Sample Test No 2

SAMPLE TEST 1
I. LISTENING (50 POINTS)

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to the recording and complete the form below.
Write ONE WORD AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided. (10 pts)
The George and Dragon
BOOK FORM
DETAILS
Name: Carla (1) _________
Phone number: 020 8322 1479
Type of event: retirement party
Date: 30th May
Number of people: 16-17
(Please note that the upstairs room has a capacity of no more than (2) ______ people)
MENU
Seven mini burgers
Two ham and cheese and two vegetable (3) ___________________
Five (4) ____________________ platters
One Caesar and one goat’s cheese salad
PRICE
Venue will be needed for a total of 4 hours
Final price: £ (5) ___________________
Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about a chance to rethink the world and decide whether
these statements are True (T) or False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided. (10pts)
6. Visitors can use pushchairs free of charge.
7. Visitors can buy refreshments at the shop.
8. The Grand Opening of the baths occurred in 1897.
9. The Romans built on the site at the same time as the Celts.
10. In Roman times, the Sacred Spring was well-known for its healing powers.
Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to the recording and choose the answer (А, В, C or D) which fits
best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided. (10pts)
11. Julian links his teenage archaeology interest to
A. a desire to please his father. B. his natural sense of curiosity.
C. a need to make some spare money. D. his unhappiness with farm life.
12. What aspect of archaeology still excites Julian today?
A. the methodical nature of much of the work
B. the pleasure of solving ancient mysteries
C. the chance to accurately assess the age of objects with precise tools
D. the process of theorizing with little information available
13. Julian believes that the way people see archaeology
A. fails to acknowledge its scientific value.
B. has been given a negative image by popular media.
C. doesn’t show the gradual nature of the research process.
D. has tended to concentrate on the physical hardships involved.
4. How does Julian feel about his current research post?
A. He regrets having relatively few opportunities to travel.
B. He wishes his colleagues would take it more seriously.
C. He admits that the problems can get him down.
D. He suggests that it is relatively cost effective.
NGO THI THANH CHAU – NBK HIGH SCHOOL FOR THE GIFTED 1
15. Julian’s project on humour in archaeology aims to
A. celebrate an otherwise unrecorded aspect of archaeologists’ lives.
B. compare archaeological findings with anecdotal evidence.
C. compile a list of jokes about archaeology.
D. make archaeological reports more accessible to non-specialists.
Part 4. For questions from 16-25, you will hear a radio news item about a manufacturer of hot-air
balloons and complete the notes below which summarize what the speaker says. Write NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each gap. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided. (20pts)
Douglas Finch award
Douglas Finch is going to be given the Honorary Degree of Doctor of (16) _________.
Douglas Finch was born just outside of Glasgow and went to Allan Glen’s School before reading (17)
_________ at Glasgow University.
The Bristol Belle was the first hot air balloon in (18) _________.
In 1968 he was issued with the first ever (19) _________ for Hot Air Balloons.
The Golden Falcon was designed specifically to fly (20) _________ .
In 1973 he was awarded the Royal Aeronautical Club Silver Medal for the first balloon flight (21)
_________.
In 1978 he attempted to cross the Atlantic in a balloon called (22) _________.
Bristol is considered the undisputed (23) _________ of the world.
Doug Finch has advanced the science, technology and art of balloon flight to (24) _________.
Doug Finch will receive his Honorary (25) _________ at Bristol Business School.
II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40 POINTS)

Part 1. For questions 26-45, choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes
each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 pts)
26. If you are _________ with your goods, contact us within ten days of receipt, and we shall
arrange collection and refund your money in full.
A. not completely satisfied B. not completely satisfying
C. not completely satisfactory D. not satisfied completely
27. “Can you come away with me for the weekend?”
“I can’t as I’m decorating the kitchen. _________ , my mother is ill.”
A. Even so B. All the same
C. After all D. On top of that
28. Would you please leave us details of your address_______ forwarding any of your mail to come?
A. for the purpose of B. as a consequence of
C. for the sake of D. by means of
29. Nobel Prize winner author J.M. Coetzee has been called "the new Kafka", as he writes
about_______sense of individual dislocation_______Franz Kafka did.
A. not only - but also B. more – than
C. both - and D. the same - as
30. It is believed that_______students will pass the exam with flying colors.
A. each and every B. each one of the
C. all of D. every
31. ____ films about writers are so dull is that writers don't dress up to practice their craft.
A. Everybody says B. It is often claimed
C. One of the reasons D. Because
32. The chemicals spilled over the road and left drivers ___________ for breath.
A. suffocating B. gasping C. inhaling D. prohibiting
33. Radium is no more a baby but the conditions of the discovery were somewhat peculiar, and so it is
always of interest ______ them and to explain them.
A. in remembering B. to have remembered them
C. to remember D. remember
34. U.S. aquacultural production comprises ______ food fish, ornamental fish, baitfish, mollusks,
crustaceans, aquatic plants, algae, and some reptiles.
A. the producing B. produce
C. is producing D. the production of
35. The early railroads were_________the existing arteries of transportation: roads, turnpikes, canals,
and other waterways.
A. those short lines connected B. short lines that connected
C. connected by short lines D. short connecting lines
36. The school drama club is _____ a play for the school’s anniversary, which is due to take place next
month.
A. turning up B. making off C. putting on D. bringing dow
37. For busy people in today’s society, lifestyle management is gaining _________.
A. points B. ground C. speed D. terrain
38. She tried to _________ Tom’s importance to the company in order to gain a promotion for herself.
A. diminish B. shrink C. dwindle D. reduce
39. He may appear to be _________ but in fact he’s a compulsive liar.
A. authentic B. genuine C. natural D. real
40. The damp has________ his death; he’s got rheumatism.
A. affected B. influenced C. swayed D. impressed
41. Until your finances are in the _________, it’s not a good idea to take out a loan.
A. credit B. funds C. profit D. black
42. The shopping center was built surrounded by a vast ________ of concrete for parking.
A. scope B. field C. extent D. range
43. There was a ________ debate about the Middle East, then they moved to a vote.
A. lively B. flexible C. main D. nimble
44. Aware that his pension will be small, he _________ a part of his salary for his old age.
A. sets apart B. sets aside C. puts up D. puts apart
45. People who are overweight _________ a risk of a heart attack or stroke.
A. bear B. suffer C. make D. run
Part 2. For questions 46-55, complete each of the following sentences with suitable preposition(s)
or particle(s). Write your answer in the boxes provided. (10 pts)
46. You must take his educational background ____________
into account when deciding what work to give
him.
47. Ben’s dreams of a university education went_____________
by the board when his father died and he
was forced to earn a living.
48. I realized something was _________
out of the ordinary when Ann didn’t show up for work today.
49. The rioting was brought _____________
about by a huge increase in the price of bread.
out
50. He will carry his plan _________despite all your objections.
51. You have to take _________these
down curtains. They look very dirty.
52. Her father has made __________all his property to her as she is his only child.
over
53. Looking _________
back on my life, I realize I’ve been very fortunate.
54. The prime minister should stand _________
aside and let a new leader head the party.
55. Most patients find that the numbness from the injection wears _______
off after about an hour.
Part 3. For questions 56-65, fill each gap with the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your
answer in the boxes provided. (10 pts)
56. The diplomat, as he ____________
invariably is, was humble and polite in the face of unfair criticism.
(VARIABLE)
57. The earthquake was so destructive that local maps needed to be updated
____________. (DATE)
58. Despite the number of vehicles involved in the accident, police say there were no ____________.
fatalities
(FATAL)
59. You've made a lot of wild accusations against Betsy, but is any of it ____________?
provable (PROOF)
60. Barry is only four years old and will be accompanied
____________ by both his parents for the audition.
(COMPANY)
61. She is a talented singer and actress who stands a good chance of gaining ____________
stardom and
recognition. (STAR)
62. My aunt is thinking of going on a diet because she is about seven kilos ____________.
overweight (WEIGH)
63. Several books that feature the images of widely ____________
acclaimed photographers are listed in the
bibliography. (CLAIM)
64. More people are turning to organic food these days because they're worried about all the different
____________
additivess in processed food. (ADD)
65. He likes to ____________his
sweeten breakfast cereal with honey instead of sugar. (SWEET)
III. READING (60 POINTS)

Part 1. For questions 66-75, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits
each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 pts)
OWNING A PET
The joys and tribulations of being a pet owner! During our lifetime most of us have some experience of
either owning a pet or being in (66) _______ contact with someone who does. Is there such a thing as
“the ideal pet”? If so, what characterizes the ideal pet? Various (67) _______ influence one’s choice of
pet, from your reasons for getting a pet to your lifestyle. For example, although quite a few pets are
relatively cheap to buy, the cost of (68) _______ can be considerable. Everything must be (69) _______
into account, from food and bedding, to vaccinations and veterinary bills. You must be prepared to (70)
_______ time on your pet, which involves shopping for it, cleaning and feeding it. Pets can be
demanding and a big responsibility. Are you prepared to exercise and (71) _______ an animal or do
you prefer a more independent pet? How much spare room do you have? Is it right to lock an energetic
animal into a (72) _______ space? Do you live near a busy road which may threaten the life of your pet?
Pets (73) _______ as turtles and goldfish can be cheap and convenient, but if you prefer affectionate
pets, a friendly cat or dog would be more (74) _______. People get pets for a number of reasons, for
company, security or to teach responsibility to children. Pets can be affectionate and loyal and an
excellent source of company as long as you know what pet (75) _______ you and your lifestyle.
66. A. near B. close C. narrow D. tight
67. A. facets B. elements C. factors D. points
68. A. upkeep B. maintenance C. upbringing D. raising
69. A. considering B. held C. taken D. kept
70. A. take B. waste C. occupy D. spend
71. A. household B. housetrain C. housekeep D. housework
72. A. confined B. detained C. reduced D. closed
73. A. so B. for C. much D. such
74. A. suited B. appropriate C. likely D. good
75. A. fits B. matches C. suits D. goes with
Part 2. For questions 76-85, fill each gap in the passage below with ONE appropriate word. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 pts)
The word “computer” is a misleading name (76) _______________the ubiquitous machine that sits on
our desks. If we go (77) _______________ to the Victorian period, or even the World War II era, the
word (78) _______________ an occupation, defined in the Oxford English Dictionary as "one who
computes; a calculator, reckoner; specifically a person employed to make calculations in an
observatory, in surveying, etc."
In (79) _______________, although modern computer can work with numbers, (80) _______________
main use is for storing and manipulating information, (81) _______________ is, for doing the kinds of
jobs performed by a clerk--defined in the Oxford English Dictionary (82) _______________ "one
employed in a subordinate position in a public or (83) _______________ office, shop, warehouse, etc.,
to make written entries, (84) _______________ accounts, make fair copies of documents, do the
mechanical work of correspondence and similar 'clerkly' work." The electronic computer (85)
_______________ be said to combine the roles of the human computer and the human clerk.
Part 3. For questions 86-95, read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15pts)
1. No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By changing
word sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to communicate tiny
variations in meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken place
or is soon to take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning.
Nor is this complexity inherent to the English language. All languages, even those of so-called
'primitive' tribes have clever grammatical components. The Cherokee pronoun system, for example,
can distinguish between 'you and I', 'several other people and I' and 'you, another person and I'. In
English, all these meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun 'we'. Grammar is universal and
plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is. So the question which has baffled many
linguists is - who created grammar?
2. At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how grammar
is created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's creation, documenting its emergence.
Many historical linguists are able to trace modern complex languages back to earlier languages, but in
order to answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to
observe how languages are started from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is possible.
3. Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time, slaves
from a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer's rule. Since they
had no opportunity to learn each other's languages, they developed a make-shift language called a
pidgin. Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the landowner. They have little in the
way of grammar, and in many cases it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event happened, and
who did what to whom. [A] Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning
understood. [B] Interestingly, however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for a
group of children to be exposed to it at the time when they learn their mother tongue. [C] Slave children
did not simply copy the strings of words uttered by their elders, they adapted their words to create a
new, expressive language. [D] It included standardized word orders and grammatical markers that
existed in neither the pidgin language, nor the language of the colonizers. Complex grammar systems
which emerge from pidgins are termed creoles, and they are invented by children.
4. Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign languages
are not simply a series of gestures; they utilize the same grammatical machinery that is found in spoken
languages. Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide. The creation of one such
language was documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all deaf people were isolated from
each other, but in 1979 a new government introduced schools for the deaf. Although children were
taught speech and lip reading in the classroom, in the playgrounds they began to invent their own sign
system, using the gestures that they used at home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used the signs
differently, and there was no consistent grammar. However, children who joined the school later, when
this inventive sign system was already around, developed a quite different sign language. Although it
was based on the signs of the older children, the younger children's language was more fluid and
compact, and it utilized a large range of grammatical devices to clarify meaning. What is more, all the
children used the signs in the same way. A new creole was born.
5. Some linguists believe that many of the world's most established languages were creoles at
first. The English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the verb 'do'. 'It ended' may once have
been 'It end-did'. Therefore it would appear that even the most widespread languages were partly
created by children. Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains, which
springs to life when they are first trying to make sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve
to create logical, complex structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.
86. In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee language?
A. To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures
B. To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar
C. To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees.
D. To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language
87. What can be inferred about the slaves' pidgin language?
A. It contained complex grammar.
B. It was based on many different languages.
C. It was difficult to understand, even among slaves.
D. It was created by the land-owners.
88. All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true EXCEPT:
A. The language has been created since 1979.
B. The language is based on speech and lip reading.
C. The language incorporates signs which children used at home.
D. The language was perfected by younger children.
89. In paragraph 3, where can the following sentence be placed?
It included standardized word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the pidgin language,
nor the language of the colonizers.
A. A B. B C. C D. D
90. 'From scratch' in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A. from the very beginning B. in simple cultures
C. by copying something else D. by using written information
91. 'Make-shift' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:
A. complicated and expressive B. simple and temporary
C. extensive and diverse D. private and personal
92. Which sentence is closest in meaning to the bold sentence?
Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is.
A. All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain
grammar.
B. Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a little.
C. Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages that contain a
little.
D. The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved.
93. All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT:
A. All children used the same gestures to show meaning.
B. The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language.
C. The hand movements were smoother and smaller.
D. New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities.
94. Which idea is presented in the final paragraph?
A. English was probably once a creole.
B. The English past tense system is inaccurate.
C. Linguists have proven that English was created by children.
D. Children say English past tenses differently from adults.
95. Look at the word 'consistent' in paragraph 4. This word could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. natural B. predictable C. imaginable D. uniform
Part 4. For questions 96-105, read the text and do the tasks followed. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 pts)
Section 1.
The pyramids are the most famous monuments of ancient Egypt and still hold enormous interest
for people in the present day. These grand, impressive tributes to the memory of the Egyptian kings
have become linked with the country even though other cultures, such as the Chinese and Mayan, also
built pyramids. The evolution of the pyramid form has been written and argued about for centuries.
However, there is no question that, as far as Egypt is concerned, it began with one monument to one
king designed by one brilliant architect: the Step Pyramid of Djoser at Saqqara.
Section 2.
Djoser was the first king of the Third Dynasty of Egypt and the first to build in stone. Prior to
Djoser’s reign, tombs were rectangular monuments made of dried clay brick, which covered
underground passages where the deceased person was buried. For reasons which remain unclear,
Djoser’s main official, whose name was Imhotep, conceived of building a taller, more impressive tomb
for his king by stacking stone slabs on top of one another, progressively making them smaller, to form
the shape now known as the Step Pyramid. Djoser is thought to have reigned for 19 years, but some
historians and scholars attribute a much longer time for his rule, owing to the number and size of the
monuments he built.
Section 3.
The Step Pyramid has been thoroughly examined and investigated over the last century, and it
is now known that the building process went through many different stages. Historian Marc Van de
Mieroop comments on this, writing ‘Much experimentation was involved, which is especially clear in
the construction of the pyramid in the center of the complex. It had several plans … before it became
the first Step Pyramid in history, piling six levels on top of one another … The weight of the enormous
mass was a challenge for the builders, who placed the stones at an inward incline in order to prevent
the monument breaking up.’
Section 4.
When finally completed, the Step Pyramid rose 62 meters high and was the tallest structure of
its time. The complex in which it was built was the size of a city in ancient Egypt and included a temple,
courtyards, shrines, and living quarters for the priests. It covered a region of 16 hectares and was
surrounded by a wall 10.5 meters high. The wall had 13 false doors cut into it with only one true
entrance cut into the south-east corner; the entire wall was then ringed by a trench 750 meters long and
40 meters wide. The false doors and the trench were incorporated into the complex to discourage
unwanted visitors. If someone wished to enter, he or she would have needed to know in advance how
to find the location of the true opening in the wall. Djoser was so proud of his accomplishment that he
broke the tradition of having only his own name on the monument and had Imhotep’s name carved on
it as well.
Section 5.
The burial chamber of the tomb, where the king’s body was laid to rest, was dug beneath the
base of the pyramid, surrounded by a vast maze of long tunnels that had rooms off them to discourage
robbers. One of the most mysterious discoveries found inside the pyramid was a large number of stone
vessels. Over 40,000 of these vessels, of various forms and shapes, were discovered in storerooms off
the pyramid’s underground passages. They are inscribed with the names of rulers from the First and
Second Dynasties of Egypt and made from different kinds of stone. There is no agreement among
scholars and archaeologists on why the vessels were placed in the tomb of Djoser or what they were
supposed to represent. The archaeologist Jean-Philippe Lauer, who excavated most of the pyramid and
complex, believes they were originally stored and then give a ‘proper burial’ by Djoser in his pyramid
to honor his predecessors. There are other historians, however, who claim the vessels were dumped
into the shafts as yet another attempt to prevent grave robbers from getting to the king’s burial chamber.
Section 6.
Unfortunately, all of the precautions and intricate design of the underground network did not
prevent ancient robbers from finding a way in. Djoser’s grave goods, and even his body, were stolen at
some point in the past and all archaeologists found were a small number of his valuables overlooked by
the thieves. There was enough left throughout the pyramid and its complex, however, to astonish and
amaze the archaeologists who excavated it.
Section 7.
Egyptologist Miroslav Verner writes, ‘Few monuments hold a place in human history as
significant as that of the Step Pyramid in Saqqara … It can be said without exaggeration that this
pyramid complex constitutes a milestone in the evolution of monumental stone architecture in Egypt
and in the world as a whole.’ The Step Pyramid was a revolutionary advance in architecture and became
the archetype which all the other great pyramid builders of Egypt would follow.
The passage has seven sections. Choose the most suitable heading for each section from the list of
headings (i-ix) below. The first one has been done for you as an example. Write your answers in the
space provided. There are more headings than sections, so you will not use all of them.
Example: Section 1 – iv
96. Section 2 _______________ List of Headings
97. Section 3 _______________ i The areas and artefacts within the pyramid itself
98. Section 4 _______________ ii A difficult task for those involved
99. Section 5 _______________ iii A king who saved his people
100. Section 6 _______________ iv A single certainty among other less definite facts
101. Section 7 _______________ v An overview of the external buildings and areas
vi A pyramid design that others copied
vii An idea for changing the design of burial structures
viii An incredible experience despite the few remains
ix The answers to some unexpected questions
Complete the notes below. Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
The Step Pyramid of Djoser

The complex that includes the Step Pyramid and its surroundings is considered to be as big as an
Egyptian (102) _________________ of the past. The area outside the pyramid included
accommodation that was occupied by (103) _________________, along with many other buildings
and features.
A wall ran around the outside of the complex and a number of false entrances were built into this. In
addition, a long (104) _________________ encircled the wall. As a result, any visitors who had not
been invited were cleverly prevented from entering the pyramid grounds unless they knew the (105)
_________________ of the real entrance.
IV. WRITING (50 POINTS)

Part 1. (20 pts)
The chart below shows the market share of mobile phones in each country in 2015.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and making comparisons.
Write at least 150 words.
Part 2. Write an essay of 250 words about this topic. (30 pts)
“In the future, nobody will buy printed newspapers or books because they will be able to read everything they
want online without paying.”
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? Give reasons for your answer and include
any relevant examples from your own experience or knowledge.
SAMPLE TEST 2
A. LISTENING (50 points):
Section 1: Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
Date Event Importance for art
farmers from China built temples ornamented with (1) ________________
3000 BC
and stone carvings and statues in Bali
artists employed by the ruling families and focused on
14th century introduction of (2) __________ epic narratives
(3) ______ establishment of Dutch East art became expression of opposition to

Indies Company (4) __________________
encouraged use of new materials, techniques and
1920s beginning of tourism
subjects
started to describe the (5) __________________ of the
1945 beginning of independence Balinese people – as well as the myths and legends of
their history
Section 2. You will hear a radio discussion about writing a novel. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B,
C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 points)
1. What does Louise say about Ernest Hemingway's advice to writers?
A. It is useful to a certain extent.
B. It applies only to inexperienced novelists.
C. It wasn't intended to be taken seriously.
D. The advice can mislead aspiring writers.
2. Louise believes that getting feedback is important when you ______
A. are experiencing a writer’s block.
B. are struggling with structuring your writing properly.
C. are unsure of the quality of your own writing.
D. finish your book and need an opinion on it.
3. Louise states that getting feedback from a colleague is important because _____
A. non-writers’ opinion can be hard to take seriously.
B. a writer can be less harsh with their criticism.
C. others can be reluctant to help with such thing.
D. a writer can understand the real purpose of your work.
4. For Louise, what does good feedback mean?
A. both general and detailed observations on the content
B. identifying problematic aspects as well as suggesting ways to overcome them
C. feedback that mostly focuses on the stylistic part of the writing
D. an extensive list of good and bad points
5. What does Louise say about the people she gets feedback from?
A. They shouldn’t be more skilled than you.
B. She prefers not to talk about her texts.
C. They exchange feedback.
D. Collaborating with them can be difficult.
(Adapted from CAE practice tests)
Section 3. You will hear a tour guide talking to a group of tourists in New York about a visit they will make
to the Museum of Immigration on Ellis Island. Decide the following statements are true (T) or false (F). Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. The first part of the museum you go through used to be the Baggage Room.
2. In the Registry Room, immigrants had only medical check-ups.
3. They haven't made reservations for the play "Ellis Island Stories" in the Theatre 2.
4. At the Ellis Island Oral History Library you can listen to 20 recordings of people's first-hand
experiences at Ellis Island.
5. "The Peopling of America" exhibition is located in a place which used to be a ticket office.
Section 4. For questions 1-10, listen to an authentic recording about chess and fill in the missing information
using words taken from the recording. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Write your answers in
the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
- Having existed for more than 1500 years, chess has been regarded as a tool of military strategy, a
yardstick for genius, and a metaphor for (1) _______________.
- The Arab world was introduced to chess as a result of the Islamic (2) _________ in the seventh century.
- Over time, chess was not only a tactical simulation - it was also a prolific source of (3) ___________.
- The terminology of chess was used by (4) _____________ to talk about their political authority.
- The spread of chess to Asia gave rise to a great number of (5) ________________.
- By 1000AD, chess served as (6) ____________ for different social ranks carrying out their
corresponding duties.
- Despite being frowned upon by the Church and moralists, chess still developed rapidly and the 15th
century witnessed it (7) _____________ into its modern version.
- The birth of chess theory was marked by the creation of (8) __________ in which common chess
openings and endgames were analyzed.
- As formal competitive chess emerged in the 19th century, the (9) ___________ of the past was
eventually eclipsed by strategic calculations.
- In a time period when chess carried a new (10) ______________, it was the Soviet Union that
dominated international competition.
B. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (50 points)

Section 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in
the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. My teacher advises me to juice _____ my presentation with more colorful illustrations.
A. down B. up C. over D. off
2. Every Christmas of my childhood was the same. My father _____ late for lunch, weighed down with
presents for the family.
A. would arrive B. had arrived C. was arriving D. was used to arriving
3. Jack: Did you know Jim's car broke down on the highway late at night?
Jane: Unfortunately, that's a situation anyone _____.
A. might have to confront with B. might be confronted with
C. might be confronted D. might have been confronted
4. I don't like the way that Jack is always trying to _____ trouble between us.
A. dish out B. rub up C. stir up D. spark out
5. It’s time ____ so extravagant and started being a bit thriftier.
A. you will stop being B. you had stopped being
C. you stopped being D. you don’t be
6. ____ you’ve filled in the forms correctly, you shouldn’t have a problem opening a new account.
A. Unless B. Provided that C. But for D. Supposing
7. ____ she had no experience, they left her to her own devices.
A. Despite the fact that B. However C. While D. Nevertheless
8.The different colors of _____ the different temperatures of the stars’ surfaces.
A. the stars indicate B. indicating stars
C. the indication that the stars D. stars indicating that
9. Only a few sounds produced by insects are heard by humans most of the sounds are pitched
either too low or too high.
A. in spite of B. because C. as a result of D. instead of
10. Mathematics helps meteorologists to predict the weather more accurately, to calculate the speed of
storms, and _____.
A. for the wind to blow determines B. causes the wind blowing to determine
C. to determine what causes the wind to blow D. determine the wind’s blowing
11. Would passengers please _____ from using any electronic equipment until the plane is airborne?
A. refer B. resist C. restrain D. refrain
12. If you want to solve the problem forever, you must face a difficulty or danger boldly, that is, you
must _____.
A. pull the bull's horns B. take the bull by horns
C. blow your own horn D. be on the horns of a dilemma
13. The international conference of the Cardiological Association has been _____ in Cairo to discuss
the revolutionary discovery of doctor Gonzales from Mexico.
A. deployed B. collected C. mobilized D. summoned
14. If she wins the prize again this year, it'll be a real _____ in her cap.
A. nutshell B. gemstone C. feather D. landmark
15. When times are good, people can spend freely, but during bad times we have to _____ our spending.
A. multiple B. disperse C. curtail D. obstinate
16. The manager hesitated to assign the job to the newcomer as he was _____.
A. wet behind the ears B. feeling your ears burning
C. ringing in your ears D. keeping your ears open
17. It is important to set goals to strive for in life; however, make sure they are attainable, otherwise
they are nothing more than just _____ dreams.
A. pipe B. cloud C. drain D. tube
18. With just a little preparation and regular feeding and watering, you can guarantee that you have a
________ of colour throughout the summer.
A. disturbance B. riot C. demonstration D. rally
19. With a wide range of qualifications and a wealth of experience, Rosa is____ the most suitable
candidate.
A. haphazardly B. begrudgingly C. indubitably D. jovially
20. Working night shifts at the weekend is _______ of any job in hospitality.
A. cut and thrust B. ebb and flow C. nuts and bolts D. part and parcel
Section 2. Complete each sentence with a suitable particle or preposition. Write your answers in the box
provided. (10 points)
1. Ivan has an excellent memory – he can call ______
up precise details of things that happened when he
was a small child.
2. A: “Did Amanda ever complete the project?”
B: “She’s almost finished. She just has a few minor problems left to iron ______.”
out
3. Tim distrusts his new friends and prefers to keep them ______
at arm’s length.
4. I would advise you to think very carefully before you embark ______
on a completely new career.
5. Unfortunately, most of the photos Terry took were ______
out of focus.
6. The dentist told me that when the effect of the anaesthetic wore ______,
off I might feel a little pain. But
it was more than a little.
7. Their predictions were not borne ______
out by subsequent events. In fact, the very opposite occurred.
8. To prevent soldiers from rebelling, the commander splits them into groups to play them off ______. against
9. Close your eyes and try to conjure ______ a picture of a place where you feel at peace.
up
10. It’s going to be a financially difficult year for us, but we’ll just have to tough it ______.
down Things
are bound to get better soon.
Section 3. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. The main character in her first novel is very unconventional and is full of ____________________,
contradiction
brutal but generous and loyal. (CONTRADICT)
deactivated
2. My mom thought she’d _______ her account but suddenly she received nine notifications. (ACTIVE)
3. There is astrongly-hold
_________ belief that flamenco is typical throughout Spain, but that is not true. (HOLD)
4. He left us with theineradicable
______ impression that we had been speaking to a future leader. (ERADICATE)
5. With free-market globalization, investment funds can move ___________________
unimpeded from the rich
countries to the developing countries. (IMPEDIMENT)
6. We've tried to anticipate the most likely problems, but it's impossible to be prepared for every
_______________.
eventuality (EVENTUATE)
7. The organization insists that it is ____________
apolitical and does not identify with any one particular party.
(POLITICS)
8. Bill Gate is a totally millionaire _____________
self-employed who started his own business with no financial help
at all. (SELF)
9. Globalisation has become the ______________
watchword of governments and policy-makers across the world,
being alternately blamed and celebrated, depending on what particular action (or outcome) is being
justified. (WORD)
10. A sound dome could thus be regarded as a gigantic well-tempered spatial instrument
with equidistant
_________ loudspeakers on its periphery. (DISTANT)
C. READING (50 points)

Part 1. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
For those people who go out in search of adventure, a long-distance flight in a hot-air balloon is
a particularly exciting (1)_______. Indeed, a round-the-world balloon trip is widely regarded as the
ultimate challenge. One well-known adventurer, David Hemplemann-Adams would not agree,
however. Recently, he became the first man to (2)_______ the North Pole in a hot-air balloon, a more
significant (3)_______ in his eyes. Given that the distance and altitudes (4)_______ are comparatively
modest, you might wonder why the trip from Canada to the Pole, should present such a challenge.
Part of the (5)_______ was that such a flight had not even been attempted for over a century. In
those days, such expeditions were huge events, with a nation's pride (6)_______ on their success, and
so resources were (7)_______ to them. Although he eventually managed to secure a substantial
sponsorship deal from an insurance company, Hemplemann-Adams had the added challenge of having
to raise sufficient funds for his trip.
Then, of course, he had to face major survival concerns, such as predicting the weather
(8)_______ and coping with the dangerously low temperatures. But most challenging of all was the
incredibly complex problem of navigation. As the earth's magnetic field gets stronger, only the most
sophisticated of satellite-linked navigation systems can (9)_______ that one has got to the Pole. Without
them, the chances of getting anywhere near it are extremely slim. Not to mention an even greater
problem that (10)_______ on Hemplemann-Adams' mind: getting back!
1. A campaign B prospect C motion D engagement

2. A meet B reach C attain D fulfil
3. A recognition B acquisition C achievement D realisation
4. A engaged B regarded C involved D connected
5. A appeal B beauty C charm D allure
6. A leaning B resting C waiting D standing
7. A commended B confided C confirmed D committed
8. A tendencies B conditions C circumstances D elements
9. A approve B confirm C reinforce D support
10. A pushed B stressed C pressed D weighed
Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in
corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
The huge stone figures of Easter Island have beguiled explorers, researchers and the wider world
(1) ______ centuries, but now experts say they have cracked one of the biggest mysteries: why the statues
are where they are.
Researchers say they have analysed the locations of the megalithic platforms (2) ______ which
many of the statues known as moai sit, as well as scrutinising sites of the island’s resources, and have
discovered the structures are typically found close (3) ______ sources of fresh water. This led to the
belief that such constructions could be tied to the abundance and quality of the supplies.
Professor Carl Lipo from Binghamton University in New York commented that (4) ______ is
important about the findings is that the statue locations seem to carry a symbolic meaning to them while
integrating into the lives of the community, rather than being a weird ritual place. Easter Island has
more than 300 megalithic platforms, (5) ______ of which might have been made by a separate
community. The first of these are believed to have been constructed in the 13th century.
It is thought the monuments represent ancestors and were linked to ritual activity, forming a
focal point for communities, (6) ______ the reason for their locations was previously unsolved. (7)
______ studies have suggested the sites might have been chosen because of a link to key resources, the
team says the latest research is the first attempt to scrutinise such claims.
The team (8) ______ on the east of the island, where various resources have been well mapped, and
looked at the distribution of 93 megalithic platforms constructed (9) ______ European sailors arrived
later in the 18th century.
After finding (10) ______ link to the proximity of rock used for tools or for the monuments, they
looked at whether the statues were found near other important resources: gardens spread with stones in
which crops like sweet potatoes were grown, fishing sites, and sources of freshwater.
(Adapted from The Guardian, Easter Island statues: mystery behind their location revealed)
Part 3. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your
ARTISANS AND INDUSTRIALIZATION
Before 1815 manufacturing in the United States had been done in homes or shops by skilled
artisans. As master craftworkers, they imparted the knowledge of their trades to apprentices and
journeymen. In addition, women often worked in their homes part-time, making finished articles from
raw material supplied by merchant capitalists. After 1815 this older form of manufacturing began to
give way to factories with machinery tended by unskilled or semiskilled laborers. Cheap transportation
networks, the rise of cities, and the availability of capital and credit all stimulated the shift to factory
production.
The creation of a labor force that was accustomed to working in factories did not occur easily.
Before the rise of the factory, artisans had worked within the home. Apprentices were considered part
of the family, and masters were responsible not only for teaching their apprentices a trade but also
for providing them some education and for supervising their moral behavior. Journeymen knew that
if they perfected their skill, they could become respected master artisans with their own shops. Also,
skilled artisans did not work by the clock, at a steady pace, but rather in bursts of intense labor
alternating with more leisurely time.
The factory changed that. Goods produced by factories were not as finished or elegant as those
done by hand, and pride in craftsmanship gave way to the pressure to increase rates of productivity.
The new methods of doing business involved a new and stricter sense of time. Factory life necessitated
a more regimented schedule, where work began at the sound of a bell and workers kept machines going
at a constant pace. At the same time, workers were required to discard old habits, for industrialism
demanded a worker who was alert, dependable, and self-disciplined. Absenteeism and lateness hurt
productivity and, since work was specialized, disrupted the regular factory routine. Industrialization
not only produced a fundamental change in the way work was organized; it transformed the very nature
of work.
The first generation to experience these changes did not adopt the new attitudes easily. The
factory clock became the symbol of the new work rules. One mill worker who finally quit complained
revealingly about "obedience to the ding-dong of the bell—just as though we are so many living
machines." With the loss of personal freedom also came the loss of standing in the community. Unlike
artisan workshops in which apprentices worked closely with the masters supervising them, factories
sharply separated workers from management. Few workers rose through the ranks to supervisory
positions, and even fewer could achieve the artisan's dream of setting up one's own business. Even well-
paid workers sensed their decline in status.
In this newly emerging economic order, workers sometimes organized to protect their rights and
traditional ways of life. Craftworkers such as carpenters, printers, and tailors formed unions, and in
1834 individual unions came together in the National Trades' Union. The labor movement gathered
some momentum in the decade before the Panic of 1837, but in the depression that followed, labor's
strength collapsed. During hard times, few workers were willing to strike or engage in collective action.
And skilled craftworkers, who spearheaded the union movement, did not feel a particularly strong bond
with semiskilled factory workers and unskilled laborers. More than a decade of agitation did finally
bring a workday shortened to 10 hours to most industries by the 1850's, and the courts also recognized
workers' right to strike, but these gains had little immediate impact.
Workers were united in resenting the industrial system and their loss of status, but they were
divided by ethnic and racial antagonisms, gender, conflicting religious perspectives, occupational
differences, political party loyalties, and disagreements over tactics. For them, the factory and
industrialism were not agents of opportunity but reminders of their loss of independence and a measure
of control over their lives. As United States society became more specialized and differentiated, greater
extremes of wealth began to appear. And as the new markets created fortunes for the few, the factory
system lowered the wages of workers by dividing labor into smaller, less skilled tasks.
1. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage 1 about articles manufactured before 1815?
A. They were primarily produced by women.
B. They were generally produced in shops rather than in homes.
C. They were produced with more concern for quality than for speed of production.
D. They were produced mostly in large cities with extensive transportation networks.
2. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in the
passage 2?
"Apprentices were considered part of the family, and masters were responsible not only for teaching
their apprentices a trade but also for providing them some education and for supervising their moral
behavior."
A. Masters demanded moral behavior from apprentices but often treated them irresponsibly.
B. The responsibilities of the master to the apprentice went beyond the teaching of a trade.
C. Masters preferred to maintain the trade within the family by supervising and educating the younger
family members.
D. Masters who trained members of their own family as apprentices demanded excellence from them.
3. The word "disrupted" in the passage 3 is closest in meaning to _____.

A. prolonged B. established C. followed D. upset
4. In paragraph 4, the author includes the quotation from a mill worker in order to _____.
A. support the idea that it was difficult for workers to adjust to working in factories
B. to show that workers sometimes quit because of the loud noise made by factory machinery
C. argue that clocks did not have a useful function in factories
D. emphasize that factories were most successful when workers revealed their complaints
5. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 4 as consequences of the new system for workers
EXCEPT a loss of _____.
A. freedom
B. status in the community
С. opportunities for advancement
D. contact among workers who were not managers
6. The phrase "gathered some momentum" in the passage 5 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. made progress B. became active C. caused changes D. combined forces
7. Which of the following statements about the labor movement of the 1800's is supported by
paragraph 5?
A. It was successful during times of economic crisis.
B. Its primary purpose was to benefit unskilled laborers.
C. It was slow to improve conditions for workers.
D. It helped workers of all skill levels form a strong bond with each year
8. The author identifies "political party loyalties, and disagreements over tactics" in paragraph 6 as
two of several factors that _____.
A. encouraged workers to demand higher wages
B. created divisions among workers
C. caused work to become more specialized
D. increased workers' resentment of the industrial system
9. The word "them" in the passage 6 refers to _____.
A. workers B. political party loyalties
C. disagreements over tactics D. agents of opportunity
10. Which of the following square brackets [A], [B], [C] or [D] best indicates where in the first paragraph
the sentence "This new form of manufacturing depended on the movement of goods to distant locations and a
centrealized source of laborers." can be inserted?
Before 1815 manufacturing in the United States had been done in homes or shops by skilled artisans.
[A] As master craftworkers, they imparted the knowledge of their trades to apprentices and
journeymen. [B] In addition, women often worked in their homes part-time, making finished articles
from raw material supplied by merchant capitalists. [C] After 1815 this older form of manufacturing
began to give way to factories with machinery tended by unskilled or semiskilled laborers. [D] Cheap
transportation networks, the rise of cities, and the availability of capital and credit all stimulated the
shift to factory production.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
(Adapted from TOEFL)
Part 4: Read the passage and do the following tasks. (15 points)
A. Charles Bolden, NASA’s administrator, averred that the robotic vehicle Curiosity will ‘blaze a
trail for human footprints on Mars’. He could be right. But there is a gulf between what is technically
feasible and what is actually achieved.
B. Neil Armstrong made his ‘one small step’ on the Moon in 1969, only 12 years after Sputnik.
Had the pace set by John F. Kennedy’s Apollo programme been sustained there would already be
footprints on Mars. But that was driven by the urge to beat the Russians; there was no motive to sustain
such huge expenditure.
C. Scientific exploration has burgeoned too. In coming decades, the entire solar system will be
explored by flotillas of miniaturized unmanned craft. Robots will mine raw materials from asteroids
and fabricate large structures. The Hubble Telescope’s successors will further expand our cosmic vision
of galaxies and nebulae.
D. But what role will humans play? There is no denying that Curiosity may miss startling discoveries
no human geologist could overlook. But robotic techniques are advancing fast – whereas the cost gap
between manned and unmanned missions remains huge.
E. The main impediment to a manned NASA programme has always been that public and political
opinion constrains it into being too risk-averse. The space shuttle failed twice in 135 launches. Although
astronauts or test pilots would willingly accept this risk level, the shuttle had been promoted as safe for
civilians. So, each failure caused a national trauma and was followed by a hiatus in the programme
while costly efforts were made – with very limited effect – to reduce the risk still further.
F. Unless motivated by pure prestige, ambitious manned missions will be viable only if they are
cut-price ventures, accepting high risks – perhaps even ‘one-way tickets’. These may have to be privately
funded; no Western government agency would expose civilians to such hazards.
G. The SpaceX company, led by the entrepreneur Elon Musk, has successfully sent a payload into
orbit and docked with the Space Station. The involvement in space projects of Mr. Musk and others in
the high-tech community with credibility and resources is surely a positive step.
H. Richard Branson will soon be lobbing people into space to experience a few minutes of
weightlessness. Within a few years private companies will offer orbital flights. Maybe after another
decade the really wealthy will be able to take a week-long trip around the far side of the Moon –
voyaging farther from Earth than anyone has been before but avoiding the greater risks of a Moon
landing and blast-off.
I. The phrase ‘space tourism’ should, however, be avoided. It lulls people into believing that such
ventures are routine and low-risk. If that becomes the perception, the inevitable accidents will be as
traumatic as those of the space shuttle. Remember that nowhere in our solar system offers an
environment as clement even as the Antarctic or the top of Everest. It is foolish to claim, as some do,
that mass emigration into space offers escape from Earth’s problems.
J. But I believe, and hope, that some people living now will walk on Mars. Moreover, a century or
two from now, small groups of intrepid adventurers may be living there or perhaps on asteroids quite
independently from Earth. Whatever ethical constraints we impose here on the ground, we should
surely wish such pioneers good luck in genetically modifying their progeny to adapt to alien
environments.
K. This might be the first step towards divergence into a new species: the beginning of the post-
human era. And machines of human intelligence could spread still farther. Whether the long-range
future lies with organic post- humans or intelligent machines is a matter for debate. Either way, dramatic
cultural and technological evolution will continue not only here on Earth but far beyond.
Questions 1-7: Choose the correct headings for the following paragraphs. There are more headings than
necessary.
Example: Paragraph A ii
1. Paragraph C 3. Paragraph E 5. Paragraph G
2. Paragraph D 4. Paragraph F 6. Paragraph H
For questions 8-10, do the following statements agree with the information given?
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this
7. The Americans had no reason to continue spending large amounts of money on their space
programme once they had won the race to the Moon.
8. One of the advantages of robots is that they notice unusual objects which human scientists might not
see.
9. It would be wrong for future space explorers to alter their children's genes to make it possible for
them to live on other planets.
10. Whatever the evolution of the species in the future, it should remain human.
(Adapted from IELTS)
D. WRITING (50 points)
Section 1. Graph description (20 points)
The chart below shows global sales of the top five mobile phone brands between 2009 and 2013.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant.
You should write at least 150 words.
Global mobile phone sales by brand
units sold (millions)
Section 2. Essay writing (30 points)

Write an essay of 200 - 250 words on the following topic.
Some people think scientific research should focus on solving world health problems. Others think that there
are more important issues. Discuss both views and give your opinion.
SAMPLE TEST 3
Part 1: You will hear a conversation between Louise and the owner of the video library. Listen and
complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER in each
gap.
VIDEO LIBRARY APPLICATION FORM
First names: Louise Cynthia
Address: Apartment 1, 72 (1) _____________ street
Highbridge
Postcode: (2) _____________
Telephone: 9835 6712 (home)
(3) _____________ (work)
Driver’s license number: (4) _____________
Date of birth: 25th (5) _____________, 1977
Part 2. Listen and decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F). Write T or F in the
given boxes.
6. Hwange is a great national park located in Africa.
7. Two hundred elephants have died during the last two months.
8. Many subsistence farmers are struggling to survive in the park area.
9. The national park is ready to cope with an environmental crisis.
10. The water pipes in the area have been fixed for two hours.
Part 3. You will hear a discussion in which two biologists, Ian Cartwright and Angela Sharpe, talk
about conservation and the public's perception of it. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which best
fits according to what you hear.
11. According to Ian, why aren't people easily convinced of the importance of protecting endangered
species?
A They find it difficult to understand the concept.
B They are presented with information that is too vague.
C They do not believe human activity causes extinction.
D They think that conservationists are exaggerating the situation.
12. Angela says that eco-tourism has been successful because
A it provides locals with a long-term source of income.
B it has been properly managed by governments in developing countries.
C it encourages people to have more respect for nature.
D it is affordable for a large number of people from developed countries.
13. The story Ian tells about how economists determined the value of the environment highlights A
what a complex subject economics can be.
B the ease with which false promises are made.
C why companies get away with polluting lakes.
D how ignorant people are of the role nature plays in their lives.
14. What explanation does Angie give for people being indifferent to the destruction of the ecosystem?
A They believe scientists will fix the problem.
B The vast majority do not suffer too much when it happens.
C They consider the exploitation of environmental resources necessary.
D They think the cost of replacing unrecognised benefits has been overestimated.
15. The species Ian refers to

A indicate how fast an ecosystem is likely to collapse.
B only live in one specific ecosystem.
C are extremely sensitive to environmental change.
D appear to be in the greatest danger of extinction.
Part 4: You will hear a talk on education. For question 16 to 25, fill in each blank with NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS taken from the recording. You will hear the audio TWICE. Write your answers in the space
provided.
Education is so important because it is supposed to help us get prepared for the challenges in our
life. That’s why in most of schools of all kinds 16. _________________ with challenges in life is widely
studied. However, things such as talent, energy, goodwill, and 17. ____________ seem to disappear. In
order to improve education it is claimed that what we need is not money but that we must pay more
attention to the real purpose of education, which is aimed to help us with: working and
18____________. To address these needs two crucial subjects must be included in the curriculum. The
first one is 19. ____________ since we don’t fully understand how the economy works. To help to study
this subject, maths is taught to help students how to deal with money. It is hoped that students can get
more understanding the global economy together with other terms such as leadership, marketing and
competition, cash flow, and 20. ___________. Secondly students really need to study themselves since
we usually misunderstand ourselves. They should be taught a number of concepts and helped towards
their personality maps so that they can understand, among with other issues, what type of people they
are 21. ___________ to go out with.
It is essential that they should also be taught 22. ______________ so that they can understand
which job they are fit for. Regarding the study of relationships, there must be lessons on techniques
such as 23. ___________ and on kindness and forgiveness as well.
Education must not be restricted to classrooms or schools. Other forms or fields such as media and arts
are also used to help students learn what they really need to. However, the real problem is that we fail
to identify the 24. _____________ of the problems that we are now facing in education that is we have
got the 25. _________________
B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40 points)

Part 1. Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes each of the following sentences.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. I'm afraid we got our _______ crossed — I thought my husband would be picking up the children
and he thought I was doing it.
A. minds B. purposes C. wires D. fingers
2. The princess's nanny's autobiography really gives the _______ on life among the royals.
A. show-down B. know-how C. low-down D. look-out
3. As well as being a good cook, my grandmother was ________ with a fine voice.
A. competent B. capable C. gifted D. talented
4. ____talking of running for election again, after such a crushing defeat, is surely proof of his resilience.
A. Should he be B. That he is C. Had he been D. That he were
5. Nam, remember, although money is important, never do anything that is not ______.
A. above board B. under the sky C. within the square D. in the cards
6. Since Harry is the bee’s ______ in terms of Maths, it is no wonder so many friends ask him for support
in this subject.
A. knees B. wings C. arms D. legs
7. Searching for one man in this city is like looking for a _________.
A. salt of the earth B. sand in the desert C. needle in a haystack D. drop in the ocean
8. Denise has been ___________ the midnight oil trying to finish this report, so she must be exhausted.
A. lighting B. brightening C. burnt D. burning
9. I was at _____________ to make it clear that I wasn’t blaming either of them.
A. efforts B. trouble C. pains D. endeavours
10. Many young people feel a sense of __________ and don’t believe they have to work hard.
A. entitlement B. aspiration C. association D. dedication
11. ______, early approaches for coping with workplace stress dealt with the problem only after its
symptoms had appeared.
A. Although well-intending B. Although it is a good intention
C. Although a gook intention D. Although well-intended
12. If the size of the work force can be easily and rapidly altered ______ market fluctuations, profits will be
maximized.
A. in terms of B. in response to C. in reply to D. with respect to
13. ______, the strollers can take another road.
A. If need be B. When it must C. We might as well D. Come what may
14. Global warming has progressed ______ glaciers everywhere are shrinking.
A. too much an extent that B. to such an extent that
C. enough an extent that D. so great an extent that
15. My arguments with the boss got worse and worse, and it all ______ in my deciding to change jobs.
A. elaborated B. superseded C. regenerated D. culminated
16. That Mary is an _________ liar: you must take what she says with a small grain of salt.
A. incorrigible B. incurable C. irredeemable D. irremediable
17. It seems to me that we’ve been led up the ___ path. There’s no such address as the one she gave us!
A. forest B. garden C. maze D. mountain
18. The renewed interest in Elizabethan times is evident in the _____ of new Hollywood films set during
that period.
A. spate B. hypocrisy C. transience D. demise
19. We weren't able to drive down the street because of a ______ in the middle of the road.
A. broadening B. border C. barricade D. buttress
20. It was a close _______ but we just made it to the airport on time for our flight.
A. run B. drive C. call D. go
II. Give the correct form of each word in brackets to complete the sentence.
1. When my favorite team lost the big game, I was ___________ and did not leave my seat for an hour.
(MUSE)
2. For users, they are still expensive ____________ features and come with their own set of integration
problems. (ADD)
3. This proposal was ____________ to the one we discussed at the last meeting. (ANALOGY)
4. The opposing counsel had a last opportunity to ________ the witness to address the facts brought
out in redirect examination. (EXAMINE)
5. The government announced that more than a million dollars will be ________ for COVID-19 vaccine
research. (EAR)
6. The president of this company is merely a ________ the Chief Executive is the one who is truly in
control. (HEAD)
7. Barack Obama is the first President of the United States with __________ background. RACE
8. This statue __________ the soldiers who died in the war. MEMORY
9. The chairman of this company is merely a __________, the Chief Executive is the one who is truly
in control. HEAD
10. The headmaster decided to expel the rough boy from our school. His behaviour was really
____________ (OBJECT).
III. Fill in each of the blanks with an appropriate preposition.

1. I really like oceanography. I think I'm going to read _________
up on that subject more in the future in
order to get more knowledgeable about it. Maybe. I'll get a degree in that area one day.
2. Everyone approved for the scheme, but when we asked for volunteers they all hung _______. back
3. They greyed _______
out the print button to stop people using it because expenses for paper have gone
up recently.
4. After my symptoms disappeared, the doctor tapered me _________ off the medication.
down
5. I don’t like to make friends with the person who always runs_________ his old friends.
6. This is serious matter, so you have to level_______
with me this time. Don’t try to hide anything,’ said his
partner.
7. We’d been spending years pegging _______ away at our job of running the shop before the business really
took off.
8. It cost Rick a huge amount of money to put three children through
_______ college
9. After the king had been ______
in exile for donkey’s years, he returned to Britain.
10. Please don’t talk about that day - I want to put it all behind me.
C. READING (60 POINTS)

Part 1. Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word.
Economic benefits of vaccination
The costs of vaccination programmes are (1) ________ outweighed by the economic benefits of
reducing illness, disability and premature death, according to a modelling study. Patenaude and his
team at Johns Hopkins University in Baltimore, Maryland generated estimates for the economic cost
of illnesses, disability and premature death that (2) ________ otherwise occur without vaccination
programmes in 94 low and middle-income countries, and compared these with the overall cost of (3)
________ the programmes. They focused on vaccination programmes targeting 10 infectious diseases,
(4) ________measles, yellow fever and hepatitis B.
Using a model that considered treatment costs as well as lost wages and productivity due to
illness, the researchers found that the money saved through the vaccination programmes will be
approximately $682 billion for the period from 2011 to 2020 and a (5) ________ $829 billion from 2021
to 2030. Patenaude claimed that they wanted to convert the benefits (6) ________ money so people
could compare them with other types of investments a country or organisation might be making – like
in education or transport or other things. Also, the researchers (7) ________ their findings using another
model, (8) ________ estimates the value of a saved life using data on people’s willingness to spend
money to (9) ________ their risk of death. Using this model, they found that the estimated value of lives
saved by the vaccination programmes will be about 51 times their cost from 2011 to 2020 and 52 times
their cost from 2021 to 2030. As stated by Patenaude, measles vaccination provided the highest
estimated return on investment as it had a high case fatality (10) ________ and measles vaccines were
extremely effective at reducing mortality in young children.
Part 2: Read the following passage and choose the best option to fill in each gap.
Attention Deficiency Disorder (ADD) is a neurobiological problem that affects 3-5% of all children.
(1)_______include inattentiveness and having difficulty getting organized, as well as easily becoming
(2)________. Sometimes, ADD is accompanied by hyperactivity. In these cases, the sufferer exhibits
(3)________physical activity.
Psychostimulant drugs can be (4________to ADD sufferers to assist them with the completion of the
desired thought processes, although they might cause (5)______. Current theory states that medication
is the only (6)_______action that has a sound scientific basic. This action should only be taken after an
accurate diagnosis is made.
Children with ADD do not (7)______have trouble learning; their problem is that they involuntarily
(8)________their attention elsewhere. It is not only children that are (9)_______by this condition.
Failure to treat ADD can lead to lifelong emotional and behavioral problems. Early diagnosis and
treatment, however, are the key to successfully overcoming learning difficulties (10)_______with ADD.
1. A. Symptoms B. Sights C. Signs D. Signals
2. A. distracted B. dim C. divulged D. unattended
3. A. excessive B. rich C. exaggerated D. over
4. A. handed B. taken C. given D. drunk
5. A. disadvantages B. damage C. pain D. side-effects
6. A. cure B. health C. remedial D. medical
7. A. absolutely B. eternally C. necessarily D. always
8. A. switch B. carry C. move D. bring
9. A. worsened B. affected C. caused D. spoiled
10. A. combined B. associated C. made D. supplied
Part 3: Read the following passage about the human immune system and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D)
according to the text. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
The Human Immune System
The human immune system is composed of both an innate and an adaptive immune system. First,
humans have an innate immune system that is intrinsic in all organisms, and it functions particularly
through establishing biological barriers and creating biochemical reactions that immediately respond with
a maximal effort in order to destroy infectious microbes. [A] Second, humans have an adaptive immune
system, which can only be found in vertebrates with jaws. [B] The adaptive immune system gains an
immunological memory from previously encountered germs, so it is able to prevent these specific microbes
from causing further infection. [C] With these dual capacities of fighting infection and acquiring resistance
to germs, humans can maximize their immunity. [D]
A person’s innate immune system has many complex barriers and biochemical reactions designed
to ward off infections. The most visible one is the skin, which keeps most bacteria, fungi, and viruses from
ever entering the body, but humans also have mucus, which traps germs that reside in the body’s tissue. In
addition to such biological material, there are other internal barriers like gastric acids, tears, saliva, urine,
and various chemicals that either destroy or flush out germs. Even involuntary functions like sneezing and
coughing are barriers that serve to expel germs. Beyond these, there are biochemical reactions that come
from leukocytes, which are found in the blood. Leukocytes are white blood cells that effectively clear out
cellular debris, create inflammation near an infection, summon immune cells to the inflammation, activate
several other chemical reactions, and even destroy tumors. However, perhaps the most important action
these cells perform is activating a human’s adaptive immune system, which is essential in not only curing
current diseases but also preventing future infections.
With an adaptive immune system, cells learn how to best combat pathogens and develop a higher
resistance to them. Like the innate immune system, this involves chemical reactions and cellular
cooperation. Unlike the innate immune system, this system doesn’t respond very quickly or with its full
strength all at once. Instead, it uses its time and energy to provide cells with an immunological memory to
the pathogens they encounter, making them more resistant to recurring infections (similarly to how a
vaccination works). Certain white blood cells called T-cells are the principal actors in this system; these
identify “self” cells with the same DNA and distinguish them from any foreign cells with different DNA.
After this, they seek and destroy these foreign cells, whether they are invading microbes or infected host
cells. T-cells also mediate the responses from the innate and adaptive immune systems so that the body
can effectively exterminate the infection.
After destroying infectious cells, the body uses B-cells to develop antibodies, or specialized proteins
that prevent future infections. A B-cell is designed to connect with an individual type of antigen created by
an infectious cell. The B-cell uses this antigen to produce antibodies that seek out and neutralize infectious
bacteria, fungi, and viruses. However, the most important process comes after the infection disappears:
these B-cells will duplicate, and their progeny will manufacture the same antibodies. Thus, the body will
constantly produce antibodies that successfully fight off a specific infection, and the body can successfully
fight off any subsequent infections from this pathogen. In addition to this, B-cells also mark antigens for
leukocytes to attack, thus making them and microbes easier targets for the biochemical reaction.
An interesting feature of the human immune system is how it affects infants both before and after
birth. When babies are first born, they do not have very many previously formed antibodies, so they have
a greater risk of infection than adults do. However, they ward off many infections by temporarily obtaining
the mother’s antibodies from breast milk and nutrients passed through the placenta. Also interesting is the
very inception of the fetus among such an aggressive immune system: somehow, the fetus, which doesn’t
have its mother’s exact DNA, is ignored by the mother’s T-cells and B-cells. Scientists currently have a few
theories about this phenomenon. For instance, the uterus may not be monitored by white blood cells, or it
may produce special proteins that suppress any local immune responses. Nonetheless, the fact that the
immune system restrains its programming for reproductive development continues to puzzle many
scientists.
1. The word intrinsic in the passage is closest in meaning to ________.
A. fundamental B. auxiliary C. detrimental D. extraordinary
2. Which of the following square brackets [A], [B], [C], or [D] best indicates where in the paragraph
the sentence ‘However, this particular action never changes to counter specific threats of infection’ can be
inserted?
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
3. According to passage 2, which bodily fluid initiates biochemical reactions in a human’s innate
immune system?
A. urine B. blood C. saliva D. tears
4. The word mediate in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. interrupt B. magnify C. contemplate D. coordinate
5. Based on the information in paragraph 3, what can be inferred about the adaptive immune system?
A. Because it takes so long to act, it is less effective in purging infectious cells than the innate
immune system.
B. Even though it takes longer to act, it is more effective in long term immunity than the innate
immune system.
C. Because humans already have an innate immune system, this system is unnecessary and only
used as a substitute.
D. It works differently from the innate immune system, so the two are completely independent of
one another.
6. The word progeny in the passage is closest in meaning to _________.
A. willingness B. mechanism C. offspring D. mutation
7. According to paragraph 4, what do B-cells produce?
A. antigens B. antibodies C. leukocytes D. pathogens
8. The word inception in the passage is closest in meaning to __________.
A. conception B. invulnerability C. contamination D. consumption
9. According to paragraph 5, where do newborn babies get most of their antibodies?
A. from their own white blood cells B. from immune cells in the uterus
C. from mucus and other barriers D. from breast milk and the placenta
10. Based on the information in paragraph 5, what can be inferred about how the mother’s immune
system should scientifically be affecting the fetus?
A. It should protect the fetus from infection.
B. It should help develop cells in the fetus.
C. It should be attacking foreign fetal cells.
D. It should be exposing the fetus to microbes.
Part 4: Read the passage and do the tasks below

A. Genealogy, the study of tracing family connections and relationships through history – so
building a cohesive family tree, has become an increasingly popular hobby from non-specialist
enthusiasts over recent decades. The introduction of the Internet has, in many ways, spurred interest
levels since historical information has been made far more accessible than previously. Experts warn,
however, that sources obtained from the internet must be considered with caution as they may often
contain inaccuracies, often advising novice genealogists to join a family history society where they are
able to learn useful skills from experienced researchers.
B. Originally, prior to developing a more mainstream following, the practice of genealogy
focused on establishing the ancestral links of rulers and noblemen often with the purpose of disputing
or confirming the legitimacy of inherited rights to wealth or position. More recently, genealogists are
often interested in not only where and when previous generations of families lived but also details of
their lifestyle and motivations, interpreting the effects of law, political restrictions, immigration and the
social conditions on an individual’s or family’s behaviour at the given time. Genealogy searches may
also result in location of living relatives and consequently family reunions, in some cases helping to
reunite family members who had been separated in the past due to fostering/adoptlon, migration or
war.
C. In Australia, there has been a great deal of interest of late, from families wishing to trace their
links to the early settlers. As a result of the loss of the American colonies in the 1700s, Britain was in
need of an alternative destination for prisoners who could not be accommodated in the country’s
overcrowded penal facilities. In 1787, the ‘First Fleet’ which consisted of a flotilla of ships carrying just
over 1300 people (of which 753 were convicts or their children and the remainder marines, officers and
their family members) left Britain’s shores for Australia. On January 26, 1788 – now celebrated as
Australia Day – the fleet landed at Sydney Cove and the first steps to European settlement began.
D. Genealogy research has led to a shift in attitudes towards convict heritage amongst
contemporary Australian society, as family members have been able to establish that their ancestors
were, in fact, not hardened and dangerous criminals, but had, in most cases, been harshly punished for
minor crimes inspired by desperation and dire economic circumstances. So dramatic has the shift in
attitudes been that having family connections to passengers on the ‘First Fleet’ is considered nothing
less than prestigious. Convicts Margaret Dawson and Elizabeth Thakery were amongst the first
European women to ever set foot on Australian soil. Details about the former, whose initial death
sentence passed for stealing clothes from her employer was commuted to deportation, and the latter
expelled for stealing handkerchiefs along with others of similar fate are now available on the internet
for eager descendants to track.
E. Although many of the deported convicts were forbidden to return to Britain, others such as
Dawson, were, in theory, expelled for a given term. In reality, however, the costs of attempting to return
to the mother country were well beyond the means of the majority. Genealogists now attribute the
successful early development of Australia to such ex-convicts who decided to contribute fully to society
once their sentence had been served. Many rewards were available to prisoners who displayed
exemplary behaviour, including land grants of 30 acres or more, tools for developing and farming the
land and access to convict labour. Genealogy studies also show that many former prisoners went on to
hold powerful positions in the newly forming Australia society, examples being Francis Greenway – a
British architect expelled on conviction of fraud – who went on to design many of Sydney’s most
prominent colonial buildings, and Alexander Munro, transported after stealing cheese at the age of 15,
who would later build Australia’s first gas works and hold the position of Town Mayor.
F. In North America, the Mormon Church, headquartered in Salt Lake City, Utah, holds wo
major genealogical databases, the International Genealogical Index and the Ancestral File, which
contain records of hundreds of million individuals who lived between 1500 and 1900 in the United
States, Canada and Europe. Resources available to genealogy enthusiasts include the Salt Lake City
based Family History Library and more than 4000 branches where microfilms and microfiches can be
rented for research and the newer Family Search internet site which provides open access to numerous
databases and research sources. Such data sharing practices are central and crucial to genealogical
research and the internet has proven to be a major tool in facilitating ease of transfer of information in
formats suitable for use in forums and via email. The global level of interest in and demand for such
information has proven so intense, that traffic load on release of sources such as Family Search and the
British Census for 1901 led to temporary collapse of the host servers.
G. Experts advise that reliability of sources used for genealogical research should be evaluated
in light of four factors which may influence their accuracy, these being the knowledge of the informant,
the bias and mental state of the informant, the passage of time and potential for compilation error. First,
genealogists should consider who the information was provided by and what he or she could be
ascertained to have known. For example, a census record alone is considered unreliable as no named
source for the information is likely to be found. A death certificate signed by an identified doctor,
however, can be accepted as more reliable. In the case of bias or mental state, researchers are advised
to consider that even when information is given by what could be considered a reliable source, that
there may have been motivation to be untruthful – continuing to claim a government benefit or
avoidance of taxation, for example.
H. Generally, data recorded at the same time or close to the event being researched is considered
to be more reliable than records written at a later point in time, as – while individuals may intend to
give a true representation of events – factual information may be misrepresented due to lapses in
memory and forgotten details. Finally, sources may be classified as either original or derivative. The
latter refers to photocopies, transcriptions, abstracts, translations, extractions, and compilations and has
more room for error due to possible misinterpretations, typing errors or loss of additional and crucial
parts of the original documentation.
Questions 1 – 5
Reading Passage has eight paragraphs A-H. Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B and D-G from the
list of headings below. Write the correct number i to ix in boxes 1 – 5 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings 1) Paragraph B ______
i. An Embarrassing Heritage 2) Paragraph D ______
ii. Assessing Validity 3) Paragraph E ______
iii. Diversity of Application 4) Paragraph F ______
iv. Interpretation Errors 5) Paragraph G ______
v. Past Usage
vi. Useful Sources
vii. Australasian Importance
viii. Changing Viewpoints
ix. Significant Roles
Example: Paragraph C + vii
Questions 6 – 8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage?
6) Early applications of genealogy focused on behaviour, movement and settlement of populations.
7) Some ex-convicts chose to stay in Australia due to the opportunities it presented.
8) Overwhelming interest in obtaining genealogical information has led to technological difficulties.
Questions 9-10
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D
9) Why has recreational genealogy become more popular?
A. Because it is now a fashionable hobby.
B. Because more people wish to trace missing relatives.
C. Because there are less political barriers.
D. Because it is no longer requires so much effort.
10) Why does census information need to be approached with caution?
A. Because it cannot easily be attributed to a particular individual.
B. Because it is often not validated by a physician.
C. Because administration practices in the past were unreliable.
D. Because informants may not have been truthful due to financial motivations.
D. WRITING (50 POINTS)

Part 1. The bar chart shows the percentage of school children learning to play different musical
instrument in 2005, 2010 and 2015.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where
relevant.
Write at least 150 words
Part 2. Write an essay on the following topics (at least 250 words).
Every year large numbers of people migrate from one country to another for different reasons.
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of migration for the individual and for society as a whole.
SAMPLE TEST 4
Part 1. Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for
each answer. (10 points)
ENQUIRY ABOUT BOOKCASES
Number of bookcases available: two
Both bookcases
Width: (1) _______________________________
Made of: (2) _______________________________
First bookcase
Cost: (3) _______________________________
Colour: (4) _______________________________
Number of shelves: six (four are (5) _______________________________)
Part 2. Listen to part of a tutorial between two students and their tutor. The students are doing a research
project to do with computer use. Listen and decide whether the following sentences are True (T) or False (F).
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Sami and Irene decided to do a survey about access to computer facilities because no one has
investigated it before.
2. Sami and Irene had problems with the reading for their project because not much had been written
about the topic.
3. Sami and Irene get the main data in their survey from observation of students.
4. The tutor suggests that one problem with the survey was limitation in the number of students
involved.
5. 77% of students surveyed thought that a booking system would be the best solution.
Part 3. You will hear a radio interview with the gardening experts Jed and Helena Stone. Choose the answer
A, B, C, or D which fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts)
1. How does Helena feel about the use of Jed's name for their joint business?
A. Occasionally frustrated that her contribution goes unnoticed.
B. Amused that they have a name people tend to remember.
C. Appreciative of the respect that the name has brought her.
D. Irritated by the fact that Jed is more of a celebrity than she is.
2. What is Jed's attitude to his public profile?
A. He likes the fact that complete strangers often want to talk to him.
B. He's unhappy that it prevents him from doing everyday activities.
C. He enjoys it more now than he did when he was younger.
D. He's proud of the way it reflects his achievements.
3. How did Helena feel about her work on The Travel Show?
A. She would have enjoyed it more in different circumstances.
B. It was convenient for her to be away from the house then.
C. It was a welcome alternative to manual work.
D. She felt obliged to do it at that particular time.
4. What explanation does Helena give for the name of the garden?
A. It provided a useful framework for the project.
B. It was a response to the bright colours they wanted there.
C. It allowed them to experiment with a wide range of options.
D. It was meant to inspire them to embrace unconventional ideas.
5. Jed says that, for him, the name 'jewel garden' is ______.
A. a reminder of the value of creativity
B. an appropriate one for something so beautiful
C. a positive way of combining both past and present
D. a way of explaining his philosophy of design to people
Part 4. Listen to part of a talk and complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken
from the recording for each answer in the space provided. (20 points)
There really is no single definition of "business attire" these days. The era of "Big Business" with
fine clothes and tailored suits is largely gone, except in (1)____________________________. It is easily
for people to toss out all the starched, buttoned-up conformity of (2)____________________________.
The questioned posed is what we use to replace office clothes. While bankers are (3)____________,
techy-types in all industries tend to dress down. The issues associated with (4)_____________ isn’t new
in this 21st century though it seems to be more casual. Interestingly, in the prewar period, half of men’s
suit were (5)____________________________. From 1940s to 1950s, all styles remain the same, except
the fact that men’s suits change from (6)_____________________________ to skinny. Between the time
of 1960s and 1970s, traditional men’s suit remains unchanged, however a new type of suit called the
(7) ____________________________ shirts or Nehru jackets were introduced.
Thanks to Silicon Valley, a term called “business casual” was used in the 1980s. Originally, it referred
to khaki pants, sensible shoes and (8)____________________________. However, this term today is
rather ambiguous. The Atlantic grappled with this by defining the casual workplace basing on
(9)____________________________ business culture instead of a "process-oriented" culture obsessed
with employees' looks. Mark Zuckerberg's gray T-shirt and gray hoodie is one exception to casual
workplace. Some business are still creased and pleated and tailor. We are left to suss out the suitability
of (10) ____________________________ and Allbirds, which don’t match with shoulder pads. Final
words given after all is “Dressing for success is as hard to define as business casual”.
B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40 points)

Part 1. Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes each of the following sentences.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. I never get a _________ of sleep after watching a horror film.
A. wink B. blink C. night D. ounce
2. The child sat in the middle of the floor and _________ refused to move.
A. distinctively B. decisively C. flatly D. totally
3. Little did I imagine The Amazing Race would entail long-winded journeys and ups and downs ____.
A. aplenty B. inexhaustibly C. profusely D. superabundant
4. Ants are social insects which form small to large_________.
A. schools B. flocks C. colonies D. packs
5. Having our heart broken is an _________ part of growing up.
A. inward B. inset C. integral D. internal
6. You may as well as your _________ because Tom never listens to anyone.
A. breath B. iron C. impression D. nature
7. I couldn’t believe it when Marcy accused me of _________in her relationship with Joe.
A. intervening B. interacting C. interfering D. intercepting
8. There has been a lot of _________ surrounding the government’s proposed scheme.
A. controversy B. consent C. conformity D. consequence
9. The stage designed was out of _________ , but unfortunately the acting was not so impressive.
A. moon B. planet C. world D. earth
10. We all have to follow the rules, and none of us is _________the law.
A. beyond B. over C. above D. onto
11. Don’t be _________ by false advertisements. If something looks too good to be true, it probably is.
A. putting off B. given up C. taken in D. put down
12. ___ talking of running for election again, after such a crushing defeat, is surely proof of his resilience.
A. Should he be B. That he is C. Had he been D. That he were
13. I was at a_________ end on Sunday morning so I decided to bathe the puppy.
A. loose B. low C. dead D. wits’
14. In _______ of the increasing violence in our towns the President has decided to impose a curfew.
A. sight B. view C. mood D. agreement
15. _________ 30,000 people are thought to have attended the concert.
A. As much as B. As many as C. Much less than D. As little as
16. I recommend reading the books _________, starting with the very first.
A. by accident B. at random C. in sequence D. on impact
17. The word “gossip” conjures _________ an image of a group of people huddled in a corner sharing
some scandalous news about neighbor or colleague.
A. up B. out C. cover D. in
18. The government is trying to _________ when it says it will spend more on health service without
raising taxes.
A. chew the fat B. wave the flag C. put the lid D. square the circle
19. Unanswered, the demands for nuclear deterrent have_________ fears of civil war.
A. flashed up B. prognosticated C. sidetracked D. stoked up
20. It is important to make sure the right decision because there is a lot at _________ .
A. range B. stake C. chance D. expectation
Part 2. Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable particle. Write your answer in the boxes
1. Sleep deprivation means that it takes the body a greater length of time to heal itself and to shake
________
up any minor ailments such as coughs and colds.
2. People should refrain from caffeine in the late evening and opt ________
for a milky drink rather than
cola, coffee or tea.
3. Jade has come _________terms
in with the fact that she’ll never become a doctor.
4. _________a
with view to finding another Queen Anne table, I went to the antique fair.
5. _________
for fear of saying the wrong thing, Lily kept quiet.
6. ___________hindsight,
With maybe you should have taken the bus, Mustafa!
7. Our photocopier is prone_________
to breaking down.
8. Telling her father that the car he had bought her was not the right color was rather like looking a gift
horse _________
in the mouth.
on
9. Don’t be so upset about losing your job. Look _________ the bright side- you will have more time to
spend with the children.
10. Traditional rollerskates have been _________
around for many years, but inline skates have several
advantages over the older kind of design.
Part 3. Give the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes. (10 points)
1. Not only is smoking unhealthy but it’s also _____________ SOCIETY.
2. At first, I thought I could count on Jim, but then I discovered that he’s just a __________ friend.
WEATHER
3. Now that this has been fully understood, the industy is __________ fighting online for the loyalty of
fans, but it may already be a lost cause. LATE
4. At all events, it was this group of the ____________ that gave the first successful impetus to the
Revolution. POSSESS
5. All the talk about global warming really has some __________ for me after being flooded last year.
RESONATE
6. All human beings need some degree of physical exertion to keep fit, and inline skating is a great
__________ source of exercise. ROUND
7. This invention is attributed to Charles Barbier, who was __________ officer. Art
8. The computer age created an __________ and continuing explosion in the amount of Braille
published and read in nearly every country throughout the world. PRECEDENT
9. The Palme d’Or was awarded to the director of that movie because of his having created a
__________ film. THINK
10. Excuses like poor connections and __________ , or the inability to reach someone just don’t work
when even the most inaccessible places have wireless coverage. COMMUNICATE

Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (15 points)
Broadcasting has democratized the publication of language, often at its most informal, even
undressed. Now the ears of the educated cannot escape the language of the masses. It (1) _____ them
on the news, weather, sports, commercials, and the ever-proliferating game shows. This wider
dissemination of popular speech may easily give purists the (2) _____ that language is suddenly going
to hell in this generation, and may (3) _____ the new paranoia about it.
It might also be argued that more Americans hear more correct, even beautiful, English on television
than ever before. Through television more models of good usage (4) _____ more American homes than
was ever possible in other times. Television gives them lots of (5) _____ English too, some awful, some
creative, but that is not new.
Hidden in this is a (6) _____ fact: our language is not the special private property of the language
police, or grammarians, or teachers, or even great writers. The (7) _____ of English is that it has always
been the tongue of the common people, literate or not.
English belongs to everybody: the funny (8) _____ of phrase that pops into the mind of a farmer
telling a story; or the (9) _____ salesman’s dirty joke; or the teenager saying, "Gag me with a spoon";
or the pop lyric - all contribute, are all as (10) _____ as the tortured image of the academic, or the line
the poet sweats over for a week.
1. A. circles B. surrenders C. supports D. surrounds
2. A. thought B. idea C. sight D. belief
3. A. justify B. inflate C. explain D. idealize
4. A. render B. reach C. expose D. leave
5. A. colloquial B. current C. common D. spoken
6. A. common B. stupid C. central D. simple
7. A. genii B. genius C. giant D. generalization
8. A. turn B. twist C. use D. time
9. A. tour B. transport C. travel D. travelling
10. A. valued B. valid C. truthful D. imperfect
Part 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space.
(15 points)
THE CULT OF CELEBRITY
Once, children had ambitions to be doctors, explorers, sportsmen, artists or scientists. Now taking
their lead from TV, they just "want to be famous". Fame is no longer a reward for gallant service or great,
perhaps even selfless endeavor. It is an end in (1) ________, and the sooner it can be achieved, the sooner
the lonely bedroom mirror can be replaced by the TV camera and flash gun, the better. Celebrity is the
profession (2) ______ the moment, a vainglorious vocation which, (3) _________ some 18th- century royal
court, seem to exist largely so that the rest of us might watch and be amazed (4) _________ its members live
out their lives in public, like self-regarding members of some glittering soap opera.
Today, (5) ______ everyone can be famous. Never has fame (6) _________ more democratic,
more ordinary, more achievable. (7)______ wonder it's modern ambition. It's easy to see why people
crave celebrity, (8) ________ generations reared on the instant fame offered by television want to step
out of the limousine (9) __________ the flashlights bouncing around them. Who doesn't want to be the
center of attention at some time in their lives?
Modern celebrity, peopled by the largely vain and vacuous, fills a need in our lives. It peoples
talks shows, sells goods and newspapers and rewards the famous for, well, (10) _________famous.
Part 3. Read an extract from an article and choose the answer A, B, C or D that fits best according to the text.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 points)
Using video gaming in education
It has become conventional wisdom that spending too much time playing video games has a detrimental
effect on children’s studies and their social development. However, some educationalists are now
questioning this theory and are using video games as effective educational tools thus bridging the gap
between recreational and educational activities.
Due to the sophisticated nature of today’s games, teachers are able to justify the inclusion of video and
online games for many pedagogical reasons. There may, for example, be sociological, psychological,
and ethical implications built into the gameplay. Harvey Edwards, who teaches IT classes in London,
was one such educator who decided to use video games in his lessons. To do this, he chose Minecraft,
an online game in which players create and develop imaginary worlds. He was somewhat uneasy about
attempting such an unconventional approach, not because of some students’ unfamiliarity with the
game but rather due to them not being able to make sense of what he was trying to do with it. He
worried that it might interfere with his learners’ focus, but he couldn’t have been more surprised by the
results.
Minecraft is an example of a ‘sandbox game’, in which gamers roam around and change a virtual world
at will. Instead of having to pass through numbered levels to reach certain places, there’s full access
from start to finish. The original version can be adapted to control which characters and content are left
in. Each student can then be allocated tasks – such as house-building, locating items or problem-solving
– which they must complete within the game. Elements of more general skills can be subtly
incorporated into the lessons, such as online politeness and safety, teamwork and resolving differences.
Edwards feels that presenting such lessons in the context of a game students probably already know and
enjoy enables him to connect with them at greater depth, and in more motivational ways.
Bolstered by his success, Edwards introduced his approach to another school nearby. He recalls that
the first couple of sessions didn’t live up to his expectations. Those who had played Minecraft before
were keen for others to adopt their own style of play. Unsurprisingly, this assortment of styles and
opinions as to how the game should proceed were far from harmonious. However, the sessions rapidly
transformed into something more cohesive, with the learners driving the change. With minimal teacher
input, they set about choosing leaders and established several teams, each with its own clearly-defined
role. These teams, now party to clear common goals, willingly cooperated to ensure that their newborn
world flourished, even when faced with the toughest of challenges.
‘Human’ inhabitants in a Minecraft ‘society’ are very primitive and wander around the imaginary
world, waiting for guidance from players. [A] This dynamic bears a resemblance to traditional
education, an observation highlighted by Martina Williams, one of the leaders of the group. [B]
‘Through the game, we were no longer passive learners in the classroom, being told what and how to
learn, but active participants in our own society. [C] The leaders, meanwhile, had a vision for their
virtual world as a whole, encouraging everyone to play their part in achieving the group’s goals. [D]
Through creating their own characters and using these to build their own ‘world’, students will have
gained some experiential understanding of societal structure and how communities work.
But not everyone is convinced by video games’ potential academic value. While many progressive
commentators cite extensive evidence to maintain that video games encourage collaboration and build
problem-solving skills, more traditional factions continue to insist they are a distraction that do not
merit inclusion in any curriculum. Even less evangelical cynics, who may grudgingly acknowledge
games have some educational benefit, assert that this is only the case in the hands of creative educators.
However, the accusation most often levelled at video games is that they detract from the social aspect
of the classroom, particularly taking part in discussions. Dr Helen Conway, an educational researcher,
argues that video games can be used to promote social activities. ‘Students become animated talking
about the game and how to improve their gameplaying and problem-solving skills,’ she says. ‘I find it
strange, this image that many people have,’ Conway says. ‘Children are often totally detached from
their peers when undertaking more traditional activities, like reading books, but we never suggest that
books are harmful because they’re a solitary experience.
1. The first time Edwards used a game in his classes, he was______________

A. convinced that learners would realise why he wanted them to play it.
B. convinced that learners would see the reasons for playing it.
C. anxious that he had chosen the wrong one for learners to play.
D. sure that his reasons for getting learners to play it were valid.
2. The writer suggests that Minecraft is a good choice of educational game because______
A. any number of learners can use it simultaneously.
B. teachers can remove any inappropriate material.
C. gamers can create educative tasks whilst playing it.
D. players can develop their skills in a step-by-step way.
3. Which of the following words in the fourth paragraph is used to convey a feeling of approval?
A. keen B. harmonious C. driving D. newborn
4. In the fifth paragraph, the writer draws a comparison between a Minecraft ‘society’ and_______________
A. relationships within the group as they played.
B. the way in which countries organize themselves.
C. typical students in a school environment.
D. how leadership operates in different situations.
5. In the sixth paragraph, the writer feels that critics of video games in education_________
A. are unwilling to admit that using them in class has benefits.
B. make accurate observations about teachers who use them.
C. use flawed research to support their objections to using them.
D. acknowledge the drawbacks of more traditional teaching methods.
6. The words ‘this image’ in the sixth paragraph refer to______________
A. people who criticize gaming in education. B. students discussing a game in a group.
C. a group of students reading individually. D. a solitary player absorbed in a game.
7. Where does this sentence belong to in the fifth paragraph?
Each group member had ideas as to how their function should develop.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
8. The word ‘subtly’ in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. intricately B. ingeniously C. ingenuously D. haphazardly
9. The word ‘grudgingly’ in the sixth paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. gleefully B. vivaciously C. genially D. reluctantly
10. Which of the following best describes the author's attitude towards the application of gaming into
education?
A. supportive B. neutral C. cynical D. satirical
Part 4. For questions 1-10, read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (15 points)
Follow your nose
A Aromatherapy is the most widely used complementary therapy in the National Health Service,
and doctors use it most often for treating dementia. For elderly patients who have difficulty interacting
verbally, and to whom conventional medicine has little to offer, aromatherapy can bring benefits in
terms of better sleep, improved motivation, and less disturbed behaviour. So the thinking goes. But last
year, a systematic review of health care databases found almost no evidence that aromatherapy is
effective in the treatment of dementia. Other findings suggest that aromatherapy works only if you
believe it will. In fact, the only research that has unequivocally shown it to have an effect has been
carried out on animals.
B Behavioural studies have consistently shown that odours elicit emotional memories far more
readily than other sensory cues. And earlier this year, Rachel Herz, of Brown University in Providence,
Rhode Island, and colleagues peered into people’s heads using functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging
(fMRI) to corroborate that. They scanned the brains of five women while they either looked at a photo
of a bottle of perfume that evoked a pleasant memory for them, or smelled that perfume. One woman,
for instance, remembered how as a child living in Paris—she would watch with excitement as her
mother dressed to go out and sprayed herself with that perfume. The women themselves described the
perfume as far more evocative than the photo, and Herz and co-workers found that the scent did indeed
activate the amygdala and other brain regions associated with emotion processing far more strongly
than the photograph. But the interesting thing was that the memory itself was no better recalled by the
odour than by the picture. “People don’t remember any more detail or with any more clarity when the
memory is recalled with an odour,” she says. “However, with the odour, you have this intense
emotional feeling that’s really visceral.”
C That’s hardly surprising, Herz thinks, given how the brain has evolved. “The way I like to think
about it is that emotion and olfaction are essentially the same things,” she says. “The part of the brain
that controls emotion literally grew out of the part of the brain that controls smell.” That, she says,
probably explains why memories for odours that are associated with intense emotions are so strongly
entrenched in us, because the smell was initially a survival skill: a signal to approach or to avoid.
D Eric Vermetten, a psychiatrist at the University of Utrecht in the Netherlands, says that doctors
have long known about the potential of smells to act as traumatic reminders, but the evidence has been
largely anecdotal. Last year, he and others set out to document it by describing three cases of post-
traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in which patients reported either that a certain smell triggered their
flashbacks, or that smell was a feature of the flashback itself. The researchers concluded that odours
could be made use of in exposure therapy, or for reconditioning patients’ fear responses.
E After Vermetten presented his findings at a conference, doctors in the audience told him how
they had turned this association around and put it to good use. PTSD patients often undergo group
therapy, but the therapy itself can expose them to traumatic reminders. “Some clinicians put a strip of
vanilla or a strong, pleasant, everyday odorant such as coffee under their patients’ noses, so that they
have this continuous olfactory stimulation,” says Vermetten. So armed, the patients seem to be better
protected against flashbacks. It’s purely anecdotal, and nobody knows what’s happening in the brain,
says Vermetten, but it’s possible that the neural pathways by which the odour elicits the pleasant,
everyday memory override the fear-conditioned neural pathways that respond to verbal cues.
F According to Herz, the therapeutic potential of odours could lie in their very unreliability. She
has shown with her perfume-bottle experiment that they don’t guarantee any better recall, even if the
memories they elicit feel more real. And there’s plenty of research to show that our noses can be tricked,
because being predominantly visual and verbal creatures, we put more faith in those other modalities.
In 2001, for instance, Gil Morrot, of the National Institute for Agronomic Research in Montpellier,
tricked 54 oenology students by secretly colouring a white wine with an odourless red dye just before
they were asked to describe the odours of a range of red and white wines. The students described the
coloured wine using terms typically reserved for red wines. What’s more, just like experts, they used
terms alluding to the wine’s redness and darkness—visual rather than olfactory qualities. Smell, the
researchers concluded, cannot be separated from the other senses.
G Last July, Jay Gottfried and Ray Dolan of the Wellcome Department of Imaging Neuroscience
in London took that research a step further when they tested people’s response times in naming an
odour, either when presented with an image that was associated with the odour or one that was not.
So, they asked them to sniff vanilla and simultaneously showed them either a picture of ice cream or of
cheese, while scanning their brains in a fMRI machine. People named the smells faster when the picture
showed something semantically related to them, and when that happened, a structure called the
hippocampus was strongly activated. The researchers’ interpretation was that the hippocampus plays a
role in integrating information from the senses— information that the brain then uses to decide what it
is perceiving.
Questions 1-7
The passage has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Choose the correct heading for paragraph A-G and from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number, i-x, in boxes 1-6.
List of Headings
i Remembering the past more clearly
ii Bringing back painful memories
iii Originally an alarm signal
iv The physical effects of scent versus image
v Checking unreliable evidence
vi Reinforcing one sense with another
vii Protection against reliving the past
viii The overriding power of sight and sound
ix Conflicting views
Example Paragraph A : ix
1 Paragraph B
2 Paragraph C
3 Paragraph D
4 Paragraph E
5 Paragraph F
6 Paragraph G
Questions 7-10
Look at the following findings and the list of researchers
Match each finding with the correct researcher, A-D.
Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 7-10.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
7. Smell can trigger images of horrible events.
8. Memory cannot get sharpened by smell.
9. When people are given an odour and a picture of something to learn, they will respond more quickly
in naming the smell because the stimulus is stronger when two or more senses are involved.
10. It is impossible to isolate smell from visual cues.
A Rachel Hertz
B Eric Vermetten
C Gil Morrot
D Jay Gottfried and Ray Dolan
Part 1: (20 points)
The graph below shows the number of tourists visiting a particular Caribbean Island between 2010-2017.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where
relevant. Write at least 150 words.
Part 2. Essay writing. (30 points)

Write an essay of about 250 words to express your opinion on the following topic:
Some people say that subjects like arts, music, drama and creative writing are more beneficial to children and
therefore they need more of these subjects to be included in the timetable.
Do you agree or disagree?
Use your own knowledge and experience to support your arguments with examples and relevant
evidence.
SAMPLE TEST 5
I. LISTENING (50 points)
PART 1: Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)
Example
Company name: Burnham Coaches
Name of client: (1) ______________________
Address: Down Language School
Down House
(2) ______________________
Brighton
Contact number: the school secretary to be contacted on 01273 512634
Pick up time: 7:30
Return time: (3) ______________________
Purpose of Hire: Visit to Stonehenge and Bath
Question 4 and 5
Answer the questions below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
4. What does the cost of hiring the coach include?
_____________________________________________________
5. Who does the customer have to speak to before confirming the booking?
_____________________________________________________
PART 2: Listen to the recording and decide whether the statements are True (T) or False (F). You
will listen TWICE. (10 points)
1. The Flirtey delivery service is still waiting for government approval.
2. The drone uses GPRS to fly to the customer’s location.
3. The drone can deliver hot food such as pizza.
4. The company hopes to complete local deliveries with 10 minutes.
5. The drone are powered by solar panels.
PART 3: You will ear part a radio programme in which two people, Sally White and Martin Jones,
are discussing the popularity of audio books (books recorded on tape), and the problems involved
with abridging books before taping them. From question 1 – 5, choose the correct answer A, B, C,
or D. You will hear the recording TWICE. (10 points)
1. Sally believes that most people listen to audio books
A. When they’re doing housework B. before they go to sleep
C. On the way to work D. when they’re with their children
2. Sally feels that the main advantage of audio books is that they
A. encourage children to read more B. are read by experienced actors
C. make more books accessible to children D. save parents from having to read to children
3. Martin says that in the USA there is a demand for audio books because people there
A. were the first to obtain audio books
В. have to drive long distances
C. feel that they do not have time to read books
D. are used to listening to the spoken word on the radio
4. According to Sally, successful abridgements depend on
A. the length of the original B. their closeness to the original
C. the style of the author D. the type of story
5. Books are not commisioned specifically for the audio market because
A. writers are too busy working for the BBC. C. there are not enough people buying audio books.
B. such books have failed in the past. D. people only want familiar stories.
PART 4: Complete the summary with one word or number from the lecture in each gap. (20 points)
The lecture covers some of the latest research and the main arguments involved in the Nature
versus nurture debate; or how much your personality is determined by genetics, and how much by your
(1) ______________________.
Some scientists believe that genes don’t determine by personality directly, but rather provide (2)
______________________. It is discovered that 35,000 genes each of us carries affect personality, such
as impulsivity, (3) ______________________ and addition to some substances. For instance, a
malfunction in the speech gene FOXP2 can lead to (4) ______________________. On the other hand,
scientists who believe that (5) ______________________ shapes personality disagree on who influences
children more: parents or peers and friends. Children acquire their parent’s habits by (6)
______________________, while the need to be part of a group comes from a primitive (7)
______________________.
The latest research suggests that both factors have influence on an individual to approximately
the same extent: (8) ______________________ % by nature, (9) ______________________ by nurture.
From the research, we'll be in a better position to (10) ______________________ how to change
someone's personality.
III. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (40 points)

PART 1: Choose the word / phrase which best complete each sentence. (20 points)
1. You story is interesting and lively, but it contains several historical inaccuracies. For example, your
hero___________ have offered Miss Swinton shelter under his umbrella, as they weren’t invented until
a hundred years later.
A. couldn’t B. might not C. shouldn’t D. wouldn’t
2. The coach worked long and hard into the night ___________ the team’s strategy for the next game.
A. for preparing B. for the preparation of
C. to prepare D. in order for proper preparation of
3. During the day tigers usually lie ___________, ___________ in the long grass.
A. rested – hidden B. rested – hiding C. resting – hidden D. resting – hide
4. Not only _______ more brittle than hard maples, but they are also less able to withstand high winds.
A. soft maples are B. they are soft maples C. are soft maples D. soft maples
5. ___________ that dynamic, departmental recommendations against using pepper spray on
nonviolent arrestees may be needed.
A. in light of B. At the forefront of C. On the verge of D. In accordance with
6. It is mandatory that smoking in public ___________.
A. prohibited B. prohibit C. be prohibited D. is prohibited
7. You may borrow as many books as you like, provided you show them to ___________ is at the desk.
A. whoever B. who C. whom D. anyone
8. My dog’s being very difficult at the moment; I don’t know what the trouble is but he just ___ not eat.
A. shall B. will C. may D. has
9. The Red Cross is ___________ an international aid organization.
A. intriguingly B. intrusively C. intrinsically D. intrepidly
10. ___________ Jim’s support, I wouldn’t have got the job.
A. As for B. But for C. Except for D. Just for
11. ___________ the initial fears of the Commander-in-Chief, the campaign was a resounding success.
A. Despite B. Although C. Besides D. Whereas
12. My sister showed great ___________ in selling her house when she did because soon afterwards the
market fell dramatically.
A. premonition B. forecasting C. prediction D. foresight
13. She ___ agreed to go with him to the football match although she had no interest in the game at all.
A. apologetically B. shamefacedly C. grudgingly D. discreetly
14. You shouldn’t have been ___________ to your elders by raising those matters.
A. ill-mannered B. immaterial C. impertinent D. inapposite
15. Once the story ___________ the headlines, everyone was talking about it.
A. crashed B. struck C. smashed D. hit
16. It is public knowledge that new magazines often use free gifts or other ___________ to get people
to buy them.
A. gimmicks B. snares C. plots D. scams
17. I know you're upset about breaking up with Tony but there are plenty more ___________.
A. horses in the stable B. cows in the field C. tigers in the zoo D. fish in the sea
18. Lauren is often labelled easy-going as she tends to appear mild and relaxed rather than tense and _.
A. sullen B. likeable C. humorous D. excitable
19. Gabriel’s mentor ___________ him to change his dishonest ways before it was too late.
A. dislodged B. notified C. admonished D. informed
20. It was such a shock to receive a letter like that ___________.
A. in the red B. out of the blue C. in the pink D. over the moon
PART 2: WORD FORM Supply the correct form of the word provided in blankets in each sentence.
(10 points)
1. You won’t persuade him to change his mind. His decision is ___________ (REVOKE)
2. Politeness is one thing. Real kindness is another. You must learn to ___________ between the two.
(DIFFERENT)
3. In Scotland there is greater emphasis on ___________ by individual school. (VALUE)
4. The sun and the moon are often ___________ in poetry. (PERSON)
5. Many fabrics are specially treated so as to be ___________ (SHRINK)
6. Jim is one of the most ___________ members of the committee. (SPEAK)
7. The fauna is becoming comparatively ___________ due to the isolation, young geological age of
the island and forestry activities within habitats. (PAUPER)
8. Heavy rain and excessive use have the soil____________. (POVERTY)
9. He made a ____________ attempt to climb the tree to recover his kite. (FOOL)
10. Management decided the office was ____________ and sacked three junior typists. (MAN)
PART 3. PHRASAL VERBS Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence.
(10 points)
1. Can you tuck your shirt _________ your trousers?
A. with B. around C. into D. at
2. Erica is an excellent worker. She goes _________ her job calmly and efficiently.
A. on B. with C. about D. at
3. The school ran _________ financial trouble when 80%of the staff went on strike.
A. about B. into C. with D. for
4. He wants to get the scholarship and is making _________ that he is poor.
A. up B. out C. over D. for
5. His latest work have come _________ for a great deal of criticism.
A. up B. in C. across D. through
6. Many factories break the anti-pollution laws and _________.
A. put up with it B. take it over C. get away with it D. come round to it
7. When I started my business, I had to take out a bank loan. It took me four years to pay it _________.
A. off B. out C. up D. over
8. You shouldn’t have sent Sebastian that Valentine’s card. I think you’ve scared him _________.
A. back B. down C. off D. through
9. I thought the movie was going to an end, but it just _________.
A. dragged in B. dragged on C. dragged into D. dragged up
10. This is the time of the year when stores _________ their prices, so you can get good deals.
A. mark on B. mark through C. mark up D. mark down
III. READING (60 points)

PART 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap.
Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
THE MEDITERRANEAN WAY
There is more evidence proving the Mediterranean diet to be heart healthy and most likely
helpful in (1)_____________ pounds and keeping them off. Although Mediterranean cuisine is not
technically low in fat, the type of (2) _____________acids it does contain, such as those that come from
nuts and olive oil, is a much healthier form of (3) _____________ fat than what exists in other foods. In
a recent study, participants who were overweight and suffering from (4) _____________were placed on
either a regular low-fat diet or a Mediterranean diet. The ones on the latter diet fared better than their
counterparts in terms of health risks. The results showed that it is not just a matter of eating low-fat (5)
_____________ of food, but it is the addition of nuts and olive oil that improves the indicators of good
health. The ones who followed the regular low-fat diet also (6) _____________ the risk of returning to
old habits that caused them to (7) _____________on the pounds in the first place. A Mediterranean diet
is easier to follow because it is filled with healthy yet (8) _____________ foods such as fish, walnuts and
fresh fruit and vegetables. Those who follow the diet are less likely to suffer from (9) _____________for
less healthier foods, thus making it easier to (10) _____________ the urge to eat meat and high-fat dairy
products. Ultimately, the Mediterranean diet contains all the nutrients needed for lifelong health,
making it a diet people can live on for their entire lives.
1. A. scraping B. shredding C. shedding D. cracking
2. A. fattening B. fat C. fatty D. fattened
3. A. diet B. dieting C. dietician D. dietary
4. A. obesity B. disorder C. malnutrition D. indigestion
5. A. toppings B. servings C. coverings D. flavourings
6. A. packed B. ran C. played D. quenched
7. A. stuff B. stack C. place D. pile
8. A. sharp B. bitter C. bland D. appetising
9. A. cravings B. passions C. urges D. appetites
10. A. whip B. resist C. polish D. feed
PART 2: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word
in each space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
THEATRICAL GHOSTS
Britain has many haunted theatres. The Theatre Royal in Drury Lane, London, prides
(1)_____________on being regarded as the most haunted theatre (2) ______________ showbiz. The
most legendary ghostly inhabitant is an 18th-century gentleman known (3)______________the ‘Man in
Grey’. Spotted by dozens of cleaners over the years, a sighting of him is usually considered to be good
luck and indicates the show will go (4) ______________ a hitch. It is thought that he is associated with
a skeleton uncovered by workmen in the theatre in 1843. The skeleton was found with a knife in (5)
______________ ribs.
There is also the ghost of an Irish man Charles Macklin, an actor (6) ______________ profession. He
stabbed a fellow actor, Thomas Hallam, in 1735. Macklin’s ghost has (7) ______________seen in a
backstage corridor. Joseph Grimaldi was a famous clown who performed at the Theatre Royal for many
years. When he died in 1837, he left a request that he be buried near the theatre. Since then, his ghost
appears during shows (8) ______________ occasion, sometimes sitting in the audience, smiling
encouragement up at performers on the stage. Every once in a while, performers (9) ______________
felt his presence on stage with them. Some have spoken of feeling his hands guiding them to a better
spot on stage, or even kicking them in the rear if they weren’t (10) ______________ their best!
PART 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the following questions.
Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
The tide means the rising and falling of ocean levels that are affected by the moon, the sun, and the
earth’s own rotation. Although the sun gives about 200 times the gravitational force on the earth as the
moon does, the moon exerts more than twice the tidal force. As the closer astronomical body, the moon
has greater influence on the earth’s tides. Although other factors do affect the tide, the positions of these
two bodies have by far the greatest determinant roles.
It is easy to imagine that the ocean level closest to the moon bulges upward. However, a bulge
occurs on the opposite side of the earth as well. [A] As the moon’s tidal force counteracts the earth’s
gravitational force, water bulges on both sides. Because there are two major oceanic bulges, there are
two high tides in a daily cycle. [B] A lunar day, not a solar day, must be used in this calculation. It takes
the earth 24 hours and 48 minutes to make one rotation. As with a solar day, the earth rotates once in
24 hours. [C] Thus, high tides generally occur every 12 hours and 24 minutes, an interval of half a lunar
day. [D] Exact intervals will vary depending on local land features.
The sun has a similar but less visible effect on water levels. Oceanic bulges occur on the sides of
the earth. While these bulges resulting from the sun’s tidal forces are smaller than the greatest swells
caused by the moon, they can amplify the moon’s effect. Furthermore, the bulges in water levels caused
by the sun can make predicting the tides tricky, since both the sun and the moon must be taken into
consideration.
When the moon and the sun are aligned – that is, when both are on the same side of the earth or on
opposite sides of the earth – the oceanic bulges are at their greatest size. Known as spring tide, this
powerful phenomenon results in abnormally high tides, abnormally low tides, and abnormally strong
tidal currents. In general, seven days after the spring tide comes, the neap tide comes. The results are
weaker tidal currents and less variation in water levels between high tide and low tide.
Because the moon and the sun are major factors in tide formation, researchers have tried to
investigate these factors under assumptions of the earth with no land masses, smooth ocean floors,
constant distances from the moon and the sun, and an unchanging environment. Even under these
simplified imaginary conditions, it has been difficult to construct complete and conclusive models of
tidal phenomena. With the additional factors of huge land masses, wildly variable underwater terrain,
the elliptical orbits of the moon and the earth, and climate change, tidal analysis become increasingly
more complex.
Land masses block tidal ebbs and flows, affecting the timing, volume, and strength of the tides.
Submarine terrain also has great effects on tides and their movements and variation. As for the principal
astronomical bodies, one must remember that the moon’s orbit around the earth and the earth’s orbit
around the sun are elliptical. Therefore, tidal forces vary with changing relative distances between the
earth and the moon and between the earth and the sun. Finally, weather and climate change always
pose challenges to tidal prediction. Now, with global warming, rising ocean levels, and weather
phenomena, study of the tides is becoming more challenging than ever before.
1. According to the passage, all of the following are true of tides EXCEPT
A. The earth’s rotation affects water depth.
B. Solar gravitational force is the biggest influence on tidal flow.
C. The moon is a more important factor than the sun.
D. Tidal force is related to distance from the earth.
2. The word “counteracts” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. stops B. intensifies C. offsets D. resists
3. Look at the four squares [A], [B], [C], [D] that indicate where the following sentence could be added
to the passage.
However, the moon is constantly moving around the earth, so an additional 48 minutes is required for the
moon to complete the rotation.
Where would the sentence best fit? Choose the square where the sentence should be added to the
passage.
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
4. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ___________.
A. bulges B. forces C. swells D. bodies
5. The word “abnormally” has been repeated three times in order to ___________.
A. emphasize the power of spring tides
B. accentuate unpredictability of tidal movement
C. note how infrequently spring tides occur
D. highlight the complexities of tidal formation
6. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Neap tide features weaker water currents and less difference between high and low tide levels.
B. Lower current speeds result in little change in water levels between high tide and low tide.
C. As a result, neap tide is difficult to detect due to little tidal variation and slow-moving tidal currents.
D. The effects of these tidal bulges are less water movement between tides.
7. In the passage, what does the author say about simplified conditions?
A. They are unnecessary for a complex understanding of tides.
B. They have been inadequate factors in tidal models.
C. Even they have not helped scientists make models of tides.
D. They were created to study major factors in tidal behavior.
8. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as something that complicates study of the
tides?
A. Land formations change the way tidal waters move.
B. Underwater land formations affect changes in tidal levels.
C. The orbit between the sun and the earth affects tidal phenomena.
D. Increasing water depths may be causing unusual weather.
9. The word “volume” in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. duration B. sound C. size D. direction
10. An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below.
“Several factors make the tide a complicated phenomenon.”
Which of the following DOES NOT belong in the summary?
A. The moon is the major cause of high and low tides.
B. The sun exerts much more gravitational force than the moon does.
C. The moon and the sun create conditions for spring tide and neap tide.
D. Land formations, orbital irregularities, and climate change complicate tidal study.
PART 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow and write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 points)
AN ANCIENT FEAT OF ENGINEERING
In 1900, Dimitris Kontos, the captain of a Creek sponge diving boat, and his crew, from the
island of Symi, took shelter from a storm in a cove by the island of AntiKythera. While waiting for the
winds to become more favourable, before heading for the coast of Tunisia for a sponge diving
expedition, the bored crew decided to do some diving. Down to a depth of nearly fifty metres a crew
member descended, in a bulky diving suit, to search the sea floor. When he resurfaced, telling tales of
bodies strewn on the seabed surrounded by horses, Captain Kontos thought his shipmate had become
drunk on the nitrogen that was fed into his breathing tube and decided to go down to see for himself.
He returned with an arm from a 4th century BC bronze statue.
When Kontos informed the Greek authorities of his findings they sent a Creek Navy vessel and
officials to assist the sponge divers in what turned out to be the world's first ever maritime archaeological
excavation. The operation lasted for a year and led to an astonishing collection of finds - hundreds of
different artefacts, from colossal 4th century BC statues, to small daily artefacts, plus one of the greatest
wonders ever to be found from the ancient world - the Antikythera Mechanism. The operation was
ended not because they had managed to recover all the artefacts from the lost Roman ship using nothing
but the most rudimentary diving equipment and a wooden platform with a winch, but because one
sponge diver had lost his life and another two were paralysed from decompression sickness. They had
succeeded in raising many treasures for the heritage of the world but it was a high price to pay.
The artefacts were taken to Athens for storage in the National Archaeological Museum, and its
director, Valerios Stais, noticed that one small fragment, encrusted with rust from two thousand years
on the sea floor, contained a gearwheel and his conjecture was that it must have been from some kind
of astrolabe - a clockwork mechanism - one that he guessed must have been from Hellenistic times. But
eminent archaeologist though he was, his observations were categorically refuted as impossible, because
the world's leading authorities on the history of mechanics only recognised geared mechanisms as an
invention of the 14th century and not the 1st century BC of Greece. Thus, Stais had to accept their pre-
eminence and so he merely catalogued the find and then archived it in the museums vaults.
And there it lay forgotten for the next half a century until a British science historian, Derek de
Solla Price, requested to examine it. He soon came to the same conclusions that Valerie Stais had
arrived at. The item was from the 1st century BC and was some type of geared mechanism. It was,
undoubtedly, the oldest clockwork mechanism in the world, preceding the later invention of geared
mechanisms by 1600 years. That much de Solla Price was certain of and he set out to find out the
answers to all the other unanswered questions - what was it for? Who made it and why?
Solla Price and the Greek nuclear physicist Charalambos Karakalos proceeded to make X-ray
and gamma-ray images of the 82 fragments and in 1974 their findings were published. Solla Price
believed that the mechanism was the world's first analogue calendar computer. Now the world was
interested. The mechanism was not simply a rusting piece of bronze from the middle ages that had
accidentally become mixed up with real ancient artefacts. It was now recognised as the earliest known
example of a clockwork mechanism. Scientists, archaeologists and mathematicians the world over
wanted to find out more about this astonishing find and the Antikythera Mechanism Research Project
was born.
It took more than 40 years of study to reveal the secrets in the fragments using modern computer
X-ray tomography to enhance the inscriptions that were hidden within it and that led to understanding
what the mechanism is and how it worked. The detailed imaging revealed a machine with 37 gear
wheels that allowed it to follow the movement of the sun and moon through the zodiac and to predict
eclipses. The construction of the item was based on 2nd century BC Greek theories of astronomy and
mathematics. It is the first extant construction of a differential gear system in history. It is remarkable
for both the level of its miniaturisation and the complexity of its gear system. It is widely regarded as
the most important find in the history of technology.
But although it is, without doubt, unbelievably sophisticated technology for its era, preceding
anything like it by hundreds and hundreds of years, it still didn't work very well. First of all, its
theoretical accuracy was hampered by the theories of the time, which were not entirely accurate and,
although it is a brilliant feat of engineering, the hand-built gears do not have the fine precision tooled
features that would allow it to work in the way it was designed to. This takes nothing from it as an
achievement and the ongoing research project may find out even more about this wonder of the world
if more pieces are unearthed from the seabed in coming years. But even as it is, it remains the world's
first real computing machine and it was created over 2000 years ago.
Questions 1-5
Do the following statements agree with what the writer says in the text?
For questions 1-5 write:
YES If the statement agrees with the writer says
NO If the statement contradicts what the writer says
NOT GIVEN If there’s no information on this in what the writer says
________ 1. The sponge diving crew were trapped in the cove at Antikythera for weeks.
________ 2. The crewman who discovered the Antikythera ship wreck had been drinking.
________ 3. Serious incidents curtailed the Antikythera shipwreck excavation.
________ 4. Valerios Stais’ findings on the mechanism were contradicted by leading archaeologists.
________ 5. The type of Greek used in the inscriptions helped to date the mechanism.
Questions 6-10
Complete the summary below
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text from each answer.
PROVEN RIGHT IN THE END
A serendipitous storm led a sponge diving expedition to sit it out in a Greek island cove and this
resulted in the discovery of an ancient shipwreck. The subsequent maritime excavation led to
the recovery of hundreds of (6)_____________from the era of the shipwreck and an unidentified
machine. Due to (7)_____________ one person died and two others were disabled and the
excavation was stopped.
As the findings from the wreck were being catalogued for storage, a museum director noticed
one artefact was embedded with a (8)_____________ leading him to surmise the artefact was a
(9)_____________, such as an astrolabe. However, it was believed at the time that machines of
that type did not predate the 14th century.
It was only in recent years that it was discovered that the machine was in fact an early type of
analogue computer used to track celestial movements as well as
(10)_____________. Although it is now agreed to be a great achievement, the gears were not
made with the precision only possible with modern tools and it was therefore inaccurate in its
calculations.
IV. WRITING (50 points)

PART 1: ESSAY WRITING (30 points)
As mass communication and transport continue to grow, societies are becoming more and
more alike leading to a phenomenon known as globalization. Some people fear that globalization
will inevitably lead to the total loss of cultural identity.
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
PART 2: GRAPH DESCRIPTION (20 pts)

The chart below gives information on the percentage of British people taking holidays at home, abroad, or
both, or no holidays for the years 2014 and 2015.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant.
SAMPLE TEST 6
A. LISTENING (50 points)
Part 1. Complete the notes below. For questions 1-5, write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer. (10 points)
First name: Harry
Last name: 1. ______
Date of Birth: Day: 11th; Month: December, Year: 2. ______
Type of Membership: 3. ______
Activities: Badminton and 4. ______
Payment details: Total: £450
To be paid 5. ______
Part 2. You will hear an interview in which a deep-sea map-maker called Sally Gordon and a marine biologist
called Mark Tomkins are talking about making maps of the ocean floor. For questions 11-15, decide whether
the statement is TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). (10 points)
6. Sally felt excited at the prospect of making further discoveries when she had completed her first
mapping expedition.
7. Mark compares the ocean floor to the planets to emphasize how it is overexploited.
8. Sally feel optimistic about attitudes towards deep-sea exploration.
9. When talking about the territorial ambitions of some island nations, Mark reveals his concern
about the potential consequences.
10. Sally and Mark predict that future developments in deep-sea exploration result in a change in
human behaviour.
Part 3. You will hear part of an interview with the astronaut Charles Duke, who is talking about his trip to
the moon. For questions 6-10, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
(10 points)
11. How did Charles feel about space travel as a boy?
A. He thought it was unlikely to happen B. He regarded it as more than science fiction
C. He was fascinated by the idea of it D. He showed no particular interest in it
12. What did Charles consider to be the hardest part of the training?
A. feeling trapped in the heavy spacesuit B. endlessly practising the lunar surface landing
C. constantly being afraid of making a mistake D. being unable to move his arms and hands
13. What was Charles’s reaction when he first found out he was going to the moon?
A. He realised he had to be cautious B. He felt proud to be given the opportunity
C. He tried to control his excitement D. He reflected on his chances of survival.
14. What feature of the moon made the greatest impact on Charles?
A. the brightness of the moon B. the vastness of the sky
C. the loneliness of the place D. the absence of any stars
15 What does Charles feel was the most memorable part of his mission?
A. nearly falling into a crater B. walking on the moon’s surface
C. seeing things never seen before D. holding a piece of the moon
Part 4. You will hear part of a scientific television programme for young people in which the speaker explains
what meteors' are. For questions 16-25, complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for
each answer. (20 points)
'Meteors' is another name for 16. _______________
To help explain meteors, planet Earth is compared to a 17.__________
You can think of meteors as a group of 18.____________
In reality, meteors are very small chunks of 19.________________
The circular path the Earth travels around the Sun is called its 20.__________________
When Earth comes close to a meteor, the meteor is pulled 21.______________by gravity.
A meteor travels very fast - a hundred times faster than 22._______________
Due to the speed it travels through the air, the meteor becomes 23._________________
Because of the heat, the meteor becomes less hard, 24._________________ and then burns.
We are lucky that most meteors burn up and never 25._____________________
SECTION B. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (40 points)

Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write your answers in the
1. The way the film eventually got made _____ , like the story itself, a certain ring of destiny to it.
A. looks B. has C. indicates D. feels
2. The investigation was instigated ______ the Prime Minister.
A. on the part of B. consequence of C. subsequent to D. at the behest of
3. Do not read in such dim light; it will _________ your eyesight.
A.impair B. dwindle C. decrease D. contract
4. Did you see Jonathan this morning? He looked like ______. It must have been quite a party last night.
A. a wet blanket B. a dead duck C. death warmed up D. a bear with a sore head
5. The thick fog ____ out any possibility of our plane taking off before morning.
A. ruled B. struck C. stamped D. crossed
6. Everybody was busy with the spring cleaning, except Stanley, who always refused to pull his _______.
A. socks B. weight C. fingers D. share
7. “Don’t look so worried! You should take the boss’s remarks with a ______ of salt.”
A. teaspoon B. pinch C. grain D. dose
8. The party was already _________ by the time we arrived. Everyone was singing and dancing.
A. in full swing B. up in the air C. over the moon D. under the cloud
9. It was so embarrassing. We were in the middle of a crowded restaurant when they suddenly had a
____________ row.
A. blazing B. heated C. stormy D. smouldering
10. The young rookie scored over 20 goals in his first year, taking the whole league by __________.
A. force B. example C. storm D. assault
11. David’s hardworking when supervised; left to his own ______, he becomes lazy.
A. means B. instruments C. tools D. devices
12. The vote on the anti-bullying policy was ______ and it will be put into effect immediately.
A. unanimous B. united C. undoubted D. undivided
13. The sports complex is likely to become a ______ after the championships are over.
A. white elephant B. wild goose C. fat cat D. black sheep
14. The installation of CCTVs across the city will hopefully act as a strong ______ to anyone tempted
to commit vandalism.
A. constraint B restriction C deterrent D boundary
15. _____ martial arts he now has considerably more free time to dedicate to his new business venture.
A Dropping B. Dropped C. Having dropped D.Having been dropped
16. He went to great lengths to_______ the details of the intricate plans to his co-workers.
A. take in B. spell out C. stand up D. measure out
17. In the end, we decided to ____ the bill for the party.
A. head B. leg C. arm D. foot
18. Mary is rumored to be pregnant _____ Jay’s child.
A. to B. by C. with D. within
19. Exercise can be classified as active or passive with the former _____ effort and the latter the use of
machines or training assistants.
A. involves physical B. physics is involved C. involving physical D. physically involved
20. Jackson needs to put limits to his _____ otherwise, nothing will ever be good enough for him.
A. introspection B. procrastination C. diligence D. perfectionism
Part 2. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes. (10 points)
21. They are composed of algae and fungi which ____________ to satisfy the needs of the lichens.
(UNITY)
22. His behaviour in his father's presence caused his ____________ and his sister ended up inheriting
the whole family fortune. (INHERIT)
23. The ____________ of any manned mission to the planets will be increased if a secure fuel supply
can be found beforehand. (SURVIVAL)
24. There was a heavy ______ yesterday afternoon which completely ruined the church Garden
Party. (POUR)
25. A strong Scots background and thirty years at Carlyle Rural School had made her an expert
____________. (DISCIPLINE)
26. There was a distinct danger that the second day of the trail was going to be a/an ________ disaster.
(MITIGATE)
27. When going trekking, I tend to stagger along in silence, ____________ of energy being my main
priority. (CONSERVE)
28. When we finally reached our camp, I was overcome by relief and ______________joy. I might have
missed a lot, but I had reached my destination. (ADULTERATE)
29. I was well-aware of the ______________ of my eyes-to-the-ground climbing technique. (ABSURD)
30. His visit to De Gaulle may or may not lay_____________for a Franco-American rapprochement.
(GROUND)
Part 3. Complete each sentence with one suitable particle or preposition. Write your answers in the box
31. I was always being ticked______ for messy work.
32. They're tearing ______ these old houses to build a new office block.
33. The novelist draws heavily ______her personal experiences.
34. The hotel's restaurant facilities are second ______ none.
35. How did you come_____ these tickets? I've been trying to get some for ages.
36. Jean didn't expect to come up ______ such difficulties.
37. He's sometimes bad tempered but he's a good fellow ______ heart.
38. The boy froze in horror as the dog advanced ______him.
39. The teacher sat down and glared______ the class.
40. Hard work usually pays off______ the long run.

Part 1. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your
Gap years are quite common in many parts of the world and most young people, upon leaving
high school, feel (1)____ to one. It's plain to see how the idea would be (2)______; taking a year off
from studies to travel the world and consider your future sound like bliss. Adverts for gap years contain
(3)_____ , that read ‘The best year of my life' and ‘Total adventure, Totally rewarding', and offer the
newly (4 ______ student the opportunity to learn more about themselves while learning about the world.
Of course, a gap year shouldn't be (5)________ as just a time to party, and as attractive as it may
sound, one must not get (6) ______ in by that notion. One way to make the most of this time is to get
involved (7) some inspiring voluntary work abroad. There is more than a (8)_______ of truth in the idea
that (9)_______ in a new culture will teach you more about yourself than any classroom ever would. It
will allow you to reach a level of emotional (10)______ that will stay with you for a lifetime.
1. A permitted B. entitled C. designated D. allowed
2 A teasing B. touting C. tempting D. taunting
3. A editions B. billboards C. jingles D. captions
4. A emancipated B. liberated c. independent D. sovereign
5. A dismissed B. denied C. denounced D. dissuaded
6. A pulled B. sucked C. forced D. swept
7. A in B. on C. at D. about
8. A mark B. grade C. degree D. notch
9. A immersion B. diversion C. compulsion D. emersion
10. A wisdom B. ripeness C. adulthood D. maturity
Part 2. Read the following passage and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in
Although there are many strains of antibiotic bacteria now present in hospital wards, antibiotics
have effectively served (11)______ original purpose over the course of the past eighty years. They have
been able to treat the infections of countless individuals and saved millions of lives.
Antibiotics have changed the way in (12)______ many common diseases are
viewed. (13)______ infected with bacterial pneumonia, for instance, is no longer considered fatal.
Rather, it is viewed as a mundane infection which can be cured (14)______ a simple course of
antibiotics. The number of antibiotics available for use has also affected their impact
(15)______ society. Even if one antibiotic is ineffective (16)______ treating a disease, there are, for most
common infections, a host of (17)______ drugs that can be used to effectively cure the disease.
The development of antibiotics over the past eighty years has changed the relationship between humans
and disease. Antibiotics have given humans the power to fight back
effectively (18)______ microorganisms in a way that (19)______ have been considered impossible just
a century (20)_____.
Part 3. Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your
The 20th century was a time of remarkable change. In less than 100 years, the population went
from around 2 billion to close to 6; almost treble the number of people living in the world today as did
ten or so decades ago. Not only have our numbers exploded, but our lives have become more
intertwined than ever. For most of human history, different communities which existed lived in their
own very small worlds inside of a bigger world they knew little about. The only world that mattered
was the one you could see in your immediate surroundings. Compared with today, when even the
poorest parts of sub-Saharan Africa can boast 43 television sets per thousand people. The world view is
no longer limited to the horizon; it stretches across the planet. The global village is here. Now, let's see
how it came about.
The lessons of two world wars in quick succession signalled the dawning of a new age. Statesmen
and women saw that the way forward lay in bringing the world closer. World War Three was to be
avoided at all costs. It was believed that by making nations more interdependent, the risk of conflict
would be lessened as it would be in nobody's interest to go to war.
That desire to see the nations of the world united gave birth to the United Nations (U.N.). The
idea was to share power, responsibility and decision-making for world affairs equally between all
members of the new global village, so it is the nearest thing we have ever had to a world government.
The U.N. brings together officials from 185 member states to preserve world peace and prevent conflict,
but the dream never quite became a reality as this body has very little 'real' power - it just does a lot of
talking. Not long after the U.N. was founded, Europe started to play with the idea of uniting its own
continent. After all, it was internal conflict being the main cause of both world wars.
Line 21--- Then, in 1957, the idea took shape; it started as the European Coal and Steel
Community with six member states. Today, we know it as the European Union (E.U.)- 27 countries,
called member states, united in one large free trade area and committed to supporting each other to
make Europe a safer, more secure and more prosperous place. 15 of those members have gone a step
further and created a single currency. The system is hardly perfect, but at least the members are working
together and not trying to destroy each other anymore.
But, for all the political movement that took place, there was a revolution more powerful, yet
more simple, that changed the world - and that was the dawn of the information age. First the television
brought people from opposite sides of the globe into contact; then the Internet makes the world our
living room. Technology was the most powerful tool for uniting people in the last century, and the first
to create a truly global community. Now we can communicate with people from different 'tribes' in an
instant; debate with, learn from, understand, chat with them. But for all the change, have we made the
world any better? There's still a huge gap between the richest and the poorest nations and
misunderstanding and conflict. We may be closer and live in a global village; but there's still a lot more
to do.
21 .The number of people living in the world ______
A. has almost trebled since a decade ago.
B. has more than trebled in just under 100 years.
C. has risen to more than 6 million.
D. rose tremendously during the twentieth century.
22. What does the writer mean by saying communities used to live in worlds inside of a bigger
world?
A. In the past people knew little about faraway places.
B. In the past people only cared about themselves.
C. Most people didn't travel very much in the past.
D. Most people cared about what was happening in the bigger world.
23. What changed after the experience of two world wars?
A. Politicians felt determined to prevent another world war.
B. Information technology brought the world closer together.
C. Nobody was interested in conflict anymore.
D. Nations wanted to become more independent.
24. What is suggested about the United Nations?
A. It keeps the world peaceful and conflict-free.
B. It will become a global government.
C. It doesn't have a lot of meaningful influence.
D. It is controlled by a few big powers.
25. What does the phrase 'took shape' mean in the context of paragraph 4, line 21?
A. succeeded B. developed C. concluded D. changed
26. The E.U. is now comprised of ______
A. 6 member states. B. 15 member states.
C. 27 member states. D. 15 member and 27 associate states.
27. The arrival of new technology and the information age _______
A. seemed unimportant compared to the political changes taking place.
B. had a strong impact on the opposite side of the globe.
C. brought people together in a way that politicians could not.
D. saw people use the internet a lot in their living rooms.
28. What does the writer's tone in the final paragraph suggest?
A. He is satisfied with what has been achieved.
B. He is critical and pessimistic about the future.
C. He is confused and upset.
D. He is realistic about the situation.
29. What does the author mean by “the Internet makes the world our living room”?
A. people can access huge sources of information thanks to the Internet
B. people can enjoy the convenience brought about by the Internet
C. people can watch a lot of TV shows thanks to Internet connection
D. people can purchase furnitures for their homes on the Internet
30. What is the best title for the passage?
A. How the U.N. and E.U. came into being
B. A century of significant changes
C. Technology is the foundation for growth
D. The problem of overpopulation
Part 4: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the following questions. Write your
One misguided legacy is that intelligence suffers if children are bilingual. Research examined
whether bilinguals were ahead or behind monolinguals on IQ tests. From the 1920s to the 1960s,
research using IQ tests showed bilinguals were mentally confused as two languages in the brain
disrupted effective thinking, and having one well-developed language was superior to having two half-
developed languages.
The idea that bilinguals may have a lower IQ still exists, particularly monolinguals. However, this
early research was misconceived. First, it often gave bilinguals IQ tests in their weaker language –
usually English. Had bilinguals been tested in other languages, the result may have differed. Second,
bilinguals tended to come from impoverished New York or rural Welsh backgrounds. Monolinguals
tended to come from middle class, urban families. Working class bilinguals were often compared with
middle class monolinguals, so the results were somehow due to social class differences than language
ones.
The most recent research from Canada, the US and Wales suggests that bilinguals are equal to
monolinguals on IQ tests. When having two well-developed languages, balanced bilinguals show a
slight superiority in IQ tests compared with their counterparts, demonstrating psychological wisdom.
Take, for example, a child who can operate in either language who is likely to be ahead on IQ tests,
compared with similar (same gender, social class and age) monolinguals. Far from making people
mentally confused, bilingualism is now associated with a mild degree of intellectual superiority.
However, IQ tests probably do not measure intelligence, but a fragment of its broad concept. IQ tests
are simply paper and pencil tests where only “right and wrong” answers are allowed. Many questions
need answering. Are intelligent people those who obtain a high score? Do the only intelligent people
belong to high IQ organisations such as MENSA? Is there social, musical, military, marketing,
motoring, political intelligence? Defining what constitutes intelligent behaviour requires a personal
value judgement as to what type of behaviour, and what kind of person is of more worth.
The current state of psychological wisdom about bilinguals is that, where two languages are well-
developed, bilinguals have thinking advantages over monolinguals. To illustrate, when a child is asked
a simple question: How many uses can you think when offered a brick? Some children give two or three
answers: building walls or a house. Another child pours out ideas continuously: blocking up a rabbit
hole, breaking a window, using as a bird bath, as a plumb line, as an abstract sculpture in an art
exhibition.
Global research shows that bilinguals are more fluent, flexible, original and elaborate to open-ended
questions. The person who thinks of a few answers is a convergent thinker. They converge onto
conventional answers. People who think of different uses for unusual items (e.g. a brick, tin can,
cardboard box) are divergent thinkers who like a variety of answers and are imaginative and fluent in
thinking.
“Balanced" bilinguals may have temporary and occasionally permanent advantages over
monolinguals: increased sensitivity to communication, speedier movement through the stages of
cognitive development, and being less fixated on the sounds of words and more centred on the meaning
of words. Such ability tends to be a temporary competitive edge for bilinguals around the ages from
four to six, which means an initial head start in learning to read and to think about language.
For questions 31-36, choose the correct heading for paragraphs B-G from the list of headings below.
List of Headings 31. Paragraph B
i No single definition of intelligence 32. Paragraph C
ii Faulty testing, wrong conclusion 33. Paragraph D
iii Welsh research supports IQ testing 34. Paragraph E
iv Beware: inadequate for selling intelligence 35. Paragraph F
v International research supports bilingualism 36. Paragraph G
vi Current thought on the advantage bilinguals
have
vii Early beliefs regarding bilingualism
viii Monolinguals ahead of their bilingual peers
ix Exemplifying the bilingual advantage
Example: Paragraph A: vii
For questions 37-40, do the following statements agree with the information given?
37 Balanced bilinguals have more permanent than temporary advantages over monolinguals.
38 Often bilinguals concentrate more on the way a word sounds than on its meaning.
39 Monolinguals learn to speak at a younger age than bilinguals.
40 Bilinguals just starting school might pick up certain skills faster than monolinguals.

Part 1. Provided below is a table demonstrating information about the subway systems in six cities.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.
(20 points)
Part 2. Essay writing. (30 points)

Write an essay of about 250 words to express your opinion on the following topic:
Parents should get punishment in some ways if their children break the law.
Do you agree with this opinion? Use your own knowledge and experience to support your arguments
with examples and relevant evidence.
SAMPLE TEST 7
I. LISTENING (50 points)
Part 1. Listen to the recording and complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO
WORDS for each answer. (10 points)
CLINIC REGISTRATION FORM
Example
Name: Alan Macfee
Date of birth: 24/8/1972
Present address: Flat A, 37 Park House, Plymton
Post code: (1) _____________
Contact phone number: 0774376521
Current occupation: (2) _____________
General health
Special needs: Partially (3) _____________
Current medications: None
Medical history (last 12 months): A stay in hospital for (4) ___________, June
Injury: a broken arm
Additional notes
Requested patient should bring in: A recent (5) _____________
One bill (e.g. water)
Part 2. Listen to a recording about Cancer treatment and decide whether the following statements
are True or False. (10 points)
1._________ National Cancer Institute is a medical center for cancer treatment.
2._________ Cancer cells are mutated and never die.
3._________ Changing color is one of the symptoms of skin cancer.
4._________ One new treatment is the combination of drug and a high-fat, high protein diet.
5._________ Imunotherapy drug blocks a protein interaction in cancer cells, which makes immune cells
ignore them.
Part 3. Listen to the recording and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to
what you hear. (10 points)
1. Chris explains that one of the aims of Buy Nothing Day is to
A. shock consumers into changing their ways. B. encourage participation in alternative activities.
C. persuade shoppers to save more. D. force shops to shut for the day.
2. What does Chris say about the effect of Buy Nothing Day?
A. For many people it has lasting consequences. B. Certain products experience a fall in sales.
C. Some shops decide to offer less variety. D. Some products are reduced in price.
3. What does Chris say about Christmas presents?

A. He buys them a long time in advance. B. He argues with his family on the topic.
C. He never buys anything for his family. D. He always feels obliged to buy them.
4. For this year’s Buy Nothing Day, Chris

A. does not know yet what he will be doing. B. wants to keep his plans a surprise.
C. will not be doing anything special. D. will be playing some type of sport.
5. According to Chris, how did most shoppers feel about his stunt last year?
A. annoyed B. amused C. surprised D. pleased
Part 4. Listen to a recording about dengue fever and complete the following sentences with a word
or short phrase
- Dengue is the commonest (1) ______________ infection in humans. Over 100 m people get infected
and around 10 thousand die from it every year. It is becoming a global disease due to tourism and
migrations.
- Dengue is an RNA virus, belonging to Flavivirus family. It has four (2)_______________
- Tires, (3) ___________ and discarded bottles are places where the mosquito which transmit dengue
breeds.
- The pattern of fever in Classic Dengue Fever is called (4) _______________
- The symptoms of Classic Dengue Fever include fatigue, skin rashes, (5) ____________ pain and
backache, sometimes severe joint and muscle pains.
- Dengue hemorrhagic fever is a severe form of dengue, starting as a mild infection in (6)
_____________________. The syndrome called (7) ___________________ happens when blood
plasma leaks to the pleural space and peritoneal cavity before the patient go into (8) __________
syndrome.
- NS1 antigen testing or virus isolation can be done to facilitate the (9) ________________
- Destroying the breeding sites of mosquitos and applying (10) ___________________ are the most
effective ways to prevent dengue.
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points)

Part 1. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to complete the sentences. (20 points)
1. The basement was filled with ______ water after a night of torrential rain.
A. tap B. running C. flood D. sparkling
2. He still had _____ fat in his cheeks as he entered adolescence, which made him appear much younger
than he really was.
A. piglet B. kitten C. puppy D. bunny
3. Kim may be tiny, but she has a big appetite, so don't be surprised if she eats you out of ______ .
A. hand B. house and home C. fortune D. profits
4. Park for free, get your chairs and picnic out of the boot and ______ your eyes on one of the best views
in the South of England.
A. binge B. feast C. cast D. treat
5. Hundreds of people are sleeping ______ on the streets of the city.
A. rough B. bumpy C. sharp D. harsh
6. Jan is under huge pressure from people in his ______ group to dress differently.
A. peer B. companion C. colleague D. fellow
7. Before taking your lawyers to court, you ought to ______ legal advice.
A. desire B. search C. seek D. wish
8. It’s difficult to ______ to working in a different cultural environment from the one you’re used to.
A. alter B. adapt C. affect D. vary
9. The news of Magda’s failure was not ______ unexpected, considering how ill she had been.
A. extremely B. thoroughly C. entirely D. utterly
10. Funding from the World Bank _______ credibility to the project.
A. pays B. saves C. spends D. lends
11. No one ______ the building until the police give permission.
A. is entering B. is to enter C. entered D. has entered
12. Levels of income from the sale of handicrafts _______ increased.
A. has B. have C. had D. did
13. You’d be able to get by with _______ basic knowledge of some statistical techniques.
A. the B. Ø C. a D. an
14. The difference in price is so small ________ worth bothering about.
A. as not to be B. as to not be C. as not be D. not as to be
15. The mountain is thought by some _______ by the god Batara.
A. to be created B. to have created
C. to have been creating D. to have been created
16. ______ the zoo last night worried the zookeeper.
A. That lion escaped B. That the lion escaped
C. That the lion escaping D. The lion that escaping
17. Put all the toys away______ someone slips and falls on them.
A. provided that B. unless C. in case D. so long as
18. Were she ten years younger, she ______ the beauty contest.
A. will enter B. had entered C. would enter D. would have entered
19. He gripped his brother's arm lest he ______ by the mob.
A. be trampled B. trampled C. should be trampled D. both A & C
20. We went by sea, but I’d rather ______ by air.
A. to have gone B. had gone C. have gone D. go
Part 2. Fill in each blank with one or two prepositions/particles. (10 points)
1. Playing a sport is a good way to work _____ your appetite.
2. Our children’s meals contain a special offer this week: as much ice cream as they can eat - ______
the house.
3. I’m ______ antibiotics now and they make me feel a bit sleepy.
4. John won’t be playing for today as he’s put his back ______
5. It's important to shake ______ your day-to-day routine, or you may end up in a rut.
6. I don’t feel ______ ______ going to the gym.
7. We can fall ______ ______ a few other babysitters if Jane can't make it.
8. I'm really worried that my son has fallen ______ ______ a bad crowd—his new friends seem like real
troublemakers.
9. I have so many books that I don't know how I'll get ______ ______ each one!
10. You expect me to believe you would do this ______ ______ the kindness of your heart?
Part 3. Give the correct form of each word in the blanket to complete the following sentences. (10
points)
1. They have announced two (NOMINATE) ________ for the top army rank of major general.
2. Professor Harris had a narrow, (PEDANT) ________ approach to history that put us to sleep.
3. There was an (OMEN) ________ silence when I asked whether my contract was going to be renewed.
4. I was disappointed by the food and the (ATTEND) _________ service in that restaurant.
5. They've done an (ADMIRE) _________ job in making sure that all the supplies got through.
6. The branch of a tree knocked one of the riders(SENSE) _________ .
7. A (WIDOW) ________ is a man whose wife has died and has not married again.
8. A private detective has (EARTH) _________ some fresh evidence.
9. She felt (CLEAN) _________ of her sins after confession.
10. The mayor (DEMON) ___________ anyone who disagrees with him.
III. READING
Part 1. Read the following article and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. (15
points)
Why do we need lifelong learning?
Incentives play an important role in our decisions to learn. As we get older, the outcomes of (1)
______ in learning may not be the same as when we were younger. For example, we are less likely to
be promoted as a result of training. The type of work-related training or learning we do also changes
as we get older. Workers over 45 years old are more likely to participate in learning (2) ______ that
relate directly to their function. So they may choose to (3) ______ those technical skills directly related
to their work. By contrast, young workers are more likely to participate in training that is an investment
in their future careers.
Organizations also want to continually (4) ______ their skills base. Recently, business has (5)
______ this largely through a steady inflow of newly-(6) ______ young people onto the labour (7)
______. Traditionally, we have had a mix of those young people who bring new formal skills to the
workplace, and a small proportion of older workers who (8) ______ their experience.
What we are seeing now is a decreasing proportion of young people entering the workforce and
an increase in the proportion of older people. So, unless we change the (9) ______ of our education and
learning across life, we will see a (10) ______ in formal skills in the working population.
1. A. participation B. contribution C. attendance D. activity
2. A. actions B. activities C. acts D. modules
3. A. relearn B. promote C. restore D. upgrade
4. A. restart B. renovate C. restore D. renew
5. A. affected B. fulfilled C. achieved D. succeeded
6. A educated B. taught C. qualified D. graduated
7. A. workforce B. employment C. staff D. market
8. A. donate B. supply C. contribute D. sell
9. A. way B. method C. means D. nature
10. A. decline B. cutback C. fall D. lessening
Part 2. Read the following text and fill in one word which best fits each gap. Use only ONE word
in each gap. (15 points)
The sales
It is December. The first frost and snow of winter are upon us and, as (1) ______ drawn by some
mysterious force, otherwise sane, ordinary people are getting up at 5am to queue for hours in the cold
and dark. The sales have begun. Before Christmas!
As mere amateur bargain-hunters have always suspected, (2) ______ is a black art to sales
shopping. Cunning sales veterans, determined to avoid the horrid changing-room queue, do their trying-
on weeks in advance. Then, (3) ______ the doors are flung open, they’ll push, elbow and lock coat-
hangers with (4) ______ another to reach the object (5) ______ their desire. This Darwinian struggle is
carried out in a terribly polite way, as everybody else pretends that everybody else (6) ______ being “so
pushy”. Their treasures clutched to their breast, their cheerfulness is barely disguised, in (7) ______ of
the uncomfortable weight of armfuls of plates, dishes, sheets and towels.
The only shadow is the sight of other attractive bargains (8) ______ picked out by fellow
shoppers. People rarely do their sales shopping on their own; it’s mostly done in a threesome of mothers
and daughters. They argue about skirt lengths and bathrobe colors, but (9) ______ shines through is a
sense of unshakable warmth, support and mutual understanding. The same is true for men: they stand
outside, holding bags and bonding (10) ______ own “What are we doing here?” way. Sales shopping
certainly brings people together.
Part 3. Read the passage and choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to answer the questions. Write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
Tides are a natural phenomenon involving the alternating rise and fall in the earth’s large bodies
of water caused by the gravitational pull of the moon and the sun. The combination of these two variable
forces produces the complex recurrent cyle of the tides. Tides may occur in both oceans and seas, to a
limited extent in large lakes, the atmosphere, and, to a very minute degree, in the earth itself.
The force that generates tides results from the interaction of two forces: the centrifugal force
produced by the revolution of the earth around the center-of- gravity of the earth-moon system; and the
gravitational attraction of the moon acting upon the earth’s waters. Although the moon is only 238, 852
miles from the earth, compared with the sun’s much greater distance of 92,956,000 miles, the moon’s
closer distance outranks its much smaller mass, and thus the moon’s tide-raising force is more than
twice that of the sun.
The tide-generating forces of the moon and sun cause a maximum accumulation of the waters
of the oceans at two opposite positions on the earth’s surface. At the same time, compensating amounts
of water are drawn from all points 90 degrees away from these tidal bulges. As the earth rotates, a
sequence of two high tides and two low tides is produced each day. Successive high tides occur on an
average of 12.4 hours apart. High tide at any given location occurs when the moon is overhead and low
tide when it is at either horizon.
The highest and lowest levels of high tide, called spring tide and neap tide, each occur twice in
every lunar month of about 27.5 days. A spring tide occurs at the new moon and at the full moon, when
the moon and earth are lined up with the sun, and thus the moon’s pull is reinforced by the sun’s pull.
At spring tide, the difference between high and low tides is the greatest. A neap tide, the lowest level of
high tide, occurs when the sun- to earth direction is at right angles to the moon-to- earth direction.
When this happens, the gravitational forces of the moon and sun counteract each other, thus, the
moon’s pull is at minimum strength, and the difference between high and low tides is the least. Spring
and neap tides at any given location have a range of about 20 percent more or less, respectively, than
the average high tide.
The vertical range of tides- the difference between high and low -varies according to the size,
surface shape, and bottom topography of the basin in which tidal movement occurs. In the open water
of the central Pacific, the range is no more than about a foot; in the relatively small, shallow North Sea,
it is about 12 feet. Along the narrow channel of the Bay of Fundy in Nova Scotia, the difference between
high and low tides may reach 45 feet under spring tide conditions- the world’s widest tidal range. At
New Orleans, which is at the mouth of the Mississippi River, the periodic rise and fall of the tides varies
with the river’s stage, being about ten inches at low stage and zero at high. In every case, actual high or
low tide can vary considerably from the average.
Several factors affect tidal ranges, including abrupt changes in atmospheric pressure or
prolonged periods of extreme high or low pressure. They are also influenced by the density and volume
of seawater, variations in ocean-current velocities, earthquakes, and the growing or shinking of the
world’s glaciers. In fact, any of these factors alone can alter sea level. The greater and more rapid the
change of water level, the greater the erosive effect of the tidal action, and thus in the amount of material
transported and deposited on the shore.
1. According to the passage, the force that generates tides on the earth is
A. the gravitational pull of the earth’s core
B. the same force that generates tides on the moon
C. abrupt changes in atmospheric pressure
D. a combination of gravity and centrifugal force
2. According to the passage, the moon
A. has a greater mass than the sun
B. is farther from the earth than the sun
C. has a gravitational pull toward the sun
D. affects tides more than the sun does
3. The word bulges in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
A. currents B. ridges C. increases D. waves
4. What can be inferred from paragraph 3 about tides in different places on the earth?
A. High tide occurs at every location on the earth at the same time.
B. When it is high in some places, it is low tide in other places.
C. Some places have two tides each day, but others have only one.
D. The time between high and low tides is the same in different places.
5. A spring tide occurs at the time of the lunar month when
A. The moon’s gravitational pull at its strongest
B. The moon appears as a crescent or half-circle
C. The sun does not exert any gravitational force
D. The difference between high and low tides is the least
6. Which sentence below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in
paragraph 4? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential
information.
A. Spring tides are 20 percent more, and neap tides 20 percent less, than the average high tide in
a particular place.
B. There has been a 20 percent change in the number of spring tides and neap tides that occur at
certain locations.
C. If the location of a spring tide is known, then a neap tide in the same location will be 20
percent less.
D. 20 percent of both spring tides and neap tides always occur in the same location.
7. The author mentions the Bay of Fundy in paragraph 5 in order to
A. compare the Bay of Fundy with larger bodies of water
B. explain why a narrow channel is dangerous to ships
C. give the most extreme example of a tidal range
D. show how rivers can affect the rise and fall of tides
8. The word prolonged in paragraph 6 is closest in meaning to
A. extended B. surprising C. predicted D. dangerous
9. All of the following are mentioned as influences on the vertical range of tides EXCEPT
A. the size and shape of the body of water
B. sudden changes in atmospheric pressure
C. increasing levels of pollution in the oceans
D. Changes in the size of the world’s glaciers
10. Look at the four squares, [A], [B], [C] and [D] which indicate where the following sentence
could be added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?
Storm surges, such as the heaping up of ocean water by hurricane winds, are yet another factor.
Several factors affect tidal ranges, including abrupt changes in atmospheric pressure or prolonged
periods of extreme high or low pressure. [A] They are also influenced by the density and volume of
seawater, variations in ocean-current velocities, earthquakes, and the growing or shinking of the world’s
glaciers. [B] In fact, any of these factors alone can alter sea level. [C] The greater and more rapid the
change of water level, the greater the erosive effect of the tidal action, and thus in the amount of material
transported and deposited on the shore. [D]
A. . [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
Part 4. Read the text and do the following tasks. (15 points)
Volunteer Vacationers
A. A growing number of Americans are using their holiday time not to laze on the beach or to
frequent casinos but to restore old railways, snorkel for science and band rare birds. They are a group
of individuals known as “volunteer vacationers”, and many of them are professional people. “We’ve
seen a huge increase in interest from professionals as well as others who want short-term meaningful
vacations”, said Christine Victorino of the International Volunteer Programs Association. Her group
was formed to organize the non-profit bodies which arrange working vacations.
B. And these organizations want money as well as time; volunteers’ contributions typically top
US $1,500 for one week, and the airfare is extra. Altruism doesn’t come cheap, but these vacations are
partially tax-deductible, provided the volunteers put in at least five eight-hour days.
C. “If someone had told me a few years ago that I’d pay to pick weeds on a tropical island, I
would have told them they were crazy,” said Leonard Stone, a retired dentist from Chicago. Yet Stone
and his wife each paid to go on a week-long Oceanic Society expedition to Midway Island in the Pacific
Ocean. They worked on a tiny island helping ornithologists look after albatross nesting areas and
counting chicks. Like most sites where volunteers work, the conditions were Spartan; the volunteers
lived in an army barracks dating from World War II. But Stone, who is an enthusiastic bird watcher,
found it a worthwhile experience. He thoroughly enjoyed his daily access to the rare birds and the
lectures and films about wildlife arranged by the Society.
D. Some volunteers are motivated by a desire to lend a helping hand to the developing world.
In the 16 years it’s been in business, Global Volunteers has sent thousands of people all over the world
on projects ranging from constructing a children’s home in India to looking after orphans in Romania.
Like other such organizations, Global Volunteers has trimmed the longer trips to accommodate
professionals’ busy schedules, and added less-strenuous options for retirees, who now make up one-
third of its clients. Steve Rosenthal of Cross-cultural Solutions places vocationers on 21-day projects.
Volunteers help women in India start small businesses or teach English to children in Ghana.
E. Rosenthal said that the number of students, professionals and retirees signing up for his trips
has consistently doubled over the past five years. Many people agree that this seems to indicate a rising
tide of disillusionment among Americans with their materialistic way of life. Once he explains that most
of program fee funds community-based organizations in the host countries, the volunteers are quite
happy to pay for a working holiday. “I’d rather be paying my vacation money to a non-profit company
which is helping poor people than to a hotel corporation,” said Ron Cooke, who is a veteran volunteer
vacationer. He and his wife have counted birds in Costa Rica and trapped ocelots in Mexico. Cooke’s
last trip was an eight-day vacation helping the environmental group Earthwatch in the Caribean. “We
spent part of each day snorkeling and counting shellfish”. They also interviewed fishermen and made
a survey of seashells, while camping on a Dominican Republic beach.
F. Not all the vacationers consider the vacations work; some of the programs are designed for
hobbyists, or for people who want to learn a new skill. For example, each summer railway enthusiasts
join in the ongoing restoration of a historic narrow-gauge railway in the southwest US. A special group
of volunteer vacationers work on organic farms. In return, they learn about organic farming and get to
eat a lot of healthy food.
Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. There are more headings
than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them. You may use any heading more than once.
List of headings 1. Paragraph B…….…………………..
i. The Psychology of Volunteer Vacationers 2. Paragraph C…….…………………..
ii. Paying to work 3. Paragraph D…….…………………..
iii. Benefits for Volunteers 4. Paragraph E…….…………………..
iv. Helping Poor Countries 5. Paragraph F…….…………………..
v. Environmental Tourism
vi. Vacations to Learn
vii. The Cost of Volunteering
viii. The Attraction of Non-profit Bodies
ix. Holidays with a Difference
Example: Paragraph A…….……..ix

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in the passage? WRITE:
YES if the statement agrees with the information
NO if the statement contradicts the information
6. All volunteers enjoy their vacations.
7. There is a trend to keep volunteer vacations short.
8. People do not save money by volunteering.
9. The only attraction of volunteering is the chance to help others.
10. Non-profit associations are undermining regular tourism companies.
IV. WRITING (50 points)

Part 1. 20 points
The tables below provide information about the consumption and production of potatoes in five parts of the world
in 2006.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.
You should write at least 150 words.
Part 2. 30 points
Write an essay of about 250 words on the following topic:
Some people support the idea that History should become a core subject at highschool while others think that History
should be an optional subject.
What is your opinion on this issue?
SAMPLE TEST 8
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to the recording and complete the form below. Write NO MORE
THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in the
GO-TRAVEL BOOKING FORM

Name: (1) _________________________
Source of enquiry: saw ad in (2) ___________________ Magazine
Holiday reference: (3) _____________________
Number of people: 3
Preferred departure date: (4) _____________________
Type of insurance: (5) _____________________
Part 2. You will hear a radio interview with the gardening experts Jed and Helena Stone. For
questions 6-10, choose the answer (А, В, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10
pts)
6. How does Helena feel about the use of Jed’s name for their joint business?
A. occasionally frustrated that her contribution goes unnoticed
B. amused that they have a name people tend to remember
C. appreciative of the respect that the name has brought her
D. irritated by the fact that Jed is more of a celebrity than she is
7. What is Jed’s attitude to his public profile?
A. He likes the fact that complete strangers often want to talk to him
B. He’s unhappy that it prevents him doing everyday activities
C. He enjoys it more now than he did when he was younger
D. He’s proud of the way it reflects his achievements
8. How did Helena feel about her work on The Travel Show?
A She would have enjoyed it more in different circumstances
B It was convenient for her to be away from the house then
C It was a welcome alternative to manual work
D She felt obliged to do it at that particular time
9. What gave Jed the incentive to make a jewel garden?
A. He wanted to realise a long-held ambition
B. He had led people to believe that it already existed
C. He wanted to show pictures of it at a gardening event
D. He was inspired by the illustrations at a talk he attended
10. Jed says that, for him, the name ‘jewel garden’ is
A. a reminder of the value of creativity
B. an appropriate one for something so beautiful
C. a positive way of combining both past and present
D. a way of explaining his philosophy of design to people
Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to an explanation about 5G and decide these statements are TRUE
(T) or FALSE (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 pts)
11. 5G is a defined network which can replace cables completely by operating on the cloud only.
12. With the help of 5G, the Internet of Things is likely to grow threefold by 2025.
13. Until 2025, the majority of people will start to use 5G, which will have surpassed 3G and 4G by
then.
14. In the UK, 3G and 4G networks were quite cheap because they could be operated on the country’s
radio spectrum.
15. It is predicted that by 2025 almost a quarter of all mobile connections in the U.S. will be 5G.
Part 4. You will hear a radio programme about the deforestation in South America’s Amazon. For
questions 16-25, complete the missing information with a word or short phrase (no more than three
words). (20 pts)
16. An increase in agriculture and ______ and the building of roads and dams are blamed to bring about
the deforestation.
17. ______ methods at the pre-Columbian period could offer valuable lessons for today.
18. A research was conducted on a coastal wetland area where ancient ______ and canals remain
unchanged.
19. It was erroneously believed that a great deal of fire was used by pre-Columbian farmers to manage
______.
20. The result of the study showed that raised-field farmers ______ to improve agriculture production.
21. Periods without fires during the time when land was out of use in farming were valuable for
rebuilding ______ matter and preserving soil structure.
22. This fire-free method contributed to turning the seasonally ______, or grassland, into productive
cropland.
23. Moreover, this large, cultivated elevation provided better drainage and soil aeration and also held
______ during the dry season.
24. However, this fire-free method would have been ______ with ninety-five percent of the native people
died from the diseases spread by the Europeans.
25. ______ method imposed a threat to the rainforest by the European colonizers.
II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR

Part 1. For questions 26-45, choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes
each of the following sentences. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 pts)
26. You can't believe a word that woman says. She is a ____________ liar.
A. dedicated B. devoted C. committed D. compulsive
27. When you come down the hill, do drive slowly because it is not ____ obvious where the turning is.
A. immediately B. directly C. instantaneously D. quite
28. The driver consumed enough alcohol to make him ____________.
A. pass off B. pass out C. pass for D. pass up
29. Sarah and I ________ reserved the room in the same hotel. She was very surprised to see me there.
A. practically B. intentionally C. deliberately D. coincidentally
30. It was a fair result because we played the game ____________ the rules.
A. on account of B. due to C. according to D. apart from
31. Fiona didn’t lie but she did give rather ____________ a picture of the situation.
A. defaced B. distorted C. disfigured D. disguised
32. As Michelle told me the story, tears ____________ up in her eyes.
A. welled B. raised C. filled D. mounted
33. His past behaviour had a definite _________ on what the judges decided.
A. bearing B. weight C. decision D. conclusion
34. On cloudy nights it is not possible to see the stars with ____________ eye.
A. naked B. bare C. flesh D. pure
35. He seemed rather ____________ .Was he upset about something?
A. unsocial B. apathetic C. passive D. subdued
36. The museum is just a short walk from here. _____ you go, it will take you no more than ten minutes.
A. No matter how B. Wherever C. No matter the way D. Whichever the way
37. We took the shortcut round the market ______ late for class this morning.
A. so that we will not be B. lest we be not
C. for fear that we should be D. in order that we not be
38. Susana is managing to attend night school without allowing ______ with her day job.
A. that it interferes B. interfering C. the interference D. it to interfere
39. The lecture was so lengthy that the students started to ______ and daydream.
A. come off B. put off C. turn off D. get off
40. My parents always had a happily _______ attitude to my staying out late in the evening.
A. cold- blooded B. long- suffering C. easy- going D. thick- skinned
41. I am in a _______ as how to use this CD Rom.
A. loss B. difficulty C. quandary D. mind- game
42. Many of Lan’s friends like Korean soap operas, but she finds it not to her ______.
A. Likes B. liking C. likeness D. likelihood
43. “If they asked you to help them move next week, ______?”
A. would you B. didn’t they C. did you D. would they
44. Some teenagers just simply run _____ to their parents’ expectations as a way to express their identity.
A. against B. opposite C. contrary D. counter
45. He was _______ devastated by the news.
A. utterly B. extremely C. deeply D. immensely
Part 2. For questions 46-55, complete each of the following sentences with suitable preposition(s)
or particle(s). Write your answer in the boxes provided. (10 pts)
46. The company has been building _______a large cash reserve to buy high-tech start-ups.
47. Felix grasps ______ any opportunity to advance himself.
48. Now the bank has withdrawn support, I don't see how they can come _______ this downturn.
49. She woke at midnight with the solution, and scribbled it _______ on a notepad.
50 They had a meeting to plan _______ a new strategy.
51. Since all three companies will profit from the development, they all should chip
________ towards its cost.
52. Your Dalmatian is very familiar _____ me. are you sure I haven't treated him before?
53- She went to the conference to report _______ advances in veterinary surgery.
54- We're leaning. _______an operation for Biggles on the advice of our vet.
55. The group fell _________ when two or three members left and no one replaced them.
Part 3. For questions 56-65, fill each gap with the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your
answer in the boxes provided. (10 pts)
A. Put the correct form of the words in brackets.
56. The careless driver was __________________about his bad behavior, which made all the witnesses
fly into a rage. (APOLOGIZE)
57. The pregnant woman is looking at the collection of __________________clothes. (MATERRIAL)
58. There was a/an______________change in the tone of her voice. Almost nobody could recognize it.
(PERCEIVE)
59. The slight __________________in his left hand was corrected by surgery. (FORM)
60. We are trying to create our own computerized __________________. (DATA)
61. In my opinion, this book is just __________________rubbish. (INTELLECT)
62. The company has established total __________________over its rivals. (SUPREME)
63. Bard is a very good employee, and is very __________________ (CONSCIENCE)
64. He achieved __________________for failing a drug test after winning an Olympic final.
(NOTORIOUS)
65. Before enrolling on a course, you should first ensure that it has been __________________by an
officially recognized body. (VALID)

Part 1. For questions 66-75, read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits
each gap. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 pts)
A desert is a special region where only certain kinds of plants and animals can survive. All deserts
have very little water. This means that only animals and plants that can (66) _____water for long periods
of time can exist in the desert.
Plants in the deserts are particularly (67) _____to the dry and hot environment. One well-known
desert plant is the cactus. (68) _____many desert plants, this plant has very tiny leaves. As plants lose
most of their water through their leaves, the small leaves of the cactus help to cut down water
evaporation. There are some desert plants that do not have leaves (69) _____.
Some desert plants survive by avoiding the dry season (70) _____. During the dry season, this
plant remains a seed and does not (71) _____from the soil at all. When the rains come, this seed would
grow very quickly into a plant. It would bloom rapidly and then (72) _____its seeds before the dry
season returns.
Desert animals have also learnt to adapt well to life in this region. The camel, for example, (73)
_____well in the desert because water can be (74) _____in its body. Other desert animals include rodents
such as mice. These animals need very little water as they can get all the water they (75) _____from
their food.
66. A. do without B. keep off C. stay away D. give up
67. A. convenient B. adjusted C. regulated D. adapted
68. A. As B. Similar C. Like D. Just as
69. A. at all B. as well C. in all D. either
70. A. totally B. entirely C. altogether D. wholly
71. A. rise B. arise C. awake D. emerge
72. A. scatter B. throw C. fling D. cast
73. A. exists B. survives C. subsists D. remains
74. A. stocked B. kept C. stored D. contained
75. A. demand B. require C. request D. ask for
Part 2. For questions 76-85, fill each gap in the passage below with ONE appropriate word. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 pts)
Ten thousand years ago, as the last ice age (76) ______ to a close, sea levels around the world
were far lower than they are today. Much of the land under both the North Sea to the east of Britain
and the English Channel which now (77) ______France and Britain was part of a huge region of forests
and grassy plains, (78) ______herds of horses and reindeer roamed free and people lived in villages by
the lakes and rivers. Then the climate gradually became warmer (a phenomenon certainly not confined
to our own age!) and the water (79) ______ in glaciers and ice caps was released. This ancient land was
submerged in the resulting deluge and all that remains to tell us that it was once lush and verdant – and
inhabited – is the occasional stone tool, harpoon or mammoth tusk brought up from the seabed by
fishing boats.
Now the development of advanced sonar technology, known as bathymetry, is (80) ______ it
possible to study this flooded landscape in extraordinary detail. A special echo sounder is fixed to the
bottom of a survey vessel, and it makes wide sweeps across the seabed. (81) _______ previous
technology has only been able to produce two-dimensional images, bathymetry can now deploy
computers, satellite-positioning equipment and special software to create accurate and remarkably
detailed maps. For the first time, an ancient riverbed leaps out of the three-dimensional image, complete
with rocky ledges (82) ______ up from the bottom of the valley. The sites of prehistoric settlements can
now be pinpointed, and it is also possible to see in stunning detail the sunken shipwrecks that litter this
part of the seabed.
According to archaeologist Dr Linda Andrews, this technological development is of huge (83)
______ . ‘We now have the ability to map the seabed as accurately as we can map dry land,’ she says.
She is, (84) ______, scathing about the scale of financial support for such projects. ‘We have better
images of Mars and Venus than of two-thirds of our own planet! Britain is an interesting case. It’s been
a maritime nation for much of its history, and the sea has had (85) ______ a massive influence on it,
and in view of this, it’s an absolute scandal that we know so little about the area just off the country’s
shores!’
Part 3. For questions 86-95, read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15pts)
The Formation of the Rocky Mountains
The Rocky Mountains of North American extend 5,000 kilometers from New Mexico all the
way up through Canada. Elevations along the range are about 1,500 meters along the lower plains to
4,399 meters at the highest peak, and widths range from 120 to 650 kilometers. The natural beauty,
abundant wildlife, and fresh water of the ranges have attracted human inhabitants for the last 10,000 to
12,000 years.
The history of the Rocky Mountains in the pre-Cambrian era, a half-billion years ago. While
this is long before the Rocky Mountains themselves began forming, their hard core rocks – consisting
of granites, schists, gneisses, quartzites, and slates – were produced in ancient ranges. Erosion
eventually leveled these mountain ranges, and during the Paleozoic and Mesozoic Eras, about 75 to
540 million years ago, the ocean invaded the land and deposited sediments some 20,000 feet deep. They
included layers of sandstones, shales, and limestones.
At the close of the Mesozoic Era, during the Cretaceous period about 75 million years ago, the
growth of the Rockies began. There was a tremendous squeezing that uplifted the region in a great series
of folds, like wrinkles in a carpet. After the arching, erosion carved away at the mountains. Some 10,000
feet of sedimentary rock were washed off the top of the arch, exposing the hard rock core. The erosional
resistance of these hard, crystalline rocks led to the formation of the high peaks that still exist today. On
the flanks of the core the sedimentary beds sloped outward. Great quantities of sand and clay were
spread out on the bordering plains and plateaus. This was only one of the cycles of upheaval and erosion
that occurred in the region.
Near the end of the Eocene period, about 40 million years ago, the Rockies again rose several
thousand feet. Volcanoes erupted, most extensively in the Yellowstone Plateau and the Absaroka
Range. As the mountains were formed, streams eroded their sides, and thousands of feet of sediment
spread out on plains and plateaus. Just before the Pleistocene period, about one million years ago, the
region again uplifted. But once again, the mountains began to be worn away as soon as they rose.
Streams flowed faster and began to cut canyons, and rivers ate deep gorges through the ranges. The
most recent geological event of note was the “Ice Age” during the Pleistocene Epoch, 1 million to
10,000 years ago. The high peaks of the Sangre de Cristo Mountains supported numerous small glaciers
and snows accumulated on the sides of the mountains. These glaciers carved a typical collection of
alpine landforms, such as cirques, horns, arêtes, and cols. Lower down in the glaciated valleys, various
kinds of till and stratified sediments accumulated to form Moraines. Most of the glacial deposits and
landforms present today date from the last glacial phase, known in the Rocky Mountains as the Pinedale
Glaciation of Pinedale Stage. During this stage, over 90% of the Yellowstone National Park was
covered in ice. The glaciated terrains formed and moved down the valleys, thereby further eroding the
mountains into bold and dramatic forms.
There was even a “little ice age” from about 1550 to 1860 – a few centuries of glacial advance –
that made its mark on the mountains recently. For example, the Agassiz and Jackson glaciers in Glacier
National Park reached their most forward positions by around 1860. The incessant sculpturing of the
Rockies by rain, wind, and ice continues even today.
(Source: Cracking the TOEFL iBT 2019 Edition)
86. The purpose of paragraph 1 is to demonstrate that
A. the Rocky Mountains have not been fully explored until recently
B. most of the Rocky Mountains are not very high
C. there are many types of mountains in the Rocky Mountains
D. human inhabitants are destroying the natural beauty of the Rocky Mountains
87. The word They in the passage refers to
A. sediments B. eras C. years D. mountain ranges
88. According to the passage, all of the following types of rock would be found at the core of the Rocky
Mountains EXCEPT
A. gneiss B. cirque C. slate D. granite
89. What happened when oceans covered the Rocky Mountain region?
A. The mountains were washed away. B. Quartzite rocks were formed.
C. Erosion shifted the rocks. D. Deep sediment covered the land.
90. The word “ate” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. raised B. buried C. erased D. dug
91. The upward growth of the Rocky Mountains began to occur for the first time during which period?
A. Pre-Cambrian B. Paleozoic C. Eocene D. Cretaceous
92. The plains and plateaus that surround the Rocky Mountains were covered with
A. material washed down from the mountains
B. hard core rocks such as slate
C. densely packed volcanic deposits
D. soil rich in organic matter
93. The passage indicates that some of the most dramatic-looking parts of the Rocky Mountains were
formed by
A. volcanic eruptions B. rivers C. glaciers D. the ocean
94. Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage as a whole?
A. A mountain range serves to illustrate a widespread geological process.
B. The history of a geological feature is discussed in chronological order.
C. Two time periods in the history of a mountain range are contrasted.
D. The effects of a number of geological periods on North America are compared.
95. The phrase “of note” in the passage is closest in meaning to
A. catastrophic B. distinct C. important D. ancient
Part 4. For questions 96-105, read the text and do the tasks followed. Write your answers in the
Leisure time
A. A raft of forecasts has been made in the recent decade, predicting the decline in the number
of working hours coupled with a consequent increase in leisure time. It was estimated that the leisure
revolution would take place by the turn of the last cent my with hours devoted to work railing to 25-30
per week, This reduction hits failed to materialize, but the revolu¬tion has, nonetheless, arrived.
B. Over the past 30 to 41 years, spending on leisure has witnessed a strong increase, Accord¬ing
to the annual family expenditure survey published in 1935 by the Office for National Statistics, the
average household in the United Kingdom spent more on leisure than food, housing and transport for
the very first time, and the trend is also set to continue up¬wards well into the present century.
C. The survey, based on a sample of 6,500 households showed, that the days are long gone when
the average family struggled to buy basic foods. As recently as 1969, family spending on food was
approximately one third compared to 17% now. Twelve years later, there was a noticeable shift towards
leisure with the percentage of household spending on leisure increasing to 9%, and that on food
declining to 26%.
D. The average household income in the UK in 1999 was £460 per week before tax, and average
spending was £352.20. Of the latter sum, £59.70 was spent on leisure and £58.90 on food. On holidays
alone, family expenditure was 6%, while in 1969 the proportion spent on holidays was just 2%. And
whereas the richest 10% lashed out 20% of their income in 1999 on leisure, the poorest spent 12%.
E. Among the professional and managerial classes, working hours have increased and, overall
in the economy, record numbers of people are in employment. As people work more, the appetite for
leisure activities has grown to compensate for the greater stress in life. The past 5 years alone have seen
the leisure business expand by 25% with a change in emphasis to short domestic weekend breaks and
long-haul short breaks to exotic destinations in place of long holidays. In the future, it is expected that
people will jump from one leisure activity to another in complexes catering for everyone’s needs with
gyms, cinemas, cafes, restaurants, bars and internet facilities all under one roof. The leisure complexes
of today will expand to house all the leisure facilities required for the leisure age.
F. Other factors fueling demand for leisure activities are rising prosperity, increasing longevity
and a more active elderly population. Hence, at the forefront of leisure spending are not just young or
professional classes. The 1999 family expenditure survey showed that the 64 to 75-year-old group spend
a higher proportion of their income on leisure than any other age group. The strength of the “grey
pound” now means that elderly people are able to command more respect and, thus, attention in the
leisure market.
G. And the future? It is anticipated that, in the years to come, leisure spending will account for
between a third to a half of all household spending. Whilst it is difficult to give exact figures, the leisure
industry will certainly experience a long period of sustained growth. Working hours are not expected
to decrease, partly because the 24-hour society will need to be serviced; and secondly, because more
people will be needed to keep the service/leisure industries running.
H. In the coming decades, the pace of change will accelerate, generating greater wealth at a faster
rate than ever before. Surveys show that this is already happening in many parts of Europe. The south-
east of England, for example, is now supposedly the richest area in the EEC. The “leisure pound” is
one of the driving forces behind this surge. But, sadly, it does not look as if we will have the long leisure
hours that we had all been promised.
Questions 29-35
The reading passage has 8 paragraphs. Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the
list of headings below.
Write the appropriate numbers (i-xiv) in Boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet. One of the headings has been
done for you as an example. You may use any heading more than once. There are more headings than
paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.
96. Paragraph A List of headings
97. Paragraph B i. Leisure spending goes up strongly
98. Paragraph C ii. Decreasing unemployment
99. Paragraph E iii. False forecasts
100. Paragraph F iv. Spending trends – leisure v food
101. Paragraph G v. More affordable food
102. Paragraph H vi. Leisure as an answer to stress
vii. Looking forward
viii. The leisure revolution – working hours
reduced to 25
ix. The “grey pound” soars
x. Rising expenditure
xi. The elderly leisure market
xii. National Statisticians
xiii. Work, stress, and leisure all on the up
xiv. Money yes, leisure time no
Example: Paragraph D Answer: iv
Questions 8 - 10
Do the statements below agree with the information in the reading passage? In Boxes 8 -10, write:
YES, if the statement agrees with the information in the passage
NO, if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
NOT GIVEN, if there is no information about the statement in the passage
Example: In recent decades, an increase in working hours was predicted. Answer: No.
103. At the turn of the last century, weekly work hours dropped to 25.
104. Spending on leisure has gone up over the past three decades.
105. 24-hour society will have a negative effect on people’s attitudes to work.

Part 1. The graph below shows the demand for electricity in England during typical days in autumn
and spring. The pie chart shows how electricity is used in an average English home. Summarize the
information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.
(20 pts)
Part 2. Write an essay of 200-250 words about this topic. (30 pts)
Young people are increasingly choosing to eliminate meat from their diets and become vegetarians.
Do you think this is a good idea? Does it bring more benefits or drawbacks?
SAMPLE TEST 9
Part 1. You are going to hear a person calling an accommodation agency about an apartment she
wants to rent. Listen and complete the form. Write no more than THREE WORDS AND/ OR
NUMBER for each answer (10 pts)
GOOD MOVES ACCOMODATION AGENCY
Call taken by: Ben
Name: (1) ……………………..
Heard about us from: family member
Type of accommodation preferred: (2)……………………..
Preferred location: Want to be close to (3)……………………..
Price: Maximum: (4) £…………………….. per person (including bills)
Additional notes:
I suggested flat 3 at (5)…………………….. Road in Bampton.
I will send further details to customer by emails.
Part 2. You will hear two psychologists talking about modern childhood. For questions 1 – 5, choose
the answer (A, B, C, or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 pts)
1. What does Daniel imply about past images of childhood?
A. They are entirely fictional.
B. They all show the misfortunes of childhood.
C. They are diverse.
D. They represent the innocence of childhood.
2. When mentioning the children throwing bags on the bus-stop, Louise is _____.
A. critical B. amused C. angry D. sarcastic
3. According to Daniel, ______.
A. children are failing to learn adequate social skills
B. children do not eat a balanced diet
C. children are becoming involved in political scandals
D. children are far more sociable than they used to be
4. Louise believes that ________.
A. parents are no longer interested in their children
B. children should study harder to pass school exams
C. modern life has a negative effect on children
D. most parents are emotionally unstable
5. Daniel implies that _______.
A. children would be happier if their parents taught them at home
B. machines are more of a menace to children than people are
C. teachers aren’t helping children to be competitive enough
D. most teenage problems stem from an unbalanced diet
Part 3. Listen to the extract of a television travel program, and then decide whether each of the
following statements is true or false. (10 pts)
Statements T F
1. A British passport holder has to pay $10 for a visa at the border of Guatemala.
2. A new limit of seven days will be imposed on tourist visas to visit Burma.
3. Tourists arriving in Burma will not be allowed to visit the capital, Rangoon.
4. At the moment, the only place you can obtain a visa to visit Burma is in Bangkok.
5. Not all resorts on the Costa del Sol will be offering reductions for children next
year.
Part 4. You will hear someone giving a talk about careers in the fire service. For questions 1-10, complete the
sentences with a word or short phrase. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer in the
space provided. (20 pts)
Careers in the Fire Service
1. Like all her colleagues, Debbie is involved in ________________ as well as dealing with emergencies.
2. Debbie explains that most emergency calls turn to be ________________.
3. Debbie’s first experience of a big fire was when a ________________ near London caught light.
4. At her first big fire, Debbie was positioned on a piece of equipment called a ________________
5. After a major fire, the firefighters meet for what’s known as a________________.
6. Debbie is especially useful when someone is needed to work in a ___________ in an emergency.
7. To become a firefighter, Debbie had to undergo tests of fitness, _____________ and strength.
8. Debbie blames an unfair____________ for preserving women from joining the service in the past.
9. There are no allowances made for female applicants; it’s all down to their ___________ in the tests.
10. Finally, Debbie reminds us that the job is not as_____________ as it might appear on TV.
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 POINTS)

Part 1. Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each sentence below. (20 pts)
1. She used her weekly column in the local newspaper as a ______ for her political views.
A. means B. vehicle C. vessel D. passage
2. ______ to have stolen credit cards, he has been investigated for days.
A. Suspecting B. Having suspected C. Suspected D. To be suspected
3. ______ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.
A. That we refer to B. What we refer to C. To which we refer D. What do we refer to
4. Writing rhymes for birthday cards is really easy. It’s money for old ______.
A. boot B. rubbish C. bread D. rope
5. We all decreed that ______.
A. there be an end to their quarrel B. their quarrel should put an end to
C. they ended their quarrel then D. their quarrel be coming to an end.
6. The chairman quickly ______ rumours that he was planning to resign.
A. dispelled B. repelled C. expelled D. compelled
7. John: “It’s a public holiday, so everything will be closed.” - Alice: “______.”
A. So far, so good B. Mmm, that figuresC. Forget it D. That’s an idea
8. The company is looking for a person having a(n) ______ knowledge of the Asian market.
A. intimate B. detail C. undivided D. whole
9. If she spent five years in Paris, ______ her French is so bad?
A. any old how B. any how C. how on earth D. how come
10. On the island ______ the only representation of the islands' handicraft.
A. remains B. does it remain C. did it remain D. remain it
11. Their children have been working their _____ to the bone so they need to take a vacation this year.
A. fingers B. arms C. brains D. nails
12. I _____ him that he wasn’t telling the truth but he insisted he was.
A. brought it up B. laid it off C. set it on D. put it to
13. She's such a ______ of strength that everyone relies on her in a crisis.
A. tower B. pillar C. post D. support
14. It is far too easy to lay the blame ______ on the shoulders of the management.
A. flatly B. willingly C. squarely D. perfectly
15. Going to the unemployment office and having to wait there for hours is a ______ experience.
A. soul-destroying B. heart-stopping C. power-sharing D. thought-provoking
16. ______ a language family is a group of languages with a common origin and similar vocabulary,
grammar, and sound systems.
A. Linguists call it B. It is called by linguists
C. What linguists call D. What do linguists call
17. I’ve yet ________ a person as Theo.
A. to meet as infuriating B. to have met such infuriating
C. been meeting as infuriating D. been meeting such infuriating
18. It seems too good to be true. Are you sure this guy’s on the _________?
A. flat B. wagon C. level D. town
19. I am fully prepared for my interview and I am confident that I can answer any questions they may
care to _______ me.
A. throw at B. drop on C. slide to D. roll to
20. Who needs more than the _________necessities of life?
A. plain B. pure C. bare D. sole
Part 2. Complete each gap in the sentences below with a correct preposition or adverb particle. (10 pts)
1. Parents should teach their children very early not to fool ______ with matches.
2. The airline company laid ______ the regulations that a passenger can take kilos of carry-on luggage.
3. The law is always reactive and lagging ______ social developments.
4. On arriving at the campsite, they dropped their packs and flaked ______ on the ground.
5. How would you set ______ organising a conference for 200 people?
6. The work at our office usually piles ______ at the end of the year.
7. When the company went _____, some of our workers left voluntarily.
8. They squared _____ to each other, ready to resolve their differences through violence.
9. We had a hard time of persuading him _____ changing his mind about the weekend plans.
10. I don’t hold _____ the theory that punishment alters behaviour for the better.
Part 3. Supply the correct form of the words given in brackets to complete each of the sentences below. (10 pts)
1. I am sorry to have bothered you - I was under the (APPREHEND) __________ that you wanted me
to call you.
2. I’ve never met such a strong man. His energy seems (EXHAUST) __________.
3. We should arrive two days early in order to (CLIMATE) __________.
4. Leaving the orphanage, we felt (ACCOUNT) __________ cheerful.
5. Each classroom in my school has been (FIT) __________ with a high-quality projector.
6. Yesterday Tom made a (HARD) __________ speech in the press.
7. The (ELECTRIC) __________ of agriculture is very necessary for all developing countries.
8. He also initially said reservations had been made by his assistants and that his accountant may
have (ERROR) ______ booked some personal expenses as work-related.
9. Enslaved families and their lawyers spoke publicly against the (HUMAN) ______ of slavery.
10. City officials quickly tried to (SOCIAL) ______ that explosion from any broad terrorism plot.

Part 1: Read the passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. (15 pts)
NOTHING IS IMPOSSIBLE
Law firm Matthews and Reynolds is a (1) _____ example of a business using art to revamp its
public image. The firm hired an advertising agency called Eyeopener to carry out a rebranding (2) _____
and gave the agency (3) _____ rein to take the company by the scruff of the neck and effect a major
makeover. The firm wanted (4) _____, contemporary imagery which would symbolise an innovative,
forward-thinking business.
(5) _____, the firm now has a new logo, and all its advertising material features clever modern
images which are (6) _____ on the eye. Director Alan Ross comments: ‘The images Eyeopener (7)
_____ say a lot about our approach, size and experience. And we were delighted with the advertising
campaign they subsequently (8) _____ using a stylish, sophisticated approach with a touch of humour here
and there.’
Public response to the rebranding has been excellent, and what appeared to be a (9) _____ old law
firm has been given a new lease of (10) _____ as an adventurous and confident concern.
1. A. bright B. polished C. shining D. glossy
2. A. routine B. exercise C. transaction D. function
3. A. extra B. complete C. wide D. free
4. A. smart B. clumsy C. blurry D. waxy
5. A. In the end B. After all C. As a result D. In total
6. A. easy B. attractive C. delightful D. agreeable
7. A. stood up for B. came up with C. got through to D. fell back on
8. A. portrayed B. devised C. imagined D. drafted
9. A. dusty B. tedious C. murky D. monotonous
10. A. fortune B. energy C. time D. life
Part 2. For questions 1-10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 pts)
The psychology of retailing has come to rely on highly sophisticated techniques. Over and
(1) ________ the design of the shops and the packaging of the merchandise, clever positioning of goods
also ensures that the natural flow of people takes them to (2) _________ and every section in a shop.
Customers are led gently, but at the same time with deadly accuracy, towards the merchandise in (3)
________ a way as to maximise sales.
Manufacturers compete for the right to have their products displayed at the most effective level.
In supermarkets, there is a crucial section in the tiers of vertical shelving somewhere between waist
height and eye (4)________, where we are most likely to take note of a brand. In the old days, when we
went into a shop, we (5) ________our way up to the counter, behind which would be the shopkeeper
and virtually all of the merchandise, and were served (6) ______ what we wanted. Those days are (7)
_______ and truly over.
Today, we are used to serving (8) _______ in supermarkets; products are laid before us as enticingly as
possible, and impulse purchases are encouraged (9) _______ a major part of the exercise. As a result of
this, we, as shoppers, have to keep our (10) ________ about us to resist the retailers’ ploys.
Part 3. Read the following passages and choose the best answer to each question. Write your answers in the
space provided. (15 pts)
Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirely. Instead, critics of
globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The debate over
globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its advantages
can grow while its problems can be solved.
On one side of this debate are those who stress the benefits of removing barriers to international
trade and investment, and allowing capital to be allocated more efficiently and giving consumers greater
freedom of choice. With free-market globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded from where
they are plentiful (the rich countries) to where they are most needed (the developing countries).
Consumers can benefit from cheaper products because reduced tariffs make goods produced at low cost
from faraway places cheaper to buy. Producers of goods gain by selling to a wider market. More
competition keeps sellers on their toes and allows ideas and new technology to spread and benefit
others.
On the other side of the debate are critics who see neoliberal policies as producing greater poverty,
inequality, social conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most
developed nations- the United States, Germany, and Japan- succeeded not because of free trade but
because of protectionism and subsidies. They argue that the more recently successful economies of
South Korea, Taiwan, and China all had strong state-led development strategies that did not follow
neoliberalism. These critics think that government encouragement of “infant industries”- that is,
industries that are just beginning to develop- enables a country to become internationally competitive.
Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow and outflow
of money from speculative investors must be limited to prevent bubbles. These bubbles are characterized
by the rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid up domestic stock markets and property values. When the
economy cannot sustain such expectations, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money
out of the country. These bubbles have happened repeatedly as liberalization has allowed speculation
of this sort to get out hand, such as in Indonesia, Malaysia, and Thailand in 1997 and since then in
Argentina, Russia, and Turkey. According to critics, a strong active government is needed to assure
stability and economic development.
Protests by what is called the antiglobalization movement are seldom directed against
globalization itself but rather against abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The
question raised by nongovernmental organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gathering is
whether globalization will result in a rise of living standards or a race to the bottom as competition takes
the form of lowering living standards and undermining environmental regulation.
1. The passage makes it clear that most of those who oppose globalization __________.
A. blame it for everything B. only blame part of it
C. support neoliberal policies D. ignore the rights of workers
2. The word “unimpeded” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. rapid B. unchallenged C. free D. limitless
3. It is stated in the passage that supporters of globalization emphasise the benefits of __________.
A. limiting consumers’ freedom of choice B. imposing trade barriers
C. increasing investment in rich countries D. lifting trade barriers
4. According to critics of globalization, one reason the United States, Germany, and Japan succeeded
is that they __________.
A. encouraged free trade in their economies B. increased tariffs on goods and services
C. sold their goods to smaller markets D. supported domestic industries
5. Which of the following statements would critics of globalization most probably agree with?
A. It is important to remove barriers to international trade.
B. “Infant industries” should not be encouraged.
C. Neoliberal policies do more harm than good.
D. South Korea, Taiwan, and China all followed neoliberalism.
6. The phrase “infant industries” in paragraph 3 mostly means __________.
A. newly successful industries B. state-led industries
C. industries resulting from neoliberal policies D. industries that are not yet developed
7. According to critics of globalization, the rapid inflow of foreign funds must be controlled to __________.
A. prevent bubbles that may burst B. support “infant industries”
C. avoid outflow of foreign funds D. prevent overseas investment
8. Protests by the so-called antiglobalization movement are usually directed against __________.
A. globalization itself
B. abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment
C. the question raised by nongovernmental organizations
D. a rise of living standards
9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Critics of globalization think neoliberal policies are producing more property.
B. The antiglobalization movement is set up to stop globalization.
C. Some Asian countries had strong state-led development strategies.
D. Critics of globalization believe the way it operates should be changed.
10. As described in the passage, what is the debate over globalization mostly about?
A. How to govern the global economy most successfully
B. How to stop globalization and its effects
C. Ideas and technology to spread globalization
D. How to hold protests against neoliberal policies
Part 4. Read the text below carefully and then do the tasks that follow. (15 pts)
Testing 1, 2, 3, …
A. These are testing times. In both education and the field of work, the prevailing wisdom apears
to be: if it moves, test it and if doesn’t, well, test it anyway. I say wisdom, but it has become rather an
absession. In addition to the current obstacles, like GCSEs, A-levels, GNVQs, ONDs, and HNDs, not
to mention the interviews and financial hurdles that school-leavers have to
overcome in order to access higher education, students are facing the threat of “new tests”, Scholastic
Aptitude Tests (SATs)
B. SATs are being imported from the United States, where they have been in use for nearly a
hundred years. As a supplement to A-levels, the tests purport to give students from poor backgrounds
a better chance of entering university. SATs are intended to remove the huge social class bias that exists
in British universities. But, in fact, they are, no more than an additional barrier for students. The tests,
which masquerade as IQ tests, are probably less diagnostic of student potential than existing
examinations, and, more seriously, are far from free of the bias that the supporters pretend.
C. First of all, as for any other tests, students will be able to take classes to cram for SATs, which
again will advantage the better-off. At a recent conference of the Prefessional Association of Teachers,
it was declared that school exams and tests are biased toward middle-class children. Further, the content
of the tests in question is not based on sound scientific theory, merely on a pool of Multiple Choice
Questions (MCQs), set up by a group of item writers.
D. The questions in SATs are tested on a representative sample of children. Those which
correlate with the school grades of the children are kept, and the rest discarded. This is highly
unsatisfactory. There is also evidence that in MCQs tests women are at a disadvantage, because of the
way they think, i.e. they can see a wider picture. And it is worth noting that MCQs are only as good as
the people who write them; so, unless the writers are highly trained, those who are being tested are
being judged against the narrow limitations of the item writers.
E. Globalisation has introduced greater flexibility into the workplace, but the educational system
has not been so quick off the mark. But there are signs that times are a changing. Previously, students
took exams at the end of academic terms, or at fixed dates periodically throughout the year. Now,
language examinations like the TOEFL, IELTs and the Pitman ESOL exams can be
taken much more frequently. The IELTs examination, for example, is run a test centre throughout the
world subject to demand. Where the demand is high, the test is held more frequently. At present, in
London, it is possible for students to sit the exam about four times a week.
F. Flexible assessment like the IELTs has been mooted in other areas. It has been suggested that
the students may in future be able to walk into a public library or other public building and take
assessment test for a range of skills on a computer. The computer will dispense an instant assessment
and a certificate. The beauty of this system is the convenience.
Questions 1 – 5: This reading passage has 6 paragraphs (A-F). Choose the most suitable heading for
each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate number (1-10) next to the
paragraph. One of the headings has been done for you.
Note: There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.
YOU MAY USE ANY HEADING MORE THAN ONCE
0. Paragraph A ___9____ Paragraph B _________ Paragraph C _________
Paragraph D_________ Paragraph E _________ Paragraph F _________
List of Headings
1. Assessment in the future 2. The theory behind MCQs
3. Problem with SATs 4. Misuse of testing in School
5. The need for computer assessment 6. The benefits of SATs
7. Testing in workplace 8. The sortcoming of MCQs
9. Too much testing 10. Flexibility in language tesing
Question 6- 10: Read the passage again and then decide whether the following statements agree
with the information in the reading or not. Write:
Yes if the statement agrees with the information in the passage.
No if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
No Information if there is no information about the statement in the passage.
6. In the fields of education and work the prevailing wisdom seems to be to test everything.
7. Research in genetics refutes the theory that people are predestined to follow certain careers.
8. Psychometric testing is favoured by headmaster and mistresses in many high schools.
9. The writer of this article is in favour of testing in general.
10. According to the writer, students get benefits from SATs

Part 1. The following graphs give information about book-buying over 30 years in New York. Summarize the
information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.
You should write between 130 and 160 words. (20 pts)
Types of books bought per person per year
Part 2. Essay writing (30 pts)

As some dominant languages are more widely spoken all over the world, many minority languages are
dying out. Some people think that it is unnecessary to save these languages. To what extent do you agree with
this perspective?
Write an essay of about 250 words to express your viewpoint. Support your opinion by using relevant
examples and explanations.
SAMPLE TEST 10
I: LISTENING (50 points)
Part 2: Listen to a report about how European countries are dealing with the coronavirus pandemic and decide
whether these statements are True or False. Write your answers to the space provided. (10 points)
1. Under the full lockdown in Italy, all grocery stores must be shut down.
2. There is a ban on entry for people from Austria into Italy.
3. Angela Merkel warned that Coronavirus could infect up to 17%of Germany's population.
4. Public gatherings still take place in the UK.
5. According to the professor, although the UK is taking more drastic measures than Italy, its
effectiveness is open to question.
Part 3. You will hear an interview with a woman called Emma Stoneham, who
works as a manager in the horse racing industry. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D)
which fits best according to what you hear. (10 points)
1. What does Emma say about her qualifications?
A. She chose to study certain subjects against her father's wishes.
B. She decided to do courses that dealt directly with horse racing.
C. She did a postgraduate course that few people knew about.
D. She was fortunate to be accepted on a specialist course.
2. How does Emma feel about what she calls the 'big names' in horse racing?
A. She resents having to plan her events to suit them.
B. She respects the contribution they make to the sport.
C. She believes that they shouldn't receive special treatment.
D. She accepts that she needs to put on particular events to attract them.
3. What does Emma particularly enjoy about race days?
A. the range of people she meets
B. the enthusiasm of her colleagues
C. the challenge of dealing with the unexpected
D. the pleasure of seeing people enjoying themselves
4. How did Emma feel after cancelling the midwinter race meeting?
A. worried that inadequate precautions had been taken
B. angry that bad weather hadn't been predicted
C. satisfied that she'd made the right decision
D. grateful for the good advice she'd received
5. As a result of cancelling the meeting, Emma has had to ______.
A. put on additional race meetings
B. make changes to her financial planning
C. sell some land belonging to the racecourse
D. postpone making improvements to facilities
Part 4. Listen to a recording about the origins of the anti-vaccine movement and complete the summary
below using words taken from the recording. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in each blank. (20
points)
- The presence of (1)__________ can be traced back to the infancy of vaccines.
- Although he was (2) __________ from his community, Edward Jennerinspired the invention of
(3)__________ with his action of (4)__________ from infected cows into human skin.
- People are still worried about (5) __________ being injected into the human body.
- Doctors had to persuade parents to vaccinate their kids on the promise that they will not be infected
by some(6)__________.
- A discredited studypropagated the false belief that (7)__________ and vaccines are connected.
- The infections among the Amish of Ohio, which contributed to the 2014’s (8)__________ in measles
case, serves as a stark example of how a single (9)__________ traveller from a certain hotspot can
(10)__________.
II: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40 points)

Part 1: Choose one of the words marked A, B, C, or D which best completes the sentence. (20
points)
1. On his desk _______, which he usually sits in front of and looks at.
A. stood the picture of us B. the picture of us stands
C. standing the picture of us D. stands the picture of us
2. Last weekend, _______ nothing to watch on TV, we played chest together.
A. there being B. there having C. having had D. being
3. Here _____ from Rangoon
A. is an interesting news B. is an interesting item of news
C. are interesting news D. are some interesting news item
4. However good Schoenberg_____have been, I still find his modem music very difficult to appreciate.
A could B may C should D would
5. ...................... the phone rang later that night did Anna remember the appointment
A. No sooner B. Only C. Not until D. Just before
6. Don't ____ to any conclusions before you know the full facts.
A rush B dive C leap D fly
7. Mr Smith was talking to his friends and_____
A. on a perch beside him sat a blue parrot
B. on a perch beside him did a blue parrot sit
C. did a blue parrot sit on a perch beside him
D. a blue parrot did on a perch beside him sit
8. I was told yesterday that the car had been fixed but it’s broken down _______ again!
A. even B. still C. yet D. right
9. Had the electrician not come in time, we would______last night's party by candlelight.
A have to have B have to be having
C have had to have had D have had to have been having
10. It is difficult to decide on the best ................of action in these circumstances.
A. measure B. course C. process D. policy
11. There was a terible storm on the night we first stayed at the campsite but we were alright with out
tent and were as dry as a..................
A. bone B. cover C. coat D. sheet
12. Jeremy’s friends were fond of him .................... because of his generosity.
A. at least B. still less C. even less D. not least
13. The thick fog ................... out any possibility of our plane taking off before morning
A. ruled B. struck C. stamped D. crossed
14. Looking down at the coral reef, we saw ..................... of tiny, multi-coloured fish.
A. swarms B. flocks C. teams D. shoals
15. Of all the paintings in the gallery, it was this one that really ...............my eye.
A. grasped B. snatched C. caught D. seized
16. The community should take the doctor’s advice into consideration since he’s in ________ earnest
about the epidemic.
A. mortally B. fatally C. deadly D. gravely
17. We might have to change our plans for the weekend and, ...............we’ll let you know as soon as
possible.
A. in case B. if so C. providing D. supposing
18. After feeling off .................. for days, Tom finally went to see his doctor.
A. food B. colour C. fitness D. balance
19. There was................. evidence to bring charges against the man.
A. insubstantial B. inferior C. ineffective D. insufficient
20. The size of the pop-star’s personal fortune was the subject of much ................. in the press.
A. doubt B. guessing C. speculation D. wonderment
Your answer:
Part 2. Complete each of the following sentences with (a) suitable preposition(s) or particle(s). (10
points)
1. I can’t concentrate on my work with the prospect of the court case handing…………………me.
2. He has an inspirational politician, who put………………………his ideas with clarity.
3. I know it’s every stressful, but try not to let it get……………………………..you.
4. It was a good idea, but I am afraid it didn’t quite come .................
5. He’s sometimes bad tempered but he’s a good fellow……………………………heart.
6. The gunners began to blaze ................ at the target, the moment the signal was given.
7. She’s fainted! Don’t crowd ................! Give her air!
8. I don’t know how I’m going to summon ................ the courage to tell Dad!
9. It took Jerry a while to cotton ................ to the fact I was joking.
10. How did you come……………………these tickets? I’ve been trying to get some for ages.
Part 3: Use the correct form of each of the words given to fill in the blank in each sentence. (10
points)
1. She’s family suffered from his ………………….. (EXPEND)
2. The Southerners were like the colonists in the Revolutionary War in that they were _____________
but geographically protected. (MAN)
3. My ankle is really ............................and I can’t walk easily. (SWELL)
4. The government’s............................. approach has brought criticism. (COMPROMISE)
5. Jim is one of the most................................ members of the committee. (SPEAK)
6. You shouldn’t interrupt someone in …………………… (SENTENCE)
7. Low income and little administrative support make teachers …………. with their profession.
(HEART)
8. Don’t you think she is ______? She always looks good in her photographs. (PHOTO)
9.Hardly a day goes by without Tim being __________ of eating sweets. (DESIRE)
10.She resembled an army commander whom nothing could put the __________ on. (FRIGHTEN)
III: READING COMPREHENSION (60 points)

Part 1: Read the following passages and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your
HEARING IN COLOUR
A number of scientists around the world are now investigating a phenomenon called synaesthesia that
may (1) _______as many as one in 2,000 people. The name (2) _______from the Greek words for together
and perception and means that some people’s senses work in combination. For example, some people
(3) _______colour when they hear particular sounds. Similarly, a smell or taste may be (4) _______as a
reaction to information received from the eyes. However, the most common form of synaesthesia occurs
among people who (5) _______certain letters or words with colours. Scientists at Cambridge University
conducted experiments to determine whether this is actually a product of mental activity or if some
individuals are just (6)_______imaginative. They discovered that synaesthetes, people who experience
synaesthesia, (7) _______ associate the same letters or words with the same colours. Brain scans
revealed (8) _______ activity in the brain when subjects were listening to words, suggesting that it is a
physical condition. The most plausible explanation is that synaesthetes have slightly different
connections between the areas of the brain which control their (9) _______. Synaesthesia is not a
medical problem, however, and synaesthetes often (10) _______from an unusually good memory,
probably because they have extra information to help them recallthings like names and numbers.
1. A. effect B . infect C. suffer D . affect
A. reminds B . derives C.
C. prescribes D . distracts
2.
3. A. differ B . view C. see D . mind
4. A. retained B . perceived C. thought D . responded
5. A. associate B . elaborate C. conceive D . comply
6. A. deeply B . utterly C. highly D . fully
7. A. perfectly B . earnestly C. practically D .consistently
8. A. unusual B . infallible C. insecure D .incapable
9. A. consciences B . attitudes C. senses D .conditions
10. A. approve B . sting C. cure D .benefit
Part 2: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided below the passage. (15 points)
How can I cope better with stress?
Recent research found that having higher levels of self-esteem, a more positive way of explaining why
things happen, and avoiding perfectionist thinking were strongly 1._________ to bouncing back when
things go wrong.
To begin with, according to Dr Judith Johnson self-esteem was shown to be 2. __________ in two thirds
of the studies in mediating the link between failure and distress. All we need to do is write a list of our
positive qualities and examples of when we have 3. _______them.
Secondly, how we explain things also 4.______. If we can brush off a disappointment by
5.____________ it to external factors, then we have the equivalent of emotional armour.
Finally, if we have perfectionist tendencies, lower them. Perfectionists hold rigid standards that don’t
bend in the stormy 6. _________of life. Johnson says we need to set more realistic 7. ___________.
She also advises self-awareness and noticing when we are stressed. If you feel stuck, do something that
8._________ you up. You need to plan these things into a schedule – doing them will chip away at your
negative 9. ________, even if you do enjoy them a bit less than usual. Other research shows that the 10.
__________ of friends or family also helps emotional resilience, as does being physically active.
Part 3: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided below the passage. (15 points)
Archaeological records-paintings, drawings, and carvings of humans engaged in activities involving the
use of hands - indicate that humans have been predominantly right-handed for more than 5,000 years.
In ancient Egyptian artwork, for example, the right hand is depicted as the dominant one in about 90
percent of the examples. Fracture or wear patterns on tools also indicate that a majority of ancient
people were right-handed.
Cro-Magnon cave paintings some 27,000 years old commonly show outlines of human hands made by
placing one hand against the cave wall and applying paint with the other. Children today make similar
outlines of their hands with crayons on paper. With few exceptions, left hands of Cro-Magnons are
displayed on cave walls, indicating that the paintings were usually done by right-handers.
Anthropological evidence pushes the record of handedness in early human ancestors back to at least
1.4 million years ago. One important line of evidence comes from flaking patterns of stone cores used
in toolmaking: implements flaked with a clockwise motion (indicating a right-handed toolmaker) can
be distinguished from those flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation (indicating a left-handed
toolmaker).
Even scratches found on fossil human teeth offer clues. Ancient humans are thought to have cut meat
into strips by holding it between their teeth and slicing it with stone knives, as do the present-day Inuit.
Occasionally the knives slip and leave scratches on the users' teeth. Scratches made with a left-to-right
stroke direction (by right-handers) are more common than scratches in the opposite direction (made by
left-handers).
Still other evidence comes from cranial morphology: scientists think that physical differences between
the right and left sides of the interior of the skull indicate subtle physical differences between the two
sides of the brain. The variation between the hemispheres corresponds to which side of the body is used
to perform specific activities. Such studies, as well as studies of tool use, indicate that right- or left-sided
dominance is not exclusive to modern Homo sapiens. Populations of Neanderthals, such as Homo
erectus and Homo habilis, seem to have been predominantly right-handed, as we are.
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Human ancestors became predominantly right-handed when they began to use tools.
B. It is difficult to interpret the significance of anthropological evidence concerning tool use.
C. Humans and their ancestors have been predominantly right-handed for over a million years.
D. Human ancestors were more skilled at using both hands than modern humans.
2. What does the author say about Cro-Magnon paintings of hands?
A. Some are not very old.
B. It is unusual to see such paintings.
C. Many were made by children.
D. The artists were mostly right-handed.
3. The word "depicted" in the first paragraph refers to ________.
A. written B. portrayed C. referred D. mentioned
4. When compared with implements "flaked with a counter-clockwise rotation”, it can be inferred
that "implements flaked with a clockwise motion" are ______.
A. more common B. larger
C. more sophisticated D. older
5. The word "cranial morphology" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. the form of crane B. the form of study
C. the study of physical bodies D. the study of skulls
6. The fact that the Inuit cut meat by holding it between their teeth is significant because ______.
A. the relationship between handedness and scratches on fossil human teeth can be verified
B. it emphasizes the differences between contemporary humans and their ancestors
C. the scratch patterns produced by stone knives vary significantly from patterns produced by modern
knives
D. it demonstrates that ancient humans were not skilled at using tools
7. The word "hemispheres" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. differences B. sides C. activities D. studies
8. Why does the author mention Homo erectus and Habilis in the last paragraph?
A. To contrast them with modern humans
B. To explain when human ancestors began to make tools
C. To show that early humans were also predominantly right-handed
D. To prove that the population of Neanderthals was very large
9. All of the following are mentioned as types of evidence concerning handedness EXCEPT _______.
A. ancient artwork B. asymmetrical skulls
C. studies of tool use D. fossilized hand bones
10. Which of the following conclusions is suggested by the evidence from cranial morphology?
A. Differences in the hemispheres of the brain probably came about relatively recently
B. There may be a link between handedness and differences in the brain's hemispheres.
C. Left-handedness was somewhat more common among Neanderthals.
D. Variation between the brain's hemispheres was not evident in the skulls of Homo erectus and Homo
habilis.
Part 4: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (15 points)
Wealth in A Cold Climate
Latitude is crucial to a nation's economic strength.
A Dr William Masters was reading a book about mosquitoes when inspiration struck. “There was this
anecdote about the great yellow-fever epidemic that hit Philadelphia in 1793," Masters recalls. “This
epidemic decimated the city until the first frost came." The inclement weather froze out the insects,
allowing Philadelphia to recover.
B If weather could be the key to a city's fortunes. Masters thought, then why not to the historical
fortunes of nations? And could frost lie at the heart of one of the most enduring economic mysteries
of all - why are almost all the wealthy, industrialised nations to be found at latitudes above 40
degrees? After two years of research, he thinks that he has found a piece of the puzzle. Masters, an
agricultural economist from Purdue University in Indiana, and Margaret McMillan at Tufts
University, Boston, show that annual frosts are among the factors that distinguish rich nations from
poor ones. Their study is published this month in the Journal of Economic Growth. The pair
speculate that cold snaps have two main benefits - they freeze pests that would otherwise destroy
crops, and also freeze organisms, such as mosquitoes, that carry disease. The result is agricultural
abundance and a big workforce.
C The academics took two sets of information. The first was average income for countries, the second
climate data from the University of East Anglia. They found a curious tally between the sets.
Countries having five or more frosty days a month are uniformly rich, those with fewer than five
are impoverished. The authors speculate that the five-day figure is important; it could be the
minimum time needed to kill pests in the soil. Masters says: “For example, Finland is a small
country that is growing quickly, but Bolivia is a small country that isn't growing at all. Perhaps
climate has something to do with that." In fact, limited frosts bring huge benefits to farmers. The
chills kill insects or render them inactive; cold weather slows the break-up of plant and animal
material in the soil, allowing it to become richer; and frosts ensure a build-up of moisture in the
ground for spring, reducing dependence on seasonal rains. There are exceptions to the “cold equals
rich" argument. There are well-heeled tropical places such as Hong Kong and Singapore, a result of
their superior trading positions. Likewise, not all European countries are moneyed - in the former
communist colonies, economic potential was crushed by politics.
D Masters stresses that climate will never be the overriding factor - the wealth of nations is too
complicated to be attributable to just one factor. Climate, he feels, somehow combines with other
factors - such as the presence of institutions, including governments, and access to trading routes -
to determine whether a country will do well. Traditionally, Masters says, economists thought that
institutions had the biggest effect on the economy, because they brought order to a country in the
form of, for example, laws and property rights. With order, so the thinking went, came affluence.
“But there are some problems that even countries with institutions have not been able to get
around,” he says. “My feeling is that, as countries get richer, they get better institutions. And the
accumulation of wealth and improvement in governing institutions are both helped by a favourable
environment, including climate.”
E This does not mean, he insists, that tropical countries are beyond economic help and destined to
remain penniless. Instead, richer countries should change the way in which foreign aid is given.
Instead of aid being geared towards improving governance, it should be spent on technology to
improve agriculture and to combat disease. Masters cites one example: “There are regions in India
that have been provided with irrigation - agricultural productivity has gone up and there has been
an improvement in health.” Supplying vaccines against tropical diseases and developing crop
varieties that can grow in the tropics would break the poverty cycle.
F Other minds have applied themselves to the split between poor and rich nations, citing anthro-
pological, climatic and zoological reasons for why temperate nations are the most affluent. In
350BC, Aristotle observed that “those who live in a cold climate ... are full of spirit”. Jared
Diamond, from the University of California at Los Angeles, pointed out in his book Guns, Germs
and Steel that Eurasia is broadly aligned east-west, while Africa and the Americas are aligned north-
south. So, in Europe, crops can spread quickly across latitudes because climates are similar. One of
the first domesticated crops, einkorn wheat, spread quickly from the Middle East into Europe; it
took twice as long for com to spread from Mexico to what is now the eastern United States. This
easy movement along similar latitudes in Eurasia would also have meant a faster dissemination of
other technologies such as the wheel and writing, Diamond speculates. The region also boasted
domesticated livestock, which could provide meat, wool and motive power in the fields. Blessed
with such natural advantages, Eurasia was bound to take off economically.
G John Gallup and Jeffrey Sachs, two US economists, have also pointed out striking correlations
between the geographical location of countries and their wealth. They note that tropical countries
between 23.45 degrees north and south of the equator are nearly all poor. In an article for the
Harvard International Review, they concluded that “development surely seems to favour the
temperate-zone economies, especially those in the northern hemisphere, and those that have
managed to avoid both socialism and the ravages of war”. But Masters cautions against
geographical determinism, the idea that tropical countries are beyond hope: “Human health and
agriculture can be made better through scientific and technological research," he says, “so we
shouldn’t be writing off these countries. Take Singapore: without air conditioning, it wouldn’t be
rich.”
Questions 1-6
Choose the most suitable heading for paragraphs A-G from the list of headings below. Write the appropriate
number, i-x, in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.
Example answer List of Headings
Paragraph A: iii i. The positive correlation between climate and wealth
1. Paragraph B ii. Other factors besides climate that influence wealth
2. Paragraph C iii. Inspiration from reading a book
3. Paragraph D iv. Other researchers’ results do not rule out exceptional cases
4. Paragraph E v. Different attributes between Eurasia and Africa
5. Paragraph F vi. Low temperature benefits people and crops
6. Paragraph G vii. The importance of institution in traditional views
viii. The spread of crops in Europe, Asia and other places
ix. The best way to use aid
x. Confusions and exceptions
Questions 7-10
Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 7-10 on your answer sheet.
Dr William Masters read a book saying that a(an) 7. _______which struck an American city hundreds
of years ago was terminated by a cold frost. And academics found that there is a connection between
climate and country’s wealth as in the rich but small country of Finland. Yet besides excellent
surroundings and climate, one country still needs to improve their 8. ______to achieve long prosperity.
Thanks to resembling weather conditions across latitude in the continent of 9. ______, crops such as
einkorn wheat is bound to spread faster than from South America to the North. Other researchers also
noted that even though geographical factors are important, tropical country such as 10. ______ still
became rich due to scientific advancement.
IV: WRITING (40 points)

Part 1. The diagram shows the number of cars stolen in different countries. Write a 150-word report
to identify the main trends and make comparisons where relevant.(20 points)
Part 2: Some people think the qualities a person needs to become successful in today’s world cannot be learned
at a university or similar academic institution. To what extent do you agree or disagree ? Write an essay
(about 200-250 words) to express your viewpoint. (30 points)

Sample Test No 2

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Sample Test No 2

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

SAMPLE TEST 1

I. LISTENING (50 POINTS)

II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40 POINTS)

III. READING (60 POINTS)

The Step Pyramid of Djoser

IV. WRITING (50 POINTS)

(3) ______ establishment of Dutch East art became expression of opposition to

B. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (50 points)

C. READING (50 points)

1. A campaign B prospect C motion D engagement

3. The word "disrupted" in the passage 3 is closest in meaning to _____.

Section 2. Essay writing (30 points)

15. The species Ian refers to

B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40 points)

III. Fill in each of the blanks with an appropriate preposition.

C. READING (60 POINTS)

Part 4: Read the passage and do the tasks below

D. WRITING (50 POINTS)

B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40 points)

C. READING (60 points)

1. The first time Edwards used a game in his classes, he was______________

Part 2. Essay writing. (30 points)

III. LEXICO – GRAMMAR (40 points)

III. READING (60 points)

IV. WRITING (50 points)

PART 2: GRAPH DESCRIPTION (20 pts)

SECTION B. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (40 points)

C. READING (60 points)

D. WRITING (50 points)

Part 2. Essay writing. (30 points)

3. What does Chris say about Christmas presents?

4. For this year’s Buy Nothing Day, Chris

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 points)

Example: Paragraph A…….……..ix

IV. WRITING (50 points)

GO-TRAVEL BOOKING FORM

II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR

III. READING (60 POINTS)

IV. WRITING (50 POINTS)

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (40 POINTS)

III. READING (60 POINTS)

IV. WRITING (50 POINTS)

Part 2. Essay writing (30 pts)

II: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (40 points)

III: READING COMPREHENSION (60 points)

4. A. retained B . perceived C. thought D . responded

5. A. associate B . elaborate C. conceive D . comply

6. A. deeply B . utterly C. highly D . fully

7. A. perfectly B . earnestly C. practically D .consistently

8. A. unusual B . infallible C. insecure D .incapable

9. A. consciences B . attitudes C. senses D .conditions

10. A. approve B . sting C. cure D .benefit

IV: WRITING (40 points)

You might also like