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2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 10 April, 2023 (SHIFT-1) | TIME : (9.00 a.m. to 12.00 p.m)
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SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS
PART : MATHEMATICS
1. For the system of linear equation
2x – y + 3z = 5
3x + 2y – z = 7
4x + 5y + z = ,
which of the following is NOT correct?
(1) The system has infinitely many solutions for = –6 and = 9
(2) The system is inconsistent for = –5 and = 8
(3) The system has infinitely many solutions for = –5 and = 9
(4) The system has a unique solution for 5 and = 8
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. For infinite solution
1P1 + 2P2 = P3
1(2x – y + 3z – 5) + (3x + 2y – z – 7) 2 = (4x + 5y + z –)
21 + 32 = 4 1 = –1
–1 + 22 = 5 2 = 2
31 – 2 = = – 5
– 51 – 72 = – = 9
2. Let the first term a and the common ratio r of a geometric progression be positive integers. If the sum of
squares of its first three terms is 33033, then the sum of these three terms is equal to
(1) 241 (2) 220 (3) 210 (4) 231
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. a12 a 22 a 32 33033
a2(1+r2+ r4) = 33033 = 112 × 3 ×7 ×13
a2(1 + r2 (1+r2)) = 112.273
a2(1+r2+ r4) = 112 .(16(16+1)+1)
a = 11 and r = 4
a1 + a2 + a3 = a + ar+ar2 = 11 (1 + 4 + 16) = 231
3. A line segment AB of length moves such that the points A and B remain on the periphery of a circle of
radius . Then the locus of the point, that divides the line segment AB in the ratio 2:3, is a circle of radius
19 2 19 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
7 3 5 5
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol.
–
A s in, cos ; B cos , s in
2 2 2 2
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | | MATHEMATICS
2. s in 3. cos
3 2 B
h= 2
5
2
A •
P(h,k)
– 2. cos 3. s in
K= 2 2
5
19 2
h2 + k2 =
5
19
Radius =
5
4. Let two vertices of a triangle ABC be (2, 4, 6) and (0, –2, –5), and its centroid be (2, 1, –1). If the image
of the third vertex in the plane x + 2y + 4z = 11 is (, , ), then + + is equal to
(1) 72 (2) 76 (3) 74 (4) 70
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. A(2, 4, 6) , B (0, –2, – 5), G (2, 1, –1)
Let C (x, y, z)
x20 y4–2 z6–5
G (2,1,–1) , , x = 4, y = 1, z = – 4
3 3 3
image of C in plane
– 4 – 1 4 – 24 2 – 16 – 11
1 2 4 21
= 6, = 5, = 4
+ + = 74
5. Let N denote the sum of the numbers obtained when two dice are rolled. If the m probability that 2 N < N!
m
is , where m and n are co-prime , then 4m – 3n is equal to
n
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 10
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | | MATHEMATICS
10 3
11 2
12 1
33 11 m
So probability =
36 12 n
Now 4m – 3n = 44– 36 = 8
6. If f x
tan1º x loge 123 , x > 0 , then the least value of f f x f f 4 is
x loge 1234 tan1º x
(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 0
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
ax b
Sol. f(x) = and d + a = 0 f(f(x)) = x
cx d
4
hence f(f(x)) + f(f(4/x)) = x 4 (by use of AM GM)
x
y 1
= – c
x 2
3x 3
1 2 2 1
y= – cx 2 f(1) = = – + c.1 c = 1
3x 3 3 3
1 1 80
f(x) = x 2 – f(3) = 9 – =
3x 9 9
18f(3) = 160
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | | MATHEMATICS
x2 y z5 x – 4 y 1 z 3
8. The shortest distance between the lines and is
1 –2 2 1 2 0
(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 8
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
î ĵ k̂
(a2 – a1).(b d)
Sol. S.D. = where b d = 1 – 2 2 = – 4 î 2 ĵ 4k̂
| bd |
1 2 0
(6 î ĵ – k̂ ).(–4 î 2 ĵ 4k̂ )
=
16 4 16
=9
9. Let the ellipse E: x² + 9y2 = 9 intersect the positive x- and y-axes at the points A and B respectively. Let
the major axis of E be a diameter of the circle C. Let the line passing through A and B meet the circle C
m
at the point P. If the area of the triangle with vertices A, P and the origin O is , where m and n are co-
n
prime, then m – n is equal to
(1) 15 (2) 18 (3) 16 (4) 17
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. A (-3, 0) & B (3, 0)
1
For maximum area P must lie on y– axis so Area of DPAB = 6 3 = 9 sq units
2
Max.
P
B
O A
line AB : x + 3y = 3 ; circle x2 + y2 = 9
9
(3 – 3y)2 + y2 = 9 y = 0,
5
1 9 27
Area = × 3 =
2 5 10
m – n = 27 – 10 = 17
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | | MATHEMATICS
10. If A is a 3 × 3 matrix and | A | = 2, then 3 adj (|3A|A2) is equal to
(1) 311.610 (2) 312.611 (3) 312.610 (4) 310.611
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. Given |A3×3| = 2
Now |3adj (|3A|A2)|
2
33 adj 3A A 2 3 3 A A
3 2
3 A 2
2 2
3 3 3 A 3 3. 3 9 A . A
3 2
10
33.318 A 3 21210 = 311 × 610
2z 3i
11. Let the complex number z = x + iy be such that is purely imaginary. If x + y2 = 0, then
2z i
y4 + y² – y is equal to :
2 3 4 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 3 4
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
2z – 3i 2 z 3i
Sol. + =0
2z i 2z – i
put z = x + iy equation becomes
4x2 4y2 – 4y 3 0
4(– y2 )2 4y2 4y – 3 0
3
y4 + y2 – y =
4
2 4 8 16
12. 96 cos cos cos cos cos is equal to
33 33 33 33 33
(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. Let =A
33
96cosAcos2Acos22Acos23Acos24A
32
96. sin –
96. s in 96. s in
sin25 A 33 = 33 33 = 3 Ans.
= 96 5 = =
2 sinA
32 s in 32 sin 32 s in
33 33 33
If x esin cos x sin2x – sinxdx
2
13. x
and (0) = 1, then is equal to
3
3 3 3 3
1 4 1 4
(1) e 4 (2) e 4 (3) e (4) e
2 2
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | | MATHEMATICS
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. I e f ( x ) g' x f ' x .gx dx e f x .gx
2x
I = esin . cos x c
but I(0) = 1 c = 0
2x
I = esin cos x
3
1
= e 4
3 2
14. A square piece of tin of side 30 cm is to be made into a box without top by cutting a square from each
corner and folding up the flaps to form a box. If the volume of the box is maximum, then its surface area
(in cm²) is equal to
(1) 800 (2) 1025 (3) 675 (4) 900
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol.
x 30–2x x
V = (30–2x)2 x
dv
(2x – 30 )(6 x – 30 )
dx
+ – +
5 15
max Min.
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | | MATHEMATICS
16. An arc PQ of a circle subtends a right angle at its centre O. The mid-point of the arc PQ is R. If
OP u, OR v and OQ u , then , ² are the roots of the equation
(1) 3x2 + 2x –1 = 0 (2) x2 + x – 2 = 0 (3) 3x2 – 2x – 1 = 0 (4) x2 – x – 2 = 0
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Q u v
R v
O
P(u) u v u v r
Sol.
Given OP.OQ 0
|u|2 + (u.v) 0
r + r.r cos 45º = 0 + 0 ….. (1)
2
r2
Again u u u r2 = 2 r2 + 2 r2 + 2
2
1 = 2 + 2 + 2
2
1 2 2 2 2
2
equations (1) = 1, – 1
equations whose roots are 1, 2 x2 – 3x + 2 =0
equations whose roots are –1, 2 x2 – x – 2 =0
x2 y2
17. The slope of tangent at any point (x, y) on a curve y = y(x) is , x 0 . If y(2)=0, then a value of y(8)
2xy
is
(1) 4 3 (2) 2 3 (3) 4 2 (4) 2 3
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
dy x 2 y 2
Sol.
dx 2xy
dy d d x 2 2 x 2
Let y = x x x
dx dx dx 2x.x
d 1 2 1 2 2 dx 2 x
x
dx
2
2
1 2
d
x
1
2
x
0
y2 x2
n( –1) + nx = nc x (–1) = c x c y2 – x2 = cx
x2
Now f(2) = 0 c = –2
y2– x2 = –2x x = 8 then y2 – 64 = –16
2
y = 48
y = f(8) = 4 3
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | | MATHEMATICS
18. Let O be the origin and the position vector of the point P be î 2 ĵ 3 k̂ . If the position vectors of the
points A, B and C are 2î ĵ 3 k̂ , 2 î 4 ĵ 2 k̂ and – 4 î 2 ĵ k̂ respectively, then the projection of the
Projection =
OP. AB AC = 5 1 4 6
9
3
AB AC 5 1 4 4 3
13 13
1 1
19. If the coefficient of x7 in ax 2 and the coefficient of x–5 in ax 2 are equal, then a4b4 is
bx bx
equal to :
(1) 44 (2) 11 (3) 33 (4) 22
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
13 r
1 13 r 1
ax 3 Tr 1 Cr ax 2
13
Sol.
bx bx
r
1
Tr 1 13 Cr . a13 r x13 3r
b
2 13 3r 7
1 3r 6
coeff. of x7 = 13
C 2 . a11
b r2
13 r
1 13 r 1
ax 2 Tr 1 13 Cr ax 2
bx bx
r
1
Tr 1 13 Cr . a13 r x13 3r
b
6 13 3r 5
1 3r 18
coeff. of x–5 = 13 C 6 . a 7
b r6
6 2
1 1
Now C6a 7 13 C2a11
13
b b
13 13 2 11
C
a 4b 4 13 6
C2 6 7 13
a4 b4 = 22
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | | MATHEMATICS
x 3 y 2 1 z
20. Let P be the point of intersection of the line and the plane x + y + z = 2. If the distance
3 1 2
of the point P from the plane 3x – 4y + 12z = 32 is q, then q and 2q are the roots of the equation
(1) x² – 18x – 72 = 0 (2) x² + 18x + 72 = 0 (3) x² + 18x – 72 = 0 (4) x² – 18x + 72 = 0
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. Let point on line is P(3– 3, – 2–2 + 1)
Now it also lies on plane
x+y+z=2
3– 3 + – 2 – 2+ 1 = 2
= 3
P(6,1, –5)
so distance from plane
3x – 4y + 12z = 32 is
18 – 4 – 60 – 32
6
9 16 144
q = 6, 2q = 12
and equation x2 – 18x + 72 = 0
21. If the mean of the frequency distribution
=
f (x )
i i
2
– ( x )2
f i
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | | MATHEMATICS
22. The number of permutations, of the digits 1, 2, 3, ..., 7 without repetition, which neither contain the string
153 nor the string 2467, is___________
NTA Ans. (4898)
Reso Ans. (4898)
Sol.
n A B n – nA B n(A) = 5! ; 153 , 2, 4, 6 , 7
24.
The number of elements in the set n :| n2 10n 19 | 6 is ________
NTA Ans. (6)
Reso Ans. (6)
Sol. |n2 – 10n + 19| < 6
–6 < n2 – 10 n + 19 < 6
+6 +6 +6
0 <(n–5)2 < 12
0< n – 5 < 12 12 n 5 0
5 < n < 8.5 1.5 < n < 5
{6,7,8} n{2, 3, 4}
number of values of n = 6
25. Some couples participated in a mixed doubles badminton tournament. If the number of matches played,
so that no couple played in a match, is 840, then the total numbers of persons, who participated in the
tournament, is____________
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | | MATHEMATICS
Sol Let number of couples is n
nC n–2C . 2 = 840
2 2
nC n–2C . = 420
2 2
n(n 1) (n 2)(n 3)
. 420 .
2 2
n(n–1) (n–2) (n–3) = 1680 = 8.7.6.5 = n = 8
number of person = 2 × 8 = 16
26. Let y = p(x) be the parabola passing through the points (–1, 0), (0, 1) and (1, 0). If the area of the region
{(x, y): (x + 1)² + (y – 1)² ≤ 1, y ≤ p(x)} is A, then 12( – 4A) is equal to ____________.
NTA Ans. (16)
Reso Ans. (16)
Sol. Let y = ax2 + bx + c
Pass 1, 0 : a b c 0
Pass 0,1 : c 1 2(a + c) = 0, a = – 1, b = 0
Pass 1, 0 : a b c 0
y = – x2 + 1
y = 1 –x2
1 2 1 4
A = .12. 1 Now 12 ( – 4A) = 12 ( – + ) = 16
2 2 3 4 3 3
27. Let a common tangent to the curves y² = 4x and (x – 4)2 + y² = 16 touch the curves at the points P and
Q. Then (PQ)2 is equal to__________
NTA Ans. (32)
Reso Ans. (32)
1
Sol. Tangent of parable y = mx + ……… (1)
m
1
4m 0
touches circle : m 4
1 m2
1
16m2 + 8 + = 16 m2 + 16
m2
1 1
m2 = m
8 32
Point of contact on parable P(8, 4 2 )
8 42 4
2
Length of tangent PQ = 2 16 32 (PQ)2 = 32
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | | MATHEMATICS
.
2x : 2 x 1
x : 1 x 0
Sol.
0 :0 x 1
x 1 : 1 x 2
point of discontinuity -1
point of non-differentiability -1, 0, 1
2
1
-2 -1 0 1 2
29. Let a, b, c be three distinct positive real number such that 2aloge a bcloge b and bloge 2 aloge c .
Then 6a + 5bc is equal to _____________
NTA Ans. (8)
Reso Ans. (8)
Sol. (2a)na = (b,c)nb bn2 = anc
na(n2 + na) = nb (nb + nc) …… (1) n2. nb = nc.na ……..(2)
nb.nb.n2
(na)2 – (nb)2 = – n2na
na
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | | MATHEMATICS
30. The sum of all those terms, of the arithmetic progression 3, 8, 13, ........ 373, which are not divisible by 3,
is equal to _______.
NTA Ans. (9525)
Reso Ans. (9525)
Sol. 3, 8, 13, ….. 373
tn = 3 + (n – 1)5 = 373
370
(n – 1) = 74
5
n = 75
sum =
75
3 373 14100
2
Terms divisible by 3 : 3, 18,33 …….
tn = 3 + (n – 1) 15 373
370
n–1
15
n
n
Sum =
25
2.3 25 115
2
=
25
6 24 15
2
= 4575
Request sum = 14100 – 4575
= 9525 Ans.
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JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)
2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 10 April, 2023 (SHIFT-1) | TIME : (9.00 a.m. to 12.00 p.m)
w
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
PART : PHYSICS
31. A zener diode of power of rating 1.6 W is to be used as voltage regulator. If the zener diode has a
breakdown of 8 V and it has to regulate voltage fluctuating between 3 V and 10 V. The value of resistance
Rs for safe operation of diode will be
VQ = Q volt
VP – Vq = Q volt
Current through zener diode
P 1 .6 W
i= = = 0.2A
V 8
VR – VP (10–8) volt
V VA 2V
R= C = 10.00 Option (2)
0 .2 A
33. The angular momentum for the electron in Bohr's orbit is L. If the electron is assumed to revolve in second
orbit of hydrogen atom, then the change in angular momentum will be
L
(1) 2 L (2) L (3) zero (4)
2
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
Sol. L = mvr
r n2
v 1/n
Ln
nh
also L=
2
1. h
L1 =
2
2. h
L2 =
2
Change (L2 – L1)
= 2L – L = L
35. A carrier wave of amplitude 15 V is modulated by a sinusoidal base band signal of amplitude 3 V. The
ratio of maximum amplitude to minimum amplitude in an amplitude modulated wave is
(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 3/2 (4) 1
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
A max A A M 15 3 3
Sol. C =
A min A C A M 15 3 2
C 5
(1) (2) C (3) 4C (4) 2C
2 3
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
Sol.
V 0V
V 0V
0V
Ceq = C + C = 2C
A
38. A particle executes S.H.M. of amplitude A along x-axis. At t = 0, the position of the particle is x and
2
it moves along positive x-axis. The displacement of particle in time t is x = A sin(t + ), then the value of
will be
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 4 3 2
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
Sol.
x=0 t=0
x=A/2
x = Asin (t + )
A
A sin( rt )
2
sin
6
=
6
39. The energy of an electromagnetic wave contained in a small volume oscillates with
(1) the frequency of the wave (2) half the frequency of the wave
(3) double the frequency of the wave (4) zero frequency
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. K = E0sin(t –kx)
E = E0 sin (t – kx)
du E2
Energy density 0E 2 (sin 2 (t kx ) = 0 [1 cos(2t 2kx)]
dv 2
40. Consider two containers A and B containing monoatomic gases at the same pressure (P), Volume (V)
and Temperature (T). The gas in A is compressed isothermally to 1/8 of its original volume while the gas
in B is compressed adiabatically to 1/8 of its original volume. The ratio of final pressure of gas in B to that
of gas in A is
3
1
(1) 8 (2) 8 2 (3) 4 (4)
8
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Isothermal process
V
PV = PA
8
PA = 8P …(i)
Addiabatic process
P1V1 = P2V2
5/3
PB V PB V
= 1 ; =
P V2 P V /8
PB = 32P
PB 32P
4
PA 8P
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
41. The equivalent resistance of the circuit shown below between points a and b is :
4 4
4 4
16
16 4 16
R eq = = 3.2
16 4 5
42. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front of a plane mirror. The virtual and erect image is formed
by the mirror. Now the mirror is moved by 4 cm towards the stationary object. The distance by which the
position of image would be shifted, will be
(1) 8 cm towards mirror (2) 2 cm towards mirror
(3) 8 cm away from mirror (4) 4 cm towards mirror
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. Initial
x = 12 cm x=0
x = 12 cm
Final
x = –4 cm
O
x = 8 cm x=0
x = 8 cm at resonance
XL XC
Zmin = R (Pure resistive)
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
43. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Maximum power is dissipated in a circuit containing an inductor, a capacitor and a resistor
connected in series with an AC source, when resonance occurs
Statement II : Maximum power is dissipated in a circuit containing pure resistor due to zero phase
difference between current and voltage.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (2) Both Statement I and Statement Ii are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. Impedance
Z= R 2 ( XL XL )2 at Resonance XL = XC
Zmin = R (Pure resistive)
44. Two satellites of masses m and 3m revolve around the earth in circular orbits of radii r & 3r respectively.
The ratio of orbital speeds of the satellites respectively is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 :1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
GM
Sol. V=
r
1
V
r
V1 r2 3
= 3 :1
V2 r1 1
45. The de Broglie wavelength of a molecule in a gas at room temperature (300 K) is 1. If the temperature
of the gas is increased to 600 K, then the de Broglie wavelength of the same gas molecule becomes :
1 1
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 2 1 (4) 21
2 2
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
h h
Sol.
P mVrms
From K.T.G. Vrms T
1
T
2 T1 300 1
=
1 T2 600 2
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| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-1) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
46. A particle of mass m moving with velocity v collides with a stationary particle of mass 2m. After collision,
then stick together and continue to move together with velocity
v v v
(1) (2) (3) (4) v
2 3 4
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol.
m V1 2m
m 2m V2
Pi = Pf
mv1 + 2m × 0 = (3 m)V2
V2 = V/3
a 2b 3
47. A physical quantity P is given as P . The percentage error in the measurement of a, b, c and d
c d
are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. The percentage error in the measurement of quantity P will be
(1) 12% (2) 14% (3) 16% (4) 13%
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
P 2a 2b 2c 1 d
Sol. 100 100
P a b c 2 d
1
(2 × 1 + 3 × 2 + 3 + × 4) = 13%
2
48. The range of the projectile projected at an angle of 15º with horizontal is 50 m. If the projectile is projected
with same velocity at an angle of 45º with horizontal, then its range will be
(1) 100 2 m (2) 50 m (3) 100 m (4) 50 2 m
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. R sin2
R1 sin(2 15) sin30 1
R 2 sin(2 45) sin90 2
50 1
R2 2
R2 = 100 m
R
49. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, the weight of a body at a depth d from
2
the surface of earth, if its weight on the surface of earth is 200 N, will be :
(Given R = radius of earth)
(1) 400 N (2) 500 N (3) 300 N (4) 100 N
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
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200
Sol. M= 20 kg
g 10
g due to gravity at a depth
d
gd = g 1
R
R/2 g
gd = g1 = = 5 m/s2
R 2
w = mg
at d = R/2
20 × 5 = 100 N
50. The position-time graphs for two students A and B returning from the school to their home are shown in
figure.
51. Two wires each of radius 0.2 cm and negligible mass, one made of steel and the other made of brass
are loaded as shown in the figure. The elongation of the steel wire is _______ × 10 –6m. [Young's modulus
for steel = 2 × 1011 Nm–2 and g = 10 ms–2]
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Sol.
53. Three concentric spherical metallic shells X, Y and Z of radius a, b and c respectively [a < b < c] have
surface charge densities , – and , respectively. The shells X and Z are at same potential. If the radii
of X & Y are 2 cm and 3 cm, respectively. The radius of shell Z is _________cm.
NTA Ans. 05.00
Reso Ans. 05.00
z
Sol. y +O–
a
c v
b
Vx = Vz
qx qy qc qx qy qz
4 0a 4 0b 4 0c 4 0c 4 0c 4 0c
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54. The decay constant for a radioactive nuclide is 1.5 × 10 –5 s–1. Atomic weight of the substance is
60 g mole–1, (NA = 6 × 1023). The activity of 1.0 g of the substance is _________ × 1010 Bq.
NTA Ans. 15.00
Reso Ans. 15.00
106 1 107
Sol. No of mole =
60 6
107
No of atoms = No of mole × NA = 6 1023 1016
6
A = N0e–t
For t = 0, A = A0 = N0
= 1.5 × 10–5 × 1016 = 15 × 1010 Bq
55. 10 resistors each of the resistance 10can be connected in such as to get maximum and minimum
equivalent resistance. The ratio of maximum and minimum equivalent resistance will be __________.
NTA Ans. 100
Reso Ans. 100
56. A 1 m long metal rod XY completes the circuit as shown in figure. The plane of the circuit is perpendicular
to the magnetic field of flux density 0.15 T. If the resistance of the circuit is 5, the force needed to move
the rod in direction, as indicated, with a constant speed of 4m/s will be _________ 10–3 N.
x X x x x
x x x x
5 v
x x x x
x Y x x x
NTA Ans. 18
Reso Ans. 18
Sol. F = iB
2
E Bv Bv vB 2 2 4 15 4 225
= B = × B = B 2 4 = 18 × 10–3 N
R R R R 5 100 5 10
57. The current required to be passed through a solenoid of 15 cm length and 60 turns in order to
demagnetise a bar magnet of magnetic intensity 2.4 × 103 Am–1 is _________A.
NTA Ans. 6
Reso Ans. 6
Sol. =h
Given I = 2.4 × 103 A/m
2.4 × 103 = H = ni
N 60 2.4 15 10 36
n= 2.4 × 103 = i i = = 6A
15 10 2 60 6
58. Unpolarised light of intensity 32 Wm–2 passes through the combination of three polaroids such that the
pass axis of the last polaroid is perpendicular to that of the pass axis of first polaroid. If intensity of
emerging light is 3 Wm–2, then the angle between pass axes of first two polariods is _________.
NTA Ans. 30
Reso Ans. 30
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Sol. 0 = 32W/m2
0
0/2 cos 2
2
0
cos 2 sin 3
2
X
59. A closed circular tube of average radius 15 cm, whose inner walls are rough, is kept in vertical plane, A
block of mass 1 kg fit inside the tube. The speed of block is 22 m/s, when it is introduced at the top of
tube. After completing five oscillation, the block stops at the bottom region of tube. The work done by the
tube on the block is __________J. (Given g = 10 m/s2).
1
60. If the earth suddenly shrinks to th of its original volume with its mass remaining the same, the period
64
24
of rotation of becomes h . The value of x is __________.
x
NTA Ans. 16
Reso Ans. 16
2
2 2 R
Sol. By conservation of angular momentum MR 2f = m 2
5 5 4
1 1 T1 16 t1 16 24
= ; t1 24 =
2 16 T2 1 x 1 t2
x = 16
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JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)
2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 10 April, 2023 (SHIFT-1) | TIME : (9.00 a.m. to 12.00 p.m)
w
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY
PART : CHEMISTRY
62. Isomeric amines with molecular formula C8H11N give the following tests
Isomer (P) Can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
Isomer (Q) Reacts with Hinesburg’s reagent to give solid insoluble in NaOH
Isomer (R) Reacts with HONO followed by –naphthol in NaOH to give red dye.
Isomers (P), (Q) and (R) respectively are
P Q R
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Ans. NTA : (2)
Reso : (2)
Sol. (P) Gabriel synthesis is used for the preparation of aliphatic primary amines. Aromatic primary amines
cannot be prepared by this method.
(Q) 2º amine react with Hinsberg's reagent to give solid insoluble in NaOH.
(R) Aromatic amines react with nitrous acid at low temperatures (273-278 K) to form diazonium salts,
which form red/orange dye with -Napthol.
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63. The number of molecules and moles in 2.8375 litres of O 2 at STP are respectively
(1) 7.527 × 1022 and 0.125 mol
(2) 7.527 × 1022 and 0.250 mol
(3) 7.527 × 1023 and 0.125 mol
(4) 1.505 × 1022 and 0.250 mol
Ans. NTA : (1)
Reso : (1)
2.8375
Sol. = 0.125 mol
22.7
0.125 x 6.02 x 1023 = 7.527 x 1022 molecules
65. The enthalpy change for the adsorption process and micelle formation respectively are
(1) Hads < 0 and Hmic < 0
(2) Hads < 0 and Hmic > 0
(3) Hads > 0 and Hmic < 0
(4) Hads > 0 and Hmic > 0
Ans. NTA : (2)
Reso : (2)
Sol. Enthalpy of Adsorption is negative because attraction force increases in Adsorption. Enthalpy of formation
of micelle is in general positive.
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67. Given
(A) 2CO(g) + O2(g) 2CO2(g) H1 – x kJ mol–1
(B) C(graphite) + O2(g) CO2(g) H2 – y kJ mol–1
The H for the reaction
1
C(graphite) + O2 (g) CO(g) is
2
x 2y
(1) (2) 2y – x
2
2x y x 2y
(3) (4)
2 2
Ans. NTA : (1)
Reso : (1)
(i)
Sol. From equation (ii) – = target equation
2
C(graphite) + O2(g) CO2(g) ; H = -y KJ/mol
1 1
[2CO2(g) 2CO(g) + O2(g)] × ; H = -x KJ/mol ×
2 2
____________________________________________________________
1
C (graphite) + O2(g) CO(g) so H =
2
x x
So H for target equation = – y – =–y+
2 2
x 2y
= KJ/mol
2
68. Prolonged heating is avoided during the preparation of ferrous ammonium sulphate to
(1) prevent hydrolysis
(2) prevent breaking
(3) prevent oxidation
(4) prevent reduction
Ans. NTA : (3)
Reso : (3)
Sol. On Prolong heating some ferrous ions (Fe+2) oxidised to ferric ions (Fe+3). So in solution ferrous
ammonium sulphate present with some ferric ion (Fe+3)
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(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Ans. NTA : (3)
Reso : (3)
Sol. Benzylic carbon gets oxidised into carboxylic acid in presence of KMnO4 and heat.
CH2CH3 COOH
KMnO4
COOCH3
COOH
CH=CH2 COOH
70. The octahedral diamagnetic low spin complex among the following is
(1) NiCl4
2
(2) CoNH3 6
3
(3) CoF6
3
(4) CoCl6
3
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71. Given below are two reactions, involved in the commercial production of dihydrogen (H 2).
The two reactions are carried out at temperature “T 1” and “T2”, respectively
T
C(s) + H2O(g)
1
CO(g) + H2(g)
T
CO(g) + H2O(g) 2 CO2(g) + H2(g)
Catalyst
673K
CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g)
Catalyst
so (T1 T2)
72. Identify the correct order of reactivity for the following pairs towards the respective mechanism
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (2) (A), (B) and (D) only
(3) (B), (C) and (D) only (4) (A), (C) and (D) only
Ans. NTA : (1)
Reso : (1)
1
Sol. Reactivity of SN2 (1º > 2 º > 3 º) halide.
Steric Crowding
Reactivity of SN1 Stability of carbocation.
Reactivity of electrophilic substitution reaction Electron density.
1
Reactivity of Nucleophilic substitution reaction .
Electron density
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73. Using column cyhromatography, mixture of two compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ was separated.
‘A’ eluted first, this indicates ‘B’
(1) low Rf, stronger adsorption (2) high Rf, stronger adsorption
(3) low Rf, weaker adsorption (4) high Rf, weaker adsorption
Ans. NTA : (1)
Reso : (1)
Sol. Theory Based
75. Lime reacts exothermally with water to give ‘A’ which has low solubility in water. Aqueous solution of ‘A’
is often used for the test of CO2, a test in which insoluble B is formed. If B is further reacted with CO 2
then soluble compound is formed. ‘A’ is
(1) White lime (2) Quick lime (3) Lime water (4) Slaked lime
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
CaO 2 Ca(OH) (A)
H O
Sol. 2
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78. Which of the following is used as a stabilizer during the concentration of sulphide ores?
(1) Pine oils (2) Xanthates (3) Fatty acids (4) Cresols
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
Sol. In Froth floatation process, a suspension of the powdered ore is made with water. To it, collectors and
froth stabilisers are added. Collectors (e. g. xanthates, etc.) enhance non-wettability of the mineral
particles and froth stabilisers (e. g., cresols, aniline) stabilise the froth.
79. The one that does not stabilize 2° and 3° structures of proteins is
(1) – O – O – linkage (2) H-bonding
(3) vander waals forces (4) – S –S – linkage
Ans. NTA : (1)
Reso : (1)
Sol. The main forces which stabilise the 2° and 3° structures of proteins are hydrogen bonds, disulphide
linkages, van der Waals and electrostatic forces of attraction.
80. The pair from the following pairs having both compounds with net non-zero dipole moment is
(1) cis-butene, trans-butene
(2) 1,4-Dichlorobenzene, 1,3-Dichlorobenzene
(3) CH2Cl2, CHCl3
(4) Benzene, anisidine
Ans. NTA : (3)
Reso : (3)
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Cl Cl OCH3
NH2
Cl
Cl
1,4-Dichlorobenzene 1,3-Dichlorobenzene Benzene Anisidine
81. In potassium ferrocyanide, there are _______ pairs of electrons in the t 2g set of orbitals.
Ans. NTA : 3
Reso : 3
Sol. K4[Fe(CN)6]
Fe+2 d6 t 22,g2,2 e 0g,0
Number of electron pair in t2g orbitals = 3
S
SO2 Bent
O O
O
O3 Bent
O O
–
3–
Linear
– –
N 3– NNN Linear
–
N
NO2– O O Bent
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83. A molecule undergoes two independent first order reactions whose respective half lives are 12 min and
3 min. If both the reactions are occurring then the time taken for the 50% consumption of the reactant is
_____ min. (Nearest integer)
Ans. NTA : 2
Reso : 2
1 1 1
Sol. = or t1/2 = 2.4 min
t1/ 2 3 12
84. The number of incorrect statement/s about the black body from the following is ______
(A) Emit or absorb energy in the form of electromagnetic radiation.
(B) Frequency distribution of the emitted radiation depends on temperature.
(C) At a given temperature, intensity vs frequency curve passes through a maximum value.
(D) The maximum of the intensity vs frequency curve is at a higher frequency at higher temperature
compared to that at lower temperature.
Ans. NTA : 0
Reso : 0
Sol. All Statements are correct
85. The sum of lone pairs present on the central atom of the interhalogen IF 5 and IF7 is ______
Ans. NTA : (1)
Reso : (1)
Sol. Molecule Structure Number of Lone pair of
electron on central atom
F F
I
IF5 (1)
F F
F
F
F
IF7 I (0)
F F
F
2.2 V 0.70 V
86. FeO24 Fe 3
Fe 2
–0.45 V
Fe 0
EFeO 2
/ Fe2
is x × 10–3 V. The value of x is _______
4
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87. In the following reactions, the total number of oxygen atoms in X and Y is _____
Na2O + H2O 2X
Cl2O7 + H2O 2Y
Ans. NTA : (5)
Reso : (5)
Sol. Na2O + H2O 2NaOH
Cl2O7 + H2O 2HClO4
NaOH = 1 Oxygen – atom
HClO4 = 4 Oxygen – atom
Total Oxygen atoms in X and Y = 1 + 4 = 5
88. At constant temperature, a gas is at a pressure of 940.3 mm Hg. The pressure at which its volume
decreases by 40% is ______ mm Hg. (Nearest integer)
Ans. NTA : (1567)
Reso : (1567)
Sol. For ideal gas at constant temperature
P1V1 = P2V2
940.3 x V = P2 [0.6V]
940.3
P2 =
0 .6
= 1567.16 mm Hg
89. If the degree of dissociation of aqueous solution of weak monobasic acid is determined to be 0.3, then
the observed freezing point will be _____ % higher than the expected/theoretical freezing point.
(Nearest integer)
Ans. NTA : (65)
Reso : (65)
Sol. For calculated value Tf
(Tf) = Kf × m
For observed value of Tf
Tf = i[Kf × m]
i = 1 + (n – 1)
i = 1 + (2 – 1) 0.3
i = 1.3
(Tf)observed = 1.3[Kf × m]
( Tf )observed – ( Tf )Calculated
% greater observed Tf = × 100 = 0.3 × 100 = 30 %
( Tf )Calculated
90. The number of correct statement/s involving equilibria in physical processes from the following is ____
(A) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature.
(B) Both the opposing processes occur at the same rate.
(C) When equilibrium is attained at a given temperature, the value of all its parameters became equal.
(D) For dissolution of solids in liquids, the solubility is constant at a given temperature.
Ans. NTA : 3
Reso : 3
Sol. A, B and D
(C) values of parameters becomes constant.
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