Modular Exam Laws

1. The NIPAS act allows for the establishment of what type of protected areas to conserve
marine resources?

a. Marine Reserves
b. Wildlife Sanctuaries
c. Protected Landscapes and Seascapes
d. Natural Monuments

2. PD 937 mandates the creation of a homeowners’ association within how many months from the
sale of the first lot or unit?

a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months

3. IPRA prohibits the imposition of what form of assimilation or cultural change on

indigenous people?

a. Forced relocation
b. Conversion to mainstream religions
c. Adoption of Western education systems
d. Denial of ancestral land rights

4. The maximum land size that can be acquired and distributed to a qualified farmer under CARL is;

a. 3 hectares
b. 5 hectares
c. 10 hectares
d. 15 hectares

5. The Mining Act requires mining companies to secure a Free and Prior Informed Consent
(FPIC) from the:

a. Department of Environment and Natural Resources (DENR)

b. Mines and Geosciences Bureau (MGB)
c. National Commission on Indigenous People (NCIP)
 d. Department of Energy (DOE)

6. Public lands classified as alienable and disposable may be acquired through:

a. Homestead patent
b. Free patent
c. Sales patent
d. All of the above

7. In case of non-completion or abandonment of a subdivision or condominium project, PD

957 requires the developer to:

a. Refund the payments made by the buyers with interest

b. Transfer the project to the local government unit
c. Auction off the project to the highest bidder
d. Seek financial assistance from the government

8. The Water Code provides for the classification of waters into how many categories?

a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six

9. PD 1529 applies the registration of:

a. Real estate properties only

b. Land titles and real estate properties
c. Personal properties only
d. Intellectual properties

10. Under PD 1529, the original registration of land titles is done through:

a. Voluntary registration
b. Compulsory registration
c. Adverse possession
d. Prescription
11. Which of the following is NOT a mode of land acquisition under CARL?

a. Voluntary land transfer

b. Compulsory acquisition
c. Land consolidation
d. Land donation

12. The Mining Act provides for the establishment of the Mining Rehabilitation Fund, which is
used for:

a. Environmental rehabilitation and restoration of mining areas

b. Compensation for affected communities
c. Research and development in the mining industry
d. All of the above

13. The Torrens System is based on the principle of:

a. Adverse possession
b. Caveat Emptor
c. Constructive notice
d. None of the above

14. The NIPAS Act provides for the classification of protected areas into how many categories?

a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six

15. The Water Code mandates the establishment of what type of system to collect water fees
and charges?

a. Water Regulatory System

b. Water Rights Administration System
c. Water Resource Management System
d. Water Utilization and Administration System

16. What is the term used in RA 7279 to describe the relocation and resettlement of affected
families from danger areas?
 a. In-city vertical resettlement
b. In-city horizontal resettlement
c. Out-of-city vertical resettlement
d. Out-of-city horizontal resettlement

17. The Public Land Act (Act 141) was enacted in which year?

a. 1902
b. 1914
c. 1935
d. 1946

18. The highest level of protection under the NIPAS Act is given to:

a. Strict Nature Reserves

b. National Parks
c. Natural Parks
d. Wildlife Sanctuaries

19. In alternative obligation:

a. The choice of performance belongs to the obligor

b. The choice of performance belongs to the oblige
c. The choice of performance belongs to a third party
d. The choice of performance belongs to the court

20. The Torrens System protects innocent purchasers for value, which means that:

a. A person who acquires land with knowledge of defects cannot claim ownership
b. A person who purchases land in good faith and for a valuable consideration is
protected against prior claims and encumbrances
c. A person who buys land from a government agency is guaranteed a valid title
d. A person who purchases land in an auction is exempt from paying taxes

21. The Philippine Mining Act of 1995 (RA 7942) aims to:

a. Promote responsible mining practices

b. Regulate the mining industry
c. Generate revenue for the government
 d. All of the above

22. Which provision of PD 1529 allows for the conversion of a property from one land
use classification to another?

a. Voluntary conversion
b. Administrative reclassification
c. Judicial reclassification
d. Land reclamation program

23. The Indigenous People’s Rights Act (IPRA) or Republic Act 8371 was enacted in which year?

a. 1991
b. 1995
c. 1997
d. 2000

24. Act 141 applies to the classification and disposition of public lands, excluding:

a. Mineral lands
b. Forest lands
c. Agricultural lands
d. Indigenous people’s ancestral lands

25. The Torrens System allows for the cancellation of a certificate of title through:

a. Voluntary surrender by the registered owner

b. Court order due to fraud or mistake
c. Non-payment of real estate taxes
d. Change in land use classification

26. PD 957 primarily aims to:

a. Regulate real estate transactions

b. Protect buyers of subdivision lots and condominium units
c. Promote sustainable development
d. Facilitate urban planning and infrastructure development
27. The party who receives the proceeds or benefits of a contract without any valid reason is called:

a. Obligee
b. Obligor
c. Subrogee
d. Unjustly enriched party

28. The Voluntary Offer to Sell (VOS) is a mechanism under CARL wherein:

a. Landowners voluntarily offer their land for sale to the government

b. Landowners voluntarily offer their land for redistribution to farmers
c. Farmers voluntarily offer to buy land from the government
d. Farmers voluntarily offer their land for lease to the government

29. The Mining Act allows for the exploration, development, and utilization of:

a. Mining resources on public and private lands

b. Mineral resources on public lands only
c. Mineral resources on private lands only
d. Mineral resources on ancestral lands only

30. PD 1529 provides for the issuance of a Transfer Certificate of Title (TCT) in cases of:

a. Subdivision of land
b. Conversion of land use
c. Mortgage of property
d. Expropriation of property

31. The term “indigenous peoples” as defined in IPRA refers to:

a. Ethnic groups with distinct cultural practices and traditions

b. Tribal communities living in remote areas
c. Minority populations in rural areas
d. All citizens of a particular country

32. The Forestry Code grants the government the power to issue what instrument for the use of
the development of forest lands?

a. Timberland lease agreements

 b. Timber license agreements
c. Forest management agreements
d. Community-based forest management agreements

33. What is the maximum area that can be granted under a homestead patent?

a. 10 hectares
b. 24 hectares
c. 50 hectares
d. 100 hectares

34. What is the maximum percentage of a city’s land area that can be allocated for socialized
housing under RA 7279?

a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%

35. Which government agency is responsible for the implementation of enforcement of PD 957?

a. Department of Human Settlements and Urban Development (DHSUD)

b. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board (HLURB)
c. National Housing Authority (NHA)
d. Land Registration Authority (LRA)

36. The NIPAS Act allows for the relocation of communities within protected areas through
what process?

a. Voluntary resettlement
b. Land acquisition compensation
c. Court-ordered eviction
d. Community-based relocation program

37. The ancestral domains of indigenous peoples are defined as:

a. Areas occupied by indigenous communities

b. Territories identified and delineated through customary laws and traditions
c. Land reserved for indigenous peoples by the government
 d. Protected areas managed by indigenous peoples organizations

38. Public lands classified as forest lands may be granted through:

a. Timber license agreements

b. Forest occupancy permits
c. Community-based forest management agreements
d. All of the above

39. Which of the following is NOT a type of mining agreement under the Mining Act?

a. Mineral Production Sharing Agreement (MPSA)

b. Financial or Technical Assistance Agreement (FTAA)
c. Exploration Permit (EP)
d. Mining Lease Contract (MLC)

40. The concept of solution indebiti refers to:

a. The payment of an obligation before it is due

b. The payment of an incorrect amount
c. The payment of a non-existing obligation
d. The payment of a debt by a third party

41. What is the maximum duration of a lease agreement for public lands granted for commercial or
industrial purposes under Act 141?

a. 25 years
b. 50 years
c. 75 years
d. 99 years

42. What is the term used in PD 1529 to describe the act of acquiring ownership over a
property through continuous and uninterrupted possession for a specified period of time?

a. Voluntary registration
b. Adverse possession
c. Prescription
d. Eminent domain
43. What is the maximum allowable increase in the selling price of socialized housing units under
RA 7279?

a. 5% per annum
b. 7% per annum
c. 9% per annum
d. 11% per annum

44. RA 7942 requires mining companies to secure an Environmental Compliance Certificate

(ECC) from the:

a. Department of Environment and Natural Resources (DENR)

b. Mines and Geosciences Bureau (MGB)
c. National Commission on Indigenous Peoples (NCIP)
d. Department of Energy (DOE)

45. Under the Torrens System, the title to registered land is:

a. Subject to encumbrances and claims

b. Absolute and indefeasible
c. Transferable only through court proceedings
d. Valid only if accompanied by a land certificate

46. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for developers under PD 957?

a. Submission of subdivision or condominium plans for approval

b. Provision of adequate and reliable water supply
c. Construction of access roads and drainage system
d. Registration of real estate agents involved in sales transactions

47. PD 1529 provides for the establishment of Land Registration Courts, which have jurisdiction
over:

a. Civil land disputes

b. Criminal land disputes
c. Administrative land disputes
d. Tax-related land disputes

48. What is the term used for the provision of basic services and facilities in housing projects
under RA 7279?
 a. Housing infrastructure
b. Housing amenities
c. Housing utilities
d. Housing services

49. PD 957 requires developers to provide a performance bond equivalent to:

a. 5% of the total contract price

b. 10% of the total contract price
c. 15% of the total contract price
d. 20% of the total contract price

50. Which provision of RA 7279 aims to ensure the tenure security of informal settlers?

a. Provision of on-site relocation

b. Provision of just compensation
c. Provision of property rights
d. Provision of land tenure improvement