GS Question Answer

1.
GENERAL STUDIES
1. For the Karachi session of Indian National Congress in 1931 presided over by Sardar
Patel, who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Ans. b
Explanation:
In 1931, the Indian National Congress, at its Karachi session, adopted resolutions defining,
as well as committing itself to the defence of fundamental civil rights, including socio-
economic rights such as minimum wage, the abolition of untouchability and serfdom.
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic
Programme.
2. Who among the following were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
(b) Acharya J.B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
Ans. c
Explanation:
Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission. The
Cripps mission was an attempt in late March 1942 by the British government to secure
Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II.
3. Which one of the following processes in the bodies of living organisms is a digestive
process?
(a) Breakdown of proteins into amino acids
(b) Breakdown of glucose into CO2 and H2O
(c) Conversion of glucose into glycogen
(d) Conversion of amino acids into proteins
Ans. a
Explanation:
Digestion is the mechanical and chemical breaking down of food into smaller components
that can be absorbed into a blood stream, for instance. eg. Break-down of carbohydrates,
proteins and fats into constituent units.
4. From the point of view of evolution of living organisms, which one of the following is the
correct sequence of evolution?
(a) Otter - Tortoise - Shark
(b) Shark - Tortoise - Otter
(c) Tortoise - Shark - Otter
(d) Shark - Otter – Tortoise
Ans. b
Explanation:
Otters are semi-aquatic (or in one case aquatic) fish-eating mammals.
5. Consider the following statements:

1. Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV/AIDS
2. Hepatitis B can cause liver cancer Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
Explanation:
Hepatitis B is several times more infectious than HIV/AIDS because HIV is heat sensitive.
Chronic hepatitis B may eventually cause liver cirrhosis and liver cancer—a fatal disease
with very poor response to current chemotherapy. The infection is preventable by
vaccination.
6. Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO) into the air may produce a
condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decreases. What causes this
condition?
(a) When inhaled into the human body, CO is converted into CO2
(b) The inhaled CO has much higher affirnity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen
(c) The inhaled CO destroys the chemical structure of haemoglobin
(d) The inhaled CO adversely affects the respiratory centre in the brain.
Ans. b
Explanation:
The inhaled CO has much higher affirnity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen. Carbon
monoxide mainly causes adverse effects in humans by combining with hemoglobin to form
carboxyhemoglobin (HbCO) in the blood. This prevents oxygen binding to hemoglobin,
reducing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, leading to hypoxia.
7.. Consider the following statements:

1. Every individual in the population is equally susceptible host for Swine Flue.
2. Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu.
3. To prevent the future spread of Swine Flu in the epidemic area, the swine (pigs) must
all be culled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
People who work with poultry and swine, especially people with intense exposures, are at
increased risk of zoonotic (bird and swine flue) infection. People in at-risk groups should be
treated with antivirals (oseltamivir or zanamivir) as soon as possible when they first
experience flu symptoms. Antibiotics have no role in the primary treatment of Swine Flu.
The World Health Organization moved to put the pandemic alert to phase 5 confirms that
the situation is not a pig problem but a human problem.
8. With regard to the transmission of the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, which one of the
following statements is not correct?
(a) The chances of transmission from female to male are twice as likely as from male to
female
(b) The chances of transmission are more if a person suffers from other sexually
transmitted infections
(c) An infected mother can transmit the infection to her baby during pregnancy, at
childbirth and by breast feeding
(d) The risk of contracting infection from transfusion of infected blood is much higher than
an exposure to contaminated needle
Ans. a
Explanation:
In high-income countries, the risk of female-to-male transmission is 0.04% per act and
male-to-female transmission is 0.08% per act. The transmission of the virus from the
mother to the child can occur in utero during the last weeks of pregnancy and at childbirth.
Breastfeeding also increases the risk of transmission by about 4 %.
9. What are the possible limitations of India in mitigating the global warming at present
and in the immediate future?
1. Appropriate alternate technologies are not sufficiently available.
2. Indian cannot invest huge funds in research and development.
3. Many developed countries have already set up their polluting industries in India.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
Explanation:
No need of explanation.

1. The Commonwealth has no charter treaty or constitution.
2. All the territories/countries once under the British empire (jurisdiction/rule/mandate)
automatically joined the Commonwealth as its members.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a (?)
Explanation: Membership is purely voluntary. A number of territories formerly under British
jurisdiction or mandate did not join the Commonwealth like Egypt, Iraq, Myanmar etc..
11. Examine the following statements:

1. All colours are pleasant.
2. Some colours are pleasent.
3. No colour is pleasant.
4. Some colours are not pleasant.
Given that the statement 4 is true, what can be definitely concluded?
(a) 1 and 2 are true
(b) 1 is false
(c) 2 is false
(d) 3 is true
Ans. b
12. In the context of bilateral trade negotiations between Indian and European Union,
what is the difference between European Commission and European Council?
1. European Commission represents the EU in trade negotiations whereas European
Council participates in the legislation of matters pertaining to economic polices of the
European Union.
2. European Commission comprises the Heats of State or government of member countries
whereas the European Council comprises of the persons nominated by European
Parliament.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. d
Explanation:
The European Council is the institution of the European Union (EU) responsible for defining
the general political direction and priorities of the Union. It comprises the heads of state or
government of EU member states, along with its President and the President of the
Commission. The High Representative takes part in its meetings, which are chaired by its
President: currently Herman Van Rompuy. While the European Council has no formal
legislative power, it is an institution that deals with major issues and any decisions made
are "a major impetus in defining the general political guidelines of the European Union".
13. The approximate representation of land use classification in India is

(a) Net area sown 25%; forests 33%; other areas 42%
(b) Net area sown 58%; forests 17%; other areas 25%
(c) Net area sown 43%; forests 29%; other areas 28%
(d) Net area sown 47%; forests 23%; other areas 30%
Ans. d (most correct answer)
Explanation: India 2010 page-308
According to State of Forest report 2005, the total forest cover of the country as per 2005
assessment is 20.65 of total geographical area of country.
14. With reference to the National Investment Fund to which the disinvestment proceeds
are routed, consider the following statements:
1. The assets in the National Investment Fund are managed by the Union Ministry of
Finance.
2. The National Investment Fund is to be maintained within the Consolidated Fund of
India.
3. Certain Asset Management Companies are appointed as the fund managers.
4. A certain proportion of annual income is used for financing select social sectors.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 3 only
Ans. c
Explanation:
NIF would be maintained outside the Consolidated Fund of India and would be
professionally managed by selected public sector mutual funds to provide sustainable
return without depleting the corpus. 75% of annual income of NIF will be used to finance
selected social sector schemes. The three AMCs (the UTI Asset Management Company Pvt.
Ltd., the SBI Funds Management Pvt. Ltd. and the LIC Mutual Fund Asset Management
Company Ltd.) have been appointed as fund managers for NIF, initially for two years, but
extendable later on the basis of their performance. Separate agreements were signed with
each fund manager.
15. In India, which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets Commission?
(a) Currency Futures Trading
(b) Commodities Futures Trading
(c) Equity Futures Trading
(d) Both Commodities Futures and Financial Futures Trading.
Ans. b
Explanation:
The Forward Markets Commission (FMC) is the chief regulator of forwards and futures
markets in India. It regulates commodity trade in India. It is headquartered in Mumbai and
is overseen by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government
of India.
16. Which one of the following is not a feature of Limited Liability Partnership firm?
(a) Partners should be less than 20
(b) Partnership and management need not be separate
(c) Internal governance may be decided by mutual agreement among partners.
(d) It is corporate body with perpetual succession
Ans. a
Explanation:
LLP shall be a body corporate and a legal entity separate from its partners. It will have
perpetual succession. Indian Partnership Act, 1932 shall not be applicable to LLPs and
there shall not be any upper limit on number of partners in an LLP unlike an ordinary
partnership firm where the maximum number of partners can not exceed 20, LLP Act
makes a mandatory statement where one of the partner to the LLP should be an Indian. A
minimum of two partners will be required for formation of an LLP.
17. With reference to the institution of Banking Ombudsman in India, which one of the
statements is not correct?
(a) The Banking Ombudsman is appointed by the Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Banking Ombudsman can consider complaints from Non-Resident Indians having
accounts in india
(c) The orders passed by the Banking Ombudsman are final and binding on the parties
concerned
(d) The service provided by the Banking Ombudsman is free of any fee
Ans. c
Explanation:
The Banking Ombudsman is a senior official appointed by the Reserve Bank of India to
redress customer complaints against deficiency in certain banking services.
The Banking Ombudsman can receive and consider any complaint relating to complaints
from Non-Resident Indians having accounts in India in relation to their remittances from
abroad, deposits and other bank-related matters; If one is not satisfied with the decision
passed by the Banking Ombudsman, one can approach the appellate authority against the
Banking Ombudsmen’s decision. Appellate Authority is vested with a Deputy Governor of
the RBI.
18. With reference to India, consider the following:

1. Nationalization of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches
Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the "financial inclusion" in
India?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation: Steps taken to achieve the "financial inclusion" in India-
a. A hugely expanded bank branch and cooperative network and new organizational forms
like RRBs;
b. A greater focus on credit rather than other financial services like savings and insurance,
although the banks and cooperatives did provide deposit facilities;
c. Nationalization of Banks
19. What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade India and fight the
Third Battle of Panipat?
(a) He wanted to avenge the expulsion by marathas of his viceroy Timur "Shah from
Lahore
(b) The frustrated governor of Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan invited him to invade Punjab
(c) he wanted to punish Mughal administration for non-payment of the revenues of the
Chahar Mahal (Gujarat, Aurangabad, Sialkot and Pasrur)
(d) He wanted to annex all the fertile plains of Punjab up the borders of Delhi to his
kingdom
Ans. a
Explanation:
To counter the Afghans, Peshwa Balaji Bajirao sent Raghunathrao. He succeeded in
ousting Timur Shah and his court from India and brought Lahore, Multan, Kashmir and
other subahs on the Indian side of Attock under Maratha rule. Thus, upon his return to
Kandahar in 1757, Amidst appeals from Muslim leaders like Shah Waliullah, Ahmad Shah
chose to return to India and confront the Maratha Confederacy.
20. With reference to Pondicherry (now Pundchery), consider the following statements:
1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese.
2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.
3. The English never occupied Pondicherry.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c (?)
Explanation:
Joseph François Dupleix became the Governor of the French Territory in India on 15
January 1742 and brought Madras also under French control in September 1746; Madras
continued under French rule for 30 years. Internal disturbances in Pondicherry gave the
British the opportunity, in August 1793, to gain control of Pondicherry; it was administered
as part of Madras till 1815. However, after the Treaty of Paris in 1814, the British restored
the settlements, which the French had possessed on 1 January 1792, back to the French in
1816. French rule continued till 31 October 1954.
21. Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times.
1. Buddha was by that time considered as one of the incarnations of Vishnu and thus
became a part of Vaishnavism.
2. The invading tribes from Central Asia till the time of last Gupta king adopted Hinduism
and presecuted Buddhists.
3. The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
Explanation:
The successor Shungas reinstated the sacrifices and persecuted Buddhism. Central Asian
and North Western Indian Buddhism weakened in the 6th century following the White Hun
invasion, who followed their own religions. The Gupta Empire period was a time of great
development of Hindu culture, but even then in the Ganges Plain half of the population
supported Buddhism.
22. Consider the following statements: The functions of commercial banks in India include
1. Purchase and sale of shares and securities on behalf of customers.
2. Acting as executors and trustees of wills.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. d (?)
Explanation:
The modern Commercial Banks in India cater to the financial needs of different sectors.
The main functions of the commercial banks comprise:
• transfer of funds
• acceptance of deposits
• offering those deposits as loans for the establishment of industries
• purchase of houses, equipments, capital investment purposes etc.
• The banks are allowed to act as trustees. On account of the knowledge of the financial
market of India the financial companies are attracted towards them to act as trustees to
take the responsibility of the security for the financial instrument like a debenture.
• The Indian Government presently hires the commercial banks for various purposes like
tax collection and refunds, payment of pensions etc.
23. In India, the tax proceeds of which one of the following as a percentage of gross tax
revenue has significantly declined in the last five years?
(a) Service tax
(b) personal income tax
(c) Excise duty
(d) Corporation tax
Ans. c
Explanation: Economic Survey 2009-10 page-42
24. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a
State as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated
by the Panchayats in that particular State?
(a) District Planning Committees
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Finance Ministry of that State
(d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
Ans. b
Explanation:
Governor of a State shall after every 5 years constitute a finance commission to review the
financial position of Panchayats in that particular State. State Finance Commission makes
recommendation to the Governor of a State as to the principles for determining the taxes
and duties which may be appropriated by the Panchayats in that particular State.
25. Consider the following statements: In India, taxes on transactions in Stock Exchanges
and Futures Markets are
1. levied by the Union
2. collected by the States
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
Explanation:
Some taxes are levied and collected by the Centre but the proceeds are to be distributed
among States. These include succession and estate duties in respect of property other than
agricultural land, terminal tax on goods and passengers, tax on railway fares and freights,
taxes on transaction in stock exchanges and future markets, taxes on sale or purchase of
newspapers and ads.
26. In India, during the last decade the total cultivated land for which one of the following
crops has remained more or less stagnant?
(a) Rice
(b) Oilseeds
(c) Pulses
(d) Sugarcane
Ans. a (Economic Survey 2009-10 page-182)
Explanation:
In India, during the last decade the total cultivated land for rice has remained more or less
stagnant.
1. The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for each sugar
season.
2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
Explanation:
The control on sugar is effected mainly through control orders issued under the Essential
Commodities Act and some State legislation, like the one in Uttar Pradesh.
Central Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price (SMP) of sugarcane for each sugar
season under the Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966 for each sugar factory. SMP is fixed on
the basis of the recommendations of the commission on Agricultural Costs & Prices
(CACP ).Some State Governments announce State Advised Prices (SAP) for sugarcane for
their sugar factories. SAPs are higher than SMP. SAPs are not fixed on any scientific basis.
SAPs are not statutorily binding. SMP is now replaced or supplemented by Fair and
Reasonable Price (FRP) and State Advised Price (SAP).
28. With reference to Indian economy consider the following statements:

1. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increased by four times in the last 10 years
2. The percentage share of Public Sector in GDP has declined in the last 10 years.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. d (?)
Explanation:
The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has increased by three times in the last 10 years.
29. Consider the following which can be found in the ambient atmosphere:
1. Soot
2. Sulphur hexafluoride
3. Water vapour
Which of the above contribute to the warming up of the atmosphere?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
The main greenhouse gases in the Earth's atmosphere are water vapor, carbon dioxide,
methane, nitrous oxide, and ozone. According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change, SF6 is the most potent greenhouse gas that it has evaluated, with a global
warming potential of 22,800[5] times that of CO2 when compared over a 100 year period.
CO2 is resposible for 40% of earth warming and black carbon for 12%.
30. The International Development Association, a lending agency, is administrated by the

(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(b) International Fund for Agricultural Development
(c) United Nations Development Programme.
(d) United Nations Industrial Development Organization.
Ans. a
Explanation:
The IDA is administered by the same officers and staff who administer the affairs of the
IBRD. The president of the Bank also serves as the president of the IDA, and the
governors and the executive directors of the Bank serve in the same capacity in the IDA.
As in the IBRD, a member's voting power in the IDA is roughly proportionate to its capital
subscription.
31. When you travel in certain parts of India, you will notice red soil. What is the main
reason for this colour?
(a) Abundance of magnesium
(b) Accumulated humus
(c) Presence of ferric oxides
(d) Abundance of phosphates
Ans. c
Explanation:
Red soil is formed as a result of the wearing down of the old crystalline rocks. It is less
clayey and more of a sandy nature and has a rich content of iron and small Humus
content. Red soil is poor in nitrogen, phosphorus and lime. Reddish color of red soil is due
to wide diffusion of iron.
32. Which one of the following is the appropriate reason for considering the Gondana rocks
as most important of rock systems of India?
(a) More than 90% of limestone reserves of India are found in then
(b) More than 90% of India's coal reserves are found in them
(c) More than 90% of fertile black cotton soils are spread over them
(d) None of the reasons given above is appropriate in this context
Ans. b
Explanation:
Gondwana rocks are economically most important rock system in India containing about
98% of her coal reserve.
33. Which one of the following can one come across is one travels through the Strait of
Malacca?
(a) bali
(b) Brunei
(c) Java
(d) Singapore
Ans. d
Explanation:
See any Atlas.
34. With reference to the river Luni, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It flows into Gulf of Khambhat
(b) it flows into Gulp of Kuchhh
(c) It flows into pakistan and mergers with a tributary of Indus
(d) It is lost in the marshy land of the Rann of Kuchchh
Ans. d
Explanation:
The Luni is a river of western Rajasthan state, India. It originates in the Pushkar valley of
the Aravalli Range, near Ajmer and ends in the marshy lands of Rann of Kutch in Gujarat
35. Which one of the following pairs in not correctly matched?

Dam/Lake River
(a) Govind Sagar Satluj
(b) Kolleru lake Krishna
(c) Ukai Reservoir Tapi
(d) Wular Lake Jhelum
Ans. b
Explanation:
Govind Sagar- Gobind Sagar is a man-made reservoir situated in Bilaspur District, Himachal
Pradesh.The reservoir on the river Sutlej, was formed after the hydel dam at Bhakra was
constructed and has been named in honour of Guru Gobind Singh. Kolleru lake- Kolleru
Lake is the largest freshwater lake in India. It is located in Andhra Pradesh state, India.
Kolleru is located between Krishna and Godavari delta. Ukai Reservoir- Ukai Dam,
constructed across the Tapti River, is the largest reservoir in Gujarat. Wular Lake- Wular
Lake is a large fresh water lake in Bandipore district in the Indian state of Jammu and
Kashmir. The lake basin was formed as a result of tectonic activity and is fed by the
Jhelum River.
36. A geographic region has the following distinct characteristics:
1. Warm and dry climate
2. Mild and wet winter
3. Evergreen oak trees
The above features are the distinct characteristics of which one of the following regions?
(a) Mediterranean
(b) Eastern China
(c) Central Asia
(d) Atlantic coast of North America
Ans. a
Explanation:
Mediterranean region is characterized by Warm and dry climate, Mild and wet winter and
Evergreen oak trees.
37. Which reference to the National Rehabilitation and Resettlement Policy, 2007, consider
the following statements:
1. This policy is applicable only to the persons affected by the acquisition of land for
projects and not to the involuntary displacement due to any other reason.
2. This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. d
Explanation:
The new Bill provides for benefits and compensation to people displaced by land
acquisition purchases or any other involuntary displacement. For large scale displacement,
the government shall conduct a social impact assessment, and appoint an Administrator for
Rehabilitation and Resettlement to formulate and execute the rehabilitation and
resettlement plan. This policy has been formulated by the Ministry of Rural Development.
38. In the context of India's Five Year Plans, a shift in the pattern of industrialization, with
lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
(a) Forth Plan
(b) Sixth Plan
(c) Eighth Plan
(d) Tenth Plan
Ans. b (India 2010 page-809)
Explanation:
Strategy adapted during sixth plan was to move simultaneously toward strengthening the
infrastructure for both agriculture and industries.
39. Two of the schemes launched by the Government of India for Women's development
are Swadhar and Swayam Siddha. As regards the difference between them, consider the
following statements:
1. Swayam Siddha is meant for those in difficult cicumstances such as women survivors of
natural disasters or terrorism, women prisoners released from jails, mentally challenged
women etc. whereas Swadhar is meant for holistic empowerment of women through Self
Help Groups.
2. Swayam Siddha is implemented through Local Self Government bodies or reputed
Vountary Organizations whereas Swadhar is implemented through the ICDS units set up in
the states.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. d (India 2010 page-1059,60)
Explanation:
Swayam Sidha is based on formation of women into self help groups and programme is
being implemented by ICDS machinery in most of States. The Swadhar Scheme purports to
address the specific vulnerability of each of group of women in difficult circumstances
through a Home-based holistic and integrated approach.
40. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider
the following:
1. The Right to Development
2. The Right to Expression
3. The Right to Recreation
Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child is an international statement of
the civil, political, economic, social and cultural rights of children.
41. Three men start together to travel the same way around a circular track of 11 km.
Their speeds are 4, 5.5 and 8 kmph respectively. When will they meet at the starting point
for the first time?
(a) After 11 hours
(b) After 21 hours
(c) After 22 hours
(d) After 33 hours
Ans. c
For explanation, visit www.dnaonlineinstitute.com
42. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one
of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems
fit
(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a women
(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does
not exceed rupees fifty laksh
(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a
District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the
consumers in general
Ans. c
Explanation:
Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum to be known as the "District Forum" established by
the State Government in each district of the State by notification: Provided that the State
Government may, if it deems fit, establish more than one District Forum in a district. Each
District Forum shall consist of,— a person who is, or has been, or is qualified to be a
District Judge, who shall be its President; two other members, one of whom shall be a
woman. Jurisdiction of the District Forum.—(1) Subject to the other provisions of this Act,
the District Forum shall have jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of the
goods or services and the compensation, if any, claimed ''does not exceed rupees twenty
lakhs.
43. King Cobra is the only snake that makes its own nest. Why does it make its nest?
(a) It is snake-eater and the nest helps attract other snakes
(b) It is a viviparous snake and needs a nest to given birth to its offspring
(c) It is a viviparous snake and lays its eggs in the nest and guards the nest until they are
hatched
(d) It is a large, cold blooded animal and needs a nest to hibernate in the cold season
Ans. c
Explanation:
Before she is ready to lay her eggs, she uses the coils of her long body to gather a big
mound of leaf litter. She deposits 20–40 eggs into the mound, which acts as an incubator.
The female stays with her eggs and guards the mound tenaciously, rearing up into a threat
display if any large animal gets too close. When the eggs start to hatch, instinct causes her
to leave the nest and find prey to eat so that she does not eat her young.
44. As a result of their annual survey, the National Geographic Society and an international
polling firm Gobe Scan gave India top rank in Greendex 200 score. What is this score?
(a) It is measure of efforts made by different countries in adopting technologies for
reducing carbon footprint
(b) It is measure of environmentally sustainable consumber behaviour in different
countries.
(c) It is an assessment of programmes/ schemes undertaken by different countries for
improving the conservation of natural resources.
(d) It is an index showing the volume of carbon credits sold by different countries
Ans. b
Explanation:
National Geographic and the international polling firm GlobeScan have just conducted their
second annual study measuring and monitoring consumer progress toward environmentally
sustainable consumption in 17 countries around the world.
Consumers in India, Brazil and China again scored the highest for green behavior among
the countries included the Greendex survey -- and U.S. consumers again scored the worst.
45. Consider the following statement:

1. The Taxus tree naturally found in the Himalayas.
2. The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data Book.
3. A drug called "taxol" is obtained from Taxus tree is effective against Parkinson's disease.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
The Taxus tree naturally found in the Himalayas. The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data
Book. A drug called "taxol" is obtained from Taxus tree is is a mitotic inhibitor used in
cancer chemotherapy.
46. P, Q, R and S are four men R is the richest but not the oldest. Q is older than S but not
than P or R. P is richer than Q but not than S. The four men can be ordered (descending)
in respect of age and richness, respectively, as
(a) PQRS, RPSQ
(b) PRQS, RSPQ
(c) PRQS, RSQP
(d) PRSQ, RSPQ
Ans. b
Explanation:
Consider the following statement-
P is the oldest but not the poorest.
It excludes option c.
Consider the following next statement-
Q is older than S but not than P or R.
It excludes option a and d.
47. What causes wind to deflect toward left in the Southern hemisphere?
(a) Temperature
(b) Magnetic field
(c) Rotation of the earth
(d) Pressure
Ans. c
Explanation:
Moving objects on the surface of the Earth experience a Coriolis force, and appear to veer
to the right in the northern hemisphere, and to the left in the southern. The Earth's
rotation causes Coriolis force. The Coriolis Effect strongly affects the large-scale oceanic
and atmospheric circulation, leading to the formation of robust features like jet streams
and western boundary currents.
48. Indiscriminate disposal of used flouorescent electric lamps causes mercury pollution in
the environment. Why is mercury used in the manufacture of these lamps?
(a) A mercury coating on the inside of the lamp makes the light bright white
(b) When the lamp is switched on, the mercury in the lamp causes the emission of ultra-
violet radiations.
(c) When the lamp is switched on, it is the mercury which converts the ultra-violet energy
into visible light
(d) None of the statement given above is correct about the use of mercury in the
manufacture of fluorescent lamps
Ans. b
Explanation:
Compact fluorescent bulbs are made of glass tubes filled with gas and a small amount of
mercury. CFLs produce light when the mercury molecules are excited by electricity running
between two electrodes in the base of the bulb. The mercury emits ultraviolet light, which
in turn excites the tube’s phosphor coating, leading it to emit visible light.
49. If there were no Himalayan ranges. Which would have been the most likely
geographical impact on India?
1. Much of the country would experience the cold waves from Siberia.
2. Indo-gangetic plain would be devoid of such extensive alluvival soils.
3. The pattern of monsoon would be different from what it is at present.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
Himalayan ranges effectively intercept the summer monsoons coming from the Bay of
Bengal and Arabian Sea and cause precipitation in the form of rain or snow. They also
prevent the cold continental air masses of central Asia from entering into India. The great
rivers and their tributaries carry enormous quantities of alluvium. This is deposited in the
Great Plain of North India in the form of fertile soils. It is therefore, often said it is Gift of
the Himalayas.
50. In the context of space technology, what is "Bhuvan", recently in the news?
(a) A mini satellite launched by ISRO for promoting the distance education in India.
(b) The name given to the next Moon Impact Probe, for Chandrayan-II
(c) A geoportal of ISRO with 3 D imaging capabilities of India.
(d) A space telescope developed by India.
Ans. c
Explanation:
ISRO launched the beta version of its web-based 3-D satellite imagery tool, Bhuvan, on
August 12, 2009. Bhuvan will offer superior imagery of Indian locations compared to other
Virtual Globe software with spatial resolutions ranging from 10 m to 100 m.
51. The latitudes that pass through Sikkim also pass through
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Punjab
(c) Himachal Pradehs
(d) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans. a
Explanation:
See any Atlas.
52. A man fills a basket with eggs in such a way that the number of eggs added on each
successive day is the same as the number already present in the basket. This way the
basket gets completely filled in 24 days. After how many days the basket was ¼th full?
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 17
(d) 22
Ans. d
Explanation:
The basket gets completely filled in 24 days.
According to question
On 23rd day
The basket gets half filled.
On 22nd day
The basket gets 1/4rth filled
53. The diameters of two circular coins are in the ratio of 1:3. The smaller coin is made to
roll around the bigger coin till it returns to the position from where the process of rolling
started. How many times the smaller coin rolled around the bigger coin?
(a) 9
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 1.5
Ans. c
Explanation:
Let
Radius of smaller coin = R
2 Π R x N = 2 Π (3R)
N = Number of times the smaller coin rolled around the bigger coin
N=3
54. The difference between the interest received from two bank Rs. 500 for two years is
Rs. 2.50. is the difference between their rate
(a) 0.25%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 1%
(d) 2.5%
Ans. a
Explanation:
Let
Interest rate of bank-1
=r1
Interest rate of bank-2
=r2
Total interest of bank-1= 500 x 2 xr1/100
Total interest of bank-2= 500 x 2 x r2/100
Difference of these two= 2.5
(500 x 2 x r1/100) – (500 x 2 x r2) = 2.5
Thus r1 – r2 = 0.25 %
55. When ten persons shake hands with another, in how many ways is possible?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 40
(d) 45
Ans. d
Explanation:
Number of ways = 10 x (10-1)/2 = 45
56. A candidate attempted 12 questions and secured full marks in all of them he obtained
60% in the test and questions carried equal marks, then what is the number of questions
in the test
(a) 36
(b) 30
(c) 25
(d) 20
Ans. d
Explanation:
Let
Total number of question = N
N x 60/100 = 12
N = 20
57. In how many ways can four children make to stand in a line such that two of them. A
and B are always together?
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 24
Ans. b
Explanation:
Number ways= 3! X 2! = 3 x 2 x1 x2 x1 = 12
58. In a meeting, the map of a village was placed in such a manner that south-east
becomes north, north-east becomes west and so on. What south become?
(a) North
(b) North-east
(c) North-west
(d) West
Ans. b
Explanation:
While rotating the map, answer can be fined.

1. The "Bombay Manifesto" signed in 1936 openly opposed the preaching of socialist
ideals.
2. It evoked support from a large section of business community from all across India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
Explanation:
The "Bombay Manifesto" signed in 1936 openly opposed the preaching of socialist ideals. It
evoked support from a large section of business community from all across India.
60. Among following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult?

(a) Nagarjuna
(b) Tukaram
(c) Tyagaraja
(d) Vallabhacharya
Ans. a
Explanation:
Acharya Nāgārjuna was an Indian philosopher who founded the Madhyamaka school of
Mahāyāna Buddhism.
61. Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global
warming. To what possible reason/reasons is this attributable?
1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of methane.
2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted from the cultivated
soil.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
Explanation:
Nitrous oxide is produced naturally in soils through the microbial processes of
denitrification and nitrification. These natural emissions of N2O can be increased by a
variety of agricultural practices and activities, including the use of synthetic and organic
fertilizers. The greenhouse gases are carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide , water
vapours, carbon particles etc. Growing rice has an adverse environmental impact because
of the large quantities of methane gas it generates.
62. Sustaionable development is described as the development that meets the needs of
the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own
needs. In this perspective, inherently the concept of sustainable development is
intertwined with which of the following concepts?
(a) Social justice and empowerment
(b) Inclusive Growth
(c) Globalization
(d) Carrying capacity
Ans. d
Explanation:
The carrying capacity of a biological species in an environment is the population size of the
species that the environment can sustain indefinitely, given the food, habitat, water and
other necessities available in the environment. Thus Sustaionable development is
intertwined with Carrying capacity.
63. Given below are the names of four energy crops. Which one of them can be cultivated
for ethanol?
(a) Jatropha
(b) Maize
(c) Pongamia
(d) Sunflower
Ans. b
Explanation:
In India production of alcohol apart from molasses & sugarcane route the non-molasses
route like maize, starch, corn grain, sweet sorghum, tapioca, sugar beet are also equally
getting importance as the climatic conditions for such type of agricultural crops suits in
India.
64. Consider the following pairs:

Protected area Well-known for
1. Bhiterkanika Salt water
Orissa Crocodile
2. Desert Great Indian
National Park Bustard
Rajasthan
3. Eravikulam, Hoolak Gibbon
Kerala
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
A huge population of saltwater crocodiles is present within the Bhitarkanika Wildlife
Sanctuary of Orissa and they are known to be present in smaller numbers throughout the
Indian and Bangladesh portions of the Sundarbans. Great Indian Bustard is mostly found in
the Gujrat, Madhya Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and West
Rajasthan. It is mainly spotted in the the Desert National Park (Rajasthan) and the Lala-
Parjau sanctuary in western Kutch (Gujarat). Hoolock Gibbons are found in several states
of North East India - Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Nagaland.
65. Some species of plants are insectivorous Why?
(a) Their growth in shady and dark places does not allow them to undertake sufficient
photosynthesis and theus they depend on insects for nutrition
(b) They are adapted to grow in nitrogen deficient soils and thus depend on insects for
sufficient nitrogenous nutrition.
(c) They cannot synthesize certain vitamins themselves and depend on the insects
digested by them
(d) They have remained in that particular stage of evolution as living fossils, a link between
autotrophs and heterotrophs
Ans.b
Explanation:
Insectivorous plants are adapted to grow in nitrogen deficient soils and thus depend on
insects for sufficient nitrogenous nutrition.
66. A person travelled a distance of 50 km in 8 hours. He covered a part of the distance on

foot at the rate of 4 km per hour and a part on a bicycle at the rate of 10 km per hour.
How much distance did he travel on foot?
(a) 10 km
(b) 20 km
(c) 30 km
(d) 40 km
Ans. b
Explanation:
Let
Distance travelled on foot = D
D/4 + 50-D/20 =8
5D +100-2D/20 = 8
3D = 160 – 100 = 60
D = 20 km.
67. In the context of governance, consider the following:

1. Encouraging Foreign Direct Investment inflows
2. Privatization of higher educational Institutions
3. Down-sizing of bureaucracy
4. Selling/offoading the shares of Public Sector Undertakings
Which of the above can be used as measures to control the fiscal deficit in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. b (Economic Survey 2009-10 page -38)
Explanation:
"To bring the fiscal deficit under control, the government will initiate institutional reform
measures which will encompass all aspects of budget such as subsidies, taxes, expenditure
and disinvestment".
68. As per the UN-Habitat's Global Report on Human Settlements 2009, which one among
the following regions has shown the fastest growth rate of urbanization in the last three
decades?
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Latin America and Caribbean
(d) North America
Ans. a
Explanation:
As per the UN-Habitat's Global Report on Human Settlements 2009 has shown the fastest
growth rate of urbanization in the last three decades.
69. In India, which type of forest among the following occupies the largest area?
(a) Montane Wet Temperate Forest
(b) Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest
(c) Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest
(d) Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
Ans. c
Explanation:
Montane Wet Temperate Forest-3.6%
Sub-tropical Dry Evergreen Forest2.5%
Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest-37%
Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest-8%
70. Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan does not include one of
the following:
(a) Reduction of poverty
(b) Extension of employment opportunities
(c) Strengthening of capital market
(d) Reduction of gender inequality
Ans. c
Explanation:
Inclusive growth as enunciated in the Eleventh Five Year Plan includes reduction of
poverty, extension of employment opportunities and reduction of gender inequality.
71. How many numbers from 0 to 999 are not divisible by either 5 or 7?
(a) 313
(b) 341
(c) 686
(d) 786
Ans. c
Explanation:
For explanation visit www.dnaonlineinstitute.com
72. Tamil Nadu is a leading producer of mill-make cotton yarn in the country. What could
be the reason?
1. Black cotton soil is the predominant type of soil in the State.
2. Rich pool of skilled labour is available.
Which of the above is/are the correct reasons?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
Explanation:
Red soil is the predominant type of soil in the State. Rich pool of skilled labour is main
reason for high production of mill-make cotton yarn.

1. On the planet Earth, the fresh water available for use amounts to about less than 1% of
the total water found.
2. Of the total fresh water found on the planet Earth 95% is bound up in polar ice caps
and glaciers.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
Explanation:
Only 2.75 percent of the water on Earth is freshwater, about two-thirds of it is frozen in
glaciers, a quarter is groundwater and only 0.005 percent of it is surface water.
Less than 1 percent of the world's freshwater is readily accessible.
74. Which one of the following reflects back more sunlight as compared to other three?
(a) Sand desert
(b) Paddy crop land
(c) Land covered with fresh snow
(d) Praire land
Ans. c
Explanation:
The albedo of an object is a measure of how strongly it reflects light from light sources
such as the Sun. Snow have a very high albedo and can be as high as 0.9. Because trees
tend to have a low albedo, removing forests would tend to increase albedo and thereby
could produce localized climate cooling. dry sand have low albedo (0.35) as copare to
snow.
75. Rivers that pass through Himachal Pradesh are
(a) Beas and Chenab only
(b) Beas and Ravi only
(c) Chenab, Ravi and Satluj only
(d) Beas, Chenab, Ravi, Satluj and Yamuna
Ans. d
Explanation:
The drainage systems of Himachal Pradesh are the Chandra Bhaga or the Chenab, the
Ravi, the Beas, the Sutlej and the Yamuna. These rivers are perennial and are fed by snow
and rainfall.
76. Who of the following shall cause every recommendations made by the Finance
Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
Ans. a
Explanation:
Finnance commission submits its report to the president who lays it before both the House
of Parliament along with an explanatory memmorandum as to the action taken on its
recommendations.
77. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union
Budget to the Parliament?
(a) Department of Revenue
(b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services
(d) Department of Expenditure
Ans. b
Explanation:
DEA is the nodal agency of the Union Government to formulate and monitor country's
economic policies and programmes having a bearing on domestic and international aspects
of economic management. A principal responsibility of this Department is the preparation
of the Union Budget annually (excluding the Railway Budget).
78. In a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E, there is a professor, a doctor and lawyer. A
and D are unmarried ladies, and o not work. Of the married couple in the Group, E is the
husband. B is the brother of A and is neither a doctor nor a lawyer. Who the professor?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) A
(d) Cannot be determined with the available data
Ans. a
Explanation:
Consider following statements
A and D are unmarried ladies, and do not work.
ABCDE
* *--------- unmarried ladies, and do not work
In B, C and D there is a professor, a doctor and lawyer.
B is neither a doctor nor a lawyer.
Thus will be a professor.
79. Consider the following actions by the Government:

1. Cutting the tax rates
2. Increasing the government spending
3. Abolishing the subsidies
In the context of economic recession, which of the above actions can be considered a part
of the "fiscal stimulus" package?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a (Economic Survey 2009-10 17)
Explanation:
Steps:
1. Reducing indirect taxes (excise and service tax)
2. Expanding public expenditure
3. Debt relief and subsidies to farmers
80. Half of the villagers of a certain village have their own houses. One-fifth of the villagers
cultivate paddy. One-third of the villagers are the literate. Four-fifth of the villagers are
below twenty five. Then, which one of the following is certainly true?
(a) All the villagers who have their own houses are literate
(b) Some villagers under twenty five are literate
(c) A quarter of the villagers who have their own houses cultivate paddy
(d) Half of the villagers who cultivate paddy are literate
Ans. b
81. When the Reserve Bank of India announces an increase of the Cash Reserve Ratio,
what does it mean?
(a) The commercial banks will have less money to lend
(b) The Reserve Bank of India will have less money to lend
(c) The Union government will have less money to lend
(d) The commercial banks will have more money to lend
Ans. a
Explanation:
This is the amount of money that the banks have to necessarily park with the RBI and
reduces lending capacity of commercial banks.
82. Who among the following Governor Generals created the Covenanted Civil Service of
India which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Wellesley
(c) Cornwallis
(d) William Bentinck
Ans. c
Explanation:
Cornwallis created the Covenanted Civil Service of India which later came to be known as
the Indian Civil Service. A special feature of Covenanted Civil Service of India was the rigid
and complete exclusion of Indians from it.
83. What was the immediate cause for the launch of the Swadeshi movement?
(a) The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon
(b) A sentence of 18 months rigorous imprisonment imposed on Lokmanya Tilak
(c) The arrest and deportation of Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh; and passing of the Punjab
Colonization Bill
(d) Death sentence pronounced on the Chapekar brothers
Ans. a
Explanation:
Swadeshi Movement emanated from the partition of bengal, 1905 and continued up to
1908. It was the most successful of the pre-Gandhian movements. Chief architects were
Aurobindo Ghosh, Veer Savarkar, Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Lala Lajpat Rai. The
Swadeshi Jagaran Manch is an organisation committed to the promotion of Swadeshi
(Indigenous) industries and culture.

1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate
the problem of peasants.
2. Acharya J.B. Kriplani was one of Mahatma Gandhi's colleagues in his Champaran
investigation.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
Explanation:
Rajkumar Shukla persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come to Champaran to investigate the
problem of peasants. Accompanied by Babu Rajendra Prasad, J. B. Kripalani, Mahadev
Desai Gandhijee reached Champaran and began to conduct a detailed inquiry.
85. By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and
made the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such regulation?
(a) Lord Cornwallis felt that the District collector's efficiency of revenue collection would
enormously increase without the burden of other work
(b) Lord Cornwallis felt that Judicial power should compulsorily be in the hands of
Europeans while Indians can be given the job of revenue collection in the districts
(c) Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District
Collector and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person
(d) The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge of India and a good training in law and
Lord Cornwallis felt that District Collector would be only a revenue collector
Ans. c
Explanation:
Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector
and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person and thus separated the
post of the Civil Judge and the Collector.
86. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.
2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI(IW), the WPI gives
less weight to food articles.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
Explanation:
The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India are collected on a weekly basis to construct WPI
on point to point basis. On the other hand CPI(IW) are collected from retailed market on
monthly basis. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI(IW), the
WPI gives less weight to food articles.
87. Each persons' performance compared with all other persons is to be done to rank them
subjectively. How many comparisons are needed in total, if there are 11 persons?
(a) 66
(b) 55
(c) 54
(d) 45
Ans. b
Explanation:
Number of comparisons
= 11 x (11-10)/2
= 55
88. What is the principle by which a cooling system (Radiator) in a motor car works?
(a) Conduction only
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation only
(d) Both conduction and radiation
Ans. b
Explanation:
In practice, the term "radiator" refers to any of a number of devices in which a fluid
circulates through exposed pipes notwithstanding that such devices tend to transfer heat
mainly by convection and might logically be called convectors.
89. Which among the following do/does not belong/belongs to the GSM family of wireless
technologies?
(a) EDGE
(b) LTE
(c) DSL
(d) Both EDGE and LTE
Ans. c
Explanation:
GSM has a straightforward, cost-effective migration path to 3G through GPRS, EDGE and
UMTS-HSPA, as well as beyond 3G via the HSPA Evolution (HSPA+), LTE and System
Architecture Evolution (SAE) initiatives.
90. With reference to the treatment of cancerous tumours, a tool called cyberknife has
been making the news. In this context, which one of the following statement is not
correct?
(a) It is robotic image guided system
(b) It delivers an extremely precise dose of radiation
(c) it has the capability of achieving sub-millimetre accuracy
(d) It can map the spread of tumour in the body
Ans. d
Explanation:
The CyberKnife is a frameless robotic radiosurgery system. The CyberKnife system is a
method of delivering radiotherapy, with the intention of targeting treatment more
accurately than standard radiotherapy.
91. Six books A, B, C, D, E and F are placed side by side. B, C and E have blue cover and
the other books have red cover. Only D and F are new books and the rest are old. A, C and
D are law reports and others are Gazetteers. What book is a new law report with a red
colour?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans. d
Explanation:
B, C and E have blue cover
ABCDEF
* * *-----------Blue color
Only D and F are new books
ABCDEF
* *------- New books
A, C and D are law reports
ABCDEF
What book is a new law report with a red color?
Thus answer will be D
92. Following are the characteristics of an area in India:

1. Hot and humid climate
2. Annual rainfall 200 cm
3. Hill slopes up to an altitude of 1100 metres
4. Annual range of temperature 150C to 300C
Which one among the following crops are you most likely to find in the area described
above?
(a) Mustard
(b) Cotton
(c) Pepper
(d) Viginia tobacco
Ans. c
Explanation:
Black pepper is also widely cropped and cultured in the Coorg area of Karnataka. Black
pepper matures up from sea level up to an altitude of 1500 metres. It serves as a plant
that possesses the essentialities to grow in the humid tropical regions, calling for adequate
rainfall, extreme humidity and warm climate for its maturation. Black pepper grows best in
regions of annual rainfall with more than 250 cm in measurement, thriving rich in humus
soil, which is neither too dry nor vulnerable to floods, moist, well-drained and fertile in
organic matter.
93. Running at a speed of 60 km per hour, a train passed through a 1.5 km long tunnel in
two minutes. What s the length of the train?
(a) 250 m
(b) 500 m
(c) 1000 m
(d) 1500 m
Ans. b
Explanation:
Let
Length of train is L.
1500 + L = 60 x 1000 x 2 x60/60 x 60
1500 + L = 2000
L = 500 m
94. India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning Commission as a mega

science project under the 11th Five-Year Plan. In this context, consider the following
statements:
1. Neutrions are chargeless elementary particles that travel close to the speed of light.
2. Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay.
3. Neutrinos have a negligible, but nonzero mass.
4. Trillions of Neutrinos pass through human body every second.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. d
Explanation:
Neutrinos are elementary particles that often travel close to the speed of light, are
electrically neutral, and are able to pass through ordinary matter almost undisturbed and
are thus extremely difficult to detect. Neutrinos have a minuscule, but nonzero mass.
Neutrinos are created in nuclear reactions of beta decay. Atmospheric neutrinos result from
the interaction of cosmic rays with atomic nuclei in the Earth's atmosphere, creating
showers of particles, many of which are unstable and produce neutrinos when they decay.
95. The "Instrument of Instructions" contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have
been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Extent of executive power of State
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India.
Ans. b
Explanation:
Directive Principles of State Policy resemble the instrument of instructions enumerated in
GOI Act 1935.
96. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce one of the following as "exhaust"
(a) NH3
(b) CH4
(c) H2O
(d) H2O2
Ans. c
Explanation:
Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles uses hydrogen as its fuel and oxygen (usually from air) as its
oxidant and produce water as "exhaust".
97. Recently, LASIK (Laser Assisted In Situ Keratomileusis) procedure is being made
popular for vision correction. Which one of the following statements in this context is not
correct?
(a) LASIK procedure is used to correct refractive errors of the eye
(b) It is procedure that permanently changes the shapes of the cornea
(c) It reduces a person's dependence on glasses or contact lenses
(d) It is procedure that can be done on the person of any age
Ans. d
Explanation:
LASIK or Lasik (laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis) is a type of refractive surgery for
correcting myopia, hyperopia, and astigmatism. LASIK represents advances over radial
keratotomy in the surgical treatment of vision problems, and are thus viable alternatives to
wearing corrective eyeglasses or contact lenses for many patients. Patients in their 40s or
50s who are considering LASIK surgery to improve their vision might want to consider to
be evaluated for implantable lenses as well.
98. Consider the following:

1. Oxides of Hydrogen
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above causes/cause acid rain
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
Explanation:
Acid rain is caused by emissions of compounds of ammonium, carbon, nitrogen, and sulfur
which react with the water molecules in the atmosphere to produce acids.
99. Six persons, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting in two rows, three in each, Q is not at the
end of any row. P is second to the left of R. O is the neighour of Q and is sitting diagonally
opposite to P. N is the neighbour of R. On the basis of above information, who is facing N?
(a) R
(b) Q
(c) P
(d) M
Ans. b
Explanation:
Q is not at the end of any row.
O is the neighbour of Q.
OQO
...
...
O is sitting diagonally opposite to P.
P is second to the left of R.
QO
...
...
PR
N is the neighbour of R.
MQO
...
...
PNR
Thus Q is facing N.
100. A person X has four notes of Rupee 1, 2, 5 and 10 denomination. The number of
different sums of money she can form from them is
(a) 16
(b) 15
(c) 12
(d) 8
Ans. b
Explanation:
101. Consider the following countries:

1. Brazil
2. Mexico
3. South Africa
According to UNCTAD, which of above is/are categorized as "Emerging Economies"?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
According to UNCTAD, Brazil
Mexico, South Africa are categorized as "Emerging Economies".
102. Which one of the following is not related to United Nations?

(a) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(b) International Finance Corporation
(c) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes
(d) Bank for International Settlements
Ans. d
Explanation:
The Bank for International Settlements (BIS) is an international organization of central
banks which "fosters international monetary and financial cooperation and serves as a
bank for central banks." It is not accountable to any national government and not related
to United Nations.
The World Bank differs from the World Bank Group, in that the World Bank comprises only
two institutions: the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and
the International Development Association (IDA), whereas the latter incorporates these
two in addition to three more:[3] International Finance Corporation (IFC), Multilateral
Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA), and International Centre for Settlement of
Investment Disputes (ICSID).
103. In the context of Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

Term Most
appropriate
description
1. Melt down---- Fall in stock prices
2. Recession ----- Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down---- Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
Explanation:
Melt down-Fall in stock prices
In economics, a recession is a business cycle contraction, a general slowdown in economic
activity over a period of time. India along with China is experiencing an economic
slowdown but not a recession.
104. With reference to BRIC countries, consider the following statements:

1. At present, China's GDP is more than the combined GDP of all the three other countries.
2. China's population is more than the combined population of any two other countries.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
Explanation:
Figures indicated by "UN estimate" are based on the July 1, 2009 estimate by the
Population Division of the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs
People's Republic of China-1,337,700,000
India 1,181,263,000
Brazil 192,976,000
Russia 141,927,297
2009 List by the International Monetary Fund- GDP (millions of USD)
Brazil 1,574,039
India 1,235,975
People's Republic of China 4,908,982
Russia 1,229,227
105. Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency?

(a) ADR
(b) GDR
(c) SDR
(d) Both ADR and SDR
Ans. c
Explanation:
An artificial currency is a substitute for any other currency in general public circulation. The
most common type of artificial currency is the Special Drawing Rights system used by the
International Monetary Fund (IMF) to allow many different member nations to pay dues
and transfer funds in an equitable manner. The European Currency Unit was another form
of artificial currency that was commonly used before the advent of the Euro
106. Stiglitz Commission established by the President of the United Nations General
Assembly was in the international news. The commission was supposed to deal with
(a) The challenges posed by the impending global climate change and prepare a road map
(b) The workings of the global financial systems and to explore ways and means to secure
a more sustainable global order
(c) Global terrorism and prepare a global action plan for the mitigation of terrorism
(d) Expansion of the United Nations Security Council in the present global scenario
Ans. b
Explanation:
In 2009, Stiglitz chaired the Commission of Experts on Reforms of the International
Monetary and Financial System, informally known as the Stiglitz Commission, which was
convened by the President of the United Nations General Assembly "to review the workings
of the global financial system, including major bodies such as the World Bank and the IMF,
and to suggest steps to be taken by Member States to secure a more sustainable and just
global economic order".
107. Which reference to the mineral resources of India, consider the following Paris:
Mineral 90% Natural
Sources in
1. Copper Jharkhand
2. Nickel Orissa
3. Tungsten Kerala
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
Copper- M.P.
Tungsten-Rajasthan
Nickel-Orissa
108. As regards the use of international food safely standards as reference point for the
dispute settlements, which one of the following does WTO collaborate with?
(a) Codex Alimentarius Commission
(b) International Federation of Standards Users
(c) International Organization for Standardization
(d) World Standards Cooperation
Ans. a
Explanation:
The Codex Alimentarius is a collection of internationally recognized standards, codes of
practice, guidelines and other recommendations relating to foods, food production and
food safety. Its texts are developed and maintained by the Codex Alimentarius
Commission, a body that was established in 1963 by the Food and Agriculture Organization
of the United Nations (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO). The Commission's
main aims are stated as being to protect the health of consumers and ensure fair practices
in the international food trade. The Codex Alimentarius is recognized by the World Trade
Organization as an international reference point for the resolution of disputes concerning
food safety and consumer protection.
109. An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of
certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable
manner in the identified district of the country. What are those crops?
(a) Rice and wheat only
(b) Rice, wheat and pulses only
(c) Rice, wheat, pulses and oil seeds only
(d) Rice, wheat, pulses oil seeds and vegetables
Ans. b
Explanation:
The National Development Council (NDC)in its 53rd meeting held on 29th May, 2007
adopted a resolution to launch a Food Security Mission comprising rice, wheat and pulses
to increase the production of rice by 10 million tons, wheat by 8 million tons and pulses by
2 million tons by the end of the Eleventh Plan (2011-12).
110. In India, the interest rate on savings accounts in all the nationalized commercial
banks is fixed by
(a) Union Ministry of Finance
(b) Union Finance Commission
(c) Indian Banks Association
(d) None of the above
Ans. d
Explanation:
In the recent years, banks have been given freedom in fixing interest rates on various
deposit liabilities, and flexibility in offering interest rates depending upon tenor and size of
deposits with the approval of their Boards. The only interest rate on deposits side, which is
regulated by RBI is on 'savings account' with cheque facility.
111. With reference to Simon Commission's recommendations, which one of the following
statements is correct ?
(a) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the
provinces
(b) It proposed the setting up of inter-provincial council under the Home Department
(c) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre
(d) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay
and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits
Ans. a
Explanation:
Simon Commission recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government
in the provinces.
112. Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National
Congress in 1906. The question of either retention OR of rejection of these four resolutions
became the cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress session held in Surat in 1907.
Which one of the following was not one of those resolutions ?
(a) Annulment of partition of Bengal
(b) Boycott
(c) National education
(d) Swadeshi
Ans. a
Explanation:
At the Calcutta session of Congress in 1906 passed a resolution supporting the programme
of Swadeshi, Boycott and National education.
113. Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By
what percentage is the number Y less than the number X ?
(a) 8%
(b) 9%
(c) 10%
(d) 12%
Ans. c
Explanation:
Let
Z = 100
Then X = 80 and
Y = 72
Percentage = 80-72/80 = 10 %
114. After Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled “The Way
Out”. Which one of the following was a proposal in this pamphlet ?
(a) The establishment of a "War Advisory Council" composed of representatives of British
India and the Indian States
(b) Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council in such a way that all its members,
except the Governor General and the Commander-in-Chief should be Indian leaders
(c) Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial Legislatures to be held at the end of 1945
and the Constitution making body to be convened as soon as possible
(d) A solution for the constitutional deadlock
Ans. d
Explanation:
Proposal in the Way Out pamphlet were efforts to solve the ongoing constitutional crisis.
115. There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient
India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta caves. Where is the other surviving example of
Gupta paintings ?
(a) Bagh caves
(b) Ellora caves
(c) Lomas Rishi cave
(d) Nasik caves
Ans. a
Explanation:
During the Gupta period, painting had assumed a secular character. The cave paintings of
Ajanta, Badami and Bagh were the representations of Gupta paintings.
116. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an

international treaty drawn at
(a) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972
(b) UN Conference on Environment and Development, Rio de Janeiro, 1992
(c) World Summit on Sustainable Development, Johannesburg, 2002
(d) UN Climate Change .Conference, Copenhagen, 2009
Ans. b
Explanation:
The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC or FCCC) is an
international environmental treaty produced at the United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development (UNCED), informally known as the Earth Summit, held in
Rio de Janeiro from 3 to 14 June 1992. The objective of the treaty is to stabilize
greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous
anthropogenic interference with the climate system.
117. Which bacterial strain, developed from natural isolates by genetic manipulations, can
be used for treating oil spills ?
(a) Agrobacterium
(b) Clostridium
(c) Nitrosomonas
(d) Pseudomonas
Ans. d
Explanation:
The first genetically engineered organism for bioremediation was actually produced by Dr.
Ananda Chakrabarty in USA. This GEM was a pseudomonas, which was capable of
degrading 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxyacetic acid (2,4,5-T). the strain contained two plasmids,
each providing a separate hydrogen degradative pathway, and therefore was claimed to be
effective in treating oil spills.
118. Which feature of some, species of blue-green algae helps promote them as bio-
fertilizers?
(a) They convert- atmospheric methane into ammonia which the crop plants can absorb
readily
(b) They induce the crop plants to produce the enzymes which help convert atmospheric
nitrogen to nitrates
(c) They have the mechanism to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that the crop
plants can absorb readily
(d) They induce the roots of the crop plants to absorb the soil nitrates in larger quantities
Ans. c
Explanation:
They have the mechanism to convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that the crop plants
can absorb readily
119. India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared many areas as Ramsar
Sites. Which of the following statements best describes as to how we should maintain
these sites in the context of this Convention ?
(a) Keep all the sites completely inaccessible to man so that they will not be exploited
(b) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and permit tourism and recreation
only
(c) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach for a period without any
exploitation, with specific criteria and specific period for each site, and then allow
sustainable use of them by future generations
(d) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and allow their simultaneous
sustainable use
Ans. d
Explanation:
120. Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia pinnata also considered a good option
for the production of bio-diesel in India ?
1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of the arid regions of India.
2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in lipid content of which nearly half is oleic acid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
Explanation:
Pongamia pinnata is a species of tree in the pea family, Fabaceae. Common names include
Indian Beech Tree, Honge Tree, Pongam Tree. The tree is well suited to intense heat and
sunlight. Root nodules are of the determinate type (as those on soybean and common
bean) formed by the causative bacterium Bradyrhizobium. p. pinnata has the property of
producing seeds of 25–40% lipid content of which nearly half is oleic acid. Oil made from
the seeds, known as honge oil, is an important asset of this tree and has been used as
lamp oil, in soap making, as a lubricant and biodiesel oroduction.
121. A geographic area with an altitude or 400 metres has following characteristics:
See the question paper for complete question
If this geographic area were to have a natural forest, which one of the following would it
most likely be ?
(a) Moist temperate coniferous forest
(b) Montane subtropical forest
(c) Temperate forest
(d) Tropical rain forest
Ans. d
Explanation:
A tropical rainforest is a biome found within (roughly) 10 degrees north or south of the
equator. Minimum normal annual rainfall between 1,750 millimetres (69 in) and 2,000
millimetres (79 in) occurs in this climate region. Mean monthly temperatures exceed 18 °C
(64 °F) during all months of the year.
122. . If a potato is placed on a pure paper plate which is white and unprinted and put in a
microwave oven, the potato heats up but the paper plate does not. This is because:
(a) Potato is mainly made up of starch whereas paper is mainly made up of cellulose
(b) Potato transmits microwaves whereas paper reflects microwaves
(c) Potato contains water whereas paper does not contain water
(d) Potato is a fresh organic material whereas' paper is a dead organic material
Ans. c
Explanation:
A microwave oven, or a microwave cooks or heats food by dielectric heating. This is
accomplished by using microwave radiation to heat water and other polarized molecules
within the food.
123. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National
Social Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
The National Social Assistance Programme
(NSAP) which came into effect from 15th August, 1995, is a 100 % Centrally Sponsored
Programme. It has three components namely, National Old Age Pension Scheme (NOAPS),
National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS) and National Maternity Benefit Scheme (NMBS).
TheNMBS has since been transferred to the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare w.e.f. 1-4-
2001. The Programme aims at ensuring a minimum national standard of social assistance.
Directive Principles of State Policy relates to socio-economic causes and manifested in
National Social Assistance Programme.
124. A new type of El Nino called El Nino Modoki appeared in the news. In this context,
consider the following statements:
1. Normal El Nino forms in the Central Pacific ocean whereas El-Nino Modoki forms in
Eastern Pacific ocean.
2. Normal EI Nino results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic ocean but El Nino Modoki
results in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither .1 nor 2
Ans. b
Explanation:
Normally, El Niño results in diminished hurricanes in the Atlantic, but El Nino Modoki is
resulting in a greater number of hurricanes with greater frequency and more potential to
make landfall. Normal El Nino forms in Eastern Pacific ocean whereas El-Nino Modoki forms
in the Central Pacific ocean.
125. Mon 863 is a variety of maize. It was in the news for the following reason
(a) It is a genetically modified dwarf variety which is resistant to drought
(b) It is a genetically modified variety which is pest resistant
(c) It is a genetically modified variety with ten times higher protein content than regular
maize crop
(d) It is a genetically modified variety used exclusively for bio-fuel production
Ans. b
Explanation:
MON 863 is a genetically modified (GM) variety of maize produced by Monsanto Company
and approved for human consumption in the European Union and is pest resistant.
126. A cuboid has six sides of different colors. The red side is opposite to black. The blue
side is adjacent to white. The brown side is adjacent to blue. The red side is face down.
Which one of the following would be the opposite to brown?
(a) Red
(b) Black
(c) White
(d) Blue
Ans. c
Explanation:
The red side is opposite to black.
The red side is face down.
These two statement exclude option a and b.
The blue side is adjacent to white. The brown side is adjacent to blue.
It excludes option d.
Thus white would be the opposite to brown.
127. Consider the following statements :

The satellite Oceansat-2 launched by India helps in
1. estimating the water vapour content in the atmosphere.
2. predicting the onset of monsoons.
3. monitoring the pollution of coastal waters.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
Explanation:
The main objectives of OceanSat-2 are to study surface winds and ocean surface strata,
observation of chlorophyll concentrations, monitoring of phytoplankton blooms, study of
atmospheric aerosols and suspended sediments in the water. Oceansat-2 satellite will help
identify potential fishing zones, monitor the ocean, climate studies and provide inputs for
weather forecasting.
128. Genetically modified "golden rice" has been engineered to meet human nutritional
requirements. Which one of the following statements best qualifies golden rice ?
(a) The grains have been fortified with genes to provide three times higher grain yield per
acre than other high yielding varieties
(b) Its grains contain pro-vitamin A which upon ingestion is converted to vitamin A in the
human body
(c) Its modified genes cause the synthesis of all the nine essential amino acids
(d) Its modified genes cause the fortification of its grains with vitamin D.
Ans. b
Explanation:
Golden rice is a variety of Oryza sativa rice produced through genetic engineering to
biosynthesize beta-carotene, a precursor of pro-vitamin A in the edible parts of rice
129. In a tournament 14 teams play league matches. If each team plays against every
other team once only then how many matches are played?
(a) 105
(b) 91
(c) 85
(d) 78
Ans. b
Explanation:
Number of matches played
=14 x (14-1)/2
= 14 x 13 /2
=91

The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or
fact
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3
(d) 1 and 2
Ans. b
Explanation:
The constitution (Article-143) authorizes the President to seek the opinion of Supreme
Court in the two categories of matters
1. On any question of law or facts of public importance which has arisen or which is likely
to arise.
2. Any dispute arising out of any pre constitution treaty, agreement, covenant,
engagement, sanad or other similar instruments.
131. Chlorination is a process used for water-purification. The disinfecting action of

chlorine is mainly due to
(a) The formation of hydrochloric acid when chlorine is added to, water
(b) The formation of hypochlorous acid when chlorine is added to water
(c) The formation of nascent oxygen when chlorine is added to water
(d) The formation of hydrogen when chlorine is added to water
Ans. b
Explanation:
Chlorination is a process used for water-purification. The disinfecting action of chlorine is
mainly due to the formation of hypochlorous acid and to a small extent due to the
hpochlorite ions when chlorine is added to water. Hydrochloric acid is neutralized by the
alkalinity of water.
132. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not
those matters pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any
other person
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
Ans. d
Explanation:
The Lok Adalat is presided over by a sitting or retired judicial officer as the chairman, with
two other members, usually a lawyer and a social worker. A Lok Adalat has the jurisdiction
to settle, by way of effecting compromise between the parties, any matter which may be
pending before any court, as well as matters at pre-litigative stage i.e. disputes which have
not yet been formally instituted in any Court of Law. Such matters may be civil or criminal
in nature, but any matter relating to an offence not compoundable under any law cannot
be decided by the Lok Adalat even if the parties involved therein agree to settle the same.
133. Consider the following :

1. Bluetooth device
2. Cordless phone
3. Microwave oven
4. Wi-Fi device
Which of the above can operate between 2-4 and 2-5 GHz range of radio frequency band ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. d
Explanation:
All of the above can operate between 2-4 and 2-5 GHz range of radio frequency band.
134. Though coffee and tea both are cultivated on hill slopes, there is some difference
between them regarding their cultivation. In this context, consider the following
statements:
1. Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be
cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas.
2. Coffee is propagated by seeds but tea is propagated by stem cuttings only.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
Explanation:
Coffee is usually propagated by seeds.Tea is propagated by stem cuttings and seeds both.
Coffee plant requires a hot and humid climate of tropical areas whereas tea can be
cultivated in both tropical and subtropical areas.
135. In the context of the affairs of which of the following is the phrase "Special Safeguard
Mechanisms" mentioned in the news frequently ?
(a) United Nations Environment Programme
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) ASEAN-India Free Trade Agreement
(d) G-20 Summits
Ans. b
Explanation:
Special safeguard measures is for the developing countries introduced in the first draft of
the modalities for agricultural negotiations which was presented sometime ago by the
chairman of the WTO committee on agriculture negotiations, Mr. Stuart Harbinson. The
SSM for developing countries was to provide them with a tool to safeguard their vulnerable
farmers against import surge or import price fall.
136. Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for
providing credit to the government ?
(a) Cash Credit Ratio
(b) Debt Service Obligation
(c) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Ans. d
Explanation:
SLR serves two fold purpose:
1. It enables government to borrow from banks.
2. It ensures sufficient liquid fund with banks so that it prevents chances of bankruptcy.
137. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indication
of goods (Registration and Protection Act), 1999.The deference between a Trade Mark and
a Geographical Indication is/are
1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company’s right whereas a Geographical Indication is
a community right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas Geographical Indication is
assigned to the agricultural goods/ products and handicrafts only.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
Explanation:
A geographical indication (GI) is a name or sign used on certain products which
corresponds to a specific geographical location or origin (e.g. a town, region, or country).
The use of a GI may act as a certification that the product possesses certain qualities, or
enjoys a certain reputation, due to its geographical origin. Geographical indications may be
used for a wide variety of products, whether natural, agricultural or manufactured.
A trademark or trade mark is a distinctive sign or indicator used by an individual, business
organization, or other legal entity to identify that the products or services to consumers
with which the trademark appears originate from a unique source, and to distinguish its
products or services from those of other entities.
138. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In
this context, consider the following :
1. Development of infrastructure facilities.

2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
3. Promotion of exports of services only.
Which of the above are the objectives of this Act ?
(a) 1 and 2 only.
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. a
Explanation:
The objectives of SEZs include making available goods and services free of taxes and
duties supported by integrated infrastructure for export production, expeditious and single
window approval mechanism and a package of incentives to attract foreign and domestic
investments for promoting export-led growth.
139. Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation?

(a) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency against other currencies
(b) It is a persistent recession in both the financial and real sectors of economy
(c) It is a persistent fall in the general price level of goods and services
(d) It is a fall in the rate of inflation over a period of time
Ans. c
Explanation:
In economics, deflation is a decrease in the general price level of goods and services.
Deflation occurs when the annual inflation rate falls below zero percent (a negative
inflation rate), resulting in an increase in the real value of money – allowing one to buy
more goods with the same amount of money. This should not be confused with
disinflation, a slow-down in the inflation rate (i.e. when inflation decreases, but still
remains positive).

1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions.
2. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e., Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas,
Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2.
Ans. d
Explanation:
India hosts three biodiversity hotspots: the Western Ghats, the Eastern Himalayas, and the
hilly ranges that straddle the India-Myanmar border.
141. Widespread resistance of malarial parasite to drugs like chloroquine has prompted
attempts to develop a malarial vaccine to combat malaria. Why is it difficult to develop an
effective malaria vaccine?
(a) Malaria is caused by several species of Plasmodium
(b) Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection.
(c) Vaccines can be developed only against bacteria
(d) Man is only an intermediate host and not the definitive host
Ans. b
Explanation:
Man does not develop immunity to malaria during natural infection.

1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation.
2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and fauna.
3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited ' biotic interference is permitted.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
Explanation:
The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation. In a Wildlife Sanctuary,
limited biotic interference is permitted. In a National Park biotic interference is absolutely
prohibited. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve representative flora and fauna of
the ecosystem
143. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop. The food
chain is: Food crop - Rat -Snake - Hawk. In this food chain, the highest concentration of
the pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following?
(a) Food crop
(b) Rat
(c) Snake
(d) Hawk
Ans. d
Explanation:
Biomagnification, also known as bioamplification or biological magnification, is the increase
in concentration of a substance, such as the pesticide DDT, that occurs in a food chain. For
example, though mercury is only present in small amounts in seawater, it is absorbed by
algae (generally as methylmercury). It is efficiently absorbed, but only very slowly excreted
by organisms (Croteau et al., 2005). Bioaccumulation and bioconcentration result in
buildup in the adipose tissue of successive trophic levels: zooplankton, small nekton, larger
fish etc. Anything which eats these fish also consumes the higher level of mercury the fish
have accumulated. This process explains why predatory fish such as swordfish and sharks
or birds like osprey and eagles have higher concentrations of mercury in their tissue.
144. With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices :

1. Crop rotation
2. Sand fences
3. Terracing
4. Wind breaks
Which of the above are considered appropriate methods for soil conservation in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. d
145. With reference to the Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India, consider
the following statements:
1. They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government.
2. They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
Explanation:
Non-banking financial companies, or NBFCs, are financial institutions that provide banking
services, but do not hold a banking license. These institutions are not allowed to take
deposits from the public. Nonetheless, all operations of these institutions are still covered
under banking regulations. Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) can engage in the
acquisition of securities issued by the government.
146. Which one of the following was not stipulated in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget
Management Act, 2003?
(a) Elimination of revenue deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2007-08
(b) Non-borrowing by the central government from Reserve Bank of India except under
certain circumstances
(c) Elimination of primary deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2008-09
(d) Fixing government guarantees in any financial year as a percentage of GDP
Ans. c
Explanation:
The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003:
1. Elimination of revenue deficit by the end of the fiscal year 2007-08
2. Non-borrowing by the central government from Reserve Bank of India except under
certain circumstances
3. Fixing government guarantees in any financial year as a percentage of GDP
4. Fiscal deficit to be reduced by 0.3 % each year so as to bring it down to not more than
3%
147. Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time. One travels north at 60 kmph and the
other travels south at 40 kmph. After how many hours will the trains be 150 km apart?
(a) 3/2
(b) 4/3
(c) 3/4
(d) 15/2
Ans. a
Explanation:
Let
Both trains move for T time
T x 60 + Tx40 = 150
T = 150/100 = 3/2 hours
148. A question paper had ten questions. Each question could only be answered as True
(T) or False (F). Each candidate answered all the questions. Yet, no two candidates wrote
the answers in an identical sequence. How many different sequences of answers are
possible?
(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 512
(d) 1024
Ans. d
Explanation:
149. In the parlance of financial investments, the term 'bear' denotes

(a) An investor who feels that the price of a particular security is going to fall
(b) An investor who expects the price of particular shares to rise
(c) A shareholder or a bondholder who has' an interest in a company, financial or
otherwise
(d) Any lender, whether by making a loan or buying a bond
Ans. a
Explanation:
A bull market is when stock prices are climbing strongly and a bear market is when they're
languishing.
150. A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than
from many major and mature economies like UK and France. Why?
(a) India has preference, for certain countries as regards receiving FDI
(b) India has double taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius
(c) Most citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel secure to
invest in India
(d) Impending dangers of global climatic change prompt Mauritius to make huge
investments in India
Ans. b
Explanation:
India has double taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius. A large number of foreign
institutional investors who trade on the Indian stock markets operate from Mauritius.
According to the tax treaty between India and Mauritius, capital gains arising from the sale
of shares are taxable in the country of residence of the shareholder and not in the country
of residence of the company whose shares have been sold. Therefore, a company resident
in Mauritius selling shares of an Indian company will not pay tax in India. Since there is no
capital gains tax in Mauritius, the gain will escape tax altogether.
1. There are
only two
known
examples of
cave
paintings of
the Gupta
period in
ancient India.
One of these
is paintings of
Ajanta caves.
Where is the
other
surviving
example of
Gupta
paintings ?
(a) Bagh
caves
(b) Ellora
caves
(c) Lomas
Rishi cave
(d) Nasik
caves
Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Ajanta Caves
are located
just outside
the village of
Ajinṭhā in
Aurangabad
district of
Maharashtra.
There are 28-
30 rock-cut
cave
monuments
created
during the
first century
BCE and 5th
century AD,
containing
paintings and
sculptures
considered to
be
masterpieces
of both
Buddhist
religious art
and universal
pictorial art.
Since 1983,
the Ajanta
Caves have
been a
UNESCO
World
Heritage Site.
The Bagh
Caves are a
group of nine
rock-cut
monuments,
situated
among the
southern
slopes of the
Vindhyas in
Kukshi tehsil
of Dhar
district in
Madhya
Pradesh.
These are
renowned for
mural
paintings by
master
painters of
ancient India.
The Bagh
Caves, like
those at
Ajanta, were
excavated by
master
craftmen on
perpendicular
sandstone
rock face of a
hill on the far
bank of a
seasonal
stream, the
Baghani.
Buddhist in
inspiration, of
the nine
caves, only
five have
survived. All
of them are
'viharas' or
monasteries
having
quadrangular
plan. A
copperplate
inscription of
Maharaja
Subandhu,
recording his
donation for
the repair of
the vihara
was found at
the site of
Cave 2.
Though, the
date of the
Bagh
inscription is
missing, his
Badwani
copperplate
inscription is
dated in the
year (Gupta
era) 167
(487). So the
repair of Cave
2 took place
in the late 5th
century.
The Lomash
Rishi cave in
the Barabar
Caves
belongs to
Mauryan
period. The
Barabar
Caves are the
oldest
surviving
rock-cut
caves in
India, mostly
dating from
the Mauryan
period (322–
185 BCE),
and some
with Ashokan
inscriptions,
located in the
Jehanabad
District of
Bihar.
The Nasik
Caves belong
to Satvahana
period. The
Nasik cave
inscription of
Gautami
Balashri
claims that
her son
Gautamiputra
Satakarni's
dominion
included
Anupa.
Source:
Multiple
sources.
2. Why did Buddhism start declining in India in the early medieval times ?
1. Buddha was by that time considered as one of the incarnations of Vishnu and thus became
a part of Vaishnavism.
2. The invading tribes from Central Asia till the time of last Gupta king adopted Hinduism and
persecuted Buddhists.
3. The Kings of Gupta dynasty were strongly opposed to Buddhism.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Buddha became the ninth incarnation of the Dashavatar Vishnu and thus
became part of the Vaishnavism. This led to decline in the spread of Buddhism.
The invading tribes from Central Asia had adopted Buddhism.
Though Samudraagupta was a firm believer in Hinduism and is known to have worshipped
Lord Vishnu. He was considerate of other religions and allowed Sri Lanka's Buddhist king
Sirimeghvanna to build a monastery at Bodh Gaya. That monastery was called by Xuanzang as
the Mahabodhi Sangharama. He provided a gold railing around the Bodhi Tree.
Source: Multiple sources.
3. Among the following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult ?

(a) Nagarjuna
(b) Tukaram
(c) Tyagaraja
(d) Vallabhacharya
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Acharya Nāgārjuna (c. 150 - 250 CE) was a philosopher who founded the
Madhyamaka school of Mahāyāna Buddhism. His writings are the basis for the formation of the
Madhyamaka school, which was transmitted to China under the name of the Three Treatise
(Sanlun) School. He is credited with developing the philosophy of the Prajnaparamita sutras,
and was closely associated with the Buddhist university of Nalanda. In the Jodo Shinshu
branch of Buddhism, he is considered the First Patriarch. He was born in Southern India, near
the town of Nagarjunakonda in present day Nagarjuna Sagar in the Guntur district of Andhra
Pradesh. According to traditional biographers and historians such as Kumarajiva, he was born
into a Brahmin family, but later converted to Buddhism. Nagarjuna's wrote
Mūlamadhyamakakārikā (Fundamental Verses on the Middle Way).
Tukaram (1608 – c. 1650) was a prominent Marathi Bhakti saint. He was born and lived most
of his life in Dehu, a town close to Pune city in Mahārāshtra, India. He was born to a couple
with the family name "Moray". Tukaram was a devotee of Lord Vittala or Vithobā -- an
incarnation of Lord Krishna. Tukaram is considered as the climactic point of the Bhāgawat
Hindu tradition, which is thought to have begun in Maharashtra with Nāmdev. Dnyāneshwar,
Nāmdev, Janābai, Eknāth, and Tukaram are revered especially in the wārakari sect in
Maharashtra. Tukaram wrote in archaic Marathi a large number of devotional poems identified
in Marathi as abhang. A collection of 4,500 abhang known as the Gāthā is attributed to
Tukaram. Saint Tukaram's composition ( poetries ) are found in Guru Granth Sahib.
Tyagaraja was born in 1767 in Tiruvarur, a small town in the Thanjavur district of Tamil Nadu.
He was one of the greatest composers of Carnatic music or classical South Indian music. In
addition to nearly 600 compositions (kritis), Tyagaraja composed two musical plays in Telugu,
the Prahalada Bhakti Vijayam and the Nauka Charitam.
Source: Multiple sources.
4. What was the immediate reason for Ahmad Shah Abdali to invade India and fight the Third
Battle of Panipat ?
(a) He wanted to avenge the expulsion by Marathas of his viceroy Timur Shah from Lahore
(b) The frustrated governor of Jullundhar Adina Beg Khan invited him to invade Punjab
(c) He wanted to punish Mughal administration for non-payment of the revenues of the Chahar
Mahal (Gujarat, Aurangabad, Sialkot and Pasrur)
(d) He wanted to annex all the fertile plains of Punjab up to the borders of Delhi to his
kingdom
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Third Battle of Panipat took place on 14 January 1761, at Panipat, Haryana.
The battle was fought between the Marathas and the Afghans led by Ahmad Shah Durrani, an
ethnic Pashtun, also known as Ahmad Shah Abdali. The battle is considered one of the largest
battles fought in the 18th century. In 1758, they occupied Delhi, captured Lahore and drove
out Timur Shah Durrani, the son and viceroy of the Afghan ruler, Ahmad Shah Abdali. his
provoked Ahmad Shah Abdali and he marched towards Delhi.
Source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Third_Battle_of_Panipat
Indian National Movement
5. With reference to Pondicherry (now Puducherry), consider the following statements:

1. The first European power to occupy Pondicherry were the Portuguese.
2. The second European power to occupy Pondicherry were the French.
3. The' English' never occupied Pondicherry.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Joseph François Dupleix became the Governor of the French Territory in India
on 15 January 1742 and brought Madras also under French control in September 1746;
Madras continued under French rule for 30 years. An attack on Pondicherry by the British in
1748 failed. Dupleix's help to Chanda Sahib and Musafer Jung in 1750 added Villianur and
Bahour, a group of 36 villages, to French control. This was the peak period of the French
regime; thereafter there was a decline in their sovereignty.
Internal disturbances in Pondicherry gave the British the opportunity, in August 1793, to gain
control of Pondicherry; it was administered as part of Madras till 1815. However, after the
Treaty of Paris in 1814, the British restored the settlements, which the French had possessed
on 1 January 1792, back to the French in 1816. French rule continued till 31 October 1954.
Source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pondicherry
6. By a regulation in 1793, the District Collector was deprived of his judicial powers and made
the collecting agent only. What was the reason for such regulation ?
(a) Lord Cornwallis felt that the District Collector's efficiency of revenue collection would
enormously increase without the burden of other work
(b) Lord Cornwallis felt that Judicial power should compulsorily be in the hands of Europeans
while Indians can be given the job of revenue collection in the districts
(c) Lord Cornwallis was alarmed at the extent of power concentrated in the District Collector
and felt that such absolute power was undesirable in one person
(d) The judicial work demanded a deep knowledge of India and a good training in law and Lord
Cornwallis felt that District Collector should be only a revenue collector
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The office of collector had undergone considerable structural and functional
changes during the period of British rule. Besides revenue collection, the district collector
exercised civil, judicial and military powers in districts until 1792, when the judicial and
magisterial powers were separated from him and transferred to the district judge.
Source: The Cambridge History of the British Empire, Volume 2 edited by John Holland Rose,
Arthur Percival Newton, Ernest Alfred Benians (pages 444-445)
7. Who among the following Governor Generals created the Covenanted Civil Service of India
which later came to be known as the Indian Civil Service ?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Wellesley
(c) Cornwallis
(d) William Bentinck
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Pitt's India Act of 1784 with regard to civil service laid down that the
vacancies in the Governor General's Council were to be filled by the covenanted civil servants.
The Crown was given the power of removing or recalling any servant of the company. The Act
for the first time laid down age limits for new entrants in the service of the company. It fixed
the minimum age for appointment to the post of writer at fifteen years and maximum at
eighteen years. It can be said that the Charter Act of 1793 made a significant contribution to
the development of civil services in India. It laid down that any vacancy accounting in any of
the civil offices in India "shall be filled from amongst the civil servants of the company
belonging to the Presidency in which such vacancies occurred". The Act excluded outsiders
from entering the service even though they enjoyed patronage in England. The Act tried to
improve the morale of the civil service by making it a closed and exclusive service. The
maximum age limit for appointment to the post of writer was raised to 22 years. In 1800,
Governor General Wellesley, established the college at Fort Williams with the objective of
training civil servants. But this was not favoured by the Court of Directors. Finally, in 1806,
the Court of Directors decided to set up a training institution at Haileybury in England which
was accorded a statutory status by the Charter Act of 1813.
It was under Viceroy Lord Dufferin (13 Dec 1884 -- 10 Dec 1888) that based on Report of
Public Services Commission of 1886-87, Imperial Civil Service was created (later Indian Civil
Service, and today Indian Administrative Service).
Source: IGNOU Book: Development of Public Service in India
8. What was the immediate cause for the launch of the Swadeshi movement ?
(a) The partition of Bengal done by Lord Curzon
(b) A sentence of 18 months rigorous imprisonment imposed on Lokmanya Tilak
(c) The arrest and deportation of Lala Lajpat Rai and Ajit Singh; and passing of the Punjab
Colonization Bill
(d) Death sentence pronounced on the Chapekar brothers
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Swadeshi Movement emanated from the partition of Bengal, 1905 and
continued up to 1908. It was the most successful of the pre-Gandhian movements. Chief
architects were Aurobindo Ghosh, Veer Savarkar, Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Lala
Lajpat Rai.
Source: Indian History by V.K. Agnihotri
9. Four resolutions were passed at the famous Calcutta session of Indian National Congress in
1906. The question of either retention OR of rejection of these four resolutions became the
cause of a split in Congress at the next Congress session held in Surat in 1907. Which one of
the following was not one of those resolutions ?
(a) Annulment of partition of Bengal
(b) Boycott
(c) National education
(d) Swadeshi
Answer: (?)
Explanation: 22nd Session of INC held at Calcutta, 1906: Landmark session in the Congress’
history. 1905 had been a year of tremendous political activity and popular demonstrations the
kind India had never seen before. Preceding the session, the rift between the Moderates and
Extremists was threatening the very existence of the Congress. Dadabhai Naoroji was the only
revered, universally acceptable figure who could preside over the session and prevent a split.
In his presidential address he hit out at the British Government, ‘We do not ask for favours,
we want only justice. We want self-government or Swaraj like that of U.K. or Dominions.’ A
huge pavilion with a capacity of 20,000 was erected. The session began with the singing of
Vande Mataram. The resolutions adopted demanded reversal of Partition of Bengal; upheld the
Boycott movement in Bengal; supported the Swadeshi movement; protested the existing
Education Policy of the Government; exhorting the people to take up national education and
demanded Self-Government.
Source: http://www.congresssandesh.com/february-2002/28.html

1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to come- to Champaran to investigate the
problem of peasants.
2. Acharya J. B. Kriplani was one of Mahatma Gandhi's colleagues in his Champaran
investigation.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both Land 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Bhumihar Brahmins in Champaran had earlier revolted against the conditions of
indigo cultivation in 1914 (at Pipra) and 1916 (Turkaulia). Then Pandit Raj Kumar Shukla
persuaded Mahatma Gandhi to visit Champaran and the "Champaran Satyagraha" began.
Gandhi's historic visit to Champaran was opposed by the British rulers. An order asking him to
leave Champaran was served upon him as soon as he arrived at Motihari. Gandhi defied the
order. Of the several prominent persons who rallied round him, mention may be made of Dr.
Rajendra Prasad, Acharya Kriplani, Mahadeo Desai, C. F. Andrews, H. S. Pollock, Dr. Anugrah
Narayan Singh, Raj Kishore Prasad, Ram Nawami Prasad and Dharnidhar Prasad. After
considerable struggle the Government was compelled to lift the ban on Gandhi's stay here. For
the first time on Indian soil Satyagraha (Non-Violence) was successfully put to the test.
Source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Champaran
11. With reference to Simon Commission's recommendations, which one of the following
statements is correct ?
(a) It recommended the replacement of diarchy with responsible government in the provinces
(b) It proposed the setting up of inter-provincial council under the Home Department
(c) It suggested the abolition of bicameral legislature at the Centre
(d) It recommended the creation of Indian Police Service with a provision for increased pay
and allowances for British recruits as compared to Indian recruits
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Indian Statutory Commission was a group of seven British Members of
Parliament that had been dispatched to India in 1927. It was commonly referred to as the
Simon Commission after its chairman, Sir John Simon. One of its members was Clement
Attlee, who subsequently became the British Prime Minister who would oversee the granting of
independence to India and Pakistan in 1947. The Commission published its 17-volume report
in 1930. It proposed the abolition of dyarchy and the establishment of representative
government in the provinces. It also recommended that separate communal electorates be
retained, but only until tensions between Hindus and Muslims had died down. Noting that
educated Indians opposed the Commission and also that communal tensions had increased
instead of decreased, the British government opted for another method of dealing with the
constitutional issues of India. Before the publication of the report, the British government
stated that Indian opinion would henceforth be taken into account, and that the natural
outcome of the constitutional process would be dominion status for India.
12. For the Karachi session of Indian National Congress in 1931 presided over by Sardar Patel,
who drafted the Resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Two years after the Bombay resolution of May 1929, a resolution on
Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme was adopted by the Karachi session of the
Congress. Nehru recalls in the 'Autobiography': "During my early morning talks in Delhi with
Gandhiji in February and March 1931, I had referred to this matter, and he had welcomed the
idea of having a resolution on economic matters. He asked me to bring the matter up at
Karachi, and to draft a resolution and show it to him there. I did so at Karachi, and he made
various changes and suggestions..."
Source: The making of modern India: Rammohun Roy to Gandhi and Nehru By G. N. S.
Raghavan (pages 106-107)

1. The "Bombay Manifesto" signed in 1936 openly opposed the preaching of socialist ideals.
2. It evoked support from a large section of business community from all across India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Bombay Manifesto signed in 1936 by 21 Bombay businessmen, contained
an open indictment of Nehru's preaching of socialist ideas.
From Plassey to partition: a history of modern India By Śekhara Bandyopādhyāẏa (page 367)
14. After Quit India Movement, C. Rajagopalachari issued a pamphlet entitled “The Way Out”.
Which one of the following was a proposal in this pamphlet ?
(a) The establishment of a "War Advisory Council" composed of representatives of British India
and the Indian States
(b) Reconstitution of the Central Executive Council in such a way that all its members, except
the Governor General and the Commander-in-Chief should be Indian leaders
(c) Fresh elections to the Central and Provincial Legislatures to be held at the end of 1945 and
the Constitution making body to be convened as soon as possible
(d) A solution for the constitutional deadlock
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Way Out: A Plea for Constructive Thought on the Present Political Situation
in India.
Source: The Internet
15. Who among the following were official Congress negotiators with Cripps Mission ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel
(b) Acharya J. B. Kripalani and C. Rajagopalachari
(c) Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad and Rafi Ahmed Kidwai
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Pandit Nehru and Maulana Azad were official Congress negotiators with Cripps
Mission. The Cripps mission was an attempt in late March 1942 by the British government to
secure Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II.
Indian Polity

The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President of India on matters of law or fact
1. on its own initiative (on any matter of larger public interest).
2. if he seeks such an advice.
3. only if the matters relate to the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3
(d) 1 and 2
Answer: (d)
Explanation: The Supreme Court has special advisory jurisdiction in matters which may
specifically be referred to it by the President of India under Article 143 of the Constitution.
Article 143: Power of President to consult Supreme Court:

(1) If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is
likely to arise, which is of such a nature and of such public importance that it is expedient to
obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for
consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its
opinion thereon.
(2) The President may, notwithstanding anything in the proviso to article 131, refer a dispute
of the kind mentioned in the said proviso to the Supreme Court for opinion and the Supreme
Court shall, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon.
Source: Introduction to Indian Constitution by D.D. Basu

17. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National Social
Assistance Programme launched by the Government of India ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP) which came into effect from
15th August, 1995, is a 100 % Centrally Sponsored Programme. It has three components
namely, National Old Age Pension Scheme (NOAPS), National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS)
and National Maternity Benefit Scheme (NMBS). The NMBS has since been transferred to the
Ministry of Health & Family Welfare w.e.f. 1-4-2001. The NSAP aims at providing social
security in case of old age, death of primary breadwinner and maternity.
Source: http://rural.nic.in/book01-02/ch-7.pdf
18. Which one of the following authorities makes recommendation to the Governor of a State
as to the principles for determining the taxes and duties which may be appropriated by the
Panchayats in that particular State?
(a) District Planning Committees
(b) State Finance Commission
(c) Finance Ministry of that State
(d) Panchayati Raj Ministry of that State
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Article 243-I of the Constitution: Constitution of Finance Commission to
review financial position:
(1) The Governor of a State shall, as soon as may be within one year from the
commencement of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992, and thereafter
at the expiration of every fifth year, constitute a Finance Commission to review the financial
position of the Panchayats and to make recommendations to the Governor as to-
(a) the principles which should govern-
(i) the distribution between the State and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes,
duties, tolls and fees leviable by the State, which may be divided between them under this
Part and the allocation between the Panchayats at all levels of their respective shares of
such proceeds;
(ii) the determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may be assigned to, or
appropriated by, the Panchayat;
(iii) the grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State;
(b) the measures needed to improve the financial position of the Panchayats;
(c) any other matter referred to the Finance Commission by the Governor in the interests
of sound finance of the Panchayats.
(2) The Legislature of a State may, by law, provide for the composition of the
commission, the qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as members thereof
and the manner in which they shall be selected.
(3) The Commission shall determine their procedure and shall have such powers in the
performance of their functions as the Legislature of the State may, by law, confer on them.
(4) The Governor shall cause every recommendation made by the Commission under
this article together with an explanatory memorandum as to the action taken thereon to be
laid before the Legislature of the State.
Source: Our Constitution by Subhash C Kashyap
19. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission
to be laid before each House of Parliament ?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Article 280. Finance Commission.-
(1) The President shall, within two years from the commencement of this Constitution and
thereafter at the expiration of every fifth year or at such earlier time as the President
considers necessary, by order constitute a Finance Commission which shall consist of a
Chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President.
(2) Parliament may by law determine the qualifications which shall be requisite for
appointment as members of the Commission and the manner in which they shall be selected.
(3) It shall be the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President as to-
(a) the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are
to be, or may be, divided between them under this Chapter and the allocation between the
States of the respective shares of such proceeds;
(b) the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of
the Consolidated Fund of India;
[(bb) the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the
resources of the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the
Finance Commission of the State;]
[(c) the measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the
resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the
Finance Commission of the State;]
[(d)] any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound
finance.
(4) The Commission shall determine their procedure and shall have such powers in the
performance of their functions as Parliament may by law confer on them.
Source: Our Constitution by Subhash C Kashyap
20. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union
Budget to the Parliament ?
(a) Department of Revenue
(b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services
(d) Department of Expenditure
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Budget is prepared at the behest of the Union Government by the Ministry
of Finance which is responsible for arranging the fiscal affairs of the Union Government in the
country. This Ministry of Finance is divided into five departments (i) Department of Economic
Affairs, (ii) Department of Expenditure, (iii) Department of Revenue, (iv) Department of
Disinvestment, and (v) Department Financial Services. Each of these departments are further
classified into divisions and it is the 'Budget Division' under the Department of Economic
Affairs, which is responsible for the preparation of the Union Budget.
Source: http://legalperspectives.blogspot.com/2008/02/unraveling-indian-budget-making-
process.html
21. The "Instrument of Instructions" contained in the Government of India Act 1935 have
been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Extent of executive power of State
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India
Answer: (b)
Explanation: See the source
Source: http://parliamentofindia.nic.in/ls/debates/v10p10m.htm
22. With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at pre-litigative stage and not those
matters pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any other
person
(d) None of the statements given above is correct
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Lok Adalat is a system of alternative dispute resolution developed in India. It
roughly means "People's court".
Cases that are pending in regular courts can be transferred to a Lok Adalat if both the parties
agree. A case can also be transferred to a Lok Adalat if one party applies to the court and the
court sees some chance of settlement after giving an opportunity of being heard to the other
party.
These are usually presided by retired judge, social activists, or members of legal profession. It
does not have jurisdiction on matters related to non-compoundable offences.
The First Lok Adalat was held in Chennai in 1986.
Source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lok_Adalat
23. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of
the following statements is not correct ?
(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit
(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman
(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not
exceed rupees fifty lakhs
(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a
District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the consumers
in general
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 mandates establishment of Consumer
Protection Councils at the Centre as well as in each State and District, with a view to
promoting consumer awareness. Each District Forum is headed by a person who is or has been
or is eligible to be appointed as a District Judge. A written complaint, can be filed before the
District Consumer Forum for pecuniary value of upto Rupees twenty lakh, State Commission
for value upto Rupees one crore and the National Commission for value above Rupees one
crore, in respect of defects in goods and or deficiency in service. The service can be of any
description and the illustrations given above are only indicative. However, no complaint can be
filed for alleged deficiency in any service that is rendered free of charge or under a contract of
personal service.
At present, there are 604 District Forums and 34 State Commissions with the National
Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) at the apex. NCDRC has its office at
Janpath Bhawan, A Wing, 5th Floor, Janpath, New Delhi.
Source: http://ncdrc.nic.in/
Indian Economy: General
24. Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency ?

(a) ADR
(b) GDR
(c) SDR
(d) Both ADR and SDR
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Artificial currency is the currency substitute, such as Special Drawing Rights
(Sdrs) and European Currency Units (Ecus).
An American Depositary Receipt (abbreviated ADR) represents ownership in the shares of a
non-U.S. company that trades in U.S. financial markets. The stock of many non-US companies
trade on US stock exchanges through the use of ADRs. ADRs enable U.S. investors to buy
shares in foreign companies without the hazards or inconveniences of cross-border & cross-
currency transactions. ADRs carry prices in US dollars, pay dividends in US dollars, and can be
traded like the shares of US-based companies.
Each ADR is issued by a U.S. depositary bank and can represent a fraction of a share, a single
share, or multiple shares of the foreign stock.
A Special Drawing Right (SDR) is the monetary unit of the reserve assets of the International
Monetary Fund (IMF). The unit was created in 1969 in support of the Bretton Woods system of
fixed exchange rates to alleviate the shortage of U.S. dollar and gold reserves in the expansion
of international trade. The SDR unit is defined as a weighted sum of contributions of four
major currencies, reevaluated and adjusted every five years, and computed daily in terms of
equivalent United States dollars. Special Drawing Rights are not a currency, but they represent
potential claims on the currencies of the IMF members. SDRs obtain their reserve asset power
from the commitments of the IMF member states to hold and honor them for payment of
balances. The IMF uses SDRs for its monetary unit of account. SDRs are denoted with the ISO
4217 currency code XDR.
A Global Depository Receipt or Global Depositary Receipt (GDR) is a certificate issued by a

depository bank, which purchases shares of foreign companies and deposits it on the account.
GDRs represent ownership of an underlying number of shares.
Global Depository Receipts facilitate trade of shares, and are commonly used to invest in
companies from developing or emerging markets.
Source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_Depositary_Receipt
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Special_Drawing_Rights
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Global_Depository_Receipt
25. Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for
providing credit to the government ?
(a) Cash Credit Ratio
(b) Debt Service Obligation
(c) Liquidity Adjustment Facility
(d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Statutory Liquidity Ratio is the amount of liquid assets, such as cash, precious
metals or other short-term securities, that a financial institution must maintain in its reserves.
The objectives of SLR are:
 To restrict the expansion of bank credit.

 To augment the investment of the banks in Government securities.
 To ensure solvency of banks. A reduction of SLR rates looks eminent to support the
credit growth in India.
The SLR is commonly used to contain inflation and fuel growth, by increasing or decreasing it
respectively. This counter acts by decreasing or increasing the money supply in the system
respectively. Indian banks’ holdings of government securities (Government securities) are now
close to the statutory minimum that banks are required to hold to comply with existing
regulation. When measured in rupees, such holdings decreased for the first time in a little less
than 40 years (since the nationalisation of banks in 1969) in 2005-06.
Source: Indian Economy: S.K. Mishra and V.K. Puri

GS Question Answer

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

GS Question Answer

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

1.

5. Consider the following statements:

7.. Consider the following statements:

10. Consider the following statements:

11. Examine the following statements:

13. The approximate representation of land use classification in India is

18. With reference to India, consider the following:

28. With reference to Indian economy consider the following statements:

30. The International Development Association, a lending agency, is administrated by the

35. Which one of the following pairs in not correctly matched?

45. Consider the following statement:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

59. Consider the following statements:

60. Among following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult?

64. Consider the following pairs:

66. A person travelled a distance of 50 km in 8 hours. He covered a part of the distance on

67. In the context of governance, consider the following:

73. Consider the following statements:

79. Consider the following actions by the Government:

84. Consider the following statements:

86. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

92. Following are the characteristics of an area in India:

94. India-based Neutrino Observatory is included by the Planning Commission as a mega

98. Consider the following:

101. Consider the following countries:

102. Which one of the following is not related to United Nations?

103. In the context of Indian economy, consider the following pairs:

104. With reference to BRIC countries, consider the following statements:

105. Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency?

116. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an

123. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following:

127. Consider the following statements :

130. Consider the following statements :

131. Chlorination is a process used for water-purification. The disinfecting action of

133. Consider the following :

1. Development of infrastructure facilities.

139. Which one of the following statements is an appropriate description of deflation?

140. Consider the following statements:

142. Consider the following statements:

144. With reference to soil conservation, consider the following practices :

149. In the parlance of financial investments, the term 'bear' denotes

3. Among the following, who was not a proponent of bhakti cult ?

Source: Multiple sources.

Indian National Movement

5. With reference to Pondicherry (now Puducherry), consider the following statements:

Source: IGNOU Book: Development of Public Service in India

Source: Indian History by V.K. Agnihotri

10. Consider the following statements :

Source: Indian History by V.K. Agnihotri

13. Consider the following statements :

Source: Indian History by V.K. Agnihotri

16. Consider the following statements :

Article 143: Power of President to consult Supreme Court:

Source: Introduction to Indian Constitution by D.D. Basu

Source: Our Constitution by Subhash C Kashyap

Source: Our Constitution by Subhash C Kashyap

Indian Economy: General

24. Which of the following is/are treated as artificial currency ?

A Global Depository Receipt or Global Depositary Receipt (GDR) is a certificate issued by a

 To restrict the expansion of bank credit.

Source: Indian Economy: S.K. Mishra and V.K. Puri

You might also like