PSM REVISION TEST SERIES (NEET) – 2022_Ques.

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PSM REVISION TEST SERIES (NEET) – 2023_Ques.
1. Which of the following is false regarding 8. Which of the following is not a primary
Proportional Mortality Rate: prevention strategy?
a) It is a proportion. a. Breast self examination
b) It will indicate burden of a disease. b. Control of tobacco
c) The denominator is total number of deaths. c. Radiation protection
d) It will indicate severity of a disease. d. cancer education

2. Which of the following is false regarding 9. Which of the following is false regarding
incidence : administration of vaccines :
a) It measures Rate at which new cases are a. PCV : 0.5 ml , intramascular , right thigh , 2
occurring. doses at 6 and 14 weeks
b) It is obtained by cross sectional study b. IPV : 0.1 ml, intradermal , right deltoid , 2
c) Useful for Taking action doses at 6 and 14 weeks
d) Used for etiological studies. c. Rotavac : 5 drops , oral , at 6-10-14 weeks
d. Pentavalent : 0.5 ml , intramascular , right
3. If a new effective treatment for cancer is thigh , 2 doses at 6 -14 weeks
initiated and all other factors remain the
same; which of the following is most likely to 10. “Open vial policy” is not applicable to all of
happen: the following vaccines except :
a. Incidence will not change
b. Prevalence will not change a. DPT
c. Neither incidence nor prevalence will change b. BCG
d. Incidence and prevalence will change c. Measles
d. JE vaccine
4. Causative agent is present but there is no
transmission is known as: 11. Which of the following set for adverse effect
a. Elimination of vaccines is correctly matched :
b. Control
c. Eradication A. 17D disease I : Vaccine associated
d. Holoendemic viscerotropic
B. Measles II: Intususception
5. Which of the following is false regarding C. Influenza
reasons for Cyclic trend (inactivated) III: Guillain-Barre syndrome
a. Build up of susceptibles is required D. Rotavac IV: Thrombocytopenia
b. Herd immunity variations
c. Antigenic variations a. A-I B-II C-III D-IV
d. None of these b. A-I B-III C-II D-IV
c. A-I B-IV C-III D-II
6. Number of cases one case generates on d. A-II B-I C-IV D-III
average over the course of its infectious
period in a completely susceptible population 12. Which of the following set is correctly
is : matched for type of vaccine mentioned :
a) Basic reproduction number A. Sputnik I : Killed vaccine
b) Effective reproduction number B. Covaxin II: Vector based vacacine
c) Both of these C. Pfizer III: Plasmid DNA vaccine
d) None of these D. Zycov-D IV: mRNA vaccine

7. To prove causality which of the following is a. A-I B-II C-III D-IV

the weakest criteria : b. A-I B-III C-II D-IV
a. Factor is present in all subjects with the disease. c. A-I B-IV C-III D-II
b. Elimination of the factor reduces risk of the d. A-II B-I C-IV D-III
disease.
c. Exposure to this factor should precede the 13. Which of the following set for
development of the disease. epidemiological studies is correctly matched
d. Factor is more prevalent among those with the :
disease than among those without the disease. 1. Residents of three villages are surveyed at one
point of time and subjected for examination.

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PSM REVISION TEST SERIES (NEET) – 2023_Ques.
The proportion of residents with diabetes was a. 2
computed. Prevalence of diabetes between three b. 4
villages was compared. c. 6
2. A total of 50 patients with an atypical disease are d. 8
identified and surveyed by patient interviews
with reference to their past exposure to 16. Which of the following is/are false statements
radiation 1) Cohort studies are preferred for rare disease
3. A study is performed in which mothers of babies 2) Odds ratio of 0.8 indicate no association
born with NTD are questioned about their 3) Temporal association is proved in case control
acetaminophen consumption during the 1st study
trimester of pregnancy. At the same time
mothers of babies born without NTD are also a. 1,2,3
questioned about their consumption of b. 1,2 only
acetaminophen during the 1st trimester. c. 1,3 only
d. 1 only
a. 1: Cross sectional study 2: case report 3 : Case
series 17. False about Randomised Control Trials is-
b. 1: Clinical trial 2: case report 3 : Case series (a) Results of attrition can be included in the
c. 1: Cross sectional study 2: case series 3 : Case analysis
control study (b) Randomisation is done while selection subjects
d. 1: Cohort study 2: case report 3 : Case series for the study
(c) Double blinding is the most common form of
14. Which of the following is true statement as blinding observed
per the information given below in the table : (d) Cross-over design helps removing ethical
Stroke Controls concerns
cases
Drug abuse 300 100 18. Association of high altitude areas with
: yes goiter is example of :
Drug abuse 100 300 a. Causal association
: No b. Direct association
400 400 c. Temporal association
d. Indirect association
(a) The study is prospective
(b) Odds ratio will be less than 1 19. The systematic error seen in retrospective
(c) Drug abuse is protective against stroke studies eliminated by prospective studies :
(d) Chi square test can be applied here to assess a) Selection bias
statistical significance of association b) Recall bias
c) Confounder
15. In a study 400 smokers and 600 smokers d) All of these
were followed up over a period of 10 years to
find out the incidence of hypertension. The 20. Shown below is hypothetical findings of a
following table summarizes the data at the screening test. Which of the following is true
end of the study: regarding the findings as per the image :
Hypertension
Y N Total
e o
s
Smoking Yes 12 3 500
0 8
0
No 30 4 500
7
0
Tota 15 8 100
l 0 5 0
0 a. Precise and accurate
The Risk ratio in this study is: b. Precise but not accurate
c. Not Precise but accurate

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PSM REVISION TEST SERIES (NEET) – 2023_Ques.
d. Neither Precise nor accurate
21. A test for hepatitis C is performed for
200 patient with biopsy proven disease
and 200 patient known to be free of the
disease . The test shows positive results
on 180 of the patients with the disease ,
and negative result on 150 of the
patient without the disease . Which of the
following is true regarding this test
a. Has a positive predictive value of 90 %
b. Has negative predictive value of 75%
c. Has sensitivity of 90 %
d. Has a specificity of 82.5%
22. Which of the following is true about a
screening test :
a. Specificity is 1- false negative rate
b. Sensitivity is 1-False positive rate
c. Predictive value does not depend on pre
valence
d. None of the above
a. Incubation period is 3-6 days
b. Validity of certificate of vaccination lasts for
lifelong
c. Urban form is controlled by 17 D vaccine
d. Aedes Aegypti index should not be more
than 10% to ensure freedom from yellow
fever
28. Which of the following is a true statement
regarding emerging infections :
(a) Vector of Crimean Congo haemorrhagic
fever : Trombiculid mite
(b) Reservoir of Nipah : Birds
(c) Reservoir of MERS Corona virus: Camel
(d) Vector for Zika transmission : Hard tick
29. 25 by 25 target under global action plan for
NCDs is related to :
a. Improvement in diagnosis
b. Coverage of treatment
c. Reduction in mortality
d. Reduction in morbidity

23. Calculate positive likelihood ratio for table 30. Which of the following is correctly matched
shown below : a. 99 DOTS : Online notification of TB cases.
Influenza Influenza b. Nikshay : To improve treatment adherence
(Present) (Absent) c. Tb treatment daily regimen : 2 HRZE + 4 HRE
ELISA – positive 80 10 d. Isoniazid preventive therapy: Used in all TB
ELISA – Negative 20 190 patients.
Total 100 200
31. Which of the following is are schemes related
a. 4 to maternal health :
b. 8 1. JSY
c. 12 2. PMSMA
d. 16 3. SUMAN
4. NSSK
24. Period between the possible time of 5. Mid day meal scheme
detection and the actual time of
diagnosis is :
a) 1 only
a. Lead time b. Screening time
b) 1,2,3
c. Generation time d. Serial interval
c) 3,4
25. All of the following are prescriptive d) 1,4,5
screening except :
(a) Neonatal screening 32. Which of the following is true regarding
(b) Breast self examination Intensified National Iron Plus Initiative (I-
(c) Pap smear NIPI) :
(d) Screening for immigrants a. Bi-weekly 20 mg elemental iron and 100
microgram (mcg) folic acid and weekly de-
26. VDPV s are most commonly due to which worming for children of 6-59 months.
component of OPV : b. Bi-Weekly supplementation of 45 mg elemental
a. Type 1 iron and 400 mcg folic acid and biannual de-
b. Type 2 worming for children of 5 to 10 years.
c. Type 3 c. Weekly dose of 60 mg elemental iron and 500
d. All of these mcg folic acid with biannual de-worming in
adolescents (10–19 years)
27. All are true about yellow fever except : d. All of these

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PSM REVISION TEST SERIES (NEET) – 2023_Ques.
33. .Which of the following is true regarding
Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK)
: (b) 1-Student "t" test , 2- unpaired t test , 3- Chi
a. To screen children for 40 diseases.
b. Screening for children from 0-6 years only
c. To screen for developmental delays
d. PHC will be the referral centre after screening
34. Which of the following is not true as per
recent ‘Malaria drug policy’ except :
a. ACT is used to treat P.vivax
b. Primaquine is not used to treat P.falciparum
along with ACT
c. Mefloquine is used for chemoprophylaxis
d. ACT is used to treat P.ovale
35. Which of the following is false regarding
targets under SDGs to be achieved by 2030:
(a) Reduce MMR to <70 per 1 lakh live births
(b)Reduce NMR to 12 per 1000 live births
(c) Reduce Under-5 mortality to 25 per 1000 live
births
(d) To reduce premature mortality from NCDs by
half .
36. Which of the following is a true statement :
(a) Higher the standard error lesser the width of
confidence interval
(b) More the sample size : More the width of
confidence interval
(c) More the sample size: Lesser the width of
confidence interval
(d) All of these
37. Which of the following is a false statement:
(a) Box-whisker plot is used to represent quartiles
(b) Inter-quartile range will cover 75% of values
(c) Median corresponds to second quartile
(d) The distance between Q1 and Q3 is not range
38. Which of the following is a true statement:
(a) Probability sampling will not ensure equal
chance of selection
(b) Sampling fraction is calculated in simple
random sampling
(c) Stratified random sampling ensures proper
representation of different subgroups proportion
to it's size
(d) Snow ball sampling is a type of probability
sampling
39. Which tests are used in following situations
1-Compare mean weights between intervention vs
placebo group
2-Mean blood sugar levels were compared before
and after administering a new drug
3-Association between obesity and diabetes
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(a) 1-Student "t" test , 2- paired t test , 3- Chi
square test
square test
(c) 1-Paired t test , 2- paired t test , 3- Chi
square test
(d) 1-McNemar test 2- paired t test , 3- Chi
square test
40. Not true about Chi square test is:
a. Tests the significance of difference between
two proportions
b. Tells about presence or absence of an
association between two variables
c. Directly measures the strength of association
d. Can be used when more than two groups are
to be compared
41. All are true about p - value except :
a. Is the probability of committing Type - I error
b. Is equal to 1- beta
c. Is the chance that the presence of difference is
concluded when actually there is none
d. When p- value is less than alpha, the result
is statistically significant
42. Match the given definitions wrt
corresponding indicators :
1. Number of live births per 1000 women of
reproductive age
2. Average Number of live births per woman
3. Number of girls per woman of reproductive age
during her reproductive span
4. Number of girls per newborn girl in her lifetime
taking into account existing fertility and
mortality rates
a. 1: GRR 2: GFR 3: NRR 4 : TFR
b. 1: GFR 2: TFR 3: GRR 4 : NRR
c. 1: GFR 2: GRR 3: NRR 4 : TFR
d. 1: GRR 2: TFR 3: NRR 4 : GFR
43. RDA of iodine and calcium during lactation
as per new guidelines respectively :
a. 200 microgram , 1000 mg
b. 220 microgram , 1200 mg
c. 250 microgram, 1000 mg
d. 280 microgram , 1200 mg
44. In a community of 5000 people the crude
birth rate is 30 per 1000 people . The
number of pregnant females is :
a. 150
b. 165
c. 175
d. 200
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PSM REVISION TEST SERIES (NEET) – 2023_Ques.
45. All of the following are diseases caused by d. N 95 mask : Yellow
this vector except :
50. Identify the correctly matched set related to
these guidelines :

A: SPIKES protocol I: Ethics in trial

B: Helsinki declaration II: To disclose bad news
C: Ottawa charter III : Health promotion

a. A-I B-II C-III

b. A-II B-I C-III
c. A-III B-I C-II
a. Kala azar d. A-III B-II C-I
b. Oriental sore
c. Sand fly fever
d. Plantar ulcers

46. Air quality index of Delhi post Diwali was

computed for 4 days and it was found 320.
which of the following is true regarding the air
quality of Delhi?
a) Poor
b) Very poor
c) Severe
d) Very severe

47. “Abhiyan Indradhanush” is implemented

under :
a. Ministry of labour and employment
b. MOHFW
c. MWCD
d. Ministry of consumer affairs

48. Economic benefit of any programme

compare with cost of that programme and
benefits are expressed in monetary terms.
This is-
a) Cost benefit analysis
b) Cost Effectiveness analysis
c) Cost carry forward analysis
d) None of these.

49. Which of the following is correctly matched

wrt. Biomedical waste management
guidelines
a. Urine bag: Yellow
b. Metallic implants : White
c. Metallic sharps : red

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