LAWS, RULES,

&
REGULATION
1. Promises which form the consideration
or part of the consideration for each other
are called as ______.
a.Mutual promises
b.Reciprocal promises
c.Promises
d.Written Promises
2. Performance of the conditions of a proposal,
or the acceptance of any consideration for a
reciprocal promise which may be offered with a
proposal, is an _____ of the proposal.

a. Acceptance
b. Mutual Acceptance
c. Written Acceptance
d. Reciprocal Acceptance
3. All agreements are ______ if they are made
by the free consent, for a lawful consideration
and with a lawful object, and are not hereby
expressly declared to be void.

a. Standard forms of contracts

b. Contracts
c. Enforceable Contracts
d. Quasi Contracts
4. A delayed accession is:
a.Formation of an island
b.Avulsion
c.Alluvium
d.Change in the course of
the riverbed
5. Every promise and every set of
promise, _____ is an agreement in
exchange for another.
a. Forming the consideration
for each other
b. Mutually agreed
c. Partially agreed
d. Contractual agreed
6. When consent to an agreement is caused
by coercion, fraud or misinterpretation, the
agreement is a contract _____.
a. Valid
b. Void ab initio
c. Legally enforceable
d. Viodable at the option of the
party
7. A ____ is a contract to do or not to do
something, if some event, collateral to such
contract, does or does not happen.
a. Contingent contract
b. Quasi contract
c. Express of Implied Contract
d. Indemnity contract
8. A person whop finds good belonging to
another and takes them to his custody, is
subject to the same responsibility as a _____.

a. Bailor
b.Indemnifier
c. Bailee
d.Guarantor
9. If the parties to a contract agree to _____ a
new contract for it, or to rescind or alter it,
the original contract, need to be performed.

a. Alter
b. Amend
c. Substitute
d. Modify
10. When an agreement is discovered to be void, or
when a contract becomes void, any person who has
received any _____ under such agreement or contract
is bound to restore it, or to make compensation for it
to the person from whom he received it.
a. Advantage
b. Benefit
c. Consideration
d. Favour
11. This fluvial territory of state
shall extend up to 12 nautical miles
from its baselines:
a. Territorial waters
b. Contiguous zone
c. Exclusive economic zone
d. Continental shelf
12. _____ shall extend up to 24
nautical miles from its baselines:
a. Territorial waters
b.Contiguous zone
c. Exclusive economic zone
d.Continental shelf
13. The _____ shall extend up to
200 nautical miles from its
baselines:
a. Territorial waters
b. Contiguous zone
c. Exclusive economic
zone
d. Continental shelf
14. This comprises the seabed and subsoil of the submarine
areas that extend beyond its territorial sea throughout the
natural prolongation of its land territory to the outer edge of the
continental margin, or to a distance of 200 nautical miles from
the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is
measured where the outer edge of the continental margin does
not extend up to that distance.

a. Territorial water
b. Contiguous zone
c. Exclusive economic zone
d. Continental shelf
15. With phrase best completes statements – The
starting point of the principle of separation of powers
is the assumption of the division of the functions of
government into three distinct classes:
a. The bill of right, state policies, and social justice and
human rights
b. The accountability of public officers, the constitutional
commissions, and the national economy and
patrimony
c. The self-executing provisions, the non-self-executing
provisions, and the self-evident social justice
provisions;
d. The executive, the legislative, and the judicial
16. Which of the following best exemplifies how
the system of checks and balances is carried out:
a. The legislature passes a law that prohibits the
president from commuting a judiciary imposed
sentence, as check of the president;
b. The President pardons a convict as a way to set aside
or modify a judgment of the judiciary
c. The judiciary overturns a pardon granted by the
President as a check on executions
d. The President pardons an accused after arraignment in
the interest of justice
17. Article VI, Section 5(3) of the Constitution
requires that for a city to be entitled to have at
least one representative, its population shall be at
least:
a.250,000
b.150,000
c.100,000
d.175,000
18. The President may contract or
guarantee foreign loans on behalf of the
Republic of the Philippines only upon prior
concurrence of the:
a. House of Representative
b.Senate
c. Central Bank
d.Monetary Board
19. The most essential, insistent and the least
limitable of (government) powers, extending as
it does to all the great public needs, is:

a. Emergency power
b.Police power
c. Legislative power
d.Power to declare
martial law
20. “Chilling effect” is a concept used
in the area of constitutional litigation
affecting:
a. Protected speech
b. Protected executive privilege
c. Protected legislative discretion
d. Protected judicial discretion
 21. Market value for purposes of determining just
compensation in eminent domain has been described as the
fair value of property.

a. Between one who desires to purchase and one does not desire to sell
b. Between one who desires to purchase and one who wants to delay
selling
c. Between one who desires to purchase and one who desires to sell
d. Between one who desires to purchase on terms and one who desires to
sell after a period of time
22. Basic Philippine law, in respect of the
modes of acquiring citizenship, follows the
rule(s) of:
a.Jus solis and jus sanguinis
b.Naturalization and provides for jus soli
c. Jus sanguinis and provides for jus soli
d.None of the above
23. This doctrine considers the general or
customary norms of international law as a part
municipal law and are to be enforced as such,
without regard as to whether they are enacted as
statutory or legislative rules or not:
a. Accession
b.Incorporation
c. Accretion
d.Adoption
24. It is line from which the breadth
of the territorial sea and other
maritime zones is measured:
a.Contiguous line
b.Economic line
c.Baseline
d.archipelagic
25. Under the United Nations Conference
of the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), the
extent of the contiguous zone is:
a. 3 nautical miles from the lowest
water mark
b. 12 miles from the outer limits
c. 12 miles from the lowest water
mark
d. 200 miles from the outer limits
26. It is a maritime zone adjacent to the
territorial seas where the coastal state may
exercise certain protective jurisdiction:

a.Baseline zone
b.Contiguous zone
c.Transit zone
d.Appurtenant zone
27. The State shall promote _____ in
all phases of national development.

a.Social justice
b.General welfare
c. Human equity
d.Common good
28. Within a maximum distance of 350 nautical miles
from the baseline is an area that lies under the ocean.
What do you call a drop-off point which descends
toward the deep ocean floor?

a.Shelf break
b.Contiguous zone
c.Open seas
d.Patrimonial sea
29. This refers to the most reasonable price of
land and shelter based on the needs and financial
capability of Program Beneficiaries and
Appropriate Financing Schemes (RA 7279)
a. Readily accessible
b.Affordable cost
c. Socialized housing
d.Reasonable cost
30. Subdivision projects shall observe and
conform to the provisions of easements as
may be the following except:
a. Chapter IV, Section 51 of the Water Code of
the Philippines on water bodies
b. National Power Corporation (NPC) on
transmission lines
c. Fault traces as identified by PHILVOLCS per
Resolution No. 515, series of 1992
d. Right-of-way of other private entities
31. Minimum Lot Area for row
type Socialized Housing Project
a.28 sq.m
b.44 sq.m
c.62 sq.m
d.32 sq.m
DWELLING
DWELLING
32. For row houses, there shall be a
maximum of ____ units per block or
cluster but in no case shall this be
more than ____ in length.
a.30,100
b.20,200
c.20,100
d.30,100
33. In R 824 (S. 2008), whenever a dwelling
abuts on a property line, a firewall shall be
required. The firewall shall be of masonry
construction, at least ____ and extend vertically
from the lowest portion of the wall
a. Least 170 millimeters
b. 6 inches thick
c. Least 180 millimeters
d. 4 inches thick
34. Distance between buildings shall also be
adequately maintained to ensure light and
ventilation. In general, the minimum distance
between 2 buildings in which the taller buildings
does not exceed 2 storeys shall be?
a.4.0 meters
b.6.0 meters
c. 3.8 meters
d.3.5 meters
35. Automatic fire alarm
suppression system should be
provided for which structures?
a. All buildings in observance to the
Building Code
b. Structure more than 20 feet
c. More than 15 meters in height
d. Three storey or more
36. For Pathwalks, a public way intended to be
used only as pedestrian access to property for
socialized housing projects. It shall have a width
of 3.0 meters and a maximum length of how
many meters?
a.40
b.50
c.60
d.80
37. This refers to housing programs and projects covering houses
and lots and home lots only undertaken by the government or the
private sector for the unprivileged and homeless citizens which
shall include sites and services development, long term
financing, liberalized terms on interest payment, and such other
benefits in accordance with the provisions of R.A. 7279 or the
urban development and housing act of 1992.
a.Socialized Housing
b.Economic Housing
c. Subdivision Planning
d.Condominium
38. Certificate of Completion (COC) shall be
issued by what department upon compliance by
the subdivision owner/developer with the
provisions of the Rules and Regulations.
a. Bureau Islands
b. Registry of Deeds
c. Housing and Land Use
Regulatory Board
d. Competent Courts
39. This law requires the planting of trees
in certain places and penalizes
unauthorized cutting, destruction,
damaging and injuring of certain plants and
vegetation.
a. REPUBLIC ACT 9275
b. Presidential Decree No. 953
c. REPUBLIC ACT 9003
d. Presidential Decree No. 8749
40. This law aims to protect the country’s water bodies from pollution from
land-based sources (industries and commercial establishments, agriculture
and community/household activities). It provides for comprehensive and
integrated strategy to prevent and minimize pollution through a multi-
sectoral and participatory approach involving all the stakeholders.

a. REPUBLIC ACT 9003

b. ECOLOGICAL SOLID WASTE
MANAGEMENT ACT OF 2000
c. REPUBLIC ACT 9275
d. REPUBLIC ACT 8749
41. This law aims to regulate and maintain clean air
that meets the National Air Quality guidelines values
for criteria pollutants, throughout the Philippines,
while minimizing the possible associated impacts to
the economy.
a. REPUBLIC ACT 9003
b. ECOLOGICAL SOLID WASTE
MANAGEMENT ACT OF 2000
c. REPUBLIC ACT 9275
d. REPUBLIC ACT 8749
42. The law aims to regulate restrict or prohibit the importation,
manufacture, processing, sale, distribution, use and disposal of
chemical substances and mixtures the present unreasonable risk
to human health. It likewise prohibits the entry, even in transit, of
hazardous and nuclear wastes and their disposal into the
Philippine territorial limits for whatever purpose; and to provide
advancement and facilitate research and studies on toxic
chemicals. a. REPUBLIC ACT 6967
b. TOXIC SUBSTANCES,
HAZARDOUS AND NUCLEAR
WASTE CONTROL ACT OF 1990
c. PHILIPPINE CLEAN AIR ACT OF
1999
d. REPUBLIC ACT 9275
43. Who signed the PD. 1596 claiming
the Spratly Island as part of the EEZ of
the Philippines?

a. Carlos P. Garcia
b.Ramon Magsaysay
c. Sergio Osmeña
d.Ferdinand Marcos
44. Philippine territory is clearly stated
in ______.

a. Article 1 of 1930 Constitution

b. Article 1 of 1985 Constitution
c. Article 1 of 1986 Constitution
d. Article 1 of 1987 Constitution
45. Philippines has a total land area
of _____.
a.100,000 square km
b.200,000 square km
c.300,000 square km
d.400,000 square km
46. In a technical sense, the term
property refers to:
a.Rights or interest in the
thing owned
b.A freehold
c. Personal Property Only
d.Land and Building
47. It is often difficult to determine
ownership rights of personal property
because personal property can:
a. Become real property
b.Be hypothecated
c. Be alienated
d.All of the above
48. Which of the following is
considered real property?
a. Timber
b.Airspace above the land
c. Crops under a prior sales
contract
d.Land field soil being hauled
49. Which of the following is
considered personal property?
a. Mineral rights
b. Leasehold estates
c. All improvements to Land
d. Trees growing in a natural
forest
50. Which of the following is
considered personal property?
a. An easement
b.Mineral rights
c. Trees growing in a forest
d.An existing mortgage
51. Which of the following is
considered apurtenant to land?
a. Something acquired by legal right and used
with the land for its benefit
b. A right of way over another’s adjoining land
c. Stock in a mutual water company
d. All of the above
52. Which of the following is
considered real property?
a. A bearing wall in a single family residence
b. A maturing grape crop that will be harvested
later and is governed by a sales contract
c. Trade fixtures installed by tenant that are
removable without damage
d. A built-in refrigerator and a mobile home that is
not attached to a permanent foundation
53. “Of indefinite duration” is a phrase
that describes a(n):

a. Estate of years
b.Estate from period to period
c. Estate of inheritance
d.Less than freehold estate
54. The words “time, title, interest, and
possession” are most likely related to
which of the following concepts?

a. Severally
b.Suvivorship
c. Sole ownership
d.Adverse possession
55. Concerning real property, a joint
tenancy interest and a community
property interest are alike in which of
the following are ways?
a. Ownership interests are equal
b. Only a husband and wife are involved
c. Both owners must join in any conveyance
d. Both provide the right of survivorship
56. One acre equals:
a.43,560 square feet
b.4,840 square yards
c.Neither a nor b
d.Either a or b
57. Approximately how many acres
are there in a lot ½ mile by ½ mile?
a.80
b.160
c.320
d.5,280
58. A property owner living on a river bank
acquires land due to the shifting of the
river. This process is called.
a.Succession
b.Accretion
c.Enroachment
d.None of the above
59. Property acquired by a husband
and wife during marriage and split
50/50 is called:
a.Community property
b.Joint tenancy property
c.Tenancy property
d.All of the above
60. What distinguishes a will from other
types of property transfers?
a. It allows for the transfer of more
property
b.It creates a present interest in
property
c. It only becomes effective at death
d.None of the above
61. After A has executed a will, he tore it out of anger
because B and C were disputing the fact that a house
and lot at San Lorenzo Village should have been
given by A to C when they will give it to B. is the
will revoked or not?
a. The mere act of A is immaterial
b. The tearing of the will may amount to revocation
c. The tearing of the will may amount to
revocation if coupled with intent of revoking it
d. the act of tearing the will is material
62. X and Y are married. The marriage was
contracted under articulo mortis, and the testator died
within 3 months from the time of marriage. What is
X’s share if his spouse’s inheritance? Choose the best
answer.
a. The surviving spouse shall inherit the whole hereditary
estate
b. The surviving spouse shall inherit ½ of the estate
c. The surviving spouse shall inherit 1/3 of the estate
d. The surviving spouse shall inherit ¾ of the estate
63. Rights to succession are
transmitted
a. On date of last will and testament
b. On probate of will
c. On death of testator
d. On date of death of surviving heir
64. What law shall determine the
validity of a will?
a. The national law of testator
b.The law at the time it is made
c. The law at the time of probate of the
will
d.The law at the time of death of the
testator
65. When an injury or damage is caused to
another, there being fault or negligence and there
no pre-existing contractual relation between the
parties, the source of the obligation is:

a. Law
b.Contracts
c. Quasi-contracts
d.Quasi-delicts
66. Disinheritance is the process or act through
testamentary disposition of depriving in a will any
compulsory heir of his legitime for true and lawful
causes. The requisites are:
a. Must be a valid will with legal, true and
existing cause expressly stated
b. Must be total and complete and said cause
stated in the will
c. The disinherited heir must be clearly
identified and the will is not revoked.
d. All of the above
67. A has son B and the latter adopted C. B
predeceased his father. Can C represent B
in the inheritance of A?
a. Yes, he is a compulsory heir
b. Yes, he is the legal representative
c. No, there is no blood relationship
between A and C
d. No, he is a voluntary heir
68. X during his lifetime sold and conveyed two (2)
parcels of land to his heirs. After X’s death and the
probate of his will, are the conveyed properties
subject to collation for determination of the heir’s
legitime?
a. No, because X is no longer the owner of the
conveyed properties
b. No, because the heirs are already the owners
of the conveyed properties
c. Yes, because the heirs are already the owners of
the conveyed properties
d. Yes, they are considered advanced legitime
69. The share in the estate of the
testator of illegitimate children who
survive with the surviving spouse is?
a.1/3
b.¼
c.1/8
d.½
70. The northeastern portion of the land X is
bounded by the Manila Bay. If there is accretion
formed, who owns the accretion?
a. The riparian power
b. The accretion belongs to
the estate
c. The owner of the
contiguous land
d. Belongs to the land
adjoining it
71. Which of the following is not a
characteristic of a co-ownership?
a. There must be more than one subject or
owner
b. There is one physical whole divided into
ideal shares
c. Each share is definite in amount, but is not
physically segregated from the first
d. The co-ownership has juridical property
72. X, Y and Z are co-owners of a real property
which was mortgaged to A. X redeemed it during the
period of redemption with his personal funds. Did X
become the sole owner of the property, thereby
terminating the co-ownership?
a. Yes, because his redemption vest in him sole
ownership
b. Yes, because the funds belong to him alone
c. No, because the redemption inured to the benefit to
all co-owners
d. No, because Y and Z did not consent to the redemption
73. The following are the remedies against
private nuisance, except:
a. A civil action
b. A prosecution under the penal
code or any local ordinance
c. Abatement without judicial
proceedings
d. None of the above
74. The nature of action in Quieting of
Title is in personam.
a. No, it is always a real action since the subject is real
property
b. No, because the decision is enforceable against the
whole world
c. Yes, provided the subject is personal property
d. Yes, because the decision is enforceable only against
the defeated party
e. None of the above
75. In case of roots of a neighboring tree
intruded to the state of another, the
neighboring owner has right to cut it off.
a. Yes, only after his demand for the cutting is ignored
b. Yes, because he owns the roots that intruded at his
property
c. No, without permission from the owner of the free
d. Yes, only after 10 years of prescription
e. No, as general rule
76. Which statement is correct?
1. Accession is the right of an owner of a property to
everything which is produced thereby or which is
incorporated or attached thereto either naturally or
artificially.
2. natural. Industrial and civil fruits belong to the owner
a. Both statements are correct
b. Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect
c. Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is correct
d. Both statements are incorrect
77. It is process whereby the current of a
river, creek or torrent segregates from an
estate on its bank a known portion of land
and transfers it to another estate. Such
process is known as:
a. Alluvion
b. Avulsion
c. Adjunction
d. Commixtion
78. Which provision of the Condominium Act (RA 4796) is correct?
1. a condominium corporation shall not, during its existence, sell,
exchange, and lease or otherwise dispose of the common areas owned
by or held by in the condominium project unless authorized by the
affirmative vote of all the stockholders or members
2. whenever real property has been divided into condominiums, each
condominium separately owned shall be separately assessed, for
purposes of real property taxation and other tax purposes, to the owners
thereof and tax on each such condominium shall constitute alien solely
thereon.
a. Provision 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
b. Both provisions are incorrect
c. Both provisions are correct
d. Provision 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
79. In land registration cases, the
government is always represented by
whom?
a. By the office of the City Prosecutor
b. By the office of the Solicitor General
c. By a private counsel hired for that matter
d. By the Register of Deeds
e. By the Bureau of Land
80. Accession is not a mode of
acquiring ownership?
a. Yes, because it was not one the seven (7) modes of
acquiring ownership
b. No, it is considered as acquisition by law
c. No, because it is neither alluvium or avulsion
d. Yes, in accordance with our customs
e. Yes, as a general rule only
81. In land registration cases, the
court may acquire jurisdiction only
after.
a. Service of summons to the
respondents/defendants
b. After trial of the case
c. Upon filing of the petition/complaint
d. Upon publication
e. Upon filing of the answer by the
respondent/defendants
82. In the contract of usufruct, the owner of the
property is being called the naked owner. Why?
a. Because the owner lost possession of the
property
b. Only if the subject is real property
c. Because of the agreement of the parties
d. Because he was divested of his two (2) major
rights
e. Because it is a good name
83. In formation of an island, the owner of
the nearest margin/distance is the owner of
the new island?
a. Because of the principle that accessory
follows the principal
b.Because of the express provision of laws
c. Only if the river is floatable or navigable
d.Only of there is a dries-up river bed
84. In perpendicular co-ownership, each floor
owners must bear expenses pertaining to his own
floor?
a. No, all the co-owners must share
proportionately
b. No, it is covered by Condominium Law
c. Yes, because his ownership is identified
d. Yes, as expressly provided for by law
e. C and D correct
85. Easement is always a real right.
a. Yes, if the easement is for use of another real
property
b. No, if the easement is for use of person only
c. Yes, because it is enforceable against the
world
d. Yes, because it is a property use limitation
e. Yes, in the case of contractual easement
86. Wendy, single, bought a parcel of land in Dagupan City from Amante for
P600,000.00. a contract was executed between them which already vested upon
Wendy full ownership of the property, although payable in monthly installments for
a period of 4years. One year after the execution of the contract, Wendy got married
to Lorenzo. They executed a marriage settlement whereby they agreed that their
properties shall be governed by the regime of conjugal partnership of gains.
Thereafter, subsequent installments were paid from the conjugal partnership funds.
Is the land conjugal or paraphernal?

a. The land is conjugal because the installments were paid from the conjugal
partnership funds.
b. The land is paraphernal because ownership thereof was acquired before the
marriage
c. The land is both conjugal and paraphernal because the installments were paid from
both the personal funds of Wendy and then conjugal partnership funds.
d. The land is paraphernal because it was Wendy who purchased the same.
87. Which one is more burdensome, easement
or usufruct?
a. Usufruct because the usufructuary has
possession and fruits of the property
b. Easement because the servient estate is under
obligation to let others use the property
c. None, because in both cases there is no transfer
of title
d. Easement because easement is enforceable even
if there is no contract
88. A, donated a parcel of land to the
unborn child of H and W, is the
donation valid?
a. No, because there is no done yet
b. No, because is no one yet to accept the donation
c. Yes, provided the child be born alive or to live
for at least 24 hours under certain conditions
d. No, because the done has no name yet to whom
the land is to be transferred
89. Mr. X planted a mango tree at the edge of the
boundary line of his (X) land with Mr. B. after
ten years branches of the mango tree encroached
the air space of B. Mr. X is the owner of the
encroaching branches because…
a. Of the principle “accessory follows the principal
b. The tree is planted in his (X) land
c. In accordance with the law of casement
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
90. Which among the properties of the states
that could be the subject of prescription in favor
of a private person?
a.Agricultural land
b.Forest land
c.Public road
d.seashore
91. Patrimonial Property of the State
refers to
a. Those no longer intended for public use
and public service
b. Those no longer intended for public good
and public welfare
c. Those actually possessed, occupied or
utilized by indigenous cultural minorities
by themselves or through their ancestors
92. The document issued by the government
agency concerned stating that mineral resources
project under consideration will not bring about
an unacceptable environmental impact and that
the proponent has satisfied the requirements of
the environmental impact system is called
a. Environmental Compliance Certificate
(ECC)
b. Environmental Impact Statement (EIS)
c. Joint Venture Agreement (JVA)
d. Mineral Resource EDUC Certification
93. In a residential subdivision in San Pedro, Laguna,
Marimar constructed and maintained a shoe factory which
emits pollution and very loud noise 24 hours a day.
How do you classify this nuisance?
a. Nuisance per se, because it is always a nuisance,
regardless based on its location and surroundings
b. Nuisance per accidents, because it is only a nuisance
based on its location and circumstances
c. Nuisance per se, because it affects the entire subdivision
d. Nuisance per accidents, because it affects and annoys
the entire residential subdivision.
94. Armand died intestate. His full-blood brothers, Danny, Edward and Floro. All
predeceased him. The following are the surviving relatives:
1. Benny and Bonnie, legitimate children of Bobby;
2. Cesar, legitimate child of Conrad;
3. Ernie, adopted child of Edward; and
4. Felix, grandson of Floro.
The net value of Armand’s estate is P 1,200,000.
How much do Benny and Bonnie stand to inherit by right of representation?

a. P300,000
b. P400,000
c. P150,000
d. None of the above
95. How much is Dante’s share in
the net estate? (1%)
a.P150,000
b.200,000
c.P300,000
d.P400,000
e.None of the above
96. What was the program which sought
improvement in land tenure and guaranteed the
expropriation of all tenanted landed estates?
a. Republic Act No. 34
b. R.A No. 1400 (1975)
c. Land Reform act or known as “land to
the Landless”
d. Land Distribution Act of 1955
97. What was enacted to establish security of
tenure between landlord and tenant. It probihited
the common practice that landlords may at any
time cast out the tenant?

a.Commonwealth Act No. 608

b.RA 4054
c.Executive Order No. 355
d.All of the above
98. This law covers original registration of title both
ordinary registration proceedings and cadastral
registration proceedings. Registration of voluntary
dealings and involuntary dealings and Reconstitution
of lost or destroyed original of Torrens title:
a. PD 1529
b. Commonwealth Act No. 608
c. RA 4054
d. Executive Order No. 355
99. Sec. 25 of Republic Act 377, otherwise
known as “The General Banking Act” provides
that acquired and mortgaged agricultural land
foreclosed by banks shall b e disposed of within
how many years after foreclosure?
a.3 years
b.1 year
c.2 years
d.5 years
100. For lands acquired through PD 27 and RA 6657.
What department shall prepare automated data
processing for a special registry book to be known as
the “Provisional Register of Documents issued under
P.D. 27” which shall be kept and maintained in every
Registry of Deeds throughout the country?
a.Department of Agrarian Reform
b.Land Registration Authority
c. Registry of Deeds
d.Land Bank