21 
(1)  −∞, −  ∪ [ 0, ∞ ) 6 2 7
 4 (1) 14 (2) (3) (4)
14 7 2
 21 
(2)  −∞, − ∪ ( 0, ∞) 75. The foot of perpendicular from the origin O to a
 4 
plane P which meets the co-ordinate axes at the
 21   21  points A, B, C is (2, a, 4), a ∈ N. If the volume
(3)  −∞, − ∪ , ∞
 4   4  of the tetrahedron OABC is 144 unit3, then
®
 21  which of the following points is NOT on P?
(4)  −∞, − ∪ [1, ∞ )
 4  (1) (2, 2, 4) (2) (0, 4, 4)
(3) (3, 0, 4) (4) (0, 6, 3)
( ) ( )
6 6
3x + 1 + 3x − 1 + 3x + 1 − 3x − 1
71. lim x3 76. Let the mean and standard deviation of marks of
(x + ) + (x − )
x →∞ 6 6
x −1
2
x −1
2
class A of 100 students be respectively 40 and
α(> 0) , and the mean and standard deviation
(1) is equal to 9
of marks of class B of n students be respectively
(2) is equal to 27
55 and 30 – α . If the mean and variance of the
(3) does not exist
marks of the combined class of 100 + n students
27
(4) is equal to are respectively 50 and 350, then the sum of
2
variances of classes A and B is:
72. Let P be the plane, passing through the point
(1) 500 (2) 650
(1, − 1, − 5) and perpendicular to the line joining
(3) 450 (4) 900
the points ( 4,1, − 3) and ( 2, 4, 3) . Then the  ∧ ∧ ∧  ∧ ∧ ∧
Let : a = i + 2 j+ 3k, b = i − j+ 2 k and
77.
distance of P from the point ( 3, − 2, 2 ) is  ∧ ∧ ∧ 
c = 5 i − 3 j+ 3k be there vectors. If r is a
(1) 6 (2) 4     
vector such that, r × b = c × b and r.a = 0. Then
(3) 5 (4) 7
2
73. The absolute minimum value, of the function 25 r is equal to
f (x) = | x 2 − x + 1| +  x 2 − x + 1 , where [t] (1) 449 (2) 336

(3) 339 (4) 560
denotes the greatest integer function, in the
78. Let H be the hyperbola, whose foci are
interval [-1, 2], is :
(1 ± 2 , 0) and eccentricity is 2 . Then the
3 3
(1) (2) length of its lat us rectum is ______________.
4 2
1 5 5 3
(3) (4) (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) (4)
4 4 2 2
E 107
α
  
x 16 + 20 2 85. Let a, b, c be three vectors such that
79. Let α > 0. If ∫ dx = ,
0 x+α − x 15
  
a= 31, 4 b= c= 2 and
then α is equal to :
    
(1) 2 (2) 4 ( ) ( )
2 a × b = 3 c × a . If the angle between b
(3) 2 (4) 2 2   2
 2π  a×c 
i −1 and c is , then     is equal to ______.
The complex number z = 3  a.b 
80.
π π
is  
cos + i sin
3 3 86. Let S be the set of all a ∈ N such that the area
equal to:
of the triangle formed by the tangent at the
 5π 5π 
(1) 2  cos + i sin  point P (b, c), b, c ∈ N, on the parabola y2 = 2ax
®
 12 12 
(2) cos
π
− i sin
π and the lines x = b, y = 0 is 16 unit2, then ∑a
12 12 a∈S
 π π is equal to _____.
(3) 2  cos + i sin 
 12 12 
87. The sum
 5π 5π 
(4) 2 i  cos − i sin  12 − 2.32 + 3.52 − 4.7 2 + 5.92 − ........ + 15.292
 12 12 
is___________.
81. The Coefficient of x −6 , in the expansion of
9 88. Let A be the event that the absolute difference
 4x 5 
 + 2  , is ___________
 5 2x  between two randomly choosen real numbers
82. Let the area of the region in the sample space [0, 60] is less than or
{(x, y) : 2x − 1 ≤ y ≤| x 2
}
− x |, 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 be A.
11
equal to a . If P (A)= , then a is equal
36
Then (6A+11)2 is equal to _______.
to__________.
2 n +1
83. If Pn −1 : 2 n −1 Pn = 11 : 21, then n 2 + n + 15
89. Let =
A [a ij ], a ij ∈ Z  [0, 4],1 ≤ i, j ≤ 2. The
is equal to:
84. If the constant term in the binomial expansion number of matrices A such that the sum of all
 52 
9
entries is a prime number p ∈ (2,13)
of  x 4 
−  is – 84 and the Coefficient of
 2 x  is____________.

 
90. Let A be a n × n matrix such that |A| = 2. If the
x −3
is 2 β, where β < 0 is an odd number,
α
determinant of the matrix Adj (2. Adj(2A-1)). is

Then α − β is equal to ___________
284, then n is equal to _______________.
108 E
SET # 11
PHYSICS In the light of the above statements, choose the
SECTION-A correct answer from the options given below
1. Match the List I with List II (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
List I List II (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
A. Intrinsic I. Fermi-level near (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Semiconductor conduction band (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
B. n-type II. Fermi-level at 4. Match the List-I with List-II.
semiconductor middle List-I List-II
C. p-type III. Fermi-level near A. AC generator I. Presence of both L
semiconductor valence band and C
D. Metals IV. Fermi-level inside B. Transformer II. Electromagnetic
®
conduction band Induction
Choose the correct answer from the options C. Resonance III. Quality factor
given below: phenomenon
to occur
(1) (A) → I, (B) → II, (C) → III, (D) → IV
D. Sharpness of IV. Mutual Inductance
(2) (A) → II, (B) → I, (C) → III, (D) →IV
resonance
(3) (A) → II, (B) → III, (C) → I, (D) → IV Choose the correct answer from the options
(4) (A) → III, (B) → I, (C) → II, (D) → IV given below:
2. An object moves with speed v 1, v 2, and v3 (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
along a line segment AB, BC and CD (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
respectively as shown in figure. Where (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
AB = BC and AD = 3 AB, then average speed (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
of the object will be : 5. Match the List-I with List-II:
A B C D List-I List-II
(v1 + v2 + v3 ) A. Microwaves I. Radio active decay

(1) of the nucleus
3
v1v2 v3 B. Gamma rays II. Rapid acceleration
(2) and deceleration of
3(v1v2 + v2 v3 + v3v1 )
electron in aerials
3v1v2 v3
(3) C. Radio III. Inner shell electrons
v1v2 + v2 v3 + v3v1
waves
(v1 + v2 + v3 ) D. X-rays IV. Klystron valve
(4)
3v1v2 v3 Choose the correct answer from the options
3. Given below are two statements : given below:
Statement-I: Acceleration due to gravity is (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
different at different places on the surface of earth. (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Statement-II: Acceleration due to gravity (3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
increases as we go down below the earth's surface. (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
E 109
6. If earth has a mass nine times and radius twice 11. A child stands on the edge of the cliff 10 m
ve above the ground and throws a stone
to the of a planet P. Then x ms −1 will be
3 horizontally with an initial speed of 5 ms–1.
the minimum velocity required by a rocket to Neglecting the air resistance, the speed with
pull out of gravitational force of P, where ve is
which the stone hits the ground will be ___ ms–1
escape velocity on earth. The value of x is
(given, g = 10 ms–2).
(1) 2 (2) 3
(1) 20 (2) 15
(3) 18 (4) 1
(3) 30 (4) 25
7. ‘n’ polarizing sheets are arranged such that each
12. A proton moving with one tenth of velocity of
makes an angle 45° with the proceeding sheet.
light has a certain de Broglie wavelength of λ.
An unpolarized light of intensity I is incident
into this arrangement. The output intensity is An alpha particle having certain kinetic energy
®
I has the same de-Brogle wavelength λ. The ratio
found to be . The value of n will be:
64 of kinetic energy of proton and that of alpha
(1) 3 (2) 6
particle is:
(3) 5 (4) 4
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
8. Find the magnetic field at the point P in figure.
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
The curved portion is a semicircle connected to
13. A sample of gas at temperature T is
two long straight wires.
adiabatically expanded to double its volume.
i
The work done by the gas in the process is
P
 3
r  given, γ =  :
2
(1) W = TR [ 2 − 2]
T
(2) W = [ 2 − 2]
R
µ0i  2 µ0i  1
(1) 1 +  (2) 1 +  R
2r π 2r π (3) W = [2 − 2]
T
µ0i  1
1 µ0i  1
1
(3)  +  (4)  +  (4) W = RT [2 − 2]
2r 2 2π 2r 2 π
14. The equivalent resistance between A and B of
9. Which of the following frequencies does not
the network shown in figure:
belong to FM broadcast.
R
(1) 106 MHz (2) 64 MHz
3R
(3) 99 MHz (4) 89 MHz A B
2R 9R
10. A steel wire with mass per unit length 6R
–3 –1
7.0 × 10 kg m is under tension of 70 N. The 2R
(1) 11 (2) 14R
speed of transverse waves in the wire will be: 3
(1) 200 π m/s (2) 100 m/s 8
(3) 21 R (4) R
(3) 10 m/s (4) 50 m/s 3
110 E
15. Let σ be the uniform surface charge density of 19. The average kinetic energy of a molecule of the
two infinite thin plane sheets shown in figure. gas is
Then the electric fields in three different region
(1) proportional to absolute temperature
(2) proportional to volume
(3) proportional to pressure
(4) dependent on the nature of the gas
20. A block of mass 5 kg is placed at rest on a table
of rough surface. Now, if a force of 30N is
applied in the direction parallel to surface of the
EI, EII and EIII are:
 2σ   2σ table, the block slides through a distance of
(1)=EI nˆ=, EII 0,=
EIII nˆ
∈0 ∈0 50 m in an interval of time 10s. Coefficient of
®
  σ  kinetic friction is (given, g = 10 ms–2):
(2)=
EI 0,=
EII nˆ ,=
EIII 0
∈0
(1) 0.60 (2) 0.75
 σ   σ
(3)=
EI nˆ=
, EII 0,=
EIII nˆ (3) 0.50 (4) 0.25
2 ∈0 2 ∈0
 SECTION-B
σ   σ
(4)=
EI – nˆ=
, EII 0,=
EIII nˆ
∈0 ∈0 21. A charge particle of 2 µC accelerated by a
–3
16. A mercury drop of radius 10 m is broken into potential difference of 100V enters a region of
125 equal size droplets. Surface tension of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 4 mT at
mercury is 0.45 Nm–1. The gain in surface
right angle to the direction of field. The charge
energy is:
(1) 2.26 × 10–5 J (2) 28 × 10–5 J particle completes semicircle of radius 3 cm
(3) 17.5 × 10–5 J (4) 5 × 10–5 J inside magnetic field. The mass of the charge
17. The mass of proton, neutron and helium nucleus particle is_____ × 10–18 kg.
are respectively 1.0073 u, 1.0087 u and 4.0015u.
The binding energy of helium nucleus is: 22. In an experiment to find emf of a cell using
(1) 14.2 MeV (2) 28.4 MeV potentiometer, the length of null point for a cell
(3) 56.8 MeV (4) 7.1 MeV of emf 1.5 V is found to be 60 cm. If this cell is
 a  replaced by another cell of emf E. the length-of
18.  P + 2  (V – b) = RT represents the equation
V
null point increases by 40 cm. The value of E is
of state of some gases. Where P is the pressure,
x
V is the volume, T is the temperature and a, b, R V. The value of x is __________.
10
are the constants. The physical quantity, which
b2 23. A small particle moves to position 5iˆ − 2 ˆj + kˆ
has dimensional formula as that of , will be :
a
from its initial position 2iˆ + 3 ˆj − 4kˆ under the
(1) Bulk modulus
(2) Modulus of rigidity action of force 5iˆ + 2 ˆj +7kˆ N . The value of
(3) Compressibility
work done will be ___________ J.
(4) Energy density
E 111
24. A light of energy 12.75 eV is incident on a 30. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac
hydrogen atom in its ground state. The atom source of 220V, 50Hz. The circuit contain a
absorbs the radiation and reaches to one of its resistance R = 100Ω and an inductor of
excited states. The angular momentum of the
inductive reactance XL = 79.6 Ω. The
x
atom in the excited state is × 10–17 eVs. The capacitance of the capacitor needed to
π
maximize the average rate at which energy is
value of x is ________ (use h = 4.14 × l0–15eVs,
supplied will be ______ µF.
c = 3 × l08 ms–1).
25. A certain pressure 'P' is applied to 1 litre of CHEMISTRY
water and 2 litre of a liquid separately. Water SECTION-A
gets compressed to 0.01% whereas the liquid 31. Which of the following represents the lattice
gets compressed to 0.03%. The ratio of Bulk structure of A0.95O containing A2+, A3+ and O2–
3 ions?
modulus of water to that of the liquid is . The
x
®
A2+ A3+ O2–
value of x is __________.
A.
26. Two equal positive point charges are separated
by a distance 2a. The distance of a point from
the centre of the line joining two charges on the
equatorial line (perpendicular bisector) at which
force experienced by a test charge q0 becomes
a
maximum is . The value of x is ________.
x
27. A thin cylindrical rod of length 10 cm is placed B.
horizontally on the principle axis of a concave
mirror of focal length 20 cm. The rod is placed
in a such a way that mid point of the rod is at
40 cm from the pole of mirror. The length of the
x
image formed by the mirror will be cm. The
3
value of x is _____________.

28. A solid cylinder is released from rest from the
top of an inclined plane of inclination 30° and C.
length 60 cm. If the cylinder rolls without
slipping, its speed upon reaching the bottom of
the inclined plane is______ms–1.
(Given g = 10 ms–2)
29. The amplitude of a particle executing SHM is

(1) B and C only
3 cm. The displacement at which its kinetic
energy will be 25% more than the potential (2) B only
energy is: ________ cm. (3) A and B only
(4) A only
112 E
32. The correct representation in six membered 33. Highest oxidation state of Mn is exhibited in
Mn2O7. The correct statements about Mn2O7 are
pyranose form for the following sugar [X] is
(A) Mn is tetrahedrally surrounded by oxygen
CHO atoms
(B) Mn is octahedrally surrounded by oxygen
HO H atoms
HO H (C) Contains Mn-O-Mn bridge
H OH (D) Contains Mn-Mn bond.
H OH
given below
H2COH (1) A and C only (2) A and D only
Sugar [X]
(3) B and D only (4) B and C only
H2COH 34. Decreasing order of dehydration of the
O
®
following alcohols is
H H H
(1) OH OH OH OH
OH OH H OH a b c d
H OH (1) a > d > b > c (2) b > d > c > a

(3) b > a > d > c (4) d > b > c > a
CH2OH 35. Given below are two statements: One is labelled
O as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
H
(2) Reason R.
HO OH OH OH
Assertion A: Amongst He, Ne, Ar and Kr;
H H 1 g of activated charcoal adsorbs more of Kr.
Reason R : The critical volume Vc (cm3 mol–1)

H2 COH
O and critical pressure Pc (atm) is highest for

HO H H
(3) Krypton but the compressibility factor at critical
H H OH OH
point Zc is lowest for Krypton.
OH H In the light of the above statements, choose the

CH2 OH
O (1) A is true but R is false
H H H (2) A is false but R is true
(4) (3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
HO H OH OH
OH H (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation A
E 113
36. In the following reaction, ‘A’ is 38. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Chlorine can easily combine with
NH2 oxygen to from oxides: and the product has a
O
tendency to explode.
EtO OEt Statement II: Chemical reactivity of an
CH2OH
element can be determined by its reaction with
oxygen and halogens.
‘A’ Major product.
NHCOOEt
(1) (1) Both the statements I and II are true
CH2OH (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both the Statements I and II are false
®
O 39. Resonance in carbonate ion (CO32− ) is
NH
O O– O–
O
(2) C C C
– – – –
O O O O O O
OEt Which of the following is true?
N C
(1) It is possible to identify each structure
O individually by some physical or chemical
(3)
method.
(2) All these structures are in dynamic
NH2
equilibrium with each other.
(3) Each structure exists for equal amount of time.
(4) CH2COOEt
(4) CO32− has a single structure i.e., resonance
hybrid of the above three structures.
40. Identify the incorrect option from the following:
Br OH
List-I List-II (1) + KOH(aq) → + KBr
(A) Tranquilizers (I) Anti blood clotting Br
(2) + KOH(alc) →
OH + KBr
(B) Aspirin (II) Salvarsan
Cl
(C) Antibiotic (III) Antidepressant drugs O
anhyd AlCl
(3) + H3C–C–Cl 
3→
(D) Antiseptic (IV) Soframicine
Choose the correct answer from the options Cl O
given below:
CH3+HCl
(1) (A) – IV, (B) – II, (C) – I, (D) – III
(2) (A) – II, (B) – I, (C) – III, (D) – IV
Cl (i) NaOH, 623 K,
OH
(3) (A) – III, (B) – I, (C) – II, (D) – IV (4)

300 atm
(ii) HCl
→
(4) (A) – II, (B) – IV, (C) – I, (D) – III
114 E
41. A solution of FeCl3 when treated with 46. Choose the correct statement(s):
K4[Fe(CN)6] gives a prussiun blue precipitate A. Beryllium oxide is purely acidic in nature.
due to the formation of B. Beryllium carbonate is kept in the
(1) K[Fe2(CN)6] (2) Fe[Fe(CN)6] atmosphere of CO2.
(3) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2 (4) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 C. Beryllium sulphate is readily soluble in
42. Which of the following are the example of water.
double salt? D. Beryllium shows anomalous behavior.
(A) FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O Choose the correct answer from the options
(B) CuSO4.4NH3.H2O given below:
(C) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O (1) A, B and C only (2) B, C and D only
(D) Fe(CN)2.4KCN (3) A and B only (4) A only
Choose the correct answer. 47. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
(1) A and C only (2) A and B only as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
®
(3) A, B and D only (4) B and D only Reason R
43. Which of the following complex will show Assertion A: In an Ellingham diagram, the
largest splitting of d-orbitals? oxidation of carbon to carbon monoxide shows
a negative slope with respect to temperature.
(1) [Fe(C2O4)3]3–
Reason R: CO tends to get decomposed at
(2) [FeF6]3– higher temperature.
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3– In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) [Fe(NH3)6]3+ correct answer from the options given below
44. How can photochemical smog be controlled?
(1) By using tall chimneys
(2) By complete combustion of fuel (3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
(3) By using catalytic converters in the correct explanation of A
automobiles/industry (4) A is correct but R is not correct
48. But-2-yne is reacted separately with one mole
(4) By using catalyst

of Hydrogen as shown below:
B ←Na
liq NH
 CH 3 – C ≡ C– CH 3 
Pd/C
∆
→A
3 + H2
(A) Slaked lime (I) NaOH
Identify the incorrect statements from the
(B) Dead burnt plaster (II) Ca(OH)2
options given below:
(C) Caustic soda (III) Na2CO3·10H2O A. A is more soluble than B.
(D) Washing soda (IV) CaSO4 B. The boiling point & melting point of A are
Choose the correct answer form the options higher and lower than B respectively.
C. A is more polar than B because dipole
given below:
moment of A is zero.
(1) (A) – I, (B) – IV, (C) – II, (D) – III
D. Br2 adds easily to B than A.
(2) (A) – III, (B) – IV, (C) – II, (D) – I (1) B and C only
(3) (A) – II, (B) – IV, (C) – I, (D) – III (2) B, C and D only
(4) (A) – III, (B) – II, (C) – IV, (D) – I (3) A, C and D only
(4) A and B only
E 115
49. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 52. Electrons in a cathode ray tube have been
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as emitted with a velocity of 1000 ms-1. The
Reason R
number of following statements which is/are
Assertion A: Hydrogen is an environment
true about the emitted radiation is _________ .
friendly fuel.
Reason R: Atomic number of hydrogen is Given : h = 6 × 10-34 Js, me = 9 × 10-31 kg.
1 and it is a very light element. (A) The deBroglie wavelength of the electron
emitted is 666.67nm.
(B) The characteristic of electrons emitted
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the depend upon the material of the electrodes
®
correct explanation of A of the cathode ray tube.
(3) A is false but R is true (C) The cathode rays start from cathode and
move towards anode.
explanation of A
(D) The nature of the emitted electrons
50. Match List I and List II
depends on the nature of the gas present in
List-I List-II
Functional group / cathode ray tube.
Test
Class of Compound 53. Sum of oxidation states of bromine in bromic
(A) Molisch's Test (I) Peptide acid and perbromic acid is ________ .
(B) Biuret Test (II) Carbohydrate
–
54. At what pH, given half cell Mn O 4 (0.1 M) |
(C) Carbylamine Test (III) Primary amine
(D) Schiff s Test (IV) Aldehyde Mn2+ (0.001 M) will have electrode potential of

1.282 V? __________ (Nearest Integer)
given below: 2.303RT
o
Given EMnO − / Mn2+ =1.54 V, = 0.059V
(1) (A) – I, (B) – II, (C) – III, (D) – IV 4
F
(2) (A) – III, (B) – IV, (C) –I, (D) – II
55. Number of isomeric compounds with molecular
(3) (A) – II, (B) – I, (C) – III, (D) – IV
(4) (A) – III, (B) – IV, (C) –II, (D) – I formula C9H10O which (i) do not dissolve in
SECTION-B
NaOH (ii) do not dissolve in HCl. (iii) do not
51. The density of 3 M solution of NaCl is 1.0 g
mL-1. Molality of the solution is ____ × 10-2 m. give orange precipitate with 2, 4 – DNP (iv) on
(Nearest integer).
hydrogenation give identical compound with
Given: Molar mass of Na and Cl is 23 and
35.5 g mol-1 respectively. molecular formula C9H12O is __________ .
116 E
56.  Y(g) + Z(g) Kp1 = 3

(i) X(g)  58. A and B are two substances undergoing
radioactive decay in a container. The half life of
 2B(g)
(ii) A(g)  Kp2 = 1
A is 15 min and that of B is 5 min. If the initial
If the degree of dissociation and initial
concentration of B is 4 times that of A and they
concentration of both the reactants X(g) and A(g)
both start decaying at the same time, how much
are equal, then the ratio of the total pressure at
time will it take for the concentration of both of
 p1 
equilibrium   is equal to x : 1. The value of them to be same? ____________ min.
 p2 
59. At 25oC, the enthalpy of the following processes
x is ________ (Nearest integer)
are given:
57. The total number of chiral compound/s from the
H2(g) + O2(g) → 2OH(g) ∆ Ho = 78kJ mol-1
®
following is ________.
H2(g) + ½ O2(g) → H2O(g) ∆ Ho = –242 kJ mol-1
Ph
H2(g) → 2H(g) ∆ Ho = 436 kJ mol-1
½ O2(g) → O(g) ∆ Ho = 249 kJ mol-1
What would be the value of X for the following
COOH reaction? _____ (Nearest integer)
H2O(g) → H(g) + OH(g) ∆ Ho = X kJ mol-1

60. 25 mL of an aqueous solution of KCl was found
OH
O O Cl to require 20 mL of 1 M AgNO3 solution when
titrated using K2CrO4 as an indicator. What is
the depression in freezing point of KCl solution
of the given concentration? __ (Nearest integer).
COOH
OH (Given : Kf = 2.0 K kg mol-1)

OH Assume
COOH 1) 100% ionization and
OH 2) density of the aqueous solution as 1 g mL-1
HO OH
MATHEMATICS
SECTION-A
HO OH
 1 1 1 1
61. lim  + + + ... +  is equal to
OH 
n →∞ 1 + n 2 + n 3 + n 2n 
CH2
(1) 0 (2) loge2
3 2
(3) log e   (4) log e  
2 3
HO2C COOH
E 117
62. The negation of the expression q ∨ ((~q) ∧ p) is 67. For a triangle ABC, the value of
equivalent to cos2A + cos2B + cos2C is least. If its inradius
(1) (~ p) ∧ (~q) is 3 and incentre is M, then which of the
(2) p ∧ (~ q) following is NOT correct?
(3) (~ p) ∨ (~q)
(1) Perimeter of ∆ABC is 18 3
(4) (~ p) ∨ q
(2) sin2A + sin2B +sin2C = sinA + sinB + sinC
63. In a binomial distribution B(n, p), the sum and  
product of the mean & variance are 5 and 6 (3) MA.MB = −18
respectively, then find 6(n + p – q) is equal to :- 27 3
(4) area of ∆ABC is
(1) 51 2
(2) 52 68. The combined equation of the two lines
(3) 53 ax + by + c = 0 and a′x + b′y + c′ = 0 can be
®
(4) 50 written as (ax + by + c) (a′x + b′y + c′) = 0
64. The sum to 10 terms of the series The equation of the angle bisectors of the lines
1 2 3 represented by the equation 2x2 + xy – 3y2 = 0
+ + + .... is:-
1 + 1 + 1 1 + 2 + 2 1 + 32 + 34
2 4 2 4
is
59 55 (1) 3x2 + 5xy + 2y2 = 0
(1) (2)
111 111 (2) x2 – y2 + 10xy = 0
56 58 (3) 3x2 + xy – 2y2 = 0

(3) (4) (4) x2 – y2 – 10xy = 0
111 111
69. The shortest distance between the lines
65. The value of
x −5 y−2 z−4 x + 3 y + 5 z −1
1 1 1 1 1 = = and = =
+ + + .... + + is 1 2 −3 1 4 −5
1!50! 3!48! 5!46! 49!2! 51!1! is
50 50
2 2 (1) 7 3
(1) (2)
50! 51!
(2) 5 3

251 251 (3) 6 3
(3) (4)
51! 50!
(4) 4 3
66. If the orthocentre of the triangle, whose vertices 70. Let S denote the set of all real values of λ such
are (1, 2), (2, 3) and (3, 1) is (α, β), then the that the system of equations
λx + y + z = 1
quadratic equation whose roots are α + 4β and x + λy + z = 1
4α + β, is x + y + λz = 1
2
(1) x – 19x + 90 = 0
is inconsistent, then ∑
λ
(| λ |
∈S
2
+ | λ |) is equal to
(1) 2
(2) x2 – 18x + 80 = 0
(2) 12
(3) x2 – 22x + 120 = 0 (3) 4
(4) 6
(4) x2 – 20x + 99 = 0
118 E
 , given by
( ) ( )
 x2 −4 x2 −4 
Let S = 75. Let R be a relation on
71. x : x ∈  and 3+ 2 + 3− 2 = 10  .
 
Then n (S) is equal to R = {(a, b) : 3a – 3b + 7 is an irrational

(1) 2 (2) 4 number}. Then R is
(3) 6 (4) 0
(1) Reflexive but neither symmetric nor
72. Let S be the set of all solutions of the equation
transitive
 1 1
cos–1(2x) – 2cos–1 ( 1 − x 2 ) = π, x ∈  − ,  .
 2 2 (2) Reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
Then ∑ 2 sin
x∈S
−1
(x 2 − 1) is equal to (3) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
(1) 0 (4) An equivalence relation
−2π 76. Let the image of the point P(2, –1, 3) in the
(2)
3
®
plane
 3
(3) π − sin −1 
 4  x + 2y – z = 0 be Q. Then the distance of the
 
plane 3x + 2y + z + 29 = 0 from the point Q is
 3
(4) π − 2 sin  −1
 4  22 2
  (1)
7
z−2
73. If the center and radius of the circle =2
z −3 24 2
(2)
are respectively (α, β) and γ, then 3( α + β + γ) 7
is equal to
(3) 2 14
(1) 11 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 12 (4) 3 14
74. If y = y(x) is the solution curve of the
1 + sin 2 x cos2 x sin 2x
dy
differential equation + y tan x = x sec x, Let f (x)
77.= sin x
2
1 + cos x
2
sin 2x ,
dx
sin x
2
cos x
2
1 + sin 2x
π
0≤x≤ ,
3 π π
x ∈  ,  . If α a β respectively are the
 π 6 3 
y(0) = 1, then y   is equal to
 6
maximum and the minimum values of f, then
π 3  2 
(1) − log e   19
12 2 e 3 (1) β 2 − 2 α =
4
π 3 2 3 
+ log e 
 e 
(2)
12 2   (2) β 2 + 2 α =
19
4
π 3 2 3 
− log e 
 e  (3) α 2 − β2 = 4 3
(3)
12 2  
π 3  2  9
+ log e  (4) α2 + β2 =
(4)  2
12 2 e 3
E 119
78. Let f(x)=2x + tan–1x and 82. A(2, 6, 2), B(–4, 0, λ), C(2, 3, –1) and
g(x) = log e ( 1 + x 2 + x) , x ∈ [0, 3]. Then D(4, 5, 0), |λ| ≤ 5 are the vertices of a
(1) There exists x ∈ [0,3] such that quadrilateral ABCD. If its area is 18 square
 < g′(x)
f ′(x)  units, then 5 – 6λ is equal to _____.
(2) max f(x) > max g(x) 83. The number of 3-digit numbers, that are
divisible by either 2 or 3 but not divisible by 7
(3) There exist 0 < x1 < x2 < 3 such that
is ____.
f(x) < g(x), ∀x∈(x1, x2)
84. The remainder when 19200 + 23200 is divided by
(4) min f′(x) = 1 + max g′ (x) 49, is ____ .
1
1
∫ (x + x14 + x 7 )(2 x14 + 3 x 7 + 6)1/ 7 dx = (11)
m/n
79. The mean and variance of 5 observations are 85. If 21
®
0
l
5 and 8 respectively. If 3 observations are 1, 3,
where l, m, n ∈  , m and n are coprime then
5, then the sum of cubes of the remaining two
l + m + n is equal to ____.
observations is 86. If f(x) = x2 + g′(1)x + g′′(2) and
(1) 1072 (2) 1792 g(x) = f(1)x2 + xf′(x) + f′′(x),
(3) 1216 (4) 1456 then the value of f(4) – g(4) is equal to
_______.
80. The area enclosed by the closed curve C given   
87. Let v = α i + 2 j − 3k , w= 2α i + j − k , and u
dy x + a 
by the differential equation + 0,
=
dx y − 2 be a vector such that u= α > 0 . If the
y(1) = 0 is 4π. minimum value of the scalar triple product

  2 m
Let P and Q be the points of intersection of the uvw is −α 3401 , and u.i = where m
  n
curve C and the y-axis. If normals at P and Q on and n are coprime natural numbers, then m + n

the curve C intersect x-axis at points R and S is equal to ______.
respectively, then the length of the line segment 88. The number of words, with or without meaning,
that can be formed using all the letters of the
RS is
word ASSASSINATION so that the vowels
2 3 occur together, is _____.
(1) 2 3 (2)
3 89. Let A be the area bounded by the curve
y = x |x – 3|, the x-axis and the ordinates x = – 1
4 3
(3) 2 (4)
3 and x = 2. Then 12A is equal to _____.
90. Let f :  →  be a differentiable function
SECTION-B
2
81. Let a1 = 8, a2, a3, …. an be an A.P. If the sum of such that f ′(x) + f (x) =
∫ f (t)dt . If f(0) = e ,
–2
0
its first four terms is 50 and the sum of its last then
four terms is 170, then the product of its middle 2f(0) – f(2) is equal to _____.
two terms is _______.
120 E
SET # 12
PHYSICS 4. A coil is placed in magnetic field such that
SECTION-A plane of coil is perpendicular to the direction of
1. A Carnot engine operating between two magnetic field. The magnetic flux through a coil
1 can be changed:
reservoirs has efficiency . When the
3 A. By changing the magnitude of the magnetic
temperature of cold reservoir raised by x, its field within the coil.
1
efficiency decreases to . The value of x, if the B. By changing the area of coil within the
6
magnetic field.
temperature of hot reservoir is 99° C, will be:
(1) 16.5 K (2) 33 K C. By changing the angle between the direction
(3) 66 K (4) 62 K of magnetic field and the plane of the coil.
®
2. Given below are two statements : One is D. By reversing the magnetic field direction
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as abruptly without changing its magnitude.
Reason R.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
Assertion A : Two metallic spheres are charged
to the same potential. One of them is hollow
and another is solid, and both have the same (1) A and B only (2) A, B and C only
radii. Solid sphere will have lower charge than (3) A, B and D only (4) A and C only
the hollow one. 5. In an amplitude modulation, a modulating signal
Reason R : Capacitance of metallic spheres having amplitude of X V is superimposed with a
depend on the radii of spheres. carrier signal of amplitude Y V in first case. Then,
in second case, the same modulating signal is
superimposed with different carrier signal of
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct amplitude 2Y V. The ratio of modulation index in
explanation of A the two case respectively will be:
(3) A is true but R is false (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1

(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
6. For a body projected at an angle with the
3. As shown in the figure, a long straight
horizontal from the ground, choose the correct
π
conductor with semicircular arc of radius m statement.
10
is carrying current I = 3A. The magnitude of the (1) Gravitational potential energy is maximum
magnetic field. at the center O of the arc is: at the highest point.
(The permeability of the vacuum= 4π×10–7NA–2) (2) The horizontal component of velocity is
zero at highest point.
(3) The vertical component of momentum is
O maximum at the highest point.
I = 3A I = 3A
(1) 6µT (2) 1µT (4) The kinetic energy (K.E.) is zero at the
(3) 4µT (4) 3µT highest point of projectile motion.
E 121
7. Two objects A and B are placed at 15 cm and 11. Given below are two statements : One is
25 cm from the pole in front of a concave labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
mirror having radius of curvature 40 cm. The
as Reason R.
distance between images formed by the mirror
Assertion A : For measuring the potential
is:
(1) 40 cm (2) 60 cm difference across a resistance of 600 Ω, the
(3) 160 cm (4) 100 cm voltmeter with resistance 1000 Ω will be

8. The Young's modulus of a steel wire of length preferred over voltmeter with resistance
6 m and cross-sectional area 3 mm2, is
4000 Ω.
11 2
2 × 11 N/m . The wire is suspended from its
Reason R : Voltmeter with higher resistance
support on a given planet. A block of mass 4 kg
®
will draw smaller current than voltmeter with
is attached to the free end of the wire. The
1 lower resistance.
acceleration due to gravity on the planet is of
4 In the light of the above statements, choose the
its value on the earth. The elongation of wire is most appropriate answer from the options
2
(Take g on the earth = 10 m/s ):
given below.
(1) 1 cm (2) 1 mm
(3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.1 cm
9. Equivalent resistance between the adjacent
corners of a regular n-sided polygon of uniform correct explanation of A
wire of resistance R would be: (3) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
(1)
( n − 1) R (2)
( n − 1) R correct explanation of A
n 2
( 2n − 1) (4) A is correct but R is not correct
( n − 1) R
2
n R 12. Choose the correct statement about Zener diode:
(3) (4)
n −1 n
(1) It works as a voltage regulator in reverse
10. As shown in the figure a block of mass 10 kg
bias and behaves like simple pn junction
lying on a horizontal surface is pulled by a force
F acting at an angle 30°, with horizontal. For diode in forward bias.
µs = 0.25, the block will just start to move for (2) It works as a voltage regulator in both
–2
the value of F: [Given g = 10 ms ] forward and reverse bias.
F
(3) It works a voltage regulator only in
forward bias.
30°
(4) It works as a voltage regulator in forward
(1) 33.3 N (2) 25.2 N bias and behaves like simple pn junction
(3) 20 N (4) 35.7 N diode in reverse bias.
122 E
13. Choose the correct length (L) versus square of 16. Figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) show variation of
time period (T2) graph for a simple pendulum force with time.
executing simple harmonic motion. F(N)
T2 0.5
(1)
O L
0 Fig(a) 1.0 t(s)

T2
F(N)
(2)
0.5
®
O L
T2
0 Fig(b) 2.0 t(s)
(3)
F(N)
O L 0.75
T2
(4)
0 Fig(c) 1.0 t(s)
O L F(N)
14. The escape velocities of two planets A and B 0.5

are in the ratio 1 : 2. If the ratio of their radii
respectively is 1 : 3, then the ratio of
acceleration due to gravity of planet A to the

acceleration of gravity of planet B will be: 0 Fig(d) 2.0 t(s)
4 3
(1) (2) The impulse is highest in figure.
3 2
(1) Fig (c) (2) Fig (b)
2 3
(3) (4)
3 4 (3) Fig (a) (4) Fig (d)
15. An electron of a hydrogen like atom, having 17. If the velocity of light c, universal gravitational
Z = 4, jumps from 4th energy state to 2nd energy constant G and planck's constant h are chosen as
state, The energy released in this process, will fundamental quantities. The dimensions of mass
be: (Given Rch = 13.6 eV) in the new system is:
Where R = Rydberg constant  1 −1 
(1)  h 2 c 2 G1  (2)  h1c1G −1 
c = Speed of light in vacuum  
 
h = Planck's constant
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 10.5 eV  −1 1 1   1 1 −1 
(3)  h 2 c 2 G 2  (4)  h 2 c 2 G 2 
(3) 3.4 eV (4) 40.8 eV    
E 123
18. For three low density gases A, B, C pressure 22. A force F = (5 + 3y2) acts on a particle in the
versus temperature graphs are plotted while y-direction, where F is newton and y is in
keeping them at constant volume, as shown in meter. The work done by the force during a
the figure.
displacement from y = 2m to y = 5m is ______j.
P(atm) Gas A
Gas B 23. Moment of inertia of a dise of mass M and
Gas C
Temperature (°C) MR 2
K 0°C
radius 'R' about any of its diameter is .
4
The temperature corresponding to the point 'K' The moment of inertia of this disc about an axis
is: normal to the disc and passing through a point
(1) –273°C (2) –100°C x
on its edge will be, MR2. The value of x is _.
(3) –373°C (4) –40°C 2
®
19. The ratio of average electric energy density and 24. Nucleus a having Z = 17 and equal number of
total average energy density of electromagnetic protons and neutrons has 1.2 MeV binding
wave is: energy per nucleon.
(1) 2 (2) 1
Another nucleus B of Z = 12 has total 26
1
(3) 3 (4)
2 nucleons and 1.8 MeV binding energy per
20. The threshold frequency of metal is f0. When
nucleons.
the light of frequency 2f0 is incident on the
The difference of binding energy of B and A
metal plate, the maximum velocity of
will be ____MeV.
photoelectron is ν1. When the frequency of
25. A square shaped coil of area 70 cm2 having 600
incident radiation is increased to 5f0. the
turns rotates in a magnetic field of 0.4 wbm–2,
maximum velocity of photoelectrons emitted is
about an axis which is parallel to one of the side
ν2. The ratio of ν1 to ν2 is:

ν1 1 ν1 1 of the coil and perpendicular to the direction of
(1) = (2) =
ν2 2 ν2 8 field. If the coil completes 500 revolution in a
ν1 1 ν1 1 minute, the instantaneous emf when the plane of

(3) = (4) =
ν 2 16 ν2 4 the coil is inclined at 60° with the field, will be
SECTION-B 22
____ V. (Take π = )
21. For a train engine moving with speed of 7
20 ms–1. the driver must apply brakes at a
26. A block is fastened to a horizontal spring. The
distance of 500 m before the station for the train
block is pulled to a distance x = 10 cm from its
to come to rest at the station. If the brakes were
equilibrium position (at x = 0) on a frictionless
applied at half of this distance, the train engine
surface from rest. The energy of the block at
would cross the station with speed x ms–1.
The value of x is ______ (Assuming same x = 5 cm is 0.25 J. The spring constant of the
retardation is produced by brakes) spring is ____Nm–1.
124 E
I1 + I3 CHEMISTRY
27. In the given circuit the value of is:
I2 SECTION-A
10 V 20 V 31. In a reaction,
OH OH OCOCH 3
10 Ω COOCH 3 COOH COOH
I1
‘Y’ ‘X’
10 Ω
I2
reagents ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are :
13 10 Ω (1) (CH3CO)2O/H+ and CH3OH/H+, ∆
28. As shown in the figure, in Young's double slit (2) (CH3CO)2O/H+ and (CH3CO)2O/H+
experiment, a thin plate of thickness t = 10 µm (3) CH3OH/H+, ∆ and CH3OH/H+, ∆
and refractive index µ = 1.2 is inserted infront (4) CH3OH/H+ ∆ and (CH3CO)2O/H+
of slit S1. The experiment is conducted in air 32. The correct order of bond enthalpy (kJ mol–1)
®
(µ = 1) and uses a monochromatic light of is:
wavelength λ = 500 nm. Due to the insertion of (1) Si – Si > C – C > Sn – Sn > Ge – Ge
the plate, central maxima is shifted by a (2) Si – Si > C – C > Ge – Ge > Sn – Sn
distance of xβ0. β0 is the fringe-width before the (3) C – C > Si – Si > Sn – Sn > Ge – Ge
insertion of the plate. The value of the x is___. (4) C – C > Si – Si > Ge – Ge > Sn – Sn
t 33. All structures given below are of vitamin C.
S1
µ Most stable of them is :
P OH
(1) HO O (2)
S2 O
H
OH OH
29. A cubical volume is bounded by the surfaces
x = 0, x = a, y = 0, y = a, z = 0, z = a. The (3) (4)
electric field in the region is given by

ˆ Where
E = E0 x i.
E0 = 4 × 104 NC–1 m–1. If a = 2 cm, the charge 34. The graph which represents the following
reaction is :
contained in the cubical volume is Q × 10–14C. −
OH
(C 6 H 5 )3 C − Cl 
The value of Q is____. Pyridine →(C 6 H 5 )3 C − OH
Take ∈0 = 9 × 10–12 C2/Nm2)

rate rate
30. The surface of water in a water tank of cross
(1) (2)
2
section area 750 cm on the top of a house is h
m. above the tap level. The speed of water [(C6 H5) 3C–Cl] –
[OH ]
coming out through the tap of cross section area
rate
2 dh rate
500 mm is 30 cm/s. At that instant, is
dt (3) (4)
x × 10–3 m/s. The value of x will be_____.

[(C6 H5) 3C–Cl] [Pyridine]
E 125
HF 39. Which element is not present in Nessler’s
35. ‘X’ is : + X
∆ Major product
reagent ?
(1) Mercury
(2) Potassium
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) Iodine
36. The complex cation which has two isomers is : (4) Oxygen
(1) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ 40. Given below are two statements : one is
2+ +
(3) [Co(NH3)5NO2] (4) [Co(NH3)5Cl]
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
Statement I : Sulphanilic acid gives labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : α-halocarboxylic
®
esterification test for carboxyl group. acid on
Statement II : Sulphanilic acid gives red colour
reaction with dil. NH3 gives good yield of α-
in Lassigne’s test for extra element detection.
In the light of the above statements, choose the amino carboxylic acid whereas the yield of
most appropriate answer from the options amines is very low when prepared from alkyl
given below :
halides.
incorrect. Reason (R) : Amino acids exist in zwitter ion
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are form in aqueous medium.
incorrect.
correct.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct. correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
labelled as Reason (R). the correct explanation of (A).
Assertion (A) : Gypsum is used for making (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
fireproof wall boards.
Reason (R) : Gypsum is unstable at high (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
temperatures. 41. The industrial activity held least responsible for
global warming is :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (1) manufacturing of cement
the correct explanation of (A). (2) steel manufacturing
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) Electricity generation in thermal power
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
plants.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A). (4) Industrial production of urea
126 E
42. The structures of major products A, B and C in In the light of the above statements, choose the
the following reaction are sequence. correct answer from the options given below :
O
NaHSO 3 , dil. HCl LiAlH4
H [A] [B] correct explanation of (A).
NaCN, H2 O
HCl/H2 O (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
[C]
∆ (3) (1) is not correct but (R) is correct.
OH CN
(1) A = , (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
H the correct explanation of (A).
HO CHO 44. The starting material for convenient preparation
B=
H of deuterated hydrogen peroxide (D2O2) in
,
laboratory is:
HO CO2 H
C= (1) K2S2O8 (2) 2-ethylanthraquinol
H
(3) BaO2 (4) BaO
®
OSO3 Na
(2) A = , 45. In figure, a straight line is given for Freundrich
H 1
Adsorption (y = 3x + 2.505). The value of
OH n
B= and log K are respectively.
H
, Y
x
log m
Cl I
C= n
H
HO SO3H log K
(3) A = ,
H
log P X
B= OH (1) 0.3 and log 2.505 (2) 0.3 and 0.7033
,
HO SO2 Cl (3) 3 and 2.505 (4) 3 and 0.7033
C= 46. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
H
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
HO CN
(4) A = , Reason (R).
H
Assertion (A) : An aqueous solution of KOH
HO NH2 when for volumetric analysis, its concentration
B=
H should be checked before the use.
,
HO CO2 H Reason (R) : On aging, KOH solution absorbs
C=
H atmospheric CO2.
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
labelled as Reason (R).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
Assertion (A) : Cu2+ in water is more stable
the correct explanation of (A)
than Cu+.
Reason (R) : Enthalpy of hydration for Cu2+ is
correct explanation of (A)
much less than that of Cu+.
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
E 127
47. Which one of the following sets of ions SECTION-B
represents a collection of isoelectronic species? 51. 0.3 g of ethane undergoes combustion at 27°C
(Given : Atomic Number : F :9 , Cl : 17, Na = 11, in a bomb calorimeter. The temperature of
Mg = 12, Al = 13, K = 19, Ca = 20, Sc = 21) calorimeter system (including the water) is
(1) (Li+ , Na+ , Mg2+ , Ca2+ found to rise by 0.5°C. The heat evolved during
combustion of ethane at constant pressure is
(2) (Ba2+ , Sr2+ , K+ , Ca2+
________kJ mol–1.
(3) (N3– , O2– , F– , S2–
(Nearest integer)
(4) (K+ , Cl– , Ca2+ , Sc3+
[Given : The heat capacity of the calorimeter
48. The effect of addition of helium gas to the system is 20 kJ K–1, R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1.
following reaction in equilibrium state, is : Assume ideal gas behaviour.
PCI5 (g)  PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g) Atomic mass of C and H are 12 and 1 g mol–1
®
respectively]
(1) the equilibrium will shift in the forward
52. Among following compounds, the number of
direction and more of Cl2 and PCl3 gases
those present in copper matte is_________.
will be produced.
(2) the equilibrium will go backward due to A. CuCO3 B. Cu2S
suppression of dissociation of PCl5. C. Cu2O D. FeO

(3) helium will deactivate PCl5 and reaction 53. Among the following, the number of
will stop. tranquilizer/s is/are_________.
(4) addition of helium will not affect the A. Chloroliazepoxide
equilibrium. B. Veronal
49. For electron gain enthalpies of the elements C. Valium
D. Salvarsan
denoted as ∆egH, the incorrect option is : 54. A→B
(1) ∆egH (Cl) < ∆egH (F)
The above reaction is of zero order. Half life of
(2) ∆egH (Se) < ∆egH (S)
this reaction is 50 min. The time taken for the
(3) ∆egH (I) < ∆egH (At) concentration of A to reduce to one-fourth of its
(4) ∆egH (Te) < ∆egH (Po) initial value is________min. (Nearest integer)
50. O–O bond length in H2O2 is X than the O–O
55. 20% of acetic acid is dissociated when its 5 g is
bond length in F2O2. The O – H bond length in
added to 500 mL of water. The depression in
H2O2 is Y than that of the O–F bond in F2O2.
freezing point of such water is ____ × 10–3 °C.
Choose the correct option for X and Y from the
Atomic mass of C, H and O are 12, 1 and
given below.
16 a.m.u. respectively.
(1) X – shorter, Y – shorter
[Given : Molal depression constant and density
(2) X – shorter, Y – longer
of water are 1.86 K kg mol–1 and 1 g cm–3
(3) X – longer, Y – longer
respectively.
(4) X – longer, Y - shorter
128 E
56. The molality of a 10% (v/v) solution of 60. A metal M crystallizes into two lattices :- face
di-bromine solution in CCl4 (carbon centred cubic (fcc) and body centred cubic (bcc)
tetrachloride) is 'x'. x = _____ × 10–2 M. with unit cell edge length of 2.0 and 2.5 Å
respectively. The ratio of densities of lattices
(Nearest integer)
fcc to bcc for the metal M is _______.
[Given : molar mass of Br2 = 160 g mol–1
(Nearest integer)
atomic mass of C = 12 g mol–1 MATHEMATICS
atomic mass of Cl = 35.5 g mol–1 SECTION-A

∞
2n 2 + 3n + 4
density of dibromine = 3.2 g cm–3 61. The sum ∑
n =1 ( 2n ) !
is equal to :
density of CCl4 = 1.6 g cm–3]

11e 7
(1) +
2 2e
®
–5
57. 1×10 M AgNO3 is added to 1 L of saturated
13e 5
solution of AgBr. The conductivity of this (2) + −4
4 4e
solution at 298 K is ______×10–8 S m–1.
11e 7
(3) + −4
[Given : Ksp(AgBr) = 4.9×10 –13
at 298K 2 2e
13e 5
λ 0Ag+ =6 × 10−3 Sm 2 mol –1 (4) +
4 4e
 1 − x  −1  1 − x  
2

λ 0Br − =8 × 10−3 Sm 2 mol –1 62. Let S = x ∈ R : 0 < x < 1and 2 tan −1   = cos  1 + x 2  
 1 + x   

. If n(S) denotes the number of elements in S

7 10−3 Sm 2 mol –1 ]
λ 0NO− =×
3
then :
58. Testosterone, which is a steroidal hormone, has 1

(1) n(S) = 2 and only one element in S is less then
2
the following structure.
1
(2) n(S)=1 and the element in S is more than
OH 2
CH3
1
(3) n(S) = 1 and the element in S is less than
CH3 2
(4) n(S) = 0
 
O Testosterone 63. Let a = 2iˆ − 7jˆ + 5kˆ , b= iˆ + kˆ and
 
The total number of asymmetric carbon atom/s c =iˆ + 2jˆ − 3kˆ be three given vectors. If r is a
     
in testosterone is ______ vector such that r × a = c × a and r  b = 0 ,

59. The spin only magnetic moment of then r is equal to :
[Mn(H2O)6]2+ complexes is _______B.M. 11 11
(1) 2 (2)
(Nearest integer) 7 7
11 914
(Given : Atomic no. of Mn is 25) (3) 2 (4)
5 7
E 129
1 1 3 69. Let the plane P pass through the intersection of
64. If A =   , then :
2  − 3 1  the planes 2x + 3y – z = 2 and x + 2y + 3z = 6,
(1) A30 – A25 = 2I and be perpendicular to the plane 2x + y – z + 1 = 0.

(2) A30 + A25 + A = I If d is the distance of P from the point
30 25
(3) A + A – A = I (–7, 1, 1), then d2 is equal to :
(4) A30 = A25 250 15
(1) (2)
65. Two dice are thrown independently. Let A be 83 53
the event that the number appeared on the 1st die 25 250
(3) (4)
is less than the number appeared on the 2nd die, 83 82
B be the event that the number appeared on the 70. Let a, b be two real numbers such that ab < 0. If
1st die is even and that on the second die is odd,
1 + ai
and C be the event that the number appeared on the complex number is of unit modulus
®
b+i
the 1st die is odd and that on the 2nd is even.
and a + ib lies on the circle |z – 1| = |2z|, then a
Then
(1) the number of favourable cases of the event 1 + [a ]
possible value of , where [t] is greatest
4b
(A ∪ B) ∩ C is 6
(2) A and B are mutually exchusive integer function, is :
(3) The number of favourable cases of the 1

(1) − (2) –1
events A, B and C are 15, 6 and 6 2
respectively 1
(3) 1 (4)
(4) B and C are independent 2
66. Which of the following statements is a 71. The sum of the abosolute maximum and
tautology ? minimum values of the function
(1) p → (p Λ ( p → q)) f(x) = |x2 – 5x + 6| – 3x + 2 in the interval
(2) (p Λ q) → (~ (p) → q)) [–1, 3] is equal to :

(3) (p Λ (p → q)) → ~ q
(1) 10 (2) 12
(4) p V (p Λ q)
(3) 13 (4) 24
67. The number of integral values of k, for which
72. Let P(S) denote the power set of
one root of the equation 2x2 – 8x + k = 0 lies in
S={1,2,3, ..., 10}. Define the relations R1 and R2
the interval (1, 2) and its other root lies in the
interval (2, 3), is : on P(S) as AR1B if (A ∩ Bc) ∪ (B ∩ Ac) = ∅
(1) 2 (2) 0 and AR2B if A ∪ Bc = B ∪ Ac, ∀ A, B ∈ P(S).

(3) 1 (4) 3 Then :
68. Let f : R – {0, 1} → R be a function such that
(1) both R1 and R2 are equivalence relations
 1 
f (x) + f  =1 + x . Then f(2) is equal to :
1 − x 
(2) only R1 is an equivalence relation
(3) only R2 is an equivalence relation
9 9 7 7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 4 4 3 (4) both R1 and R2 are not equivalence relations
130 E
 
73. The area of the region given by 78. Let a = 5iˆ − ˆj − 3kˆ and b =î + 3jˆ + 5kˆ be two
{(x, y) : xy ≤ 8, 1, ≤ y ≤ x2} is :
vectors. Then which one of the following
13 14
(1) 8 loge2 – (2) 16 loge2 –
3 3 statements is TRUE?
7 7   17
(3) 8 loge2 + (4) 16 loge2 + (1) Projection of a on b is and the
6 3 35
74. Let αx = exp(xβyγ) be the solution of the
direction of the projection vector is same as
differential equation 2x2y dy – (1 – xy2) dx = 0, 
of b
x > 0, y(2) = log e 2 . Then α + β – γ equals :
  −17
(1) 1 (2) –1 (2) Projection of a on b is and the
35
(3) 0 (4) 3
®
π π direction of the projection vector is same as
x+
4

75. The value of the integral ∫ 4 dx is :
of b
π 2 − cos 2x
−
4
  17
(3) Projection of a on b is and the
π 2
π 2
35
(1) (2)
6 12 3
direction of the projection vector is
π2 π2 
(3) (4)
3 3 6 3 opposite to the direction of b
76. Let 9 = x1 < x2 < …< x7 be in an A.P. with   −17

(4) Projection of a on b is and the
common difference d. If the standard deviation 35
of x1, x2 …, x7 is 4 and the mean is x , then direction of the projection vector is
x + x6 is equal to : 
opposite to the direction of b
 1 
(1) 18 1 +  (2) 34
 3 79. Let P(x0, y0) be the point on the hyperbola
 8  3x2 – 4y2 = 36, which is nearest to the line

(3) 2  9 +  (4) 25
 7
3x + 2y = 1. Then 2 (y0 – x0) is equal to :
77. For the system of linear equations
(1) –3 (2) 9
ax + y + z = 1, x + ay + z = 1, x + y + az = β ,
which one of the following statements is NOT (3) –9 (4) 3
correct ? 80. If y(x) = xx , x > 0, then y’’(2) – 2y’(2) is equal
(1) It has infinitely many solutions if α=2 and to :
β = –1
(1) 8 loge2 – 2
(2) It has no solution if α = – 2 and β = 1
(2) 4 loge2 + 2
3
(3) x + y + z = if α = 2 and β = 1 (3) 4 (loge2)2 – 2
4
(4) It has infinitely many solutions if α=1 and β=1 (4) 4 (loge2)2 + 2
E 131
SECTION-B 87. If the term without x in the expansion of
81. The total number of six digit numbers, formed

22
 23 α 
using the digits 4, 5, 9 only and divisible by 6, x + 3  is 7315, then |α| is equal to _____.
 x 
is ______.
88. The sum of the common terms of the following
82. Number of integral solutions to the equation
x + y + z = 21, where x ≥ 1, y ≥ 3, z ≥ 4, is three arithmetic progressions.
equal to ______.
3, 7, 11, 15, …………, 399,
83. The line x = 8 is the directrix of the ellipse
2, 5, 8, 11,………….., 359 and
x 2 y2
®
E: 2 + 2 =
1 with the corresponding focus
a b
2, 7, 12, 17,……., 197, is equal to ______.
(2, 0). If the tangent to E at the point P in the
89. Let αx + βy + yz = 1 be the equation of a plane
first quadrant passes through the point 0, 4 3 ( )
passing through the point (3, –2, 5) and
and intersects the x-axis at Q, then (3PQ)2 is
equal to ______. perpendicular to the line joining the points
84. If the x-intercept of a focal chord of the

(1, 2, 3) and (–2, 3, 5). Then the value of αβy is
2
parabola y = 8x + 4y + 4 is 3, then the length of
this chord is equal to ______. equal to ______.
π
5cos x (1 + cos x cos3x + cos 2 x + cos3 x cos3x ) dx kπ , 90. The point of intersection C of the plane
85. If
∫
0
1+ 5 cos x
=
16

8x + y + 2z = 0 and the line joining the points
then k is equal to ______.
86. Let the sixth term in the binomial expansion of A(–3, –6, 1) and B(2, 4, –3) divides the line
( 2log2 (10 − 3x ) + 5 2( x −2) log2 3 )

m
, in the segment AB internally in the ratio k : 1. If a, b,
increasing powers of 2( x − 2) log2 3 , be 21. If the c (|a|, |b|, |c| are coprime) are the direction ratios
binomial coefficients of the second, third and of the perpendicular from the point C on the
fourth terms in the expansion are respectively
1− x y + 4 z + 2
the first, third and fifth terms of an A.P., then line = = , then |a + b + c| is
1 2 3
the sum of the squares of all possible values of
equal to ______.
x is ______.
132 E
SET-01
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 3 4 4 1 4 2 2 1 3 3 4 2 1
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 2 3 2 2 40 5 12 10 2 120 110 1 11 2
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
NTA (2) NTA (1)

Ans. 1 3 3 3 1 3 2 4 4 2 1 1 4
ALLEN (BONUS) ALLEN (3)
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 2 1 1 1 10 180 492 3 917 4 7 2 25 2
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 3 2 1 1 1 3 3 2 4 1 3 2 3 1 2
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 4 1 2 4 4 118 1012 22 60 5 546 7 2 14 12
®
SET-02
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 2 3 1 2 2 3 3 2 1 3 1 1 4
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 1 4 4 32 1 6 105 100 44 9 3 54 7
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 1 1 2 4 3 2 3 2 4 3 2 1 2 3
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 3 3 3 4 2 8 3 8 5 2 314 620 85 2
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 3 2 1 3 4 3 4 4
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 3 3 2 4 1 432 36 5 27 13 8 405 384 2 122
SET-03
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 3 2 2 2 4 3 3 2 1 3 3 1 1 3
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 2 2 2 3 52 10 5 2 27 17 18 45 100 4
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
NTA (2)
Ans. 4 2 2 3 2 3 1 4 1 3 3 1 1 2
ALLEN (BONUS)
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
NTA (41500)
ALLEN
Ans. 3 3 1 4 4 360 9079 2 12 60 6 42 4 10
(BONUS/41500)
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 4 1 3 1 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 2 4 1
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 2 4 4 2 2 43 2039 216 25 1080 495 2 9 120 600
E 133
SET-04
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 1 2 2 1 4 1 1 4 4 2 1 3 4
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 4 3 4 1 6 400 30 68 1 4 2 1 8 5
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 2 1 3 3 4 1 4 4 3 4 2 2 2 2
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 1 2 3 3 5 3 4 847 5 12 3 2 1 2
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 3 4 DROP 2 1 4 3 4 4 3 1 1 1 3 1
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
6860
Ans. 2 4 2 2 3 3 3 45 Or 25 20 7 18 9 31
®
3
SET-05
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 4 1 3 4 3 4 3 4 2 3 4 3 3 3
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 4 4 1 3 87 120 28 40 300 120 24 2 10 24
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 2 1 1 1 3 4 4 3 3 3 1 2 2 3
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
NTA (2)
Ans. 3 3 1 4 2 5 3 6 13 2 2 0 6 3
ALLEN (1)
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 3 2 3 2 4 3 2 1 4 2 3 4 1 3
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. DROP 2 3 1 1 9 355 10 60 2 32 3 1 1120 1436

SET-06
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 3 2 4 2 4 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 1
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 1 4 2 2 30 800 41 12 40 3872 25 40 7 5
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
NTA (2)
Ans. 1 2 2 3 1 4 2 3 1 2 1 4 1 4
ALLEN (1)
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 3 4 1 3 4 2 4 200 4 36 270 17 15
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1,3,4 2 1 2 3 3 2 4 4 4 1 1 1 2 4
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 4 1 2 4 4 3000 10 11 461 4 5 9 603 14 9
134 E
SET-07
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 4 4 3 1 3 2 4 4 4 4 2 4 3 2
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 2 4 1 3 8 225 10 2 50 4 30 220 32 3
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 2 3 4 1 1 3 3 4 4 3 2 4 3 1
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
NTA (221)
Ans. 1 2 4 2 4 10 1362 100 623 798 3 0 186 4
ALLEN (148)
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 4 2 4 1 3 3 2 3 3 1 1 1 2 4
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
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Ans. 1 4 2 2 4 3240 22 315 9 12 37 15 26 21 3125
SET-08
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 1 2 4 4 4 2 4 1 4 4 4 2 2
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 2 4 2 2 313 2 88 3 300 4 12 1584 125 54
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
NTA (4)
Ans. 3 1 2 3 4 2 2 1 4 2 4 1 1 3
ALLEN (BONUS)
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 3 1 3 2 150 4 1350 243 3 16 3 6 150 275
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 4 1 4 1 3 1 3 1 3 4 1 2 1,3 3
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 4 2 3 4 3 23 432 24 151 158 1 13 240 14 25
SET-09
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 2 3 2 2 4 3 3 4 3 4 1 4 2
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 2 3 2 2 60 3 20 5 10 242 640 7 27 5
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 3 3 1 2 4 1 3 4 2 1 3 4 1 3
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 2 3 1 4 6 2520 610 44 62250 4 3 1 4 555
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 1 1 4 1 1 3 1 2 1 2 3 4 3 2
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 1 2 4 3 1 2997 8 9 2 36 180 9 5 72 710
E 135
SET-10
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 1 1 4 3 1 4 4 4 2 2 1 3 2
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 1 4 1 3 25 48 300 5 5 136 1 55 20 80
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
NTA (4) NTA (1)
Ans. 2 1 4 2 3 4 1 2 4 4 2 1 1
ALLEN (1) ALLEN (3)
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 4 2 1 2 480 5 25 10 59 227 2 173 3 17
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 3 4 1 4 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 3 1 1 3
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
NTA (1,4) NTA (196)
Ans. 3 1 1 1 5040 125 45 98 3 146 6952 10 5
ALLEN (1) ALLEN (204)
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SET-11
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 2 2 2 4 4 4
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 3 1 3 144 25 40 828 1 2 32 2 2 40
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 2 1 2 1 2 3 1 4 2 4 1 3 3 3
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 4 DROP 2 3 364 2 12 3 2 12 2 15 499 3
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
NTA (2)
Ans. 2 1 2 2 2 4 4 4 3 4 2 1 1 1
ALLEN (1)
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 4 1 2 1 4 754 11 514 29 63 14 3501 50400 62 1
SET-12

PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 1 4 2 3 1 3 3 1 2 1 1 3 4 4
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
NTA (50)
Ans. 2 4 1 4 1 200 132 3 6 44 2 4 288 2
ALLEN (67)
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
NTA (1)
Ans. 1 4 1 3 1 3 4 1 4 4 4 1 1 3
ALLEN (2)
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
NTA (14)
Ans. 3 4 1&4 2 4 1006 1 3 75 372 139 ALLEN 6 6 4
(BONUS)
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 3 1 3 1 2 3 2 1 DROP 1 1 2 1 4
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
NTA (6)
Ans. 2 1 DROP 3 3 81 105 39 16 13 4 1 321 ALLEN 10
(BONUS)
136 E
JEE (MAIN) 2023 (SESSION 2)
TEST PAPERS
S.NO. CONTENT PAGE NO.
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01. SET-01 139
02. SET-02 150
03. SET-03 161
04. SET-04 173
05. SET-05 184
06. SET-06 195
07. SET-07 206
08. SET-08 217
09. SET-09 228
10. SET-10 239
11. SET-11 250
12. SET-12 261
13. ANSWER KEY 271

IMPORTANT NOTE
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JEE (MAIN) 2023 (Session 2) Test Papers
ALLEN®
SET # 01
PHYSICS 5. A source supplies heat to a system at the rate of
SECTION-A 1000 W. If the system performs work at a rate
1. For the plane electromagnetic wave given by of 200 W. The rate at which internal energy of
E = E0 sin (wt – kx) and B = B0 sin (wt – kx), the system increases
the ratio of average electric energy density to (1) 1200 W (2) 600 W
average magnetic energy density is (3) 500 W (4) 800 W
(1) 1 (2) 1/2 6. A particle is moving with constant speed in a
(3) 2 (4) 4 circular path. When the particle turns by an
2. Name the logic gate equivalent to the diagram angle 90°, the ratio of instantaneous velocity to
attached its average velocity is p : x 2. The value of x
®
+ 5V will be
(1) 2 (2) 5
1 LED (3) 1 (4) 7

1
1 º Glow 7. A small block of mass 100 g is tied to a spring
O O
A B Y of spring constant 7.5 N/m and length 20 cm.
The other end of spring is fixed at a particular
R point A. If the block moves in a circular path on

a smooth horizontal surface with constant
(1) OR (2) NOR angular velocity 5 rad/s about point A, then
(3) NAND (4) AND tension in the spring is
3. A small ball of mass M and density r is (1) 1.5 N (2) 0.75 N
dropped in a viscous liquid of density r0. After (3) 0.25 N (4) 0.50 N
some time, the ball falls with a constant 8. A monochromatic light wave with wavelength
node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-1 & 2.docx"
velocity. What is the viscous force on the ball ? l1 and frequency v1 in air enters another
æ rö medium. If the angle of incidence and angle of

æ r ö
(1) F = Mg ç 1 - 0 ÷ (2) F = Mg ç1 + ÷
è r ø è r0 ø refraction at the interface are 45° and 30°
respectively, then the wavelength l2 and
æ r ö
(3) F = Mg ç 1 + 0 ÷ (4) F = Mg(1 ± rr0 ) frequency v2 of the refracted wave are :
è r ø
(1) l 2 = l1 , n 2 = 2n1
4. The number of air molecules per cm3 increased
from 3 × 1019 to 12 × 1019. The ratio of collision 1
(2) l 2 = l1 , n 2 = n1 7
frequency of air molecules before and after the 2
increase in number respectively is (3) l 2 = 2l1 , n 2 = n1
(1) 1.25 (2) 0.25
1
(3) 0.75 (4) 0.50 (4) l 2 = l1 , n 2 = n1
2
E 139
JEE (MAIN) 2023 (Session 2) Test Papers ALLEN®
9. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 12. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Reason R.
Assertion A : Earth has atmosphere whereas
Assertion A : When a body is projected at an
moon doesn’t have any atmosphere.
angle 45°, it’s range is maximum. Reason R : The escape velocity on moon is
Reason R : For maximum range, the value of very small as compared to that on earth.
sin2q should be equal to one. In the light of the above statement, choose the
®
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the (3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is correct
(2) Both A and R are correct R is the correct
explanation of A
explanation of A
13. For a uniformly charged thin spherical shell, the
electric potential (V) radially away from the center
(4) A is false but R is true (O) of shell can be graphically represented as
10. Two resistances are given as R1 = (10 ± 0.5)W
and R 2 = (15 ± 0.5)W . The percentage error in
the measurement of equivalent resistance when

v
they are connected in parallel is
(1)
(1) 6.33
(2) 2.33
r–R r
(3) 4.33 v
(4) 5.33 (2)

11. A planet has double the mass of the earth. Its
r–R r
average density is equal to the that of the earth.
v
An object weighing W on earth will weigh on
(3)
that planet :
r–R
(1) 22/3 W
v
(2) W
(3) 21/3 W (4)
(4) 2 W
r–R r
140 E
14. The resistivity (r) of semiconductor varies with 18. A mass m is attached to two springs as shown in
temperature. Which of the following curve figure. The spring constants of two springs are
represents the correct behaviour K1 and K2. For the frictionless surface, the time
period of oscillation of mass m is
m K1
(1) (2) K2
1 K1 + K 2 1 K1 - K 2
(1) (2)
2p m 2p m
m m
(3) (4)
(3)
2p (4)
2p
K1 + K 2 K1 - K 2
®
19. The induced emf can be produced in a coil by
A. moving the coil with uniform speed inside
15. The kinetic energy of an electron, a-particle and
magnetic field
a proton are given as 4K, 2K and K respectively.
B. moving the coil with non-uniform speed
The de-Broglie wavelength associated with
inside uniform magnetic field
electron (le) a-particle (la) and the proton (lp)
C. rotating the coil inside the uniform
are as follows :
magnetic field
(1) la = lp < le
D. changing the area of the coil inside the
(2) la > lp > le
uniform magnetic field
(3) la < lp < le
(4) la = lp > le
given below:
16. By what percentage will the transmission range
(1) B and D only (2) B and C only
of a TV tower be affected when the height of
(3) A and C only (4) C and D only
the tower is increased by 21% ?
20. A long straight wire of circular cross-section
(1) 14% (2) 12%

(radius a) is carrying steady current I. The
(3) 10% (4) 15%
current I is uniformly distributed across this
17. The energy levels of an hydrogen atom are
cross-section. The magnetic field is
shown below. The transition corresponding to
(1) Zero in the region r < a and inversely
emission of shortest wavelength is
proportional to r in the region r > a
A B
(2) Inversely proportional to r in the region r <a
C D
and uniform throughout in the region r > a
(3) Directly proportional to r in the region r < a
and inversely proportional to r in the region r > a
(4) Uniform in the region r < a and inversely
proportional to distance r from the axis, in
(1) C (2) D
the region r > a
(3) B (4) A
E 141
SECTION-B 26. The radius of fifth orbit of the Li++
21. A pole is vertically submerged in swimming is _______ × 10–12 m. Take : radius of hydrogen
pool, such that it gives a length of shadow atom = 0.51Å
2.15 m within water when sunlight is incident at 27. A steel rod has a radius of 20 mm and a length
an angle of 30° with the surface of water. If of 2.0 m. A force of 62.8 kN stretches it along
swimming pool is filled to a height of 1.5 m, its length. Young’s modulus of steel is
then the height of the pole above the water 2.0 × 1011 N/m2. The longitudinal strain
surface in centimetres is (nw = 4/3) ________ . produced in the wire is ______ × 10–5
22. The length of a metallic wire is increased by 28. An ideal transformer with purely resistive load
20% and its area of cross section is reduced by operates at 12 kV on the primary side. It
4%. The percentage change in resistance of the supplies electrical energy to a number of nearby
®
metallic wire is _______ . houses at 120 V. The average rate of energy
23. A particle of mass 10 g moves in a straight line consumption in the houses served by the
with retardation 2x, where x is the displacement transformer is 60 kW. The value of resistive
in SI units. Its loss of kinetic energy for above load (Rs) required in the secondary circuit will
-n be ______ mW.
æ 10 ö
displacement is ç ÷ J. The value of n will
èxø 29. Two identical solid spheres each of mass 2 kg
be _______ . and radii 10 cm are fixed at the ends of a light

rod. The separation between the centres of the
24. Two identical circular wires of radius 20 cm
spheres is 40 cm. The moment of inertia of the
and carrying current 2 A are placed in
system about an axis perpendicular to the rod
perpendicular planes as shown in figure. The
passing through its middle point is __________
net magnetic field at the centre of the circular
× 10–3 kg-m2
–8
wire is _______ × 10 T. (Take p = 3.14)
30. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and
Y
plate separation d is filled with a dielectric
I material of dielectric constant K = 4. The
thickness of the dielectric material is x, where
X
x < d.
I
25. A person driving car at a constant speed of

15 m/s is approaching a vertical wall. The
Let C1 and C2 be the capacitance of the system
person notices a change of 40 Hz in the
1 2d
frequency of his car’s horn upon reflection from for x= d and x= , respectively. If
3 3
the wall. The frequency of horn is ______ Hz.
C1 = 2mF the value of C2 is ______ mF
(Given : Speed of sound : 330 m/s)
142 E
CHEMISTRY 35. The difference between electron gain enthalpies
SECTION-A will be maximum between:
31. A compound is formed by two elements X and (1) Ne and F
Y. The element Y forms cubic close packed (2) Ne and Cl
arrangement and those of element X occupy one
(3) Ar and Cl
third of the tetrahedral voids. What is the
(4) Ar and F
formula of the compound?
(1) X2Y3
(2) X3Y
List I List II
(3) X3Y2
Enzymatic reaction Enzyme
(4) XY3
A Sucrose ® Glucose and
®
32. Match List I with List II I. Zymase
List II Fructose
List I
Reagent used/ B Glucose®ethyl alcohol and
Element detected II. Pepsin
Product formed CO2
A Nitrogen I. Na2[Fe(CN)5 NO] C Starch ® Maltose III. Invertase
B Sulphur II. AgNO3
D Proteins ® Amino acids IV. Diastase
C Phosphorous III. Fe4[Fe (CN)6]3
D Halogen IV. (NH4)2 MoO4 Choose the correct answer from the options
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
given below: (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 37. The possibility of photochemical smog
+
33. The standard electrode potential of M /M in formation is more at
aqueous solution does not depend on (1) The places with healthy vegetation
(1) Ionisation of a solid metal atom (2) Himalayan villages in winter
(2) Sublimation of a solid metal (3) Marshy lands
(3) Ionisation of a gaseous metal atom (4) Industrial areas
(4) Hydration of a gaseous metal ion 38. The setting time of Cement is increased by
34. Polymer used in orlon is: adding
(1) Polyacrylonitrile (1) Clay
(2) Polyethene (2) Silica
(3) Polycarbonate (3) Limestone
(4) Polyamide (4) Gypsum
E 143
39. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 41. Match List I with List II
as assertion and the other is labelled as reason. List I List II
Assertion A : Loss of electron from hydrogen Name of reaction Reagent used
atom results in nucles of ~1.5 × 10–3 pm size. A Hell-Volhard- I. NaOH + I2

Zelinsky reaction
Reason R : Proton (H+) always exists in combined
B Iodoform reaction II. (i) CrO2Cl2,CS2
form
(ii) H2O
III. (i) Br2/red phosphorus
C Etard reaction
most appropriate answer from the options given (ii) H2O
below: D Gatterman-Koch IV. CO, HCl, anhyd.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the reaction A1C13
®
given below:
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
40.
42. The major products A and B from the following
reactions are:
Compound P is neutral. Q gives effervescence Br2 / AcOH

B¬¾¾¾
LiAl H4
¾ ¾¾¾¾ ®A
with NaHCO3 while R reacts with Hinsbergs
reagent to give solid soluble in NaOH.
Compound P is (1) A = ,B=
(1)
(2) A = ,B=
(2)
(3) A = ,B=
(3)
(4) (4) A = ,B=
144 E
43. Given below are two statements, one is labelled 46. Match List I with List II
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as List I List II
Reason R. Oxide Type of Bond
Assertion A: The spin only magnetic moment A N2O4 I. 1N = O bond
3–
value for [Fe(CN)6] is 1.74 BM, whereas for B NO2 II. 1N – O – N bond
3+
[Fe(H2O)6] is 5.92 BM. C N2O5 III. 1N – N bond
Reason R : In both complexes, Fe is present in D N2O IV. 1N = N / N ≡ N bond
+3 oxidation state. Choose the correct answer from the options
In the light of the above statements, choose the given below:
correct answer from the options given below: (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
®
correct explanation of A (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A is false but R is true (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A is true but R is false 47. Strong reducing and oxidizing agents among the
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct following, respectively, are
explanation of A (1) Ce4+ and Eu2+ (2) Ce4+ and Tb4+
44. Match List I with List II (3) Ce3+ and Ce4+ (4) Eu2+ and Ce4+
List I Vitamin List II Deficiency disease 48. The major product formed in the following
A Vitamin A I. Beri-Beri reaction is
B Thiamine II. Cheilosis
Br2 / NaOH
C Ascorbic acid III. Xeropthalmia ¾¾¾¾ D
¾®
D Riboflavin IV. Scurvy
(1) (2)
given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II,C-III, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-I,C-III, D-II (4) A-III,B-I,C-IV, D-II

(3) (4)
45. Which of the following options are correct for
the reaction
49. For a concentrated solution of a weak
2[Au(CN)2]–(aq) + Zn(s) ®2Au(s)+ [Zn(CN)4]2–(aq)
electrolyte (Keq= equilibrium constant) A2B3 of
A. Redox reaction
concentration ‘c’, the degree of dissociation "a'
B. Displacement reaction
is
C. Decomposition reaction
1 1
D. Combination reaction æ K ö5 æ K ö5
(1) ç eq 4 ÷ (2) ç eq5 ÷
Choose the correct answer from the options è 108c ø è 6c ø
given below: 1 1
(1) A and B only (2) A only æ K ö5 æ K ö5

(3) ç eq4 ÷ (4) ç eq2 ÷
(3) C and D only (4) A and D only è 5c ø è 25c ø
E 145
50. For the reaction: 54. Mass of Urea (NH2CONH2) required to be
Acetone
RCH 2 Br + I - ¾¾¾¾ ® RCH 2 I + Br - dissolved in 1000 g of water to reduce the
major
The correct statement is : vapour pressure of water by 25% is……g.

(1) The transition state formed in the above (Nearest integer)
reaction is less polar than the localised anion.
Given: Molar mass of N, C, O and H are 14, 12,
(2) The reaction can occur in acetic acid also.
16 and 1 g mol–1 respectively.
(3) The solvent used in the reaction solvates
the ions formed in rate determining step. 55. The value of log K for the reaction A ⇋ B at
(4) Br– can act as competing nucleophile. 298 K is ……. (Nearest integer)
SECTION-B Given: ∆H0 = – 54.07 kJ mol–1
51. The wavelength of an electron of kinetic energy
∆S° = 10 JK–1 mol–1
®
–29 –5
4.50 × 10 J is…… × 10 m. (Nearest integer)
(Take 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 = 5705)
Given : mass of electron is 9 × 10–31 kg,
h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s 56. The number of species from the following
52. Number of bromo derivatives obtained on which have square pyramidal structure is
treating ethane with excess of Br2, in diffused
PF5, BrF4– , IF5; BrF5, XeOF4, ICl4–
sunlight is…
57. Number of ambidentate ligands in a
53. Consider the graph of Gibbs free energy G vs
Extent of reaction. The number of statement/s representative metal complex [M(en)(SCN)4] is
from the following which are true with respect [en = ethylenediamine]
to points (a), (b) and (c) is……………..
58. For the adsorption of hydrogen on platinum, the
activation energy is 30 kJ mol–1 and for the
adsorption of hydrogen on nickel, the activation
a energy is 41.4 kJ mol–1. The logarithm of the
Gibbs energy
ratio of the rates of chemisorption on equal

areas of the metals at 300 K is ……… (Nearest
c
b
integer)
Given: ln 10 = 2. 3 R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1

Extent of reaction
59. If 5 moles of BaCl2 is mixed with 2 moles of
A. Reaction is spontaneous at (a) and (b)
Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of
B. Reaction is at equilibrium at point (b) and
Ba3(PO4 )2 formed is………….
non-spontaneous at point (c)
C. Reaction is spontaneous at (a) and (Nearest integer)
non-spontaneous at (c) 60. In ammonium-phosphomolybdate, the oxidation
D. Reaction is non-spontaneous at (a) and (b)
state of Mo is + ………………
146 E
MATHEMATICS 66. The straight lines l1 and l2 pass through the
SECTION-A origin and trisect the line segment of the line L:
1 1
61. Let 5f ( x ) + 4f æç ö÷ = + 3, x > 0 . 9x + 5y = 45 between the axes. If m1 and m2 are
è xø x
the slopes of the lines l1 and l2,then the point of
2
Then 18ò f ( x ) dx is equal to: intersection of the line y = (m1 + m2)x with L
1
lies on
(1) 10 loge 2 – 6
(1) 6x + y = 10
(2) 10 loge 2 + 6
(2) 6x– y = 15
(3) 5 loge 2 + 3
(3) y –x = 5
(4) 5 loge 2 – 3
(4) y –2x = 5
62. A pair of dice is thrown 5 times. For each
67. From the top A of a vertical wall AB of height
throw, a total of 5 is considered a success. If the
®
30 m, the angles of depression of the top P and
k bottom Q of a vertical tower PQ are 15° and 60°
probability of at least 4 successes is ,then k
311
respectively. B and Q are on the same
is equal to
horizontal level. If C is a point on AB such that
(1) 82 (2) 123
CB = PQ, then the area (in m2) of the
(3) 164 (4) 75 quadrilateral BCPQ is equal to
C3 : C3 = 10 :1 , then the ratio
( 3 - 1)
2n n
63. If (1) 600
(n 2
)(
+ 3n : n 2 – 3n + 4 is ) (2) 300 ( 3 + 1)
(1) 35: 16 (2) 65:37
(3) 200 ( 3 - 3 )
(3) 27:11 (4) 2:1
64. If the ratio of the fifth term from the begining to (4) 300 ( 3 – 1)
the fifth term from the end in the expansion of 68. The sum of the first 20 terms of the series
æ4 1 ö
n 5 +11 + 19+ 29 + 41 + ... is
çè 2 + 4 ÷ø is 6 :1 , then the third term from
3 (1) 3450 (2) 3250
the beginning is: (3) 3420 (4) 3520

69. The mean and variance of a set of 15 numbers
(1) 60 2 (2) 60 3
are 12 and 14 respectively. The mean and
(3) 30 2 (4) 30 3
r r
variance of another set of 15 numbers are
65. Let a = 2i$ + 3j$ + 4k,
$ b = 2i$ – 2j$ – 2k$ and
14 and s 2 respectively. If the variance of all the
r r
c = -$i + 4$j + 3k$ . If d is a vector perpendicular to 30 numbers in the two sets is 13, then s 2 is
r r rr r r2 equal to
both b and c and a.d = 18, Then a ´ d is
(1) 9
equal to (2) 12
(1) 640 (2) 760 (3) 11
(3) 680 (4) 720 (4) 10
E 147
70. Let A = [aij]2×2 where aij ≠ 0 for all i, j and A2 = 75. Let a1, a2, a3. ...an be n positive consecutive
I. Let a be the sum of all diagonal elements of A terms of an arithmetic progression. If d > 0 is its
2 2
and b = |A|, then 3a + 4b is equal to common difference, then
(1) 7 (2) 14
dæ 1 1 1 ö
(3) 3 (4) 4 lim ç + + ......... + ÷
n ®¥ n è a1 + a 2 a 2 + a3 a n -1 + a n ø
Let I ( x ) =
(
x 2 x sec 2 x + tan x )dx . If I(0) = 0 the (1) 1 (2) d
71. ò ( x tan x + 1) 2
1
(3) (4) 0
p d
I æç ö÷ is equal to
è 4ø 76. If the system of equations
(1) log e
( x + 4) 2 - p2 x + y + az = b
16 4 ( p + 4)
2x + 5y + 2z = 6
®
(2) log e
( x + 4) 2
+
p 2
x + 2y + 3z = 3
16 4 ( p + 4)
has infinitely many solutions, then 2a + 3b is
(3) log e
( x + 4) 2
-
p 2
equal to
32 4 ( p + 4)
(1) 23 (2) 28
(4) log e
( x + 4) 2 + p2
(3) 25 (4) 20
32 4 ( p + 4)
dy
72. If the equation of the plane passing through the 77. If 2xy + 3yx = 20, then at (2, 2) is equal to
dx
line of intersection of the planes 2x – y + z = 3,
æ 3 + log 8 ö
(1) - ç e
4x– 3y +5z + 9 = 0 and parallel to the line è 2 + log 4 ÷ø
e
x +1 y + 3 z - 2
= = is ax + by + cz + 6 = 0. then æ 2 + log e 8 ö
-2 4 5 (2) - ç ÷
è 3 + log e 4 ø
a + b + c is equal to
(1) 14 (2) 12 æ 3 + log 16 ö
(3) - ç e
è 4 + log e 8 ÷ø
(3) 13 (4) 15
73. Statement ( P Þ Q) Ù ( R Þ Q) is logically (4) - ç
æ 3 + log 4 ö
e
è 2 + log e 8 ÷ø
equivalent to
78. One vertex of a rectangular parallelopiped is at
(1) ( P Ú R ) Þ Q
the origin O and the lengths of its edges along x,
(2) ( P Þ R ) Ù ( Q Þ R )
y and z axes are 3, 4 and 5 units respectively.
(3) ( P Þ R ) Ú ( Q Þ R )
Let P be the vertex (3, 4, 5). Then the shortest
(4) ( P Ù R ) Þ Q distance between the diagonal OP and an edge
74. The sum of all the roots of the equation parallel to z axis, not passing through O or P is:
x - 8x + 15 – 2x + 7 = 0 is:
2
12 12
(1) (2)
5 5 5
(1) 9 + 3 (2) 11 + 3
12
(3) 9 – 3 (4) 11– 3 (3) 12 5 (4)
5
148 E
79. Let the position vectors of the points A, B, C 84. If the area of the region
and D be 5i$ + 5j$ + 2l k,

$ $i + 2j$ + 3k,
$ - 2i$ + l $j + 4k$ S= {( x, y) : 2y - y 2
}
£ x 2 £ 2y, x ³ y is equal to
and -$i + 5j$ + 6k$ . Let the set S = { l Î¡ : The n+2

-
p
, then the natural number n is equal
n + 1 n -1
points A, B, C and D are coplanar}. Then
to ________
å ( l + 2)
2
is equal to
l ÎS 85. Let the point (p, p + 1) lie inside the region
(1) 41 (2) 25
E= {( x, y) : 3 - x £ y £ }
9 - x 2 , 0 £ x £ 3 If the set
37
(3) 13 (4)
2 of all values of p is the interval (a, b). then
80. Let A = { x Î ¡ : [ x + 3] + [ x + 4] £ 3} , b2 + b – a2 is equal to _________
86. Let y = y(x) be a solution of the differential
®
ïì ïü
x -3
æ ¥ 3 ö
B = í x Î ¡ : 3x ç å r ÷ < 3-3x ý , where [t]
ïî è r =1 10 ø ïþ equation (xcos x)dy + (xysinx + ycos x – l)dx = 0,
p p p
denotes greatest integer function. Then, 0< x< . If y æç ö÷ = 3 , then
2 3 è 3ø
(1) A Ç B = f
p æ pö æ pö
(2) A = B y" ç ÷ + 2y ' ç ÷ is equal to ______
6 è 6ø è 6ø
(3) B Ì C, A ¹ B
87. The coefficient of x18 in the expansion of
(4) A Ì B, A ¹ B
15
æ 4 1ö
SECTION-B çè x - 3 ÷ø is _____
x
81. Let a Î¢ and [t] be the greatest integer < t.
88. Let A={1, 2, 3, 4,.....10} and B = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}.
Then the number of points, where the function
The number of elements in the relation
f(x) = [a + 13 sin x], x ∈ (0, ) is not
R = {(a, b) ∈ A × A: 2(a – b)2 + 3(a – b) ∈ B}
differentiable, is ____
is______
A circle passing through the point P ( a, b) in
82.
89. Let the image of the point P(l, 2, 3) in the plane
the first quadrant touches the two coordinate
2x – y + z = 9 be Q. If the coordinates of the
axes at the points A and B. The point P is above
point R are (6, 10, 7), then the square of the area
the line AB. The point Q on the line segment
of the triangle PQR is_
AB is the foot of perpendicular from P on AB.
90. Let the tangent to the curve x2 + 2x – 4y + 9 = 0
If PQ is equal
at the point P(1, 3) on it meet the y-axis at A.
to 11 units, then the value of ab is______
Let the line passing through P and parallel to the
83. The number of ways of giving 20 distinct line x – 3y = 6 meet the parabola y2 = 4x at B. If
oranges to 3 children such that each child gets B lies on the line 2x – 3y = 8. then (AB)2 is
atleast one orange is_________ equal to
E 149
SET # 02
PHYSICS 4. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
SECTION-A as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
1. A 2 meter long scale with least count of 0.2 cm Reason R
is used to measure the locations of objects on an
Assertion A: The phase difference of two light
optical bench. While measuring the focal length
of a convex lens, the object pin and the convex waves change if they travel through different
lens are placed at 80 cm mark and lm mark, media having same thickness, but different
respectively. The image of the object pin on the indices of refraction.
other side of lens coincides with image pin that
Reason R: The wavelengths of waves are
is kept at 180 cm mark. The % error in the
estimation of focal length is: different in different media.
®
(1) 1.02 (2) 0.85 (3) 1.70 (4) 0.51 In the light of the above statements, choose the
2. A capacitor of capacitance 150.0 µF is most appropriate answer from the options given
connected to an alternating source of emf given below
by E = 36 sin(120pt) V. The maximum value of
current in the circuit is approximately equal to :
1
(1) 2A (2) A (3) 2A (4) 2 2A (2) A is correct but R is not correct
2
3. Given below are two statements: one is labelled (3) Both A and R are correct and R is the
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as correct explanation of A
Reason R
Assertion A: When you squeeze one end of a
tube to get toothpaste out from the other end, 5. Figure shows a part of an electric circuit. The
Pascal's principle is observed. potentials at points a, b and c are 30 V, 12 V
Reason R: A change in the pressure node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-1 & 2.docx"
and 2V respectively. The current through the
applied to an enclosed incompressible fluid is
20W resistor will be.
transmitted undiminished to every portion of the
fluid and to the walls of its container. b
a 20W
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below 10W
(1) A is not correct but R is correct 30W c
(1) 0.4 A
correct explanation of A (2) 0.2 A
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the (3) 0.6 A
(4) 1.0 A
150 E
6. As shown in the figure, a particle is moving 11. Choose the incorrect statement from the
with constant speed p m/s. Considering its following:
motion from A to B, the magnitude of the
(1) The speed of satellite in a given circular
average velocity is:
B orbit remains constant.
V
V 120
0 (2) For a planet revolving around the sun in an
A elliptical orbit, the total energy of the
planet remains constant.
(1) p m/s (2) 3 m/s (3) When a body fall towards earth, the
displacement of earth towards the body is

(3) 2 3 m / s (4) 1.5 3 m / s
®
negligible.
7. The work functions of Aluminium and Gold are
4.1 eV and 5.1 eV respectively. The ratio of the (4) The linear speed of a planet revolving
slope of the stopping potential versus frequency around the sun remains constant.
plot for Gold to that of Aluminium is
(1) 1.24 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 1.5 as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
8. The ratio of speed of sound in hydrogen gas to Reason R

the speed of sound in oxygen gas at the same Assertion A: Diffusion current in a p-n junction
temperature is:
is greater than the drift current in magnitude if
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
the junction is forward biased.
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1
Reason R: Diffusion current in a p-n junction is
9. A child of mass 5 kg is going round a merry-go-
from the n-side to the p-side if the junction is
round that makes 1 rotation in 3.14 s. The
radius of the merry-go-round is 2 m. The forward biased.
centrifugal force on the child will be In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) 80 N (2) 50 N most appropriate answer from the options given
(3) 100 N (4) 40 N below

10. A particle starts with an initial velocity of (1) Both A and R are correct and R is the
–1
10.0 ms along x-direction and accelerates correct explanation of A
uniformly at the rate of 2.0 ms–2. The time taken
by the particle to reach the velocity of 60.0 ms–1
is______.
(1) 6s (2) 3s (3) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) 30s (4) 25s (4) A is not correct but R is correct
E 151
13. A dipole comprises of two charged particles of 16. A student is provided with a variable voltage
identical magnitude q and opposite in nature. source V, a test resistor Rr =10W, two identical
The mass ‘m’ of the positive charged particle is galvanometers Gl and G2 and two additional
half of the mass of the negative charged resistors, R1 = 10MW and R2 = 0.001W. For
conducting an experiment to verify ohms law,
particle. The two charges are separated by a
the most suitable circuit is:
distance ‘l’. If the dipole is placed in a uniform
r G1
electric field ‘ E ’; such a way that dipole axis
R2
makes a very small angle with the electric field, G2
r (1) RT R1
‘ E ’. The angular frequency of the oscillations
of the dipole when released is given by:
®
V
8qE 4qE
(1) (2) G1
3ml ml
R1
4qE 8qE G2
(3) (4) (2) R2
3ml ml RT
14. The energy density associated with electric field

r r V
E and magnetic field B of an electromagnetic
wave in free space is given by (Î0 – permittivity

G1
of free space, µ0 - permeability of free space) R1
E2 B2 G2
(1) U E = , UB = (3) RT
2 Î0 2m 0
R2
E 2
mB 2
(2) U E = , UB = 0 V
2 Î0 2
G1 node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-1 & 2.docx"
Î E2 m B2
(3) U E = 0 , UB = 0
2 2 R2
G2
Î E2 B2 (4) RT
(4) U E = 0 , UB = R1
2 2m 0
15. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased V

from 200 K to 800 K. If r.m.s. speed of gas at 17. A body cools in 7 minutes from 60°C to 40°C.
200K is v0. Then, r.m.s. speed of the gas at The temperature of the surrounding is 10°C. The
temperature of the body after the next 7 minutes
800 K will be:
will be:
(1) v0 (2) 4v0
(1) 32°C (2) 30°C
v
(3) 0 (4) 2v0
4 (3) 28°C (4) 34°C
152 E
18. A small particle of mass m moves in such a way 22. A metal block of mass m is suspended from a
1 rigid support through a metal wire of diameter
that its potential energy U = mw2 r 2 where w
2 14 mm. The tensile stress developed in the wire
is constant and r is the distance of the particle under equilibrium state is 7× 105 Nm–2. The
from origin. Assuming Bohr's quantization of value of mass m is _______ kg.
th
momentum and circular orbit, the radius of n
22
orbit will be proportional to. (Take, g = 9.8 ms–2 and p = )
7
(1) n (2) n 23. As shown in the figure, two parallel plate
1 capacitors having equal plate area of 200 cm2
(3) n2 (4)
n are joined in such a way that a ¹ b. The
19. For an amplitude modulated wave the minimum equivalent capacitance of the combination is
®
amplitude is 3V, while the modulation index is x Î0 F. The value of x is______.
60%. The maximum amplitude of the
modulated wave is:
a
(1) 15V
(2) 12V c=1 mm d=5mm
(3) 10V
b
(4) 5V
20. The weight of a body on the surface of the earth
24. A ring and a solid sphere rotating about an axis
is 100 N. The gravitational force on it when
passing through their centers have same radii of
taken at a height, from the surface of earth,
gyration. The axis of rotation is perpendicular to
equal to one-fourth the radius of the earth is:
plane of ring. The ratio of radius of ring to that
(1) 100 N 2
of sphere is . The value of x is _______
(2) 64 N x
(3) 50 N 25. A simple pendulum with length 100 cm and bob

(4) 25 N of mass 250 g is executing S.H.M. of amplitude
SECTION-B 10cm. The maximum tension in the string is
21. As shown in the figure, the voltmeter reads 2V x
found to be N. The value of x is______.
across 5 W resistor. The resistance of the 40
voltmeter is________W. 26. Two concentric circular coils with radii 1 cm
3V and 1000 cm, and number of turns 10 and 200

respectively are placed coaxially with centers
coinciding. The mutual inductance of this
5W V arrangement will be _______ × 10–8 H.
2W
(Take, p2=10)
E 153
27. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths CHEMISTRY
7000 Å and 5500 Å is used to obtain SECTION-A
interference pattern in Young's double slit 31. Ion having highest hydration enthalpy among
experiment. The distance between the slits is the given alkaline earth metal ions is:-
2.5 mm and the distance between the plane of (1) Be2+ (2) Ba2+
slits and the screen is 150 cm. The least distance (3) Sr2+ (4) Ca2+
from the central fringe, where the bright fringes 32. The IUPAC name of K3[Co(C2O4)3] is :-
due to both the wavelengths coincide, is (1) Potassium trioxalatocobaltate(III)
n × 10–5 m. The value of n is_________. (2) Potassium tris(oxalato)cobalt(III)

(3) Potassium tris(oxalato)cobaltate(III)
28. A body is dropped on ground from a height ‘h1’
(4) Potassium trioxalatocobalt(III)
and after hitting the ground, it rebounds to a
®
height ‘h2’ If the ratio of velocities of the body
just before and after hitting ground is 4, then List I List II
percentage loss in kinetic energy of the body is Natural Amino acid One Letter Code
x (A) Arginine (I) D

. The value of x is______.
4 (B) Aspartic acid (II) N
29. Experimentally it is found that 12.8 eV energy is (C) Asparagine (III) A
required to separate a hydrogen atom into a (D) Alanine (IV) R
proton and an electron. So the orbital radius Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :-
of the electron in a hydrogen atom is
(1) (A)–IV, (B)–I, (C)–III, (D)–II
9
´10-10 m. The value of the x is ________. (2) (A)–I, (B)–III, (C)–IV, (D)–II
x
(3) (A)–III, (B)–I, (C)–II, (D)–IV
1
(1eV = 1.6 × l0–19J, = 9 ´ 109 Nm 2 / C 2 (4) (A)–IV, (B)–I, (C)–II, (D)–III
4p Î0
34. Element not present in Nessler’s reagent is:-
and electronic charge = 1.6 × l0–19J C)
(1) Hg
30. A proton with a kinetic energy of 2.0 eV moves (2) I
into a region of uniform magnetic field of (3) K
p (4) N
magnitude ´ 10 -3 T. The angle between the
2
35. Structure of BeCl2 in solid state, vapour phase
direction of magnetic field and velocity of
and at very high temperature respectively are :-
proton is 60°. The pitch of the helical path taken
(1) Dimeric, Polymeric, Monomeric
by the proton is_______cm.
(2) Polymeric, Dimeric, Monomeric
(Take, mass of proton = 1.6 × 10–27 kg and
(3) Monomeric, Dimeric, Polymeric
Charge on proton = 1.6 × 10–19 C).
(4) Polymeric, Monomeric, Dimeric
154 E
36. The strongest acid from the following is 39. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
OH as “Assertion A” and the other is labelled as
“Reason R”.
(1)
NO2 Assertion A : In the complex Ni(CO)4 and Fe(CO) 5,
OH the metals have zero oxidation state.

Reason R : Low oxidation states are found
(2)
when a complex has ligands capable of p-donor
Cl
character in addition to the s-bonding.
OH
(3) most appropriate answer from the option
CH3
given below.
OH
®
(4) (2) A is not correct but R is correct
37. Group-13 elements react with O2 in amorphous correct explanation of A
form to form oxides of type M2O3 (M = element). (4) Both A and R are correct and R is the
Which among the following is the most basic correct explanation of A.
oxide? 40. During the reaction of permanganate with
(1) Al2O3 (2) Ga2O3 thiosulphate, the change in oxidation of
(3) Tl2O3 (4) B2O3 manganese occurs by value of 3. Identify which
38. Consider the following reaction that goes from of the below medium will favour the reaction.
A to B in three steps as shown below:- (1) aqueous acidic
(2) aqueous neutral
(3) both aqueous acidic and neutral
Energy A (4) both aqueous acidic and faintly alkaline.
Step Step Step B 41. Find out the major product from the following
I II III reaction
Reaction Coordinate O
Choose the correct
1) MeMgBr/CuI
Number of Number of Rate 2) nPrI
intermediates Activated determining O
complexes step O
(1) 3 2 II (1) Me (2) Me
(2) 2 3 II Me Me
(3) 2 3 I Me HO Me
(4) 2 3 III (3) (4)
Me
Me
E 155
42. Formation of which complex, among the 45. The volume of 0.02 M aqueous HBr required to
2+
following, is not a confirmatory test of Pb ions neutralize 10.0 mL of 0.01 M aqueous Ba(OH)2
(1) lead chromate (2) lead iodide is (Assume complete neutralization)
(3) lead nitrate (4) lead sulphate (1) 2.5 mL (2) 5.0 mL
43. From the figure of column chromatography (3) 10.0 mL (4) 7.5 mL
given below, identify incorrect statements. 46. The product, which is not obtained during the
electrolysis of brine solution is
(1) NaOH
(2) Cl2
a
(3) H2
b
(4) HCl
c
®
47. The group of chemicals used as pesticide is
(1) Sodium chlorate, DDT, PAN
(2) Aldrin, Sodium chlorate, Sodium arsinite
A. Compound ‘c’ is more polar than ‘a’ and ‘b’
(3) DDT, Aldrin
B. Compound ‘a’ is least polar
(4) Dieldrin, Sodium arsinite, Tetrachloroethene
C. Compound ‘b’ comes out of the column
48. In the following reaction, ‘B’ is
before ‘c’ and after ‘a’ +
H 3O
D. Compound ‘a’ spends more time in the 'B'
major
column
OH
given below :- (1)
(1) A, B and C only
(2) B, C and D only
(2)
(3) A, B and D only
(4) B and D only
44. Given below are two statements :- (3)

Statement-I : Morphine is a narcotic analgesis. It O
helps in relieving pain without producing sleep.

Statement-II : Morphine and its derivatives are O
(4)
obtained from opium poppy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 49. Which one of the following elements will
correct answer from the options given below. remain as liquid inside pure boiling water ?
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (1) Cs
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (2) Ga
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (3) Li
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (4) Br
156 E
50. If the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom 55. The number of colloidal systems from the
a0, then de Broglie’s wavelength of electron in following, which will have ‘liquid’ as the
3rd orbit is dispersion medium, is_________
pa 0 pa 0 Gem stones, paints, smoke, cheese, milk, hair
(1) (2) (3) 6pa0 (4) 3pa0
6 3 cream, insecticide sprays, froth, soap lather.
SECTION-B
56. The number of species having a square planar
51. In an ice crystal, each water molecule is shape from the following is _________
hydrogen bonded to ………….. neighbouring
XeF4, SF4, SiF4, BF4- , BrF4- , [Cu(NH3 ) 4 ]2+ ,
molecules.
[FeCl4 ]2- , [PtCl4 ]2 -
52. The equilibrium composition for the reaction
PCl3 + Cl2 PCl5 at 298 K is given below. 57. Consider the following date
®
-1 -1
Heat of combustion of H2(g) = –241.8 kJ mol–1
[PCl3 ]eq = 0.2 mol L [Cl2 ] eq = 0.1 mol L ,
Heat of combustion of C(s) = –393.5 kJ mol–1
[PCl5 ]eq = 0.40 mol L-1
Heat of combustion of C2H5OH(l) = –1234.7 kJ mol–1.
If 0.2 mol of Cl2 is added at the same The heat of formation of C2H5OH(l) is (–)
temperature, the equilibrium concentrations of _________ kJ mol–1 (Nearest integer)
PCl5 is_________ × 10–2 mol L–1.
58. Among the following, the number of
Given : Kc for the reaction at 298 K is 20 compounds which will give positive iodoform
53. Consider the following pairs of solution which reaction is_________
will be isotonic at the same temperature. The (a) 1-Phenylbutan-2-one
number of pairs of solutions is/are……….. (b) 2-Methylbutan-2-ol
A. 1 M aq. NaCl and 2 M aq. Urea (c) 3-Methylbutan-2-ol
B. 1 M aq. CaCl2 and 1.5 M aq. KCl (d) 1-Phenylethanol
C. 1.5 M aq. AlCl3 and 2 M aq. Na2SO4
(e) 3,3-dimethylbutan-2-one
D. 2.5 M aq. KCl and 1 M aq. Al2(SO4)3 (f) 1-Phenylpropan-2-ol
54. The standard reduction potential at 298 K for 59. Number of isomeric aromatic amines with
the following half cells are given below :-
molecular formula C8H11N, which can be
NO3- + 4H + + 3e - ® NO(g) + 2H 2O E0 = 0.97V synthesized by Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis
is_________
V 2+ (aq) + 2e - ® V E0 = –1.19V
60. Number of crystal systems from the following
Fe3+ (aq) + 3e- ® Fe E0 = –0.04V
where body centred unit cell can be found,
Ag + (aq) + e- ® Ag(s) E0 = 0.80V
is…..
3+ - 0
Au (aq) + 3e ® Au(s) E = 1.40V Cubic, tetragonal, orthorhombic, hexagonal,
The number of metal(s) which will be oxidized rhombohedral, monoclinic, triclinic.
by NO -3 in aqueous solution is _________.
E 157
MATHEMATICS 65. Let the sets A and B denote the domain and
SECTION-A range respectively of the function
61. Three dice are rolled. If the probability of getting 1

f(x) = , where éê x ùú denotes the
p êé x úù - x
different numbers on the three dice is , where
q smallest integer greater than or equal to x . Then
p and q are co-prime, then q – p is equal to among the statements
(1) 4 (S1) : A Ç B = (1, ¥) – N and
(2) 3 (S2) : A È B = (1, ¥)
(3) 1 (1) only (S1) is true
(4) 2 (2) both (S1) and (S2) are true

(3) neither (S1) nor (S2) is true
62. Among the statements:
®
(4) only (S2) is true
(S1) : 20232022 – 19992022 is divisible by 8.
66. If the solution curve f(x, y) = 0 of the differential
(S2) : 13(13)n – 11n – 13 is divisible by 144 for
dx
infinitely many n Î N. equation (1 + loge x) - x loge x = e y , x > 0,
dy
(1) both (S1) and (S2) are incorrect
passes through the points (1,0) and ( a , 2) then
(2) only (S2) is correct
aa is equal to
(3) both (S1) and (S2) are correct
2 2 2 2
(4) only (S1) is correct (1) e2e (2) e 2e (3) ee (4) e2e
ìæ 1 1ö æ 1 1ö æ 1 1 öü 67. The sum of all values of a, for which the points

ï 2 ï
63. Lim íç 2 - 2 3 ÷ ç 2 - 2 ÷ ¼.¼ç 2 - 2 +1 ÷ ý
2 5 2 2n
n ®¥ ïç ÷ø çè ÷ø çè ÷ø ï whose position vectors î - 2 ˆj + 3kˆ , 2iˆ - 3ˆj + 4kˆ ,
îè þ
(a + 1)iˆ + 2kˆ and 9iˆ + (a - 8)ˆj + 6kˆ are
is equal to
coplanar, is equal to
1
(1) (1) 6 (2) 4
2
(3) –2 (4) 2 node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-1 & 2.docx"
(2) 1
68. For the system of equations
(3) 2
x+y+z=6
(4) 0
x + 2y + az = 10
64. Let a ¹ b be two non-zero real numbers.
x + 3y + 5z = b, which one of the following is
Then the number of elements in the set
NOT true?
{ 2 2
X = z Î C : Re(az + bz) = a and Re(bz + az) = b } (1) System has a unique solution for a = 3, b ¹ 14.
is equal to (2) System has no solution for a = 3, b = 24.
(1) 1 (3) System has a unique solution for a = –3,
(2) 3 b= 14.
(3) 0 (4) System has infinitely many solutions for
(4) 2 a = 3, b = 14.
158 E
69. The area bounded by the curves 11
æ 1 ö
75. If the coefficients of x7 in ç ax 2 + ÷ and
y = |x – 1| + |x – 2| and y = 3 is equal to è 2bx ø
(1) 3 (2) 4 11
æ 1 ö
(3) 5 (4) 6 x–7 in ç ax - ÷ are equal, then
è 3bx2 ø
70. Let P be a square matrix such that P2 = I – P.
(1) 64ab = 243
For a, b, g, d Î N, if Pa + Pb = gI – 29P and
(2) 729ab = 32
Pa – Pb = dI – 13P, then a + b + g – d is equal to
(3) 243ab = 64
(1) 18 (2) 40
(4) 32ab = 729
(3) 24 (4) 22
76. Among the statements
71. All the letters of the word PUBLIC are written
(S1): (p Þ q) Ú ((~ p) Ù q ) is a tautology
in all possible orders and these words are
(S2): (q Þ p) Þ ( (~ p) Ù q ) is a contradiction
®
written as in a dictionary with serial numbers.
Then the serial number of the word PUBLIC is (1) neither (S1) and (S2) is True
(1) 580 (2) 582 (2) only (S1) is True
(3) 578 (4) 576 (3) only (S2) is True
72. Let the line L pass through the point (0, 1, 2), (4) both (S1) and (S2) are True
x -1 y - 2 z - 3 77. If the tangents at the points P and Q on the
intersect the line = = and be
2 3 4 circle x2 + y2 – 2x + y = 5 meet at the point
parallel to the plane 2x + y – 3z = 4. Then the æ9 ö
R ç ,2÷ , then the area of the triangle PQR is
distance of the point P(l, –9, 2) from the line L is è4 ø
(1) 9 (2) 54 13 13
(1) (2)
4 8
(3) 69 (4) 74
5 5
73. A plane P contains the line of intersection of the (3) (4)
4 8
r ˆ = 6 and rr ·(2iˆ + 3ˆj + 4k)
plane r ·(iˆ + ˆj + k) ˆ = –5. r r r
78. Let the vectors a, b, c represent three
If P passes through the point (0, 2, –2), then the

coterminous edges of a parallelopiped of volume
square of distance of the point (12, 12, 18) from
V. Then the volume of the parallelopiped, whose
the plane P is r r r
coterminous edges are represented by a, b + c
(1) 1240 (2) 620
r r r
(3) 310 (4) 155 and a + 2 b + 3c is equal to
74. Let f(x) be a function satisfying f(x) + f(p – x) = p2, (1) 3V (2) 6V
p (3) V (4) 2V
"x Î R . Then ò f(x) sin x dx is equal to 79. If gcd (m, n) = 1 and 1 – 22 + 32 – 42 + ……
2
0
+ (2021)2 – (2022)2 + (2023)2 = 1012 m2n, then
p2 p2 m2 – n2 is equal to
(1) (2)
4 2
(1) 200 (2) 240
(3) 2p2 (4) p2
(3) 220 (4) 180
E 159
80. In a group of 100 persons 75 speak English 85. The number of 4-letter words, with or without
and 40 speak Hindi. Each person speaks at meaning, each consisting of 2 vowels and
least one of the two languages. If the number 2 consonants, which can be formed from the
of persons, who speak only English is a and
letters of the word UNIVERSE without
the number of persons who speak only Hindi is
repetition is_________
b, then the eccentricity of the ellipse
86. The number of points, where the curve
25(b 2 x2 + a 2 y 2 ) = a 2b2 is
y = x5 – 20x3 + 50x + 2 crosses the x-axis, is
3 15
(1) ______.
12
117 87. For a, b, z ÎC and l > 1, if l - 1 is the
(2)
12
radius of the circle |z – a|2 + |z – b|2 = 2l, then |
®
119
(3) a – b | is equal to _____________.
12
129 88. Let a curve y = f(x), x Î (0, ¥) pass through the
(4)
12
æ 3ö æ 1ö
points P ç 1, ÷ and Q ç a, ÷ . If the tangent at
SECTION-B è 2ø è 2ø
81. Let f(x) =

x
, x Î R – {–1}, n Î N, any point R ( b, f(b) ) to the given curve cuts the
1
(1+ x ) n n y-axis at the point S (0, c) such that bc = 3, then
n > 2. If f n(x) = (fofof …… upto n times) (x), (PQ)2 is equal to __________________.

1
then
n ®¥
(
Lim ò x n -2 f n (x) dx ) is equal 89.
x2 y2
Let the eccentricity of an ellipse 2 + 2 = 1 is
a b
0
to________ reciprocal to that of the hyperbola 2x2 – 2y2 = 1.
82. The value of tan 9° – tan 27° – tan 63° + tan 81° If the ellipse intersects the hyperbola at right
is _________. angles, then square of length of the latus-rectum
x -1 2 - y z - 3 of the ellipse is ______________.

83. If the lines = =
2 -3 a
90. If the mean and variance of the frequency
x - 4 y -1 z
and = = intersect, distribution
5 2 b
xi 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
then the magnitude of the minimum value of
8ab is _________. fi 4 4 a 15 8 b 4 5
84. If (20)19 + 2(21)(20)18 + 3(21)2(20)17 + ….… are 9 and 15.08 respectively, then the value of
+20(21)19 = k(20)19, then k is equal a 2 + b2 - ab is _____________.

to_________.
160 E
SET # 03
PHYSICS 5. In a reflecting telescope, a secondary mirror is
SECTION-A used to:
1. A charge particle moving in magnetic field B, (1) reduce the problem of mechanical support
has the components of velocity along B as well (2) remove spherical aberration
as perpendicular to B. The path of the charge (3) make chromatic aberration zero
particle will be (4) move the eyepiece outside the telescopic tube
(1) helical path with the axis perpendicular to 6. Given below are two statements:
the direction of magnetic field B Statement I: If heat is added to a system, its
(2) straight along the direction of magnetic temperature must increase.
field B Statement II: If positive work is done by a
®
(3) helical path with the axis along magnetic system in a thermodynamic process, its volume
field B must increase.
(4) circular path In the light of the above statements, choose the
2. Two projectiles A and B are thrown with initial correct answer from the options given below
velocities of 40 m/s and 60 m/s at angles 30° (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is fals
and 60° with the horizontal respectively. The (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2
ratio of their ranges respectively is (g= 10 m/s ) (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(1) 3 :2 (2) 2 : 3 (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 4 : 9 7. The weight of a body on the earth is 400 N.
3. Certain galvanometers have a fixed core made Then weight of the body when taken to a depth
of non magnetic metallic material. The function half of the radius of the earth will be:
of this metallic material is (1) Zero (2) 300 N
(1) to oscillate the coil in magnetic field for (3) 100 N (4) 200 N
longer period of time 8. An aluminium rod with Young’s modulus
(2) to bring the coil to rest quickly Y = 7.0 × l010 N/m2 undergoes elastic strain of
(3) to produce large deflecting torque on the 0.04%. The energy per unit volume stored in the
coil rod in SI unit is:
(4) to make the magnetic field radial (1) 5600 (2) 8400
4. A TV transmitting antenna is 98 m high and the (3) 2800 (4) 11200
receiving antenna is at the ground level. If the 9. At any instant the velocity of a particle of mass
radius of the earth is 6400 km, the surface area
( )
500 g is 2t î + 3t 2 ˆj ms -1 . If the force acting on
covered by the transmitting antenna is
approximately: ( )
the particle at t=1s is î + xjˆ N . Then the value
2 2
(1) 1240 km (2) 3942 km of x will be:
2 2
(3) 4868 km (4) 1549 km (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 2
E 161
10. For the logic circuit shown, the output waveform 12. Given below are two statements:
at Y is: Statement I :
If E be the total energy of a satellite moving around
A0 A
1 2 3 4
t Y E
the earth, then its potential energy will be .
B
2
B0
2 3 4
1
t Statement II:
The kinetic energy of a satellite revolving in an
orbit is equal to the half the magnitude of total
(1)
0 1 2 3 4 energy E.
t
(2) 0
®
1 2 3 4 below
t
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
0 1 2 3 4
t correct
incorrect
(4)
0 1
1 2 3 4 13. Dimension of should be equal to
t m0 Î0
11. For a nucleus A
Z X having mass number A and (1) T2/L2 (2) L/T
2 2
atomic number Z (3) L /T (4) T/L
14. In this figure the resistance of the coil of
A. The surface energy per nucleon ( b s ) = a1A 2/3
galvanometer G is 2 W. The emf of the cell is
B. The Coulomb contribution to the binding energy 4 V. The ratio of potential difference across C1
Z ( Z - 1) and C2 is: node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-3 & 4.docx"
bc = -a 2
4/3 B
A
C. The volume energy bv = a3A C2
D. Decrease in the binding energy is proportional to A D

G
surface area.
E. While estimating the surface energy, it is assumed C1
C
that each nucleon interacts with 12 nucleons,
(a1, a2 and a3 are constants) 4V
4
(1) 1 (2)
options given below: 5
(1) C, D only (2) B, C, E only 3 5
(3) (4)
(3) A, B, C, D only (4) B, C only 4 4
162 E
15. Graphical variation of electric field due to a 19. A cylindrical wire of mass ( 0.4 ± 0.01) g has
uniformly charged insulating solid sphere of
length ( 8 ± 0.04) cm and radius ( 6 ± 0.03) mm .
radius R, with distance r from the centre O is
represented by: The maximum error in its density will be
(1) 1% (2) 3.5 %
(3) 4% (4) 5%
O
R 20. Proton (P) and electron (e) will have same
de-Broglie wavelength when the ratio of their
E E momentum is (assume, m p = 1849m e )
(1) (2) (1) 1: 43
r=R
r
r=R
r (2) 43 : 1
®
E E (3) 1 : 1849
(3) (4) (4) 1 : 1

r
r=R r=R r SECTION-B
A 21. An electric dipole of dipole moment is
16. Two forces having magnitude A and are
2
6.0 ´ 10-6 Cm placed in a uniform electric field
perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of
their resultant is of 1.5 ´ 103 NC-1 in such a way that dipole
5A 5A 5A 2 5A moment is along electric field. The work done

(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 2 2 in rotating dipole by 180º in this field will be
17. The engine of a train moving with speed _____mJ
-1
10ms towards a platform sounds a whistle at 22. Two vertical parallel mirrors A and B are
frequency 400Hz. The frequency heard by a separated by 10 cm. A point object O is placed
passenger inside the train is (neglect air speed. at a distance of 2 cm from mirror A. The
–1
Speed of sound in air 330ms ) distance of the second nearest image behind
(1) 200Hz (2) 400Hz mirror A from the mirror A is ____cm

(3) 412 Hz (4) 388 Hz
A B
3
18. An air bubble of volume 1cm rises from the
bottom of a lake 40m deep to the surface at a
temperature of 12ºC. The atmospheric pressure 2 cm
is 1 ´ 10 Pa, the density of water is 1000 kg/m
5 3
O
and g =10m/s2. There is no difference of the
temperature of water at the depth of 40m and on
the surface. The volume of air bubble when it 10 cm
reaches the surface will be 23. The momentum of a body is increased by 50%.
3 3
(1) 5cm (2) 2cm The percentage increase in the kinetic energy of
3 3
(3) 4cm (4) 3cm the body is ______%
E 163
24. The moment of inertia of semicircular ring CHEMISTRY
about an axis, passing through the center and SECTION-A
1 31. 2IO3- + xI- + 12H+ ® 6I 2 + 6H2O
perpendicular to the plane of ring, is MR 2 ,
x
What is the value of x?
where R is the radius and M is the mass of
semicircular ring. The value of x will be
(1) 12
25. An organ pipe 40cm long is open at both ends. (2) 2

The speed of sound in air is 360ms -1 . The (3) 6
frequency of the second harmonic is ____Hz. (4) 10
26. An air bubble of diameter 6 mm rises steadily 32. Which of the following metals can be
3
through a solution of density 1750kg / m at
extracted through alkali leaching technique?
®
the rate of 0.35 cm/s. The co-efficient of
(1) Cu
viscosity of the solution (neglect density of air)
(2) Sn
is ____Pas (given, g = 10 ms -2 )
(3) Pb
27. An oscillating LC circuit consists of a 75 mH
inductor and a 1.2 mF capacitor. If the maximum (4) Au
charge to the capacitor is 2.7 mC . The maximum 33. Match List I with List II
current in the circuit will be ____mA. List-I List-II

28. The magnetic intensity at the centre of a long A. Saccharin I. High potency
current carrying solenoid is found to be sweetener
-1
1.6 ´ 10 Am . If the number of turns is
3
B. Aspartame II. First artificial
8 per cm, then the current flowing through the sweetening agent
solenoid is_____A. C. Alitame III. Stable at cooking
29. A current of 2 A flows through a wire of node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-3 & 4.docx"
temperature
2
cross-sectional area 25.0 mm . The number of D. Sucralose IV. Unstable at
free electrons in a cubic meter are 2.0 ´ 10 . The
28
cooking
drift velocity of the electrons is _____ ´10 -6 ms -1 temperature
(given, charge on electron = 1.6 ´ 10 -19 C ) Choose the correct answer from the
30. A nucleus with mass number 242 and binding options given below:
energy per nucleon as 7.6 MeV breaks into (1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
fragment each with mass number 121. If each (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
fragment nucleus has binding energy per
nucleon as 8.1 MeV, the total gain in binding
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
energy is ____MeV
164 E
34. Which of the following represent the 35. Choose the halogen which is most reactive
Freundlich adsorption isotherms? towards SN1 reaction in the given

compounds (A, B, C & D)
Br(a)
x
m A.
(A)
Br(b)
p B. I(a) I(b)
log x C. Br(a)
Br(b)
®
m Me
(B)
constant Br(b)
D.
Br(a)
log p
(1) A-Br(b) ; B-I(b) ; C-Br(b) ; D-Br(b)
(2) A-Br(a) ; B-I(a) ; C-Br(b) ; D-Br(a)
x (3) A-Br(a) ; B-I(a) ; C-Br(a) ; D-Br(a)
m (4) A-Br(b) ; B-I(a) ; C-Br(a) ; D-Br(a)
(C)
constant 36. Sulphur (S) containing amino acids from
the following are:
c
(a) isoleucine (b) cysteine
(c) lysine (d) methionine
x (e) glutamic acid
m
(1) a, d
(D)
(2) b, d
1/n (3) b, c, e
p
(4) a, b, c
37. The water gas on reacting with cobalt as a
given below: catalyst forms
(1) B, C, D only (1) Ethanol
(2) A, B, D only (2) Methanoic acid
(3) A, B only (3) Methanal
(4) A, C, D only (4) Methanol
E 165
38. The major product formed in the following 41. Match List-I with List-II :
reaction is: List-I List-II
(i) LiBH4 (Reagents (Compound
CO2H major product
EtOH used) with functional
CO2Et group detected)
(ii) H3O+
A. Alkaline I.
solution of
(1) OH copper
OH sulphate and
sodium citrate
B. Neutral FeCl3 II.
(2) OH
solution
CO2Et
C. Alkaline III.
®
CO2H chloroform
solution
(3) D. Potassium IV.
OH iodide and
sodium
CO2H hypochlorite
(4) Choose the correct answer from the options
CO2H
given below:
39. Which of the following complex is (1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
octahedral, diamagnetic and the most (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
stable? (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(1) Na3[CoCl6] (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

42. Given below are two statements: One is
(2) [Ni(NH3)6]Cl2
labelled as Assertion A and the other is
(3) K3[Co(CN)6] labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Butan -1- ol has higher boiling node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-3 & 4.docx"
(4) [Co(H2O)6]Cl2
point than ethoxyethane.
40. The reaction
Reason R : Extensive hydrogen bonding
1
H 2 (g) + AgCl(s) H + (aq) + Cl - (aq) + Ag(s) leads to stronger association of molecules.
2
occurs in which of the given galvanic cell.
n
(1) Pt H2 (g) KCl(sol ) AgCl(s) Ag (1) Both A and R are true and R is the
(2) Pt H2 (g) HCl(sol n ) AgCl(s) Ag
n
(3) Ag AgCl(s) KCl(sol ) AgCl(s) Ag (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the
n n
(4) Pt H2 (g) HCl(sol ) AgNO3 (sol ) Ag (4) A is false but R is true
166 E
43. In chromyl chloride, the number of 47. Match List-I with List-II :
d-electrons present on chromium is same as List-I List-II
in (Given at no. of Ti : 22, V : 23, Cr : 24, (Species) (Maximum allowed
concentration in ppm in
Mn : 25, Fe : 26) drinking water)
(1) Ti (III) A. F– I. < 50 ppm
B. SO24- II. < 5 ppm
(2) Fe (III)
C. NO-3 III. < 2 ppm
(3) V (IV)
D. Zn IV. < 500 ppm
(4) Mn (VII)
44. What is the purpose of adding gypsum to
cement?
®
(1) To facilitate the hydration of cement (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) To speed up the process of setting 48. The correct order of electronegativity for
(3) To slow down the process of setting given elements is:
(4) To give a hard mass (1) C > P > At > Br (2) Br > P > At > C
45. The correct order of spin only magnetic (3) P > Br > C > At (4) Br > C > At > P
49. Match List I with List II:
moments for the following complex ions is
(1) [Fe(CN)6]3– < [CoF6]3– < [MnBr4]2– is reacted with reagents in List I
< [Mn(CN)6]3– to form products in List II.

3– 3– 3–
(2) [Fe(CN)6] < [Mn(CN)6] < [CoF6] List-I List-II
< [MnBr4]2– (Reagent) (Product)
(3) [MnBr4]2– < [CoF6]3– < [Fe(CN) 6]3– A. I.

< [Mn(CN)6]3–
B. HBF4, D II.
(4) [CoF6]3– < [MnBr4]2– < [Fe(CN)6]3–
< [Mn(CN)6]3– C. Cu, HCl III.
46. Which halogen is known to cause the D. CuCN/KCN IV.
reaction given below:
2Cu2+ + 4X– ® Cu2X2(s) + X2
given below:
(1) Only Iodine
(2) Only Bromine (2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(3) All halogens (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) Only Chlorine (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
E 167
50. Given below are two statements: 54. The number of given statement/s which
Statement I: Lithium and Magnesium do is/are correct is____
not form superoxide (A) The stronger the temperature
+
Statement II: The ionic radius of Li is dependence of the rate constant, the
2+
larger than ionic radius of Mg higher is the activation energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose
(B) If a reaction has zero activation energy,
the most appropriate answer from the
its rate is independent of temperature.
(C) The stronger the temperature
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II
dependence of the rate constant, the
is correct
smaller is the activation energy.
®
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II
(D) If there is no correlation between the
is incorrect
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are temperature and the rate constant then
correct it means that the reaction has negative
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are activation energy.

incorrect 55. The vapour pressure vs. temperature curve
SECTION-B for a solution solvent system is shown
51. Molar mass of the hydrocarbon (X) which below.
on ozonolysis consumes one mole of
O3 per mole of (X) and gives one mole each
1 atm
of ethanal and propanone is ______ g mol–1
Vapour Pressure
(Molar mass of C : 12 g mol–1, H : 1 g mol–1)

52. The number of following factors which
affect the percent covalent character of the node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-3 & 4.docx"
ionic bond is____

(a) Polarising power of cation 80 81 82 83
Temperature
o
( C)
(b) Extent of distortion of anion
(c) Polarisability of the anion The boiling point of the solvent is _____°C
(d) Polarising power of anion 56. XeF4 reacts with SbF5 to form
53. When a 60 W electric heater is immersed in [XeFm]n+ [SbFy]z–
a gas for 100s in a constant volume
m + n + y + z = __________
container with adiabatic walls, the
57. 0.5 g of an organic compound (X) with 60%
temperature of the gas rises by 5°C. The
carbon will produce __________× 10–1 g of
heat capacity of the given gas is_____J K–1
(Nearest integer) CO2 on complete combustion.
168 E
58. The titration curve of weak acid vs. strong 60. The number of following statement/s which
base with phenolphthalein as indictor is is/are incorrect is_______
shown below. The Kphenolphthalein = 4 × 10–10. (A) Line emission spectra are used to study
the electronic structure
Given: log2 = 0.3
(B) The emission spectra of atoms in the
gas phase show a continuous spread of
12 wavelength from red to violet
10 (C) An absorption spectrum is like the
pH
8 photographic negative of an emission

6 spectrum
®
0 (D) The element helium was discovered in
5 10 15 20 25
VNaOH
the sun by spectroscopic method
The number of following statements which
MATHEMATICS
is/are correct about phenolphthalein
SECTION-A
is_________
Let I ( x ) =
( x + 1)
A. It can be used as an indicator for the 61. ò x (1 + xe x )
2
dx, x > 0 ,
titration of weak acid with weak base.

If lim I ( x ) = 0 , then I(1) is equal to
B. It begins to change colour at pH = 8.4 x ®¥
e +1
C. It is a weak organic base (1) - log e ( e + 1)
e+2
D. It is colourless in acidic medium
e +1
(2) + log e ( e + 1)
e+2
59. P = 2 atm P = 4 atm P = 3 atm
V=2L V=3L V=4L
e+2
+ log e ( e + 1)
CH4 (g) CO2 (g) Ne(g)
(3)
e +1
e+2
(4) - log e ( e + 1)
e +1
Three bulbs are filled with CH4, CO2 and 62. If the equation of the plane containing the line
Ne as shown in the picture. The bulbs are x + 2y + 3z - 4 = 0 = 2x + y - z + 5

and perpendicular to the plane
connected through pipes of zero volume.
r
When the stopcocks are opened and the =
r ( î - ˆj) + l ( î + ˆj + kˆ ) + m ( î - 2ˆj + 3k ) is
temperature is kept constant throughout, the ax + by + cz = 4 , then (a–b + c) is equal to

pressure of the system is found to (1) 20 (2) 24
be__________atm. (Nearest integer) (3) 22 (4) 18
E 169
63. Let R be the focus of the parabola y 2 = 20x 67. The number of ways , in which 5 girls and 7
boys can be seated at a round table so that no
and the line y = mx + c intersect the parabola
two girls sit together, is
at two points P and Q. Let the point G(10, 10)
(1) 126 ( 5!) (2) 7 ( 360 )
2 2
be the centroid of the triangle PQR. If c–m = 6 ,

(4) 7 ( 720 )
2
(3) 720
then ( PQ ) is
2
68. In a bolt factory, machines A, B and C

(1) 325
manufacture respectively 20%, 30% and 50% of
(2) 317
the total bolts. Of their output 3, 4 and 2
(3) 296
percent are respectively defective bolts. A bolt
(4) 346
is drawn at random from the product. If the bolt
®
64. Let C ( a, b ) be the circumcenter of the triangle drawn is found the defective, then the
formed by the lines probability that it is manufactured by the
4x + 3y = 69 machine C is
4y - 3x = 17 and 2 9 5 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
x + 7y = 61 7 28 14 7
69. The number of arrangements of the letter of the
Then ( a - b ) + a + b is equal to
2
word “INDEPENDENCE” in which all the

(1) 18 (2) 17 (3) 16 (4) 15
vowels always occur together is
é 3 1 ù (1) 16800 (2) 14800
ê ú
65. Let P = ê 2 2 ú , A = é1 1ù and
ê0 1ú (3) 18000 (4) 33600
ê 1 3ú ë û
êë - 2 ú
2 û sin x + cos x - 2 ìpü
70. Let f ( x ) = , x Î [ 0, p] - í ý .
sin x - cos x î4þ
éa b ù
Q = PQPT . If P T Q2007 P = ê ú , then
ëc dû æ 7p ö æ 7p ö
Then f ç ÷ f "ç ÷ is equal to
è 12 ø è 12 ø
2a + b - 3c - 4d equal to
-2 2
(1) 2007 (2) 2005 (1) (2)
3 9
(3) 2006 (4) 2004
1 -2
(3) - (4)
66. Let a, b, g be the three roots of the equation 3 3 3 3
x 3 + bx + c = 0 . If bg = 1 = -a , then 71. If the points with vectors aî + 10ˆj + 13k,

ˆ
b3 + 2c3 - 3a 3 - 6b3 - 8g 3 is equal to 9

6iˆ + 11jˆ + 11kˆ , î + bˆj - 8kˆ are collinear, then
2
169
(1) 21 (2)
8 (19a - 6b )2 is equal to
155 (1) 36 (2) 16

(3) 19 (4)
8 (3) 25 (4) 49
170 E
72. If the coefficients of the three consecutive terms 78. Let the number of elements in sets A and B be
in the expansion of (1 + x ) five and two respectively. Then the number of

n
are in the ratio
subsets of A × B each having at least 3 and at
1 : 5 : 20, then the coefficient of the fourth term is
most 6 element is :
(1) 3654 (2) 1827
(1) 792 (2) 752
(3) 5481 (4) 2436
(3) 782 (4) 772
1 + 2 + ..... + K
73. Let Sk = and
ææ ö
K
ç 1 - cos2 ( 3x ) ö æç sin 3 ( 4x ) ö÷ ÷
79. lim ç ÷ is
x ®0 ç ç cos 3 ( 4x ) ÷ ç 5 ÷
å
n
S2j =
n
( )
Bn 2 + Cn + D , where A, B, C, D çè
è ø è ( log e ( 2x + 1) ) ÷÷
øø
j=1 A
equal to _____
Î N and A has least value. Then
(1) 9 (2) 18
®
(1) A + B is divisible by D
(3) 15 (4) 24
(2) A + B = 5 (D–C)
80. If for z = a + ib ,| z + 2 | = z + 4 (1 + i ) , then
(3) A + C + D is not divisible by B
(4) A + B + C + D is divisible by 5 a + b and ab are the roots of the equation
é2 1 0 ù (1) x 2 + 7x + 12 = 0
74. Let A= ê1 2 –1ú .
ê ú (2) x 2 + 3x - 4 = 0
ë 0 –1 2 û
(3) x 2 + 2x - 3 = 0
If | adj( adj ( adj2A ) ) |= (16 ) , then n is equal to
n
(4) x 2 + x - 12 = 0
(1) 10 (2) 9
SECTION-B
(3) 12 (4) 8
81. Let [t] denotes the greatest integer £ t . Then
75. Negation of ( p Þ q ) Þ ( q Þ p ) is
2 5p /6
(1) ( ~ p ) Ú q (2) ( ~ q ) Ù p p ò p /6
(8[cos ec x ] - 5 [cot x ]) dx is equal to
(3) q Ù ( ~ p ) (4) p Ú ( ~ q ) 82. Let [t] denotes the greatest integer £ t . If the
7
76. The shortest distance between the lines æ 1 ö
constant term in the expansion of ç 3x 2 - 5 ÷
è 2x ø
x -4 y+2 z+3 x -1 y - 3 z - 4
= = and = =
4 5 3 3 4 2 is a , then [ a] is equal to ____
r
is
83.
r ˆ b = aî + 11jˆ - 2kˆ and cr be
Let a = 6iˆ + 9jˆ + 12k,
(1) 3 6 (2) 6 3 r r r r rr
vectors such that a ´ c = a ´ b . If a.c = -12 ,
(3) 6 2 (4) 2 6 r r
( ) (
c. î - 2ˆj + kˆ = 5 , then c. iˆ + ˆj + kˆ ) is equal to
77. The area of the region
________.
{( x, y) : x 2
}
£ y £ 8 - x 2 , y £ 7 is
84. The largest natural number n such that 3 n
(1) 21 (2) 18
divides 66! is _____ .
(3) 24 (4) 20
E 171
85. If a n is the greatest term in the sequence 88. If the solution curve of the differential equation
n3 ( y - 2log e x ) dx + ( x log e x 2 ) dy = 0, x > 1

an = 4 , n = 1, 2, 3....... , then a is equal
n + 147
to ____
æ 4ö
passes through the points ç e, ÷ and e 4 ,a ,
è 3ø
( )
86. Let A = { 0, 3,4,6,7,8,9,10} and R be the then a is equal to ____.
relation defined on A such that 89. Let l1 , l 2 be the values of l for which the
R= {( x, y ) Î A ´ A : x - y is odd positive æ5 ö
points ç ,1, l ÷
2
and ( -2,0,1) are at equal
integer or x – y = 2}. The minimum number of è ø
elements that must be added to the relation R, distance from the plane 2x + 3y - 6z + 7 = 0 . if
so that it is a symmetric relation, is equal to l1 > l 2 , then the distance of the point
®
_____.
( l1 - l 2 , l2 , l1 ) from the line
87. Consider a circle C1 : x 2 + y 2 - 4x - 2y = a - 5 .
x - 5 y -1 z + 7
Let its mirror image in the line y = 2x + 1 be = = is ____.
1 2 2
another circle 90. Let the mean and variance of 8 numbers x, y,
2 2
C 2 : 5x + 5y - 10fx - 10gy + 36 = 0 . Let r be 10, 12, 6, 12, 4, 8, be 9 and 9.25 respectively. If
the radius of C2 . Then a + r is equal to _____. x > y, then 3x – 2y is equal to ___.
172 E
SET # 04
PHYSICS 4. For a given transistor amplifier circuit in CE
SECTION-A configuration VCC = 1 V, Rc = 1 kW, Rb = 100
1. Electric potential at a point 'P' due to a point charge kW and b = 100. Value of base current Ib is
-9
of 5×10 C is 50 V. The distance of 'P' from the
point charge is:
1 C
(Assume, = 9 ´ 10 +9 Nm 2 C -2 )
4 pe 0
b C
(1) 3 cm (2) 9 cm
(3) 90 cm (4) 0.9 cm e
b
2. For particle P revolving round the centre O with
radius of circular path r and angular velocity w,
®
BB CC
as shown in below figure, the projection of OP
(1) Ib = 1.0 mA
on the x-axis at time t is
y (2) Ib = 0.10 mA
P(t)
(3) Ib = 100 mA
P( t = 0)
r
(4) Ib = 10 mA
T = 6s 30° x
O 5. The trajectory of projectile, projected from the
x2
ground is given by y = x - . Where x and y
20
æ pö are measured in meter. The maximum height
(1) x ( t ) = r cos ç wt + ÷
è 6ø attained by the projectile will be.
(2) x ( t ) = r cos ( wt ) (1) 5 m (2) 10 2m
æ pö (3) 200 m (4) 10 m
(3) x ( t ) = r sin ç wt + ÷
è 6ø 6. A radio-active material is reduced to 1/8 of its
æ p ö original amount in 3 days. If 8 × 10–3 kg of the
(4) x ( t ) = r cos ç wt - w ÷
è 6 ø material is left after 5 days. The initial amount
3. Match List I with List II of the material is
LIST-I LIST-II (1) 64 g (2) 40 g
A. Torque I. ML–2T–2
(3) 32 g (4) 256 g
B. Stress II. ML2T–2
7. The equivalent resistance between A and B as
C. Pressure gradient III. ML–1T–1
shown in figure is:
D. Coefficient of viscosity IV. ML–1T–2
Choose the correct answer from the options given 10 kW
C
below: A B
20 kW 20 kW D
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (1) 5 kW (2) 30 kW
(3) 10 kW (4) 20 kW
E 173
8. A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift 13. Given below are two statements:
vehicles of mass 5000 kg. The area of cross Statement I: Area under velocity- time graph
section of the cylinder carrying the load is 250 gives the distance travelled by the body in a
cm2. The maximum pressure the smaller piston given time.
2
would have to bear is [Assume g = 10 m/s ] : Statement II: Area under acceleration- time
+6 +6
(1) 200 × 10 Pa (2) 20 × 10 Pa graph is equal to the change in velocity- in the
(3) 2 × 10+6 Pa (4) 2 × 10+5 Pa given time.
9. The orbital angular momentum of a satellite is L, In the light of given statements, choose the
when it is revolving in a circular orbit at height h correct answer from the options given below.
from earth surface. If the distance of satellite from (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
the earth centre is increased by eight times to its (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
®
initial value, then the new angular momentum will (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
be- (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
(1) 8 L (2) 4 L 14. The waves emitted when a metal target is
(3) 9 L (4) 3 L bombarded with high energy electrons are
10. The temperature at which the kinetic energy of (1) Microwaves (2) X-rays
oxygen molecules becomes double than its (3) Infrared rays (4) Radio Waves
value at 27°C is 15. The width of fringe is 2 mm on the screen in a
(1) 1227° C (2) 927°C double slits experiment for the light of
(3) 327°C (4) 627°C wavelength of 400 nm. The width of the fringe
11. The acceleration due to gravity at height h for the light of wavelength 600 nm will be:
above the earth if h <<R (radius of earth) is (1) 4 mm (2) 1.33 mm
given by (3) 3 mm (4) 2 mm
æ 2h ö 16. Given below are two statements; one is labelled
(1) g ' = g ç 1 - ÷
è R ø as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
æ 2h 2 ö Reason R Assertion A: Electromagnets are
(2) g' = g ç1 - 2 ÷
è R ø made of soft iron.
æ h ö Reason R: Soft iron has high permeability and
(3) g ' = g ç 1 - ÷
è 2R ø low retentivity.
æ h ö 2
In the light of above, statements, choose the most
(4) g' = g ç1 - 2 ÷
è 2R ø appropriate answer from the options given below.
12. Work done by a Carnot engine operating (1) A is not correct but R is correct
between temperatures 127°C and 27°C is 2 kJ. (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the
The amount of heat transferred to the engine by correct explanation of A
the reservoir is: (3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
(1) 4kJ (2) 2 kJ correct explanation of A
(3) 8kJ (4) 2.67 kJ (4) A is correct but R is not correct
174 E
17. In photo electric effect SECTION-B
A. The photocurrent is proportional to the 21. A series combination of resistor of resistance
intensity of the incident radiation. 100 W, inductor of inductance 1 H and capacitor
B. Maximum Kinetic energy with which of capacitance 6.25 mF is connected to an ac
photoelectrons are emitted depends on the source. The quality factor of the circuit will be
intensity of incident light. __________.
C. Max. K.E with which photoelectrons are emitted
22. A guitar string of length 90 cm vibrates with a
depends on the frequency of incident light.
fundamental frequency of 120 Hz. The length of
D. The emission of photoelectrons require a
the string producing a fundamental frequency of
minimum threshold intensity of incident
180 Hz will be ___________ cm.
radiation.
23. The ratio of wavelength of spectral lines Ha and
®
E. Max. K.E of the photoelectrons is independent
Hb in the Balmer series is x The value of
of the frequency of the incident light. .
20
Choose the correct answer from the options x is __________
given below: 24. The number density of free electrons in copper
(1) A and C only (2) A and E only is nearly 8 × 1028 m–3. A copper wire has its area
(3) B and C only (4) A and B only of cross section = 2 × 10–6 m2 and is carrying a
18. An emf of 0.08 V is induced in a metal rod of current of 3.2 A. The drift speed of the electrons
length 10 cm held normal to a uniform magnetic is ____________ ×10–6 ms–1.
field of 0.4 T, when moves with a velocity of: 25. A steel rod of length 1 m and cross sectional
–-1 –1
(1) 2 ms (2) 3.2 ms area 10–4 m2 is heated from 0°C to 200°C
(3) 0.5 ms–1 (4) 20 ms–1 without being allowed to extend or bend. The
19. A bullet of mass 0.1 kg moving horizontally compressive tension produced in the rod is
–1
with speed 400 ms hits a wooden block of _________ × 104 N. (Given Young’s modulus
mass 3.9 kg kept on a horizontal rough surface. of steel = 2 × 1011 Nm–2, coefficient of linear
The bullet gets embedded into the block and expansion = 10-5K–1.
moves 20 m before coming to rest. The 26. A hollow spherical ball of uniform density rolls
coefficient of friction between the block and the up a curved surface with an initial velocity
surface is______. 3 m/s (as shown in figure). Maximum height
2
(Given g= 10 ms ) with respect to the initial position covered by it
(1) 0.50 (2) 0.90 will be _____ cm.
(3) 0.65 (4) 0.25
20. The power radiated from a linear antenna of
length l is proportional to
(Given, l = Wavelength of wave):
2
l l l2 ælö
(1) (2) 2 (3) (4) ç ÷
l l l èlø
E 175
27. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a 32. Which of these reactions is not a part of
–1
momentum of 10 kg ms . Now a force of 2 N breakdown of ozone in stratosphere ?
acts on the body in the direction of its motion · ·
(1) ClO(g) + O(g) ¾¾
® Cl(g) + O 2 (g)
for 5 s. The increase in the Kinetic energy of the
· ·
body is __________ J. (2) Cl(g) + O3 (g) ¾¾
® ClO(g) + O2 (g)
28. A 600 pF capacitor is charged by 200V supply. · ·

(3) 2 ClO ¾¾
® ClO 2 (g) + Cl(g)
It is then disconnected from the supply and is
· ·
connected to another uncharged 600 pF (4) CF2 Cl 2 (g) ¾¾
uv
® Cl(g) + CF2Cl(g)
capacitor. Electrostatic energy lost in the 33. The correct IUPAC nomenclature for the
process is __________ mJ. following compound is
29. Two transparent media having refractive indices
®
1.0 and 1.5 are separated by a spherical refracting
surface of radius of curvature 30 cm. The centre of
curvature of surface is towards denser medium
and a point object is placed on the principle axis in
(1) 5–Formyl–2–methylhexanoic acid
rarer medium at a distance of 15 cm from the pole (2) 2–Methyl–5–oxohexanoic acid
of the surface. The distance of image from the (3) 2–Formyl–5–methylhexan–6–oic acid
pole of the surface is _________cm. (4) 5–Methyl–2–oxohexan–6–oic acid
30. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a 34. Arrange the following gases in increasing order
current carrying coil of radius r to the magnetic of van der Waals constant ‘a’
field at distance r from the centre of coil on its A. Ar B. CH4 C. H2O D. C6H6
Choose the correct option from the following :-
axis is x :1 . The value of x is ____________
(1) B, C, D and A (2) C, D, B and A
CHEMISTRY (3) A, B, C and D (4) D, C, B and A
SECTION-A 35. Given below are two statements :-
31. Which of the following have same number of Statement I :- Methyl orange is a weak acid. node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-3 & 4.docx"
significant figures ? Statement II :- The benzenoid form of methyl
(A) 0.00253 orange is more intense/deeply coloured than the

quinonoid form.
(B) 1.0003
In the light of the above statement, choose the
(C) 15.0
(D) 163
below :-
given below
incorrect.
(1) A, B and C only (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(2) C and D only (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) A, C and D only incorrect.
(4) B and C only (4) Both statement I and Statement II are correct.
176 E
36. Given below are two statements :- 38. The correct reaction profile diagram for a
Statement I :- In redox titration, the indicators positive catalyst reaction.
used are sensitive to change in pH of the
solution.
Statement II :- In acid-base titration, the (1)
indicators used are sensitive to change in
oxidation potential.
below
(2)
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
correct.
®
correct.
incorrect. (3)
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect.
37. The product (P) formed from the following
multistep reaction is :-
2
2
(4)
2
2
3 3 2
39. Which of the following can reduce

decomposition of H2O2 on exposure to light
(1) (1) Alkali (2) Urea
3 (3) Dust (4) Glass containers

40. The statement/s which are true about
antagonists from the following is/are :-
(2) A. They bind to the receptor site.
3
B. Get transferred inside the cell for their action.
C. Inhibit the natural communication of the
body.
(3)
3 D. Mimic the natural messenger.
given below :-
(4) (1) B only (2) A, C and D
3 (3) A and B (4) A and C
E 177
41. Match List I with List II :- 44. Given below are two statements : One is labelled

List I List II
Reason R
Coordination Complex Number of unpaired
electrons Assertion A :- Sodium is about 30 times as
A. [Cr(CN)6]3– I. 0 abundant as potassium in the oceans.

2+
B. [Fe(H2O)6] II. 3 Reason R :- Potassium is bigger in size than
C. [Co(NH3)6]3+ III. 2
sodium.
D. [Ni(NH3)6]2+ IV. 4
Choose the correct answer from the options In the light of above statements, choose the
given below :- correct answer from the options given below
®
(1) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I
explanation of A.
(3) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(4) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III (2) A is true but R is false.
42. Major product ‘P’ formed in the following (3) A is false but R is true
reaction is :-
Br2
3

(1)
given below :
(2)
List I List II
Natural amino acid One letter code
(3)
A. Glutamic acid I. Q
B. Glutamine II. W
(4) C. Tyrosine III. E
D. Tryptophan IV. Y
43. In Hall – Heroult process, the following is used

for reducing Al2O3 :-
(1) Graphite
(2) Magnesium
(3) Na3AlF6 (3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) CaF2 (4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

178 E
46. Henry Moseley studied characteristic X-ray 48. The correct order of reactivity of following
spectra of elements. The graph which represents haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution
his observation correctly is : with aqueous NaoH is :
(Given v = frequency of X-ray emitted; Cl
Z = atomic number) A.
(1)
B.
2
Cl
®
(2) v C.
OMe
z
2
D.
v2
(3)
O2N 2
z Choose the correct answer from the options

given below :
(1) A > B > D > C
v
(4) (2) C > A > D > B
(3) D > C > B > A
z (4) D > B > A > C

47. The descending order of acidity for the 49. For a good quality cement, the ratio of lime to
following carboxylic acid is : the total of the oxides of Si, Al and Fe should be
A. CH3COOH as close as to :
B. F3C–COOH (1) 4 (2) 2
C. ClCH2–COOH (3) 3 (4) 1
D. FCH2–COOH 50. A compound ‘X’ when treated with phthalic
E. BrCH2–COOH anhydride in presence of concentrated H2SO4
Choose the correct answer from the options yields ‘Y’. ‘Y’ is used as an acid/base indicator.
given below : ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are respectively:
(1) D > B > A > E > C
(1) Carbolic acid, Phenolphthalein
(2) E > D > B > A > C
(2) Anisole, methyl orange
(3) B > C > D > E > A
(3) Salicylaldehyde, Phenolphthalein
(4) B > D > C > E > A (4) Toludine, Phenolphthalein
E 179
SECTION-B 58. The observed magnetic moment of the complex
51. The solubility product of BaSO4 is 1 × 10–10 at [Mn(NCS)6]x– is 6.06 BM. The numerical value
298K. The solubility of BaSO4 in 0.1 M of x is ______ :
K2SO4(aq) solution is ________ × 10–9 g L–1 59. The number of incorrect statements from the
(nearest integer). Given : Molar mass of BaSO4 following is _______
is 233 g mol–1 A. The electrical work that a reaction can
52. Coagulating value of electrolytes AlCl3 and perform at constant pressure and temperature is
NaCl for As2S3 are 0.09 and 50.04 respectively. equal to the reaction Gibbs energy.
The coagulating power of AlCl3 is x times the B. E 0cell is dependent on the pressure
coagulating power of NaCl. The value of x is
dE 0cell D rS0
________: C. =
dT nF
®
53. The number of atomic orbitals from the
D. A cell is operating reversibly if the cell
following having 5 radial nodes is ________.
potential is exactly balanced by an opposing
7s, 7p, 6s, 8p, 8d
source of potential difference.
54. For complete combustion of ethene.
60. The ratio of sigma and p bonds present in
C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) ® 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) the pyrophosphoric acid is ________ :
amount of heat produced as measured in bomb
MATHEMATICS
calorimeter is 1406 kJ mol–1 at 300K. The
SECTION-A
minimum value of TDS needed to reach
61. Let the mean and variance of 12 observations be
equilibrium is (–) ________kJ. (Nearest integer)
9
Given : R = 8.3 JK–1 mol–1 and 4 respectively. Later on, it was observed
2
55. The number of species from the following that two observations were considered as 9 and
carrying a single lone pair on central atom 10 instead of 7 and 14 respectively. If the
Xenon is ____: m
correct variance is , where m and n are node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-3 & 4.docx"
+
XeF5 , XeO3, XeO2F2, XeF5–, XeO3F2, XeOF4, n
XeF4 co-prime, then m+n is equal to
(1) 316 (2) 314
56. If the boiling points of two solvents X and Y
(3) 317 (4) 315
(having same molecular weights) are in the ratio
th
62. Let an be the n term of the series 5 + 8 + 14 +
2 : 1 and their enthalpy of vaporizations are in
n
the ratio 1 : 2, then the boiling point elevation 23 + 35 + 50 + … and Sn = åa

k= 1
k . Then
constant of X is m times the boiling point S30 – a40 is equal to
elevation constant of Y. The value of m is (1) 11310
_____ (Nearest integer) (2) 11280
57. The sum of oxidation state of the metals in (3) 11290

Fe(CO)5, VO2+ and WO3 is ______ : (4) 11260
180 E
63. Let P be the plane passing through the line 68. If the probability that the random variable X
x -1 y - 2 z + 5 takes values x is given by P(X = x) = k (x + 1)3–x,
= = and the point (2, 4, –3). If
1 -3 7 x = 0, 1, 2, 3… , where k is a constant, then P
the image of the point (–1, 3, 4) in the plane P is (X ³ 2) is equal to
(a, b, g), then a + b + g is equal to 7 11
(1) (2)
(1) 12 (2) 11 27 18
(3) 9 (4) 10 7 20
(3) (4)
ì 1 + 2i sin q ü 18 27
64. Let A = íqÎ (0,2 p) : is purely imaginary ý .
î 1 - i sin q þ 69. The value of 36 (4 cos29° – 1)(4 cos2 27° – 1)
Then the sum of the elements in A is (4 cos2 81° – 1)(4 cos2 243° – 1) is
(1) p (1) 54 (2) 18
(2) 2 p (3) 27 (4) 36
®
(3) 4 p æ æ x öx æ 2 öx ö
(4) 3 p
70. The integral ò çç çè 2 ÷ø + çè x ÷ø ÷÷ log 2 x dx is equal
è ø
65. The absolute difference of the coefficients of x10 to
11
æ 1 ö æxö æ2ö
x x
and x7 in the expansion of ç 2x 2 + ÷ is (1) ç ÷ + ç ÷ + C
è 2x ø è2ø èxø
equal to x x
æxö æ2ö
3
(1) 12 – 12 3
(2) 11 – 11 (2) ç ÷ - ç ÷ + C
è2ø èxø
(3) 103 –10 (4) 133 – 13 x
æxö æxö
66. If the number of words, with or without (3) ç ÷ log 2 ç ÷ + C
2
è ø è2ø
meaning, which can be made using all the x
æxö æ2ö
letters of the word MATHEMATICS in which (4) ç ÷ log 2 ç ÷ + C
2
è ø èxø
C and S do not come together, is (6!)k, then k is
71. The area of the quadrilateral ABCD with
equal to
vertices A(2, 1, 1), B(1, 2, 5), C (–2, –3, 5) and
(1) 1890 (2) 945

D (1, –6, –7) is equal to
(3) 2835 (4) 5670
(1) 48 (2) 8 38
67. Let S be the set of all values of q Î [–p, p] for
which the system of linear equations (3) 54 (4) 9 38
x + y + 3z = 0 72. For a, b Î Z and |a – b| £ 10, let the angle

between the plane P: ax + y – z = b and the line
-x + (tan q)y + 7z = 0
æ1ö
x + y + (tan q)z = 0 l : x – 1 = a – y = z + 1 be cos–1 ç ÷ . If the
è3ø
120 distance of the point (6, –6, 4) from the plane P
has non-trivial solution. Then å q is equal
p qÎs
is 3 6, then a4 + b2 is equal to
to
(1) 40 (2) 10 (1) 25 (2) 85
(3) 20 (4) 30 (3) 48 (4) 32
E 181
73. 25190 – 19190 – 8190 + 2190 is divisible by 79. Let A(0,1), B(1, 1) and C(1, 0) be the mid –
(1) 34 but not by 14 (2) both 14 and 34 points of the sides of a triangle with incentre at
(3) neither 14 nor 34 (4) 14 but not by 34 the point D. If the focus of the parabola y2 = 4ax
r ˆ r = î + bjˆ + kˆ and
74. Let the vectors u1 = î + ˆj + ak,u 2 ( )
passing through D is a + b 2,0 , where a and
r
u3 = ciˆ + ˆj + kˆ be coplanar. If the vectors a
b are rational numbers, then is equal to
r r b2
v1 = (a + b)iˆ + cjˆ + ck,
ˆ v2 = aiˆ + (b + c)jˆ + akˆ
r 9
and v3 = biˆ + bjˆ + (c + a)kˆ are also coplanar, (1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 12 (4)
2
then 6 (a + b + c) is equal to 80. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}.Then the relation
(1) 0 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 4 R = {(x,y) Î A × A : x + y =7}is
75. Let O be the origin and OP and OQ be the
®
(1) transitive but neither symmetric nor reflexive
2 2
tangents to the circle x + y – 6x + 4y + 8 = 0 (2) reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive
at the point P and Q on it. If the circumcircle of (3) an equivalence relation
the triangle OPQ passes through the point (4) symmetric but neither reflexive nor transitive
æ 1ö
ç a, 2 ÷ , then a value of a is SECTION-B
è ø
3 5 1 81. Let [t] denote the greatest integer function. If

(1) (2) (3) 1 (4) -
2 2 2 2.4
ò éëx ùû dx = a + b 2 + g 3 + d 5 ,
2
76. The negation of ( p Ù (~ q) ) Ú (~ p) is equivalent to 0
(1) p Ù q (2) p Ù (~ q) then a + b + g + d is equal to ____.

(3) p ^ (q ^ (~ p)) (4) p Ú (q Ú (~ p)) 82. Let k and m be positive real numbers such that
77. If a > b > 0 are the roots of the equation ax2 + ïì3x 2 + k x + 1, 0 < x < 1
the function f ( x ) = í is
ïî mx + k , x ³1
2 2
bx + 1 = 0, and
8f ' ( 8 )
1
lim1 ç
(
æ 1 - cos x 2 + bx + a ) ö2 1 æ 1 1 ö
÷ = ç - ÷ ,then k
differentiable for all x > 0. Then
æ1ö
is equal
x® ç 2 (1 - ax ) ÷ kèb aø f 'ç ÷
2
aè ø è8ø
is equal to to ____.
(1) 2b (2) 2a 83. Let 0 < z < y < x be three real numbers such
(3) a (4) b 1 1 1
that , , are in an arithmetic progression
é 1 5 ù –1 x y z
78. If A = ê ú , A = aA + bI and a + b = –2,
ël 10 û and x, 2y , z are in a geometric progression. If
then 4a2 + b2 + l2 is equal to: 3
xy + yz + zx = xyz, then 3(x + y + z)2 is
(1) 12 (2) 10 2
(3) 19 (4) 14 equal to____
182 E
84. If domain of the function p
87. Let the solution curve x = x(y), 0 < y < , of
2
æ 6x 2 + 5x + 1 ö -1 æ 2x - 3x + 4 ö
2
loge ç ÷ + cos ç ÷ is the differential equation (loge(cosy))2cos y
è 2x - 1 ø è 3x - 5 ø
dx–(1 + 3x loge(cosy))sin y dy = 0 satisfy
(a, b) È (g, d], then 18(a2 + b2 + g2 + d2) is æpö 1 æpö 1
xç ÷ = . If xç ÷ = ,
è 3 ø 2 log e 2 è 6 ø loge m - log e n
equal to ____
where m and n are co-prime, then mn is equal to
85. Let m and n be the numbers of real roots of the
88. Let P1 be the plane 3x – y – 7z = 11 and P2 be
2
quadratic equations x – 12x + [x] + 31 = 0 and the plane passing through the points (2, –1, 0),
x2 – 5|x + 2| – 4 = 0 respectively, where [x] (2, 0, –1), and (5, 1, 1). If the foot of the
perpendicular drawn from the point (7, 4, –1)on
denotes the greatest integer £ x. Then m2 + mn
®
the line of intersection of the planes P1 and P2 is
2
+ n is equal to ____.
(a, b, g), then a + b + g is equal to ____.
86. The ordinates of the points P and Q on the 89. Let R = {a, b, c, d, e}and S = {1, 2, 3, 4}. Total
parabola with focus (3, 0) and directrix x = –3 number of onto function f : R ® S such that
f(a) ¹ 1, is equal to _____.
are in the ratio 3 : 1. If R(a, b) is the point of
90. Let the area enclosed by the lines x + y = 2, y = 0,
intersection of the tangents to the parabola at P
ì 3 ü
x = 0 and the curve f(x) = min í x 2 + ,1 + [ x ]ý
b2 î 4 þ
and Q, then is equal to____:
a
where [x] denotes the greatest integer £ x, be A.
Then the value of 12A is _____.
E 183
SET # 05
PHYSICS 5. A carrier wave of amplitude 15V is modulated by
SECTION-A a sinusoidal base band signal of amplitude 3V.
1. A physical quantity P is given as The ratio of maximum amplitude to minimum
2 3
a b amplitude in an amplitude modulated wave is :
P=
c d
3
(1) 2 (2)
The percentage error in the measurement of a, 2
b, c and d are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. (3) 5 (4) 1
The percentage error in the measurement of 6. The angular momentum for the electron in
quantity P will be Bohr’s orbit is L. If the electron is assumed to
(1) 13% (2) 14% (3) 12% (4) 16% revolve in second orbit of hydrogen atom, then
®
2. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform the change in angular momentum will be :
mass density, the weight of a body at a depth L
(1) (2) zero
R 2
d= from the surface of earth, if its weight on
2 (3) L (4) 2L
the surface of earth is 200 N, will be: 7. A particle of mass m moving with velocity v
(Given R = Radius of earth) collides with a stationary particle of mass 2m.
(1) 400 N (2) 500 N After collision, they stick together and continue
(3) 300 N (4) 100 N to move together with velocity
3. A zener diode of power rating 1.6 W is to be v
(1) v (2)
used as voltage regulator. If the zener diode has 2
a breakdown of 8V and it has to regulate v v

(3) (4)
3 4
voltage fluctuating between 3V and 10 V. The
8. Given below are two statement :
value of resistance Rs for safe operation of
Statement I : If the number of turns in the coil
diode will be :
of a moving coil galvanometer is doubled then
Rs
the current sensitivity becomes double.
Unregulated Regulated Statement II : Increasing current sensitivity of

voltage voltage a moving coil galvanometer by only increasing
the number of turns in the coil will also increase
(1) 13.3W (2) 12W (3) 10W (4) 13W its voltage sensitivity in the same ratio:
4. The range of the projectile projected at an angle In the light of the above statement, choose the
of 15° with horizontal is 50 m. If the projectile correct answer from the options given below :
is projected with same velocity at an angle of (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
45º with horizontal, then its range will be : (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(1) 50 m (2) 50 2 m (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) 100 m (4) 100 2 m
184 E
ALLEN®
9. Match List I with List II : 11. Consider two containers A and B containing
List-I List II monoatomic gases at the same Pressure (P),
(A) 3 Translational (I) Monoatomic Volume (V) and Temperature (T). The gas in A
degrees of gases 1
is compressed isothermally to of its original
freedom 8
(B) 3 Translational, 2 (II) Polyatomic volume while the gas B is compressed
rotational degrees gases 1

adiabatically to of its original volume. The
8
of freedoms
ratio of final pressure of gas in B to that of gas
(C) 3 Translational, (III) Rigid
in A is :
2 rotational and diatomic
3
1 vibrational gases (1) 8 (2) 8 2
®
degrees of 1
(3) (4) 4
freedom 8
(D) 3 Translational, (IV) Nonrigid 12. Given below are two statements:
3 rotational and diatomic Statement I : Maximum power is dissipated in

more than one gases a circuit containing an inductor, a capacitor and
vibrational a resistor connected in series with an AC
degrees of source, when resonance occurs
freedom Statement II : Maximum power is dissipated in
Choose the correct answer from the options a circuit containing pure resistor due to zero
given below : phase difference between current and voltage.
(1) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(2) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
(3) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
(4) (A) – (I), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (II)

10. The equivalent resistance of the circuit shown
below between points a and b is :
13. Two satellites of masses m and 3m revolve
4W 4W 4W around the earth in circular orbits of radii r & 3r
4W 4W respectively. The ratio of orbital speeds of the
a b satellites respectively is :
16W
(1) 1 : 1
(1) 24W
(2) 3 : 1
(2) 3.2W
(3) 3 :1
(3) 20W
(4) 9 : 1
(4) 16W
E 185
14. Given below are two statements: 18. The de Broglie wavelength of a molecule in a
Statement I : Pressure in a reservoir of water gas at room temperature (300 K) is l 1 . If the
is same at all points at the same level of water. temperature of the gas is increased to 600 K,
Statement II : The pressure applied to enclosed then the de Broglie wavelength of the same gas
water is transmitted in all directions equally. molecule becomes
In the light of the above statements, choose the 1
(1) l1 (2) 2l1
correct answer from the options given below : 2
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 1

(3) l1 (4) 2l1
2
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false 19. A particle executes S.H.M. of amplitude A
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false along x-axis. At t = 0, the position of the
A
®
15. The equivalent capacitance of the combination particle is x = and it moves along positive
2
shown is
x-axis the displacement of particle in time t I
x = A sin ( wt + d ) , then the value d will be :
p p
(1) (2)
6 3
p p
(3) (4)
C 4 2
(1) (2) 4C
2 20. The position-time graphs for two students A
5 and B returning from the school to their homes
(3) 2C (4) C
3
are shown in figure :
16. The energy of an electromagnetic wave
B
contained in a small volume oscillates with x A
(1) zero frequency
(2) half the frequency of the wave O t
(3) double the frequency of the wave
(A) A lives closer to the school
(4) the frequency of the wave
(B) B lives closer to the school
17. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in
(C) A takes lesser time to reach home
front of a plane mirror. The virtual and erect
(D) A travels faster than B
image is formed by the mirror. Now the mirror
(E) B travels faster than A
is moved by 4 cm towards the stationary object.
The distance by which the position of image Choose the correct answer from the options
would be shifted, will be: given below :
(1) 4 cm towards mirror (1) (A) and (E) only

(2) 8 cm towards mirror (2) (B) and (E) only
(3) 8 cm away from mirror (3) (A), (C) and (E) only
(4) 2 cm towards mirror (4) (A), (C) and (D) only
186 E
ALLEN®
SECTION-B 25. A 1m long metal rod XY completes the circuit
21. Unpolarised light of intensity 32Wm -2 passes as shown in figure. The plane of the circuit is
through the combination of three polaroids such
perpendicular to the magnetic field of flux
that the pass axis of the last polaroid is
density 0.15 T. If the resistance of the circuit is
perpendicular to that of the pass axis of first
5W , the force needed to move the rod in
polaroid. If intensity of emerging light is
3Wm -2 , then the angle between pass axis of direction, as indicated, with a constant speed of
first two polaroids is ______________º . 4 m/s will be ______ 10 -3 N .
22. A closed circular tube of average radius 15 cm,

× X× × ×
whose inner walls are rough, is kept in vertical
× × × ×
®
plane. A block of mass 1 kg just fit inside the
5W × × × u ×
tube. The speed of block is 22 m/s, when it is × × × ×
introduced at the top of tube. After completing × × × ×
five oscillations, the block stops at the bottom Y
region of tube. The work done by the tube on
26. A transverse harmonic wave on a string is given
2
the block is ______ J. [Given g = 10 m/s ]
by y ( x, t ) = 5sin ( 6t + 0.003x ) where x and y are
in cm and t in sec. The wave velocity is
________ ms -1 .
27. The decay constant for a radioactive nuclide
is 1.5 ´ 10 -5 s -1 . Atomic of the substance is
60 g mole -1 , (N A )
= 6 ´ 10 23 . The activity of
1 1.0 mg of the substance is _____ ´1010 Bq.

23. If the earth suddenly shrinks to th of its
64
28. Three concentric spherical metallic shells X, Y
original volume with its mass remaining the
and Z of radius a, b and c respectively
same, the period of rotation of earth becomes
24 [a < b < c] have surface charge densities s, -s
h . The value of x is _________ .
x
and s , respectively. The shells X and Z are at
24. The current required to be passed through a
same potential. If the radii of X & Y are 2 cm
solenoid of 15 cm length and 60 turns in order
to demagnetise a bar magnet of magnetic and 3 cm, respectively. The radius of shell Z is
intensity 2.4 ´ 103 Am -1 is __________ A. ___________ cm.
E 187
29. 10 resistors each of resistance 10W can be 33. Lime reacts exothermally with water to give ‘A’
connected in such as to get maximum and which has low solubility in water. Aqueous
minimum equivalent resistance. The ratio of solution of ‘A’ is often used for the test of CO2, a
maximum and minimum equivalent resistance test in which insoluble B is formed. If B is further
will be _______ . reacted with CO2 then soluble compound is
30. Two wires each of radius 0.2 cm and negligible formed ‘A’ is
mass, one made of steel and other made of brass (1) Quick lime
are loaded as shown in the figure. The (2) Slaked lime
elongation of the steel wire is _____ ´10 -6 m . (3) Lime water
(4) White lime
®
[Young’s modulus for steel = 2 ´ 1011 Nm -2 and
34. The pair from the following pairs having both
g = 10 ms -2 ]
compounds with net non-zero dipole moment is
(1) Benzene, anisidine

1.6m steel
(2) 1,4-Dichlorobenzene, 1,3-Dichlorobenzene
2kg
1m brass (3) CH2Cl2, CHCl3
1.14kg (4) cis-butene, trans-butene
CHEMISTRY 35. Match List-I with List-II

SECTION-A
List-I List-II
31. Using column chromatography, mixture of two Industry Waste Generated
compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ was separated. ‘A’ (A) Steel plants (I) Gypsum
eluted first, this indicates ‘B’ has (B) Thermal (II) Fly ash
power plants
(1) low Rf, weaker adsorption node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-5 & 6.docx"
(C) Fertilizer (III) Slag

(2) high Rf, stronger adsorption
industries
(3) high Rf, weaker adsorption (D) Paper mils (IV) Bio-degradable
(4) low Rf, stronger adsorption Wastes
32. Prolonged heating is avoided during the Choose the correct answer from the options
preparation of ferrous ammonium sulphate to given below:
(1) prevent oxidation (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(2) prevent reduction (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(3) prevent hydrolysis (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

(4) prevent breaking (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
188 E
ALLEN®
36. Isomeric amines with molecular formula 38. The one that does not stabilize 2° and 3°
C8H11N give the following tests structures of proteins is
Isomer (P) Þ Can be prepared by Gabriel (1) H-bonding
phthalimide synthesis (2) –S-S-linkage

(3) –O-O-linkage
Isomer (Q) Þ Reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent
(4) van der Waals forces
to give solid insoluble in NaOH
39. Given below are two reactions, involved in the
Isomer (R) Þ Reacts with HONO followed by
commercial production of dihydrogen (H2).
b-naphthol in NaOH to give red dye.
The two reactions are carried out at temperature
Isomers (P), (Q) and (R) respectively are “T1” and “T2” respectively
P Q R T
C(s) + H 2O(g) ¾¾
1 ® CO(g) + H (g)
2
NH2 NH2
®
N–H T
(1) CO(g) + H 2 O(g) ¾¾¾¾ 2 ® CO (g) + H (g)
Catalyst 2 2
CH
CH3 3
The temperature T1 and T2 are correctly related
NH2 N–CH 3 NH2 as
(2)
CH3 (1) T1 > T2
(2) T1 = T2
H
NH2 NH2 (3) T1 = 100 K, T2 = 1270 K
N
(3)
(4) T1 < T2
40. Which of the following statements are correct?
NHCH 3
NH 2 N–H (A) The M3+/M2+ reduction potential for iron is
(4) H
CH 3
greater than manganese
(B) The higher oxidation states of first row d-
37. Given below are two statements
block elements get stabilized by oxide ion.
Statement I : Aqueous solution of K2Cr2O7 is
(C) Aqueous solution of Cr2+ can liberate
preferred as a primary standard in volumetric

hydrogen from dilute acid.
analysis over Na2Cr2O7 aqueous solution
(D) Magnetic moment of V2+ is observed
Statement II : K2Cr2O7 has a higher solubility in
between 4.4-5.2 BM
water than Na2Cr2O7
given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (1) (B), (C) only (C), (D) only
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (2) (A), (B), (D) only (A), (B) only
(3) Both Statement I is true but Statement II is 41. Which of the following is used as a stabilizer
false during the concentration of sulphide ores?
(4) Both Statement I is false but Statement II is (1) Pine oils (2) Xanthates
true (3) Fatty acids (4) Cresols

E 189
®
ALLEN®
49. Suitable reaction condition for preparation of 52. The number of bent-shaped molecule/s from the
Methyl phenyl ether is following is ______
(1) Ph - Br, MeO - Na + (2) PhO - Na + , MeOH
N3- , NO-2 , I3- , O3 ,SO 2
(3) PhO - Na + , MeBr (4) Benzene, MeBr
53. A molecule undergoes two independent first
50. Identify the correct order of reactivity for the
order reactions whose respective half lives are
following pairs towards the respective mechanism
12 min and 3 min. If both the reactions are
Br Br
(A) > occurring then the time taken for the 50%
SN2
consumption of the reactant is _______ min.
Br
(B) Br (Nearest integer)
SN1 >
54. The number of incorrect statement/s about the
Cl Cl
®
black body from the following is _______
(C) Electrophilic substitution > (A) Emit or absorb energy in the form of
electromagnetic radiation
NO2
(B) Frequency distribution of the emitted
Br radiation depends on temperature
Br
(D) Nucleophilic substitution >
(C) At a given temperature, intensity vs frequency
curve passes through a maximum value
NO2
(D) The maximum of the intensity vs
Choose the correct answer from the options frequency curve is at a higher frequency at
given below :
higher temperature compared to that at
(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
lower temperature
(2) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
55. In the following reactions, the total number of
oxygen atoms in X and Y is _______
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only
SECTION-B Na2O + H2O ® 2X
51. The number of correct statement/s involving Cl2O7 + H2O ® 2Y

equilibria in physical process from the following is +2.2 V +0.70 V
56. FeO 24- ¾¾¾® Fe3+ ¾¾¾¾
®
(A) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed
-0.45V
Fe 2+ ¾¾¾¾
® Fe 0
system at a given temperature
(B) Both the opposing processes occur at the Eq is x × 10–3 V. The value of x is ___
FeO 24 - / Fe 2 +
same rate.
57. If the degree of dissociation of aqueous solution
(C) When equilibrium is attained at a given
of weak monobasic acid is determined to be 0.3,
temperature, the value of all its parameters
became equal then the observed freezing point will be _____
% higher than the expected/theoretical freezing
(D) For dissolution of solids in liquids, the
solubility is constant at a given temperature point. (Nearest integer)
E 191
58. In potassium ferrocyanide, there are ____ pairs 64. A square piece of tin of side 30 cm is to be
of electrons in the t2g set of orbitals made into a box without top by cutting a square
59. At constant temperature a gas is at a pressure of from each corner and folding up the flaps to
940.3 mm Hg. The pressure at which its volume form a box. If the volume of the box is
decreases by 40% is ______ mm Hg. maximum, then its surface area (in cm2) is equal
to
(Nearest Integer)
(1) 675 (2) 1025
60. The sum of lone pairs present on the central
(3) 800 (4) 900
atom of the interhalogen IF5 and IF7 is ______
65. Let f be a differentiable function such that
MATHEMATICS
2
x2 f(x) – x = 4 ò t f ( t )dt , f (1) =
x
.
SECTION-A 0 3
61. Let O be the origin and the position vector of
®
Then 18 f(3) is equal to
the point P be -iˆ - 2 ˆj + 3kˆ . If the position (1) 160 (2) 210
vectors of the points A, B and C are (3) 180 (4) 150
-2iˆ + ˆj - 3 kˆ, 2iˆ + 4 ˆj - 2 kˆ and -4iˆ + 2 ˆj - kˆ 66. A line segment AB of length l moves such that
the points A and B remain on the periphery of a
respectively then the projection of the vector
uuur circle of radius l. Then the locus of the point,
OP on a vector perpendicular to the vectors
uuur uuur that divides the line segment AB in the ratio
AB and AC is
2 : 3, is a circle of radius
8 10 7
(1) 3 (2) (3) (4) 3 19
3 3 3 (1) l (2) l
5 7
62. Let the ellipse E : x2 + 9y2 = 9 intersect the
2 19
positive x- and y-axes at the points A and B (3) l (4) l
3 5
respectively Let the major axis of E be a
67. Let the complex number z = x + iy be such that
diameter of the circle C. Let the line passing
2 z - 3i
through A and B meet the circle C at the point is purely imaginary. If x + y2 = 0, then node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-5 & 6.docx"
2z + i
P. If the area of the triangle which vertices A, P
y4 + y2 - y is equal to :
m
and the origin O is , where m and n are 3 4
n (1) (2)
2 3
coprime, then m – n is equal to
2 3
(1) 18 (2) 16 (3) 17 (4) 15 (3) (4)
3 4
63. If f ( x ) =
( tan1 ) x + log (123) , x > 0,
o
e
then p 2p 4p 8p 16p
x log (1234 ) - ( tan1 )
e
o 68. 96 cos
33
cos
33
cos
33
cos cos
33 33
is
æ æ 4 öö equal to
( )
the least value of f f ( x ) + f ç f ç ÷ ÷ is
(1) 3 (2) 2
è è x øø
(3) 4 (4) 1
(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 0
192 E
ALLEN®
69. If A is a 3 × 3 matrix and |A| = 2, then 73. Let P be the point of intersection of the line
3 adj ( 3 A A2 ) is equal to x + 3 y + 2 1- z
= = and the plane x + y + z = 2.
3 1 2
(1) 311 . 610
If the distance of the point P from the plane
12 10
(2) 3 . 6
3x – 4y + 12z = 32 is q, then q and 2q are the
(3) 310 . 611
roots of the equation
(4) 312 . 611
(1) x2 – 18x – 72 = 0
70. The slope of tangent at any point (x, y) on a
(2) x2 + 18x + 72 = 0
x2 + y 2 (3) x2 – 18x + 72 = 0
curve y = y(x) is , x > 0. If y(2) = 0,
2 xy (4) x2 + 18x – 72 = 0
then a value of y(8) is 74. The negation of the statement ( p Ú q ) ^ ( q Ú ( ~ r ) )
(1) -2 3
®
is
(2) 4 3 (1) (( ~ p ) Ú r ) ^ ( ~ q )
(3) 2 3 (2) ( ( ~ p ) Ú ( ~ q ) ) ^ ( ~ r )
(4) -4 2
(3) ( ( ~ p ) Ú ( ~ q ) ) Ú ( ~ r )
71. For the system of linear equations
(4) ( p Ú r ) ^ ( ~ q )
2x – y + 3z = 5
3x + 2y – z = 7 æ 1 ö
13
75. If the coefficient of x in ç ax - 2 ÷ and the

7
4x + 5y + az = b è bx ø
Which of the following is NOT correct ? 13
-5 æ 1 ö
(1) The system has infinitely many solutions coefficient of x in ç ax + 2 ÷ are equal,
è bx ø
for a = –5 and b = 9
then a4b4 is equal to :
(2) The system has a unique solution for
(1) 44 (2) 22
a ¹ -5 and b = 8 (3) 11 (4) 33
(3) The system has infinitely many solutions for 76. Let two vertices of triangle ABC be (2, 4, 6) and
a = –6 and b = 9 (0, –2, –5), and its centroid be (2, 1, –1). If the
(4) The system is inconsistent for a = -5 and image of third vertex in the plane x + 2y + 4z = 11
b=8 is (a, b, g), then ab + bg + ga is equal to
72. Let N denotes the sum of the numbers obtained (1) 72 (2) 74
when two dice are rolled. If the probability that (3) 76 (4) 70
m 77. The shortest distance between the lines
2N < N! is , where m and n are coprime, then
n x + 2 y z -5 x - 4 y -1 z + 3
= = and = = is
4m – 3n is equal to 1 -2 2 1 2 0
(1) 8 (2) 16 (1) 6 (2) 9
(3) 10 (4) 12 (3) 7 (4) 8
E 193
If I ( x ) = ( cos x sin 2 x - sin x ) dx 83. The sum of all those terms, of the arithmetic
òe
sin 2 x
78. and
progression 3, 8, 13,…… 373, which are not
p
I ( 0 ) = 1 , then I æç ö÷ is equal to divisible by 3, is equal to ________.
è3ø
1 3 3 84. Let a common tangent to the curves y2 = 4x and
(1) - e 4 (2) e 4
2 (x – 4)2 + y2 = 16 touch the curves at the points
1 34 3
P and Q. Then (PQ)2 is equal to ________.
(3) e (4) - e 4
2
85. The number of permutations, of the digits 1, 2,
79. Let the first term a and the common ratio r of a
3, …..7 without repetition, which neither
geometric progression be positive integers. If
contain the string 153 nor the string 2467, is
the sum of its squares of first three terms is
33033, then the sum of these three terms is _______.
®
equal to 86. Let a, b, c be three distinct positive real
(1) 231 (2) 210
( 2a ) = ( bc )
log e a loge b
numbers such that and
(3) 220 (4) 241
80. An are PQ of a circle subtends a right angle at bloge 2 = aloge c .
its centre O. The mid point of the arc PQ is R. If Then 6a + 5bc is equal to ________.
uuur r uuur r uuur r r
OP = u , OR = v and OQ = a u + b v , then
87. Let y = p(x) be the parabola passing through the
a, b2 are the roots of the equation
points (-1, 0), (0, 1) and (1, 0). If the area of the
(1) x2 – x – 2 = 0
(2) 3x2 + 2x – 1 = 0
region {( x, y ) : ( x + 1) 2
+ ( y - 1) £ 1, y £ p ( x )
2
}
(3) x2 + x – 2 = 0 is A, then 12(p-4A) is equal to ___________.
2
(4) 3x – 2x – 1 = 0
88. If the mean of the frequency distribution
SECTION-B
Class : 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
81. The coefficient of x 7
in (1 - x + 2 x )
3 10
is Frequency 2 3 x 5 4
_________. is 28, then its variance is ______.

82. Let f : (-2, 2) ® IR be defined by
89. Some couples participated in a mixed doubles
ìï x [ x ] , -2 < x < 0 badminton tournament. If the number of
f ( x) = í
ïî( x - 1) [ x ] , 0 £ x < 2 matches played, so that no couple played in a
Where [x] denotes the greatest integer function. match, is 840, then the total numbers of
If m and n respectively are the number of points persons, who participated in the tournament, is
_________.
in (-2, 2) at which y = f ( x ) is not continuous
90. The number of elements in the set
and not differentiable, then m + n is equal to
______. {n Î ¢ : n 2
}
- 10n + 19 < 6 is _______.
194 E
ALLEN®
SET # 06
PHYSICS 5. Given below are two statements:
SECTION-A Statement I: For diamagnetic substance
1. A person travels x distance with velocity v1 and –1 £ c < 0 , where c is the
then x distance with velocity v2 in the same magneticsusceptibility.
direction. The average velocity of the person is Statement II: Diamagnetic substances when
v, then the relation between v, v1 and v2 will be: placed in an external magnetic field, tend to
v1 + v 2 move from stronger to weaker part of the field.
(1) v = v1 + v 2 (2) v =
2
2 1 1 1 1 1 correct answer from the options given below.
(3) = + (4) = +
v v1 v 2 v v1 v 2
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
®
2. The half-life of a radioactive substance is T. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
7 (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
The time taken, for disintegrating th part of
8
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
its original mass will be :
6. The distance between two plates of a capacitor
(1) 3T (2) 8T is d and its capacitance is C1, when air is the
(3) T (4) 2T medium between the plates. If a metal sheet of
3. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen 2d
thickness and of same area as plate is
and 4 moles of neon at temperature T. 3
Neglecting all vibrational modes, the total introduced between the plates, the capacitance
internal energy of the system will be : C2
of the capacitor becomes C2. The ratio is:
(1) 8 RT (2) 16 RT C1
(3) 4 RT (4) 11 RT (1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1

4. In an experiment with Vernier callipers of least (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
count 0.1 mm, when two jaws are joined 7. Given below are two statements:
together the zero of Vernier scale lies right to Statement I: Rotation of the earth shows effect
the zero of the main scale and 6th division of on the value of acceleration due to gravity (g).
Vernier scale coincides with the main scale Statement II: The effect of rotation of the earth
division. While measuring the diameter of a on the value of ‘g’ at the equator is minimum
spherical bob, the zero of vernier scale lies in and that at the pole is maximum.
between 3.2 cm and 3.3 cm marks, and 4th In the light of the above statements, choose the
division of vernier scale coincides with the correct answer from the options given below.
main scale division. The diameter of bob is (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
measured as : (2) Statement I is true but Statement II are false.
(1) 3.18 cm (2) 3.25 cm (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) 3.26 cm (4) 3.22 cm (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
E 195
8. The time period of a satellite, revolving above 12. The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on
earth’s surface at a height equal to R will be the screen in a Young’s double slit experiment
(Given g = p2 m/s2, R = radius of earth) where phase difference between two wave of
(1) 4R (2) 8R same amplitude are p/3 and p/2, respectively are
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 32R (4) 2R
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 :3
13. The variation of stopping potential (V0) as a
function of the frequency (v) of the incident
Reason R.
light for a metal is shown in figure. The work
Assertion A: An electric fan continues to rotate
function of the surface is
for some time after the current is switched off.
Reason R: Fan continuous to rotate due to
®
Stopping Potential (V0) volt
inertia of motion. 3
2
below. 1
(1) A is correct but R is not correct.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
v(×1014 Hz)
(3) A is not correct but R is correct.
(1) 18.6 eV (2) 2.98 eV
(3) 2.07 eV (4) 1.36 eV
14. For a periodic motion represented by the
10. The amplitude of magnetic field in an
equation
electromagnetic wave propagating along y-axis
Y = sin wt + cos wt
is 6.0 × 10–7 T. The maximum value of electric
The amplitude of the motion is
field in the electromagnetic wave is: node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-5 & 6.docx"
(1) 0.5 (2) 2
(1) 5 × 1014 Vm–1
(3) 1 (4) 2
(2) 180 Vm–1
15. In a metallic conductor, under the effect of
(3) 2 × 1015 Vm–1
applied electric field, the free electrons of the
(4) 6.0 × 10–7 Vm–1
conductor
11. A gas is compressed adiabatically, which one of
(1) drift from higher potential to lower potential.
the following statement is NOT true.
(2) move in the curved paths from lower
(1) There is no heat supplied to the system
potential to higher potential
(2) The temperature of the gas increases
(3) move with the uniform velocity throughout
(3) The change in the internal energy is equal to
from lower potential to higher potential
the work done on the gas.
(4) move in the straight line paths in the same
(4) There is no change in the internal energy
direction
196 E
ALLEN®
16. Young’s moduli of the material of wires A and 20. A bar magnet is released from rest along the
B are in the ratio of 1 : 4, while its area of cross axis of a very long vertical copper tube. After
sections are in the ratio of 1 : 3. If the same some time the magnet will
amount of load is applied to both the wires, the (1) Move down with almost constant speed
amount of elongation produced in the wires A (2) Oscillate inside the tube
and B will be in the ratio of
(3) Move down with an acceleration greater
[Assume length of wires A and B are same]
than g
(1) 36 : 1 (2) 12 : 1
(4) Move down with an acceleration equal to g
(3) 1 : 36 (4) 1 : 12
SECTION-B
17. Two projectiles are projected at 30° and 60°
21. A square loop of side 2.0 cm is placed inside a
with the horizontal with the same speed. The
long solenoid that has 50 turns per centimetre and
®
ratio of the maximum height attained by the two
projectiles respectively is: carries a sinusoidally varying current of amplitude
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 :1 2.5 A and angular frequency 700 rad s–1. The
central axes of the loop and solenoid coincide.
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 3
The amplitude of the emf induced in the loop is
18. A message signal of frequency 3kHz is used to
x × 10–4 V. The value of x is_______
modulate a carrier signal of frequency 1.5 MHz.
The bandwidth of the amplitude modulated 22
(Take, p = )
7
wave is
22. A rectangular block of mass 5 kg attached to a
(1) 3 kHz (2) 6 MHz
horizontal spiral spring executes simple
(3) 3 MHz (4) 6 kHz
19. If each diode has a forward bias resistance of harmonic motion of amplitude 1 m and time
25 W in the below circuit, period 3.14 s. The maximum force exerted by

spring on block is______N.
23. If 917 Å be the lowest wavelength of Lyman
series then the lowest wavelength of Balmer

series will be________Å.
24. Figure below shows a liquid being pushed out
of the tube by a piston having area of cross
section 2.0 cm2. The area of cross section at the
outlet is 10 mm2. If the piston is pushed at a
Which of the following options is correct: speed of 4 cm s–1, the speed of outgoing fluidis
I3 I2 _____cm s–1.
(1) =1 (2) =1
I4 I3
I1 I1
(3) =1 (4) =2
I2 I2
E 197
25. A straight wire carrying a current of 14 A is 30. An electron revolves around an infinite
bent into a semicircular are of radius 2.2 cm as cylindrical wire having uniform linear charge
shown in the figure. The magnetic field density 2 × 10–8 Cm–1 in circular path under the
produced by the current at the centre (O) of the influence of attractive electrostatic field as
–4
arc. is_____×10 T shown in the figure. The velocity of electron
with which it is revolving is_______× 106 ms–1.
Given mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg.
O
26. A point object, ‘O’ is placed in front of two thin
symmetrical coaxial convex lenses L1 and L2
with focal length 24 cm and 9 cm respectively.
®
The distance between two lenses is 10 cm and
the object is placed 6 cm away from lens L1 as
shown in the figure. The distance between the CHEMISTRY
object and the image formed by the system of SECTION-A
two lenses is______cm. 31. Incorrect method of preparation for alcohols
from the following is:
(1) Ozonolysis of alkene.
(2) Reaction of Ketone with RMgBr followed
by hydrolysis.
27. A rectangular parallelopiped is measured as (3) Hydroboration–oxidation of alkene.
1 cm × 1 cm × 100 cm. If its specific resistance (4) Reaction of alkyl halide with aqueous NaOH.
is 3 × 10–7 Wm, then the resistance between its 32. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
two opposite rectangular faces will be___×–7 W. Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The energy required to form Mg2+
28. A force of - P kˆ acts on the origin of the
from Mg is much higher than that required to node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-5 & 6.docx"
coordinate system. The torque about the point

produce Mg+.
( )
(2, –3) is P aiˆ + bjˆ , the ratio of
a
b
x
is . The
2
Reason R: Mg2+ is small ion and carry more
charge than Mg+.
value of x is
29. If the maximum load carried by an elevator is
1400 kg (600 kg – Passenger + 800 kg –
elevator), which is moving up with a uniform
speed of 3 ms–1 and the frictional force acting
on it is 2000 N, then the maximum power used
(3) A is false but R is true.
by the motor
is______kW (g = 10 m/s2).
explanation of A.
198 E
ALLEN®
33. In Carius tube, an organic compound ‘X’ is 36. In the reaction give below:
treated with sodium peroxide to form a mineral O
acid ‘Y’. H2NC (i) LiAlH4
'X'
The solution of BaCl2 is added to ‘Y’ to form a (ii) H3O+
O
precipitate ‘Z’. ‘Z’ is used for the quantitative
The product ‘X’ is:
estimation of an extra element. ‘X’ could be:
(1) Cytosine
(2) Chloroxylenol (1) H2 N
(3) A nucleotide OH
(4) Methionine OH
34. Given below are two statements: one is labelled (2) H2N
®
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as OH
Reason R. OH
Assertion A: 3.1500g of hydrated oxalic acid (3) H2N
dissolved in water to make 250.0 mL solution OH
will result in 0.1 M oxalic acid solution. OH
Reason R: Molar mass of hydrated oxalic acid
(4) H2N
is 126 g mol–1.
OH
In the light of the above statements, chose the
37. Ferric chloride is applied to stop bleeding
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the because:
correct explanation of A. (1) Cl– ions cause coagulation of blood.

(2) A is false but R is true. (2) Blood absorbs FeCl3 and forms a complex.
(3) Fe3+ ions coagulate blood which is a
negatively charged sol.

explanation of A.
35. Buna–S can be represented as: (4) FeCl3 reacts with the constituents of blood
C6H5 which is a positively charged sol.
(1) CH=CH–CH=CH–CH–CH2
n 38. The reaction used for preparation of soap from
C6H5 fat is:
(2) CH2–CH=CH–CH2–CH–CH2 (1) reduction reaction
n
C6H5 (2) alkaline hydrolysis reaction
(3) CH2–CH=C–CH=CH–CH2 (3) an addition reaction
n
C 6 H5 (4) an oxidation reaction
(4) CH2–CH=CH–CH=C–CH2
n
E 199
39. The decreasing order of hydride affinity for 43. The correct order of the number of unpaired
following carbocations is: electrons in the given complexes is
+
CH2=CH–C–CH3
A. A. [Fe(CN)6 ]3-
CH3
+ B. [FeF6 ]3 -
C6H5–C–C6H5
B.
C6H5 C. [CoF6 ]3 -
+
H3C–C–CH3 D. [Cr(oxalate)3]3–
C.
CH3 E. [Ni(CO)4]
+
C Choose the correct answer from the options
D.
®
given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options (1) A < E < D < C < B
given below:
(2) E < A < D < C < B
(1) A, C, B, D
(3) E < A < B < D < C
(2) C, A, B, D
(3) C, A, D, B (4) A < E < C < B < D
(4) A, C, D, B 44. The correct order for acidity of the following
40. The correct relationship between unit cell
hydroxyl compound is:
edge length ‘a’ and radius of sphere ‘r’ for
A. CH3OH
face–centred and body centred cubic structures
respectively are: B. (CH3)3COH
(1) r = 2 2a and 3r = 4a
C.
(2) r = 2 2a and 4r = 3a
(3) 2 2r = a and 4r = 3a node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-5 & 6.docx"
D.
(4) 2 2r = a and 3r = 4a
41. Number of water molecules in washing soda E.
and soda ash respectively are:
(1) 10 and 1 (2) 1 and 10 Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) 1 and 0 (4) 10 and 0 given below:
42. The delicate balance of CO2 and O2 is NOT
(1) E > C > D > A > B
disturbed by:
(1) Burning of Coal (2) D > E > C > A > B
(2) Deforestation
(3) C > E > D > B > A
(3) Burning of petroleum
(4) Respiration (4) E > D > C > B > A
200 E
ALLEN®
45. The major product ‘P’ formed in the given 47. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
reaction is: as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
CH O Reason R.
3 Cl anhy
'P' Assertion A: Physical properties of isotopes of
AlCl3
O2N (major)
hydrogen are different.
CH Reason: Mass difference between isotopes of
3
(1) CH3O hydrogen is very large.
In the light of the above statements, chose the
O N
2
CH O
3 (1) A is false but R is true.
(2)
O N (2) Both A and R are true and R is the NOT the
®
2 CH
3
CH CH
3 3
CH O (3) A is true but R is false.
3 NO
2
(3) (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
O N OCH explanation of A.
2 3
CH CH
3 3 48. Match List–I with List–II.
CH O List – I List –II
3
(4) A. 16g of CH4(g) I. Weighs 28 g

O N
2
60.2×1023
CH B. 1g of H2(g) II.
3
electrons
1 mole of
List II C. III. Weighs 32g
N2(g)
List I
Crystal Field 0.5 mol of Occupies 11.4 L
Complex D. IV.
splitting energy (D0) SO2(g) volume at STP
A. [Ti(H2O)6]2+ I. –1.2 Choose the correct answer from the options

B. [V(H2O)6]2+ II. –0.6 given below:
C. [Mn(H2O)6]3+ III. 0 (1) A–I, B–III, C–II, D–IV
D. [Fe(H2O)6]3+ IV –0.8 (2) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I

(3) A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I
(4) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
given below :
49. The correct order of metallic character is:
(1) Be > Ca > K
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) Ca > K > Be
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (3) K > Ca > Be
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) K > Be > Ca
E 201
50. Gibbs energy vs T plot for the formation of 55. The difference in the oxidation state of Xe
oxides is given below: between the oxidised product of Xe formed on
–100 complete hydrolysis of XeF4 and XeF4 is _____
–200 56. An aqueous solution of volume 300 cm3
DG0 of O2 ®
–300
contains 0.63 g of protein. The osmotic pressure
C+O2® CO
–400 2
of the solution at 300 K is 1.29 mbar. The molar
–500
(kJ/mol) mass of the protein is ___________ g mol–1
–600
Given : R = 0.083 L bar K–1mol–1
–800
0o C 200o 400o 600o 800o 1000o 1200o 1400o
57. For a metal ion, the calculated magnetic
For the given diagram, the correct statement is- moment is 4.90 BM. This metal ion has
(1) At 600 ºC, C can reduce ZnO __________ number of unpaired electons.
®
(2) At 600 ºC, C can reduce FeO
(3) At 600 ºC, CO cannot reduce FeO 58.
(4) At 600 ºC, CO can reduce ZnO
SECTION-B
The electron in the nth orbit of Li2+ is excited to
51. 2B(g) + C(g)
A(g)
(n + 1) orbit using the radiation of energy
For the given reaction, if the initial pressure is 1.47 × 10–17J (as shown in the diagram). The
450 mm Hg and the pressure at time t is 720 mm value of n is _______ .
Hg at a constant temperature T and constant Given RH = 2.18 × 10–18J
volume V. The fraction of A(g) decomposed
59. The specific conductance of 0.0025 M acetic
under these conditions is x × 10–1. The value of x
acid is 5 × 10–5 S cm–1 at a certain temperature.
is ______ (nearest integer)
The dissociation constant of acetic acid is
52. In alkaline medium, the reduction of permanganate _______ × 10–7. (Nearest integer)
anion involves a gain of _______ electrons.
Consider limiting molar conductivity of
53. The number of endothermic process/es from the node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-5 & 6.docx"
CH3COOH as 400 S cm2 mol–1
following is _________ 60. The number of incorrect statement/s from the
A. I2(g) ® 2I(g) following is __________
B. HCl(g) ® H(g) + Cl(g) A. The successive half lives of zero order

reactions decreases with time.
C. H2O(l) ® H2O(g)
B. A substance appearing as reactant in the
D. C(s) + O2(g) ® CO2(g)
chemical equation may not affect the rate
E. Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water of reaction
54. The number of molecules from the following C. Order and molecularity of a chemical
which contain only two lone pair of electrons is reaction can be a fractional number
_________ D. The rate constant units of zero and second
H2O, N2, CO, XeF4, NH3, NO, CO2, F2 order reaction are mol L–1 s–1 and mol–1 Ls–1
respectively
202 E
ALLEN®
MATHEMATICS 65. Let A = {2, 3, 4} and B = {8, 9, 12}. Then the
SECTION-A number of elements in the relation
61. Let f be a continuous function satisfying R = {((a1, b1), (a2, b2)) Î (A × B, A × B) : a1
t2 divides b2 and a2 divides b1} is :
æ p2 ö
ò( ) 4 3
f(x) + x2 dx = t , " t > 0 . Then f ç ÷ is
3 è 4ø (1) 36 (2) 12 (3) 18 (4) 24
0
é5! 6! 7!ù
equal to : 1 ê
66. If A = 6! 7! 8!úú , then adj(adj(2A))
æ p3 ö æ p2 ö 5!6!7! ê
(1) p ç 1 - ÷ (2) -p 2 ç 1 + ÷ êë7! 8! 9!úû
è 16 ø è 16 ø
is equal to :
æ p 3ö æ p 2ö
(1) 28 (2) 212 (3) 2 20 (4) 216
(3) -p ç 1 + ÷ (4) p 2 ç 1 - ÷
è 16 ø è 16 ø
67. Let A be the point (1, 2) and B be any point on
®
62. Eight persons are to be transported from city A to the curve x2 + y 2 = 16 . If the centre of the locus
city B in three cars of different makes. If each car of the point P, which divides the line segment
can accommodate at most three persons, then AB in the ratio 3 : 2 is the point C (a, b), then
the number of ways, in which they can be the length of the line segment AC is
transported, is:
6 5 4 5
(1) (2)
(1) 3360 5 5
(2) 1680 2 5 3 5
(3) (4)
(3) 560 5 5
(4) 1120 68. Let a die be rolled n times. Let the probability
63. For, a,b, g , dÎ¥ , if of getting odd numbers seven times be equal to
the probability of getting odd numbers nine
æ æ x ö 2x æ e ö 2x ö 1æxö
bx
1æ e ö
dx
ò çç èç e ø÷ + èç x ø÷ ÷÷ loge x dx = a èç e ø÷ - g èç x ø÷ + C , times. If the probability of getting even numbers

è ø k
twice is , then k is equal to :
¥ 215
1
Where e= å and C is constant of
n = 0 n! (1) 30 (2) 90
(3) 15 (4) 60
integration, then a + 2b + 3g – 4d is equal to:
69. Let g(x) = f(x) + f(1 - x) and f ¢¢(x) > 0, x Î(0,1) .
(1) 1 (2) –4
(3) –8 (4) 4 If g is decreasing in the interval (0, a) and
64. Let the image of the point P(1, 2, 6) in the plane increasing in the interval (a, 1), then
passing through the points A(1, 2, 0), B(1, 4, 1) æ 1ö æ a + 1ö

tan1 (2a) + tan -1 ç ÷ + tan -1 ç is equal to :
è aø è a ÷ø
and C(0, 5, 1) be Q (a, b, g). Then (a2+ b2 + g2)
3p
is equal to : (1) (2) p
2
(1) 65 (2) 70 5p 3p
(3) (4)
(3) 76 (4) 62 4 4
E 203
70. Let a circle of radius 4 be concentric to the 76. If the coefficients of x and x2 in (1 + x)p (1 – x)q
ellipse 15x 2 + 19y 2 = 285 . Then the common are 4 and –5 respectively, then 2p + 3q is equal
tangents are inclined to the minor axis of the to
ellipse at the angle. (1) 63 (2) 69

(3) 66 (4) 60
p p p p
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 3 12 6 x 6-y z+8
77. Let the line = = intersect the lines
® ®
1 2 5
71. Let a = 2iˆ + 7jˆ - kˆ , b = 3iˆ + 5kˆ and x-5 y-7 z+2 x +3 3- y z-6
= = and = =
® ® 4 3 1 6 3 1
c = î - ˆj + 2kˆ . Let d be a vector which is
at the points A and B respectively. Then the
® ® ® ®
perpendicular to both a and b , and c × d = 12 . distance of the mid-point of the line segment
AB from the plane 2x – 2y + z = 14 is
( )
® ®
Then - î + ˆj - kˆ × ( c ´ d ) is equal to
®
10 11
(1) 4 (2) (3) 3 (4)
(1) 48 (2) 42 3 3
(3) 44 (4) 24 ì 2z - 3i ü
78. Let S = íz = x + iy : is a real number ý .
72. If Sn = 4 + 11 + 21 + 34 + 50 + ….. to n terms, î 4z + 2i þ
1 Then which of the following is NOT correct?
then (S29 - S9 ) is equal to
60
1
(1) y + x 2 + y 2 ¹ -
(1) 226 (2) 220 4
(3) 223 (4) 227 (2) x = 0
73. If the points P and Q are respectively the æ 1ö
(3) (x, y) = ç 0, - ÷
circumcentre and the orthocentre of a DABC, è 2ø
® ® ®
then PA + PB+ PC is equal to æ 1ö æ 1 ö
(4) y Îç -¥, - ÷ È ç - , ¥÷
® ®
è 2ø è 2 ø
(1) 2 QP (2) QP
79. Let the number (22)2022 + (2022)22 leave the
® ®
(3) 2 PQ (4) PQ remainder a when divided by 3 and b when
74. The statement ~[p Ú (~ (p Ù q))] is equivalent divided by 7. Then (a2 + b2) is equal to
to (1) 10 (2) 5
(1) (~(p Ù q)) Ù q (3) 20 (4) 13
(2) ~ (p Ù q) 80. Let m be the mean and s be the standard
(3) ~(p Ú q) deviation of the distribution
(4) (p Ù q) Ù (~p) xi 0 1 2 3 4 5
ì ü
Let S = í x Î çæ - p , p ÷ö : 91- tan fi k + 2 2k k 2 - 1 k2 - 1 k 2 + 1 k - 3
2 2
75. x
+ 9 tan x
= 10 ý and
è
î ø 2 2 þ
where å fi = 62. if [x] denotes the greatest
æ xö 1
b = å tan ç ÷ , then (b - 14) 2 is equal to
2
x Îs
è 3 ø 6 integer £ x, then [m2 + s2] is equal
(1) 32 (2) 8 (1) 8 (2) 7
(3) 64 (4) 16 (3) 6 (4) 9

204 E
ALLEN®
SECTION-B 86. Suppose a1, a2, 2, a3, a4 be in an
81. Let the equations of two adjacent sides of a arithmetico-geometric progression. If the
parallelogram ABCD be 2x – 3y = –23 and 5x + common ratio of the corresponding geometric
4y = 23. If the equation of its one diagonal AC progression is 2 and the sum of all 5 terms of
is 3x + 7y = 23 and the distance of A from the 49
the arithmetico-geometric progression is ,
other diagonal is d, then 50 d2 is equal to ____ . 2
82. Let S be the set of values of l, for which the then a4 is equal to ________ .
system of equations 87. If the domain of the function
æ 2x ö
6lx – 3y + 3z = 4l2, f ( x ) = sec -1 ç is [ a, b) È ( g , d ] , then
è 5x + 3 ÷ø
2x + 6ly + 4z = 1,
3a + 10 ( b + g ) + 21d is equal to ________ .
®
3x + 2y + 3lz = l has no solution. Then
12 å l is equal to ________ . 88. The sum of all the four-digit numbers that can
lÎS
be formed using all the digits 2, 1, 2, 3 is equal
83. Let the foot of perpendicular from the point to _______ .
A(4, 3, 1) on the plane P : x – y + 2z + 3 = 0 be
89. In the figure, q1 + q 2 = p and 3 ( BE ) = 4 ( AB) .
2
N. If B(5, a, b), a, b Î¢ is a point on plane P
q2
If the area of DCAB is 2 3 - 3 unit2, when
such that the area of the triangle ABN in 3 2 , q1
then a 2 + b 2 + ab is equal to ________ . is the largest, then the perimeter (in unit) of
84. Let quadratic curve passing through the point DCED is equal to ___________.
(–1, 0) and touching the line y = x at (1, 1) be E
y = f(x). Then the x-intercept of the normal to
the curve at the point (a, a + 1) in the first

quadrant is _____ .
q1
85. Let the tangent at any point P on a curve C D
æ1 ö
passing through the points (1, 1) and ç ,100÷ ,
è 10 ø
q1
intersect positive x-axis and y-axis at the points A B
A and B respectively. If PA : PB = 1 : k and 90. If the area of the region
y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation
dy
{( x, y) : x 2
}
- 2 £ y £ x is A, then 6A + 16 2
k
e dx = kx + , y(0) = k, then 4y(1) – 5loge3 is is equal to _________ .
2
equal to ______ .
E 205
SET # 07
PHYSICS 5. The logic performed by the circuit shown in
SECTION-A figure is equivalent to :
1. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is
r æ x ör
given as E = 20 sin w ç t - ÷ jNC -1
è cø
Where w and c are angular frequency and
(1) AND
velocity of electromagnetic wave respectively.
(2) NAND
The energy contained in a volume of
(3) OR
5 ´ 10 -4 m 3 will be
(4) NOR
-12
(Given e 0 = 8.85 ´ 10 2
C / Nm ) 2
6. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 2 F is
®
(1) 28.5 ´ 10 -13 J (2) 17.7 ´ 10 -13 J charged to a potential V. The energy stored in
(3) 8.85 ´ 10 -13 J (4) 88.5 ´ 10 -13 J the capacitor is E1. The capacitor is now
2. From the v - t graph shown. the ratio of distance connected to another uncharged identical
to displacement in 25 s of motion capacitor in parallel combasination. The energy

stored in the combination is E2. The ratio E2/E1
is :
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 2 : 3
3 1 5
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 7. Two identical heater filaments are connected
5 2 3
first in parallel and then in series. At the same
3. The radii of two planets ‘A’ and ‘B’ are ‘R’ and
applied voltage, the ratio of heat produced in
‘4R’ and their densities are r and r /3
same time for parallel to series will be:
respectively. The ratio of acceleration due to (1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
gravity at their surfaces (gA : gB) will be : (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
(1) 1 : 16 (2) 3 : 16 8. A transmitting antenna is kept on the surface of
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3 the earth. The minimum height of receiving
4. A coin placed on a rotating table just slips when antenna required to receive the signal in line of
it is placed at a distance of 1 cm from the sight at 4 km distance from it is x × 10-2 m. The
center. If the angular velocity of the table in value of x is (Let. radius of earth R = 6400 km)
halved, it will just slip when placed at a distance (1) 125
of_____ from the centre: (2) 12.5
(1) 2 cm (2) 1 cm (3) 1.25
(3) 8 cm (4) 4 cm (4) 1250
206 E
9. As per the given graph choose the correct 12. A metallic surface is illuminated with radiation
representation for curve A and curve B. of wavelength l , the stopping potential is Vo. If
{Where XC = reactance of pure capacitive
the same surface is illuminated with radiation of
circuit connected with A.C. source
wavelength 2 l , the stopping potential becomes
XL = reactance of pure inductive circuit
connected with A.C. source Vo
. The threshold wavelength for this metallic
4
R = impedance of pure resistive circuit
connected with A.C. source surface will be -
Z = Impedance of the LCR series circuit} l
(1) (2) 4l
4
Impedance
Curve A 3
Curve B (3) l (4) 3l
2
13. The free space inside a current carrying toroid is
®
filled with a material of susceptibility 2 × 10-2.
f(Hz)
The percentage increase in the value of
(1) A = XC, B = R magnetic field inside the toroid will be
(2) A = XL, B = Z (1) 2% (2) 0.2%
(3) A = XC, B = XL (3) 0.1% (4) 1%
(4) A = XL, B = R 14. The current sensitivity of moving coil
10. 1 kg of water at 100°C is converted into steam at galvanometer is increased by 25%. This
100°C by boiling at atmospheric pressure. The increase is achieved only by changing in the
-3 3
volume of water changes from 1.00 × 10 m as a number of turns of coils and area of cross
liquid to 1 1.671 m3 as steam. The change in section of the wire while keeping the resistance
internal energy of the system during the process of galvanometer coil constant. The percentage
will be change in the voltage sensitivity will be:
(Given latent heat of vaporisaiton = 2257 kJ/kg. (1) +25% (2) – 50%
Atmospheric pressure = 1 × 105 Pa) (3) Zero (4) – 25%
(1) + 2090 kJ (2) – 2090 kJ 15. The variation of kinetic energy (KE) of a
(3) – 2426 kJ (4) + 2476 kJ particle executing simple harmonic motion with
11. The critical angle for a denser-rarer interface is the displacement (x) starting from mean
45°. The speed of light in rarer medium is position to extreme position (A) is given by
3 × 108 ms. The speed of light in the denser
KE
medium is: (1) (2)
(1) 5 ´ 10 7 m/s A (x) 0 A(x)®
(2) 2.12 ´108 m/s

KE KE
(3) 3.12 ´ 10 m/s
7
(3) (4)
0
(4) 2 ´ 108 m/s 0 A (x)® A(x)®
E 207
16. On a temperature scale ‘X’. The boiling point of 19. An average force of 125 N is applied on a
water is 65° X and the freezing point is –15°X. machine gun firing bullets each of mass 10 g at
Assume that the X scale is linear. The the speed of 250 m/s to keep it in position. The
equivalent temperature corresponding to –95° X number of bullets fired per second by the
on the Farenheit scale would be: machine gun is :
(1) –63°F (2) –112°F (1) 5 (2) 50
(3) –48°F (4) –148°F (3) 100 (4) 25
17. Given below are two statements : 20. Two radioactive elements A and B initially
Statements I : Astronomical unit (Au). Parsec have same number of atoms. The half life of A
(Pc) and Light year (ly) are units for measuring is same as the average life of B. If l A and B l B
astronomical distances. are decay constants of A and B respectively,
®
Statements II: Au < Parsec (Pc) < ly then choose the correct relation from the given
In the light of the above statements. choose the options.
most appropriate answer from the options given (1) l A = l B
below:
(2) l A = 2l B
(1) Both Statements I and Statements II are
(3) l A = l B ln 2
correct.
(4) l A ln 2 = l B
(2) Statements I is correct but Statements II is
incorrect. SECTION-B
(3) Both Statements I and Statements II are 21. A monochromatic light is incident on a
incorrect. hydrogen sample in ground state. Hydrogen
(4) Statements I is incorrect but statements II is atoms absorb a fraction of light and
correct. subsequently emit radiation of six different
wavelengths. The frequency of incident light is
18. Three vessels of equal volume contain gases at
x × 1015 Hz. The value of x is ___________.
the same temperature and pressure. The first
(Given h = 4.25 × 10–15 eVs) node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-7 & 8.docx"
vessel contains neon (monoatomic ), the second
22. The radius of curvature of each surface of a
contains chlorine (diatomic) and third contains
convex lens having refractive index 1.8 is
uranium hexafloride (polyatomic). Arrange 20 cm. The lens is now immersed in a liquid of
these on the basis of their root mean square refractive index 1.5. The ratio of power of lens
speed (vrms) and choose the correct answer from in air to its power in the liquid will be x : 1. The
the options given below: value of x is _____.
(1) v rms ( mono ) = v rms ( dia ) = v rms ( poly ) 23. The equation of wave is given by
æ pö
(2) v rms ( mono ) > v rms ( dia ) > v rms ( poly ) Y = 10 -2 sin 2 p ç 160t - 0.5x + ÷
è 4ø
(3) v rms ( dia ) < v rms ( poly ) < v rms ( mono ) Where x and Y are in m and t is in s. The speed
(4) v rms ( mono ) < v rms ( dia ) < v rms ( poly ) of the wave is ____ km h–1
208 E
r
24. A force F = ( 2 + 3x ) $i acts on a particle in the x 29. A projectile fired at 30° to the ground is
direction where F is in newton and x is in meter. observed to be at same height at time 3s and S
The work done by this force during a 5s after projection, during its flight. The speed
displacement from x = 0 to x = 4 m, is ____J. of projection of the projectile is _______ ms–1
25. As shown in the figure. a configuration of two
(Given g = 10 m s–2)
equal point charges (q0 = +2µ C) is placed on an
inclined plane. Mass of each point charge is 30. In the circuit diagram shown in figure given
20 g. Assume that there is no friction between below, the current flowing through resistance
charge and plane. For the system of two point x
3 W is A. The value of x is ____.
charges to be in equilibrium (at rest) the height 3
h = x × 10–3 m. The value of x is ____.
®
1
(Take = 9 ´ 10 9 N m 2 C -2 , g = 10 ms -1 )
4 pe 0
26. A solid sphere of mass 500 g and radius 5 cm is

rotated about one of its diameter with angular CHEMISTRY
speed of 10 rad s–1. If the moment of inertia of SECTION-A
the sphere about its tangent is x × 10–2 times its 31. L –isomer of tetrose X (C4H8O4) gives positive
angular momentum about the diameter. Then
Schiff’s test and has two chiral carbons. On
the value of x will be _____.
acetylation. ‘X’ yields triacetate. ‘X’ also
27. The length of wire becomes l1 and l2 when 100N
undergoes following reactions
and 120 N tensions are applied respectively. If 10
HNO3 NaBH 4
1 ' A ' ¬¾¾ ¾ ' X ' ¾¾¾® ' B'
l2 = 11 l1, the natural length of wire will be l1. Chiral compound
x
‘X’ is
Here the value of x is ____.
28. The magnetic field B crossing normally a
square metallic plate of area 4 m2 is changing (1) (2)
with time as shown in figure. The magnitude of
induced emf in the plate during t = 2s to t = 4s,
2 2
is _______ mV
(3) (4)
2 2
E 209
32. The polymer X – consists of linear molecules and 35. 25 mL of silver nitrate solution (1 M) is added
is closely packed. It is prepared in the presence of dropwise to 25 mL of potassium iodide
triethylaluminium and titanium tetrachloride (1.05 M) solution. The ion(s) present in very
under low pressure. The polymer X is – small quantity in the solution is/are
(1) Polyacrylonitrile
(1) NO3- only
(2) Low density polythene
(2) K+ only
(3) Polytetrafluoroethane
(3) Ag+ and I– both
(4) High density polythene
(4) I– only
33. When a solution of mixture having two
inorganic salts was treated with freshly prepared 36. ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the below reactions are :
ferrous sulphate in acidic medium, a dark brown
®
O
ring was formed whereas on treatment with R
KMNO4
'A' (Major Product)
neutral FeCl3, it gave deep red colour which
disappeared on boiling and a brown red ppt was (R = alkyl)
formed. The mixture contains
(i) NH2.NH2, KOH
'B'
(1) CH 3 COO & -
NO3- (2) C 2 O24- & NO3- (ii) H3O+ (Major Product)
(3) SO32 - & CH 3COO - (4) SO32 - & C 2 O24-

CO2H
34. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as (1) CHO = A,
R
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
CO2H
Assertion A : In the photoelectric effect, the CH3
electrons are ejected from the metal surface as B=R
soon as the beam of light of frequency greater O

than threshold frequency strikes the surface. (2)
R CHO = A, node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-7 & 8.docx"
Reason R : When the photon of any energy
strikes an electron in the atom, transfer of energy B=R CH3
from the photon to the electron takes place. CO2H

(3) CO2H = A,
In the light of the above statements, choose the most R
appropriate answer from the options given below :
O NHNH2 O
B= C–NH–NH2
correct explanation of A R
O
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the (4)
R CO2H = A,
(4) A is not correct but R is correct B=R CO2H
210 E
37. The set which does not have ambidentate 41. For compound having the formula GaAlCl4, the
ligand(s) is correct option from the following is
(1) C2 O42- , ethylene diammine, H2O (1) Ga is more electronegative than Al and is
present as a cationic part of the salt GaAlCl4
(2) EDTA 4- , NCS- , C2 O24-
(2) Oxidation state of Ga in the salt GaAlCl4 is +3.
(3) NO-2 , C2 O24- , EDTA 4 -
(3) Cl forms bond with both Al and Ga in GaAlCl4
(4) C2 O24- , NO2- , NCS -
(4) Ga is coordinated with Cl in GaAlCl4
38.
Cl
Nu Nu 42. In the extraction process of copper, the product
MeO OMe obtained after carrying out the reactions
Cl
(i) 2Cu 2 S + 3O 2 ® 2Cu 2 O + 2SO2
Nu Nu
O2N O2N (ii) 2Cu 2 O + Cu 2 S ® 6Cu + SO 2 is called
®
Where Nu = Nucleophile (1) Blister copper (2) Copper scrap
Find out the correct statement from the options (3) Reduced copper (4) Copper matte
given below for the above 2 reactions.
43. Match List-I with List-II :
(1) Reaction (I) is of 2nd order and reaction (II)
is of 1st order List-I List-II
(2) Reaction (I) and (II) both are of 2nd order A. K I. Thermonuclear reactions
st
(3) Reaction (I) is of 1 order and reaction (II) B. KCl II. Fertilizer
nd
is of 2 order C. KOH III. Sodium potassium pump
st
(4) Reactions (I) and (II) both are of 1 order D. Li IV. Absorbent of CO2
39. For elements B, C, N, Li, Be, O and F the
correct order of first ionization enthalpy is
given below :
(1) Li < Be < B < C < N < O < F
(2) B > Li > Be > C > N > O > F
(3) Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F
(4) Li < Be < B < C < O < N < F

40. Match List-I with List-II :
44. Thin layer chromatography of a mixture shows
List-I List-II the following observation :
Species Geometry/Shape
A. H3O+ I. Tetrahedral C
A
B. Acetylide anion II. Linear
C. NH +4 III. Pyramidal B
IV. Bent
D. ClO2-
Choose the correct answer from the options The correct order of elution in the silica gel
given below : column chromatography is
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (1) A, C, B (2) B, C, A
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (3) C, A, B (4) B, A, C
E 211
45. Which of the following complex has a 48. Arrange the following compounds in increasing
possibility to exist as meridional isomer? order of rate of aromatic electrophilic
(1) [Co(NH3 )3 (NO2 )3 ] substitution reaction
(2) [Co (en)3]

(3) [Co (en)2 Cl2]
(4) [Pt (NH3)2 Cl2]
Statement-I : Methane and steam passed over a
heated Ni catalyst produces hydrogen gas.
Statement-II : Sodium nitrite reacts with
®
NH4Cl to give H2O, N2 and NaCl.
(1) d, b, c, a (2) b, c, a, d
(3) c, a, b, d (4) d, b, a, c
49. The complex that dissolves in water is
below : (1) Fe 4 [Fe(CN) 6 ]3
(1) Both the statements I and II are correct
(2) [Fe3 (OH)2 (OAc)6 ]Cl
(2) Both the statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (3) K3 [Co(NO2 )6 ]
correct (4) (NH4 )3 [As(Mo3O10 )4 ]

(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is HNO
50. o-Phenylenediamine ¾¾¾¾
2® 'X'
incorrect
Major Product
Statement I : If BOD is 4 ppm and dissolved ‘X’ is
oxygen is 8 ppm, then it is a good quality water.

(1)
Statement II : If the concentration of zinc and
nitrate salts are 5 ppm each, then it can be a

good quality water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (2)
below :
(1) Both the statements I and II are incorrect (3)
correct
(3) Both the statements I and II are correct
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (4)
incorrect
212 E
SECTION-B 57. A solution of sugar is obtained by mixing 200 g of
51. A mixture of 1 mole of H2O and 1 mole of CO is its 25% solution and 500 g of its 40% solution
taken in a 10 litre container and heated to 725 K. (both by mass). The mass percentage of the
At equilibrium 40% of water by mass reacts with resulting sugar solution is ______. (Nearest integer)
carbon monoxide according to the equation : 58. KClO3 + 6FeSO4 + 3H2SO4 ®
CO(g) + H 2 O(g) CO 2 (g) + H 2 (g). KCl + 3Fe2(SO4)3 + 3H2O
The equilibrium constant KC × 102 for the The above reaction was studied at 300 K by
reaction is ____________. (Nearest integer) monitoring the concentration of FeSO4 in which
52. The ratio of spin-only magnetic moment values initial concentration was 10 M and after half an
hour became 8.8 M. The rate of production of
m eff [Cr(CN) 6 ]3- / m eff [Cr(H2 O)6 ]3+ is _______.
Fe2(SO4)3 is ________ × 10–6 mol L–1 s–1.
®
–1
53. An atomic substance A of molar mass 12 g mol
(Nearest integer)
has a cubic crystal structure with edge length of
59. 0.004 M K2SO4 solution is isotonic with 0.01 M
300 pm. The no. of atoms present in one unit
glucose solution. Percentage dissociation of
cell of A is ________. (Nearest integer)
K2SO4 is ___________ (Nearest integer)
Given the density of A is 3.0 g mL–1 and
60. In an electrochemical reaction of lead, at
NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1
0
standard temperature, if E(Pb2+ /Pb) = m Volt and
54. +
H3O E0(Pb4+ /Pb) = n Volt , then the value of E(Pb
0
2+
/Pb 4+ )
The ratio x/y on completion of the above
is given by m – xn. The value of x is _______.
reaction is _________.
(Nearest integer)
MATHEMATICS
55. SECTION-A
61. The value of the integral

The number of hyperconjugation structures

( )
loge 2
involved to stabilize carbocation formed in the
ò e x log e ( e x + 1 + e 2x ) dx is equal to
- loge 2
above reaction is _____________.
æ ( )ö
56. Solid fuel used in rocket is a mixture of Fe2O3 (1) log e ç 2 2 + 5 ÷ - 5
ç 1 + 5 ÷ø 2
and Al (in ratio 1 : 2). The heat evolved (kJ) per è
gram of the mixture is ______ (Neatest integer) æ 2 ( 3 - 5 )2 ö
(2) log e ç ÷+ 5
ç 1+ 5 ÷ 2
Given : DH qf (Al 2 O3 ) = -1700 kJ mol -1 è ø
æ ( 2 + 5 )2 ö 5
DH qf (Fe 2 O3 ) = -840 kJ mol -1 (3) log e ç ÷+
ç 1+ 5 ÷ 2
è ø
Molar mass of Fe, Al and O are 56, 27 and
æ 2 ( 2 + 5 )2 ö
16 g mol–1 respectively. (4) log e ç ÷-
5
ç 1+ 5 ÷ 2
è ø
E 213
r
62. If equation of the plane that contains the point 67. For any vector a = a1î + a 2 ˆj + a 3 kˆ , with
(–2,3,5) and is perpendicular to each of the
10 | a i |< 1,i = 1, 2,3, consider the following
planes 2x + 4y + 5z = 8 and 3x - 2y + 3z = 5 is
statements:
ax + b y + gz + 97 = 0 then a + b + g = r
(A) : max {| a1 |,| a 2 |,| a 3 |} £| a |
(1) 18 (2) 17 r
(B) : | a |£ 3 max {| a1 |,| a 2 |,| a 3 |}
(3) 16 (4) 15
63. Let R be a rectangle given by the lines x = 0, (1) Only (B) is true
x = 2, y = 0 and y = 5. Let A(a,0) and (2) Only (A) is true
B(0, b), a Î [0,2] and b Î [0,5] , be such that the (3) Neither (A) nor (B) is true
(4) Both (A) and (B) are true
line segment AB divides the area of the
68. Let w1 be the point obtained by the rotation of
rectangle R in the ratio 4:1. Then, the mid-point
®
z1 = 5 + 4i about the origin through a right angle
of AB lies on a
in the anticlockwise direction, and w2 be the
(1) parabola (2) hyperbola
point obtained by the rotation of z2 = 3 + 5i about
(3) straight line (4) circle
the origin through a right angle in the clockwise
64. Let sets A and B have 5 elements each. Let the
direction. Then the principal argument of w1 - w2
mean of the elements in sets A and B be 5 and
is equal to
8 respectively and the variance of the elements in
33
sets A and B be 12 and 20 respectively A new set (1) -p + tan -1
5
C of 10 elements is formed by subtracting
33
3 from each element of A and adding 2 to each (2) p - tan -1
5
element of B. Then the sum of the mean and
8
(3) -p + tan -1
variance of the elements of C is ________. 9
(1) 32 (2) 38 8
(4) p - tan -1
(3) 40 (4) 36 9
65. Let f (x) = [ x 2 - x ] + | -x + [x] |, where x Î ¡ 69. An organization awarded 48 medals in event ‘A’,
25 in event ‘B’ and 18 in event ‘C’. If these

and [t] denotes the greatest integer less than or
medals went to total 60 men and only five men
equal to t. Then, f is
got medals in all the three events, then, how many
(1) continuous at x = 0, but not continuous at x = 1
received medals in exactly two of three events?
(2) continuous at x = 0 and x = 1
(1) 10 (2) 9
(3) not continuous at x = 0 and x = 1
(3) 21 (4) 15
(4) continuous at x = 1, but not continuous at x = 0
66. The number of triplets (x, y, z). where x, y, z 70. Let S = {M = [a ij ], a ij Î{0,1,2}, 1 £ i, j £ 2} be a
are distinct non negative integers satisfying sample space and A = {M Î S : M is invertible}
x + y + z = 15, is be an event. Then P(A) is equal to
(1) 80 (2) 114 50 47 49 16
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(3) 92 (4) 136 81 81 81 27
214 E
71. Consider ellipses E k : kx 2 + k 2 y 2 = 1, k = 1, 2, 75. Let y = y(x) be a solution curve of the
…., 20. Let Ck be the circle which touches the differential equation, (1 - x 2 y 2 ) dx = ydx + xdy.
four chords joining the end points (one on If the line x = 1 intersects the curve y = y(x) at
minor axis and another on major axis) of the y = 2 and the line x = 2 intersects the curve
ellipse Ek, If rk is the radius of the circle Ck, y = y(x) at y = a , then a value of a is
20
1
then the value of år 2
is (1)
3e 2
(2)
3e 2
k =1 k
2 ( 3e 2 - 1) 2 ( 3e 2 + 1)
(1) 3080
1 - 3e 2 1 + 3e 2
(3) (4)
(2) 3210 2 ( 3e 2 + 1) 2 ( 3e 2 - 1)
(3) 3320 76. Let A be a 2 × 2 matrix with real entries such
(4) 2870 that A' = aA + I , where a Î ¡ - {-1,1} . If det
®
72. The number of integral solutions x of
(A2 – A) = 4, then the sum of all possible values
2
æ x -7 ö of a is equal to
logæ ç ÷ ³ 0 is
è 2x - 3 ø
7ö
ç x+ ÷
è 2ø
3 5
(1) 0 (2) (3) (4) 2
(1) 6 (2) 8 2 2
(3) 5 (4) 7 77. Let ( a, b, g ) be the image of the point P(2, 3, 5)
73. Area of the region {(x, y):x + (y - 2) £ 4, 2 2
in the plane 2x + y – 3z = 6. Then a + b + g is
x 2 ³ 2y} is equal to
16 8 (1) 10 (2) 5
(1) 2p - (2) p -
3 3 (3) 12 (4) 9
8 16 r
(3) p + (4) 2p + 78. Let a be a non-zero vector parallel to the line of
3 3
intersection of the two planes described by
74. Let f :[2, 4] ® ¡ be a differentiable function
$i + $j, $i + k$ and $i - $j, $j - k$ . If q is the angle
such that ( x log e x ) f '(x) + ( log e x ) f (x) + f (x) ³ 1,
r
1 1 between the vector a and the vector

x Î[2,4] with f (2) = and f (4) = . r r r
b = 2$i - 2 $j + k$ and a . b = 6 then the ordered
2 4
Consider the following two statements: r r
(A) : f (x) £ 1, for all x Î[2,4] (
pair q , a × b ) is equal to
1 æp ö
(B) : f (x) ³ , for all x Î[2,4] (1) ç ,3 6 ÷
8 è4 ø
Then,
æp ö
(2) ç ,3 6 ÷
(1) Only statement (B) is true è3 ø
(2) Neither statement (A) nor statement (B) is
æp ö
(3) ç ,6 ÷
true è3 ø
(3) Both the statement (A) and (B) are true
æp ö
(4) ç ,6 ÷
(4) Only statement (A) is true è4 ø
E 215
79. The number of elements in the set 85. Let a line l pass through the origin and be
S = {q Î [0,2p ]:3cos 4q - 5cos2q - 2sin 6q + 2 = 0} perpendicular to the lines

r
is
( ) ( )
l1 : r = $i – 11j$ – 7k$ + l $i + 2$j + 3k$ , l Î ¡
(1) 10 r
(2) 8
( ) ( )
and l2 : r= –i$ + k$ + m 2i$ + 2$j + k$ , m Î ¡ .
(3) 9 If P is the point of intersection of l and l1, and

(4) 12 Q( a , b , g) is the foot of perpendicular from P
80. Let x1, x2 …., x100 be in an arithmetic on l2, then 9(a + b + g ) is equal to_______ .
progression, with x1 = 2 and their mean equal to
86. The number of integral terms in the expansion
200. If yi = i ( xi - i ) ,1 £ i £ 100 , then the mean 680
æ 1 1
ö
®
of ç 32 + 5 4 ÷ is equal to
of y1, y2, …..,, y100 is . è ø
(1) 10101.50 87. The number of ordered triplets of the truth
(2) 10051.50 values of p, q and r such that the truth value of
(3) 10049.50 the statement (p Ú q) Ù (p Ú r) Þ (q Ú r) is
(4) 10100 True, is equal to _______ .
SECTION-B
x2 y2
88. Let H n = - = 1, n Î N . Let k be
81. The mean of the coefficients of x,x 2 ,......x 7 in 1+ n 3+ n
the smallest even value of n such that the

the binomial expansion of (2 + x) 9 is _______ .
eccentricity of Hk is a rational number. If l is
108 107 2 1 length of the latus return of Hk, then 21l is equal
82. Let S = 109 + + 2 + ....... + 107 + 108 .
5 5 5 5
to _______
Then the value of (16S – (25)–54) is equal to
89. If a and b are the roots of equation x2 – 7x – 1 = 0,
_______ . node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-7 & 8.docx"
a 21 + b 21 + a17 + b17
2 n then the value of is equal
a19 + b19
83. For m, n > 0, let a (m , n) = ò t m (1 + 3t) dt . If
0
to _______ .
11a (10,6) + 18a (11,5) = p(14) , then p is
6
é0 1 2 ù
equal to _______ . 90. Let A = êê a 0 3 úú , where a,cÎR . If A3 = A
êë 1 c 0 úû
84. In an examination, 5 students have been allotted
and the positive value of a belongs to the
their seats as per their roll numbers. The
interval (n – 1 , n], where n Î N, then n is equal
number of ways, in which none of the students
sits on the allotted seat, is _______ . to ______.
216 E
SET # 08
PHYSICS 5. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are
SECTION-A considered as fundamental physical quantity,
1. Eight equal drops of water are falling through then dimensional formula of density will be:
air with a steady speed of 10 cm/s. If the drops (1) FV–2T2 (2) FV–4T–2
coalesce, the new velocity is:-
(3) FV4T–6 (3) F2V–2T6
(1) 10 cm/s (2) 40 cm/s
6. In satellite communication, the uplink frequency
(3) 16 cm/s (4) 5 cm/s band used is:
–1
2. A car P travelling at 20 ms sounds its horn at a
(1) 3.7 – 4.2 GHz (2) 5.925 – 6.425 GHz
frequency of 400 Hz. Another car Q is travelling
(2) 76 – 88 MHz (4) 420 – 890 MHz
behind the first car in the same direction with a
®
velocity 40 ms–1. The frequency heard by the 7. If V is the gravitational potential due to sphere
passenger of the car Q is approximately of uniform density on it’s surface, then it’s
[Take, velocity of sound = 360 ms–1] value at the center of sphere will be:-
(1) 514 Hz (2) 421 Hz 3V 4 V

(1) (2) V (3) V (4)
2 3 2
(3) 485 Hz (4) 471 Hz
8. A body of mass 500 g moves along x-axis such
3. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 that it’s velocity varies with displacement x
MHz propagates in free space along x-direction. according to the relation v = 10 x m/s the
r
At a particular space and time, E = 6.6ˆj V / m . force acting on the body is:-
r
What is B at this point ? (1) 166 N (2) 25 N
(1) -2.2 ´ 10 -8 î T (3) 125 N (4) 5 N
(2) 2.2 ´ 10 -8 kˆ T 9. A projectile is projected at 30° from horizontal

with initial velocity 40 ms–1. The velocity of the

(3) -2.2 ´ 10 kˆ T
-8
projectile at t = 2 s from the start will be:
(4) 2.2 ´ 10 -8 iˆ T (Given g = 10 m/s2)
4. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a (1) 20 3 ms -1 (2) 40 3 ms -1

potential V. The flux of the electric field
(3) 20 ms–1 (4) Zero
through a closed surface enclosing the positive
10. When one light ray is reflected from a plane
plate of the capacitor is:
mirror with 30° angle of reflection, the angle of
CV 2CV deviation of the ray after reflection is:
(1) (2)
2e0 e0
(1) 140° (2) 120°
CV
(3) (4) Zero (3) 110° (4) 130°
e0
E 217
11. A space ship of mass 2 × 104 kg is launched 15. The logic operations performed by the given
into a circular orbit close to the earth surface. digital circuit is equivalent to:
The additional velocity to be imparted to the
space ship in the orbit to overcome the
gravitational pull will be (if g = 10 m/s2 and
radius of earth = 6400 km)
(1) AND (2) NOR
(1) 11.2 ( )
2 - 1 km / s (3) OR (4) NAND
16. The root mean square speed of molecules of
(2) 7.9 ( )
2 - 1 km / s nitrogen gas at 27°C is approximately:
(Given mass of a nitrogen molecule =4.6×10–26kg
(3) 8 ( )
2 - 1 km / s
and take Boltzmann constant kB = 1.4 ×10–23 JK–1)
®
(1) 523 m/s (2) 1260 m/s
(4) 7.4 ( )
2 - 1 km / s
(3) 91 m/s (4) 27.4 m/s
12. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths of
proton and electron having same kinetic energy:
(Assume mp = me × 1849)
(1) 1 : 43 (2) 1 : 30 17.

(3) 1 : 62 (4) 2 : 43
13. The thermodynamic process, in which internal

energy of the system remains constant is
The current flowing through R2 is:
(1) Isochoric
2 1
(2) Isothermal (1) A (2) A
3 4 node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-7 & 8.docx"
(3) Adiabatic 1 1
(3) A (4) A
2 3
(4) Isobaric r
18. When vector A = 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 2kˆ is subtracted
14. The energy of He+ ion in its first excited state is. r
from vector B , it gives a vector equal to 2jˆ .
(The ground state energy for the Hydrogen r
Then the magnitude of vector B will be:
atom is –13.6 eV):
(1) 13
(1) –3.4 eV
(2) 3
(2) –54.4 eV
(3) 6
(3) –13.6 eV
(4) –27.2 eV (4) 5
218 E
19. Given below are two statements : one is labelled SECTION-B
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as 21. In the given circuit,
Reason R. C1 = 2 mF, C2 = 0.2 mF, C3 = 2 mF, C4 = 4 mF,
Assertion A: A bar magnet dropped through a C5=2 mF, C6 = 2 mF, the charge stored on
metallic cylindrical pipe takes more time to capacitor C4 is ______ mC.

come down compared to a non–magnetic bar C1 C3
with same geometry and mass.
10V C2 C4
Reason R: For the magnetic bar, Eddy currents
are produced in the metallic pipe which oppose
C6 C5
the motion of the magnetic bar.
22. A circular plate is rotating in horizontal plane,
®
about an axis passing through its center and
perpendicular to the plate, with an angular
velocity w. A person sits at the center having
two dumbbells in his hands. When he stretches
(2) A is true but R is false out his hands, the moment of inertia of the
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct system becomes triple. If E be the initial Kinetic
explanation of A energy of the system, then final Kinetic energy

E
(4) A is false but R is true will be . The value of x is
x
20. An electron is allowed to move with constant
23. A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts, in
velocity along the axis of current carrying
such a way that ratio of their nuclear sizes is
straight solenoid.
1 : 21/3. Their respective speed have a ratio of n : 1.
A. The electron will experience magnetic force
The value of n is ______
along the axis of the solenoid.
24. Two identical cells each of emf 1.5 V are
B. The electron will not experience magnetic

connected in series across a 10 W resistance. An
force.
ideal voltmeter connected across 10 W resistance
C. The electron will continue to move along the
reads 1.5 V. The internal resistance of each cell
axis of the solenoid.
is ____W.
D. The electron will be accelerated along the
axis of the solenoid. 25. A block of mass 5 kg starting from rest pulled up
E. The electron will follow parabolic path– on a smooth incline plane making an angle of
inside the solenoid. 30° with horizontal with an affective acceleration
Choose the correct answer from the options of 1 ms–2. The power delivered by the pulling
given below: force at t = 10 s from the start is ____ W.
(1) B, C and D only (2) B and C only [Use g = 10 ms–2]
(3) A and D only (4) B and E only (calculate the nearest integer value)
E 219
26. A coil has an inductance of 2H and resistance of
4W. A 10 V is applied across the coil. The
energy stored in the magnetic field after the
current has built up to its equilibrium value will
be ____×10–2J
27. A metallic cube of side 15 cm moving along
y–axis at a uniform velocity of 2 ms–1. In a
region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude
0.5 T directed along z-axis. In equilibrium the CHEMISTRY
potential difference between the faces of higher SECTION-A
and lower potential developed because of the 31. Which hydride among the following is less
®
motion through the field will be _____ mV. stable?
(1) BeH2 (2) NH3
(3) HF (4) LiH
32. Given below are two statements, one is labelled

Reason R.
28. A wire of density 8 × 103 kg/m3 is stretched Assertion A : can be subjected to
between two clamps 0.5 m apart. The extension

developed in the wire is 3.2 × 10–4 m. If Wolff-Kishner reduction to give .
10 2
Y = 8 × 10 N/m , the fundamental frequency
of vibration in the wire will be ______ Hz.
Reason R : Wolff-Kishner reduction is used to
29. The surface tension of soap solution is 3.5 × 10–2
Nm–1. The amount of work done required to CH2

convert .
increase the radius of soap bubble from 10 cm to
20 cm is _____× 10–4 J. In the light of the above statements, choose the
30. As shown in the figure, a plane mirror is fixed correct answer from the options given below :
at a height of 50 cm from the bottom of tank (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
æ 4ö correct explanation of A.
containing water ç m = ÷ . The height of water
è 3ø
in the tank is 8 cm. A small bulb is placed at the
bottom of the water tank. The distance of image
of the bulb formed by mirror from the bottom of (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
the tank is _______ cm. explanation of A.
220 E
33. The major product formed in the following 36. Given below are two statements, one is labelled
reaction is: as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
6 5 2
Reason R.
3 Assertion A : [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ absorbs at lower
(A) 6 5 2 5 wavelength of light with respect to
3 [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+
(B) 6 5 2 5
Reason R : It is because the wavelength of the
3
light absorbed depends on the oxidation state of
(C) 6 5 2 5 the metal ion.
®
(D) C6H5 (1) A is false but R is true.
CH3 (2) A is true but R is false.
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
given below :
explanation of A.
(1) A only
(4) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
(2) B only
(3) C only
(4) D only 37. Given below are two statements, one is labelled
34. Which of the following compounds is an as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
example of Freon? Reason R.
(1) C2Cl2F2
Assertion A : A solution of the product
(2) C2HF3
obtained by heating a mole of glycine with a
(3) C2H2F2
mole of chlorine in presence of red phosphorous
(4) C2F4
35. For a chemical reaction A + B ® Product, the generates chiral carbon atom.
order is 1 with respect to A and B. Reason R : A molecule with 2 chiral carbons is

Rate [A] [B] always optically active.
–1 –1 –1 –1
mol L s mol L mol L In the light of the above statements, choose the
0.10 20 0.5
0.40 x 0.5
0.80 40 y
What is the value of x and y?
(1) 80 and 2
(2) 40 and 4 explanation of A.
(3) 160 and 4 (4) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
(4) 80 and 4 correct explanation of A.
E 221
3 4 41. Which one of the following pairs is an example
38. 3 2 3
of polar molecular solids?
2
(1) SO2(s), NH3(s) (2) SO2(s), CO2(s)
Product [X] formed in the above reaction is : (3) HCl(s), AlN(s) (4) MgO(s), SO2(s)
(1) 3 2 3
42. One mole of P4 reacts with 8 moles of SOCl2 to
give 4 moles of A, x mole of SO2 and 2 moles
of B. A, B and x respectively are
(2) (1) PCl3, S2Cl2 and 4 (2) POCl3, S2Cl2 and 4
3 2 3
(3) PCl3, S2Cl2 and 2 (4) POCl3, S2Cl2 and 2
(3) H3C—CH2—CH=CH2 43. Compound from the following that will not
(4) H3C—CH=CH—CH3 produce precipitate on reaction with AgNO3 is :
®
(1)
Statements I : Ethene at 333 to 343K and 6-7
atm pressure in the presence of AlEt3 and TiCl4
(2)
undergoes addition polymerization to give LDP.
Statement II : Caprolactam at 533-543K in (3)
H2O through step growth polymerizes to give
(4)
Nylon 6. 2
In the light of the above Statements, chose the 44. A solution is prepared by adding 2g of “X”
correct answer from the options given below : of 1 mole of water. Mass percent of “X” in the
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. solution is :
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. (1) 20% (2) 5% (3) 2% (4) 10%
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. 45. Given below are two statements :
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. Statement-I : In the metallurgy process, sulphide
40. Compound ‘B’ is ore is converted to oxide before reduction.
Statement-II : Oxide ores in general are easier
2 4 to reduce.
below :
H2N
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(1) (2)
incorrect.
incorrect.
(3) (4) (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct.
222 E
46. Alkali metal from the following with least 50. If Ni2+ is replaced by Pt2+ in the complex
melting point is : [NiCl2Br2]2–, which of the following properties
(1) Rb (2) K are expected to get changed?
(3) Na (4) Cs A. Geometry
47. What weight of glucose must be dissolved in B. Geometrical isomerism
100 g of water to lower the vapour pressure by C. Optical isomerism
0.20 mm Hg? D. Magnetic properties
(Assume dilute solution is being formed) (1) A, B and C (2) A, B and D
Given : Vapour pressure of pure water is 54.2 mm (3) A and D (4) B and C
Hg at room temperature. Molar mass of glucose is SECTION-B
–1
180 g mol . 51. Number of compounds from the following
®
(1) 4.69 g which will not produce orange red precipitate
(2) 3.59 g
with Benedict solution is ……….
(3) 2.59 g
Glucose, maltose, sucrose, ribose,
(4) 3.69 g
48. The magnetic moment is measured in Bohr 2-deoxyribose, amylose, lactose.
Magneton (BM). 52. 4.5 moles each of hydrogen and iodine is heated
Spin only magnetic moment of Fe in [Fe(H2O)6]3+ in a sealed ten litre vessel. At equilibrium,
3–
and [Fe(CN)6] complexes respectively is : 3 moles of HI were found. The equilibrium
(1) 6.92 B.M. in both constant for H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) is …….
(2) 4.89 B.M. and 6.92 B.M.
53. The number of correct statements about modern
(3) 3.87 B.M. and 1.732 B.M.
adsorption theory of heterogeneous catalysis
(4) 5.92 B.M. and 1.732 B.M
from the following is ……….
49. Match List I with List II.
List I List II A. The catalyst is diffused over the surface of
reactants.
Complex Colour
B. Reactants are adsorbed on the surface of
A. Mg(NH4)PO4 I. Brown
the catalyst.
B. K3[Co(NO2)6] II. White
C. Occurrence of chemical reaction on the
C. MnO(OH)2 III. Yellow
catalyst’s surface through formation of an
D. Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 IV. blue
intermediate.
Choose the correct answer from the options D. It is a combination of intermediate
given below : compound formation theory and the old
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV adsorption theory.
E. It explains the action of the catalyst as well
as those of catalytic promoters and poisons.
E 223
54. The number of correct statements from the 60. The number of correct statements from the
following _____ following is :
A. For 1s orbital, the probability density is A. Ecell is an intensive parameter.
maximum at the nucleus. B. A negative E Q means that the redox
B. For 2s orbital, the probability density first couple is a stronger reducing agent than the
increases to maximum and then decreases H+/H2 couple.
sharply to zero. C. The amount of electricity required for

oxidation or reduction depends on the
C. Boundary surface diagrams of the orbitals
stoichiometry of the electrode reaction.
encloses a region of 100% probability of
D. The amount of chemical reaction which
finding the electron.
occurs at any electrode during electrolysis
®
D. p and d-orbitals have 1 and 2 angular nodes by a current is proportional to the quantity
respectively. of electricity passed through the electrolyte.
E. Probability density of p-orbital is zero at MATHEMATICS
the nucleus. SECTION-A
55. The number of possible isomeric products x +1 x x

9
61. If x x+l x = (103x + 81) , then
formed when 3-chloro-1-butene reacts with HCl 8
x x x + l2
through carbocation formation is _____
l
56. Mg(NO3)2·XH2O and Ba(NO3)2·YH2O, l, are the roots of the equation
3
represent formula of the crystalline forms of (1) 4x2 + 24x – 27 = 0 (2) 4x2 – 24x + 27 = 0
nitrate salts. Sum of X and Y is _____ (3) 4x2 + 24x + 27 = 0 (4) 4x2 – 24x – 27 = 0
57. The total number of intensive properties from 62. Let the line passing through the points, P (2, – 1, 2)
the following is _____ and Q (5, 3, 4) meet the plane x – y + z = 4 at the
q
Volume, Molar heat capacity, Molarity, E cell, point R. Then the distance of the point R from the
Gibbs free energy change, Molar mass, Mole plane x + 2y + 3z + 2 = 0 measured parallel to the
58. The maximum number of lone pairs of electrons x -7 y+3 z-2

line = = is equal to
2 2 1
on the central atom from the following species
(1) 31 (2) 189
is ___
– (3) 61 (4) 3
ClO3–, XeF4, SF4 and I3
63. If the 1011th term from the end in the binomial
59. The volume of hydrogen liberated at STP by
2022
æ 4x 5 ö
treating 2.4 g of magnesium with excess of expansion of ç - ÷ is 1024 times 1011th
è 5 2x ø
hydrochloric acid is _____ × 10–2 L.
term from the beginning, then |x| is equal to
Given: Molar volume of gas is 22.4 L at STP.
(1) 12 (2) 8
Molar mass of magnesium is 24 g mol–1.
(3) 10 (4) 15
224 E
64. Let the function f : [0, 2] ® R be defined as 68. If the system of linear equations
ìe min{x 2 ,x -[ x ]} , x Î [0,1) 7x + 11y + az = 13

ï
f (x) = í 5x + 4y + 7z = b
ïî e
[ x - loge x ]
, x Î [1,2]
175x + 194y + 57z = 361
where [t] denotes the greatest integer less than
has infinitely many solutions, then a + b + 2 is
or equal to t. Then the value of the integral
2 equal to
ò xf ( x ) dx
0
is (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 6
3e
(1) 2e – 1 (2) 1 + 69. The domain of the function
2
1
1 æ 1ö f (x) = is (where [x] denotes
(3) 2e - (4) ( e - 1) ç e 2 + ÷
[x] - 3[ x ] - 10
2
2 è 2ø
®
65. Let y = y (x) be the solution of the differential the greatest integer less than or equal to x)
(1) ( -¥, -2) È ( 5, ¥ )
( x 5 + 1) (2) (-¥, -3] È [6, ¥)
2
dy 5
equations + y= , x > 0. If
dx x ( x 5 + 1) x7 (3) ( -¥, -2) È [6, ¥) (4) (-¥, -3] È ( 5, ¥ )
y(1) = 2, then y(2) is equal to 70. Let P be the plane passing through the points
637 679 (5, 3, 0), (13, 3, –2) and (1, 6, 2). For aÎ N, if
(1) (2)
128 128 the distances of the points A (3, 4, a) and
693 697 B (2, a, a) from the plane P are 2 and 3
(3) (4)
128 128
respectively, then the positive value of a is
66. If four distinct points with position vectors
(1) 6 (2) 4
r r r r rrr
a, b, c and d are coplanar; then éë a b c ùû is equal (3) 3 (4) 5
to 71. The converse of the statement (( : p) Ù q ) Þ r is

rrr rrr rrr
(1) éë d c a ùû + éë bd a ùû + éë c d b ùû (1) ( : r ) Þ p Ù q (2) ( : r ) Þ ( ( : p ) Ù q )
rrr rrr rrr

(2) éë d b a ùû + éë a c d ùû + éëd b c ùû (3) (( : p) Ú q ) Þ r (4) ( p Ú ( : q ) ) Þ ( : r )
rrr rrr rrr 72. The angle of elevation of the top P of a tower
(3) éë a d b ùû + éë d c a ùû + éë d b c ùû
rrr r rr rrr
from the feet of one person standing due South
(4) éë b c d ùû + éë d a c ùû + éëd b a ùû of the tower is 45° and from the feet of another
67. If f : ¡ ® ¡ be a continuous function satisfying person standing due west of the tower is 30°. If
p /4
p /2
the height of the tower is 5 meters, then the
ò f ( sin 2x ) × sin xdx + a ò f ( cos 2x ) × cos x dx = 0 ,
0 0 distance (in meters) between the two persons is
then a is equal to equal to
(1) – 3 (2) 2 (1) 10 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) – 2 5
(3) 5 5 (4) 5
2
E 225
73. Let a, b, c and d be positive real numbers such 79. Let A = {1, 3, 4, 6, 9} and B = {2, 4, 5, 8, 10}.
that a + b + c + d = 11. If the maximum value of Let R be a relation defined on A × B such that
a5b3c2d is 3750b, then the value of b is R = {((a1, b1),(a2, b2)) : a1 £ b 2 and b1 £ a 2 }.
(1) 90 (2) 110 Then the number of elements in the set R is
(3) 55 (4) 108 (1) 26 (2) 160 (3) 180 (4) 52
74. If the radius of the largest circle with centre 80. Let f and g be two functions defined by
2 2
(2, 0) inscribed in the ellipse x + 4y = 36 is r, ì x + 1, x < 0 x + 1, x < 0
2 f (x) = í and g ( x ) = ìí .
then 12r is equal to î x - 1 , x ³ 0 î 1, x³0
(1) 72 (2) 115 Then (gof) (x) is
(3) 92 (4) 69 (1) Differentiable everywhere
75. Let the mean of 6 observation 1, 2, 4, 5, x and y (2) Continuous everywhere but not differentiable
®
be 5 and their variance be 10. Then their mean exactly at one point
deviation about the mean is equal to (3) Not continuous at x = – 1
10 7 8 (4) Continuous everywhere but not differentiable
(1) (2) (3) 3 (4)
3 3 3
at x = 1
76. The sum of the coefficients of three consecutive
SECTION-B
terms in the binomial expansion of (1 + x )
n+2
,
81. The number of points, where the curve
which are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5, is equal to
f(x) = e8x – e6x – 3e4x – e2x + 1, x Î¡ cuts
(1) 25 (2) 63
x-axis, is equal to
(3) 41 (4) 92
82. Let the probability of getting head for a biased coin
77. If the letters of the word MATHS are permuted
1
and all possible words so formed are arranged be . It is tossed repeatedly until a head appears.
4
as in a dictionary with serial numbers, then the
Let N be the number of tosses required. If the
serial number of the word THAMS is
probability that the equation 64x2 + 5Nx + 1 = 0
(1) 103 (2) 104
p node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-7 & 8.docx"
(3) 101 (4) 102 has no real root is , where p and q are
q
78. For a Î C,
co-prime, then q – p is equal to
let A = {z Î C : Re ( a + z ) > Im ( a + z )} and r
r ˆ If cr is a
83. Let a = î + 2jˆ + 3kˆ and b = î + ˆj - k.
B = {z Î C : Re ( a + z ) < Im ( a + z )}. Then r r r r r
vector such that a × c = 11, b × ( a ´ c ) = 27 and
among the two statements : r r r r r2
(S1) : If Re (A), Im (A) > 0, then the set A b × c = - 3 b , then a ´ c is equal to
contains all the real numbers

ì z2 + 8iz - 15 ü
(S2) : If Re (A), Im (A) < 0, then the set B 84. Let S = íz Î C - {i,2i} : 2 Î R ý. If
î z - 3iz - 2 þ
contains all the real numbers,
13
(1) Only (S1) is true (2) both are false a- i Î S, a Î ¡ - {0} , then 242a 2 is equal to
11
(3) Only (S2) is true (4) Both are true
226 E
85. For k Î¥, if the sum of the series 1- y z - 3
88. Let the line l : x = = , l Î ¡ meet the
-2 l
4 8 13 19
1+ + + + + ... is 10, then the value of plane P : x + 2y + 3z = 4 at the point ( a, b, g ) . If
k k 2 k3 k 4
k is the angle between the line l and the plane P is
86. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. æ 5 ö

cos -1 çç ÷÷ , then a + 2b + 6 g is equal to
Then the number of functions f :A ® B è 14 ø
satisfying f(1) + f(2) = f(4) – 1 is equal to 89. If the line l1 : 3y - 2x = 3 is the angular bisector
87. Let the tangent to the parabola y2 = 12x at

of the lines l 2 : x - y + 1= 0 and
the point (3, a) be perpendicular to the line l 3 : ax + by + 17= 0, then a 2 + b 2 - a - b is
2x + 2y = 3. Then the square of distance of the equal to
®
point (6, – 4) from the normal to the hyperbola 90. If A is the area in the first quadrant enclosed by
a2x2 – 9y2 = 9a 2 at its point (a – 1, a + 2) is the curve C : 2x 2 - y + 1 = 0, the tangent to C at
equal to the point (1, 3) and the line x + y = 1, then the
value of 60A is
E 227
SET # 09
PHYSICS 5. If the r.m.s. speed of chlorine molecule is
SECTION-A 490 m/s at 27° C, the r.m.s. speed of argon
1. An ice cube has a bubble inside. When viewed molecules at the same temperature will be
from one side the apparent distance of the bubble
(Atomic mass of argon = 39.9u, molecular mass
is 12 cm. when viewed from the opposite side,
of chlorine = 70.9u)
the apparent distance of the bubble is observed as
(1) 751.7 m/s
4 cm. If the side of the ice cube is 24 cm, the
(2) 451.7 m/s
refractive index of the ice cube is
(3) 651.7 m/s
4 3 2 6
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 3 5 (4) 551.7 m/s
®
2. Two satellites A and B move round the earth in 6. A proton and an a-particle are accelerated from
the same orbit. The mass of A is twice the mass rest by 2V and 4V potentials, respectively. The
of B. The quantity which is same for the two ratio of their de-Broglie wavelength is:
satellites will be : (1) 4:1 (2) 2:1
(1) Potential energy (2) Total energy
(3) 8:1 (4) 16:1
(3) Kinetic energy (4) Speed
3. The amplitude of 15 sin (1000 pt) is modulated
Statement I : The diamagnetic property
by 10 sin (4pt) signal. The amplitude modulated
depends on temperature.
signal contains frequencies of
Statement II : The included magnetic dipole
A. 500 Hz. B. 2 Hz
moment in a diamagnetic sample is always
C. 250 Hz D. 498 Hz
opposite to the magnetizing field.
E. 502 Hz
In the light of given statement, choose the
node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-9, 10 & 11.docx"

given below:
(1) (A) and (C) only (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) (A) and (D) only true

(3) (A) and (B) only (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) (A), (D) and (E) only (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
4. In an n-p-n common emitter (CE) transistor the (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
collector current changes from 5 mA to 16 mA false.
for the change in base current from 100 mA and 8. A wire of resistance 160 W is melted and drawn
200 mA, respectively. The current gain of in wire of one-fourth of its length. The new
transistor is________. resistance of the wire will be
(1) 110 (2) 0.9 (1) 10 W (2) 640 W
(3) 210 (4) 9 (3) 40 W (4) 16 W
228 E
9. Match List I with List II 13. Given below are two statements:
List I List II Statement I : A truck and a car moving with
–1
A. Spring constant I. (T ) same kinetic energy are brought to rest by
–2
B. Angular speed II. (MT ) applying breakes which provide equal retarding
2
C. Angular momentum III. (ML ) forces. Both come to rest in equal distance.
2 –1
D. Moment of Inertia IV. (ML T ) Statement II : A car moving towards east takes
Choose the correct answer from the options a turn and moves towards north, the speed
given below: remains unchanged. The acceleration of the car
is zero.
In the light of given statements, choose the most
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
appropriate answer from the options given
®
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
below.
10. Three force F1 = 10N, F2 = 8 N, F3 = 6 N are
acting on a particle of mass 5 kg. The forces F2
incorrect
and F3 are applied perpendicular so that particle
remains at rest. If the force F 1 is removed, then
correct
the acceleration of the particle is:
(1) 2 ms–2 (2) 0.5 ms–2
incorrect.
(3) 4.8 ms–2 (4) 7 ms–2
11. A body cools from 80°C to 60°C in 5 minutes.
correct.
The temperature of the surrounding is 20°C.
14. A particle is executing Simple Harmonic
The time it takes to cool from 60°C to 40°C is:
Motion (SHM). The ratio of potential energy
25
(1) 500 s (2) s and kinetic energy of the particle when its
3
displacement is half of its amplitude will be:
(3) 450 s (4) 420 s

12. An engine operating between the boiling and (1) 1 : 1
freezing points of water will have (2) 2 : 1
1. efficiency more than 27% (3) 1 : 4
2. efficiency less than the efficiency a Carnot (4) 1 : 3
engine operating between the same two 15. A ball is thrown vertically upward with an
temperatures. initial velocity of 150 m/s. The ratio of velocity

x+1
3. efficiency equal to 27% after 3 s and 5s is . The value of x is
x
4. efficiency less than 27%
_______.
(1) 2, 3 and 4 only
Take (g = 10 m/s2).
(2) 2 and 3 only
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 2 and 4 only
(3) –5 (4) 10
(4) 1 and 2 only
E 229
16. Given below are two statement: one is labelled 19. The ratio of escape velocity of a planet to the
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as escape velocity of earth will be:
Reason R. Given : Mass of the planet is 16 times mass of
Assertion A : If an electric dipole of dipole earth and radius of the planet is 4 times the
–5
moment 30´10 Cm is enclosed by a closed radius of earth.
surface, the net flux coming out of the surface (1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
will be zero. (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
Reason R : Electric dipole consists of two 20. Given below are two statements :
equal and opposite charges. Statement I : When the frequency of an a.c.
In the light of above, statements, choose the source in a series LCR circuit increases, the
correct answer from the options given below: current in the circuit first increases, attains a
®
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct maximum value and then decreases.
explanation of A Statement II : In a series LCR circuit, the value
(2) A is true but R is false of power factor at resonance is one.
(3) Both A and R true but R is NOT the In the light of given statements, choose the most
correct explanation of A appropriate answer from the options given
(4) A is false but R is true below:
17. Given below are two statement : one is labelled as (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Assertion A : EM waves used for optical (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
communication have longer wavelengths than that (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
of microwave, employed in Radar technology. SECTION-B
Reason R : Infrared EM waves are more 21. For a certain organ pipe, the first three
energetic than microwaves, (used in Radar) resonance frequencies are in the ratio of 1:3:5

In the light of given statements, choose the respectively. If the frequency of fifth harmonic
correct answer from the options given below: is 405 Hz and the speed of sound in air is
(1) A is false but R is true 324 ms–1 the length of the organ pipe is ____m.
(2) A is true but R is false 22. For a rolling spherical shell, the ratio of
(3) Both A and R true but R is NOT the rotational kinetic energy and total kinetic
correct explanation of A x
energy is . The value of x is_________.
5
(4) Both A and R true and R is the correct
explanation of A 23. A compass needle oscillates 20 times per
18. A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to bombard minute at a place where the dip is 30° and
gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. The 30 times per minute where the dip is 60°. The
number of spectral lines emitted will be: ratio of total magnetic field due to the earth at
(1) 2 (2) 1 4
two place respectively is . The value of x is
x
(3) 3 (4) 4
230 E
24. A conducting circular loop is placed in a 29. Glycerine of density 1.25 × 103 kg m–3 is
uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T with its plane flowing through the conical section of pipe. The
perpendicular to the field. Somehow, the radius area of cross-section of the pipe at its ends is
of the loop starts expanding at a constant rate of 10 cm2 and 5 cm2 and pressure drop across its
1 mm/s. The magnitude of induced emf in the length is 3 Nm–2. The rate of flow of glycerine
loop at an instant when the radius of the loop is through the pipe is x × 10–5 m3 s–1. The value of
2 cm will be __________ mV. x is ____.
25. To maintain a speed of 80 km/h by a bus 30. 64 identical drops each charged upto potential
of mass 500 kg on a plane rough road for of 10 mV are combined to form a bigger
4 km distance, the work done by the engine of dorp. The potential of the bigger drop will be
the bus will be _____________KJ. ______ mV.
®
[The coefficient of friction between tyre of bus CHEMISTRY
and road is 0.04]. SECTION-A
26. A common example of alpha decay is
31.
238
92 U ¾¾
® 234
90 Th + 2 He + Q
4
Given : A is
238
92
U = 238.05060u,
(1)
234
90
Th = 234.04360u,
4
2
He = 4.00260u, and
MeV (2)
1u = 931.5
c2
The energy released (Q) during the alpha decay
of 238
92
U is _____ MeV (3)
27. The current flowing through a conductor

connected across a source is 2A and 1.2 A at
(4)
0oC and 100oC respectively. The current
flowing through the conductor at 50oC will be
32. Four gases A, B, C and D have critical
_______×102 mA.
temperatures 5.3, 33.2, 126.0 and 154.3K
28. Two convex lenses of focal length 20 cm each
respectively.
are placed coaxially with a separation of 60 cm
For their adsorption on fixed amount of
between them. The image of the distant object
charcoal, the correct order is :
formed by the combination is at _______ cm
(1) C > B > D > A (2) C > D > B > A
from the first lens. (3) D > C > A > B (4) D > C > B > A
E 231
®
40. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as 43. 2 - hexene ¾¾
(i)O
¾¾
3
® Pr oducts
(ii) H O 2
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
The two products formed in above reaction are -
Assertion A : In the Ellingham diagram, a
(1) Butanoic acid and acetic acid
sharp change in slope of the line is observed for
(2) Butanal and acetic acid
Mg ® MgO at :1120 o C
(3) Butanal and acetaldehyde
Reason R : There is a large change of entropy
(4) Butanoic acid and acetaldehyde
associated with the change of state
44. Correct statements for the given reaction are :
®
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct A. Compound ‘B’ is aromatic
explanation of A B. The completion of above reaction is very slow
(3) A is false but R is true C. ‘A’ shows tautomerism
(4) A is true but R is false D. The bond lengths C-C in compound B are
41. Match List I with List II found to be same

LIST I LIST II Choose the correct answer from the options
A. Nitrogen oxides in air I. Eutrophication
B. Methane in air II. pH of rain water becomes 5.6.
given below :
C. Carbon dioxide III. Global warming (1) A, B and D only (2) A, B and C only
D. Phosphate fertilisers in water IV. Acid rain
Choose the correct answer from the options (3) B, C and D only (4) A, C and D only
given below : 45. The bond order and magnetic property of
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I acetylide ion are same as that of
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (1) NO+ (2) O2
+
(3) O2- (4) N +2
46. In the given reaction cycle
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
42. For lead storage battery pick the correct statements

A. During charging of battery, PbSO4 on anode
is converted into PbO2
B. During charging of battery, PbSO4 on
X, Y and Z respectively are
cathode is converted into PbO2
X Y Z
C. Lead storage battery, consists of grid of lead (1)
CaO NaCl ∗ CO 2 KCI
packed with PbO2 as anode
X Y Z
D. Lead storage battery has : 38% solution of (2)
CaCO3 NaCl KCI
sulphuric acid as an electrolyte
Choose the correct answer from the options X Y Z
(3)
given below : CaCO3 NaCl HCl
(1) B, D only (2) B, C, D only X Y Z
(4)
(3) A, B, D only (4) B, C only CaO NaCl ∗ CO2 NaCl
E 233
47. Given below are two statements : 49. Match List I with List II
Statement I : Boron is extremely hard LIST I LIST II
Type of Hydride Example
indicating its high lattice energy A. Electron deficient hydride I. MgH2
B. Electron rich hydride II. HF
Statement II : Boron has highest melting and
C. Electron precise hydride III. B2H6
boiling point compared to its other group D. Saline hydride IV. CH4
members. Choose the correct answer from the options
In the light of the above statements, choose the given below :
most appropriate answer from the options given (1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
below (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
correct (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

50. The major product ‘P’ formed in the following
®
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II is
correct sequence of reactions is
(i) SOCl2
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (ii) R-NH2
‘P’ (Major Product)
(iii) LiAIH4
incorrect
(iv) H3O+
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II is
incorrect
48. (1)
(2)
A in the above reaction is :
(1) (3)
(4)
(2)
SECTION-B
51. One mole of an ideal gas at 350K is in a 2.0 L
vessel of thermally conducting walls, which are
(3) in contact with the surroundings. It undergoes
isothermal reversible expansion from 2.0L to
3.0L against a constant pressure of 4 atm. The
change in entropy of the surroundings ∋ΧS( is
(4) __________ J K–1 (Nearest integer)
Given : R = 8.314 J K–1 Mol–1.
234 E
52. The mass of NH3 produced when 131.8 kg of 58. At 600K, the root mean square (rms) speed of
cyclohexanecarbaldehyde undergoes Tollen’s gas X (molar mass = 40) is equal to the most
test is _______ kg. (Nearest Integer) probable speed of gas Y at 90K. The molar
Molar Mass of C = 12g/mol mass of the gas Y is ______ g mol-1. (Nearest
N = 14g/mol integer)
O = 16g/mol 59. The reaction 2NO ∗ Br2 ® 2NOBr
53. In an oligopeptide named Alanylglycylphenyl takes places through the mechanism given
2
alanyl isoleucine, the number of sp hybridised below :
carbons is ________. NO + Br2 ® NOBr2 (fast)
54. An analyst wants to convert. 1L HCl of pH = l NOBr2 + NO ® 2NOBr (slow)
to a solution of HCl of pH 2. The volume of
The overall order of the reaction is _______.
®
water needed to do this dilution is ______ mL.
60. Values of work function (W0) for a few metals
(Nearest Integer)
are given below
55. Three organic compounds A, B and C were Metal Li Na K Mg Cu Ag
allowed to run in thin layer chromatography Wo/eV 2.42 2.3 2.25 3.7 4.8 4.3
The number of metals which will show
using hexane and gave the following result (see
photoelectric effect when light of wavelength
figure). The Rf value of the most polar
400nm falls on it is _____
compound is ______ × 10-2
Given : h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s
c = 3 × 108m s–1
e = 1.6 × 10–19 C
MATHEMATICS
SECTION-A
61. The number of five digit numbers, greater than
40000 and divisible by 5, which can be formed
56. 80 mole percent of MgCl2 is dissociated in using the digits 0, 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 without
aqueous solution. The vapour pressure of repetition, is equal to
1.0 molal aqueous solution of MgCl2 at 38oC is (1) 120 (2) 132
_______ mm Hg. (Nearest integer) (3) 72 (4) 96
Given : Vapour pressure of water at 38oC is 62. Let a , b be the roots of the quadratic equation
50 mm Hg a 23 + b23 + a14 + b14

x 2 + 6x + 3 = 0. Then
57. a15 + b15 + a10 + b10
is equal to
(1) 729
(2) 72
(3) 81
The value of x in compound ‘D’ is ____ (4) 9
E 235
63. Let < an > be a sequence such that 67. If the local maximum value of the function
sin 2 x
2
n + 3n æ 3e ö æ pö k
a1 + a 2 + ... + a n = . If f(x) = çç ÷÷ , x Î ç 0, ÷ , is , then
( n + 1)( n + 2 ) è 2 sin x ø è 2ø e
10
1 8 8
28å = p1p 2 p3 ....p m , where p1, p2, …..pm ækö k
ç e ÷ e 5 + k is equal to
+ 8
k =1 a k è ø
are the first m prime numbers, then m is equal (1) e5+ e6 + e11
to (2) e3+ e5 + e11
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) e3+ e6 + e11
(3) 5 (4) 8 (4) e3+ e6 + e10
x+5 y +4 z-a 68. Let D be the domain of the function
64. Let the lines l1 : = = and l2 :
3 1 -2
®
æ æ 6 + 2 log3 x ö ö
f(x) = sin–1 ç log 3x ç ÷ ÷ . If the range
3x+ 2y + z – 2 = 0 = x – 3y + 2z – 13 be -5x
è è øø
coplanar. If the point P(a, b, c) on l1 is nearest to
of the function g : D ® R defined by g(x) = x – [x],
the point Q(–4, –3, 2), then |a| + |b|+|c| is equal
([x] is the greatest integer function), is (a, b),
to
5
(1) 12 (2) 14 then a 2 + is equal to
b
(3) 10 (4) 8
(1) 46 (2) 135
æ2 3 6 ö
65. Let P ç , ÷ , Q, R and S be four points (3) 136 (4) 45
ç 7 7 ÷ø
è 69. Let y = y(x), y > 0, be a solution curve of the
on the ellipse 9x 2 + 4y 2 = 36. Let PQ and RS differential equation (1 + x2) dy = y (x – y) dx.
be mutually perpendicular and pass through the If y (0) = 1 and y(2 2) = b, then
1 1 p 3b-1
origin. If 2
+ 2
= , where p and q (1) e = e(3 + 2 2)
(PQ) (RS) q
are coprime, then p + q is equal to (2) e
b-1
( )
= e -2 5 + 2
(1) 143 (2) 137

(3) e
b-1
= e (3 + 2 2 )
-2
(3) 157 (4) 147
66. Let a, b, c be three distinct real numbers, none (4) e
3 b-1
= e (5 + 2 )
equal to one. If the vectors ai$ + $j + k,i
$ $ + bj$ + k$
70. Among the two statements
and $i + $j + ck$ are coplanar, (S1) : (p Þ q) Ù (p Ù (: q)) is a contradiction and
(S2) : (p Ù q ) Ú ((~p) Ù q) Ú (p Ù (~q)) Ú ((~p)
1 1 1
then + + is equal to
Ù (~q)) is a tautology
1- a 1- b 1-c
(1) 1 (1) only (S2) is true
(2) – 1 (2) only (S1) is true
(3) – 2 (3) both are false.
(4) 2 (4) both are true

236 E
r r
Let lÎ Z,a = l$i + $j - k
$ and b = 3i$ - $j + 2k.
$ 1 n 1 1 1023
71. 76. If C n + n C n -1 + ... + n C1 + n C 0 =
r n +1 n 2 10
Let c be a vector such that
then n is equal to
r r r r r rr rr
(a + b + c) ´ c = 0, a.c = –17 and b.c = -20. (1) 6 (2) 9
r
( )
Then | c ´ l$i + $j + k$ |2 is equal to (3) 8 (4) 7
77. Let C be the circle in the complex plane with
(1) 62 (2) 46
1
(3) 53 (4) 49 centre z 0 = (1 + 3i) and radius r = 1. Let
2
72. The sum, of the coefficients of the first 50 terms in
z1 = 1+ i and the complex number z2 be outside
the binomial expansion of (1 – x)100, is equal to
the circle C such that |z1 – z0| |z2 – z0| = 1. If z0,
(1) -101 C50 (2) 99
C49
z1 and z2 are collinear, then the smaller value of
®
(3) -99 C 49 (4) 101
C50
|z2|2 is equal to
73. The area of the region enclosed by the curve 13 5
3 (1) (2)
y = x and its tangent at the point (–1, –1) is 2 2
27 19 3 7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 4 2 2
23 31
(3) (4) æ 7 3ö
4 4 78. If the point ç a, ÷ lies on the curve traced
ç 3 ÷ø
è
é 1ù
é 1 2 ù é-1 -2 ù
1
74. Let A = ê 51 ú . If B = ê A , by the mid-points of the line segments of the
ê ú ë -1 -1úû êë 1 1 úû
ë0 1û
æ pö
lines x cos q + y sin q = 7, q Î ç 0, ÷ between
then the sum of all the elements of the matrix è 2ø
50
the co-ordinates axes, then a is equal to
åB
n= 1
n
is equal to
(1) 7
(1) 100 (2) 50 (2) –7

(3) 75 (4) 125
(3) -7 3
75. Let the plane P : 4x – y + z = 10 be rotated by
p (4) 7 3
an angle about its line of intersection with
2 79. Two dice A and B are rolled, Let the numbers
the plane x + y – z = 4. If a is the distance of obtained on A and B be a and b respectively. If
the point (2, 3, − 4) from the new position of p
the variance of a – b is , where p and q are
the plane P, then 35a is q
(1) 90 co-prime, then the sum of the positive divisors
(2) 85
of p is equal to
(3) 105
(1) 36 (2) 48
(4) 126
(3) 31 (4) 72
E 237
80. In a triangle ABC, if cos A + 2 cos B + cos C = 2
85. Let I(x) = ò x+7
x
dx and I(9) = 12 + 7 loge
and the lengths of the sides opposite to the
angles A and C are 3 and 7 respectively, then cos
7. If I(1) = a + 7 loge ( 1 + 2 2) , then a4 is
A – cos C is equal to
equal to__________.
3 9
(1) (2)
7 7 ï 1 2k 2k – 1 ï
86. Let Dk = ï n n +n+2
2
n2 ï.
10 5 ï ï
(3) (4) ï n n2 + n n2 + n + 2 ï
7 7
n
SECTION-B
If åD k = 96 , then n is equal to
81. A fair n (n > 1) faces die is rolled repeatedly k =1
until a number less than n appears. If the mean 87. Let the positive numbers a1, a2, a3, a4 and a5 be
®
n 31
of the number of tosses required is , then n is in a G.P. Let their mean and variance be and
9 10
equal to __________. m
respectively, where m and n are co-prime. If
n
82. Let the digits a, b, c be in A.P. Nine-digit
31
numbers are to be formed using each of these the mean of their reciprocals is and a3 + a4 +
40
three digits thrice such that three consecutive
a5 = 14, then m + n is equal to________.
digits are in A.P. at least once. How many such
88. The number of relations, on the set {1,2,3}
numbers can be formed?
containing (1,2) and (2,3), which are reflexive
83. Let [x] be the greatest integer £ x. Then the
and transitive but not symmetric, is______
number of points in the interval (–2,1), where 0.15
k
the function f(x) = | [x] | + x – [x] is 89. If ò | 100x2 – 1 | dx =
3000
, then k is equal
– 0.15
discontinuous, is________.

84. Let the plane x + 3y – 2z + 6 = 0 meet the to______.
co-ordinate axes at the points A,B,C. If the 90. Two circles in the first quadrant of radii r1 and
6 r2 touch the coordinate axes. Each of them cuts

orthocentre of the triangle ABC is æa, b, ö,
è 7ø off an intercept of 2 units with the line x + y = 2.
then 98 (a + b)2 is equal to______. 2 2
Then r1 + r2 – r1r2 is equal to________.
238 E
SET # 10
PHYSICS 4. The source of time varying magnetic field may be
SECTION-A (A) a permanent magnet
1. Which of the following Maxwell’s equations is (B) an electric field changing linearly with time
valid for time varying conditions but not valid (C) direct current
for static conditions : (D) a decelerating charge particle
ur ur ur ur
(1) Ñò B.dl = m 0 I (2) Ñò E.dl = 0 (E) an antenna fed with a digital signal
ur ur ¶f B ur uuur Choose the correct answer from the options
(3) Ñò E.dl = - ¶t
(4) Ñò D.dA = Q
given below:
2. Different combination of 3 resistors of equal (1) (D) only (2) (C) and (E) only
resistance R are shown in the figures. (3) (A) only (4) (B) and (D) only
®
The increasing order for power dissipation is: 5. Two trains ‘A’ and ‘B’ of length ‘l’ and ‘4l’ are
R travelling into a tunnel of length ‘L’ in parallel
R
(A) tracks from opposite directions with velocities
I R
108 km/h and 72 km/h, respectively. If train ‘A’
R R takes 35s less time than train ‘B’ to cross the
(B) tunnel then, length ‘L’ of tunnel is :

I R
(Given L = 60 l)
R (1) 1200 m (2) 2700 m
(3) 1800 m (4) 900 m
R
(C) I 3 x
R 6. The ratio of powers of two motors is ,
x +1
R R R that are capable of raising 300 kg water in 5
(D) I
minutes and 50 kg water in 2 minutes
(1) PA < PB < PC < PD
respectively from a well of 100 m deep. The

(2) PC < PD < PA < PB
value of x will be
(3) PB < PC < PD < PA (1) 2 (2) 4
(4) PC < PB < PA < PD (3) 2.4 (4) 16
3. A vessel of depth ‘d’ is half filled with oil of 7. A planet having mass 9 Me and radius 4Re,
refractive index n1 and the other half is filled where Me and Re are mass and radius of earth
with water of refractive index n2. The apparent respectively, has escape velocity in km/s given
depth of this vessel when viewed from above by:
will be- (Given escape velocity on earth
(1)
d n1 n 2
(2)
d ( n1 + n 2 ) Ve = 11.2 ´103 m/s)
( n1 + n 2 ) 2n1n 2
(1) 67.2 (2) 16.8
d n1 n 2 2d (n1 + n 2 )
(3) (4) (3) 33.6 (4) 11.2
2(n1 + n 2 ) n1 n 2
E 239
8. The difference between threshold wavelengths 12. Match List – I with List – II
for two metal surfaces A and B having work
List - I List – II
function fA = 9eV and fB = 4.5eV in nm is:
(Layer of (Approximate height
(Given, hc = 1242 eV nm)
atmosphere) over earth’s surface)
(1) 264 (2) 138
(A) F1 - Layer (I) 10 km
(3) 276 (4) 540
(B) D – Layer (II) 170 – 190 km
9. A bullet 10 g leaves the barrel of gun with a
(C) Troposphere (III) 100 km
velocity of 600 m/s. If the barrel of gun is
(D) E-layer (IV) 65 – 75 km
50 cm long and mass of gun is 3 kg, then value
of impulse supplied to the gun will be : Choose the correct answer from the options
(1) 12 Ns (2) 6 Ns given below:
®
(3) 36 Ns (4) 3 Ns (1) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
10. Two charges each of magnitude 0.01 C and (2) A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
separated by a distance of 0.4 mm constitute an (3) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
electric dipole. If the dipole is placed in an (4) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III

r 13. The rms speed of oxygen molecule in a vessel
uniform electric field 'E ' of 10 dyne/C making
r 1
300 angle with E , the magnitude of torque æ 5 ö2

at particular temperature is ç1 + ÷ u, where u
è xø
acting on dipole is :
is the average speed of the molecule. The value
(1) 4.0 ´10-10 Nm (2) 2.0 ´10-10 Nm
22
of x will be:(Take p = )
(3) 1.0 ´10-8 Nm (4) 1.5 ´10-9 Nm 7
11. A disc is rolling without slipping on a surface. (1) 28 (2) 27
The radius of the disc is R. At t = 0, the top (3) 8 (4) 4
most point on the disc is A as shown in figure. 14. A body of mass ( 5 ± 0.5) kg is moving with a

When the disc completes half of its rotation, the velocity of ( 20 ± 0.4) m/s. Its kinetic energy will
displacement of point A from its initial position
be
is
(1) (1000 ± 140 ) J
A (2) (1000 ± 0.14) J
R (3) ( 500 ± 0.14) J
(4) ( 500 ± 140 ) J

(1) R (p 2
+ 4)
15. Two bodies are having kinetic energies in the
(2) R (p 2
+ 1) ratio 16 : 9. If they have same linear momentum,
(3) 2 R the ratio of their masses respectively is :
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 3 : 4
(4) 2R (1 + 4p2 )
(3) 16 : 9 (4) 9 : 16
240 E
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
(1) 1
(A) (B)
Y 0
16.
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
The figure shows a liquid of given density
(2)
flowing steadily in horizontal tube of varying
cross-section. Cross sectional areas at A is

t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
1.5 cm2, and B is 25 mm2, if the speed of liquid
(3) 1
at B is 60 cm/s then (PA – PB) is :
Y 0
(Given PA and PB are liquid pressures at A and
®
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
B points.
(4) 1
Density r = 1000 kg m -3
Y 0
A and B are on the axis of tube
(1) 175 Pa (2) 27 Pa 19. Which graph represents the difference between
(3) 135 Pa (4) 36 Pa total energy and potential energy of a particle
17. Under isothermal condition, the pressure of a executing SHM Vs it’s distance from mean
position?
gas is given by P = aV-3 , where a is a constant
Energy
and V is the volume of the gas. The bulk
modulus at constant temperature is equal to (1)
P
(1) (2) 3 P x
2 –A 0 +A
(3) 2 P (4) P
Energy
18. For the following circuit and given inputs A and

(2)
B, choose the correct option for output ‘Y’
A
x
–A 0 +A
Y
Energy
B
(3)
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
x
–A 0 +A
1
A 0 Energy
(4)
(inputs)
1
x
B 0 –A 0 +A
E 241
20. 238
92 A ®234
90 B + 2 D + Q
4
25. The radius of 2nd orbit of He+ of Bohr’s model
is r1 and that of fourth orbit of Be3+ is
In the given nuclear reaction, the approximate
r2
amount of energy released will be : represented as r2. Now the ratio is x : 1. The
r1
238
[Given, mass of 92 A = 238.05079 ´ 931.5 MeV / c 2 ,
value of x is __________
234
mass of 90 B = 234.04363 ´ 931.5 MeV / c 2 ,
mass of 42 D = 4.00260 ´ 931.5 MeV / c 2 ]
26. A thin infinite sheet charge and an infinite line
charge of respective charge densities +s and
(1) 3.82 MeV
+l are placed parallel at 5 m distance from
(2) 5.9 MeV
3
(3) 2.12 MeV each other. Points ‘P’ and ‘Q’ are at m and
p
(4) 4.25 MeV
4
SECTION - B m perpendicular distance from line charge
p
®
21. The elastic potential energy stored in a steel towards sheet charge, respectively. ‘EP’ and
wire of length 20 m stretched through 2 cm is ‘EQ’ are the magnitudes of resultant electric
80 J. The cross sectional area of the wire field intensities at point ‘P’ and ‘Q’,
2
is__________ mm . EP 4
respectively. If = for 2 s = l . Then the
(Given, y = 2.0 ´ 10 Nm )
11 -2
EQ a
22. A potential V0 is applied across a uniform wire value of a is ____________.

of resistance R. The power dissipation is P1. 27. In the given figure, an inductor and a resistor
The wire is then cut into two equal halves and a are connected in series with a battery of emf E
potential of V0 is applied across the length of Ea

volt. J / s represents the maximum rate at
2b
each half. The total power dissipation across
which the energy is stored in the magnetic field
two wires is P2. The ratio P2 : P1 is x :1 . The
b
(inductor). The numerical value of will be
value of x is ___________. a

23. At a given point of time the value of _________
displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is
L=4H R=25W
given as y = A cos (300). If amplitude is 40 cm
and kinetic energy at that time is 200 J, the
E
value of force constant is 1.0 ´10x Nm -1. The
28. A fish rising vertically upward with a uniform
value of x is ___________.
velocity of 8 ms–1, observes that a bird is
24. When a resistance of 5W is shunted with a
diving vertically downward towards the fish
moving coil galvanometer, it shows a full scale with the velocity of 12 ms-1. If the refractive
deflection for a current of 250 mA, however 4
index of water is , then the actual velocity of
when 1050 W resistance is connected with it in 3
series, it gives full scale deflection for 25 volt. the diving bird to pick the fish, will be
The resistance of galvanometer is ________ W . __________ ms–1.
242 E
29. A solid sphere is rolling on a horizontal plane 32. Given below are two statements:
without slipping. If the ratio of angular Statement-I Permutit process is more efficient
momentum about axis of rotation of the sphere compared to the synthetic resin method for the
to the total energy of moving sphere is p : 22 softening of water.
then, the value of its angular speed will be Statement-II: Synthetic resin method results in
the formation of soluble sodium salts.
___________ rad/s.
30. From the given transfer characteristic of a
transistor in CE configuration, the value of
below:
power gain of this configuration is 10x, for
(1) Both the Statements I and II are correct
RB = 10 k W , and RC = 1 k W . The value of x is
___________.
incorrect
®
I C=(mA)
50
40 correct
30
(4) Both the Statements I and II are incorrect
20
10 33. The mismatched combinations are
(0, 0) IB=(m A) A. Chlorophyll - Co
100 200 300 400 500
CHEMISTRY B. Water hardness - EDTA

SECTION-A -
C. Photography - éë Ag (CN )2 ùû
31. In the reaction given below
Me D. Wilkinson catalyst - éë( Ph3 P )3 RhCl ùû
N E. Chelating ligand – D - Penicillamine
(i) NaOH, D
= O
(ii) H +
' A'
Major Product
given below:
‘A’ is
(1) A and C Only (2) A and E Only
(3) D and E Only (4) A, C and E Only

(1) MeHN COOH
34. In which of the following processes, the bond
Me order increases and paramagnetic character
N changes to diamagnetic one?
(2) OH
(1) O2 ® O22- (2) NO ® NO +
(3) N2 ® N2+ (4) O2 ® O2+
35. The incorrect statement from the following for

(3) borazine is:
(1) It has electronic delocalization
(2) It contains banana bonds.
(4) MeHN CHO (3) It can react with water.
(4) It is a cyclic compound.
E 243
36. Among the following compounds, the one 40. In the following reaction ‘X’ is
which shows highest dipole moment is CH3 ( CH2 )4 CH3 ¾¾¾¾¾
Anhy.AlCl3
HCl, D
®'X
O major product
(1) (2) (1) CH3 (CH 2 )4 CH2Cl
(2) Cl - CH2 - ( CH2 )4 - CH2 - Cl

(3) (4) (3) CH3CH - ( CH2 ) CH3
2
|
37. Match the following CH3
Column –A Column-B
a Nylon 6 I Natural Rubber (4)
b Vulcanized Rubber II Cross Linked
c cis-1,4-polyisoprene III Caprolactam 41. 2-Methyl propyl bromide reacts with C2 H5O-
®
d Polychloroprene IV Neoprene and gives ‘A’ whereas on reaction with
Choose the correct answer from option given C2 H5OH it gives ‘B’. The mechanism followed
below: in these reactions and the products ‘A’ and ‘B’
(1) a ® IV,b-III, c ® II,d ® I respectively are:
(2) a ® III, b ® IV, c ® I,d ® II (1) SN 2. A = iso-butyl ethyl ether; SN 1,
(3) a ® II, b ® III, c ® IV, d ® I B= tert-butyl ethyl ether
(4) a ® III, b ® II, c ® I, d ® IV (2) SN 1, A = tert-butyl ethyl ether; SN 1,
OH B = 2- butyl ethyl ether
(3) SN 1, A = tert-butyl ethyl ether; SN 2,
38. H+ B = iso-butyl ethyl ether
Major product
D (4) SN 2, A =2-butyl ethyl ether; SN 2,
In the above reaction. Left hand side and right B= iso-butyl ethyl ether
hand side rings are named as ‘A’ and ‘B’
(i) HCN
respectively. They undergo ring expansion. The 42. D- (+)- Glyceraldehyde
correct statement for this process is:
(ii) H2O/H+
(1) Finally both rings will become six (iii) HNO3
membered each. The products formed in the above reaction are
(2) Finally both rings will become five (1) Two optically active products
membered each. (2) One optically active and one meso product
(3) Only ‘A’ will become 6 membered. (3) One optically inactive and one meso product.
(4) Ring expansion can go upto seven (4) Two optically inactive products
membered rings 43. Which one of the following is most likely a
39. The radical which mainly causes ozone depletion mismatch?
in the presence of UV radiations is: (1) Zinc- Liquation
· ·
(1) CH3 (2) NO (2) Titanium – van Arkel method
·
· (3) Nickel – Mond process
(3) Cl (4) OH
(4) Copper - Electrolysis
244 E
44. ClF5 at room temperature is a: 47. Which of the following statements are not
(1) Colourless gas with trigonal bipyramidal correct?

geometry. A. The electron gain enthalpy of F is more
(2) Colourless gas with square pyramidal negative than that of Cl
geometry B. Ionization enthalpy decreases in a group of
(3) Colourless liquid with square pyramidal periodic table
geometry C. The electronegativity of an atom depends
(4) Colourless liquid with trigonal bipyramidal upon the atoms bonded to it.
geometry.
D. Al2O3 and NO are examples of amphoteric
45. Be (OH) 2 react with Sr(OH)2 to yield an ionic
oxides.
salt. Choose the incorrect option related to this
reaction from the following:
®
(1) Be is tetrahedrally coordinated in the ionic salt.
(1) A, B, C, and D
(2) The reaction is an example of acid - base
(2) A, C and D Only
neutralization reaction.
(3) Both Sr and Be elements are present in the (3) B and D Only
ionic salt. (4) A, B and D Only

(4) The elements Be is present in the cationic 48. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit
part of the ionic salt. of hydrogen atom is -2.18 ´ 10 -18 J . Its energy
46. In the reaction given below in the third Bohr orbit is________.
1
(1) of this value
27
(2) One third of this value
‘B’ is: (3) Three times of this value

1
(4) th of this value
9
(1) 49. What happens when a lyophilic sol is added to a
lyophobic sol?
(1) Lyophilic sol is dispersed in lyophobic sol.
(2) Film of lyophobic sol is formed over
lyophilic sol.
(3) Lyophobic sol is coagulated
(4) Film of lyophilic sol is formed over
lyophobic sol.
50. The pair of lanthanides in which both elements
have high third –ionization energy is:
(1) Eu, Gd (2) Eu, Yb
(3) Lu, Yb (4) Dy, Gd
E 245
SECTION-B 56. 20 mL of calcium hydroxide was consumed
51. For the given reaction when it was reacted with 10 mL of unknown
CH3 CH3 solution of H2SO4 .Also 20 mL standard
H + solution of 0.5 M HCl containing 2 drops of

CH3 - C - CH - C - CH3 ¾¾¾
D
®
phenolphthalein was titrated with calcium
H 3C OH H hydroxide the mixture showed pink colour
‘A’ when burette displayed the value of 35.5 mL
The total number of possible products formed whereas the burette showed 25.5 mL initially.
by tertiary carbocation of A is _______. The concentration of H2SO4 is ______ M
52. Solution of 12 g of non – electrolyte (A) (Nearest integer)
prepared by dissolving it in 1000 mL of water 57. A certain quantity of real gas occupies a volume
®
exerts the same osmotic pressure as that of of 0.15 dm3 at 100 atm and 500 K when its
0.05 M glucose solution at the same compressibility factor is 1.07. Its volume at 300 atm
and 300K (When its compressibility factor is
temperature. The empirical formula of A is
1.4) is ______ ´10-4 dm3 (Nearest integer)
CH2O . The molecular mass of A is ______ g.
58. t87.5 is the time required for the reaction to
(Nearest integer)
undergo 87.5% completion and t50 is the time
53. 25.0 mL of 0.050 M Ba(NO3 )2 is mixed with
required for the reaction to undergo 50%
25.0 mL of 0.020 M NaF. K sp of BaF2 is completion. The relation between t87.5 and t50
2 for a first order reaction is t87.5 = x ´ t50

0.5 ´ 10 -6 at 298 K. The ratio of éë Ba ùû éë F ùû
2+ -
The value of x is_________ (Nearest integer)

and K sp is _______ (Nearest integer) 59. KMnO4 is titrated with ferrous ammonium
A 2 + B2 ® 2AB. DH0f = -200 kJmol -1 sulphate hexahydrate in presence of dilute

54.
H2SO4 . Number of water molecules produced
AB, A2 and B2 are diatomic molecule. If the
for 2 molecules of KMnO4 is ______.
bond enthalpies of A2 , B2 and AB are in the
60. A metal surface of 100 cm2 area has to be
ratio 1:0.5:1, then the bond enthalpy of A2 is
coated with nickel layer of thickness 0.001mm.
-1
______ kJmol (Nearest integer) A current of 2A was passed through a solution
55. An organic compound gives 0.220 g of CO2 of Ni ( NO3 )2 for ‘x’ seconds to coat the
and 0.126 g of H2O on complete combustion. desired layer. The value of x is ________
(Nearest integer)
If the % of carbon is 24 then the % hydrogen is
( rNi (density of Nickel) is10 gmL-1 , Molar mass
-1
_______ ´10 . (Nearest integer)
of Nickel is 60 gmol -1 F = 96500 C mol -1 )
246 E
MATHEMATICS 67. For the system of linear equations
SECTION-A
2x + 4y + 2az = b
¥
6 x + 2y + 3z = 4
61. ò e3x + 6e2x + 11ex + 6 dx
0
2x - 5y + 2z = 8
æ 512 ö æ 32 ö
(1) loge ç ÷ (2) loge ç ÷ which of the following is NOT correct ?
è 81 ø è 27 ø
(1) It has infinitely many solutions if a =3, b = 6
æ 256 ö æ 64 ö
(3) loge ç ÷ (4) loge ç ÷ (2) It has unique solution if a = b = 6
è 81 ø è 27 ø
(3) It has unique solution if a = b = 8
max ì 1 ü
62. 0£ x £p íî x - 2sin x cos x + 3 sin 3x ýþ = (4) It has infinitely many solution if a = 3, b = 8
68. For the differentiable function
5p + 2 + 3 3 p + 2-3 3
(1) (2) æ1ö 1
6 6 f : ¡ - {0} ® ¡, let 3f (x) + 2f ç ÷ = - 10,
®
èxø x
(3) p (4) 0
63. The set of all a Î ¡ for which the equation æ1ö
then f (3) + f ' ç ÷ is equal to
x | x - 1| + | x + 2 | +a = 0 has exactly one real è4ø
root is : 33
(1) 7 (2)
5
(1) ( -6, -3 ) (2) ( -¥, ¥ )
29
(3) ( -6, ¥ ) (4) ( -¥, -3 ) (3) (4) 13
5
64. The negation of the statement
69. Let the tangent and normal at the point (3 3,1)
( ( A Ù ( B Ú C)) Þ ( A Ú B) ) Þ A is
x 2 y2
(1) equivalent to ~ A (2) equivalent to ~ C on the ellipse + = 1 meet the y-axis at the
36 4
(3) equivalent to B Ú ~ C (4) a fallacy points A and B respectively. Let the circle C be
65. The distance of the point ( -1, 2,3 ) from the drawn taking AB as a diameter and the line
r
plane r.(iˆ - 2ˆj + 3k)
ˆ = 10 parallel to the line of x = 2 5 intersect C at the points P and Q. If
the shortest distance between the lines the tangents at the points P and Q on the circle
r ˆ ˆ ˆ and rr = (2iˆ - ˆj) + m (iˆ - ˆj + k)
r = (i - j) + l(2iˆ + k) ˆ
intersect at the point (a, b) , then a 2 - b2 is
is : equal to
(1) 3 6 (2) 3 5 314 304
(1) (2)
(3) 2 6 (4) 2 5 5 5
(3) 60 (4) 61
66. A coin is biased so that the head is 3 times as
70. The area of the region enclosed by the curve
likely to occur as tail. This coin is tossed until a
head or three tails occur. If X denotes the f (x) = max {sin x,cos x} , -p £ x £ p and the
number of tosses of the coin, then the mean of x–axis is
X is (1) 2( 2 + 1) (2) 2 2( 2 + 1)
21 81 15 37
(1) (2) (3) (4)
16 64 16 16 (3) 4( 2) (4) 4
E 247
r r
71. The number of symmetric matrices of order 3, 76. Let a = î + 4ˆj + 2k,
ˆ b = 3iˆ - 2ˆj + 7kˆ and
with all the entries from the set {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, r r
c = 2iˆ - ˆj + 4kˆ . If a vector d satisfies
7, 8, 9}, is : r r r r rr r
(1) 610 (2) 910
d ´ b = c ´ b and d.a = 24, then | d |2 is equal to
(3) 109 (4) 106 (1) 413 (2) 423 (3) 323 (4) 313
72. Among : é 1 3 aù
77. Let B = ê 1 2 3 ú , a > 2 be the adjoint of a
(S1) : lim
1
( 2 + 4 + 6 + ......... + 2n ) = 1 ëêa a 4 úû
n ®¥ n 2
é a ù
matrix A and |A| = 2, then [a - 2a a]B ê-2aú is
1
(
(S2) : lim 16 115 + 215 + 315 + ......... + n15 =
n ®¥ n
1
16
) êë a úû
(1) Both (S1) and (S2) are true equal to :-

(2) Both (S1) and (S2) are false (1) 16 (2) 32 (3) -16 (4) 0
®
(3) Only (S2) is true 78. Let s1, s2, s3,…..,s10 respectively be the sum to
(4) Only (S1) is true 12 terms of 10 A.P.s whose first terms are 1, 2, 3,
73. Let PQ be a focal chord of the parabola y2 =36x …. , 10 and the common differences are 1, 3, 5,
10
of length 100, making an acute angle with the …. , 19 respectively. Then ås i =1
i is equal to
positive x-axis. Let the ordinate of P be
positive and M be the point on the line segment (1) 7380 (2) 7220
(3) 7360 (4) 7260
PQ such that PM:MQ=3:1. Then which of the
79. Let y = y1(x) and y = y2(x) be the solution
following points does NOT lie on the line
dy
passing through M and perpendicular to the line curves of the differential equation = y+7
dx
PQ?
with initial conditions y1(0)= 0, y2(0)= 1
(1) ( -3, 43) (2) ( -6, 45)
respectively. Then the curves y = y1(x) and
(3) (3,33) (4) (6, 29)

y = y2(x) intersect at
74. For x Î ¡ , two real valued functions f(x) and
(1) Two points
g(x)
(2) no point
are such that, g(x) = x + 1 and
(3) infinite number of points
fog(x) = x + 3 - x. Then f(0) is equal to (4) one point
(1) 1 (2) -3 80. Let the equation of plane passing through the
(3) 5 (4) 0 line of intersection of the planes x + 2y + az = 2
42022 and x - y + z = 3 be 5x - 11y + bz = 6a - 1 . For
75. Fractional part of the number is equal to
15
c Î¢, if the distance of this plane from the
4 1
(1) (2) 2 a+b
15 15 point (a, -c,c) is , then is equal to
a c
14 8
(3) (4) (1) -2 (2) 2 (3) -4 (4) 4
15 15
248 E
SECTION-B 86. The number of seven digit positive integers
81. Let a be the constant term in the binomial formed using the digits 1,2,3 and 4 only and
n sum of the digits equal to 12 is ______.
æ ö
ç 6 ÷ 87. Let m1 and m2 be the slopes of the tangents
expansion of ç x - 3 ÷ , n £ 15. If the sum
ç ÷
è x2 ø drawn from the point P(4,1) to the hyperbola
of the coefficients of the remaining terms in the y2 x 2

H: - = 1 . If Q is the point from which
25 16
expansion is 649 and the coefficient of x - n is
the tangents drawn to H have slopes |m1| and
la, then l is equal to _________.
|m2| and they make positive intercepts a and b
82. If S = ìïíx Î ¡ :sin -1 æç öx +1 -1
æ x ö p üï
÷ - sin ç 2 ÷ = ý,
ïî è x + 2x + 2 ø
2
è x + 1 ø 4 ïþ (PQ) 2
on the x-axis, then is equal to _____.
®
ab
then
æ5 5 8ö
æ æ 2 pö ö 88. Let the image of the point ç , , ÷ in the plane
å ç sin ç ( x + x + 5 ) ÷ - cos ( x + x + 5 ) p ÷
xÎR è è 2 ø
2
ø
( ) è 3 3 3ø
x - 2y + z - 2 = 0 be P. If the distance of the

is equal to _________.
point Q(6, -2, a), a > 0 , from P is 13, then a is
83. Let w = zz + k1z + k 2iz + l(1 + i), k1 , k 2 Î¡.
equal to _______.
Let Re(w) = 0 be the circle C of radius 1 in the
r r r
89. Let a = 3iˆ + ˆj - kˆ and c = 2iˆ - 3jˆ + 3k.
ˆ If b is a
first quadrant touching the line y =1 and the y-
r r r r
axis. If the curve Im ( w ) = 0 intersects C at A vector such that a = b ´ c and | b |2 = 50, then
r r
and B, then 30 (AB)2 is equal to _______. | 72- | b + c |2 | is equal to _______.
84. Let for x Î ¡,S0 (x) = x, 90. Let the mean of the data
x
Sk (x) = C k x + k ò Sk -1 (t)dt, where x 1 3 5 7 9
0
Frequency(f) 4 24 28 a 8
1
C 0 = 1, C k = 1 - ò Sk -1 (x)dx, k = 1, 2, 3…..
0
be 5. If m and s 2 are respectively the mean
Then S2 (3)+6C3 is equal to _______. deviation about the mean and the variance of
85. The sum to 20 terms of the series 3a
the data, then is equal to ________.
2 2 2 2
2.2 – 3 + 2.4 –5 + 2.6 – …… is equal to 2
m + s2
_____.
E 249
SET # 11
PHYSICS
3. In the network shown below, the charge
SECTION-A
accumulated in the capacitor in steady state will
1. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
be:
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R 3V 4W
Assertion A : The binding energy per nucleon is
+ –
practically independent of the atomic number for
6W
nuclei of mass number in the range 30 to 170.
Reason R : Nuclear force is short ranged. 4 mF
correct answer from the options given below 6W
®
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the (1) 7.2 mC (2) 4.8 mC
correct explanation of A (3) 10.3 mC (4) 12 mC
(2) A is true but R is false 4. Given below are two statements :
(3) A is false but R is true Statement I: For a planet, if the ratio of mass
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct of the planet to its radius increases, the escape
explanation of A velocity from the planet also increases.
2. The output from a NAND gate having inputs A Statement II: Escape velocity is independent of
and B given below will be. the radius of the planet.

below
incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-9, 10 & 11.docx"
(1)
incorrect
correct
(2) (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
5. A particle executes SHM of amplitude A. The
distance from the mean position when its's
(3)
kinetic energy becomes equal to its potential
energy is :
(1) 2A (2) 2A
(4)
1 1
(3) A (4) A
2 2
250 E
6. A passenger sitting in a train A moving at 9. In an electromagnetic wave, at an instant and at
90 km/h observes another train B moving in the a particular position, the electric field is along
opposite direction for 8 s. If the velocity of the the negative z-axis and magnetic field is along
train B is 54 km/h, then length of train B is : the positive x-axis. Then the direction of
(1) 80 m (2) 200 m propagation of electromagnetic wave is :
(3) 120 m (4) 320 m (1) at 45º angle from positive y-axis
7. The initial pressure and volume of an ideal gas (2) negative y-axis
are P0 and V0. The final pressure of the gas (3) positive z-axis
when the gas is suddenly compressed to volume (4) positive y-axis

10. The distance travelled by an object in time t is
V0
will be : (Given g = ratio of specific heats at
4 given by s = (2×5)t2. The instantaneous speed of
®
constant pressure and at constant volume) the object at t = 5 s will be :
1 (1) 12.5 ms–1
g
(1) P0 (4) (2) P0(4)g (2) 62.5 ms–1
(3) P0 (4) 4P0 (3) 5 ms–1
8. Given below are two statements: one is labelled (4) 25 ms–1
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as 11. An electron is moving along the positive x-axis.
Reason R If the uniform magnetic field is applied parallel
Assertion A : A spherical body of radius to the negative z-axis. then
(5 ± 0.1) mm having a particular density is A. The electron will experience magnetic force
falling through a liquid of constant density. The along positive y-axis
percentage error in the calculation of its B. The electron will experience magnetic force
terminal velocity is 4%. along negative y-axis

Reason R : The terminal velocity of the C. The electron will not experience any force in
spherical body falling through the liquid is magnetic field
inversely proportional to its radius. D. The electron will continue to move along the
In the light of the above statements, choose the positive x-axis
correct answer from the options given below E. The electron will move along circular path in
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the magnetic field
given below :
(1) B and E only
explanation of A
(2) A and E only
(3) C and D only
(4) B and D only
E 251
12. Two planets A and B of radii R and 1.5 R have 16. Given below are two statements:
densities r and r/2 respectively. The ratio of Statement I : Out of microwaves, infrared rays
acceleration due to gravity at the surface of B to and ultraviolet rays, ultraviolet rays are the most
A is : effective for the emission of electrons from a
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 2 : 1 metallic surface.
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 3 Statement II : Above the threshold frequency,
13. Given below are two statements: the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons
Statement I : An AC circuit undergoes is inversely proportional to the frequency of the
electrical resonance if it contains either a incident light.
capacitor or an inductor. In the light of above statements, choose the
®
Statement II : An AC circuit containing a pure correct answer from the options given below
capacitor or a pure inductor consumes high (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
power due to its non-zero power factor. (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
In the light of above statements, choose the (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
correct answer from the options given below : (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false 17. A 10 mC charge is divided into two parts and
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false placed at 1 cm distance so that the repulsive
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true force between them is maximum. The charges
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true of the two parts are :
14. A vehicle of mass 200 kg is moving along a (1) 9 mC, 1 mC
levelled curved road of radius 70 m with (2) 5 mC, 5 mC
angular velocity of 0.2 rad/s. The centripetal (3) 7 mC, 3 mC
force acting on the vehicle is : (4) 8 mC, 2 mC
(1) 560 N
é a ù
18. In the equation ê X + 2 ú [Y – b] = RT, X is
(2) 2800 N ë Y û
(3) 14 N pressure, Y is volume, R is universal gas
(4) 2240 N constant and T is temperature. The physical
15. To radiate EM signal of wavelength l with high a
quantity equivalent to the ratio is :
efficiency, the antennas should have a minimum b
size equal to : (1) Energy

(2) Impulse
l l
(1) (2)
2 4 (3) Pressure gradient
(3) 2l (4) l (4) Coefficient of viscosity
252 E
19. In a Young's double slits experiment, the ratio 24. In the circuit shown, the energy stored in the
of amplitude of light coming from slits is 2:1. capacitor is n mJ. The value of n is _________.
The ratio of the maximum to minimum intensity
3W 4W
in the interference pattern is : 6 mF
(1) 9 : 4 (2) 9 : 1
12V
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 25 : 9
9W 2W
20. The mean free path of molecules of a certain
gas at STP is 1500d, where d is the diameter of
25. An insulated copper wire of 100 turns is
the gas molecules. While maintaining the
wrapped around a wooden cylindrical core of
standard pressure, the mean free path of the
the cross-sectional area 24 cm2. The two ends of
molecules at 373K is approximately : the wire are connected to a resistor. The total
®
(1) 1098d (2) 2049d resistance in the circuit is 12W. If an externally
(3) 750d (4) 1500d applied uniform magnetic field in the core along
its axis changes from 1.5 T in one direction to
SECTION-B
1.5 T in the opposite direction, the charge
21. A bi convex lens of focal length 10 cm is cut in flowing through a point in the circuit during the
two identical parts along a plane perpendicular change of magnetic field will be ________ mC.
to the principal axis. The power of each lens 26. In an experiment with sonometer when a mass of
after cut is _________ D. 180 g is attached to the string, it vibrates with
fundamental frequency of 30 Hz. When a mass m
22. An atom absorbs a photon of wavelength 500 nm
is attached, the string vibrates with fundamental
and emits another photon of wavelength 600 nm.
frequency of 50 Hz. The value of m is ________g.
The net energy absorbed by the atom in this
27. A light rope is wound around a hollow cylinder
–4
process is n × 10 eV. The value of n is _______. of mass 5 kg and radius 70 cm. The rope is
[Assume the atom to be stationary during the pulled with a force of 52.5 N. The angular
absorption and emission process] acceleration of the cylinder will be ____ rad s–2.
(Take h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js and c = 3 × 108 m/s). 28. A car accelerates from rest to u m/s. The energy
spent in this process is E J. The energy required
23. Three point charges q, –2q and 2q are placed on
to accelerate the car from u m/s to 2u m/s is nE
3
x-axis at a distance x = 0, x = R and x = R J. The value of n is __________.
4
29. Two plates A and B have thermal conductivities
respectively from origin as shown. If q = 2 × 10–6
84 Wm–1K–1 and 126 Wm–1K–1 respectively.
C and R = 2 cm, the magnitude of net force They have same surface area and same
experienced by the charge –2q is _________ N. thickness. They are placed in contact along their
q –2q 2q surfaces. If the temperatures of the outer
x
x=0
3
surfaces of A and B are kept at 100 °C and 0 ºC
4R
respectively, then the temperature of the surface
R
of contact in steady state is ________°C.
E 253
30. A straight wire AB of mass 40 g and length 34. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
50 cm is suspended by a pair of flexible leads in Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.40 T as Assertion A : The diameter of colloidal
shown in the figure. The magnitude of the current particles in solution should not be much smaller
required in the wire to remove the tension in the than wavelength of light to show Tyndall effect.
–2
supporting leads is ________A. (Take g = 10 ms ). Reason R : The light scatters in all directions
when the size of particles is large enough.
CHEMISTRY
®
SECTION-A
31. In the wet tests for detection of various cations
by precipitation, Ba2+ cations are detected by
35. The total number of stereoisomers for the
obtaining precipitate of
complex [Cr(ox)2 ClBr]3– (where ox = oxalate) is:
(1) Ba(ox) : Barium oxalate(2) BaCO3
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4
(3) Ba(OAc)2 (4) BaSO4
36. Better method for preparation of BeF2, among
32. The naturally occurring amino acid that
the following is
contains only one basic functional group in its D
(1) (NH4)2BeF4 ¾¾ ® BeF2
chemical structure is
D
(1) arginine (2) lysine (2) BeH2 +F2 ¾¾ ® BeF2
D
(3) asparagine (4) histidine (3) Be + F2 ¾¾ ® BeF2
33. Given below are two statements related to D
(4) BeO + C + F2 ¾¾ ® BeF2
Ellingham diagram: 37. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
Statement-I : Ellingham diagrams can be Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
constructed for formation of oxides, sulfides node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-9, 10 & 11.docx"
Assertion A : Isotopes of hydrogen have almost
and halides of metals. same chemical properties, but difference in their
0
Statement-II : It consists of plots of DfH vs T rates of reaction.
for formation of oxides of elements. Reason R : Isotopes of hydrogen have different
In the light of the above statements, choose the most enthalpy of bond dissociation.
appropriate answer from the options given below: In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are appropriate answer from the options given below:
incorrect (1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is. correct explanation of A
correct (2) Both A and R are correct and R is the
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct correct explanation of A
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (3) A is not correct but R is correct
incorrect (4) A is correct but R is not correct
254 E
38. Given below are two statements: 42. Match List I with List II
Statement I: Tropolone is an aromatic LIST-I LIST-II
compound and has 8p electrons. A. Weak I. Hexamethylenedia
Statement II: p electrons of >C = O group in intermolecular mine + adipic acid
tropolone is involved in aromaticity. forces of
In the light of the above statements, choose the attraction
correct answer from the options given below: B. Hydrogen II. AlEt3 + TiCl4
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true bonding
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false C. Heavily III. 2–chloro–1, 3-
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true branched butadiene
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false polymer
®
39. Compound A from the following reaction D. High density IV. Phenol +
sequence is: polymer formaldehyde
Br
Br2 ,CS2 H3PO2
NaNO2 /HCl
A ¾¾¾¾
0-5°C
® B ¾¾¾¾¾¾
® C ¾¾¾¾®
D Choose the correct answer from the options
Br Br given below:
(1) Benzoic Acid (2) Phenol (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) Salicylic Acid (4) Aniline (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
40. The major product for the following reaction is:
HO SH
CN (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
S
(1) HO 43. Given below are two statements :
CN
O Statement I: SO2 and H2O both possess
(2) HS CN
V-shaped structure.
C=NH Statement II: The bond angle of SO2 is less
(3)
S OH than that of H2O.
C=NH In the light of the above statements, choose the

(4)
O S most appropriate answer from the options given
41. Which of the following are the Green house below:
gases? (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
A. Water vapour B. Ozone
correct
C. I2 D. Molecular hydrogen
incorrect
options given
(1) B and C only
incorrect
(2) C and D only
(3) A and D only
correct
(4) A and B only
E 255
®
52. 1g of a carbonate (M2CO3) on treatment with 59. Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred
excess HCl produces 0.01 mol of CO2 The cubic lattice with unit cell edge length of 4 Å.
molar mass of M2CO3 is _______ g mol–1. The radius of sodium atom is _____ × 10–1Å
(Nearest integer) (Nearest integer)
53. See the following chemical reaction: 60. Sea water contains 29.25% NaCl and 19%
Cr2O72 - + XH+ + 6Fe2+ ® YCr 3+ + 6Fe3+ + ZH2O MgCl2 by weight of solution. The normal
boiling point of the sea water is _____°C
The sum of X. Y and Z is _______.
(Nearest integer)
54. If the formula of Borax is Na2B4Ox (OH)y·
Assume 100% ionization for both NaCl and
zH2O, then x + y + z = _________.
MgCl2
55. At 298 K, the standard reduction potential for Given : Kb(H2O) = 0.52 K kg mol–1
®
Cu2+ / Cu electrode is 0.34 V. Molar mass of NaCl and MgCl2 is 58.5 and
–20
Given : Ksp Cu(OH)2 = 1 × 10 95 g mol–1 respectively.
2.303RT MATHEMATICS
Take = 0.059V
F SECTION-A
The reduction potential at pH = 14 for the above 61. If the system of equations
couple is (–)x × 10–2 V. The value of x is 2x + y – z = 5
_______. 2x – 5y + lz = m
x + 2y – 5z = 7
56. 20 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added to 50 mL of
has infinitely many solutions, then
0.1 M acetic acid solution. The pH of the
(l + m)2 + (l – m)2 is equal to
resulting solution is ______________ × 10–2
(1) 916 (2) 912
(Nearest integer)
(3) 920 (4) 904
Given : pKa (CH3 COOH) = 4.76 5
62. The coefficient of x in the expansion of
log 2 = 0.30 5
æ 3 1 ö
log 3 = 0.48 çè 2 x - 2 ÷ø is
3x
57. A(g) ® 2B (g) + C (g) is a first order reaction. (1) 8 (2) 9
The initial pressure of the system was found to 80 26
(3) (4)
be 800 mm Hg which increased to 1600 mm Hg 9 3
after 10 min. The total pressure of the system 63. The plane, passing through the points (0, –1, 2)
after 30 min will be ______ mm Hg. and (–1, 2, 1) and parallel to the line passing
(Nearest integer) through (5, 1, –7) and (1, –1, –1), also passes
58. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in through the point.
xh (1) (1, –2, 1) (2) (0, 5, –2)

3s orbital is . The value of .x is
2p (3) (–2, 5, 0) (4) (2, 0, 1)
E 257
64. Let a, b be the roots of the equation cxe - cx
e ax - cos (bx ) -
x 2 - 2 x + 2 = 0 . Then a14 + b14 is equal to 69. If lim 2 = 17 , then 5a2 + b2
x®0
1 - cos (2 x )
(1) – 64 2
is equal to
(2) – 128 2 (1) 72 (2) 76
(3) – 64 (3) 68 (4) 64
(4) – 128
70. Let the centre of a circle C be (a, b) and its
65. Let a1, a2, a3, …. be a G.P. of increasing positive
radius r < 8. Let 3x + 4y = 24 and 3x – 4y = 32
numbers. Let the sum of its 6th and 8th terms be
be two tangents and 4x + 3y =1 be a normal to
1
2 and the product of its 3rd and 5th terms be .
9 C. Then (a – b + r) is equal to
®
Then 6 (a2 + a4) (a4 + a6) is equal to (1) 7 (2) 9
(1) 2 2 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 6
(3) 3 3 (4) 3 71. All words, with or without meaning, are made
66. Let (a, b) be the centroid of the triangle formed using all the letters of the word MONDAY.
by the lines 15x – y = 82, 6x – 5y = – 4 and These words are written as in a dictionary with
9x + 4y = 17. Then a + 2b and 2a - b are the serial numbers. The serial number of the word
roots of the equation MONDAY is
(1) x2 – 7x + 12 = 0 (1) 327 (2) 326
2
(2) x – 13x + 42 = 0 (3) 328 (4) 324
2
(3) x – 14x + 48 = 0
æ x2 ö
2 72. The range of f ( x ) = 4sin -1 ç is
è x 2 + 1÷ø
(4) x – 10x + 25 = 0
r r
67. Let a = 2, b = 3 and the angle between the
(1) [0, p]

r r p (2) [0, 2p)
vectors a and b be . Then
4
(3) [0, p)
r r r r
( )( )
2
a + 2b ´ 2a - 3b is equal to (4) [0, 2p]
73. The statement
(1) 482 (2) 441
(3) 841 (4) 882 ( p Ù (~ q) Ú ((~ p ) Ù q ) Ú ((~ p) Ù (~ q)) is
68. Let N be the foot of perpendicular from the equivalent t
point P (1, –2, 3) on the line passing through the (1) (~ p ) Ú (~ q )
points (4, 5, 8) and (1, –7, 5). Then the distance (2) p Ú (~ q )
of N from the plane 2x – 2y + z + 5 = 0 is
(3) (~ p ) Ú q
(1) 6 (2) 9
(4) p Ú q
(3) 7 (4) 8
258 E
74. The random valuable X follows binomial 79. The line, that is coplanar to the line
distribution B (n, p) for which the difference x + 3 y -1 z - 5
= = , is
of the mean and the variance is 1. If -3 1 5
2P(X = 2) = 3P(X = 1), then n2 P(X > 1) is equal x +1 y - 2 z - 5
(1) = =
to 1 2 5
(1) 12 (2) 15 x +1 y - 2 z - 5
(2) = =
(3) 11 (4) 16 -1 2 5
é1 2 3ù x +1 y - 2 z - 5
(3) = =
75. Let for A = ê a 3 1 ú , |A| = 2. If |2adj (2adj -1 2 4
ê ú
êë 1 1 2 úû x -1 y - 2 z - 5
(4) = =
-1 2 5
(2A))| = 32n, then 3n + a is equal to
p
®
(1) 10 (2) 9 -
p 4
e 4
+ ò e - x tan 50 x dx
(3) 12 (4) 11
0
80. The value of p
is
{ } å
2
76. Let S = Z ÎC : z = i ( z + Re ( z )) . Then
2 z 4
ò e ( tan )
zÎ S -x 49
x + tan 51 x dx
is equal to 0
7 5 (1) 50 (2) 49
(1) (2) 4 (3) (4) 3
2 2 (3) 51 (4) 25
77. The area of the region
SECTION-B
{( x, y): x 2
£ y £ x - 4 , y ³1 is
2
} 81. The mean and standard deviation of the marks of
(1)
3
4
(
4 2 -1 ) 10 students were found to be 50 and
12 respectively. Later, it was observed that two
(2)
4
3
(
4 2 -1 ) marks 20 and 25 were wrongly read as 45 and
50 respectively. Then the correct variance is ___.
(3)
4
3
(
4 2 +1 ) 82. Let A= {–4, –3, –2, 0, 1, 3, 4} and R = {(a, b) Î A
× A : b = |a| or b2 = a + 1} be a relation on A. Then
(4)
3
4
(
4 2 +1 ) the minimum number of elements, that must be
added to the relation R so that it becomes reflexive
78. Let for a triangle ABC,
uuur and symmetric, is_____.
AB = - 2iˆ + ˆj + 3kˆ
uuur 10
CB = aiˆ + b ˆj + g kˆ 83. Let f (x) = å kx k

, x Î R. If 2f(2) + f¢(2)
uuur k= 1
CA = 4iˆ + 3 ˆj + d kˆ = 119(2)n + 1 then n is equal to ______.

If d > 0 and the area of the triangle ABC is 84. Total numbers of 3-digit numbers that are
uuur uuur
5 6 , then CB . CA is equal to divisible by 6 and can be formed by using the
(1) 60 (2) 120 (3) 108 (4) 54 digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 with repetition, is____.
E 259
85. Let [a] denote the greatest integer £ a. Then 88. The foci of a hyperbola are (±2,0) and its
é 1 ù + é 2 ù + é 3 ù + ..... + é 120 ù is equal 3

ë û ë û ë û ë û eccentricity is . A tangent, perpendicular to
2
to. the line 2x + 3y = 6, is drawn at a point in the
86. For x Î (–1, 1], the number of solutions of the first quadrant on the hyperbola. If the intercepts
–1 –1
equation sin x = 2 tan x is equal to made by the tangent on the x- and y-axes are a
87. If y = y (x) is the solution of the differential and b respectively, then |6a| + |5b| is equal
dy 4x x +2 to_____.
equation + 2 y= 5
, x > 1
dx (x - 1)
(x 2 - 1) 2 p
2
æ n k -1 ö æ
n
k -1 ö
89. Let fn = ò0 çè å sin x ÷ ç å (2k - 1) sin x ÷
such that y(2) =
2
9
( )
log e 2 + 3 and y ( 2) = k= 1 ø è k= 1 ø
cosx dx, n Î N. Then f21 – f20 is equal to____.
( )
®
a log e a + b + b - g , a, b, g Î N , then abg
90. The remainder, when 7103 is divided by 17 is
is equal to ____. ___.
260 E
ALLEN®
SET # 12
PHYSICS 5. The half-life of a radioactive nucleus is 5 years,
SECTION-A The fraction of the original sample that would
1. The electric field due to a short electric dipole decay in 15 years is :
at a large distance (r) from center of dipole on 1 1 7 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
the equatorial plane varies with distance as : 8 4 8 4
1 6. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron
(1) r (2)
r having kinetic energy E is l. If the kinetic
1 1
(3) (4) E
r3 r2 energy of electron becomes , then its
4
2. In a linear simple harmonic motion (SHM)
de-Broglie wavelength will be :
(A) Restoring force is directly proportional to
®
l l
the displacement. (1) (2)
2 2
(B) The acceleration and displacement are
(3) 2l (4) 2l
opposite in direction.
7. For designing a voltmeter of range 50 V and an
(C) The velocity is maximum at mean position.
ammeter of range 10 mA using a galvanometer
(D) The acceleration is minimum at extreme points.
which has a coil of resistance 54 W showing a
full scale deflection for 1 mA as in figure.
given below :
(1) (A), (B) and (C) only 1 mA 54W R
G
(2) (C) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B) and (D) only
50 V
1 mA
3. Two identical particles each of mass ‘m’ go G 54W
round a circle of radius a under the action of
r
their mutual gravitational attraction. The
node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-12.docx"
angular speed of each particle will be :

(A) for voltmeter R » 50 kW
Gm Gm
(1) (2) (B) for ammeter r » 0.2 W
2a3 8a3
(C) for ammeter r » 6 W
Gm Gm
(3) (4) (D) for voltmeter R » 5 kW
4 a3 a3
(E) for voltmeter R » 500 W
4. The height of transmitting antenna is 180 m and
the height of the receiving antenna is 245 m. The
maximum distance between them for satisfactory given below :
communication in line of sight will be : (1) (C) and (E)

(given R = 6400 km) (2) (C) and (D)
(1) 48 km (2) 56 km (3) (A) and (C)
(3) 96 km (4) 104 km (4) (A) and (B)
E 261
8. (A flask contains Hydrogen and Argon in the 12. A wire of length ‘L’ and radius ‘r’ is clamped
ratio 2:1 by mass. The temperature of the rigidly at one end. When the other end of the
mixture is 30°C. The ratio of average kinetic wire is pulled by a force f, its length increases
energy per molecule of the two gases by ‘l’. Another wire of same material of length
(K argon/K hydrogen) is: (Given: Atomic
‘2L’ and radius ‘2r’ is pulled by a force ‘2f’.
Weight of Ar = 39.9)
Then the increase in its length will be :
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 2l (2) l
39.9
(3) (4) 39.9
2 (3) 4 l (4) l /2
13. The position of a particle related to time is
Statement I : The equivalent resistance of
given by x = (5t2 – 4t + 5)m. The magnitude of
resistors in a series combination is smaller than
®
velocity of the particle at t = 2s will be :
least resistance used in the combination.
(1) 10 ms–1 (2) 14 ms–1
Statement II : The resistivity of the material is
(3) 16 ms–1 (4) 06 ms–1
independent of temperature.
14. The position vector of a particle related to time t
is given by
r
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true ( )
r = 10tiˆ + 15t 2 ˆj + 7kˆ m
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false The direction of net force experienced by the
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false particle is :
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (1) Positive y-axis
10. A body is released from a height equal to the (2) Positive x-axis
radius (R) of the earth. The velocity of the body (3) Positive z-axis
when it strikes the surface of the earth will be : (4) In x-y plane
(Given g = acceleration due to gravity on the 15. Match List I with List II of Electromagnetic
earth.) waves with corresponding wavelength range :
(1) gR (2) 4gR List I List II
(A) Microwave (I) 400 nm to 1 nm
gR
(3) 2gR (4) (B) Ultraviolet (II) 1 nm to 10–3 nm
2
11. A 12 V battery connected to a coil of resistance (C) X-Ray (III) 1 mn to 700 nm
(D) Infra-red (IV) 0.1 m to 1mm
6 W through a switch, drives a constant current
in the circuit. The switch is opened in 1 ms. The
given below :
emf induced across the coil is 20 V. The
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
inductance of the coil is :
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(1) 5 mH (2) 12 mH
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(3) 8 mH (4) 10 mH
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
262 E
16. A vector in x-y plane makes an angle of 30° SECTION-B
with y-axis The magnitude of y-component of 21. A 20 cm long metallic rod is rotated with
vector is 2 3 . The magnitude of x-component 210 rpm about an axis normal to the rod passing
of the vector will be : through its one end. The order end of the rod is
1 in contact with a circular metallic ring. A
(1) (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 2
3 constant and uniform magnetic field 0.2T
17. The speed of a wave produced in water is given parallel to the axis exists everywhere. The emf
a b c
by u = l g r . Where l, g and r are developed between the centre and the ring is
wavelength of wave, acceleration due to gravity _______ mV.
and density of water respectively. The values of
22
a, b and c respectively, are : Take p =
7
1 1 22. A network of four resistances is connected to
®
(1) , ,0 (2) 1, 1, 0
2 2
9V battery, as shown in figure. The magnitude
1 1
(3) 1, –1, 0 (4) ,0, of voltage difference between the points A and
2 2
18. A thermodynamic system is taken through cyclic B is __________V.
A
process. The total work done in the process is :
2W 4W
D
400
P
(Pa) 100 E 4W 2W
C
B
2 4 9V
V(m3)
23. The fundamental frequency of vibration of a
(1) 100 J (2) 300 J (3) Zero (4) 200 J
string stretched between two rigid support is
19. A single slit of width a is illuminated by a
50 Hz. The mass of the string is 18 g and its
monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm.
linear mass density is 20 g/m. The speed of the
The value of ‘a’ for which first minimum
transverse waves so produced in the string

appears at q = 30° on the screen will be :
is_________ ms–1.
(1) 0.6 m m (2) 1.2 m m
24. As per given figure A, B and C are the first,
(3) 1.8 m m (4) 3 m m
second and third excited energy level of
20. In the given circuit, the current (I) through the
battery will be : hydrogen atom respectively. If the ratio of the
10W D1 æ l ö 7
two wavelengths ç i.e. 1 ÷ is , then the
10W è l 2 ø 4n
D2
10W 10W value of n will be ____________ .
D3 C
I
l2
10V B
l1
(1) 1.5 A (2) 1 A (3) 2.5 A (4) 2 A
A
E 263
25. A solid sphere and a solid cylinder of same CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
mass and radius are rolling on a horizontal
surface without slipping. The ratio of their 31. Match List I with List II:
radius of gyrations respectively (ksph : kcyl) is List-I List-II
2 : x , then value of x is _________ . (Monomer) (Polymer)

(A) Tetrafluoroethene (i) Orlon
26. The refractive index of a transparent liquid
(B) Acrylonitrile (ii) Natural rubber
filled in an equilateral hollow prism is 2 . The
(C) Caprolactam (iii) Teflon
angle of minimum deviation for the liquid will
(D) Isoprene (IV) Nylon-6
be __________°.
27. An electron in a hydrogen atom revolves around
given below :
®
6 –1
its nucleus with a speed of 6.76 × 10 ms in an (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
orbit of radius 0.52 A°. The magnetic field (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
produced at the nucleus of the hydrogen atom is (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
__________T. (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
28. There is an air bubble of radius 1.0 mm in a 32. The product formed in the following multistep
liquid of surface tension 0.075 Nm–1 and reaction is:
density 1000 kg m–3 at a depth of 10 cm below i) B 2H 6
ii) H 2O 2,NaOH
the free surface. The amount by which the CH3– CH = CH2
pressure inside the bubble is greater than the
iii) PCC
iv) CH 3MgBr
atmospheric pressure is________________ Pa
OH
(g = 10 ms–2)
–
29. A block of mass 10 kg is moving along x-axis (1) CH3– CH 2 – CH – CH 3

under the action of force F = 5x N. The work (2) CH3– CH 2 – CH 2 – CH 2 – OH
done by the force in moving the block from x = O node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-12.docx"
–
2m to 4m will be _________J. (3) CH3– CH 2 – C – OCH 3

30. In the given figure the total charge stored in the OH
– –
combination of capacitors is 100 mC. The value CH3– C – CH 3

(4)
of ‘x’ is____________ . CH3
C1 = 2 mF
33. The possibility of photochemical smog formation
will be minimum at
C2 = x mF
(1) Kolkata in October
C3 = 3 mF (2) Mumbai in May
(3) New-Delhi in August (Summer)
V = 10V (4) Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir in January
264 E
®
®
46. For a good quality cement, the ratio of silica to SECTION-B
alumina is found to be 51. The homoleptic and octahedral complex of Co2+
(1) 3 (2) 4.5 (3) 2 (4) 1.5 and H2O has_______unpaired electron(s) in the
47. Which of the following statement is correct for t2g set of orbitals.
paper chromatography ? 52. The volume (in mL) of 0.1 M AgNO3 required
(1) Water present in the mobile phase gets for complete precipitation of chloride ions
absorbed by the paper which then forms
present in 20 mL of 0.01 M solution of
the stationary phase.
[Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 as silver chloride is______
(2) Water present in the pores of the paper
53. The total change in the oxidation state of
forms the stationary phase.
manganese involved in the reaction of KMnO4
(3) Paper sheet forms the stationary phase.
and potassium iodide in the acidic medium
®
(4) Paper and water present in its pores
is________
together form the stationary phase.
48. The major product formed in the Friedel-Craft 54. In Chromyl chloride, the oxidation state of
acylation of chlorobenzene is . chromium is (+)_________

Cl 55. The total number of isoelectronic species from
Cl
the given set is _______
COCH 3 O2– ,F– ,Al ,Mg2+ ,Na+ ,O+ ,Mg ,Al3+ ,F
(1) (2)
56. The vapour pressure of 30% (w/v) aqueous
COCH 3
solution of glucose is_______mm Hg at 25°C.
O CH3
[Given : The density of 30% (w/v), aqueous
Cl
Cl solution of glucose is 1.2 g cm–3 and vapour
pressure of pure water is 24 mm Hg.]
(3) (4) CH3
CH3 (Molar mass of glucose is 180 g mol–1.)
O 57. 20 mL of 0.5 M NaCl is required to coagulate
O O CH 3
200 mL of As2S3 solution in 2 hours. The
49. The complex with highest magnitude of crystal
coagulating value of NaCl is ________
field splitting energy (Do) is
58. For a reversible reaction A B, the
(1) [Cr(OH2)6]3+ (2) [Ti(OH2)6]3+
3+ 3+
DHforward reaction =20 kJ mol–1 . The activation
(3) [Fe(OH2)6] (4) [Mn(OH2)6]
energy of the uncatalysed forward reaction is
50. Which of the following expressions is correct in
300 kJ mol–1. When the reaction is catalysed
case of a CsCl unit cell (edge length’a’)?
keeping the reactant concentration same, the
a
(1) rCs+ + rCl– = (2) rCs+ + rCl– = a rate of the catalysed forward reaction at 27°C is
2
found to be same as that of the uncatalysed
3 a reaction at 327°C. The activation energy of the
(3) rCs+ + rCl– = a (4) rCs+ + rCl– =
2 2
cataysed backward reaction is _____ kJ mol–1.
E 267
59. The number of correct statements from the 63. The mean and standard deviation of
following is ________ 10 observations are 20 and 8 respectively. Later
(A) Conductivity always decreases with on, it was observed that one observation was
decrease in concentration for both strong recorded as 50 instead of 40. Then the correct
and weak electrolytes. variance is:

(1) 14 (2) 13
(B) The number of ions per unit volume that
(3) 12 (4) 11
carry current in a solution increases on
64. Let ABCD be a quadrilateral. If E and F are the
dilution.
mid points of the diagonals AC and BD
(C) Molar conductivity increases with decrease uuur uuur uuur uuur uuuuur
in concentration.
( ) (
respectively and AB - BC + AD - DC = k FE, )
then k is equal to
(D) The variation in molar conductivity is
®
(1) 2 (2) –2
different for strong and weak electrolytes.
(3) –4 (4) 4
(E) For weak electrolytes, the change in molar
65. Let x = x (y) be the solution of the differential
conductivity with dilution is due to decrease
equation 2(y + 2)loge (y + 2)dx + (x + 4 – 2loge
in degree of dissociation.
(y + 2))dy = 0, y > –1 with x (e4 – 2) = 1. Then
60. 30.4 kJ of heat is required to melt one mole of x (e9 – 2) is equal to
sodium chloride and the entropy change at the
4 10 32
–1 –1 (1) (2) (3) (4) 3
melting point is 28.4 J K mol at 1 atm. The 9 3 9
melting point of sodium chloride is _______K 66. Let [x] denote the greatest integer function
(Nearest Integer) and f(x) = max {1 + x + [x], 2 + x, x + 2[x]},
MATHEMATICS 0 £ x £ 2. Let m be the number of points in
SECTION-A [0,2], where f is not continuous and n be the
61. The total number of three-digit numbers, number of points in (0,2), where f is not
divisible by 3, which can be formed using the differentiable. Then (m + n)2 + 2 is equal to:
digits 1, 3, 5, 8, if repetition of digits is allowed, (1) 11 (2) 2
is: (3) 6 (4) 3
(1) 22 (2) 18 67. The number of real roots of the equation
(3) 21 (4) 20
x x - 5 x + 2 + 6 = 0 , is
62. Let S be the set of all values of l, for which the
(1) 5 (2) 3
shortest distance between the lines
(3) 6 (4) 4
x - l y -3 z +6 x +l y z-6
= = and = = is 20
0 4 1 3 -4 0 68. Let (a + bx + cx 2 )10 = å p i x i , a, b, c Î ¥ . If
i= 0
13. Then 8 å l is equal to p1 = 20 and p2 = 210, then 2(a + b + c) is equal to

lÎS
(1) 8 (2) 12
(1) 304 (2) 308
(3) 15 (4) 6
(3) 306 (4) 302
268 E
69. Let the determinant of a square matrix A 75. If (a, b) is the orthocentre of the triangle ABC
of order m be m – n, where m and n satisfy with vertices A(3, –7), B(–1, 2) and C(4, 5),
4m + n = 22 and 17m + 4n = 93. If det
then 9a – 6b + 60 is equal to:
(n adj(adj(mA))) = 3a5b6c. then a + b + c is
(1) 30 (2) 25
equal to:
(1) 96 (2) 101 (3) 40 (4) 35
(3) 109 (4) 84 76. Let the foot of perpendicular of the
70. Let A1 and A2 be two arithmetic means and G1, point P(3, –2,–9) on the plane passing
G2, G3 be three geometric means of two distinct through the points (–1, –2, –3), (9, 3, 4), (9, –2, 1)
positive numbers. The G14 + G 24 + G34 + G12 G 32 is be Q (a, b, g). Then the distance of Q from the
equal to origin is:
®
(1) 2(A1 + A 2 )G1G 3 (2) (A1 + A2 )2 G1G3 (1) 29 (2) 35
(3) (A1 + A 2 )G12G32 (4) 2(A1 + A 2 )G12G32 (3) 42 (4) 38

77. A bag contains 6 white and 4 black balls. A die
ì æ z - z + zz ö ü
71. If the set í Re ç ÷ : z Î £, Re(z) = 3ý is is rolled once and the number of balls equal to
î è 2 - 3z + 5z ø þ
equal to the interval (a,b], then 24 (b - a) is the number obtained on the die are drawn from
equal to the bag at random. The probability that all the
(1) 36 (2) 42 balls drawn are white is:
(3) 27 (4) 30 1 9
(1) (2)
72. The number of common tangents, to the circles 4 50
x2 + y2 – 18x – 15y + 131 = 0 and
1 11
x2 + y2 – 6x – 6y – 7 = 0, is : (3) (4)
5 50
(1) 3 (2) 2
78. If
(3) 1 (4) 4
1 1 æ a + 1ö
73. Negation of p Ù (q Ù ~ (p Ù q)) is 1
ò0 dx = log e ç ÷,
( 5 + 2x - 2x ) (1 + e
2 ( 2 - 4x )
) a è b ø
(1) : ( p Ú q ) (2) p Ú q 4 4
a, b > 0, then a – b is equal to:
(3) (~ (p Ù q)) Ù q (4) (~ (p Ù q)) Ú p
(1) 21 (2) 0
74. Let the system of linear equations
(3) 19 (4) –21
–x + 2y – 9z = 7
–x + 3y + 7z = 9 79. Let S be the set of all (l, m) for which the
–2x + y + 5z = 8 vectors lî - ˆj + k,

ˆ î + 2jˆ + mkˆ a n d 3iˆ - 4jˆ + 5k,
ˆ
–3x + y + 13z = l
where l – m = 5, are coplanar,
has a unique solution x = a, y = b, z = g. Then 2 2
then å 80(l + m ) is equal to :
the distance of the point (a, b ,g) from the ( l,m )ÎS
plane 2x – 2y + z = l is (1) 2370 (2) 2130
(1) 9 (2) 11
(3) 2290 (4) 2210
(3) 13 (4) 7
E 269
80. If the domain of the function 84. Let an ellipse with centre (1, 0) and latus rectum
( )
f (x) = log e 4x 2 + 11x + 6 + sin –1 of length
1
have its major axis along x-axis. If
2
10x + 6 ö
( 4x + 3) + cos –1 æç ÷ is (a, b], its minor axis subtends an angle 60° at the foci,
è 3 ø
Then 36 | a + b| is equal to : then the square of the sum of the lengths of its
(1) 63 (2) 45 minor and major axes is equal to___
(3) 72 (4) 54 85. L et A = { 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 } a n d R b e a
SECTION-B r e l at i on o n t h e s e t A × A d e f i n ed b y
81. If the sum of the series R= {(( a, b ) , ( c,d )) : 2a + 3b = 4c + 5d} . Then
æ 1 1ö æ 1 1 1ö the number of elements in R is:
®
ç - ÷+ç 2 - + 2 ÷+
è 2 3ø è 2 2.3 3 ø
86. The number of elements in the set
æ 1 1 1 1ö { n Î ¥ :10 £ n £ 100 and 3n – 3 is a multiple of

ç 3- 2 + 2
- 3 ÷+
è2 2 .3 2.3 3 ø
7} is____
æ 1 1 1 1 1 ö a
ç 4- 3 + 2 2- 3+ 4 ÷ + .... is , 87. If the line x = y = z intersects the line x sin A +
è2 2 .3 2 .3 2.3 3 ø b
y sin B + z sin C – 18 = 0 = x sin 2A + y sin 2B
where a and b are co-prime, then a + 3b is
+ z sin 2C – 9, where A, B, C are the angles of a
equal to….
æ A B Cö
82. A person forgets his 4-digit ATM pin code. But triangle ABC, then 80 ç sin sin sin ÷ is
è 2 2 2ø
he remembers that in the code all the digits are equal to_____
different, the greatest digit is 7 and the sum of 88. If the area bounded by the curve 2y 2 = 3x,
the first two digits is equal to the sum of the last lines x + y = 3, y = 0 and outside the circle (x–3)2
two digits. Then the maximum number of trials + y2 = 2 is A, then 4 (p + 4A) is equal to___
89. Consider the triangles with vertices A(2, 1)

necessary to obtain the correct code is____
B (0, 0) and C (t, 4), t Î [0, 4]. It the maximum
83. Let the plane P contain the line
and the minimum perimeters of such triangles
2x + y – z – 3 = 0 = 5x – 3y + 4z + 9 and be
are obtained at t = a and t = b respectively, then
x + 2 3- y z -7
parallel to the line = = . Then 6a + 21b is equal to____
2 -4 5
dx 2
the distance of the point A(8, –1, –19) from the 90. Let f (x) = ò ,x < .
( 3 + 4x )
2
4 - 3x 2 3
plane P measured parallel to the line
1 æaö
x y-5 2-z If f(0) = 0 and f (1) = tan -1 ç ÷ , a, b > 0,
= = is equal to____ ab èbø
-3 4 -12
then a2 + b2 is equal to____
270 E
ANSWER KEY
SET-01
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 1 2 4 1 2 2 2 3 3 4 1 2 3
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 2 3 4 3 50 25 2 628 420 425 25 240 176 3
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 4 1 1 2 3 4 4 4 2 4 4 1 4 1
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 4 3 1 1 7 9 2 1111 10 3 4 2 1 6
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 2 4 2 4 3 1 4 4 4 3 1 1 1 1
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
®
Ans. 1 2 4 1 2 25 121 3483638676 5 3 2 5005 18 594 292
SET-02
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 1 3 3 1 4 3 1 4 4 4 3 3 4 4
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 1 2 2 20 11 5 5 99 4 462 375 16 40
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 1 4 4 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 3 1 4 3
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 3 2 2 3 4 49 4 3 5 4 278 4 6 3
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 3 4 Drop 1 4 4 1 2 3 2 4 2 4 2
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 1 4 3 2 3 0 4 18 400 423 5 2 5 2 25
SET-03
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 4 2 2 4 4 4 1 1 4 1 2 3 2 1
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 2 1 3 4 18 18 125 1 900 10 9 2 25 121
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 2 4 2 2 2 4 3 3 2 4 1 4 3 2
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 Drop 4 4 3 70 3 1200 2 82 11 11 2 3 1
(Drop f or Hindi M ed ium)
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 4 3 1 2 2 3 1 3 1 2 1 1 1 1 3
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 1 4 1 2 1 14 1275 11 31 5 19 2 3 9 25
E 271
SET-04
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 1 3 4 1 4 1 3 4 3 1 3 3 2 3
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 1 1 4 4 4 60 27 125 4 75 30 6 30 8
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
NTA (1)
Ans. 3 3 2 3 3 4 4 2 2 4 1 2 1 A llen (4) 3
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 4 4 2 1 233 556 3 1411 4 8 10 4 1 6
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 3 3 4 3 1 4 3 1 4 Drop 2 4 1 3 2
®
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
NTA (6)
Ans. 1 2 4 2 4 A llen (B onus) 309 150 20 9 16 12 11 180 17
SET-05
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 4 3 3 2 3 3 4 3 2 4 3 3 2 3
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
NTA (+245)
Ans. 3 2 1 1 1 30,60 Allen (–245)
16 6 18 20 15 5 100 20
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
NTA (Drop)
Ans. 4 1 2 3 1 Allen (1) 3 3 1 1 4 4 1 1 4
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 1 4 3 2 3 3 2 0 5 1825 30 3 1567 1
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 3 2 3 1 4 4 1 1 2 3 1 3 1 2
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
NTA (16)
Ans. 2 2 3 1 1 960 4 9525 32 4898 Drop Allen (Bonus)
151 16 6
SET-06
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 1 4 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 4 3 3 2 2
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 3 4 4 1 44 20 3668 80 2 34 3 3 48 8
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 4 4 4 2 1 3 2 2 3 4 4 2 1 4
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 4 4 3 2 3 3 4 4 2 40535 4 1 66 1
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
NTA (4)
Ans. 1 2 4 1 1 A llen (B onus)
4 4 2 2 3 3 4 4 1
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 1 1 3 2 1 529 24 7 11 5 16 24 26664 6 27
272 E
SET-07
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 3 4 1 2 1 1 3 1 2 4 1 1 4
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 2 2 2 3 3 4 1152 32 300 35 2 8 80 1
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 4 1 2 3 4 1 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 1
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 3 3 2 1 44 1 4 2 7 4 36 333 75 2
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
NTA (3)
Ans. 4 4 2 2 4 2 4 4 3 1 1 1 1 Allen (Bonus)
4
®
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 3 1 4 3 3 2736 2175 32 44 5 171 7 306 51 2
SET-08
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 2 2 3 2 2 1 2 1 2 3 1 2 3 1
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 4 Bonus 3 2 4 3 2 5 300 625 150 80 264 98
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 3 2 1 1 1 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 4 1
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 4 4 1 2 2 1 3 3 4 6 4 3 224 4
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 4 Drop 3 3 1 4 1 3 2 4 1 1 3 4
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 2 1 2 2 2 2 27 285 1680 2 360 116 11 348 16
SET-09
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 4 1 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 4 2
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 1 3 2 4 1 2 243 50 784 4 15 100 4 160
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 4 2 2 1 4 2 1 1 2 1 1 1 4 1
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 2 3 1 4 3 60 10 9000 25 48 15 4 3 3
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 3 2 3 3 1 3 Drop 1 4 2 3 1 1 4
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
NTA (944)
Ans. 2 2 1 2 3 10 A llen (1260)
2 288 64 6 211 3 575 7
E 273
SET-10
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 4 2 1 3 4 2 2 2 2 1 4 1 1 4
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 4 4 4 40 16 4 50 2 6 25 3 4 3
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 4 1 2 2 1 4 1 3 3 1 2 1 3 4
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
NTA (2)
Ans. 3 Allen (1 & 4, Bonus)
4 4 2 5 240 5 800 56 1 392 3 68 161
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
NTA (Drop)
Ans. 2 1 2 1 3 1 1 4 2 4 4 1 1 Allen (3 or Bonus)
2
®
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 1 3 4 2 3 36 4 24 18 1310 413 8 15 66 8
SET-11
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 1 1 2 3 4 2 4 2 4 1 3 1 1 2
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 1 2 2 5 4125 5440 75 60 500 15 3 40 2
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 3 4 3 2 1 2 2 4 1 4 2 2 4 1
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 1 2 1 2 40 100 23 17 25 458 2200 0 17 116
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 3 3 4 4 2 4 3 3 1 1 2 1 3 4
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 2 2 1 2 1 269 7 10 16 825 2 6 12 41 12
SET-12 node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\02_April\SET-12.docx"
PHYSICS
Q.No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 1 3 4 3 3 3 1 2 1 4 2 3 1 2
Q.No. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 1 2 2 1 88 3 90 5 5 30 40 1150 30 5
CHEMISTRY
Q.No. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 1 1 4 4 4 2 1 1 2 4 2 3 4 4 1
Q.No. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
NTA (1)
Ans. 1 2 1 Allen (4) 3 1 4 5 6 5 23 50 130 3 1070
MATHEMATICS
Q.No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 1 3 2 3 3 4 2 2 1 2 4 1 4 4 2
Q.No. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 3 3 1 3 2 7 72 26 9 6 15 5 42 48 28
274 E

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S.NO. SUBJECT NAME PAGE NO.

2. SESSION 2 137 – 274

S.NO. CONTENT PAGE NO.

11. SET-11 109

12. SET-12 121

13. ANSWER KEY 133

which of these are correct (1) 1/4 (2) 1

(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true π

can throw a ball is 136 m. The maximum value of x is ____________ .

circular loop at 0.25 s is:

27. Solid sphere A is rotating about an axis PQ. If (3)

(4) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II

OCH3 A. Liquid water

node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\01_January\SET-1 & 2.docx"

D. Only solvent molecules solidify at the of k than at higher temperature.

curve xy = 2 at the points A and B. Then the

mid points of such line segments AB lie on a

60. Number of moles of AgCl formed in the (2) directrix 4x = –3

fair die is rolled. If the probability that the

sin 2 t of k and all possible values of N is

 1+ 3   8+ 4 3  72. Let 𝛼 be a root of the equation

(2) A2B = I logyx, 3logzy, 7logxz are in A.P. with common

equation x3 dy + (xy – 1) dx = 0, x > 0, 75.

(S2) : If P (A) = 1, then A = Ω

(3) both (S1) and (S2) are true x − 2 y +1 z − 6 x − 6 1− y z + 8

following is correct in case of their De-Broglie

The ratio of displacement to distance travelled correct explanation of A

(3) 1:2 (4) 1:3

24. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the

25. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the

(3) – 3 (4) 2 will be _______W.

p (mm Hg) 50 100 200 400

29. A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and focal

node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\01_January\SET-1 & 2.docx"

15 times more air than food

45. Given below are two statements :

In the light of the above statements, choose the

vNaOH (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are

8x + 4y – λz = 9 + µ P2 : 2x + y + z = 2 pass through the points

triangle ABC are π 2π

(1) 3λ0 5. Assume that the earth is a solid sphere of

(2) 9λ0 uniform density and a tunnel is dug along its

( O ) and helium nucleus ( He ) is

bias usually for measuring the light intensity. (1) l =6.8 m

Br2 NaNO2/HCl H PO /H O (i) KMnO4/KOH

correctly represented by graph Me COOH

phosphorus forms a compound [A], which on

(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the

H2O2. Q → Al3+, Fe3+ (ii) (NH4)2CO3 in presence of NH4OH

for energy. This is equivalent to 1800 kJ of gaseous state ?___________

[Given : pKb(NH3) = 4.745 58. In sulphur estimation. 0.471 g of an organic

The molar mass of PVC is___________g mol–1 [Fe(CN)6]4–, [Cu(NH3)4]2+

If the potential of the cell is 0.712 V the ratio of

(3) 2 3 (4) 14 has real roots, is ____ .

given below: 5. The graph between two temperature scales P

volume where the molecule has one additional

3. The light rays from an object have been

reflected towards an observer from a standard

  2 times the force required to just prevent it from

(1) 0.33 (2) 0.60

node06\B0BC-BD\Kota\JEE(Main)\JEE Main 2023 Test Papers (Booklet)\Eng\01_January\SET-3 & 4.docx"

to . 1. Then the serial number of 35337 is_.

298 K, the ratio  Fe 2 +  /  Fe3+  is _. change in internal energy is _____ J.