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Physics exam- variants
1. The fundamental force which is responsible for chemical bonds between atoms is
- Electromagnetic force
2. Alpha particles gain 29 keV energy at 10kV potential difference. It happens because alpha
particle has
- two electrons
- two positrons
- at least one proton
- at least one electron
- two protons
- one positron
- at least one neutron
- two neutrons - fel
3. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle state that

- The more preciselt the position of some particle is determined, the less precisely
its momentum can be known, and vice versa.
4. The magnitude of the electric force between two charges is directly proportional to the
magnitude of the charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between
them.
- Coulomb's force
5. Electron has nature of both wave and particle

- True
6. Piezoelectricity means
- Voltage resulting from pressure
7. A fluid with larger viscosity resists motion because its molecular makeup gives it a lot of
internal friction
- True
8. Which is true
- If a thin capillary tube be replace with another tube of insufficient length, then water will
change its meniscus
- Capillarity is explained by cohesion and adhesion.
- If the adhesion is greater than cohesion, then liquid will try to minimize the contact area
with the surface.
- All answers are correct
9. Viscosity increases when intermolecular forces between liquid’s molecular decrease.

- False
10. The half-life of Zn-71 is 2.4 min If one had 100.0 g at the beginning. How many grams would
be left after 7.2 min have elapsed?
- 12.5 g
11. Alpha particles are

- Light does not travel far fel
- Heavy does not travel far
- Heavy travels far
- Light travels far
12. A sample contains radioactive material with a half-life of 3.5 days. After 2 weeks of the
fraction of the radioactive material remaining is
- 6%
13. Sound and light waves both

- Have similar wavelength
- Travel as longitudinal waves fel
- Travel through vacuum
- Obey the laws of reflection
14. The light dispersion is:

- Light refractive index dependence on the wavelength
15. Refractive index of a material is

- Light refractive index dependent on the light intesitiy fel
- light refractive index dependence on the wavelength
- Light emission from hydrogen atom
- The ability to bypass light waves around abstacles
16. Conduction is an example of

- Heat transfer
17. What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system?

- Kelvin scale
18. In which thermodynamic process the pressure remains constant?

- Isochronic process
19. Soft x-rays have

- Lower energy than hard x-rays
20. To make sure that the scattered x-rays will reach the detector screen, the anode inside the
lamp has to be aligned
- At an agle to the cathode and detector screen
21. A good x-ray source should produce x-rays of narrow beam and
- Parallell x-rays.
22. Larmor frequency depends upon the

- both individuell nucleus and magnetic flux density fel
- individual nucleus
- magnetic flux density
- energetic flux unit
23. If an electromahnetic wave has frequency f=10^14 hz and speed v=100 m/s what is its
wavelength? lamba=v/f
- 10^-12 m
24. Lorenz force acts on

- moving charge particles in an external magnetic field.
25. What is the electromagnetic spectrum range in wavelengths where proteins, and nucleic
acids absorb ultraviolet light?
- 260-280 nm
26. What is and isotope?

- Isotope is an atom having nuclei with the same number of protons but different
numbers of neutrons
27. The disease which can probably cured using the elcetroconvuslive therpay is
- Depression
28. When solution concentration increases

- The optical density increases
29. What kind of light is obtained cia polarization-

- Parallely or perpendiculary polarized light
30. If the material has increased refrative index, that means

- The speed of the light will be decreased
31. Photomultiplier is a device which

- converts electrical energy
- converts electromaghentic enery to electrical energy
- converts electrical energy to light energy fel
- converts one type of electric energy to other type of electric energy
32. Changing from a 2 MHz to a 5 Mhz ultrasound transducer would generally produce:
- Shorter wavelength
33. What is the sound in the range above 20 000 hertz?

- Ultrasound
34. As an ultrasound pulse moves through tissues in a patient’s body it will undergo a change in:
- Intensity
35. According to wiens displacment law, which of these spectral lines corresponds to black body
at highest temperature? *there is a pic of a graph*
A having the maximum wavelgth, D- having the minimum waveltgh
- D
36. With the increase of bodys temp. the radiation waveleght decreases. This law is called:
- Wiens displacement law
37. Kirchoff’s law of thermal radiation states that

- At thermal equilibrium, the emissity of a body or surface its absoriptivity
38. Decreasing the radius of a tube by ½ reduces the gas flow to ____ of its orginial flow
- ¼
39. According to Bernoull’s law, if the speed of laminar flow increases, then its internal pressure
- Decreases
40. The flow becomes more turbulent if

- The viscosity of liquid decreases
- Both answers are correct
- The speed of flow increases
41. De Bonglie hypothesis states that

- photons can be described only as waves fel
- electrons can be described as particles
- particles can travel act like waves
- particles can act like waves
42. The Gelger- Marsden (Rutherdord) experiment provides evidence for

- A dense positively charged nucelues
43. Collumbs law:

- Describes electrostatic interactions
- Force between charge is protportional to mulplication of charge values and
inversly proportional to the distance between charges fel
- States that opposite charges attract and similar repel each other fel
- All and are correct
44. The EGC does not ensures

- Blood flow of ehart
45. capacirtance is
- The ability of a body to store an electrical charge
46. Which is true

- Viscositt is a resistance to a flood…
- As attraction between particles…
- In an ideal liquid …
- All ans are correct
47. A fluid with large viscosity

- True
48. Viscosity describes liquids .. dritcito of resistance to flow

- True
49. A radioactive isotioe has an activity of 400 Bq and a half life of 8 days. After 32 days the
activity of the sample is
- 25 Bq
50. The half life of Zn-71 is 2.4 min. If one had 100.0 g at the beginning, hiw many grams would
be left after 7.2 min have elapsed?
- 12.5 g
51. Which answer most precisly describes the annihilation reaction?
- It is a production of gamma rays during matter and antimatter collision.
52. In the Rayleigh scattering, the meaning of it and scatterd light intesity is;
- Inversely proportional to wavelength of four degree, explains why the sky is blue.
53. Several waves with vibrations hamonized in time and space are called:
- Coherent waves
54. Conduction is an example of

- Heat transfer
55. Item which consist of fixed amout of mass and no mass can cross it boundry called
- Closed system
56. Specific heat capacity measures

- The amount of energy required to increase the temperature of a substance
57. As the x-rays pass through matter, their intesity

- Decreases
58. Comparing to the soft tissue, bones appear white in x-rat photography because
- They are good absorobers of x-rays.
59. The angular frequency of precission of protons in an external magnetic field (MRI method) is
called
- Linar frequency fel
- Larmor frequency
- Higher frequency
- Lower frequency
60. What is the function of the iontophoresis?

- Drug passage through the skin by the application of a low density electrical
current.
61. When does the photoelectric process occur?

- When a photon interacts with a tightly bound electron (which escapes the atom
later)
62. What does NMR abbreviation in field of medicine stands for

- Nuclear magnetic resonance
63. Physical phenomena, when the short wavelenght are scattered more than the large
wavelength is
- Rayleigh scattering
64. Polarised light is characterised as

- A wave, where electric field component and magnetic field component oscillatates
in perpendicular planes
65. Feedback system is a system where

- ourputs is affecting it’s input
66. The frequency which is not audible to the human ear (most of population) is
- 500 Hz
- 50000 Hz
- 50 Hz fel
- 5000 Hz
67. What are sound waves in the range above 20 000 hertz?
- Ultrasound
68. Changing from a 2 MHz to a 5 MHz ultrasound transducers would generally perducer
- Shorter wavelength
69. Stefan Boltzman law states that

- Energy of thermal radiation is inversely proportional to temperature of radiating
object in power of 4.
70. Wien's displacement law stated that

- In the case of black body, radiation maximum will switch to longer wavelnegth
when temp of body increase
71. Decreasing the radius of a tube by ½ reduces the gas flow to ___ of its orignal flow
- 1/16
72. The diagram shows four possible electron energy levels in the hydrogen atom. The nr of
different frequences in the emission spectrum of atomoc hydrogen that arise from electron
transitions between these levels is
- 6
73. In order to determine the oxygen concentration in the blood you will use:
- Pulseocimetry
74. Paricle which has no charge

- Neutron
75. A person is lying down in bed. Artieral stenosis is developed in artery. Radiuss of normal
artery Rart is 1 cm and radiuss of stenosis Rsten is 0,4 cm. Blood flow velocity in arteries is Vart
and in stenosis Vsten. Part and Psten is accordingly pressure in artery and stenosis. In the
conditions of stenosis, which of the answers is correct?
- P art <Psten and Vart <Vsten
- Part<Psten and Vart>Vsten fel
- Part>Psten and Vart>Vsten
- Part >Psten and Vart<Vsten
76. If the speed of flow increases, then the pressure
- Decreases
77. Surfacants decrease surface tension

- True
78. SI unit for eqvivalent doese is

- Sv (sievert)
79. A freshly prepared sample contains 4.0 ug of iodine-131. After 24 days, 0,5 ug of iodine-131
remain. The best estimate of the half-life of iodine-131 is
- 8 days
80. Refractive index of a material is:

- Light emission from hydrigen atom fel
- the ability to bypass light waves around obstacles
- light refractive index dependence on the wavelength
- light refractive index dependence on the light intensity
81. The intitaite the atom and its electron from a lower energy level to a higher one, it is a
necessery to give the atom the amount of energy which
- is equal to the energy difference between these levels
- is equal to the multiplication of the energies in these levels
- is equal to the sum of energies of these levels fel
- is equal to the ratio between the energy levels
82. Select one

- Kelvin scale
83. Heat is
- The transfer of energy from hot to cold
84. The electromagnetic wave attentistion coefficient is

- the wavelegth of x-ray photons fel
- the ratio between the speed of light in a vaccuum and speed of light in transperent
medium
- the fraction of a beam of x rays or gamma raqys that is sbsorbed or scattered per unit
thickness of the absorber.
- the frequency of x- ray photons
85. If fast moving electrons rapidly declerate, then the electromagentic waves produces are
- X-rays
86. Soft x-rays have

- Lower energy than hard x rays
87. A particle of charge 0,04 C is projected with speed 2*10^4 m/s into uniform magentic field B
of strength 0,5 T. ….
- 400 N
88. Where agarose gel electrophoresis is used

- evaluate mobility ions fel
- detetect lenth of dna
- deliver a medicine through skin
89. At what approc frewuncy mobile cell phones in Europe usually operate?
- 900 MHz, microwave range
90. Physical phenomena, when the short wavelengths are scatteraed more thsn the large
wavelentgh is
- Rayleight scattering
91. When then light intensity decreases, the size of the eye pupil
- decreases fel
- is not affected
- increases
92. What are sound waves in the range above 20 000 hertz
- ultrasound
93. Scanning laser polarimetry measures

- The thickness of the retinal nerve fiber layer
94. If the material has decreased refractive index, that means

- The wavelentgh of the light travelling thorugh that material will be increased
95. As an ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a pateints body, it will undergo a changes in
- Instensity
96. According to Bernoulls law, if the speed of laminar flow increases then its internal pressure
of it
- Decreases
97. According to Bernoulls law, if the speed of laminar flow decreases, then its internal pressure
- Increases.
98. Particle which has no charge

- Netron
99. The charge of all elemental particle in the nucleus of an atom - the proton charge - is called
negative, and the electron charge is positive
- False
100. An Alpha particle is accelerated through a potential difference of 10kV. Its gain in kinetic
energy is
- 10 eV
- 20 keV
- 10 keV
- 20 ev
101. To initiate the atom and its electrons from a lower energy level to a higher one, it is
necessery to give the atom the right amount of energy which
- is equal to the sum of energies of these levels
- is equal to the multiplication of the energies in these levels fel
- is equal to the energy difference between these levels
- is equal to the ratio between the energy levels
102. Which one of the following materials is the best insulator?

- Rubber
103. Newtonian fluid is any fluid exhibiting a linear reaction between the applied shear stress
and the rate of deformation.
- True
104. In an ideal liquid there would be no viscosity

- True
105. The spectrum observed when white light is shone through a prism is best explained by:
- dispersion
106. When heat is absrbed

- molecules move more rapidely
107. Which of the following is true concerning magnetic forces and fields?
I. The magnetic field lines due to a current-carrying wire radiate away from the wire.
II. The kinetic energy of a charged particle can be increased by a mganetic force.
III. A charged particle can move through a magnetic field without feeling a magnetic force.
- III only
108. How is the application of low density electrical current called which faciliates drug passage
through the skin?
- Iontopheresis
109. Which given particles in the answer has the highest penetrtion ability?
- Gamma photon
110. The light is

- Transverase wave
111. When light hits the surface at the Brewster angle, there is
- 90° angle between the reflected ray and the refracted ray.
112. What photon can’t do

- It can teleport through matter
113. The sound is

- Longitudinal wave
114. What is part of the control process? Check the following statements:
1. The parameter to be controlled. This …
2. A means of moniotoring the parameter…
3. Some reference calue to which…
4. A method for comparing the state of the parmeter…
5. A mechanism for translating the messages into actions that…
- All statements are correct
115. The Geiger-Marsderutherford experiment provides for

- A dense positivly charged nucleus
116. Which statements about the solenoid is true

- A solneoid emittd visible light at low temperature.
117. Poseulle’s law explains the effect of three factors on peripheral blood vessel flow resistance.
Accroding to this law:
- The smaller the radius of a vessel, the higher the resistance to blood flow.
118. Kinematic viscosity

- Is the ratio between dynamic viscosity and density of the liquid.
119. Viscosity describes liquid’s inne friction or resistance to flow

- True
120. Alpha decay is a type of radioactive decay in which an atomic nucleus emits one proton and
one netron
- False
121. Which answers most precisly descibe annihilation reaction?

- It is a production of gamma rays during matter and antimatter collision
122. A reflected beam lies in the same plane as the incident beam:
- True
123. Light dispersion in the substance (prism) is characterized by a light refractuve index
dependenct in the wavelength of frequenct of light.
- True
124. To decrease the intensity of x-rays going through material to half of origial value
- The thickness needs to be doubles
125. The intesity of x-ray beam can be increased* by increasing

* directly, not indirectly
- electric current- amperes
- voltage
- AC current frequency fel
- x-ray wavelength
126. Which statement are true?

- As smaller charge of molecule as higher mobility
127. What is the main advantage of Magnetic Sezure Therapy (MST) over Electrocovulsive
therspy (ECT)?
- MST is non-invasive, precise targeting, and minimum exposure to deep brain
structures.
128. Which color light waves have the shortest length?

- Blue
129. The ultraviolet radiation protection mostly happens in

- The cornea
130. What happens if ampltude A is positive, coefficent B is negative in the equation …

- Calculated amplitude A… becomes smaller that original amplitude A.
131. Sound waves do not travel through

- Vacuum
132. According to Bernull’s law, if the speed of laminar flow increases, then the internal pressure
of it
- Decreases
QUIZZES & MCQ
What do eddy currents could produce directly interacting with a matter?

a) Heat.
b) coldness
What is an eddy current?

a) Eddy current is a secondary electric current induced by an alternating magnetic field.
b) Eddy current is a synonym of biochemically induced neural electrical activity
c) Eddy current is an electric current induced by plasma made fire
d) Eddy current is a gallbladder bile current
Magnetic convulsive therapy is done by using?

a) a full anesthesia.
b) no anesthesia at all
c) a local anesthesia
Thermal effects increase the rate of ?

a) cell metabolism
b) brain wave frequencies
c) biophysical effects and their causes
d) gallbladder and intestines
Why does the Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) need to have a strong and powerful (1.5 to 7
Teslas strong) static magnetic field?
a) The strong magnetic field of MRI aligns the intrinsically magnetic protons in human
body with their magnetic spin parallel to MRI magnetic field.
b) The strong magnetic field of MRI aligns the free electrons in human body with their
magnetic spin parallel to MRI magnetic field
c) The strong magnetic field of MRI aligns the nuclei of iron in human body with their
electron’s magnetic spin parallel to MRI magnetic field
When the electric current is flowing through the wire, the magnetic field around it will be
a) created everywhere around the wire like a sheath; field lines perpendicularly to the
electric field lines, creating 90 degree angle
b) 45 degree angle everywhere
c) create around the wire parallel to the axis of the wire
Which property exists for iron ore?

a) It is ferromagnetic material.
b) diamagnetism
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c) nanomagnetism
d) induction
e) paramagnetism
Superconductivity refers to
a) Electrical current flow through a zero resistance conductor.
b) conduction of a conductor hat can conduct heat or electrical current
c) it is a state of a very high conducting current with a super high rate
Mostly nucleus of the hydrogen atom consists of
a) a single positively charged proton.
b) a single positively charged neutron.
c) a single neutrally charged neutron.
What is the main advantage of Magnetic Seizure Therapy (MST) over Electroconvulsive
therapy (ECT)?
a) MST is non-invasive, precise targeting and minimum exposure to deep brain structures.
b) MST is invasive, precise targeting and minimum exposure to cerebral cortex
c) MST uses less energy compared to ETC
d) MST is invasive and requires less time of exposure
What is the primary advantage of inductive shortwave* diathermy?
The relatively large volume and depth of the tissue can be heated.
Which answer describes resonance the best?
a) The resonance is an effect which occurs when the energy is added to the oscillating
system "on the right time" - at the rate of the natural frequency of that system. Thus the
energy of the system having is increased.
b) It is the process of applying forces to create polarized sound or electromagnetic wave
c) The process of using external forces to another system where the energy of that system is
decreased
The disease which can probably cured using the electroconvulsive therapy is
Depression.
Magnetic convulsive therapy carries a risk of
a) amnesia
b) anxiety
c) amputation
When you set the knob of your radio to 89.2 (Radio SWH Rock) FM, that means that you:
a) set the resonant frequency of the receiver circuit to 89.2 MHz.
b) set the resonant wavelength of the receiver circuit to 89,2MHz
c) set the amplitude of the reciever circut to 89,2MHz
2
created everywhere around the wire like a sheath; field lines perpendicularly to the electric field
lines, creating 90 degree angle
Two point charges -q and +q, equal by its absolute value but different by its sign
(positive/negative), which exist within certain distance l; they are called
a) a dipole
b) two dipoles
c) two monopoles
d) paralellpoles
a single positively charged proton.
The term "isochrone" means:
equal time.
therapy (ECT)?
MST is non-invasive, precise targeting and minimum exposure to deep brain structures.
Why is Magnetic seizure Therapy more precise than the direct application of electricity on
the scalp?
a) Takes advantage of noninvasive nature of magnetic fields to be more precise
b) Magnetic seizure therapy causes less cancer
c) Because magnetic seizures are less hurting than electrical seizures
What does NMR abbreviation in field of medicine stands for?
a) Nuclear magnetic resonance.
b) Nucleolus magnetic resistance
c) Nucleolus magnetic resonance
d) Nuclear magnetron resonance
e) Nuclear magnetron resistance
In the capacitive field diathermy, a patient`s leg is held between
a) flat electrodes.
b) wooden bars
c) skin and bones
d) permanent magnets
Over years, when the magnetic convulsive therapy was developed, which technical aspect
and how was it improved?
a) Improvement of having higher frequency for changing magnetic field
b) Improvement of having higher frequency for static magnetic field
c) Improvement of having lower frequency for changing magnetic field
3
Why MRI is possible to do on humans?
a) Hydrogen atom, also called a proton is intrinsically magnetic and abundant in the human
body.
b) Hydrogen atom, also called a neutron is intrinsically magnetic and abundant in the
human body
c) oxygen is intrinsically magnetic and human breath it a lot
d) humans are not magnetic so they can be safely screened
e) lung cancer
At what approx. frequency mobile cell phones in Europe usually operate?
a) 900 MHz, microwave range.
b) 900nm, radio wave range
c) 900 Teslas
d) 900N, FM spectrum
What do magnetic poles of hydrogen atom nucleus tend to do when the atom is exposed to
strong external magnetic field?
Magnetic moment (which also defines "the poles") of the proton aligns with external magnetic
field.
There is an intrinsic magnetic moment of the proton. Its small magnitude is one of reasons
leading scientists to know that the proton is not an elementary particle but it consists of
something we call quarks. But this intrinsic magnetic moment gives an proton some
particular property. Which is it?
a) Polarity.
b) taste
c) charge
d) color
e) energy
If you listen to Galgaltz (well known israeli radio station) on 91.8MHz FM, how many wave
cycles averagely are being transmitted per second?
*FM stand for “frequency modulation” thus there are approx. number of wave cycles, not
exact.
a) 91,8 million
b) 91,8 billion
c) 91,8 thousand
d) 91,8MHz
Absorption spectrum is formed by:
4
a) electron transition from a higher energy level to a lower one, absorbing the quantum of
light
b) nuclear decay and emitting a quantum of light
c) electron transition from a lower energy level to a higher one, absorbing a quantum of
light
d) the loss of kinetic energy of the electron in the presence of the nucleus field, which
causes a decrease in electron velocity
One reason why the sky appears blue is because:
a) red light is reflected by the atmosphere

b) higher energy light waves penetrate better through the atmosphere
c) air absorbs red light better than blue light
d) blue light is scattered to a greater extent than the red light
Physical phenomena, when the short wavelengths are scattered more than the large
wavelengths is
a) diffusion
b) tyndall scattering
c) rayleigh scattering
d) dispersion
The picture shows:
a) an unsurpassed spectrum
b) an absorption spectrum
c) an emission spectrum
d) an x-ray spectrum
Which color light waves have the shortest length?
a) blue
b) yellow
c) pink
d) black
5
e) green
f) white
The picture displays:
a) an x-ray spectrum
c) a continuous spectrum
The picture is likely to show:
a) an absorption spectrum for absolutely black body

b) an x-ray spectrum
c) an absorption spectrum
d) an emission spectrum
When solution concentration increases:
a) the optical density increases

b) conjunction between atomic nuclei increases
c) the wavelength increases
d) transparency increases
The leaves appear green because of the chlorophyll, which
a) reflects blue and red light and absorbs green light, because only green color light is
absorbed. Other color lights disappear in chlorophyll
b) absorbs green and blue light and reflects red and blue light, creating a green color in the
eye
6
c) reflects the blue light and absorbs the yellow and red light, because the combination of
the two colors produces green color
d) absorbs blue and red light and reflects green light. The green color formed by mixing
yellow and light blue pigment in the subtractive color mixing scheme
Absorption is
a) amplification of the intensity of light that passes through an optical environment

b) amplification of the wavelength of the light that passes through an optical environment
c) attenuation of light intensity, which occurs when passing through an optical environment
In case of rayleigh scatter, the intensity of the scattered light is
a) there is no correct answer

b) alla answers are correct
c) inverse proportional to the wavelength in the fourth degree
d) directly proportional to the wavelength
In presbyopia and hypermetropia the patient will probably have problems focusing the
eye on objects which are
a) relatively far, for example seeing number of bus when the bus is approaching
b) relatively close, for example reading a book
How far is the retina behind the cornea?
a) approximately 2,2mm
b) exactly 2,2mm
c) around 2,2cm
The wavelength of any wave is
a) the ratio between velocity of the wave and its amplitude

b) the multiplication between velocity of the wave and its amplitude
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c) the ratio between velocity of the wave and its frequency
The ultraviolet radiation protection mostly happens in
a) the pupil
b) the cornea
c) the conjunctiva
What is refractive index?
a) it it a ratio between speed of light in the particular transparent medium where light goes
through and speed of light in a vacuum
b) it is a ratio between incident light and reflected light angles
c) it is a number, which tells how many times the light travels slower in particular medium
compared to vacuum
How else is nearsightedness called?
a) myopia
b) hyperopia
c) hypopia
d) presopia
What is the unit for refractive index?
a) m/s
b) it does not have a unit
c) Hz
d) m/s^2
If the light is going from a medium with lower refractive index to the medium with higher
refractive index (e.g. from the air to glass), then:
a) the frequency of the light wave will increase

b) the frequency of the light wave will decrease
c) the wavelength of the light will be increased
8
d) the frequency will stay unchanged
Which cone type responds to the visible light with short wavelength
a) L- cones
b) M- cones
c) S-rods
d) S- cones
a) the velocity of the light will be slowed down

d) the frequency of the light wave will increase
Analyzing the physical equation - definition for refractive index, we can conclude that
a) if the refractive index becomes larger, speed of light decreases

b) if the refractive index becomes larger, speed of light increases
c) if speed of light is increased, refractive index becomes smaller
If the material has increased refractive index, that means
a) the wavelength of the light will be decreased

b) the frequency of the light will be increased
c) the speed of the light will be decreased
Which structure of the eye has the highest optical power
a) cornea
b) lens
c) vitreous body
9
d) retina
What photon can’t do?
a) it can interact with matter

b) it can teleport through matter
c) it can bop along on its merry way through space
No material can have refraction index of
a) 1.7
b) 17
c) 7
d) 0.7
If the material has decreased refractive index, that means
a) the wavelength of the light travelling through that material will be increased
b) the speed of light travelling through that material will be decreased
c) the frequency of the light travelling through that material will be increased
Brewsters angle -
a) is an angle between reflected light ray and refracted (normal line) to surface, where all
refracted light is polarized
b) is an angle between refracted light ray and perpendicular (normal line) to surface, where
all refracted light is polarized
c) is an angle between perpendicular (normal) line to surface and reflected light ray, when
reflected and refracted light rays make angle of 90 degrees
d) is an angle between incident light and perpendicular (normal)line to surface, where all
incident light is polarized
e) is an angle between two perpendicular (normal) lines to surface, when light is incident,
reflect and also refract
What kind of light is obtained via polarization?
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a) parallelly or perpendicularly polarized light
b) geometrically or axiomatically polarized light
c) straight or angled polarized light
d) linearly or circularly polarized light
In presbyopia and hypermetropia the patient will probably have problems focusing the eye
on objects which are
Select one:
a.relatively far, for example seeing number of bus when bus is approaching.
b.relatively close, for example reading book.
How else the nearsightedness is called?
a.Myopia.
b.Hypopia
c.Presbyopia.
d.Hyperopia.
How far is the retina located behind the cornea?
a.Exactly 2.2Mm
b.Approximately 2.2mm
c.Around 2.2cm
No material can have a refraction index of
a.0.7
b.17
c.7
d.1.7
Which cone type responds to the visible light with short wavelength?
a.S-cones.
b.S-rods.
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c.M-cones.
d.L-cones.
Which structure of the eye has the highest optical power?
a. Cornea
b. Retina
QUIZ 1 → SIGNAL TRANSDUCTION
1. A feedback system is characterized by:

a) the input not having effect on output information.
b) constant value of the input information.
c) output information influencing the input information.
d) the output not having effect on input information.
2. What happens to the eye pupil when light intensity decreases?
a) Pupil turns orange.

b) Pupil narrows.
c) Pupils turn more greenish.
d) Pupil dilates.
3. Retina is a transducer.
a) True
b) False
4. Which set containing light wavelength in vacuum has all values visible for normal human
vision?
a) 490 Mm, 555 Mm, 6111 Å

b) 490 nm, 555 nm, 611 mm
c) 0.49 µm, 0.555 µm, 6111 Å
d) 490 nm, 555 µm, 611 nm
e) 0.49 Å, 5,55 Mm, 611 nm
5. In thermoelectric thermometry there are 3 main effects: Seebeck effect, Peltier effect and
Thomson effect. What is the common feature for all these 3 effect theories?
12
a) There is a unique relationship between resistance and electromagnetic force.
b) They are irreversible
c) Some of them are reversible, some not
d) They are reversible
6. What happens if amplitude A is positive, coefficient β is negative in the equation -

!"##$%&'( = ! / (1−!))
a) It is not possible to determine it.

b) Calculated amplitude ! "##$%&'( A feedback becomes smaller than original
amplitude A
c) Calculated amplitude ! "##$%&'( A feedback becomes larger than original
amplitude A
7. The given example - “when light intensity increases, pupil diameter decreases” refers to:
a) positive feedback system

b) negative feedback system
c) logarithmic feedback system
d) attractive feedback system
e) additive feedback system
8. To which mathematical relationship thermistor with a negative temperature coefficient

(NTC) is following?
a) The resistance of the thermistor decreases when the temperature increases.

b) The temperature increases, when the resistance of the thermistor increases.
c) The resistance of the thermistor increases when the temperature increases.
d) The temperature decreases, when the resistance of the thermistor decreases.
9. Which of the given statements are false?
a) The light enters the eye through the pupil, it's intensity is reduced in the cornea, lens
and vitreous body.
b) Light is reflected from the cornea.
c) Light reaching the retina is converted to neural biochemical and electric impulses.
d) The size of the pupil opening increases, when more light reaches the retina.
13
10. What happens to the eye pupil when light intensity increases?
a) Pupil turns orange

b) Pupil widens
c) Pupil turns more greenish
d) Pupil dilates
e) Pupil contracts
11. Which neuron type usually performs the task of transmitting information about the
systems state to some decision-making center?
a) Pseudoneurons
b) Sensory neurons
c) Efferent neurons
d) Motor neurons
e) Interneurons
12. Biological systems has
a) one input, many outputs

b) many, inputs, many outputs
c) one input, one output
d) no inputs, no outputs
e) no inputs, many outputs
f) many inputs, no outputs
g) no inputs, one output
h) many inputs, one output
i) one input, no outputs
j) multiple pots
13. What is pyrometry?
a) Science of fireworks
b) Science and arts of fireworks
c) Science of objects in high temperature
d) Evaluation of psychic mania called pyromania
e) Art of fireworks.
14
14. Sexual arousal is an example of
a) positive feedback
b) opposite feedback
c) software feedback
d) composite feedback
15. In which frequency set are all frequencies audible for the human hearing system?
a) 50 mHz, 30 kHz, 2 Hz
b) 50 Hz, 0.3 kHz, 0.01 MHz
c) 50 kHz, 30 Hz, 0.2 mHz
d) 50 kHz, 30 Hz, 2000 mHz
e) 0.5 MHz, 30 mHz, 2000 Hz
16. Before a signal describing physical phenomena can be displayed, it has to be:
a) amplified
b) inhibited
c) depressed
d) repressed
17. What is an oscilloscope?
a) It is an instrument that looks like a vending machine. It has a screen and it is used to
feed hungry students (Don`t ask. Probably a hungry student wrote this multiple
choice and this choice is obviously the wrong choice).
b) It is an instrument that looks like a TV and if it is a CRT based device, it has a
controlled electron beam drawing waves and shapes of signal on the screen. Newer
versions are using LCD screens and microchips and software in it is doing the same.
Draws waves, waveforms and shapes of signal on the screen.
c) It is an instrument that looks like an electric drill. The rotating part of it rotates and
causes oscillations, which can be seen on the screen attached near the base of it.
Oscillations are amplified by amplifiers and that causes ions to charge up and move
within the electric field.
d) It is an instrument that looks like a flamethrower made by the Boring company
owned by Elon Musk and it is used to throw flames. (Such a company actually exists
and the product is sold to use it in case of the Zombie apocalypse. Seriously. Google
for it, if you don't believe!)
15
Same question, different alternatives
What’s an oscilloscope?
a) It’s device, that can record rapidly changing signals
b) It’s device, that can record and display very slow signals
c) It’s device, that can display different type of signals
d) all previous answers are somewhat true
18. Which one of the given instruments cannot display a signal?
a) Dogoscope
b) Ampere meter
c) Oscillograph
d) Thermometer
e) Ammeter
f) Voltmeter
19. The given example - "blood clotting: platelets start to cling to the injured site and release
chemicals that attract more platelets" refers to
a) logarithmic feedback system

c) positive feedback system
d) subtractive feedback system
e) attractive feedback system
20. The resistance thermometry mathematically can be described as
a) linear
b) positive
c) inhibitory
d) negative
e) nonlinear
21. What strengthens the signal so that it can boost the signal and give more power to it?
a) Sensor
b) Transductor
c) Reducer
d) Amplifier
16
a) The parameter to be controlled. This may be the temperature of the skin, the
movement of muscles, the rate of heart beat, the size of the bone, and so on.
b) A means of monitoring the parameter and transmitting information about its state to
some decision-making center. This task is usually per- formed by the sensory
neurons.
c) Some reference values to which the controlled parameters are required to comply.
The reference value may be in the central nervous system in the form of a decision,
for example, about the position of the hand. In this case, the reference value is
changeable and is set by the central nervous system. Many references for body
functions are autonomous, however, not under the cognitive control of the brain.
d) A method for comparing the state of the parameter with the reference value and for
transmitting instructions to bring the two into accord. The instructions may be
transmitted by nerve impulses or in some cases by chemical messengers called
hormones, which diffuse through the body and control various metabolic functions.
e) A mechanism for translating the messages into actions that alter the state of the
controlled parameter. In the case of the hand position, for example, this is the
contraction of a set of muscle fibers
Select one:
a) Statements 1,2 and 4 are correct.

b) Statements 3,4 and 5 are correct.
c) All statements are incorrect.
d) All statements are correct.
23. Of which qualities resistance thermometry depends on?
a) Flexibility of the element used in the thermistor and amount of covalent bonds.
b) Resistance of an element and the temperature.
c) Density of the element and rate of temperature increase (gradient).
d) Density of the element rate and temperature increase (gradient).
24. In a control system, the control process consists of 5 steps: the parameter to be
controlled, the means of monitoring the parameter, some reference value and a method for
comparing the parameter with the reference value. Which is the last step of the process?
17
a) A mechanism for mirroring the reference and parameter value.
b) A technique to prove or disprove the monitored parameter.
c) A technique to measure the final value of parameter and reference value.
d) A mechanism for translating the messages into actions.
a) output is affecting it`s input.

b) output has no influence on it`s input.
c) the behavior and focus on it is monitored.
d) system mistakes and errors are analysed.
a) It is a device that can record rapidly changing signals.

b) It is a device that can record and display very slow signals.
c) It is a device that can display different types of signals.
d) All previous answers are somewhat true.
27. Which statement is mostly true about the electrical signal of a microphone?
a) The signal is too strong for the display unit or recording and it needs to be reduced
using an amplifier.
b) The signal is perfect for recording or displaying - nothing needs to be changed.
c) The signal is too weak for the display unit or recording and it needs to be amplified.
28. How does the Peltier effect work?
a) Heat rejection of both sides of the Peltier element.

b) Heat absorption at one side and heat rejection of the other side of the Peltier element.
c) Heat absorption of both sides of the Peltier element.
29. Thermoelectric (Peltier and Thomson) effects are
18
a) competitive effects
b) irreversible effects
c) reversible effects
d) competitive effects
e) competing effects
30. Which of the following characteristics of a signal is increased by an amplifier?
a) Amplitude and frequency

b) Power and frequency
c) Decibels and frequency
d) Power and amplitude
31. Resistance thermistors are sensors used to measure
a) snowfall coverage
b) precipitation
c) light
d) wind
e) temperature
32. When the light intensity decreases, the size of the eye pupil
a) decreases
b) is not affected
c) increases
33. Which of the following is not a part of a control system?
a) Parameter to be controlled.
b) Some particular reference value.
c) Monitoring parameters and transmitting information to the decision making centre.
d) Comparing the state with all known values.
e) Translating messages into the actions that alter the state.
34. To what kind of energy the light energy is converted after reaching the retina?
a) neurochemical impulses causing biological energy.

19
b) biochemical energy causing neural impulses.
c) pendulum.
d) Energy chemical bio impulses cause neural.
e) frame of reference.
35. Device which can increase the power and amplitude of the signal is called
a) attenuator
b) oscilloscope
c) stethoscope
d) amplifier
e) sensor
36. What is resistance thermometry about in general? (based on)
a) The unique relation between electromotive force and temperature.

b) The unique relation between resistance and electromotive force.
c) The unique relation between admittance and resistance.
d) The unique relation between admittance and temperature.
e) The unique relation between resistance and temperature.
37. In the feedback systems, the output affects the input, because
a) the output is always smaller than input.

b) the output is fed back into the system.
c) the input is always smaller than output.
d) the output is always larger than input.
e) the system is feeding the output and input.
38. To which mathematical relationship thermistor with a positive temperature coefficient

(PTC) is following?
a) The temperature increases, when the resistance of the thermistor decreases.

b) The resistance of the thermistor decreases when the temperature increases.
c) The temperature decreases, when the resistance of the thermistor increases.
d) The resistance of the thermistor increases when the temperature increases.
20
39. What is the aim of eye iris control center?
a) Maintaining the output signal (neural activity) constant.

b) Science of objects in high temperature.
c) Maintaining the input signal (amount of light reaching retina) fluctuating.
d) Maintaining the input signal (amount of light reaching retina) constant.
40. Which statement is correct?
a) The system is said to have positive feedback if it opposes a change in the

b) The system is said to have positive feedback if it opposes a change in the input and
negative feedback if it augments a change in the input.
c) The system is said to have negative feedback if it opposes a change in the output and
positive feedback if it augments a change in the output.
d) The system is said to have negative feedback if it opposes a change in the input and
positive feedback if it augments a change in the input.
41. How instructions may be transmitted within the organism?
a) Using plasma cells.

b) Using nerve cells and hormones
c) Using hemoglobin and nerve cells.
d) Using hemoglobin and ionic bonds.
42. Humans cannot hear frequency that are above:
a) 20 000 Hz
b) 7000 Hz
c) 2000 Hz
d) 50 000 Hz
43. Which of the following physical quantities is converted within the thermistor?
a) Ratio between electrical current and potential difference.

b) Ratio between electrical potential difference and current.
c) Force
d) Frequency
21
44. The amplification A of the signal can be calculated using two signals - input signal Vin
and output signal Vout. What is the mathematical way to calculate the amplification?
a) ! "##$%&'( = *+,- × *./

b) ! "##$%&'( = * +,-⋅ * ./
c) ! "##$%&'k =*./⋅*+,t
d) ! "##$%&'( = * +,- / * ./
e) ! "##$%&'( = * in / * out
45. What are the widely accepted frequency limits for human auditory (hearing) system?
a) 20 Hz for upper, 20 000 Hz for lower.

b) 0.2 kHz for lower, 0.02 Mhz for upper
c) 0.02 MHz for upper, 20 kHz for lower
d) 20 000 mHz for lower, 0.02 MHz for upper
46. Seebeck-Peltier-Thomson effects are related to each other through
a) Lord Kelvin relations.

b) Niels Bohr relations
c) Erwin Schrödinger relations.
d) Albert Einstein relations.
e) Georg Simon Ohm relations.
47. Control system can:
a) increase or decrease the input signal

b) only decrease the input signal
c) only increase the input signal
48. What do we call a “positive feedback system”?
a) A system that augments a change in the input (e.g. blood clotting: platelets start to
cling to the injured site and release chemicals that attract more platelets)
b) A more effective way to maintain homeostasis
c) A system that opposes a change in the input (e.g. light intensity increases, pupil
diameter decreases)
d) A system that reacts with a strong output to a weak signal
22
49. Utilizing the Seebeck effect, a thermocouple with Cu-Fe has an alpha factor equal to
0.016 mV/K. Changing the metal wire to Cu-Cu combination would result in?
a) Decrease of alpha value because Cu transfers heat faster between substances.

b) Nonfunctional thermoelectric circuit.
c) Alpha value remains the same because higher conductivity is already present in the
Cu-Fe pair.
d) Increase of alpha value because Cu has better electrical conductivity.
a) converts electrical energy.

b) converts electromagnetic energy to electrical energy.
c) converts one type of electric energy to another type of electric energy.
d) converts electrical energy to light energy.
51.In thermoelectric thermometry there is 3 main effects: Seebeck effect, Peltier effect and
a) Some of them are reversible, some not.

b) They are reversible
c) There are unique relationship between resistance and electromagnetic force.
d) They are irreversible.
52. Before a signal describing physical phenomena can be displayed, it has to be
Select one:
a.inhibited.
b.amplified.
c.repressed.
d.depressed.
53. Which one of given instruments cannot display a signal?
a.Ampere meter
23
b.Dogoscope.
c.Thermometer.
d.Voltmeter.
e.Oscillograph.
f.Ammeter
54. How do we call a “positive feedback system”?
Select one:
a. A system that opposes a change in the input (e.g. light intensity increases, pupil
diameter decreases)
b. A more effective way to maintain homeostasis
c. A system that reacts with a strong output to a weak signal
d. A system that augments a change in the input (e.g. blood clotting: platelets start to
a.light.
b.precipitation.
c.temperature.
d.wind.
e.snowfall coverage
56. Sexual arosal is an example of
a. positive feedback.
b. opposite feedback.
c. software feedback.
d. composite feedback.
Which statement is mostly true about electrical signal of a microphone?
a.The signal is too weak for the display unit or recording and it needs to be amplified.
b.The signal is too strong for the display unit or recording and it needs to be reduced using
amplifier.
C. The signal is perfect for recording or displaying - nothing needs to be changed.

24
57. Which of the following physical quality is converted within thermistor?
Select one:
a.Force
b.Frequency
c.Ratio between electrical current and potential difference.
d.Ratio between electrical potential difference and current.
58.Biological systems has
a.one input, many outputs.
b.no inputs, many outputs.
c.no inputs, one output.
d.one input, one output.
e.no inputs, no outputs.
f.many inputs, no outputs.
g.many inputs, many outputs.
59. In which frequency set there are all frequencies audible for human hearing system?
50 Hz, 0.3 kHz, 0.01 MHz
-----------------------------------------
QUIZ 2 → ELECTROPHORESIS
51. What kind of substance is not allowed to use to connect two trays with weak electrolytes
during free electrophoresis?
a) Destilled water
b) Gel
c) Wet paper
52. Aim of iontophoresis is:

25
a) To cure patalogycal diseses
b) To treat digestive diseases
c) To deliver pharmaceuticals to the tissue through skin
53. What is the electromagnetic spectrum range in wavelength where proteins, peptides and
nucleic acids absorb ultraviolet light?
a) 5800-7500 nm
b) b) 260-280 nm
c) c) 450-475 mm
54. What is a method to cure hyperhidrosis (excessive sweating)?

a) Electrophoresis
b) Photothermolysis
c) Electroconvulsive therapy
d) Ionophoresis
55. What is action potential?

a) Impulse of nerve overcome certain threshold
b) Impulse of nerve do not overcome certain threshold
c) Impulse of nerve in a main position
56. What is electric current?

a) Potential difference
b) A field that is around all electrically charged objects
c) Directed flow of charged particles
57. Which type of electrophoresis is used in order to move particles or bacteria and has
possibility to do observation by microscope?
a) Moving border electrophoresis

b) Microelectrophoresis
c) Zone
58. Which one of the mentioned answers describes the electrical circuit used in
iontophoresis?
a) To achieve optimum drug delivery but without causing tissue damage, high density
current with low voltage is used
26
b) There is low density current and low voltage in iontophoresis
a) To achieve optimum drug delivery, high density current and high voltage is used
59. Where agarose gel electrophoresis is used ?

a) Deliver a medicine through skin
b) Detect length of DNA
c) Evaluate mobility of ions
60. Methods are used for stained gel of electrophoresis is :

a) Stained by oil paint
b) Stained by water soluble paint
c) Stained by sulfur
d) Fluorescent
e) Stained by iodine
f) Stained by art paint
61. How the size affect the electrophoretic mobility of two particles if the charge is the equal
for both?
a) Larger particle will have smaller mobility
b) Size of particles does not affect mobility.
c) Larger particle will have greater mobility
62. If the concentration of the ions is constant and the current is doubled, what will happen
to the amount of the ions traveling through the skin?
a) It is tripled (increased three times) I

b) It is doubled (increased two times)
c) It is unchanged
d) It is halved (decreased two times)
63. In the iontophoresis the term "current density" is used. What does it mean?
a) It shows the current flow through cross section area. The unit for current density is A/m2
b) Current density is a measure of density of a substance-drug used in iontophoresis. It`s unit
is classical density unit - kg/m3
c) Current density is synonym for capacitance. The unit for capacitance is C/V.
d) It tells how much potential difference exists between both electrodes which are some
distance apart and used in iontophoresis. The units for current density is V/m
64. How impulse of nerve has to be created?

a) Stimulated of muscles
27
b) Stimulated akson of nervous
c) Magic words
65. The rate of migration of particle when the potential gradient exists is referred to as
a) Flexibility of the ion
b) Agility of the ion
c) Mobility of the ion
66. What is the potential difference (approximately) for an axon in the resting state (resting
potential)?
a) -70 MV
b) -70 mW
c) -70 Mv
d) -70 mV
67. How the part of the neuron is called that conducts the electrical impulses away from the
cell body?
a) Dendrite
b) Sensory
c) Axon
d) Myelin sheet
e) Nucleus
68. Electromyography is a method that allows to evaluate:

a) Disorders of vision
b) Disorders of digestive system
c) Disorders of muscles and nervous system
69. During the electrophoresis, if the voltage will be increased,
a) The velocity will remain constant, because the electrophoretic mobility will
compensate the higher voltage
b) The electrophoretic mobility of the ion will change. Ion will be more mobile
c) The velocity of the ion will increase, but the electrophoretic mobility will stay
constant
d) The velocity of the ion will increase as well as the electrophoretic mobility
70. Which statements are true?
28
a) Greater molecules have greater mobility
b) As smaller charge of molecule as higher mobility
c) Globular proteins have greater mobility than fibrous proteins
71. How the charge affect the electrophoretic mobility of two particles if the size is equal for
both?
a) Particle with larger charge will have greater mobility

b) Particle with smaller charge will have greater mobility
c) Particle with larger charge will have less mobility
72. What kind of physical properties of molecules are so useful in order to illustrate results
of electrophoresis?
a) Plasticity
b) Metallic shiness
c) Fluorescence
73. What kind of parameter affect ion mobility

a) Relationship of charge and mass
b) Size of molecule and PH of environment
c) Shape and colour of molecule

a) Drug passage through the skin by the application of a low density electrical current
b) Isodermal transport of methylene blue
75. Which factors do not influence electrophoretic mobility?

a) Shape
b) Charge
c) Size
d) Color
76. How is the application of low density electrical current called which facilitates drug
passage through the skin?
a) Isotophoresis
b) Protophoresis
c) Iontophoresis
29
d) Electrophoresis
e) Drugophoresis
77. Fluid in order to perform zone electrophoresis is:

a) Buffersolution
b) NaCl
c) Water solution
78. In bones when certain types of crystals are mechanically deformed, the charges in them
are displaced; as the result these crystals develop a potential difference (voltage) along the
surface. How is this phenomenon called?
a) Piezoelectric effect
b) Bone effect
c) Electric effec
d) Osteoblast effect

a) Disorders of muscles and nervous system
b) Disorders of vision
c) Disorders of digestive system

b)Microelectrophoresis
c) Zone
a) Stained by water soluble paint

b) Stained by art paint
c) Fluorescent
d) Stained by oil paint
f) Stained by sulfur
30
a) The velocity will remain constant, because the electrophoretic mobility will compensate
the higher voltage
c) The velocity of the ion will increase, but the electrophoretic mobility will stay constant
84. Which type of electrophoresis used in order to move particles or bacteria and has
a. Moving border electrphoresis
b. Microelectrophoresis
c. Zone.
85. Which factors does not influence the electrophoretic mobility?
a. Charge
b. Shape
c. Color
d. Size
86. Which one of mentioned answers describes the electrical circuit used in iontophoresis?
a. To achieve optimum drug delivery but without causing tissue damange, high density
b. To achieve optimum drug delivery, high density current and high voltage is used
c. Iontophoresis has low density current applied by high voltage
d. There is low density current and low voltage in iontophoresis
87. In the iontophoreses the term "current density" is used. What does it mean?
a. Current density is a measure of density of a substance-drug used in iontophoresis. It`s

unit is classical density unit - kg/m3
b. It tells how much potential difference exists between both electrodes which are some
c. Current density is synonym for capacitance. The unit for capactiance is C/V.
d. It shows the current flow through crossesction area. The unit for current density is
A/m2
88. Where agarose gel electrphoresis is used ?
a. Evaluate mobility of ions

b. Deliver a medicine through skin
31
c. c.Detect lenght of DNA
a. Globular proetins have greater mobility then fibrose proteins

b. As smaller charge of molecule as higher mobility
c. Greater molecules have greater mobility
surface. How this phenomena is called?
a. Bone effect
b. Piezoelectric effect
c. Electric effec
d. Osteoblast effect
-------------------------------------------------
QUIZ 7 → IONIZING RADIATION
What is an isotope?
a) Isotope is an atom having nuclei with the same number of protons but different number
of electrons
b) Isotope is an atom having nuclei with the same number of positrons but different
number of neutrons
c) Isotope is an atom having nuclei with the same number of neutrons but different
number of protons
d) Isotope is an atom having nuclei with the same number of protons but different number
of neutrons
Which answers most precisely describe the annihilation reaction?

a) It is a synonym to photoelectric effect when incoming photon can release electron to
leave the atom, thus creating an electric current
b) It is the interaction between alpha particle and the atom when the electron is leaving
particular atom orbital
c) It is a production of gamma rays during matter and antimatter collision
d) It is another name for Bremsstrahlung X-ray generation process when fast moving
negative electron is slowed down by positive nucleus of the atom in the anode

a) When a photon interacts with a tightly bound electron (which escapes the atom later)
b) When a proton interacts with a tightly bound electron (which escapes the atom later)
c) When a neutron interacts with a tightly bound electron (which escapes the atom later)
32
d) When an electron interacts with a tightly bound electron (which escapes the atom
later)
4. Which of the given particles in the answer has the highest penetration ability?
a) Gamma proton
b) Positron particle
c) Proton particle
d) Alpha particle
e) Beta particle
5. Which statement is true?

a) Bremsstrahlung X-rays create certain peaks in the x-ray spectrum which corresponds
particular electron transition between electron energy levels
b) Positrons are real
c) Annihilation is a process where gamma photons goes through the medium without
interacting with it
d) In standard model proton is heavier than neutron
6. Which of the mentioned answers is a particle with the greater mass?

a) Proton
b) Gamma particle
c) Neutron
d) Alpha particle
e) Beta particle
What are similarities and differences between the action potentials in muscles and
neurons?
a. The amplitude and duration of action potential in muscles and neurons is different
b. The amplitude and duration of action potential in muscles and neurons is the same
c. They have the same shape, but the duration of action potential in muscles is shorter
d. They have the same duration, but the amplitude of action potential in muscles is lower
e. They have the same duration, but the amplitude of action potential in muscles is higher
f. They have the same shape, but the duration of action potential in muscles is longer
What is the unit of electrical resistance?

a. Volt
b. Ampere
c. Mho
d. Ohm
What is voltage?
a. Amount of electricity
33
b. Potential difference
c. Movement of electric charges
d. Movement of electrons
e. Work over charge
Which statements about electricity are correct?

a. Muscle stimulation using electricity can be beneficial, but tissue heating is always the
disadvantage
b. It heats the tissue
c. The current stimulates nerves, which could cause pain
d. The current stimulates muscle fibres , which could lead to muscle contraction
e. Tissue heating using electricity can be beneficial, but the disadvantage is always the
muscle stimulation
What is synapse?
a. Interaction region between the nerve ending and the cell
b. Physical contact area between the nerve ending and the cell
c. Distance between the nerve ending and the cell
d. Chemical substance transmitted from the nerve ending to the cell
e. Electrical impulse reaching the cell from the nerve ending
What are the functions of the neuron network in human body?

a. To transmit information in the body, in the form of electrical signals
b. To store and analyze the information in the brain, in the form of mechanical signals
c. To transmit information in the body, in the form of optical signals
d. To control and delete unwanted information, in the form of electrical signals
e. To receive information, in the form of electrical signals
f. To process information in the form of mechanical signals
What is often used as an analogy of axon?
a. Insulated electric cable containing conducting liquid
b. Electric cable submerged in an insulating liquid
c. Electrical battery containing conduction liquid
d. Insulated electric cable submerged in a conducting liquid
Read the paragraph: “In the resting condition, the axon membrane is highly
permeable to potassium and only slightly permeable to sodium ions. The
membrane is impermeable to the large organic ions. Thus, while sodium ions
cannot easily leak in, potassium ions can certainly leak out of the axon. However,
-1 the potassium ions leak out of the axon, they leave behind the large negative
ions, which cannot follow them through the membrane. “What is the result of this
process”.
a. Due to large negative ions, a negative potential of 70 millivolts (mV) is produced
inside the axon, which keeps inside the axon the positive potassium ions.
34
Compare the radius of axon to the average radius of a human hair (100micro).
a. Axon radius is 5 times bigger than the radius of a human hair
b. Axon radius is 20 times smaller than the radius of a human hair
c. Axon radius is 5 times smaller than the radius of a human hair
d. Axon radius is twice smaller than the radius of a human hair
What is the electrical charge for sodium and potassium ions?

a. - 1 for sodium and + 1 for potassium
b. +1 for sodium and potassium
c. + 2 for sodium and - 1 for potassium
d. + 1 for sodium and - 1 for potassium
What are the missing word in the text describing the method of signal propagation
through the nervous system?
“ The messages are electrical -1- transmitted by the -2- . When a neuron receives an appropriate
stimulus, it produces electrical pulses that are propagated along its cablelike structure. The -1-
are constant in magnitude and duration, independent of the intensity of the -3-. The strength of
the -3- is conveyed by the number of pulses produced. When the -1- reach the end of the “cable”
they activate other -2- or muscle cells”:
- 1- pulses, 2-neurons, 3-stimulus
A nerve impulse is produced only if the stimulus exceeds a certain threshold value.
When this value is exceeded, an impulse is generated at the point of stimulation and
propagates down the axon. Such a propagating impulse is called …?
a. Resting potential
b. Current reaction
c. Action stimulus
d. Reaction stimulus
e. Action potential
Between how many electrodes voltage is measured at a time, when using ECG
a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 12
What is p wave usually associated with, when measuring with ECG?

a. Contraction of the ventricles
b. Recovery of the atria
c. Contraction of the atria
d. Recovery of the ventricles
Which effect is illustrated in the figure?
35
- Piezoelectric effect, where voltage is generated under mechanical deformation
What are 4 main characteristics used for the description of an “axon cable”
a. Resistance
b. Conductivity
c. Inductance
d. Voltage
e. Density
f. Radius
g. Capacitance
What is the diameter of the largest neurons in human nervous?

a. 20µm, or 0,0002 cm
b. 20µm, or 0,000002 m
c. 20µm, or 0,00002 m
d. 2µm, or 0,0002 cm
e. 2µm, or 0,00002 m
f. 2µm, or 0,000002 m
Quiz polarimetry
Light is partially polarized if it is
Reflected from nonmetalic surfaces (e.g. water, glass, plastic etc.).
Which of given characteristics describe optical active substances the best?
a) It rotates the polarisation axis

b) It depolarises light
c) It absorbs the light
d) It polarises the light
e) It scatters the light
The active optical substance can be analysed using polarimeter. Where the substance
must be positioned?
a) Between polarizer and analizer.

b) In front of polarizer
36
c) Behind analizer
Polarised light is characterised as :
a) A wave, where electric field component and magnetic field component oscillates
b) Electromagnetic wave where electric and magnetic components oscillates inthe
same plane
c) Electromagnetic light, where the electric field is emitted in one direction but
magnetic field - in opposite direction
Circulary polarized light is obtained from two perpendiculary polarized lightwaves

that have x degrees phase difference
a) x = 90
b) x=45
c) x=0
d) x=360
e) x=180
Between polarizer and analizer
When light hits the surface at the Brewster angle, there is
a) 900 angle between the reflected ray and the refracted ray
b) All answers are correct
c) 900 angle between the incident ray and the refracted ray
d) 900 angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray
If two ideal polarizers are put behind each other in a way that their polarization
axes are in a 90 degree angle to each other, how much light passes through
them?
a) No light passes through such a system

b) all the light
c) all the light, except the light that is absorbed in the material
d) Half of the initial light
Scanning laser polarimetry measures
37
a) The thickness of the retinal nerve fiber layer
b) The activity of the retinal nerve fiber layer
c) The length of the retinal nerve fiber layer
Light wont travel through polarised light filters if:
a) The axis of filters are perpendicular to each other

b) the axis of filters are parallel to each other
c) The axis of filters have 45 degree angle between them
1. A good x-ray source should produce x-rays of narrow beams and parallel x-rays.
2. The intensity of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing voltage directly, not
indirectly.
3. If an electromagnetic wave has frequency f=10^14 and speed v=100 m/s… answer is
10^-12.
4. Lorentz force acts on moving charged particles in an external magnetic field.
5. The lightwave is a transverse wave.
6. Which statement is true? As smaller charge of molecule as higher mobility.
7. What is the main advantage of magnetic seizure therapy? MST is non-invasive,
precise targeting and minimum exposure to deep brain structures.
8. Which color light waves have the shortest length? Blue
9. When the light hits the surface at the Brewster angle, there is: 90 degree angle
between the reflected ray and the refracted ray.
10. The ultraviolet radiation protection mostly happens in: the cornea
11. Which statement about the solenoid is not true?
• A solenoid emits visible light at low temperatures
12. With the increase of the body's temperature, the radiation wavelength decreases. This
law is called --> Wien's displacement law
13. decreasing the radius of a tube by 1/2 reduces the gas flow to 1/2
14. Kinematic viscosity is the ratio between dynamic viscosity and density of the liquid
15. Viscosity describes liquid´s inner friction or resistance flow: true
16. Alpha decay is a type of radioactive decay in which an atomic nucleus emits one
proton and one neutron: - False
17. Light dispersion in the substance (prism) is characterized by a light refractive index
dependence on the wavelength or frequency of light: - True
18. Heat is: The transfer of energy from hot to cold
19. According to bernoulli's law, if the speed of laminar flow increases, then the internal
pressure of it: decreases
20. In which thermodynamic process the volume remains constant? Isochronic process
21. To decrease the intensity of x-rays going through material to half of original value:
The thickness needs to be doubled
38
PHYSICS EXAM QUESTIONS STANDARD LEVEL
1. Which one of the following materials is the best insulator?

A. brass
B. rubber
C. iron
D. copper
2. What is the wave length of a 5 Hz wave that travels with a speed of 10 m/s ?
A. 0.25 m
B. 0.5 m
C. 1 m
D. 2 m
E. 50 m
3. The ECG does not measure:

A. Impulses generated by polarization and depolarization
B. The rate of heartbeats
C. Regularity of heartbeats
D. Blood flow of heart
4. Which particle is responsible for a material’s magnetic properties?

A. proton
B. neutron
C. alpha particles
D. electron
5. What are sound waves in the range above 20,000 hertz?

A. Decibel
B. Ultrasound
C. Infrasound
D. Intensity
6. Sound and light waves both

A. have similar wavelength
B. obey the laws of reflection
C. travel as longitudinal waves
D. travel through vacuum
7. Small liquid drops assume spherical shape because

A. Atmospheric pressure exerts a force on a liquid drop
B. Gravitational force acts upon the drop
C. Volume of a spherical drop is minimum
D. Liquid tends to have the minimum surface area due to surface tension
39
8. If two bodies of different masses, initially at rest, are acted upon by the same force for
the same time, then the both bodies acquire the same
A. Velocity
B. Momentum
C. Acceleration
D. Kinetic energy
9. The refractive index for water is

A. 0.133
B. 1.33
C. 133
D. 1333
10. The main idea for the eye pupil is

A. To control the amount of light entering the eye
B. To control the sharpness of image forming on retina
C. To adjust the focal depth
D. All of above is correct answer
40
Q. Which of the following is / are true concerning magnetic forces and fields?
A. The magnetic field lines due to a current-carrying wire propagate away from the wire.
B. The kinetic energy of a charged particle can be increased by a magnetic force.
C. A charged particle can move through a magnetic field without feeling a magnetic
force.
4
Q. A particle of charge –0.04 C is projected with speed 2 × 10 m/s into a uniform
magnetic field, B, of strength 0.5 T. If the particle’s velocity as it enters the field is
perpendicular to B, what is the magnitude of the magnetic force on this particle?
à 400N
14
Q. If a wave has frequency f=10 Hz and speed v = 100 m/s, what is its wavelength?
100/10^14 = 1/10^12 = 10^-12
Q. Device that converts one form of energy to another calls

A. Transformer
B. Transducer
C. Motor
D. Galvanometer
E. Generator
Q. Two charges are separated by a distance d. If the distance between them is doubled,
how does the electric potential between them change? Electrical potential is 1/2
Q. Piezoelectricity means
A. Electricity resulting from separate cell
B. Electricity resulting from pressure
C. Electricity resulting from nuclear reactions.
D. Electricity resulting from processes in the living tissues
Q. Electromagnetic waves are produced by

A. Magnetic field
B. Accelerating charges
C. Electrophoresis
D. Static electricity
Q. What do magnetic field around a bar magnet look like?

à They curve around the ends of the poles
41
Q. Point A is at lower electrical potential than point B. An electron between them on the
line joining them will
A. Move towards A
B. Move towards B
C. Move at right angles to the line joining A and B
D. Remain at rest
Q. Which is true
A. If a thin capillary tube be replaced with another tube of insufficient length, then water
will change its meniscus
B. Capillarity is explained by cohesion and adhesion
C. If the adhesion is greater than cohesion, then liquid will try to minimize the contact
area with a surface
D. All of above (all answers are correct)
Q. Which is true
A. Viscosity is a resistance that a fluid offers to flow when subject to a shear stress
B. As attraction between particles increases, viscosity increases
C. In an ideal liquid there would be no viscosity
D. All of above (all answers are correct)
Q. Urine absorption spectrum more likely to be:

A. Band spectrum with a strong absorption band at about 450nm
B. Line spectrum
C. Absorption spectrum with a strong absorption edge
D. Liquids absorption spectrum cannot be registered
Q. In the colorimetry, dye concentration dependence of the absorption band peak is:
A. Exponential
B. Linear
C. Quadratic
D. Logarithmical
Q. In the Relay (verstärker) scattering, scattered light intensity is:

A. Inversely (umgekehrt) proportional to wavelength of four degree
B. Inversely proportional to wavelength squared
C. Directly proportional to wavelength
D. None above
Q. Turbidimetry used:
A. Light scattering
B. Light absorption
C. Light dispersion
D. In general, do not use light
42
Q. True or False: Light dispersion in the substance (prism) is characterized by a light
refractive index dependence on the wavelength or frequency
(Q. If the increasing light wavelength refractive index decreases, then it is:
A. Normal dispersion
B. Abnormal dispersion )
ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS 1:
Sound
1. As an ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a patient's body it will undergo a
change in:
A. Frequency
B. Amplitude (energy)
C. Physical size
D. Intensity
2. What are sound waves in the range above 20,000 hertz?

A. Decibel
B. Ultrasound
C. Infrasound
D. Intensity
3. The unit used to measure the frequency of sound is?

A. decibel
B. ultrasound
C. rarefaction
D. hertz
4. When a sound can be heard it is called?

A. decibel
B. ultrasound
C. audible
D. rarefaction
5. The frequency which is not audible to the human ear is

A. 50 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 5000 Hz
D. 50000 Hz
6. Sound waves do not travel through

A. solids
B. liquids
C. gases
D. vacuum
43
A. A longer blood vessel offers less resistance than a shorter vessel of the same radius
7. Decreasing the radius of a tube by 1/2 reduces the gas flow to of its original
flow
A. 1/16
B. 1/2
C. 1/4
D. 1/8
8. Bernoulli's principle is a statement of the

A. conservation of linear momentum.
B. conservation of angular momentum.
C. conservation of kinetic energy.
D. conservation of mass.
E. conservation of energy
9. If the speed of flow increases, then the pressure

A. decreases
B. increases
10. The most common type of lever within the body is the
A. fourth-class
B. third-class
C. second-class
D. first-class
11. What happens to the viscosity of a liquid when its temperature is raised?
A. The viscosity of the liquid increases.
B. The viscosity of the liquid stays the same.
C. The viscosity of the liquid decreases.
12. Which is scalar quantity?

A. Force
B. Pressure
C. Velocity
D. Acceleration
13. Poiseuille's Law explains the effect of three factors on peripheral resistance.
According to this law:
B. The smaller the radius of a vessel, the higher the resistance to blood flow
C. Increased resistance causes increased blood flow
D. The higher the blood viscosity, the lower the peripheral resistance
14. The first law of thermodynamics is a form of

A. the law of conservation of energy.
B. the law of entropy.
C. the law of conservation of temperature.
44
Electricity
15. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Voltage is measured in amps and has the symbol I
B. Resistance is measured in volts and has the symbol R
C. Current is measured in amps and has the symbol C
D. Current is measured in amps and has the symbol I
16. Which one of the following formulae describes the relationship between the potential
difference (V) and the current (I) for a resistance (R)
A. R = V÷I
B. I = RV
C. V = I÷R
D. V = IR
17. A particle of charge –0.04 C is projected with speed 2 × 104 m/s into a uniform
A. 4 N
B. 8 N
C. 40 N
D. 80 N
E. 400 N
18. If the distance between two positive point charges is tripled, then the strength of the
electrostatic repulsion between them will decrease by a factor of
A. 3
B. 6
C. 8
D. 9
E. 12
19. What is Coulomb force ?

A. Force which acting between two charges
B. Force which acting between 2 wires
C. Force acting on charge
D. Atomic attractive force
20. Electrical current is

A. electric potential between two points
B. a flow of charges
C. a flow of neutrons
D. here are no correct answers
21. Capacitance is
A. the ability of a body to demonstrate mechanical force.
B. the ability of a cell to proceed its living processes
45
C. the ability of a body to store an electrical charge.
22. Piezoelectricity means

A. electricity resulting from separate cell
B. electricity resulting from pressure.
C. electricity resulting from nuclear reactions.
D. electricity resulting from processes in the living tissues
23. Electromagnetic waves are produced by

A. Magnetic field
B. accelerating charges
C. electrophoresis
D. static electricity
24. The Electrocardiogram:

A. graphic representation of the heart electrical activity
B. graphic representation of the blood flow activity in the heart
C. graphic representation of the human tissues electrical activity
25. EEG refers to the recording of the

A. Heart spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time
B. Brain's spontaneous activity over a period of time
C. Eyes spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time
D. Spontaneous electrical activity of human body over a long period of time
26. What do magnetic field around a bar magnet look like?

A. They look like straight lines from the ends of the poles
B. They curve around, but never go inside or outside the magnet
C. They curve around the ends of the poles
D. Here are no correct answers
1. Two monochromatic, coherent light waves after interference deletes each other when
the phase shift between the waves is equal to:
A. multiple of the wavelength of light
B. multiple of the light half-wave length
C. not determined, because the magnetic field is the relativity effects of electric field
D. none of the above
2. The light dispersion is:

A. light refractive index dependence on the wavelength
B. light refractive index dependence on the light intensity
46
C. the ability to bypass light waves around obstacles
D. light emission from hydrogen atom
3. Intensity of light, passing through the substance, decrease

A. exponentially
B. linearly
C. quadratically
D. logarithmically
4. True or False? The solar spectrum is similar to the spectrum of an absolutely black
body radiation with a temperature of 6000K (sun).
5. In the colorimetry, dye concentration dependence of the absorption band peak is

A. exponential
B. linear
C. quadratic
D. logarithmical
6. In the Relay scattering, scattered light intensity is:

A. Inversely proportional to wavelength of 4 degree
B. Inversely proportional to wavelength squared
C. Directly proportional to wavelength
D. None of the above
7. With the increase of body temperature, the radiator wavelength decreases, this law is
called
A. Wine-shift law
B. Stefan-Boltzmann law
C. Burger Lambert law
D. None of the above
8.
47
9. Position of Electron in atom is characterized by
A. Dalton’s law
B. Charge of electrons
C. Quantum Numbers
D. Temperature
10. According to Pauli exclusion principle which quantum numbers should be different
for two electrons in the same orbital?
A. Principal quantum numbers
B. Angular momentum quantum numbers
C. Magnetic quantum numbers
D. Spin quantum numbers
11. Annual dose level in EU for radiation workers.

A. 1mSv/y
B. 5mSv/y
C. 20mSv/y
D. 100mSv/y
48
12. Annual dose level in EU for population
A. 1mSv/y
B. 5mSv/y
C. 20mSv/y
D.100mSv/y
13. The highest penetration capability has

A. alpha radiation
B. beta radiation
C. gamma radiation
D. neutron radiation
14. Most ionizing power has:

alpha
15. Less ionizing power has:

gamma
16. How can atom get from non-exited state to excited state?
A. Absorbing energy
B. Increasing speed of movement
C. By loosing an electron
D. By emitting proton
19. The Atom is excited to the energy level n=4.

Which of the following transitions will produce a photon of the longest and the shortest
wavelength?
Longest 4à3
Shortest 4à1
49
20. Protons and neutrons are held together in the nucleus by
A. electrostatic force
B. strong nuclear forces
C. gravitational force
D. weak nuclear force
21. When the isotope aluminium -27 is bombarded with alpha particles, the following
nuclear reaction can take place.
4/
2He + 27/ A1à
13 X + neutron
Which oft he following correctly gives the atomic (proton) number and mass (nucleon) of
the nucleus X?
X = 30/15
22. Which of the following has positive charge?

A. alpha
B. beta
C. gamma
D. only A. and B.
23. Which of the following has negative charge?

A. alpha
B. beta
C. gamma
D. only A. and B.
24. α, β, γ x-rays, ultraviolet rays and neutrons are:

A. ionizing radiation
B. non-ionizing radiation
C. both
D. none
25. Which of the following have both energy and mass?

A. α-particles
B. β-particles
C. γ-particles
D. A and B
26. ALARA („As Low As Reasonably Achievable“)

A. As far away as possible
B. As less as possible (time)
C. As shielded as possible
D. All answers are correct
50
Q. As an ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a patient's body it will undergo a
change in:
Amplitude (energy)
Q. Changing from a 2 MHz to a 5 MHz ultrasound transducer would generally produce:

Shorter wavelength // shorter ultrasound pulses à Herz= Frequenz
Q. A sound source sends waves of 400 Hz. It produces waves of wavelength 2.5 m. The
velocity of sound waves is:

1000 m/s
51
Q. Refractive index of a material is = Lichtbrechung
The ratio btw speed of light in vacuum and speed of light in given material (n=c/v)
Q. The main idea for the eye pupil is

(All of the above)
Q. One reason why the sky appears blue is because:

Rayleigh (Luftstreuung) scattering in atmosphere
Q. Photons always propagate (ausbreiten) with speed c, but light appears to travel at a
speed different from c in dense media. How can we account for this phenomenon?
Electron oscillators in the medium introduce a phase charge upon re-radiation
Q. Which of the following is true:

A. A reflected beam always has the same irradiance as the incident beam;
B. A reflected beam lies in the same plane as the incident beam;
C. A reflected beam always makes an angle 45o with the normal to the interface.
Q. A photon has a chance of being absorbed by an atom, only if:

It has the exact energy corresponding to a quantum energy jump
Q. The spectrum observed when white light is showne through a prism is best explained
by:
Dispersion (streuung)
Q. Calculate the index of refraction for an object in which light travels at 1.97 x 10^8
m/s.
n=c/v=300.000.000/1,97x10^8=3/1,97=1,52
Q. True or False: The resolution of optical instrument is related to light

diffraction (Lichtbeuugung)
Q. Two monochromatic, coherent light waves after interference deletes each other when
the phase shift between the waves is equal to:
Multiple of the light half-wavelength
Q. The light dispersion (Verbreitung/Streuung) is:

How refraction index depends on wavelength
Q. Intensity of light, passing through the substance, decrease: exponentially
52
Q. With the increase of body temperature, the radiation wavelength decreases. This law is
called:
Wiens displacement law
UV
Q. Kirchhoff’s law of thermal radiation states that
At thermal equilibrium the emissivity of a body or surface equals to absorbitivity
Q. Stefan-Boltzmann law states that

Energy of thermal radiation is proportional to temperature of radiating object in the
power of 4
53
Q. Wien's displacement law states that
In case of black body radiation maximum will switch to shorter wavelength when
temperature of the body increases
Q. De Broglie hypothesis states that

Particles can act like waves
Q. Momentum of photon is
Inversely proportional to its wavelength
Q. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle states that

The more precisely the position of some particles is determined, the less precisely its
momentum can be known and vice versa
Q. In quantum mechanics, what is the equation that describes how the quantum state of a
physical system changes with time?
Schroedinger equation
Q. According to Pauli exclusion principle which quantum numbers should be different

for two electrons in the same orbital?
Spin quantum numbers
Q. According to Wien’s displacement law, which of these spectral lines corresponds to

black body at highest temperature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
54
Q. In the case of traditional photoluminescence we can expect shift between maximums
of excitation and emission spectra called Stoke’s shift. Which of these graphs represents
Stoke’s shift?
A.
B.
Optics
Atomic and molecular spectra. Classification of spectrum. Spectroscope.
Spectral analysis and its use in medicine.
Q. Following spectrum are: 1st: atomic; 2nd: molecular
Lasers, its construction. Laser classification. Laser properties and its use in
medicine. Laser safety class.
55
Q. Which from followings are not gas lasers:
A. Argon laser
B. Carbon dioxide laser
C. Thulium
D. Excimer laser
Q. An alpha particle is accelerated through a potential difference of 10 kV. Its gain in

kinetic energy is
20keV (doppelt+e)
Q. The Geiger–Marsden (Rutherford) experiment provides evidence for

A dense positively charged nucleus
Q. In the Geiger–Marsden experiment α-particles are scattered by gold nuclei. The

experimental results provide evidence that
Most of the mass and positive charge of an atom is concentrated in a small volume
Q. A freshly prepared sample contains 4.0 µg of iodine-131. After 24 days, 0.5 µg of

iodine-131 remain. The best estimate of the half-life of iodine-131 is
8 days
Q. Different nuclides spontaneously undergo radioactive decay (zerfall), emitting either

α, β or γ radiation. Which of the following correctly identifies all the emissions that do
not have discrete energies?
beta
Q. Which of the following correctly identifies the three particles emitted in the decay of
the nucleus into a nucleus of ? beta- , (gamma, v-)
Q. A nucleus of the isotope potassium-40 decays to a nucleus of the isotope argon-40.

The reaction equation for this decay may be written as
56
Which of the following correctly identifies the proton number of argon-40 and the
particle X?
Z X
–
18 β
A.
+
18 β
B.
19 +
β
C.
19 –
β D.
Q. The graph below shows the number of nuclei N of a radioactive isotope as a function
of time t.
The slope of the curve at any given time is

A. Independent of the decay constant.
B. Proportional to the half-life of the isotope.
C. Proportional to the number of radioactive nuclei remaining at that time.
D. Proportional to the number of radioactive nuclei decayed.
Q. A sample contains an amount of radioactive material with a half-life of 3.5 days. After
2 weeks the fraction of the radioactive material remaining is
1/16 = 6%
57
Q. A radio-isotope has an activity of 400 Bq and a half-life of 8 days. After 32 days the
activity of the sample is
1/16 x 400= 25 Bq
Q. A radioactive isotope has an initial activity A0 and a half-life of 1 day. The graph
shows how the activity A varies with time.
A.
Q. The process by which a heavy nucleus splits into two lighter nuclei is known as
Nuclear fission
Q. A radioactive source emits alpha particles that then travel through air. With reference
to the range of the alpha particles consider the following three quantities.
A. The charge of the alpha particle
B. The kinetic energy of the alpha particle
C. The density of the air
All of the above
Which of the above determines the range of the alpha particles?
Q. Data concerning nuclides are plotted using the axes below.
58
What are the axis labels for this graph?
Y X
binding energy per nucleon number of nucleons A.
binding energy number of protons B.
number of protons binding energy per nucleon C.

number of nucleons binding energy D.
Q. The radii of nuclei may be determined by

Scattering charged particles of the nuclei (MRT)
Q. The radii of nuclei can be estimated from experiments involving

Charged particle scattered experiment
59
Q. Which of the following graphs best shows the variation with nucleon number N of the
binding energy per nucleon E?
D.
Q. The binding energy of a nucleus is defined to be the

The energy require to break down a nucleus into its components nucleons
Q. The diagram below shows a circuit involving a photoelectric cell. When UV light is
shone onto the metal cathode, electrons are emitted establishing a photocurrent.
Which of the following changes could cause the photocurrent to stop?

A. Increasing the potential difference of the power supply.
B. Increasing the frequency of the UV light.
C. Increasing the intensity of the UV light.
D. Changing the metal surface to one with a smaller work function.
60
Q. Ultra-violet light is shone on a zinc surface and photoelectrons are emitted. The sketch
graph shows how the stopping potential Vs varies with frequency f.
Planck’s constant may be determined from the charge of an electron e multiplied by

A. the x-intercept.
B. the y-intercept.
C. the gradient.
D. the area under the graph.
Q. Which of the following is a correct statement associated with the photoelectric effect?
A. Electron emission is instantaneous.
B. Electrons are only emitted if the incident light is above a certain minimum
wavelength.
C. The energy of the emitted electrons depends on the light intensity.
D. The energy of the emitted electrons does not depend on the frequency of the incident
light.
Q. Light of wavelength is incident on a metal surface in a vacuum. Photoelectrons are

emitted from the surface of the metal.
Which of the following best shows the variation with l of the maximum kinetic energy
EK of the emitted electrons?
A.
61
Q. The diagram shows some of the energy levels of a hypothetical atom.
The atom is excited to the energy level n = 4. Which of the following transitions will
produce a photon of the longest and the shortest wavelength?
Longest wavelength Shortest wavelength
4→ 3 4→ 1 A.
4→ 1 4→ 3 B.
2→ 1 4→ 3 . C.
4→ 3 2→ 1 D.
Q. The diagram shows four possible electron energy levels in the hydrogen atom.
The number of different frequencies

in the emission spectrum of atomic
hydrogen that arise from electron
transitions between these levels is
A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
62
Q. A free electron is confined within a one-dimensional region of fixed length. Which of
the diagrams below shows the four lowest energy levels of the electron?
C.
Q. The energies of alpha particles and of gamma rays emitted in radioactive decay are
discrete. This observation is evidence for
Nuclear energy levels
Q. Which of the following correctly describes the nature of the energy spectra of alpha,
beta, and gamma radiation?
alpha beta gamma
discrete continuous discrete A.
continuous discrete discrete B.
discrete discrete continuous C.
continuous continuous discrete D.
Q. Annual dose level in EU for radiation workers is

A. 1 mSv/y
B. 5 mSv/y
C. 20 mSv/y
D. 100 mSv/y
Q. Annual dose level in EU for population is

A. 1 mSv/y
B. 5 mSv/y
C. 20 mSv/y
D. 100 mSv/y
Q. SI unit for Radioactivity is:

Bq = Bequerel
63
Q. Discoverer of radioactivity is:
Antonie Hanry Bequerel
Q. The relationship between proton number Z, neutron number N and nucleon number A
is:
N=A-Z
Q. The nuclear equation below is an example of the transmutation of

mercury(Quecksilber=Hg) into gold.(Au)
The particle X is a alpha particle à 4/2He
Q. A radioactive isotope has a half-life of two minutes. A sample contains sixteen grams
of the isotope. How much time elapses until one gram of the isotope remains?
8min
Q. The number of neutrons and the number of protons in a nucleus of an atom of the
isotope
of uranium are: neutrons=143; protons=92

( unten protonen oben beides protonen und electronen )
Radioactivity
Q. The half-life of Zn-71 is 2.4 minutes. If one had 100.0 g at the beginning, how many
grams would be left after 7.2 minutes has elapsed?
12.5g
Q. SI unit for equivalent Dose is:

Sievert
64
65
1. The Achilles tendon is attached to the back of the foot as shown in the image. If a man rises to the one point of the
tarsal, then what kind of lever is it?

- Class 2 lever strength
2. The first condition necessary to achieve equilibrium is the net external force on the system must be zero. Which of the
given case in figure is in equilibrium? Net force= 0
-
3. A person is lying in bed. In the aorta has developed an extension or aneurysm. The aortic radius Rao is 1 cm.
Aneurysms radius Ran is 4 cm. Which oft he answers is correct?
-The resistance decreases by 81 fold 34 whereby the flow increases by 81 times
4. A person is lying down in bed. Arterial stenosis is developed in artery. Radiuss of normal artery Rart is 1cm and
radiuss of stenosis Rsten is 0,4cm. Blood flow velocity is in artery is vart and in stenosis vsten. Part and Psten is
accordingly pressure in artery and stenosis. In the conditions of stenosis, which of the answers is correct?
-The pressure increases and the flow decreases by 81
5. The amount of blood the heart pumps in one beat is approximately 60 ml. If the pulse is 70 beats per minute, find the
amount of blood that the heart pumps per minute (cardiac output)
-answ. = 60*70 = 4.2 litres
6. Which of the following is/are true concerning magnetic forces and fields?
- A charged particle can move through a magnetic field without feeling a magnetic force.
7. A particle of charge -0.04 C is projected with a speed 2x 104 m/s into a uniform magnetic field, B, of strength 0.5
T. If the particle’s velocity as it enters the field is perpendicular to B, what is the magnitude of the
magnetic force on this particle?
- F= 400 N
8. If a wave has frequency f=1014 Hz and speed v=100 m/s, what is its wavelength? Lambda= velocity/frequency
-1x10-12m or 0.001nm
9. Electronic device that converts one form of energy to another calls
- Transducer
10. Two charges are separated by a distance d. If the distance between them is doubled, how does the electric
potential between them change?
- The potential energy will be halved
11. Piezoelectricity means:

- It is the electrical charge that accumulates in certain solid materials in response to applied mechanical stress.
12. Electromagnetic waves are produced by

- They are the combination of electric and magnetic field waves produced by moving particles.
These waves swing back and forth in perpendicular planes with respect to each other.
Electromagnetic waves are produced whenever charged particles are accelerated,
13. What do magnetic field around a bar magnet look like?
At the end of the poles they make a curve, they travel form the north pole to the south pole and form closed lines
14. Point A is at lower electrical potential than point B. An electron between them on the line joining them will...
...move toward point B.
15. Refractive index of a material is:
the speed of the light in vacuum divided by the speed of the light in the medium.
16. The main idea for the eye pupil is..
To control the amount of light entering the eye

To control the sharpness of image forming on
retina To adjust the focal depth
..to regulate the amount of light that enters the eye and strike the retina.
17. One reason why the sky appears blue is because:
-blue light is scattered to a greater extent than the red light, lower wavelength light are scattered the most.
18. Photons always propagate with speed c, but light appears to travel at a speed different from c in dense media. How can we
account for this phenomenon?
the medium absorbs a wall part of the energy of the light
Light (photons) always travels at the speed of light (in vacum). But in a material it travels at the speed of light
until it hits an atom. It is then absorbed and re-emitted in the same direction (secondary EM waves), which takes
a small amount of time. The more this happens, the slower the effective average speed.
The denser the material, the more atoms there are in the way.
19. A photon has a chance of being absorbed by an atom, only if:
absorption of a photon will occur only when the quantum energy of the photon precisely matches the
energy gap between the initial and final states, it means only if the photon has the exact energy
corresponding to a quantum energy jump.
20. The spectrum observed when white light is shone through a prism is best explained by: Dispersion.
21. Calculate the index of refraction for an object in which light travels at 1.97 x 108 m/s.
n=c/v=3/1.97=1.52
22. Two monochromatic, coherent light waves after interference deletes each other when the phase shift between the waves is
equal to: pi or 180 degree
23. The light dispersion is: the separation of visible light into it’s different colours.
24. Intensity of light, passing through the substance, decrease: when reflection at phase boundaries occurs or if
concentration increase
25. Urine absorption spectrum more likely to be:

190-250 nm
Proportional
27. In the Rayleigh scattering, scattered light intensity is:

In the Rayleigh scattering, scattered light intensity is inversely proportional to wavelength of
four degrees. I=1/l^4
28. Turbidimetry used:

To measure the loss of intensity of transmitted light due to the scattering effect of particles suspend it
29. If the increasing light wavelength refractive index decreases, then it is:
Normal dispersion
30. With the increase of body temperature, the radiation wavelength decreases. This law is called:
Wiens displacement law
31. Kirchhoff’s law of thermal radiation states that

The emissivity and the absorptivity of the black body are same and always equal to 1; for a body of any
arbitrary material emitting and absorbing thermal electromagnetic radiation at every wavelength in thermodynamic
equilibrium, the ratio of its emissive power to its dimensionless coefficient of absorption is equal to a universal
function only of radiative wavelength and temperature. That universal function describes the perfect black body
emissive power
32. Stefan-Boltzmann law states that

The energy radiated per unit area per unit time by the black body is directly proportional to the forth power
E=T4 of the temperature of the black body
33. Wien's displacement law states that
• Wiens displacement law states that in case of black body radiation maximum will switch to shorter wavelength
when temperature of the body increases.
34. De Broglie hypothesis states that

Particles of matter also had wavelengths and could behave as waves just as
photons did Or De Broglie hypothesis states that particles can act as waves
35. Momentum of photon is

P=E/c=h*v/c=h/lambda
a. Inversely proportional to its wavelength
36. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle states that

• Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle states that the more precisely the position of some particles are determined
by the less precisely its momentum can be known and vice versa
37.) In quantum mechanics, what is the equation that describes how the quantum state of a physical system changes with time?
iℏ(∂/∂t)|ψ(t)⟩=H(t)|ψ(t)⟩ -> describes the changes over time of a physical system in which quantum effects, such as wave–
particle duality, are significant
Schroedinger’s equation describes how the quantum state of a physical system changes with time
38.) According to Pauli exclusion principle which quantum numbers should be different for two electrons in the same orbital?
ms, the spin quantum number
39.) According to Wien’s displacement law, which of these spectral lines corresponds to black body at highest temperature?
equation shifts toward shorter wavelength when temperture increases
40.) In the case of traditional photoluminescence we can expect shift between maximums of excitation and
emission spectra called Stoke’s shift. Which of these graphs represents Stoke’s shift?(b)
41.) Following spectrum are:
- atomic and molecular

42.) Which from followings are not gas lasers:
semiconductor
Gas lasers belong to: Argon-ion-, Helium-Neon-, Chemical-, Nitrogen-, Excimer-, Carbonmonoxide- and Carbon
dioxidlaser 43.) An alpha particle is accelerated through a potential difference of U=10 kV.
Its gain in kinetic energy is 20 keV
44.) The Geiger–Marsden (Rutherford) experiment provides evidence for
a nucleus of small and quite massive mass -> nucleus is place of positive charge and concentration of mass
dense positively charged nucleus.
45.) In the Geiger–Marsden experiment α-particles are scattered by gold nuclei. The experimental results provide
evidence that most of mass and positive charge is concentrated in a small volume (gold nuclei have a very high
binding energy)
most of the mass and positive charge of an atom is concentrated in a small volume.
46.) A freshly prepared sample contains 4.0 µg of iodine-131. After 24 days, 0.5 µg of iodine-131 remain. The best
estimate of the half-life of iodine-131 is
t ½ = 8 days
47.) Different nuclides spontaneously undergo radioactive decay, emitting either α, β or γ radiation. Which of the
following correctly identifies all the emissions that do not have discrete energies?
beta, the rest-discrete
48.) Which of the following correctly identifies the three particles emitted in the decay of the nucleus #$Ca into a nucleus of #$Sc
%& %'
? a, b-, v-
antineitrino
49.)A nucleus of the isotope potassium-40 decays to a nucleus of the isotope argon- 40. The reaction equation for
this decay may be written as
40 40
K® Ar+X+ν 18 Z β+
50. Which of the following correctly identifies the proton number of argon-40 and the particle X?
à Z=18 àX=18β^+
51.) The graph below shows the number of nuclei N of a radioactive isotope as a function of time t.
The slope of the curve at any given time is à proportional of n of the nuclei which are radioactive in the time.
52.A sample contains an amount of radioactive material with a half-life of 3.5 days. After 2 weeks the fraction of the
radioactive material remaining is
à6 % remain
53.A radio-isotope has an activity of 400 Bq and a half-life of 8 days. After 32 days the activity of the sample is
à25bq
54.A radioactive isotope has an initial activity A0 and a half-life of 1 day. The graph shows how the activity A varies with time.
The ratio A0/A2 is equal to which of the following?
à A1/A3
Next time
56.)
A radioactive source emits alpha particles that then travel through air. With reference to the range of the alpha
particles consider the following three quantities.
A The charge of the alpha particle
B The kinetic energy of the alpha particle
C The density of the air
Which of the above determines the range of the alpha
particles? 57.) Data concerning nuclides are plotted using
the axes below.
àY:Binding energy per nucleon; X: number of nucleons
58.) The radii of nuclei may be determined by
à charged particle scattering experiments. Tossing charged particles towards nucleus and measure the angle
they come off. Then it is being calculated, how close they have been to the nucleus. (Nucleus is + charged)
59.)
The radii of nuclei can be estimated from experiments involving
Charged particle scattering experiments.
60.)
Which of the following graphs best shows the variation with nucleon number N of the binding energy per nucleon E?
61.)
The binding energy of a nucleus is defined to be the
energy released when a nucleus is formed from its

individual constituents
61. The diagram below shows a circuit involving a photoelectric cell. When UV light is shone onto the metal cathode, electrons
are emitted establishing a photocurrent. Which of the following changes could cause the photocurrent to stop?
A. Increasing the potential difference of the power supply.
62. Ultra-violet light is shone on a zinc surface and photoelectrons are emitted. The sketch graph shows how the stopping
potential Vs varies with frequency f. Planck’s constant may be determined
from the charge of an electron e multiplied by
C. the gradient.
63. Which of the following is a correct statement associated with the photoelectric effect?
B. Electron emission is instantaneous.

64. Light of wavelength is incident on a metal surface in a vacuum. Photoelectrons are emitted from the surface of the metal.
Which of the following graphs best shows the variation with lambda of the maximum kinetic energy EK of the emitted electrons?
Answer - c
65. The diagram shows some of the energy levels of a hypothetical atom. The atom is excited to the energy level n = 4. Which of
the following transitions will produce a photon of the longest and the shortest wavelength?
Longest wavelength Shortest wavelength

4→3 4→1
66. The diagram shows four possible electron energy levels in the hydrogen atom. The number of different frequencies in the
emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen that arise from electron transitions between these levels is 6.
67. A free electron is confined within a one-dimensional region of fixed length. Which of the diagrams below shows the four
lowest energy levels of the electron? C
68. The energies of alpha particles and of gamma-rays emitted in radioactive decay are discrete. This observation is evidence for
nuclear energy levels
69. Which of the following correctly describes the nature of the energy spectra of alpha, beta, and gamma radiation?
alpha: discrete, beta: continuous, gamma: discrete
70. Annual dose level in EU for radiation workers is

20 millisieverts
71. Annual dose level in EU for population is

1 millisievert
72. SI unit for Radioactivity is:

Becquerel (Bq)
73. Discoverer of radioactivity is: Henri Becquerel
74. The relationship between proton number Z, neutron number N and nucleon number A is: N= A-Z
75. The nuclear equation below is an example of the transmutation of mercury into gold. + X The particle X is a helium
nucleus_
76. A radioactive isotope has a half-life of two minutes. A sample contains 16 g grams of the isotope. How much time elapses
until one gram of the isotope remains? 8 Minutes
77. The number of neutrons and the number of protons in a nucleus of an atom of the isotope of uranium are 92 Protons, 15
Neutrons
78. The half-life of Zn-71 is 2.4 minutes. If one had 100.0 g at the beginning, how many grams would be left after 7.2 minutes
has elapsed? 12.5g
79. SI unit for equivalent Dose is: Sievert
80. The gradual decrease in the x-ray beam intensity as it passes through the material is called: attenuation
81. The gradual decrease in the ultrasound intensity as it passes through the tissue is called: reflection
82. What kind of physical characteristic of a particle gives rise to a gyromagnetic ratio? angular moment and magnetic
dipole moment
83. The energy passing through unit area is: intensity of x-ray
84. The speed of ultrasound depends upon: Material,density acoustic impedance, depends on how quick the disturbance is passed
along
85. Bones look white in x-ray photograph because bones are good absorbers of x-rays (mainly calcium and phosphate)
86. Larmor frequency depends upon the flux density and prominent, individual nucleus and angular momentum or spin
frequency
87. Acoustic impedance depends on the density of the tissue, the speed of the sound wave, acoustic pressure and acoustic
resistance in the time domain
88. By using the piezo-electric substances, a responds to mechanical stress or producing electricity by force
89. With the gel between skin and transducer the percentage of reflected intensity of ultrasonic is 0,03%. Or about 0 reduce
reflection of US
90. The attenuation coefficient depends on the medium, X-rays and radiance.
91. The x-rays are filtered out of human body by using aluminum absorbers.
92. The wavelength of x-rays is in range from 0.01 to 10 nanometers.

93. If fast moving electrons rapidly decelerate, then rays produced are soft x- rays.
94. As the x-rays pass through matter, its intensity is reduced.
95. X-rays have a high frequency and short wavelength.
96. Acoustic impedance is defined as (p-the density of the tissue (in kg/m3); c- the speed of the sound wave (in m/s))
97. A sound wave which has frequency higerh than the upper limit of human heaing is …
ultrasonic
98. Fatty tissues after applying external magnetic field have relaxation times of several hundred milliseconds higher then normal
tissue.
99. The angular frequency of precision of protons in an external magnetic field (MRI method) is called Larmor frequency.
100. Scattered x-ray beams approach the detector screen at an angle
101. The maximum energy, the x-ray photon can have is: will be when lambda (wavelength ) = short E=h*c/ lambda EV
The maximum energy of the produced X-ray photon is limited by the energy of the incident electron, which is
equal to the voltage on the tube times the electron charge, so an 80 kV tube cannot create X-rays with an
energy greater than 80 keV.
102. Soft x-rays have: low energies; low frequencies, long wavelengths
103. The intensity of x-rays can be increased by increasing the voltage by contrast media
104. Bone thickness is equal to
105. The hardness of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing the voltage
106. In x-ray production, the kinetic energy of an electron arriving at anode is transform to x rays , or electron lost its energy.
107. The change in speed of ultrasound causes refraction
108. The type of x-rays used to detect the break in bone is radiography.
109. The wavelength of 2.0 MHz ultrasound waves in soft tissue is [c = 1540 m/s]: lambda = c/f = 1540/2000000 = 0.00077
m
-4
-7.5×1 m; 0.00077 m or 0.77mm
0
110. Intensifier screens reduces the patient's exposure to x-rays by a factor of
-100-500
111. Contrast media consist of elements with
-higher atomic number
112. The thickness of material which decreases the intensity of x-ray material to half of original value is
-half thickness; (half value layer (HVL))
113. A good x-ray source should produce x-rays of narrow beam and:
-also parallel x-rays
114. As an ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a patient's body it will undergo a change in:
-Amplitude, intensity and physical size
115. Changing from a 2 MHz to a 5 MHz ultrasound transducer would generally produce:
-Shorter wavelengths which means shorter ultrasound pulses
116. A sound source sends waves of 400 Hz. It produces waves of wavelength 2.5 m. The velocity of sound waves is
1000 m/s
117. The repetition of a sound produced by the "reflection of sound waves" from an obstructing surface, loud enough and
received late enough to be perceived as distinct from the source?
-This is an echo
118. A driving force in tune with the natural frequency? –is called resonance (large amplitude)
119.Unit of loudness level?
decibel
120. The "persistence" of sound in a particular space after the original sound is produced?
-is called reverberation
Next time
120 : unit of loudness level? – Phon (for pure
tones) 121 : the voulume of the sound :
amplitude
122: the unit oft he intensity level of the sound? –
decibel 123 : unwanted sound : noise
124: The "persistence" of sound in a particular space after the original sound is produced?- Reverberation -> decay as the sound is
absorbed by the surface the space
125: You were commissioned to design a music room and to reduce reverberations. What flooring surface are you going to
apply? – carpet 126:

What is the BEST way to reduce air-borne sound?-use absoprtive materials
127: The range of sound a human ear can detect? 20-20000 hz
128: What is an octave? Octave is a music interval defined by the ratio 2:1 regardless oft he starting frequency. 100Hz- 200Hz (it
is an octave) 129: A reflective surface increases diffusion, they do so by scattering the sound. – convex
130 : A is a room with a lot of soft furniture, heavy carpeting and drapes and the peaks and valleys of the frequency response
typically vary by 5- room
131: A is a room with bare walls and floor, and the peaks and valleys vary 10-20 dB or more. – live room
132: the persistence of sound after the source of sound has stopped ?- Reverbaration : persistance of sound after it is
produced. Reechoed sound . somethi reverberated
133. Most effective material agaisn ECHO? – heavy curtains
134. Frequencies below 20 Hz are called? Infrasonic sound
135. When heat is absorbed Molecules move rapidly, positive entropy change the longer an object is exposed to the heat source the more
heat is absorbed
136. Conduction is an example of heat transfer
137. Specific heat capacity measures: the amount of energy required to increase the temperature of a substance
138. Heat is the transfer of energy from hot to cold
139. What law asserts that energy is a thermodynamic
property? first law of thermodynamics
140. A system which consists of fixed amount of mass and no mass can cross its boundary called … closed system, mass system
141. What is a process during which the temperature remains constant? Quasi-state or quasi-equilibrium process; isochoric process
142. The molecules of a gas moving through space with some velocity possesses what kind of energy? Translastion energy; Kinetic theory
of gases
143. What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system? K(Kelvin)
PHYSICS EXAMINATION QUESTIONS HIGHER LEVEL

Biomechanics
MCQ The Achilles tendon is attached to the back of the foot as shown in the image. If
a man rises to the one point of the tarsal, then what kind of lever is it?
- Lever of strength
MCQ The first condition necessary to achieve equilibrium is the net external force on
the system must be zero. Which of given case in figure is in equilibrium.
MCQ A person is lying down in bed. In the aorta has developed an extension or
aneurysm. The aortic radius Rao is 1 cm. Aneurysms radius Ran is 4 cm. Which of the
answers is correct?
MCQ A person is lying down in bed. Arterial stenosis is developed in artery. Radiuss
of normal artery Rart is 1cm and radiuss of stenosis Rsten is 0,4cm. Blood flow
velocity is in artery is vart and in stenosis vsten. Part and Psten is accordingly
pressure in artery and stenosis. In the conditions of stenosis, which of the answers is
correct?
- In Stenosis:
v(sten) > v(art)
MCQ The amount of blood the heart pumps in one beat is approximately 60ml. If the
pulse is 70 beats per minute, find the amount of blood that the heart pumps per
minute (cardiac output).
- 60#$ ∗ 70 = 4,200 #$ = 4,2$
Electromagnetism
MCQ Which of the following is / are true concerning magnetic forces and fields?
A. The magnetic field lines due to a current-carrying wire propagate away from the
wire.
B. The kinetic energy of a charged particle can be increased by a magnetic force.
C. A charged particle can move through a magnetic field without feeling a magnetic
force.
- A and C
MCQ A particle of charge –0.04 C is projected with speed 2 × 104 m/s into a uniform
- 400 newtons
MCQ If a wave has frequency f=1014 Hz and speed v = 100 m/s, what is its
wavelength?
- λ = 10 -12 or 1000 nm
MCQ Electronic device that converts one form of energy to another calls
- transducers
MCQ Two charges are separated by a distance d. If the distance between them is
doubled, how does the electric potential between them change?
- decreases
MCQ Piezoelectricity means

- Apply the pressure induces electric charge
MCQ Electromagnetic waves are produced by

- Accelerating charges
MCQ What do magnetic field around a bar magnet look like?

- north to south, + à - around the magnet
MCQ Point A is at lower electrical potential than point B. An electron between them on
the line joining them will
-B
Optics
MCQ Refractive index of a material is
- ratio between speed of the light in vacuum vs in medium
MCQ The main idea for the eye pupil is

- pupillary reflex, regulate the amount of the light
- regulate the focal depth
- sharpness
MCQ One reason why the sky appears blue is because

- Because of the reflected blue light from the atmosphere
MCQ Photons always propagate with speed c, but light appears to travel at a speed
different from c in dense media. How can we account for this phenomenon?
- because of electron oscillatorà introduce phase change
MCQ A photon has a chance of being absorbed by an atom, only if

- specific wave length bring electron to the next energy level
MCQ The spectrum observed when white light is shone through a prism is best
explained by:
Dispersion.
MCQ Calculate the index of refraction for an object in which light travels at 1.97 x 108
m/s.
- n = 1,5
MCQ Two monochromatic, coherent light waves after interference deletes each other
when the phase shift between the waves is equal to
- out of phase, shift half of the wave length
MCQ The light dispersion is:

- the refraction index depend on the wave length
MCQ Intensity of light, passing through the substance, decrease:

- Velocity, exponential relationship
MCQ Urine absorption spectrum more likely to be:

- > 450 nm
MCQ In the colorimetry, dye concentration dependence of the absorption band peak
is:
-exponential
MCQ In the Rayleigh scattering, scattered light intensity is:

- propotinal by lambda to the power of 4
MCQ Turbidimetry used:

- uses scattering
MCQ If the increasing light wavelength refractive index decreases, then it is:
- It is normal dispersion
MCQ With the increase of body temperature, the radiation wavelength decreases. This
law is called:
- wien displacement law
MCQ Kirchhoff’s law of thermal radiation states that

-Absorption is the same as emission
MCQ Stefan-Boltzmann law states that

energy of thermal radiation is propotional to temperature of radiating object in λp^4
MCQ Wien's displacement law states that

Temp high àthe wavelength get shorter
MCQ De Broglie hypothesis states that

that particles can act like waves
MCQ Momentum of photon is

inversly proportional to its wavelength
MCQ Heisenberg's uncertainty principle states that

the position and velocity cannot both be measured, exactly, at the same time
MCQ In quantum mechanics, what is the equation that describes how the quantum
state of a physical system changes with time?
Schrödingers equation.
MCQ According to Pauli exclusion principle which quantum numbers should be

different for two electrons in the same orbital?
MCQ According to Wien’s displacement law, which of these spectral lines

corresponds to black body at highest temperature?
The highest graph
MCQ In the case of traditional photoluminescence we can expect shift between
maximums of excitation and emission spectra called Stoke’s shift. Which of these
graphs represents Stoke’s shift?
MCQ Following spectrum are:

Both are emission
MCQ Which from followings are not gas lasers:

Thulium
X-Rays, Nuclear physics, +Radioactivity
MCQ An alpha particle is accelerated through a potential difference of 10 kV. Its gain
in kinetic energy is
20000j
MCQ The Geiger–Marsden (Rutherford) experiment provides evidence for
for positively charged nucleus
MCQ In the Geiger–Marsden experiment α-particles are scattered by gold nuclei. The
experimental results provide evidence that
that most of the mass and positive charge of an atom is concentrated in a small volume.
MCQ A freshly prepared sample contains 4.0 μg of iodine-131. After 24 days, 0.5 μg of
iodine-131 remain. The best estimate of the half-life of iodine-131 is
24/3 halflives = 8 days
MCQ Different nuclides spontaneously undergo radioactive decay, emitting either α, β
or γ radiation. Which of the following correctly identifies all the emissions that do not
have discrete energies?
-Beta
MCQ Which of the following correctly identifies the three particles emitted in the
decay of the nucleus 45 Ca into a nucleus of 45 Sc ?
beta -, gamma, γ - (antineutrenon)
MCQ Q. A nucleus of the isotope potassium-40 decays to a nucleus of the isotope

argon-40. The reaction equation for this decay may be written as
Which of the following correctly identifies the proton number of argon-40 and the
particle X?
18 b+
MCQ The graph below shows the number of nuclei N of a radioactive isotope as a
function of time t.
The slope of the curve at any given time is

Proportional to the number of radioactive nuclei remaining at that time
MCQ A sample contains an amount of radioactive material with a half-life of 3.5 days.
After 2 weeks the fraction of the radioactive material remaining is
6,25%
MCQ A radio-isotope has an activity of 400 Bq and a half-life of 8 days. After 32 days
the activity of the sample is
-25Bq
MCQ A radioactive isotope has an initial activity A0 and a half-life of 1 day. The graph
shows how the activity A varies with time. The ratio A0 is equal to which of the
following?
A1/A3
MCQ The process by which a heavy nucleus splits into two lighter nuclei is known as
nuclear fission
MCQ A radioactive source emits alpha particles that then travel through air. With
reference to the range of the alpha particles consider the following three quantities.
A The charge of the alpha particle
B The kinetic energy of the alpha particle
C The density of the air
Which of the above determines the range of the alpha particles?
All the answears are right
MCQ Data concerning nuclides are plotted using the axes below.
binding energy per nucleon number of nucleons
MCQ The radii of nuclei may be determined by

Charged particle scattered experiment
MCQ The radii of nuclei can be estimated from experiments involving

Charged particle
MCQ Which of the following graphs best shows the variation with nucleon number N
of the binding energy per nucleon E?
- graph for the bindning energy
MCQ The binding energy of a nucleus is defined to be the
defined to be the energy required to break down a nucleus in to its components nucleons.
MCQ The diagram below shows a circuit involving a photoelectric cell. When UV light
is shone onto the metal cathode, electrons are emitted establishing a photocurrent.
Which of the following changes could cause the photocurrent to stop?

Increasing the potential difference of the power supply.
MCQ Ultra-violet light is shone on a zinc surface and photoelectrons are emitted. The
sketch graph shows how the stopping potential Vs varies with frequency f.
Planck’s constant may be determined from the charge of an electron e multiplied by
The gradient
MCQ Which of the following is a correct statement associated with the photoelectric
effect?
-The energy of the emittes electrons depends on the light intensity
MCQ Light of wavelength is incident on a metal surface in a vacuum. Photoelectrons

are emitted from the surface of the metal.
Which of the following best shows the variation with of the maximum kinetic energy
EK of the emitted electrons?
C
MCQ The diagram shows some of the energy levels of a hypothetical atom.
The atom is excited to the energy level n = 4. Which of the following transitions will
produce a photon of the longest and the shortest wavelength?
longest wavelength:
àlowest energy : n=4 à n=3
shortest wavelength
à highest energy: n=4 à n=1
MCQ The diagram shows four possible electron energy levels in the hydrogen atom.
The number of different frequencies in the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen
that arise from electron transitions between these levels is
From the higher to the lower level à shorter wavelength
- 6 levels to travel for electron
MCQ A free electron is confined within a one dimensional region of fixed length.
Which of the diagrams below shows the four lowest energy levels of the electron?
-c
MCQ The energies of alpha particles and of gamma-rays emitted in radioactive decay
are discrete. This observation is evidence for
- evidence for nuclear energy levels
MCQ Which of the following correctly describes the nature of the energy spectra of
alpha, beta, and gamma radiation?
alpha beta gamma
discrete continuous discrete
MCQ Annual dose level in EU for radiation workers is

20msv/years
MCQ Annual dose level in EU for population is

1msv/years
MCQ SI unit for Radioactivity is:

bequerel (Bq).
MCQ Discoverer of radioactivity is:

Antoine Henri Bequerel
MCQ The relationship between proton number Z, neutron number N and nucleon
number A is:
N=A-Z
MCQ The nuclear equation below is an example of the transmutation of mercury into
gold.
The particle X is an
alpha particle (He 4,2) ie a helium nucleus.
MCQ A radioactive isotope has a half-life of two minutes. A sample contains sixteen
grams of the isotope. How much time elapses until one gram of the isotope remains?
8 min
MCQ The number of neutrons and the number of protons in a nucleus of an atom of
the isotope of uranium are

Mass number= 235, Neutrons= 235-92= 143, Protons= 235
MCQ The half-life of Zn-71 is 2.4 minutes. If one had 100.0 g at the beginning, how
many grams would be left after 7.2 minutes has elapsed?
12,5g
MCQ SI unit for equivalent Dose is:

Sievert Sv
Medical Imaging
MCQ The gradual decrease in the x-ray beam intensity as it passes through the
material is
called
-attenuation
MCQ The gradual decrease in the ultrasound intensity as it passes through the tissue
is called
attenuation
MCQ What kind of physical characteristic of a particle gives rise to a gyromagnetic

ratio?
the atom spine
MCQ The energy passing through unit area is

Intensity of the X-ray
MCQ The speed of ultrasound depends upon

the material or density
MCQ Bones look white in x-ray photograph because

Absorption
MCQ Larmor frequency depends upon the

Individual nature of the nucleus and magnetic field
MCQ Acoustic impedance depends on:

Speed of the sound wave and the density of the tissue
MCQ By using the piezo-electric substances

To produce ultrasounds
MCQ With the gel between skin and transducer the percentage of reflected intensity of
ultrasonic is
0.0003
MCQ The attenuation coefficient depends on the

material
the energy of radiation
wavelenght of light which is being absorbed
MCQ The x-rays are filtered out of human body by using

aluminum absorbers
MCQ The wavelength of x-rays is in range

10-8 to 10-13 m
MCQ If fast moving electrons rapidly decelerate, then rays produced are
x-rays
MCQ As the x-rays pass through matter, its intensity

decreases
MCQ X-rays have

short wave lenght and high frequency
MCQ Acoustic impedance is defined as [ρ – the density of the tissue (in kg/m3); c - the
speed of the sound wave (in m/s)
density * speed
MCQ A sound wave which has frequency higher than the upper limit of human
hearing is
Ultrasonic
MCQ Fatty tissues after applying external magnetic field have

relaxation times of several hundred milliseconds
MCQ The angular frequency of precision of protons in an external magnetic field (MRI
method) is called
-lamor frequency
MCQ Scattered x-ray beams approach the detector screen

At an angle
MCQ The maximum energy, the x-ray photon can have is

-eV
MCQ Soft x-rays have

Lower energy
MCQ The intensity of x-rays can be increased by increasing

Elecrtical current
MCQ Bone thickness is equal to (c - the speed of the sound waves (in m/s); t - time of
traveling (in s)
(c∆t)/2
MCQ The hardness of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing

The voltage
MCQ In x-ray production, the kinetic energy of an electron arriving at anode is

20 KeV
MCQ The change in speed of ultrasound causes

Refraction
MCQ the type of xrays used to detect the break in bones is...
Hard x-ray
MCQ The wavelength of 2.0 MHz ultrasound waves in soft tissue is (c=1540 m/s)
7.5 x 10^(-4) m
MCQ Intensifier screens reduces the patient's exposure to x-rays by a factor of

100-500
MCQ Contrast media consist of elements with

Higher atomic number
MCQ The thickness of material which decreases the intensity of x-ray material to half
of original value is
0.693/μ
MCQ A good x-ray source should produce x-rays of narrow beam and
Parallel x-ray
Ultrasound
MCQ As an ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a patient's body it will undergo
a
change in:
amplitude
MCQ Changing from a 2 MHz to a 5 MHz ultrasound transducer would generally

produce:
Shorter wavelength and shorter ultrasound pulse
MCQ A sound source sends waves of 400 Hz. It produces waves of wavelength 2.5 m.
The
velocity of sound waves is
1000 m/s
MCQ The repetition of a sound produced by the "reflection of sound waves" from an
obstructing surface, loud enough and received late enough to be perceived as distinct
from the source?
ECHO
MCQ A driving force in tune with the natural frequency?

Resonance
MCQ Unit of loudness level?

-phon
MCQ The "persistence" of sound in a particular space after the original sound is
produced?
Reverberation
MCQ What is the BEST way to reduce air-borne sound?
Use absorpative material
MCQ The range of sound a human ear can detect?

20-20000 hz
MCQ _____ weight elements transmit little sound and are more reflective.
-Heavy
MCQ The volume of the sound?

Amplitude
MCQ The unit of the intensity level of the sound?

SIL, sound intensity level
MCQ Unwanted sound?

Noise
MCQ You were commissioned to design a music room and to reduce reverberations.
What flooring surface are you going to apply?
Carpet with under padding
MCQ What is an octave?

is the interval between one musical pitch and another with half or double its frequency
MCQ A _____ reflective surface increases diffusion, they do so by scattering the

sound.
convex
MCQ A ______ is a room with a lot of soft furniture, heavy carpeting and drapes and
the peaks and valleys of the frequency response typically vary by 5-10 dB
-Dead room
MCQ A ______ is a room with bare walls and floor, and the peaks and valleys vary 10-
20 dB or more.
- Live room
MCQ The persistence of sound after the source of sound has stopped?
-Reverbration
MCQ Most Effective material against ECHO?

-Heavy carpet
MCQ Frequencies below 20Hz are called?

-Infrasonic sounds
Thermodynamics
MCQ When objects are at different temperatures:
They exchange thermal energy
MCQ When heat is absorbed:

molecules move faster
MCQ Conduction is an example of:

Heat transfear
MCQ Specific heat capacity measures:

substance is the amount of energy needed to change the temperature of 1 kg of the
substance by 1°C
MCQ Heat is
Energy transfer
MCQ What law asserts that energy is a thermodynamic property?

First law of thermodynamic,
MCQ A system which consists of fixed amount of mass and no mass can cross its
boundary
called
closed system
MCQ What is a process during which the temperature remains constant?

Isothermal process
MCQ The molecules of a gas moving through space with some velocity possesses
what kind of energy?
Translation energy
MCQ What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system?

Kelvin
Exam in Medical Physics.
Acoustics
1. A sound wave which has frequency higher than the upper limit of human hearing is
called megasound. FALSE
called supersonic. FALSE
3. Ultrasound is a unit for frequency of the sound wave. FALSE
4. The shape of the sound reflective surface which increases diffusion by scattering the
sound is concave. FALSE
5. Amplitude will remain unchanged when a sound wave travels in air or in water. FALSE
6. Acoustic impedance depends on the density of the tissue and the speed of the sound
wave. TRUE
7. An octave is a harmonic series of 8 pitches of sound in 1 single frequency. FALSE
8. The volume of the sound is characterized by an amplitude. TRUE
9. The speed of ultrasound depends upon the material. TRUE
10. Acoustic impedance depends on the speed of the sound wave. TRUE
11. In auditoriums the audiences are the largest contributor to total sound absorption,
sparsely spaced seats provide greater sound absorption than those that are closely
spaced because of the scattering effect. TRUE
12. The acoustic impedance of the tissue is defined as a ratio between the density of the
tissue and the speed of sound in the tissue. FALSE
13. Echo is the phenomena if a driving force of oscillation is in tune (synchronized) with the
natural frequency. FALSE
14. If the gel is applied between skin and transducer, the percentage of reflected intensity of
ultrasonic pulse from the skin can be hundreds of percents, e.g. 300% FALSE
15. The acoustic impedance of the tissue is defined as a sum of the speed of sound in the
tissue and the density of the tissue. FALSE
16. An octave is an alternating pitch with quarter of its frequency. FALSE
17. Two different 60 decibel sounds will not in general have the same loudness. TRUE
18. The unit of loudness level for pure tone is called a volume. FALSE
19. A sound wave which has frequency lower than the lower limit of human hearing (20 Hz)
is called infrasonic. TRUE
called infrasound. FALSE
21. Comparing two ultrasound pulses - 2 MHz pulse and 5 MHz pulse, the pulse with higher
frequency is penetrating shallower in the tissue. TRUE
22. Decibel is a unit for frequency of the sound wave. FALSE
23. Sound waves above 20 000 Hz are called the infrasound. FALSE
24. Sound waves above 20 000 Hz are called the hypersound. FALSE
25. The unit of the intensity level of the sound is called a frequency. FALSE
26. The speed of ultrasound depends upon the frequency. TRUE
27. Velocity will remain unchanged when a sound wave travels in air or in water. FALSE
28. Hertz is a unit for frequency of the sound wave. TRUE
is called infrasound. TRUE
frequency is penetrating deeper in the tissue. FALSE
31. If the intensity of the sound varies by 10 to 20 dB, the average sound level is 50 dB and
the 0 dB is threshold of hearing, it means that it describes a totally silent, soundless
situation. FALSE
ultrasonic pulse from the skin can be dozens of percents, e.g. 30% FALSE
33. The persistence of sound after the source of sound has stopped is called a frequency.
FALSE
34. The sound waves do not travel through plasma. FALSE
35. The unit of the intensity level of the sound is called a decibel. FALSE
36. Comparing two ultrasound pulses - 2 MHz pulse and 5 MHz pulse, the pulse with lower
frequency has longer wavelength. TRUE
is called supersonic. FALSE
38. Audible sound and visible light waves both are transverse waves. FALSE
39. The persistence of sound after the source of sound has stopped is called an echo. FALSE
sound is convex. TRUE
41. If the intensity of the sound varies by 10 to 20 dB, the average sound level is 50 dB and
the 0 dB is threshold of hearing, it means that there are very huge variations of the
loudness. FALSE
42. When the ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a patient's body, wavelength
changes. FALSE
43. Sound waves in air are transverse waves. FALSE
44. The unit of loudness level for pure tone is called a loud. FALSE
45. The gradual decrease in the ultrasound intensity as it passes through the tissue is called
dislocation. FALSE
46. The unit of loudness level for pure tone is called an amplitude. FALSE
47. Sound waves in air are longitudinal waves. TRUE
frequency is penetrating shallower in the tissue. FALSE
49. The unit of the intensity level of the sound is called a Phon. FALSE
50. The persistence of sound after the source of sound has stopped is called a reverberation.
TRUE
51. Audible sound and visible light waves both travel through vacuum. FALSE
52. Echo is the repetition of a sound produced by the "reflection of sound waves" from an
obstructing surface, loud enough and received late enough to be perceived as distinct
from the source. TRUE
53. Acoustic impedance depends on neither the density of the tissue, nor the speed of the
sound wave. FALSE
54. When the ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a patient's body, speed of the sound
changes. FALSE
55. The volume of the sound is characterized by a sonic boom. FALSE
56. The frequency range of sound a human ear can detect is 20-20 000 Hz TRUE
is called megasonic. FALSE
58. The sound waves do not travel through liquid. FALSE
59. Wavelength will remain unchanged when a sound wave travels in air or in water. FALSE
60. The acoustic impedance of the tissue is defined as a multiplication of the speed of sound
in the tissue and the density of the tissue. TRUE
61. When the ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a patient's body, amplitude stays
constant. FALSE
62. The speed of ultrasound depends upon the amplitude. FALSE
63. Piezo-electric devices can create gamma rays. FALSE
frequency has better resolution. TRUE
sound is parallel. FALSE
called megasonic. FALSE
67. Phon is the phenomena if a driving force of oscillation is in tune (synchronized) with the
natural frequency. FALSE
68. The acoustic impedance of the tissue is defined as a ratio between the speed of sound in
the tissue and the density of the tissue. FALSE
frequency has shorter wavelength. TRUE
70. The sound waves do not travel through solid. FALSE
71. An octave is a perceptual property that allows the ordering of sounds on a
frequency-related scale. TRUE
ultrasonic pulse from the skin can be few percents, e.g. 3% FALSE
is called ultrasound. FALSE
74. In auditoriums the audiences are the largest contributor to total sound absorption,
sparsely spaced seats provide greater sound absorption than those that are closely
spaced because of the diffraction effect. TRUE
75. Piezo-electric devices can create magnetic fields. TRUE
76. The acoustic impedance of the tissue is defined as a multiplication of the density of the
tissue and the speed of sound in the tissue. TRUE
frequency has shorter wavelength. FALSE
78. The frequency range of sound a human ear can detect is 20-20 000 MHz FALSE
79. Frequency will remain unchanged when a sound wave travels in air or in water. TRUE
80. Diffused sound is the repetition of a sound produced by the "reflection of sound waves"
from an obstructing surface, loud enough and received late enough to be perceived as
distinct from the source. TRUE
called supersound. FALSE
is called supersound. FALSE
83. When the ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a patient's body, speed of the sound
stays constant TRUE
84. Sound waves in air are polarized waves. FALSE
frequency is penetrating deeper in the tissue. TRUE
86. When the ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a patient's body, amplitude changes.
TRUE
87. The gradual decrease in the ultrasound intensity as it passes through the tissue is called
ultrasonography. FALSE
88. The volume of the sound is characterized by a frequency. FALSE
89. Wavelength is the repetition of a sound produced by the "reflection of sound waves"
from an obstructing surface, loud enough and received late enough to be perceived as
distinct from the source. FALSE
90. Bone thickness can be measured if the speed of sound is known [c, m/s] and the time
from emitting the sound and receiving the echo [t, s] is known. The relationship which
allows to find bone thickness is: t⁄2. FALSE
91. When the ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a patient's body, frequency changes.
TRUE
92. The sound waves do not travel through gas. FALSE
93. Audible sound and visible light waves both obey the laws of reflection. TRUE
a. A sound wave which has frequency lower than the lower limit of human hearing
(20 Hz) is called ultrasonic. FALSE
b. Sound waves above 20 000 Hz are called the intensity. FALSE
c. Sound waves above 20 000 Hz are called the ultrasound. TRUE
d. Audible sound and visible light waves both are longitudinal waves. TRUE
e. Volume is the phenomena if a driving force of oscillation is in tune
(synchronized) with the natural frequency. FALSE
105. A sound wave which has frequency lower than the lower limit of human hearing (20
Hz) is called infrasonic. TRUE
106. Tesla is a unit for frequency of the sound wave. FALSE
107. The sound waves do not travel through vacuum. TRUE
108. The frequency range of sound a human ear can detect is 20-20 000 mHz FALSE
109. Comparing two ultrasound pulses - 2 MHz pulse and 5 MHz pulse, the pulse with
higher frequency has longer wavelength. FALSE
110. If the intensity of the sound varies by 10 to 20 dB, the average sound level is 50 dB and the
0 dB is threshold of hearing, it means that the intensity of the sound can cause ear bleeding for a
normal person. FALSE
111. A sound wave which has frequency lower than the lower limit of human hearing (20 Hz) is
called megasound. FALSE
frequency has better resolution. FALSE
113. The persistence of sound after the source of sound has stopped is called an
amplitude. FALSE
114. The unit of loudness level for pure tone is called a phon. TRUE
115. The speed of ultrasound depends upon the wavelength. TRUE
116. When the ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a patient's body, wavelength
stays constant. FALSE
117. The unit of the intensity level of the sound is called a volume. FALSE
118. Acoustic impedance depends on the density of the tissue. TRUE
119. When the ultrasound pulse moves through tissue in a patient's body, frequency stays
constant. TRUE
sound is flat. TRUE
121. Piezo-electric devices can create X-rays. FALSE
122. The frequency range of sound a human ear can detect is 20-20 000 kHz FALSE
123. The gradual decrease in the ultrasound intensity as it passes through the tissue is
called ultrasound imaging. FALSE
124. Resonance is the phenomena if a driving force of oscillation is in tune (synchronized) with
the natural frequency. TRUE
125. The gradual decrease in the ultrasound intensity as it passes through the tissue is
called attenuation. TRUE
126. Piezo-electric devices can create ultrasound. TRUE
127. Sound waves in air are electromagnetic waves. FALSE
128. The volume of the sound is characterized by a noise. FALSE
129. Frequent sound is the repetition of a sound produced by the "reflection of sound
waves" from an obstructing surface, loud enough and received late enough to be
perceived as distinct from the source. FALSE
called infrasonic. FALSE
131. An octave is an interval between one particular musical pitch and another with half
or double its frequency. TRUE
132. Audible sound and visible light waves both have similar wavelengths. FALSE
called ultrasonic. TRUE
-------------------------------------------
ATOMIC PHYSICS
1. In the Geiger–Marsden experiment α-particles are scattered by gold nuclei. The

experimental result evidence that α-particles have discrete amounts of kinetic energy.
True
2. The figure 2.2 shows a circuit involving a photoelectric cell. When UV light is shone onto
the metal c electrons are emitted establishing a photocurrent. Increasing the potential
difference of the power s cause photocurrent to stop. True
3. Wien's displacement law states that in the case of black body, radiation maximum will
switch to long wavelengths when temperature of body increases. False
4. According to Pauli exclusion principle principal quantum numbers should be different
for two electro same orbital. False
5. Newton’s equation describes how the quantum state of a physical system changes with
time in qua mechanics. True
6. A photon has a chance of being absorbed by an atom, only if it has the same frequency as
the natu frequency at which electrons in the atom like to vibrate and this can be
explained using quantum True
7. According to Pauli exclusion principle spin quantum numbers should be different for
two electron orbital. True
8. The unit "Angstrom" most often is used to describe wave function. True
9. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle states that the more precisely the position of some
particle is d the less precisely its temperature can be known, and vice versa. False??
10. De Broglie hypothesis states that photons can be described only as waves. True
11. De Broglie hypothesis states that particles can act like waves. True
12. The diagram 2.3. shows four possible electron energy levels in the hydrogen atom. There
are 6 d frequencies in the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen that arise from
electron transitions bet levels. True
gravitational force False, it is the electromagnetic force
experimental res evidence that gold atoms have a high binding energy per nucleon.
15. In photoelectric effect the energy of the emitted electrons does not depend on the
frequency of the light. False, it does not depend on the intensity of the light
16. Alpha particle gains 20 keV energy at 10 kV potential difference. It happens because an
alpha particle has two protons. ??
17. In photoelectric effect the energy of the emitted electrons depends on the light intensity.
False, it depends on the energy and frequency of the photons
18. The unit "Angstrom" most often is used to describe Planck's length and Planck`s time.
19. In order to determine the oxygen concentration in the blood you will use turbidimetry.
False
20. An alpha particle is accelerated through a potential difference of 10 kV. What is it`s gain
in kinetic energy? 1.6*10^-15
21. Urine absorption spectrum is more likely to be liquid’s absorption spectrum cannot be
registered. True but aint sure määän
22. Alpha particle gains 20 keV energy at 10 kV potential difference. It happens because
alpha particle has at least one proton. False, 10 keV
electromagnetic force. True
experimental results provide evidence that the nucleus contains protons and neutrons.
True
25. An alpha particle is accelerated through a potential difference of 5 kV. What is it`s gain in
kinetic energy? 8*10^-16 J
26. According to Pauli exclusion principle magnetic quantum numbers should be different
for two electrons in the same orbital. False (only spin numbers must be different)
27. The energies of alpha particles and of gamma-rays emitted in radioactive decay are
discrete. This observation is evidence for nuclei having more neutrons than protons. ??
discrete. This observation is evidence for atomic energy levels. ??
29. According to Wien’s displacement law, spectral line D in the figure 2.1 corresponds to
black body at high temperature. False (low temperature)
30. Wien's displacement law states that in the case of black body, absorption spectrum
consists of lines with discrete energy values. True
31. The Geiger–Marsden (Rutherford) experiment provides evidence for a dense positively
charged nucleus True
32. Urine absorption spectrum is more likely to be a line spectrum. True
33. The fundamental force which is responsible for chemical bonds between atoms is strong
nuclear force False
are 0 differen frequencies in the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen that arise from
electron transitions between levels.
35. The fundamental force which is responsible for chemical bonds between atoms is weak
nuclear force False
36. Poiseuille’s equation describes how the quantum state of a physical system changes with
time in quantum mechanics. ?
37. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle states that the more precisely the position of some
particle is determined, the less precisely its momentum can be known, and vice versa.
True
38. In photoelectric effect electrons are only emitted if the incident light is above a certain
minimum wavelength True
alpha particle has neutrons.
40. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle states that the more precisely the temperature some
particle is determine the less precisely its wavelength can be known, and vice versa.
False
41. The Geiger–Marsden (Rutherford) experiment provides evidence for the existence of the
neutron False, only a positively charged nucleus
42. Electron emission is instantaneous in photoelectric effect. True
43. An alpha particle is accelerated through a potential difference of 20 kV. What is it`s gain
in kinetic energy? ??
44. According to Pauli exclusion principle angular quantum numbers should be different for
two electrons in same orbital. False
45. A photon has a chance of being absorbed by an atom, only if its wavelength is
approximately equal to that of the atom. True
alpha particle has one positron. False, because it has 2 neutrons
---------------------------
47. If the atom has 3 possible energy levels, how many different photons such an atom can
emit. TWO
discrete evidence for the existence of isotopes. False??
49. An alpha particle is accelerated through a potential difference of 10 kV. It `s gain in
kinetic energy is 20 keV because it has two protons. False, because it has 2 neutrons
alpha particle has at least one electron. False, because it has 2 neutrons
51. Ohm’s equation describes how the quantum state of a physical system changes with time
in mechanics. False, Ohm's law states that the current through a conductor
between two points is directly proportional to the voltage across the two points.
Introducing the constant of proportionality, the resistance,[1] one arrives at the
usual mathematical equation that describes this relationship
52. In order to determine the oxygen concentration in the blood you will use pulseoxim
(True)
53. The diagram 2.3. shows four possible electron energy levels in the hydrogen atom.
frequencies in the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen that arise from electron
transitions between these levels. True
54. If an atom has 4 energy levels and electron is in the 4th level. To which energy level
transition to emit a photon with highest wavelength? The 1st level
because it has two electrons. False, because it has 2 neutrons
are 2 different frequencies in the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen that arise from
electron transition between these levels. False, there is 3
57. In order to determine the oxygen concentration in the blood you will use voltmeter,
False, pulse oximetry is used
58. The figure 2.2 shows a circuit involving a photoelectric cell. When UV light is shone
electrons are emitted establishing a photocurrent. Increasing the frequency of the
photocurrent to stop. False, Increasing the potential difference of the power supply
would cause it to stop
59. The Geiger–Marsden (Rutherford) experiment provides evidence for the stability of
some nuclei. False, discovered that every atom has a nucleus where all of its
positive charge and most of its mass is concentrated.
60. The Geiger–Marsden (Rutherford) experiment provides evidence for the existence of
discrete atomic energy levels. False, discovered that every atom has a nucleus where
all of its positive charge and most of its mass is concentrated.
61. According to Wien’s displacement law, spectral line B in the figure 2.1 corresponds to
high temperature. TRUE
62. Alpha particle gains 20 keV energy at 10 kV potential difference. It happens becaus
positrons. False it does not have positrons
63. If an atom has 4 energy levels and electron is in the 4th level. To which energy leve
transition to emit a photon with lowest frequency? 3rd level. n=4 to n=3
64. According to Wien’s displacement law, spectral line A in the figure 2.1 corresponds high
temperature. TRUE
65. If an atom has 4 energy levels and electron is in the 4th level. To which energy leve
transition to emit a photon with highest frequency? To the first level
66. Wien's displacement law states that in the case of black body, radiation maximum will
switch to shorter wavelengths when temperature of body increases. True, Wien's
displacement law states that the black-body radiation curve for different
temperatures will peak at different wavelengths that are inversely proportional to the
temperature.
67. Urine absorption spectrum is more likely to be absorption spectrum with a strong a
strong absorption edge. False, It is shown that the absorption spectrum of an urine
of healthy human over the range (lambda) equals 190 to 250 nm
68. Alpha particle gains 20 keV energy at 10 kV potential difference. It happens becaus one
neutron. False, because it has 2 neutrons
emitt. ONE
70. With the increase of body's temperature the radiation wavelength decreases. This law is
called the Bouguer-Lambert Law. False, relates the attenuation of light to the
properties of the material through which the light is travelling.
71. Schrodinger’s equation describes how the quantum state of a physical system changes
with time in quantum mechanics. False, The Schrödinger equation is a linear partial
differential equation that describes the wave function or state function of a
quantum-mechanical system
72. The unit "Angstrom" most often is used to describe size of the atoms and molecule False,
unit of length used chiefly in measuring wavelengths of light
discrete. This observation is evidence for nuclear energy levels. True
74. The figure 2.2 shows a circuit involving a photoelectric cell. When UV light is shone
electrons are emitted establishing a photocurrent. Changing the metal surface to on
function will cause photocurrent to stop. False, Increasing the potential difference of
the power supply would cause it to stop
75. If an atom has 4 energy levels and electron is in the 4th level. To which energy level
electron need to do transition to emit a photon with lowest wavelength? Third level
76. The unit "Angstrom" most often is used to describe size of the astrophysical objects.
False, unit of length used chiefly in measuring wavelengths of light
77. Wien's displacement law states that in the case of black body, emission spectrum
consists of lines with discrete energy values. False, Wien's displacement law states that
the black-body radiation curve for different temperatures will peak at different
wavelengths that are inversely proportional to the temperature.
78. Urine absorption spectrum is more likely to be a absorption band spectrum with a
strong absorption band at about 450nm. False, It is shown that the absorption
spectrum of an urine of healthy human over the range (lambda) equals 190 to 250
nm
79. With the increase of body's temperature the radiation wavelength decreases. This law is
called the Stefan-Boltzmann law.
True, The energy radiated per unit area per unit time by the black body is directly
proportional to the forth power E=T4 of the temperature of the black body
80. De Broglie hypothesis states that electrons can be described only as particles.
False, also waves
81. According to Wien’s displacement law, spectral line C in the figure 2.1 corresponds
temperature. TRUE
82. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle states that the more precisely the mass of some
less precisely its momentum can be known, and vice versa.
True, either you know the mass precisely or the momentum(velocity)
83. With the increase of body's temperature the radiation wavelength decreases. This is
called Wien’s displacement law.
True, the higher the temperature, the shorter or smaller the wavelength of the
thermal radiation.
84. Alpha particle gains 20 keV energy at 10 kV potential difference. It happens because the
alpha particle has two electrons.
False
85. The figure 2.2 shows a circuit involving a photoelectric cell. When UV light is shone on
the cathode electrons are emitted establishing a photocurrent. Increasing the intensity
of the UV light will cause photocurrent to stop.
False, Increasing the potential difference of the power supply will cause it to stop
emit? - Three
experimental results provide evidence that most of the mass and positive charge of an
atom is concentrated in a small volume.
True
88. In order to determine the oxygen concentration in the blood you will use
encephalograph.
False, pulse oximetry is used
89. De Broglie hypothesis states that particles can never act like waves.
False, The De Broglie hypothesis = all matter exhibits wave-like properties
because it has two positrons.
False, has no positrons
91. A photon has a chance of being absorbed by an atom, only if it has the exact energ
quantum energy jump.
True
kinetic energy is 20 keV because it has two neutrons. True because Charge on α
particle is q=2
93. A photon has a chans of being absorbed by an atom, only if it strikes it at exactly the right
place.
False
Biomechanics and fundamentals
1. The intensity is the gravitational force acting on a body which has a mass. False
- In physics, intensity of radiant energy is the power transferred per unit area.
2. The first condition necessary to achieve equilibrium is the net external force on the
system must be zero. True
- For an object to be in equilibrium, it must be experiencing no acceleration.
This means that both the net force and the net torque on the object must be
zero
3. The Achilles tendon is attached to the back of the foot as shown in the figure 3.1. The
man rises to the one point of the tarsal and this can be explained with a lever system.
This lever is for speed. False - Lever of strength
4. The pressure is the gravitational force acting on a body which has a mass. False -
Pressure is defined as the physical force exerted on an object. The force applied
is perpendicular to the surface of objects per unit area.
This lever is for strength. True
6. The free fall gravity acceleration is approximately equal to 10 m/s2 False - 9.8 meters
per square second
7. In laminar flow, the speed gradually increases to a maximum on the central axis of the
tube with an average flow speed of about half the maximum speed. Laminar flow is silent
and results in minimal loss in pressure and energy. True
8. The weight is the gravitational force acting on a body which has a mass. True
9. The intensity is characterized by power per area True
10. The power is defined as energy per area. True
11. The power is defined as intensity per area. True
12. The free fall gravity acceleration is approximately equal to 9.81 m/s2 False - 9.82 m/s2
13. The power is defined as energy per time. True
14. The energy characterizes a physical condition False

15. The intensity is characterized by ability to give energy to the closed system False - A
closed system is a physical system that does not allow transfer of matter in or out
of the system
16. The power is defined as pressure per area. False - power is the amount of
energytransferred or converted per unit time
This lever is for balance. False - Lever of strength
18. The energy is possibility to perform a work True
19. The intensity is characterized as work per time False
20. The energy is equivalent to the mass True
21. The free fall gravity acceleration is approximately equal to 9.8 m/s2 False - 9,82 m/s2
Fluid dynamics- elmira o iman
1. Viscosity is determined by intermolecular forces.--> TRUE

2. When the temperature is increased, viscosity stays unchanged.--> FALSE
3. Viscosity is determined by size and shape of molecules.--> TRUE
4. Poiseuille's Law explains the effect of three factors on peripheral resistance. According
to this law increased resistance causes increased blood flow.--> FALSE
5. If a thin capillary tube is replaced with another tube of insufficient length, then water
will change its meniscus.--> TRUE
6. As attraction between particles increases, viscosity increases. → TRUE
7. Surface tension is a resistance that a fluid offers to flow when subject to a shear stress.
→ TRUE
8. When the temperature is increased, viscosity increases. → FALSE/TRUE(in gases)
9. Cohesion is the force which awakens the plasm. → FALSE
10. Kinematic viscosity is the same as dynamic viscosity. → FALSE
11. Small water drops are having approximately spherical shape because gravitational force
acts upon the water drop. → FALSE
12. In an ideal liquid there would be no viscosity. → TRUE
13. Small water drops are having approximately spherical shape because liquid tends to
have the minimum surface area due to surface tension. → TRUE
14. Adhesion is intermolecular forces between different type of molecules. → FALSE
15. Small water drops are having approximately spherical shape because volume of a
spherical drop is minimum. → FALSE
16. Viscosity decreases if distance between molecules decreases. → FALSE
17. Viscosity decreases if intermolecular forces increase. → FALSE
18. Kinematic viscosity is the ratio between dynamic viscosity and density of the liquid. →
TRUE
19. Cohesion is intermolecular forces between same type of molecules. → TRUE
20. As attraction between particles increases, viscosity decreases. → FALSE
21. Cohesion is intermolecular forces between different type of molecules. → FALSE
22. Viscosity is determined by temperature. → TRUE
23. Adhesion is a force which holds plasm together. → TRUE
24. Viscosity decreases if distance between molecules increases. → TRUE
25. If the speed of flow increases, then the pressure decreases. → TRUE
26. If a thin capillary tube be replaced with another tube with smaller diameter, then water
will change its meniscus. → TRUE
to this law the higher the blood viscosity, the lower the peripheral resistance. → FALSE
28. If the adhesion is greater than cohesion, then liquid will try to minimize the contact area
with a surface. → FALSE?
29. In the figure 4.2. a person is lying down in bed. In the aorta has developed an
extension or aneurysm. The aortic radius R is 1 cm. Aneurysms radius R is 4 cm.
Which pressure is larger - P v or v is higher? an ao or P ? Where velocity -
aoaoanan → ? ??
30. In an ideal liquid there would be infinite viscosity. → FALSE (IT IS 0)
31. When the temperature is increased, viscosity decreases. → TRUE
32. Viscosity decreases if intermolecular forces decrease. → TRUE
33. Cohesion is a force which holds plasm together. → TRUE
34. If the speed of flow increases, then the pressure increases. → TRUE
35. Viscosity decreases if temperature increases. → TRUE
36. In figure 4.1. the blood vessel of lying person in bed is seen. Arterial stenosis is
developed in artery. Radius of normal artery R is 1cm and radiuss of stenosis R is
0.4cm. Blood flow velocity is in artery is vart and in artstenosis vsten. P artstenand
P is accordingly pressure in artery and stenosis. Which pressure is larger - P or
sten artP ? Where velocity - v sten artor v is higher? sten → ????
to this law the smaller the radius of a vessel, the higher the resistance to blood flow. →
TRUE
38. Small water drops are having approximately spherical shape because air pressure exerts
a force on a water drop. → FALSE
39. Capillarity is explained by cohesion and adhesion. → TRUE
40. Viscosity decreases if temperature decreases. → FALSE(in liquids if there is high temp→
decrease of viscosity)
to this law longer blood vessel offers less resistance than a shorter vessel of the same
radius. → FALSE ( 2x long → 2x resistance)
42. Kinematic viscosity allows to determine the influence of surface tension to the flow rate.
→ FALSE?
43. Viscosity is a resistance that a fluid offers to flow when subject to a shear stress. →
TRUE?
44. Adhesion is intermolecular forces between same type of molecules. → FALSE
45. If the adhesion is smaller than cohesion, then liquid will try to minimize the contact area
with a surface. → TRUE?
Electrodynamics
1. Name for the unit of the consumed electric energy is the Watt. False -> usually kWh
2. The ECG does not measure impulses generated by polarization and depolarization.
False, it does measure impulses generated by polarization and depolarization.
3. The ECG does not measure the rate of heartbeats. False, two rate that can be determined
-> atrial and ventricular
4. Two charges are separated by a distance d. If the distance between them is doubled, the
potential energy between charges is quadrupled. True
5. Name for the unit of the consumed electric energy is the Ampere. False, Watts
6. Point A is at lower electrical potential than point B. A negatively charged particle
between them on the line joining them will move towards A. False, Move towards B
between them on the line joining them will move at right angles to the line joining A and
B. False, Move towards B as well
8. Point A is at lower electrical potential than point B. A positron between them on the line
joining them will remain at rest. False, Move towards A
9. Copper is a good insulator. False (good conductor)
10. Piezoelectricity means an electricity resulting from nuclear reactions. False
11. Point A is at lower electrical potential than point B. A proton between them on the line
joining them will remain at rest. False, move towards A
12. Point A is at lower electrical potential than point B. A neutron between them on the line
joining them will move at right angles to the line joining A and B False, it remains at rest
joining them will move towards A. True
joining them will move towards B. False
potential energy between charges is doubled. False, it is halved
16. Iron is a good conductor. True
17. Brass is a good insulator compared to rubber. False, rubber is a very good insulator and
Brass is a metal = conductive
18. Point A is at lower electrical potential than point B. An electron between them on the
line joining them will move towards B. True
joining them will move towards B. False, towards A
20. Point A is at lower electrical potential than point B. A positively charged particle
between them on the line joining them will move at right angles to the line joining A and
B False, it will move towards A ??
between them on the line joining them will move towards B. True
22. Another name for the unit of the consumed electric energy is the Joule.
23. Solenoid can store electrical energy in the form of magnetic field. True
24. Rubber is a good insulator compared to brass. True
25. Capacitance is the ability of a body to store an electrical charge. True
joining them will remain at rest. True
line joining them will move towards A. False, towards B
joining them will move towards A. False, remains at rest
between them on the line joining them will move towards A. True
30. Piezoelectricity means an electricity resulting from the processes in the living tissues.
False Piezoelectricity means an electricity resulting from pressure.
31. Piezoelectricity means an electricity resulting from separate cell. False Piezoelectricity
means an electricity resulting from pressure.
joining them will move towards B. False it will move towards A
between them on the line joining them will remain at rest. False it will move towards B
34. Capacitance is the ability of a cell to proceed its living process. false is the ability of a
body to hold an electrical charge
35. Electrical current is Electric potential between two points. False it is flow of charges
between them on the line joining them will move towards B. False it will move towards A
potential energy between charges is unchanged. False, potential energy is halved
38. The ECG does not measure regularity of heartbeats.False it measures the rate and
rhythm of the heartbeat
potential energy between charges is quartered. False, potential energy is halved
40. The ECG does not measure blood flow of heart. true measure the rate and rhythm of the
heartbeat
41. Electrical current is a flow of neutrons.False: Electrical current is a flow of charges
42. Solenoid is a several wire coil loops stacked together. False, Solenoid is passive electronic
component
line joining them will remain at rest. False An electron between them on the line joining
them will move towards B
44. Electrical current is a flow of charges. True unit is ampere
joining them will move at right angles to the line joining A and B. False A proton between
them on the line joining them will move towards A
46. Iron is a good insulator. ‘false, it is a conductor
47. Capacitance is the ability of a body to demonstrate mechanical force. false is the ability of
a body to hold an electrical charge
joining them will move towards A. True
joining them will move at right angles to the line joining A and B. False, positron will
move with the current so towards A
50. Copper is a good conductor.True
51. Capacitance is a measure of cohesion. False, the ratio of the electric charge on each
conductor to the potential difference (i.e., voltage) between them
52. Tesla is an unit for frequency of the sound wave. False, is a derived unit of the magnetic
induction
between them on the line joining them will remain at rest. False??
line joining them will move at right angles to the line joining A and B. False An electron
between them on the line joining them will move towards B
potential energy between charges is halved. True F=k*(Q1*Q2/d) where k is a constant
56. Solenoid is passive electronic component. True
57. Piezoelectricity means an electricity resulting from pressure. True
58. Another name for the unit of the consumed electric energy is the Kilowatt-hour. True
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Nuclear physics
1. A radioactive isotope has an initial activity A and a half-life of 1 day. The graph 4.2. shows
how the activity A 0 varies with time. The ratio A /A is equal to the ratio A /A3 FALSE
2. The process by which a heavy nucleus splits into two lighter nuclei is known as fusion.
TRUE
3. The graph 4.3. shows the number of nuclei N of a radioactive isotope as a function of
time t. The slope of the curve at any given time is independent of the decay constant.
TRUE
4. A radioactive isotope has an initial activity A and a half-life of 1 day. The graph 4.2. shows
how the activity A 0 varies with time. The ratio A /A is equal to the ratio A /A2 TRUE
5. A sample contains an amount of radioactive material with a half-life of 3.5 days. What is
the fraction of the radioactive material remaining in the sample after 2 weeks? ANSWER:
The remaining fraction is 6,25%
6. Figure 4.4. represents the variation of binding energy per nucleon with nucleon number.
TRUE
7. Alpha particle emitted energy spectra is continuous. FALSE → (it’s discrete)
8. The process by which a heavy nucleus splits into two lighter nuclei is known as artificial
(induced) transmutation. FALSE → (that is process for creating an isotope)
9. A nucleus of the isotope potassium-40 decays to a nucleus of the isotope argon-40. The
reaction equation for this decay may be written as seen in figure 4.1. The proton number
Z for argon is 19 and particle X is beta positive particle - also called a positron. FALSE →
(Z should be 20 and X should be electron)
10. Sievert (Sv) is a SI unit for radioactivity. FALSE → (it’s a unit for equivalent dose)
11. The binding energy of a nucleus is defined to be the total energy of the nucleus. FALSE →
(it is the required energy to break the nucleus)
12. Gamma radiation energy spectra is continuous. FALSE → (it’s discrete)
13. The air density plays an important role determining how far an alpha particle will travel
after a nuclear reaction. TRUE
14. The radii of nuclei may be determined by scattering charged particles off the nuclei.
TRUE
15. Different nuclides spontaneously undergo radioactive decay, emitting either α, β or γ
radiation. Discrete energy amount is emitted, if α particles are detected. TRUE
16. Curie (Ci) is a SI unit for equivalent dose. FALSE → (it’s not an SI unit and it measures
radioactivity)
17. Beta negative particle emitted energy spectra is continuous. TRUE
Z for argon is 19 and particle X is beta negative particle - also called an electron. FALSE
→ (partly correct, but the number of Z should be 20)
19. Alpha particle emitted energy spectra is discrete TRUE.
20. The relationship between the nucleon number and the binding energy per nucleon is
non linear. FALSE → (they are proportional to each other)
time t. The slope of the curve at any given time is proportional to the half-life of the
isotope. TRUE
22. The kinetic energy of the alpha particle plays an important role determining how far it
will travel after nuclear reaction. TRUE
23. The radii of nuclei may be determined by measuring the de Broglie wavelength of the
nuclei. FALSE → (determines the probability density)
24. The charge of the alpha particle plays an important role determining how far it will
travel after nuclear reaction. FALSE → (they always have the same charge, thus same
travel distance. However, can have different kinetic energy)
25. During a nuclear reaction a 45/20 Ca decays to a 45/21 Sc. A beta positive particle is
emitted. FALSE → (in case of beta plus decay, a positron will be emitted)
26. The process by which a heavy nucleus splits into two lighter nuclei is known as fission.
TRUE
27. A radio-isotope has an activity of 400 Bq and a half-life of 8 days. What is the sample
radioactivity after 32 days? ANSWER: The radioactivity will be 25 Bq
28. The binding energy of a nucleus is defined to be the total energy of the protons inside
the nucleus. FALSE → (protons AND neutrons = nucleons)
29. The process by which a heavy nucleus splits into two lighter nuclei is known as
radioactive decay. TRUE
30. The half-life of Zn-71 is 2.4 minutes. If one had 200.0 g at the beginning, how many
grams would be left after 7.2 minutes has elapsed? ANSWER: 25,0 g
31. During a nuclear reaction a4520 Ca decays to a4521 Sc. Anti-neutrino is emitted FALSE →
(an electron is emitted)
32. During a nuclear reaction a4520 Ca decays to a4521 Sc. An electron is emitted. TRUE
33. Gray (Gy) is a SI unit for absorbed dose. TRUE
34. Nuclei with high mass numbers may undergo nuclear fission. TRUE
35. The binding energy of a nucleus is defined to be the energy released when a nucleus is
formed from its individual constituents. FALSE → (it is the required energy when a
nucleus is separated)
36. Sievert (Sv) is a SI unit for absorbed dose. FALSE → (is a unit for equivalent dose)
37. The radii of nuclei can be estimated from experiments involving the scattering of
charged particles. TRUE
38. When increasing the nucleon number, the binding energy per nucleon increases. FALSE
→ (increases but then decreases with increase in mass number)
39. Curie (Ci) is a SI unit for radioactivity. FALSE → (is for radioactivity but NOT an SI unit)
40. Nuclei with high mass numbers may undergo nuclear fusion. FALSE → (low mass
numbers)
41. Becquerel (Bq) is a SI unit for absorbed dose. FALSE → (it’s a unit for radioactivity and
decay)
42. Different nuclides spontaneously undergo radioactive decay, emitting either α, β or γ
radiation. Discrete energy amount is emitted, if β particles are detected. FALSE →
(continuous energy amount for β particles)
43. The radii of nuclei can be estimated from experiments involving beta particle spectra.
FALSE → (you have to study the nucleus mass or properties)
44. Becquerel (Bq) is a SI unit for radioactivity. TRUE
45. During a nuclear reaction a4520 Ca decays to a4521 Sc. Neutrino is emitted. FALSE → (an
electron is emitted)
46. The half-life of Zn-71 is 2.4 minutes. If one had 100.0 g at the beginning, how many
grams would be left after 7.2 minutes has elapsed? ANSWER: 12,5 g
47. A radioactive isotope has an initial activity A0 and a half-life of 1 day. The graph 4.2
shows how the activity A varies with time. The ratio A0/A2 is equal to the ratio A0/A3.
FALSE
48. The radii of nuclei can be estimated from experiments involving emission spectra. TRUE
49. Beta positive particle emitted energy spectra is continuous. TRUE
50. Gray (Gy) is a SI unit for radioactivity. FALSE → (unit for absorbed ionizing radiation
dose)
51. Beta positive particle emitted energy spectra is discrete. FALSE → (it’s continuous. only
gamma and alpha are discrete)
52. Sievert (Sv) is a SI unit for equivalent dose. TRUE
53. Becquerel (Bq) is a SI unit for equivalent dose. FALSE → (it’s a unit for radioactivity and
particles decay)
54. During a nuclear reaction a 4520 Ca decays to a 4521 Sc. A beta negative particle is emitted.
TRUE
55. The radii of nuclei may be determined by observing the spectrum of the nuclei. TRUE
56. Curie (Ci) is a SI unit for absorbed dose. FALSE → (it’s not an SI unit and it measures
radioactivity)
57. A freshly prepared sample contains 4.9 microgram of iodine-131. After 24 days, 0,5
microgram of iodine-131 remain. What is the half-life of iodine-131 in days. ANSWER:
The half-life is aprox. 8 days
58. Gray (Gy) is a SI unit for equivalent dose. FALSE → (is unit for ionizing radiation dose)
59. Nuclei with low mass numbers may undergo nuclear fission. FALSE → (the opposite,
may undergo nuclear fusion)
the fraction of the radioactive material remaining in the sample after 1 week? ANSWER:
The remaining fraction is 25%
61. The binding energy of a nucleus is defined to be the energy released when the nucleus is
separated into its individual constituents. FALSE → (it is the required energy, not the
released)
62. During a nuclear reaction a 4520 Ca decays to a 4521 Sc . An alpha particle is emitted. FALSE
→ (beta particle is emitted)
63. The radii of nuclei can be estimated from experiments involving the Bainbridge mass
spectrometer. TRUE → (the radii of nuclei equals the cube root of mass number A, which
will be the received information from the Bainbridge mass spectrometer)
64. A radioactive isotope has an initial activity A0 and a half life of 1 day. The graph 4.2
shows how the activity A varies with time. The ratio A0/A2 is equal to the ratio A1/A3.
65. Nuclei with low mass numbers may undergo nuclear fusion. TRUE
time t. The slope of the curve at any given time is proportional to the number of
radioactive nuclei remaining at that time. TRUE
67. Gamma radiation energy spectra is discrete. TRUE (both gamma and alpha are discrete)
Z for argon is 18 and particle X is beta positive particle - also called a positron. FALSE →
(is beta negative particle and also called electron)
69. Beta negative particle emitted energy spectra is discrete. FALSE → (energy spectra is
continuous)
70. Increasing the nucleon number in a nucleus, the binding energy per nucleon decreases.
FALSE → (first increases, then decreases with increase in mass number)
the fraction of the radioactive material remaining in sample after 4 weeks? ANSWER:
The remaining fraction is 0,39%
72. 72. The relationship between the nucleon number and the binding energy per nucleon is
linear. FALSE → (exponential)
73. During a nuclear reaction a 4520 Ca decays to a 4521 Sc . Positron is emitted TRUE
74. A nucleus of the isotope potassium-40 decays to a nucleus of the isotope arong-40. The
Z for argon is 18 and particle X is beta negative particle - also called an electron. FALSE
→ (Z should be 20)
time t. The slope of the curve at any given time is proportional to the number of
radioactive nuclei decayed. TRUE
76. During a nuclear reaction a 4520 Ca decays to a 4521 Sc. Gamma radiation is emitted FALSE
→ (beta emission)
77. Different nucleides spontaneously undergo radioactive decay, emitting either α, β or γ
radiation. Discreate energy amounts are emitted if γ particles are detected. TRUE →
(only for gamma and alpha)
78. The radii of nuclei may be determined by injecting the nuclei in a mass spectrometer.
TRUE → (the radii equals the cube root of mass number A which will be received from
the mass spectrometer)
------------------------------------------------------------------------
OPTICS- iman o elmira
1. The eye pupil is responsible for adjusting the focal depth. True the pupil constricts to
increase the depth of focus of the eye by blocking the light scattered by the periphery of
the cornea
2. A reflected beam lies in the same plane as the incident beam True When a ray of light is
reflected, the reflected ray lies in the same plane as the incident ray and the normal.
3. In turbidimetry light absorption is measured. False Turbidimetry measures the
intensity of a beam of light
4. Light refractive index does not depend of the light intensity. False intensity depends
linearly on the refractive index.
5. To increase optical instrument resolution it is needed to increase the wavelength of light.
False
6. In the case of traditional photoluminescence we can expect a shift between wavelength
maximums for excitation and emission spectra. It is called Stoke’s shift. Maximum for
emitted light spectrum will be smaller for absorbed light spectrum. False: Maximum for
emitted light spectrum will be larger then absorbed light spectrum for
photoluminescense
7. The light dispersion is the ability to bypass light waves around obstacles. False;
dispersion is spreading of white light into its full spectrum of wavelengths.
8. Refractive index of a material is lights ability to bypass light waves around obstacles.
False it is a value calculated from the ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to that in a
second medium of greater density
9. A reflected beam always has the same irradiance as the incident beam. false a reflected
beam lies in the same plane as the incident beam
10. In the case of traditional photoluminescence we can expect a shift between wavelength
maximums for excitation and emission spectra. It is called Stoke’s shift. Maximum for
emitted light spectrum will be larger then absorbed light spectrum. True
11. The spectrum observed when white light is shone through a prism is best explained by
Diffraction. FALSE → by DISPERSION, not diffraction
12. Thulium laser is a gas laser. True i think
13. Light refractive index for a transparent material is wavelength dependent. True For
transparent materials the index of refraction listed in tables is either an average
index, or it is the index for one particular wavelength.
14. Lower image in the figure 5.1. represents continuous spectrum. false it is emission
spectrum
15. Kirchhoff’s law of thermal radiation states that at thermal equilibrium, a body reflects all
electromagnetic radiation and do not absorb anything. false: Kirchhoffs law states that
the emissivity and the absorptivity of a surface at a given temperature and wavelength
are equa
16. Light refractive index is a light emission from hydrogen atom. false: LRI of a material is a
dimensionless number that describes how fast light travels through the material. It is defined
as n=c/v
17. In the colorimetry, dye concentration dependence of the absorption band peak is linear.
TRUE The Beer-Lambert law states that there is a linear relationship between the
concentration and the absorbance of the solution, which enables the concentration of
a solution to be calculated by measuring its absorbance.
18. Intensity of light, passing through the substance, decreases constantly. True
19. To increase optical instrument resolution it is needed to decrease the wavelength of light
and increase numerical aperture . True
20. In turbidimetry light scattering is measured. False Turbidimetry measures the
intensity of a beam of light
21. The eye pupil is responsible for controlling the sharpness of image forming on retina.
False control the amount of light entering.
22. Upper image in the figure 5.1. represents molecular spectrum.False
23. Upper image in the figure 5.1. represents emission spectrum. True
24. Light refractive index is the ability to bypass light waves around obstacles. False that is
diffraction
25. If the wavelength of light increases and the refractive index decreases, then it is normal
dispersion True
26. Intensity of light, passing through the substance, decreases linearly.
27. One reason why the sky appears blue is because higher energy light waves have more
penetrate atmosphere. FALSE
dichroism → FALSE
29. To increase optical instrument resolution it is needed to decrease numerical aperture
FALSE
distortion.FALSE → NOT distortion , but DISPERSION.
31. Kirchhoff’s law of thermal radiation states that a blackbody absorbs all types of
electromagnetic do not emit anything. FALSE → emits its thermal radiation
32. Refractive index of a material is light refractive index dependence on the wavelength.
33. Kirchhoff’s law of thermal radiation states that absorptivity of thermal radiation is
directly proporti of material.FALSE → proptional to absolute temperature
34. In nephelometry no light parameters are measured. FALSE
quadratic.
36. Intensity of light, passing through the substance, decreases quadratically.
the phase the waves is equal to multiple of the wavelength of light.
38. Upper image in the figure 5.1. represents atomic spectrum.
39. Kirchhoff’s law of thermal radiation states that at thermal equilibrium, the emissivity of
a body or its absorptivity. TRUE
logarithmic.
41. The light dispersion is light refractive index dependence on the wavelength.TRUE
42. Photons always propagate with the speed c, but light appears to travel at a speed
different from c in in dense media because the light propagation in media depends on
re-radiation by electron-oscillations, which take a finite time to occurFALSE → depends
on ...a phase change upon re-radiation.
43. Light refractive index depend of the light intensity.
44. If the wavelength of light increases and the refractive index decreases, then it is
abnormal FALSE (NORMAL not ABNORMAL)
periodic. FALSE
46. Lower image in the figure 5.1. represents absorption spectrum. FALSE
47. In turbidimetry no light parameters are measured FALSE
48. Upper image in the figure 5.1. represents continuous spectrum. FALSE
49. In the Rayleigh scattering, scattered light intensity is directly proportional to
wavelength. TRUE
50. Lower image in the figure 5.1. represents emission spectrum. TRUE
51. Upper image in the figure 5.1. represents absorption spectrum. FALSE
the the waves is equal to multiple of the half wavelength of light.
53. One reason why the sky appears blue is because blue light is reflected by the
atmosphere. FALSE → because of SCATTERING, not REFRACTION
54. Excimer laser is a gas laser. TRUE
55. Argon laser is a gas laser.TRUE
56. One reason why the sky appears blue is because red light is reflected by the atmosphere.
FALSE
57. Carbon dioxide laser is a gas laser.TRUE
58. Intensity of light, passing through the substance, decreases logarithmically.
disortion → FALSE, by DISPERSION
60. The eye pupil is responsible for controlling the amount of light entering the eye.TRUE
61. In the Rayleigh scattering, scattered light intensity is inversely proportional to
wavelength FALSE → … is inversely proportional to the FOURTH POWER OF
wavelength
62. In nephelometry light scattering is measured.TRUE
63. Two monochromatic, coherent light waves after interference deletes each other. The
phaswaves cannot be determined, because the magnetic field is the relativity effect of
electric f
64. One reason why the sky appears blue is because much more red light than blue light is a
FALSE
65. The light dispersion is the light emission from hydrogen atom.FALSE I think
66. To increase optical instrument resolution it is needed to increase the wavelength of light
a numerical aperture
67. Light of wavelength λ is incident on a metal surface in a vacuum. Photoelectrons are
emitted fr of the metal. Which image in the figure 5.2. shows the variation with λ of the
maximum kinetic emitted electrons?
68. One reason why the sky appears blue is because blue light is scattered to a greater extent
than red light. TRUE
69. In turbidimetry light reflection is measured.FALSE
70. Refractive index of a material is light emission from hydrogen atom. FALSE
71. In nephelometry light absorption is measured.FALSE
exponential.FALSE → Proportional(linear) not exponential.
different from C in dense media because in the classical physics model electron
oscillators in the medium introduce a phase change upon re-radiation.TRUE
74. The light dispersion is the light refractive index dependence on the light intensity. →
TRUE
75. Light refractive index is an absorption from hydrogen atom. → FALSE (it measured the
bending of a light ray when passing from 1 medium to another)
76. Refractive index of a material is light refractive index dependence on the light intensity.
FALSE → depends on velocity of light
77. Intensity of light, passing through the substance, decreases exponentially. → TRUE
78. A reflected beam always makes an angle θ = sin-1(n /n ) with the normal to the interface.
FALSE
80. Photons always propagate with the speed c, but light appears to travel at a speed different
fro media because a medium is a different reference frame to vacuum, so the difference in the
oblight is a consequence of relativity.
81. In nephelometry light reflection is measured.TRUE

82. Lower image in the figure 5.1. represents atomic spectrum.
different fro media because light does not take a straight line path through the dense
medium.
84. Lower image in the figure 5.1. represents molecular spectrum.
Thermodynamics
1. Conduction is a heat transfer. True
2. Stefan-Boltzmann law states that energy of thermal radiation is inversely proportional to
temperature of radiating object in power of 4. True
3. Heat in physics is how hot or cold something is. False
4. When molecules are moving through space with some velocity, they have potential
energy. False
5. When objects are at different temperatures heat is transferred from the cooler object to
the warmer object. False
6. Conduction is an energy efficiency. False
7. Isometric process is thermodynamic process where volume is held constant. True
8. Specific heat capacity measures the amount of heat required to melt a substance. True
9. Isochoric process is thermodynamic process where temperature is held constant. False
10. Isobaric process is thermodynamic process where volume is held constant. True
11. Stefan-Boltzmann law states that energy of thermal radiation is proportional to mass of
radiating object in
power of 4. False
12. Isochoric process is thermodynamic process where pressure is held constant. False
13. Isochoric process is thermodynamic process where volume is held constant. True
14. Specific heat capacity measures the amount of energy required to increase the
temperature of a substance. True
15. A system which consists of fixed amount of mass, and no mass can cross its boundary, is
called an thermal
equilibrium system. False
16. Specific heat capacity measures the amount of heat released from a substance during
cooling. False
called an open
system. False
18. When molecules are moving through space with some velocity, they have translational
energy. False
19. When heat is absorbed, temperature remains unchanged. False
20. Conduction is a energy storage. False
21. Isobaric process is thermodynamic process where temperature is held constant. False
22. Isometric process is thermodynamic process where pressure is held constant. False
23. When objects are at different temperatures, heat is transferred from the warmer object
to the cooler object. True
24. Stefan-Boltzmann law of thermal radiation states that absorptivity of thermal radiation
is directly proportional to
density of material. False
25. Specific heat capacity measures how much heat is in a substance. False
26. Isothermal process is thermodynamic process where volume is held constant. False
27. When heat is absorbed, molecules move more slowly. False
28. When objects are at different temperatures, heat is not transferred. False
29. Heat in physics is the transfer of energy from hot to cold. True
30. When heat is absorbed, molecules move more rapidly. True
31. Heat in physics is the transfer of energy from cold to hot. False
32. When heat is absorbed, there is no change in molecular motion. False
33. When heat is absorbed, there is no change in molecular motion. False
34. Isothermal process is thermodynamic process where temperature is held constant. True
35. Stefan-Boltzmann law states that energy of thermal radiation is inversely proportional to
mass of radiating object in power of 4. False
36. Isometric process is thermodynamic process where temperature is held constant. False(
volymen is Held comstant )
37. When molecules are moving through space with some velocity, they have kinetic energy.
True
called an equilibrium
system. False
called an closed
system. True
40. Heat in physics is the transfer of energy from the system with higher temperature to the
system with lower
temperature. True
41. Stefan-Boltzmann law of thermal radiation states that a blackbody absorbs all types of
electromagnetic radiation and do not emit anything. False
42. Fahrenheit scale is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system. False
43. When molecules are moving through space with some velocity, they have rotational
kinetic energy. False
44. Stefan-Boltzmann law of thermal radiation states that at thermal equilibrium, the
emissivity of a body or surface
equals its absorptivity. True I think
45. Heat in physics is the same as temperature. False
46. When objects are at different temperatures, heat is transferred from both - warmer and
cooler objects, until
equilibrium is reached. False
47. Isobaric process is thermodynamic process where pressure is held constant. True
48. Rankine scale is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system. False
49. Stefan-Boltzmann law states that energy of thermal radiation is proportional to
temperature of radiating object
in power of 4. True
50. When molecules are moving through space with some velocity, they have spin energy
.false
51. Conduction is a radiation. False
52. Kelvin scale is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system. True
53. Celsius scale is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system. True
54. Heat in physics is the transfer of energy from the system with higher temperature to the
system with higher
temperature. False
55. Isothermal process is thermodynamic process where pressure is held constant. True
56. Stefan-Boltzmann law of thermal radiation states that at thermal equilibrium, a body
reflects all electromagnetic radiation and do not absorb anything false
X-rays
1. As the x-rays pass through matter, their intensity may increase or decrease depending of
the object.
Therefore as an x-ray beam passes through matter, the intensity of the beam
decreases but the mean energy of the resultant beam increases.
I think it’s false
2. The intensity of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing voltage. true

3. The attenuation coefficient depends on amplitude of the x-ray photons.
4. In x-ray production, the kinetic energy of an electron arriving at anode is 2 MeV. false
The kinetic energy of an electron arriving at the anode is around 200 kV
5. As the x-rays pass through matter, their intensity remains constant. false
6. The attenuation coefficient depends on wavelength of the x-ray photons. false
7. Comparing to the soft tissue, bones appear white in x-ray photography, because they
reflect x-rays. true
8. To decrease the intensity of x-rays going through material to half of original value
thickness off the material need to be halved (made 2 times smaller). true
9. In x-ray production, the kinetic energy of an electron arriving at anode is 20 MeV false
10. The type of x-rays used to detect the break in bone is both - hard and soft x-rays. true
11. In x-ray production, the kinetic energy of an electron arriving at anode is 20 eV (DONT
KNow)
12. Contrast media consist of elements with high atomic numbers. true
13. Soft x-rays have lower energy than hard x-rays. true
14. The electromagnetic wave attenuation coefficient is the frequency of x-ray photons.
15. In x-ray production, the kinetic energy of an electron arriving at anode is 20 keV (DONT
KNOW)
16. The unit which describes energy of the x-ray photon is V false (eV)
17. A good x-ray source should produce x-rays of narrow beam and parallel x-rays. true
18. The intensity of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing electric current - amperes.
19. To make sure that the scattered x-rays will reach the detector screen, the anode inside
the lamp has to be aligned at an angle.
20. The "hardness" of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing AC current frequency.
21. Contrast media consist of elements with halogenides. true can consist of
iodine-sulphur
22. The intensity of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing AC current frequency. True if
you increase frequency you increase amount of photons being released which is what
the intensity is
23. Soft x-rays have higher energy than hard x-rays. false it is opposite Hard x-rays are the
highest energy x-rays, while the lower energy x-rays are referred to as soft x-rays.
24. The type of x-rays used to detect the break in bone is visible x-rays. false,
25. If fast moving electrons rapidly decelerate, then electromagnetic waves produced are
ultrasound waves. false
26. A good x-ray source should produce x-rays of narrow beam and anti perpendicular
x-rays.false A good x-ray source should produce x-rays of narrow beam and parallel
x-rays.
27. As the x-rays pass through matter, their intensity is increased. false decreased
28. Soft x-rays have lower frequency than microwaves. false higher
29. The intensity of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing X-ray wavelength. True
30. The wavelength of x-rays is in range 102 to 109 m false 10−8 to 10−12 m most usually 10-9m
or nm
31. The wavelength of x-rays is in range 10-20 to 10-21 m false 10−8 to 10−12 m most usually
10-9m or nm
32. The energy of x-rays passing through an unit area is the wavelength of x-ray. false
Wavelength of x-ray is λ=c/f where c is speed of light
33. Comparing soft tissue, bones appear white in x-ray photography, because bones are bad
absorbers of ultraviolet rays. false: Calcium in bones absorbs x-rays the most, so bones
look white.
alpha rays. false they are x-rays
35. The wavelength of x-rays is in range 10-8 to 10-13 m True
36. To decrease the intensity of x-rays going through material to half of original value
thickness of the material need to be quartered (made 4 times smaller) ???
37. The gradual decrease in the x-ray beam intensity as it passes through the material is
called decay.
38. The "hardness" of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing electric current - amperes.
(False)
39. To decrease the intensity of x-rays going through material to half of original value The
thickness needs to be doubled.
40. The attenuation coefficient depends on frequency of the x-ray photons. (True)
41. A good x-ray source should produce x-rays of narrow beam and antiparallel x-rays.
(FALSE)
42. Contrast media consist of elements with metalloids.(False)
43. The attenuation coefficient depends on speed of the x-ray photons. (False)
44. The energy of x-rays passing through an unit area is the amplitude of x-ray. (True)
45. The electromagnetic wave attenuation coefficient is the fraction of a beam of x-rays or
gamma rays that is absorbed or scattered per unit thickness of the absorber. (True)
46. As the x-rays pass through matter, their intensity is decreased. (True)
47. The unit which describes energy of the x-ray photon is e (False)
48. The intensity of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing resistance. (False)
49. Contrast media consist of elements with halides. (False)
50. The wavelength of x-rays is in range 10^-6 to 10^^7 m (False?)
51. The electromagnetic wave attenuation coefficient is the ratio between the speed of light
in vacuum and speed of light in transparent medium
52. The unit which describes energy of the x-ray photon is e/V (False)
x-rays.(True)
54. The "hardness" of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing X-ray wavelength. (False)
55. Comparing to the soft tissue, bones appear white in x-ray photography, because bones
are good absorbers of x-rays .(True)
called radioactivity. (False)
57. The "hardness" of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing voltage. (True)
58. The attenuation coefficient depends on energy of the x-ray photons. (True)
59. Soft x-rays have longer wavelength than UVA radiation. (False)
60. The type of x-rays used to detect the break in bone is hard x-rays. (False)
beta rays. (False)
called imaging. (False)
63. A good x-ray source should produce x-rays of narrow beam and perpendicular x-rays.
(False)
64. The unit which describes energy of the x-ray photon is eV (True)
65. The electromagnetic wave attenuation coefficient is the wavelength of x-ray photons.
66. Comparing to the soft tissue, bones appear white in x-ray photography, because bones
are bad absorbers of
67. The energy of x-rays passing through an unit area is the frequency of x-ray.
68. The attenuation coefficient depends on velocity of the x-ray photons. True
69. To decrease the intensity of x-rays going through material to half of original value half
life has to be induced in the material. True
70. The energy of x-rays passing through an unit area is the intensity of x-ray. True
71. The type of x-rays used to detect the break in bone is soft x-rays. True
72. Contrast media consist of elements with low atomic numbers. True
called attenuation. True
Electromagnetism
1. Magnetic field gives particle a rise to a gyromagnetic ratio. False

2. Electromagnetic waves are produced by accelerating electric charges. True
3. Electromagnetic waves are produced by magnetic field. False
4. The angular frequency of precision of protons in an external magnetic field (MRI
method) is called higher frequency. True
5. Angular momentum gives particle a rise to a gyromagnetic ratio.
6. A charged particle can move through a magnetic field without feeling a magnetic force.
False
7. Larmor frequency depends upon the magnetic flux density. False
method) is called Larmor frequency. True
method) is called linear frequency. False
10. The kinetic energy of a charged particle can be increased by a magnetic force. False
11. Larmor frequency depends upon the energetic flux unit.
12. Electromagnetic waves are produced by electrophoresis. False
13. Larmor frequency depends upon the individual atom`s nucleus.
14. Electric charge gives particle a rise to a gyromagnetic ratio. False
15. Spin gives particle a rise to a gyromagnetic ratio. True
16. The magnetic field lines due to a current-carrying wire radiate away from the wire. False
17. Electromagnetic waves are produced by static electricity. False
18.Aparticle of charge–0.04 Cis projected with speed 2×10

m/sintoauniformmagneticfield,B,ofstrength0.5T. If the particle’s velocity as it enters the field is
19. The angular frequency of precision of protons in an external magnetic field (MRI method) is
called lower frequency. False
QUIZZES
What do eddy currents could produce directly interacting with a matter?
a) Heat.
b) coldness
What is an eddy current?

a) Eddy current is a secondary electric current induced by an alternating magnetic field.
b) Eddy current is a synonym of biochemically induced neural electrical activity
c) Eddy current is an electric current induced by plasma made fire
d) Eddy current is a gallbladder bile current
Magnetic convulsive therapy is done by using?

a) a full anesthesia.
b) no anesthesia at all
c) a local anesthesia
Thermal effects increase the rate of ?

a) cell metabolism
b) brain wave frequencies
c) biophysical effects and their causes
d) gallbladder and intestines
Why does the Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) need to have a strong and powerful (1.5 to 7
Teslas strong) static magnetic field?
a) The strong magnetic field of MRI aligns the intrinsically magnetic protons in human body
with their magnetic spin parallel to MRI magnetic field.
b) The strong magnetic field of MRI aligns the free electrons in human body with their
magnetic spin parallel to MRI magnetic field
c) The strong magnetic field of MRI aligns the nuclei of iron in human body with their
electron’s magnetic spin parallel to MRI magnetic field
a) created everywhere around the wire like a sheath; field lines perpendicularly to the
electric field lines, creating 90 degree angle
b) 45 degree angle everywhere
c) create around the wire parallel to the axis of the wire
Which property exists for iron ore?

a) It is ferromagnetic material.
b) diamagnetism
c) nanomagnetism
d) induction
e) paramagnetism
Superconductivity refers to
a) Electrical current flow through a zero resistance conductor.
b) conduction of a conductor hat can conduct heat or electrical current
c) it is a state of a very high conducting current with a super high rate
a) a single positively charged proton.
b) a single positively charged neutron.
c) a single neutrally charged neutron.
therapy (ECT)?
a) MST is non-invasive, precise targeting and minimum exposure to deep brain structures.
b) MST is invasive, precise targeting and minimum exposure to cerebral cortex
c) MST uses less energy compared to ETC
d) MST is invasive and requires less time of exposure
What is the primary advantage of inductive shortwave* diathermy?
The relatively large volume and depth of the tissue can be heated.
Which answer describes resonance the best?
a) The resonance is an effect which occurs when the energy is added to the oscillating
system "on the right time" - at the rate of the natural frequency of that system. Thus the
energy of the system having is increased.
b) It is the process of applying forces to create polarized sound or electromagnetic wave
c) The process of using external forces to another system where the energy of that system is
decreased
The disease which can probably cured using the electroconvulsive therapy is
Depression.
Magnetic convulsive therapy carries a risk of
a) amnesia
b) anxiety
c) amputation
When you set the knob of your radio to 89.2 (Radio SWH Rock) FM, that means that you:
a) set the resonant frequency of the receiver circuit to 89.2 MHz.
b) set the resonant wavelength of the receiver circuit to 89,2MHz
c) set the amplitude of the reciever circut to 89,2MHz
created everywhere around the wire like a sheath; field lines perpendicularly to the electric field
lines, creating 90 degree angle
Two point charges -q and +q, equal by its absolute value but different by its sign
(positive/negative), which exist within certain distance l; they are called
a) a dipole
b) two dipoles
c) two monopoles
d) paralellpoles
a single positively charged proton.
The term "isochrone" means:
equal time.
therapy (ECT)?
MST is non-invasive, precise targeting and minimum exposure to deep brain structures.
Why is Magnetic seizure Therapy more precise than the direct application of electricity on
the scalp?
a) Takes advantage of noninvasive nature of magnetic fields to be more precise
b) Magnetic seizure therapy causes less cancer
c) Because magnetic seizures are less hurting than electrical seizures
What does NMR abbreviation in field of medicine stands for?
a) Nuclear magnetic resonance.
b) Nucleolus magnetic resistance
c) Nucleolus magnetic resonance
d) Nuclear magnetron resonance
e) Nuclear magnetron resistance
In the capacitive field diathermy, a patient`s leg is held between
a) flat electrodes.
b) wooden bars
c) skin and bones
d) permanent magnets
Over years, when the magnetic convulsive therapy was developed, which technical aspect
and how was it improved?
a) Improvement of having higher frequency for changing magnetic field
b) Improvement of having higher frequency for static magnetic field
c) Improvement of having lower frequency for changing magnetic field
Why MRI is possible to do on humans?
a) Hydrogen atom, also called a proton is intrinsically magnetic and abundant in the human
body.
b) Hydrogen atom, also called a neutron is intrinsically magnetic and abundant in the human
body
c) oxygen is intrinsically magnetic and human breath it a lot
d) humans are not magnetic so they can be safely screened
e) lung cancer
At what approx. frequency mobile cell phones in Europe usually operate?
a) 900 MHz, microwave range.
b) 900nm, radio wave range
c) 900 Teslas
d) 900N, FM spectrum
What do magnetic poles of hydrogen atom nucleus tend to do when the atom is exposed to
strong external magnetic field?
Magnetic moment (which also defines "the poles") of the proton aligns with external magnetic
field.
There is an intrinsic magnetic moment of the proton. Its small magnitude is one of reasons
leading scientists to know that the proton is not an elementary particle but it consists of
something we call quarks. But this intrinsic magnetic moment gives an proton some
particular property. Which is it?
a) Polarity.
b) taste
c) charge
d) color
e) energy
If you listen to Galgaltz (well known israeli radio station) on 91.8MHz FM, how many wave
cycles averagely are being transmitted per second?
*FM stand for “frequency modulation” thus there are approx. number of wave cycles, not
exact.
a) 91,8 million
b) 91,8 billion
c) 91,8 thousand
d) 91,8MHz
Absorption spectrum is formed by:
a) electron transition from a higher energy level to a lower one, absorbing the quantum of
light
b) nuclear decay and emitting a quantum of light
c) electron transition from a lower energy level to a higher one, absorbing a quantum of light
d) the loss of kinetic energy of the electron in the presence of the nucleus field, which causes
a decrease in electron velocity
One reason why the sky appears blue is because:
a) red light is reflected by the atmosphere

b) higher energy light waves penetrate better through the atmosphere
c) air absorbs red light better than blue light
d) blue light is scattered to a greater extent than the red light
Physical phenomena, when the short wavelengths are scattered more than the large
wavelengths is
a) diffusion
b) tyndall scattering
c) rayleigh scattering
d) dispersion
The picture shows:
a) an unsurpassed spectrum
c) an emission spectrum
d) an x-ray spectrum
Which color light waves have the shortest length?
a) blue
b) yellow
c) pink
d) black
e) green
f) white
The picture displays:
a) an x-ray spectrum
c) a continuous spectrum
The picture is likely to show:
a) an absorption spectrum for absolutely black body

b) an x-ray spectrum
c) an absorption spectrum
d) an emission spectrum
When solution concentration increases:
a) the optical density increases

b) conjunction between atomic nuclei increases
c) the wavelength increases
d) transparency increases
The leaves appear green because of the chlorophyll, which
a) reflects blue and red light and absorbs green light, because only green color light is
absorbed. Other color lights disappear in chlorophyll
b) absorbs green and blue light and reflects red and blue light, creating a green color in the
eye
c) reflects the blue light and absorbs the yellow and red light, because the combination of
the two colors produces green color
d) absorbs blue and red light and reflects green light. The green color formed by mixing
yellow and light blue pigment in the subtractive color mixing scheme
Absorption is
a) amplification of the intensity of light that passes through an optical environment

b) amplification of the wavelength of the light that passes through an optical environment
c) attenuation of light intensity, which occurs when passing through an optical environment
In case of rayleigh scatter, the intensity of the scattered light is
a) there is no correct answer

b) alla answers are correct
c) inverse proportional to the wavelength in the fourth degree
d) directly proportional to the wavelength
In presbyopia and hypermetropia the patient will probably have problems focusing the eye
on objects which are
a) relatively far, for example seeing number of bus when the bus is approaching
b) relatively close, for example reading a book
How far is the retina behind the cornea?
a) approximately 2,2mm
b) exactly 2,2mm
c) around 2,2cm
The wavelength of any wave is
a) the ratio between velocity of the wave and its amplitude

b) the multiplication between velocity of the wave and its amplitude
c) the ratio between velocity of the wave and its frequency
The ultraviolet radiation protection mostly happens in
a) the pupil
b) the cornea
c) the conjunctiva
What is refractive index?
a) it it a ratio between speed of light in the particular transparent medium where light goes
through and speed of light in a vacuum
b) it is a ratio between incident light and reflected light angles
c) it is a number, which tells how many times the light travels slower in particular medium
compared to vacuum
How else is nearsightedness called?
a) myopia
b) hyperopia
c) hypopia
d) presopia
What is the unit for refractive index?
a) m/s
b) it does not have a unit
c) Hz
d) m/s^2
a) the frequency of the light wave will increase

d) the frequency will stay unchanged
Which cone type responds to the visible light with short wavelength
a) L- cones
b) M- cones
c) S-rods
d) S- cones
a) the velocity of the light will be slowed down

d) the frequency of the light wave will increase
Analyzing the physical equation - definition for refractive index, we can conclude that
a) if the refractive index becomes larger, speed of light decreases

b) if the refractive index becomes larger, speed of light increases
c) if speed of light is increased, refractive index becomes smaller
If the material has increased refractive index, that means
a) the wavelength of the light will be decreased

b) the frequency of the light will be increased
c) the speed of the light will be decreased
Which structure of the eye has the highest optical power
a) cornea
b) lens
c) vitreous body
d) retina
What photon can’t do?
a) it can interact with matter

b) it can teleport through matter
c) it can bop along on its merry way through space
No material can have refraction index of
a) 1.7
b) 17
c) 7
d) 0.7
If the material has decreased refractive index, that means
a) the wavelength of the light travelling through that material will be increased
b) the speed of light travelling through that material will be decreased
c) the frequency of the light travelling through that material will be increased
Brewsters angle -
a) is an angle between reflected light ray and refracted (normal line) to surface, where all
refracted light is polarized
b) is an angle between refracted light ray and perpendicular (normal line) to surface, where
all refracted light is polarized
c) is an angle between perpendicular (normal) line to surface and reflected light ray, when
reflected and refracted light rays make angle of 90 degrees
d) is an angle between incident light and perpendicular (normal)line to surface, where all
incident light is polarized
e) is an angle between two perpendicular (normal) lines to surface, when light is incident,
reflect and also refract
What kind of light is obtained via polarization?
a) parallelly or perpendicularly polarized light

b) geometrically or axiomatically polarized light
c) straight or angled polarized light
d) linearly or circularly polarized light
In presbyopia and hypermetropia the patient will probably have problems focusing the eye on
objects which are
Select one:
a.relatively far, for example seeing number of bus when bus is approaching.
b.relatively close, for example reading book.

How else the nearsightedness is called?
a.Myopia.
b.Hypopia
c.Presbyopia.
d.Hyperopia.
How far is the retina located behind the cornea?
a.Exactly 2.2Mm
b.Approximately 2.2mm
c.Around 2.2cm
No material can have a refraction index of
a.0.7
b.17
c.7
d.1.7
Which cone type responds to the visible light with short wavelength?
a.S-cones.
b.S-rods.
c.M-cones.
d.L-cones.
Which structure of the eye has the highest optical power?
a. Cornea
b. Retina


b) Pupil narrows.
d) Pupil dilates.
a) True
b) False
vision?
a) 490 Mm, 555 Mm, 6111 Å

b) 490 nm, 555 nm, 611 mm
c) 0.49 µm, 0.555 µm, 6111 Å
d) 490 nm, 555 µm, 611 nm
e) 0.49 Å, 5,55 Mm, 611 nm


𝐴𝑓𝑒𝑒𝑑𝑏𝑎𝑐𝑘 = 𝐴 / (1−𝐴𝛽)

b) Calculated amplitude 𝐴 𝑓𝑒𝑒𝑑𝑏𝑎𝑐𝑘 A feedback becomes smaller than original amplitude
A
c) Calculated amplitude 𝐴 𝑓𝑒𝑒𝑑𝑏𝑎𝑐𝑘 A feedback becomes larger than original amplitude
A


(NTC) is following?

and vitreous body.

b) Pupil widens
d) Pupil dilates
e) Pupil contracts
a) Pseudoneurons
b) Sensory neurons
c) Efferent neurons
d) Motor neurons
e) Interneurons

j) multiple pots
a) 50 mHz, 30 kHz, 2 Hz
b) 50 Hz, 0.3 kHz, 0.01 MHz
c) 50 kHz, 30 Hz, 0.2 mHz
d) 50 kHz, 30 Hz, 2000 mHz
e) 0.5 MHz, 30 mHz, 2000 Hz
a) amplified
b) inhibited
c) depressed
d) repressed
feed hungry students (Don`t ask. Probably a hungry student wrote this multiple choice
and this choice is obviously the wrong choice).
d) It is an instrument that looks like a flamethrower made by the Boring company owned
by Elon Musk and it is used to throw flames. (Such a company actually exists and the
product is sold to use it in case of the Zombie apocalypse. Seriously. Google for it, if
you don't believe!)
Same question, different alternatives

What’s an oscilloscope?
a) It’s device, that can record rapidly changing signals
b) It’s device, that can record and display very slow signals
c) It’s device, that can display different type of signals
d) all previous answers are somewhat true
a) Dogoscope
b) Ampere meter
c) Oscillograph
d) Thermometer
e) Ammeter
f) Voltmeter
a) linear
b) positive
c) inhibitory
d) negative
e) nonlinear
a) Sensor
b) Transductor
c) Reducer
d) Amplifier
some decision-making center. This task is usually per- formed by the sensory neurons.
c) Some reference values to which the controlled parameters are required to comply. The
reference value may be in the central nervous system in the form of a decision, for
example, about the position of the hand. In this case, the reference value is changeable
and is set by the central nervous system. Many references for body functions are
autonomous, however, not under the cognitive control of the brain.
contraction of a set of muscle fibers
Select one:

24. In a control system, the control process consists of 5 steps: the parameter to be controlled,
the means of monitoring the parameter, some reference value and a method for comparing the
parameter with the reference value. Which is the last step of the process?



using an amplifier.


d) Power and amplitude
b) precipitation
c) light
d) wind
e) temperature
a) decreases
b) is not affected
c) increases

c) pendulum.
a) attenuator
b) oscilloscope
c) stethoscope
d) amplifier
e) sensor



(PTC) is following?





a) 20 000 Hz
b) 7000 Hz
c) 2000 Hz
d) 50 000 Hz

c) Force
d) Frequency
a) 𝐴 𝑓𝑒𝑒𝑑𝑏𝑎𝑐𝑘 = 𝑉𝑜𝑢𝑡 × 𝑉𝑖𝑛

b) 𝐴 𝑓𝑒𝑒𝑑𝑏𝑎𝑐𝑘 = 𝑉 𝑜𝑢𝑡⋅ 𝑉 𝑖𝑛
c) 𝐴 𝑓𝑒𝑒𝑑𝑏𝑎𝑐k =𝑉𝑖𝑛⋅𝑉𝑜𝑢t
d) 𝐴 𝑓𝑒𝑒𝑑𝑏𝑎𝑐𝑘 = 𝑉 𝑜𝑢𝑡 / 𝑉 𝑖𝑛
e) 𝐴 𝑓𝑒𝑒𝑑𝑏𝑎𝑐𝑘 = 𝑉 in / 𝑉 out



diameter decreases)

Cu-Fe pair.

51.In thermoelectric thermometry there is 3 main effects: Seebeck effect, Peltier effect and
a) Some of them are reversible, some not.

b) They are reversible
c) There are unique relationship between resistance and electromagnetic force.
d) They are irreversible.
52. Before a signal describing physical phenomena can be displayed, it has to be
Select one:
a.inhibited.
b.amplified.
c.repressed.
d.depressed.
53. Which one of given instruments cannot display a signal?
a.Ampere meter
b.Dogoscope.
c.Thermometer.
d.Voltmeter.
e.Oscillograph.
f.Ammeter
54. How do we call a “positive feedback system”?
Select one:
a. A system that opposes a change in the input (e.g. light intensity increases, pupil
diameter decreases)
b. A more effective way to maintain homeostasis
c. A system that reacts with a strong output to a weak signal
d. A system that augments a change in the input (e.g. blood clotting: platelets start to
a.light.
b.precipitation.
c.temperature.
d.wind.
e.snowfall coverage
56. Sexual arosal is an example of
a. positive feedback.
b. opposite feedback.
c. software feedback.
d. composite feedback.
Which statement is mostly true about electrical signal of a microphone?
a.The signal is too weak for the display unit or recording and it needs to be amplified.
b.The signal is too strong for the display unit or recording and it needs to be reduced using
amplifier.
C. The signal is perfect for recording or displaying - nothing needs to be changed.
57. Which of the following physical quality is converted within thermistor?
Select one:
a.Force
b.Frequency
c.Ratio between electrical current and potential difference.
d.Ratio between electrical potential difference and current.
58.Biological systems has
a.one input, many outputs.
b.no inputs, many outputs.
c.no inputs, one output.
d.one input, one output.
e.no inputs, no outputs.
f.many inputs, no outputs.
g.many inputs, many outputs.
59. In which frequency set there are all frequencies audible for human hearing system?
50 Hz, 0.3 kHz, 0.01 MHz
-----------------------------------------
a) Destilled water
b) Gel
c) Wet paper

a) 5800-7500 nm
b) b) 260-280 nm
c) c) 450-475 mm

a) Electrophoresis
b) Photothermolysis
d) Ionophoresis



c) Zone
iontophoresis?


d) Fluorescent
for both?
62. If the concentration of the ions is constant and the current is doubled, what will happen to
the amount of the ions traveling through the skin?

c) It is unchanged
63. In the iontophoresis the term "current density" is used. What does it mean?
a) It shows the current flow through cross section area. The unit for current density is A/m2
c) Current density is synonym for capacitance. The unit for capacitance is C/V.

c) Magic words
potential)?
a) -70 MV
b) -70 mW
c) -70 Mv
d) -70 mV
cell body?
a) Dendrite
b) Sensory
c) Axon
d) Myelin sheet
e) Nucleus

constant

c) Globular proteins have greater mobility than fibrous proteins
71. How the charge affect the electrophoretic mobility of two particles if the size is equal for
both?

72. What kind of physical properties of molecules are so useful in order to illustrate results of
electrophoresis?
a) Plasticity
b) Metallic shiness
c) Fluorescence


75. Which factors do not influence electrophoretic mobility?

a) Shape
b) Charge
c) Size
d) Color
a) Isotophoresis
b) Protophoresis
c) Iontophoresis
d) Electrophoresis
e) Drugophoresis

a) Buffersolution
b) NaCl
c) Water solution
b) Bone effect
c) Electric effec


c) Zone

c) Fluorescent
the higher voltage
84. Which type of electrophoresis used in order to move particles or bacteria and has
a. Moving border electrphoresis
b. Microelectrophoresis
c. Zone.
a. Charge
b. Shape
c. Color
d. Size
86. Which one of mentioned answers describes the electrical circuit used in iontophoresis?
a. To achieve optimum drug delivery but without causing tissue damange, high density
b. To achieve optimum drug delivery, high density current and high voltage is used
c. Iontophoresis has low density current applied by high voltage
d. There is low density current and low voltage in iontophoresis
a. Current density is a measure of density of a substance-drug used in iontophoresis. It`s

unit is classical density unit - kg/m3
b. It tells how much potential difference exists between both electrodes which are some
c. Current density is synonym for capacitance. The unit for capactiance is C/V.
d. It shows the current flow through crossesction area. The unit for current density is
A/m2
88. Where agarose gel electrphoresis is used ?
a. Evaluate mobility of ions

b. Deliver a medicine through skin
c. c.Detect lenght of DNA
a. Globular proetins have greater mobility then fibrose proteins

b. As smaller charge of molecule as higher mobility
c. Greater molecules have greater mobility
surface. How this phenomena is called?
a. Bone effect
b. Piezoelectric effect
c. Electric effec
d. Osteoblast effect
-------------------------------------------------
What is an isotope?
of electrons
number of neutrons
number of protons
of neutrons
Which answers most precisely describe the annihilation reaction?


d) When an electron interacts with a tightly bound electron (which escapes the atom later)
a) Gamma proton
c) Proton particle
d) Alpha particle
e) Beta particle

interacting with it

a) Proton
b) Gamma particle
c) Neutron
d) Alpha particle
e) Beta particle
What are similarities and differences between the action potentials in muscles and
neurons?
a. The amplitude and duration of action potential in muscles and neurons is different
b. The amplitude and duration of action potential in muscles and neurons is the same
c. They have the same shape, but the duration of action potential in muscles is shorter
d. They have the same duration, but the amplitude of action potential in muscles is lower
e. They have the same duration, but the amplitude of action potential in muscles is higher
f. They have the same shape, but the duration of action potential in muscles is longer
What is the unit of electrical resistance?

a. Volt
b. Ampere
c. Mho
d. Ohm
What is voltage?
a. Amount of electricity
b. Potential difference
c. Movement of electric charges
d. Movement of electrons
e. Work over charge
Which statements about electricity are correct?

a. Muscle stimulation using electricity can be beneficial, but tissue heating is always the
disadvantage
b. It heats the tissue
c. The current stimulates nerves, which could cause pain
d. The current stimulates muscle fibres , which could lead to muscle contraction
e. Tissue heating using electricity can be beneficial, but the disadvantage is always the
muscle stimulation
What is synapse?
a. Interaction region between the nerve ending and the cell
b. Physical contact area between the nerve ending and the cell
c. Distance between the nerve ending and the cell
d. Chemical substance transmitted from the nerve ending to the cell
e. Electrical impulse reaching the cell from the nerve ending
What are the functions of the neuron network in human body?

a. To transmit information in the body, in the form of electrical signals
b. To store and analyze the information in the brain, in the form of mechanical signals
c. To transmit information in the body, in the form of optical signals
d. To control and delete unwanted information, in the form of electrical signals
e. To receive information, in the form of electrical signals
f. To process information in the form of mechanical signals
What is often used as an analogy of axon?
a. Insulated electric cable containing conducting liquid
b. Electric cable submerged in an insulating liquid
c. Electrical battery containing conduction liquid
d. Insulated electric cable submerged in a conducting liquid
Read the paragraph: “In the resting condition, the axon membrane is highly
permeable to potassium and only slightly permeable to sodium ions. The
membrane is impermeable to the large organic ions. Thus, while sodium ions
cannot easily leak in, potassium ions can certainly leak out of the axon. However,
-1 the potassium ions leak out of the axon, they leave behind the large negative
ions, which cannot follow them through the membrane. “What is the result of this
process”.
a. Due to large negative ions, a negative potential of 70 millivolts (mV) is produced
inside the axon, which keeps inside the axon the positive potassium ions.
Compare the radius of axon to the average radius of a human hair (100micro).
a. Axon radius is 5 times bigger than the radius of a human hair
b. Axon radius is 20 times smaller than the radius of a human hair
c. Axon radius is 5 times smaller than the radius of a human hair
d. Axon radius is twice smaller than the radius of a human hair
What is the electrical charge for sodium and potassium ions?

a. - 1 for sodium and + 1 for potassium
b. +1 for sodium and potassium
c. + 2 for sodium and - 1 for potassium
d. + 1 for sodium and - 1 for potassium
What are the missing word in the text describing the method of signal propagation
through the nervous system?
“ The messages are electrical -1- transmitted by the -2- . When a neuron receives an appropriate
stimulus, it produces electrical pulses that are propagated along its cablelike structure. The -1- are
constant in magnitude and duration, independent of the intensity of the -3-. The strength of the -3-
is conveyed by the number of pulses produced. When the -1- reach the end of the “cable” they
activate other -2- or muscle cells”:
- 1- pulses, 2-neurons, 3-stimulus
A nerve impulse is produced only if the stimulus exceeds a certain threshold value. When
this value is exceeded, an impulse is generated at the point of stimulation and propagates
down the axon. Such a propagating impulse is called …?
a. Resting potential
b. Current reaction
c. Action stimulus
d. Reaction stimulus
e. Action potential
Between how many electrodes voltage is measured at a time, when using ECG
a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 12
What is p wave usually associated with, when measuring with ECG?

a. Contraction of the ventricles
b. Recovery of the atria
c. Contraction of the atria
d. Recovery of the ventricles
Which effect is illustrated in the figure?

- Piezoelectric effect, where voltage is generated under mechanical deformation
What are 4 main characteristics used for the description of an “axon cable”
a. Resistance
b. Conductivity
c. Inductance
d. Voltage
e. Density
f. Radius
g. Capacitance
What is the diameter of the largest neurons in human nervous?

a. 20µm, or 0,0002 cm
b. 20µm, or 0,000002 m
c. 20µm, or 0,00002 m
d. 2µm, or 0,0002 cm
e. 2µm, or 0,00002 m
f. 2µm, or 0,000002 m
Quiz polarimetry
Light is partially polarized if it is
Reflected from nonmetalic surfaces (e.g. water, glass, plastic etc.).
Which of given characteristics describe optical active substances the best?

The active optical substance can be analysed using polarimeter. Where the substance
must be positioned?

c) Behind analizer
Polarised light is characterised as :
same plane
Circulary polarized light is obtained from two perpendiculary polarized lightwaves

that have x degrees phase difference
a) x = 90
b) x=45
c) x=0
d) x=360
e) x=180
When light hits the surface at the Brewster angle, there is
If two ideal polarizers are put behind each other in a way that their polarization
axes are in a 90 degree angle to each other, how much light passes through them?

b) all the light
Scanning laser polarimetry measures

Light wont travel through polarised light filters if:



b) Pupil narrows.
d) Pupil dilates.
a) True
b) False
vision?
a) 490 Mm, 555 Mm, 6111 Å

b) 490 nm, 555 nm, 611 mm
c) 0.49 µm, 0.555 µm, 6111 Å
d) 490 nm, 555 µm, 611 nm
e) 0.49 Å, 5,55 Mm, 611 nm

!"##$%&'( = ! / (1−!))

b) Calculated amplitude ! "##$%&'( A feedback becomes smaller than original
amplitude A
c) Calculated amplitude ! "##$%&'( A feedback becomes larger than original
amplitude A


(NTC) is following?

and vitreous body.

b) Pupil widens
d) Pupil dilates
e) Pupil contracts
a) Pseudoneurons
b) Sensory neurons
c) Efferent neurons
d) Motor neurons
e) Interneurons

j) multiple pots
a) 50 mHz, 30 kHz, 2 Hz
b) 50 Hz, 0.3 kHz, 0.01 MHz
c) 50 kHz, 30 Hz, 0.2 mHz
d) 50 kHz, 30 Hz, 2000 mHz
e) 0.5 MHz, 30 mHz, 2000 Hz
a) amplified
b) inhibited
c) depressed
d) repressed
feed hungry students (Don`t ask. Probably a hungry student wrote this multiple choice
and this choice is obviously the wrong choice).
d) It is an instrument that looks like a flamethrower made by the Boring company owned
by Elon Musk and it is used to throw flames. (Such a company actually exists and the
product is sold to use it in case of the Zombie apocalypse. Seriously. Google for it, if
you don't believe!)
a) Dogoscope
b) Ampere meter
c) Oscillograph
d) Thermometer
e) Ammeter
f) Voltmeter

a) linear
b) positive
c) inhibitory
d) negative
e) nonlinear
a) Sensor
b) Transductor
c) Reducer
d) Amplifier
some decision-making center. This task is usually per- formed by the sensory neurons.
c) Some reference values to which the controlled parameters are required to comply. The
reference value may be in the central nervous system in the form of a decision, for
example, about the position of the hand. In this case, the reference value is changeable
and is set by the central nervous system. Many references for body functions are
autonomous, however, not under the cognitive control of the brain.
contraction of a set of muscle fibers.
Select one:

24. In a control system, the control process consists of 5 steps: the parameter to be controlled,
the means of monitoring the parameter, some reference value and a method for comparing the
parameter with the reference value. Which is the last step of the process?



using an amplifier.


d) Power of amplitude
b) precipitation
c) light
d) wind
e) temperature
a) decreases
b) is not affected
c) increases

c) pendulum.
a) attenuator
b) oscilloscope
c) stethoscope
d) amplifier
e) sensor



(PTC) is following?




a) 20 000 Hz
b) 7000 Hz
c) 2000 Hz
d) 50 000 Hz

c) Force
d) Frequency
a) ! "##$%&'( = *+,- × *./

b) ! "##$%&'( = * +,-⋅ * ./
c) ! "##$%&'k =*./⋅*+,t
d) ! "##$%&'( = * +,- / * ./
e) ! "##$%&'( = * in / * out



diameter decreases)

Cu-Fe pair.

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
a) Destilled water
b) Gel
c) Wet paper

a) 5800-7500 nm
b) b) 260-280 nm
c) c) 450-475 mm
a) Electrophoresis
b) Photothermolysis
d) Ionophoresis



c) Zone
iontophoresis?


d) Fluorescent
for both?
62. If the concentration of the ions is constant and the current is doubled, what will happen to
the amount of the ions traveling through the skin?

c) It is unchanged
a) It shows the current flow through crossesction area. The unit for current density is A/m2
c) Current density is synonym for capacitance. The unit for capactiance is C/V.

c) Magic words
potential)?
a) -70 MV
b) -70 mW
c) -70 Mv
d) -70 mV
cell body?
a) Dendrite
b) Sensory
c) Axon
d) Myelin sheet
e) Nucleous

constant

c) Globular proteins have greater mobility than fibrose proteins
71. How does the charge affect the electrophoretic mobility of two particles if the size is
equal for both?

72. What kind of physical properties of molecules are so useful in order to illustrate results of
electrophoresis?
a) Plasticity
b) Metallic shiness
c) Fluorescence



a) Shape
b) Charge
c) Size
d) Color
a) Isotophoresis
b) Protophoresis
c) Iontophoresis
d) Electrophoresis
e) Drugophoresis

a) Buffersolution
b) NaCl
c) Water solution
b) Bone effect
c) Electric effec


c) Zone

c) Fluorescent

the higher voltage
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
QUIZ 6 → POLARIMETRY
83. Light is partially polarized if it is
a) Reflected from non metallic surfaces (e.g. water, glass, plastic etc.).
84. Which of given characteristics describe optical active substances the best?

85. The active optical substance can be analysed using polarimeter. Where the
substance must be positioned?

c) Behind analizer
86. Polarised light is characterised as :
same plane
87. Circulary polarized light is obtained from two perpendiculary polarized

lightwaves that have x degrees phase difference
a) x = 90
b) x=45
c) x=0
d) x=360
e) x=180
88. The active optical substance can be analysed using polarimeter. Where the
substance must be positioned?
89. When light hits the surfac at the Brewster angle, there is
90. If two ideal polarizers are put behind each other in a way that their polarization
axes are in a 90 degree angle to each other, how much light passes through
them?

b) all the light
91. Scanning laser polarimetry measures

92. Light wont travel through polarised light filters if:

________________________________________________________________________________________________
93. . What is an isotope?
of electrons
number of neutrons
number of protons
of neutrons
94. . Which answers most precisely describe the annihilation reaction?

d) When an electron interacts with a tightly bound electron (which escapes the atom later)
a) Gamma proton
c) Proton particle
d) Alpha particle
e) Beta particle

interacting with it
a) Proton
b) Gamma particle
c) Neutron
d) Alpha particle
e) Beta particle
----------------------------------------------------------------------

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Physics exam- variants

3. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle state that

5. Electron has nature of both wave and particle

9. Viscosity increases when intermolecular forces between liquid’s molecular decrease.

11. Alpha particles are

13. Sound and light waves both

14. The light dispersion is:

15. Refractive index of a material is

16. Conduction is an example of

17. What is the thermodynamic temperature scale in the SI system?

18. In which thermodynamic process the pressure remains constant?

19. Soft x-rays have

22. Larmor frequency depends upon the

24. Lorenz force acts on

26. What is and isotope?

28. When solution concentration increases

29. What kind of light is obtained cia polarization-

30. If the material has increased refrative index, that means

31. Photomultiplier is a device which

33. What is the sound in the range above 20 000 hertz?

37. Kirchoff’s law of thermal radiation states that

40. The flow becomes more turbulent if

41. De Bonglie hypothesis states that

42. The Gelger- Marsden (Rutherdord) experiment provides evidence for

43. Collumbs law:

44. The EGC does not ensures

46. Which is true

47. A fluid with large viscosity

48. Viscosity describes liquids .. dritcito of resistance to flow

54. Conduction is an example of

56. Specific heat capacity measures

57. As the x-rays pass through matter, their intesity

60. What is the function of the iontophoresis?

61. When does the photoelectric process occur?

62. What does NMR abbreviation in field of medicine stands for

64. Polarised light is characterised as

65. Feedback system is a system where

69. Stefan Boltzman law states that

70. Wien's displacement law stated that

74. Paricle which has no charge

77. Surfacants decrease surface tension

78. SI unit for eqvivalent doese is

80. Refractive index of a material is:

82. Select one

84. The electromagnetic wave attentistion coefficient is

86. Soft x-rays have

88. Where agarose gel electrophoresis is used

93. Scanning laser polarimetry measures

94. If the material has decreased refractive index, that means

98. Particle which has no charge

102. Which one of the following materials is the best insulator?

104. In an ideal liquid there would be no viscosity

106. When heat is absrbed

110. The light is

112. What photon can’t do

113. The sound is

115. The Geiger-Marsderutherford experiment provides for

116. Which statements about the solenoid is true

118. Kinematic viscosity

119. Viscosity describes liquid’s inne friction or resistance to flow

121. Which answers most precisly descibe annihilation reaction?

125. The intesity of x-ray beam can be increased* by increasing

126. Which statement are true?