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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Saturday 27th January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
(1) 2 2 k 3 (2) 2 3 k 3 2
(3) 2 3 k 3 3 (4) 2 2 k 2 3
Ans. (1)
n-1
Sol. Cr = (k2 – 8) nCr+1
r 1 0, r 0
x 6 y 4 z 8
r 0 Point B lies on
n 1
1 0 3
Cr
n
k2 8 2 7 6 3 2 4 6 11 8
Cr 1
1 0 3
r 1
k2 8 3 – 6 = 0
n
k2 8 0 = –2
k 2 2 k 2 2 0 B (3, 4, –1)
k , 2 2 2 2, AB 7 3 4 2 11 1
2 2 2
…(I)
r 1 16 36 144
n r 1, 1
n
196 14
k2 – 8 1
3. Let x = x(t) and y = y(t) be solutions of the
k2 – 9 0
–3 k 3 ….(II) dx
differential equations ax 0 and
From equation (I) and (II) we get dt
k 3, 2 2 2 2, 3 dy
dt
by 0 respectively, a, b R. Given that
2. The distance, of the point (7, –2, 11) from the line
x(0) = 2; y(0) = 1 and 3y(1) = 2x(1), the value of t,
x 6 y 4 z 8
along the line for which x(t) = y(t), is :
1 0 3
x 5 y 1 z 5 (1) log 2 2 (2) log 4 3
, is : 3
2 3 6
(1) 12 (2) 14 (3) log 3 4 (4) log 4 2
3
(3) 18 (4) 21
Ans. (2) Ans. (4)
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dx Sol. Equation of CE
Sol. ax 0
dt y – 1 = (x – 3)
dx x+y=4
adt
x
dx
x a dt
ln | x | at c
at t = 0, x = 2
ln 2 0 c orthocentre lies on the line x + y = 4
ln x at ln 2 so, a + b = 4
x
eat b
2 I1 x sin x(4 x) dx …(i)
x 2e at ….(i) a
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6. The number of common terms in the progressions x 4 y 1 z
th Sol.
4, 9, 14, 19, ...... , up to 25 term and 3, 6, 9, 12, 1 2 3
......., up to 37th term is : x y 1 z 2
(1) 9 (2) 5 2 4 5
(3) 7 (4) 8 the shortest distance between the lines
Ans. (3)
Sol. 4, 9, 14, 19, …., up to 25th term
a b d d
1 2
And C = (2, 8)
a, b, c are rational numbers, then 2a + 3b – 4c is
PC = 4 16 20 equal to :
2
d = 20 (1) 4 (2) 10
8. If the shortest distance between the lines (3) 7 (4) 8
x 4 y 1 z x y 1 z 2 Ans. (4)
and is
1 2 3 2 4 5
3 x 1 x
1 1
1
6
, then the sum of all possible values of is :
Sol.
0 3 x 1 x
dx
0 3 x 1 x
dx
5
1
1 1
2 0
(1) 5 (2) 8 3 x dx 1 x dx
(3) 7 (4) 10 0
Ans. (2)
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3 3
1 11. If S = {z C : |z – i| = |z + i| = |z–1|}, then, n(S) is:
1 3 x 2 2 1 x 2
2 (1) 1 (2) 0
2 3 3
0 (3) 3 (4) 2
1 2 2 32 Ans. (1)
2 3
3
8 3 3 2 1
Sol. |z – i| = |z + i| = |z – 1|
1
8 3 3 2 2 1
3
2
3 3 2 a b 2 c 3
3
2 ABC is a triangle. Hence its circum-centre will be
a 3, b , c 1
3 the only point whose distance from A, B, C will be
2a + 3b – 4c = 6 – 2 + 4 = 8
same.
10. Let S = {l, 2, 3, ... , 10}. Suppose M is the set of all
So n(S) = 1
the subsets of S, then the relation
R = {(A, B): A B ; A, B M} is : 12. Four distinct points (2k, 3k), (1, 0), (0, 1) and
(1) symmetric and reflexive only (0, 0) lie on a circle for k equal to :
(2) reflexive only 2 3
(1) (2)
(3) symmetric and transitive only 13 13
(4) symmetric only 5 1
Ans. (4) (3) (4)
13 13
Sol. Let S = {1, 2, 3, …, 10}
Ans. (3)
R = {(A, B): A B ; A, B M}
Sol. (2k, 3k) will lie on circle whose diameter is AB.
For Reflexive,
M is subset of ‘S’
So M
for =
but relation is A B
So it is not reflexive. (x – 1) (x) + (y – 1) (y) = 0
For symmetric, x2 + y 2 – x – y = 0 …(i)
ARB A B ,
Satisfy (2k, 3k) in (i)
BRA B A ,
(2k)2 + (3k)2 – 2k – 3k = 0
So it is symmetric.
13k2 – 5k = 0
For transitive,
If A = {(1, 2), (2, 3)} 5
k = 0, k
B = {(2, 3), (3, 4)} 13
C = {(3, 4), (5, 6)} 5
hence k
ARB & BRC but A does not relate to C 13
So it not transitive
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13. Consider the function. 10
a 7x 12 x 2
Sol. a
k 1
k 50
, x3
b x 7x 12
2 a1 + a2 + … + a10 = 50 ….(i)
f (x)
sin x 3
2 x [x ] , x 3
a a
k j
k j 1100 ....(ii)
b , x 3
If a1 + a2 + … + a10 = 50.
(a1 + a2 + … + a10)2 = 2500
10
a 2
i 2 a k a j 2500
Where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or i 1 k j
a 7x 12 x
2 i
Sol. f 3
(for f(x) to be cont.)
b x 2 7x 12 10 10 10 10
a x 3 x 4 a
f(3–) = ;x 3 30 25 5
b x 3 x 4 b
x 2 y2
a 15. The length of the chord of the ellipse 1,
Hence f 3 b
25 16
sin x 3 2
lim whose mid point is 1, , is equal to :
Then f 3 2 x3 x 3
2 and 5
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x 2 10 8x
2
8 304
x m1 m2
8 tan
1 m1m 2
8 304 8 304
x1 ; x2
8 8 6
30
10 18 304 2 304 tan 5
Similarly, y 1
16 41
5 5 25
2 304 2 304 30
y1 ; y2 tan
5 5 41
Distance = x1 x 2 y1 y2
2 2
17.
Let a i 2j k , b 3 i j k . Let c be the
8 25
(1) (2) Sol. a c b b c
5 41
(3)
2
(4)
30
a c b a b a c ….(i)
5 41
Ans. (4) given a c b
5 8
a c b b b b
2
Sol. Co-ordinates of A , 27
3 3
Co-ordinates of B
10 4
,
a c b a c b a c b 27 …(ii)
3 3
Now a b 3 6 3 0 …(iii)
8
Slope of OA = m1 a c 3 …(iv) (given)
5
2 By (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Slope of OB = m2
5 27 – 0 – 3 = 24
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1 1 x4 2 cos x sin x 0
18. If a lim and Sol. f ( x) sin x cos x 0
x 0 x4
2 0 0 1
sin x
b lim , then the value of ab3 is :
x 0 2 1 cos x 1 0 0
(1) 36 (2) 32 (3) 25 (4) 30 f (x) f ( x) 0 1 0 I
Ans. (2) 0 0 1
1 1 x4 2 Hence statement- I is correct
Sol. a lim
x 0 x4
Now, checking statement II
1 x4 1
lim cos y sin y 0
x 4 1 1 x 4 2
x 0
1 x4 1 cos(x y) sin(x y) 0
f (x) f (y) sin(x y) cos(x y) 0
1
Applying limit a 0 0 1
4 2
sin 2 x f (x) f (y) f (x y)
b lim
x 0 2 1 cos x Hence statement-II is also correct.
1 cos x
2
2 1 cos x 20. The function f : N – {1} N; defined by f(n) =
lim
x 0 2 1 cos x the highest prime factor of n, is :
b lim 1 cos x
x 0
2 1 cos x (1) both one-one and onto
(2) one-one only
Applying limits b 2 2 2 4 2 (3) onto only
1
3
Now, ab3 4 2 32 (4) neither one-one nor onto
4 2
Ans. (4)
cos x sin x 0
Sol. f : N – {1} N
19. Consider the matrix f (x) sin x cos x 0 .
0 f(n) = The highest prime factor of n.
0 1
Given below are two statements : f(2) = 2
Statement I: f(–x) is the inverse of the matrix f(x). f(4) = 2
Statement II: f(x) f(y) = f(x + y).
many one
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below 4 is not image of any element
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true into
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Hence many one and into
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true Neither one-one nor onto.
Ans. (4)
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SECTION-B 23. If the solution of the differential equation
21. The least positive integral value of , for which the (2x + 3y – 2) dx + (4x + 6y – 7) dy = 0, y(0) = 3, is
x + y + 3 loge |2x + 3y – | = 6, then + 2 + 3
angle between the vectors i 2j 2k and
is equal to _____.
i 2 j 2k is acute, is _____. Ans. (29)
Ans. (5) Sol. 2x + 3y –2 = t 4x + 6y – 4 = 2t
Sol. cos
ˆi 2ˆj 2kˆ ˆi 2ˆj 2kˆ 23
dy dt
4x + 6y – 7 = 2t – 3
dx dx
44
2
4 4
2 2
dy 2x 3y 2
4 4
2
cos dx 4x 6y 7
2 8 5 2 4
dt 3t 4t 6 t 6
2 – 4– 4 > 0 dx 2t 3 2t 3
2 – 4+ 4 > 8 – 2)2 > 8 2t 3
2 2 2 or 2 2 2 t 6 dt dx
2 2 2 or 2 2 2 2t 12 9
t 6
t 6
dt x
– , – 0.82) (4.82, )
2t + 9 ln (t – 6) = x + c
Least positive integral value of 5
2(2x + 3y – 2) + 9ln(2x + 3y – 8 ) = x + c
22. Let for a differentiable function f : (0, ) R , x = 0, y = 3
x c = 14
f (x) f (y) log e x y , x, y (0, ). 4x + 6y – 4 + 9ln (2x + 3y – 8) = x+14
y
x + 2y + 3 ln (2x + 3y – 8) = 6
20
1
Then f ' 2 is equal to _____. 1, 2, = 8
n 1 n 3 = 1 + 4 + 24 = 29
Ans. (2890) 24. Let the area of the region {(x, y) : x – 2y + 4 0,
Sol. f(x) – f(y) ln x – lny + x – y m
x + 2y2 0, x + 4y2 8, y 0} be , where m
f x f y ln x ln y n
1
xy xy and n are coprime numbers. Then m + n is equal to
Let x > y _____.
1 Ans. (119)
y x
lim f ' x 1
x
…..(1)
Let x < y
1
y x
lim f ' x 1 ….. (2)
x ( , 0)
–2 –1
1 – 1 +
f (x ) = f (x )
1
f1 x 1 Sol.
x 1
1
f ' 2
x 1
2
A 8 4y2 2y2 dy
x 0
3/2
8 4y 2y 4 dy
20 20
x
2
2
1 x 20 2
x 1 x 1 1
1 3/ 2
20 21 41 2y 3 4y 3 107 m
20 8y 12y y
2
6 3 0 3 1 12 n
= 2890 m + n = 119
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25. If 27. Let the set of all a R such that the equation
1 1 1 cos 2x a sin x 2a 7 has a solution be [p, q]
8 3 3 p 2 3 2p 3 3 3p .... ,
4 4 4
1
then the value of p is _____. and r tan 9 tan 27 tan81 , then
cot 63
Ans. (9)
pqr is equal to _____.
1
p
3 4 Ans. (48)
Sol. 8
1 1 2
1
4 1 4 Sol. cos2x + a·sinx = 2a – 7
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2 0 1 x1 = 1, y1 = – 1, z1 = –1
29. Let A 1 1 0 , B = [B1, B2, B3], where B1, 2 0 1 x 2 2
AB2 1 1 0 y 2 3
1 0 1
1 0 1 z 0
2
1 x2 = 2, y2 = 1, z2 = –2
B2, B3 are column matrices, and AB1 0 ,
2 0 1 x 3 3
0 AB3 1 1 0 y 3 2
1 0 1 z3 1
2 3
AB2 3 , AB3 2
x3 =2, y3 = 0, z3 = –1
0 1 1 2 2
B 1 1 0
If = |B| and is the sum of all the diagonal 1 2 1
elements of B, then 3 + 3 is equal to _____. |B| = 3
Ans. (28) 1
2 0 1 3 + 3 = 27 + 1 =28
Sol. A 1 1 0 B = [B1, B2, B3] 30. If satisfies the equation x2 + x + 1 = 0 and
1 0 1
(1 + )7 = A + B + C2, A, B, C 0, then
x1 x2 x3
5(3A – 2B – C) is equal to _____.
B1 y1 , B2 y 2 , B3 y 3
z1 z 2 z3 Ans. (5)
2 0 1 x1 1 Sol. x2 + x + 1 = 0 x = , 2 =
AB1 1 1 0 y1 0 Let =
1 0 1 z1 0
Now (1 + )7 = = 2 = 1 +
A = 1, B = 1, C = 0
5(3A – 2B – C) 5(3 – 2 – 0) = 5
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35. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of 38. Identify the physical quantity that cannot be
earth is g. If the diameter of earth reduces to half of measured using spherometer :
its original value and mass remains constant, then (1) Radius of curvature of concave surface
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth (2) Specific rotation of liquids
would be : (3) Thickness of thin plates
(1) g/4 (2) 2g (4) Radius of curvature of convex surface
(3) g/2 (4) 4g Ans. (2)
Ans. (4) Sol. Spherometer can be used to measure curvature of
GM 1
Sol. g g 2 surface.
R2 R
39. Two bodies of mass 4 g and 25 g are moving with
g 2 R12 equal kinetic energies. The ratio of magnitude of
g1 R 22
their linear momentum is :
R1 (1) 3 : 5 (2) 5 : 4
g2 = 4g1 R 2
2 (3) 2 : 5 (4) 4 : 5
36. A train is moving with a speed of 12 m/s on rails Ans. (3)
which are 1.5 m apart. To negotiate a curve radius P12 P2
Sol. 2
400 m, the height by which the outer rail should be 2m1 2m 2
raised with respect to the inner rail is (Given, g =
10 m/s2) : P1 m1 2
(1) 6.0 cm (2) 5.4 cm P2 m2 5
(3) 4.8 cm (4) 4.2 cm 40. 0.08 kg air is heated at constant volume through
Ans. (2) 5°C. The specific heat of air at constant volume is
v2 12 12
Sol. tan 0.17 kcal/kg°C and J = 4.18 joule/cal. The change
Rg 10 400
in its internal energy is approximately.
(1) 318 J (2) 298 J
(3) 284 J (4) 142 J
Ans. (3)
h
tan Sol. Q = U as work done is zero [constant volume]
1.5
U = ms T
h 144
= 0.08 × (170 × 4.18) × 5
1.5 4000
h = 5.4 cm 284 J
37. Which of the following circuits is reverse - biased ? 41. The radius of third stationary orbit of electron for
Bohr's atom is R. The radius of fourth stationary
orbit will be:
4 16
(1) R (2) R
3 9
(1) (2) 3 9
(3) R (4) R
4 16
Ans. (2)
n2
Sol. r
Z
(3) (4) r4 4 2
Ans. (4) r3 32
Sol. P end should be at higher potential for forward 16
biasing. r4 R
9
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42. A rectangular loop of length 2.5 m and width 2 m 45. A body of mass 1000 kg is moving horizontally
is placed at 60° to a magnetic field of 4 T. The with a velocity 6 m/s. If 200 kg extra mass is
loop is removed from the field in 10 sec. The added, the final velocity (in m/s) is:
average emf induced in the loop during this time is (1) 6 (2) 2
(1) – 2V (2) + 2V (3) 3 (4) 5
(3) + 1V (4) – 1V Ans. (4)
Ans. (3) Sol. Momentum will remain conserve
Change in flux 1000 × 6 = 1200 × v
Sol. Average emf= =–
Time t
v = 5 m/s
0 4 2.5 2 cos60 46. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
= –
10 x-direction is described by
= +1V Ey = (200 Vm–1) sin[1.5 × 107t – 0.05 x] ;
43. An electric charge 10–6C is placed at origin (0, 0) The intensity of the wave is :
m of X –Y co-ordinate system. Two points P and
(Use 0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2N–1m–2)
Q are situated at ( 3, 3)m and ( 6,0)m
(1) 35.4 Wm–2 (2) 53.1 Wm–2
respectively. The potential difference between the
(3) 26.6 Wm–2 (4) 106.2 Wm–2
points P and Q will be :
Ans. (2)
(1) 3V
1
(2) 6V Sol. I 0 E02 c
2
(3) 0 V 1
(4) 3 V I 8.85 1012 4 104 3 108
2
Ans. (3) I = 53.1 W/m2
KQ KQ
Sol. Potential difference = 47. Given below are two statements :
r1 r2
Statement (I) : Planck's constant and angular
3 3
2 2
r1 momentum have same dimensions.
Statement (II) : Linear momentum and moment of
6
2
r2 0 force have same dimensions.
As r1 r2 6m In the light of the above statements, choose the
So potential difference = 0 correct answer from the options given below :
44. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm forms an (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
image of an extended source of light on a photo- (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
electric cell. A current I is produced. The lens is (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
replaced by another convex lens having the same (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
diameter but focal length 20 cm. The photoelectric Ans. (1)
current now is :
Sol. [h] = ML2T–1
I
(1) (2) 4 I [L] = ML2T–1
2
(3) 2 I (4) I [P] = MLT–1
Ans. (4) [] = ML2T–2
Sol. As amount of energy incident on cell is same so (Here h is Planck's constant, L is angular
current will remain same. momentum, P is linear momentum and is
moment of force)
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48. A wire of length 10 cm and radius 7 10–4 m SECTION-B
connected across the right gap of a meter bridge. 51. A particle starts from origin at t = 0 with a velocity
When a resistance of 4.5 is connected on the left gap 5iˆ m / s and moves in x-y plane under action of a
by using a resistance box, the balance length is found
force which produces a constant acceleration of
to be at 60 cm from the left end. If the resistivity of the
(3iˆ 2 ˆj)m / s2 . If the x-coordinate of the particle
wire is R × 10–7m, then value of R is :
(1) 63 (2) 70 at that instant is 84 m, then the speed of the particle
(3) 66 (4) 35 at this time is m / s. The value of is ______.
Ans. (3) Ans. (673)
Sol. For null point,
Sol ux = 5 m/s ax = 3 m/s2 x = 84 m
4.5 R
v u 2ax
2 2
60 40 x x
v2x 25 2 3 84
Also, R 2
A r Vx = 23 m/s
0.1 vx u x a x t
4.5 40 60
7 108 23 5
t 6s
7
66 10 m 3
vy 0 a y t = 0 + 2 × (6) = 12 m/s
49. A wire of resistance R and length L is cut into
5 equal parts. If these parts are joined parallely, v2 v2x v2y 232 122 673
then resultant resistance will be : v 673 m/s
1 1 52. A thin metallic wire having cross sectional area of
(1) R (2) R
25 5 10–4 m2 is used to make a ring of radius 30 cm. A
(3) 25 R (4) 5 R positive charge of 2 C is uniformly distributed
Ans. (1) over the ring, while another positive charge of 30
R pC is kept at the centre of the ring. The tension in
Sol. Resistance of each part =
5 the ring is ______ N ; provided that the ring does
1 R R not get deformed (neglect the influence of gravity).
Total resistance =
5 5 25 1
50. The average kinetic energy of a monatomic (given, 9 109 SI units)
40
molecule is 0.414 eV at temperature :
(Use KB = 1.38 × 10–23 J/mol-K) Ans. (3)
(1) 3000 K Fe
(2) 3200 K
(3) 1600 K T T
d
(4) 1500 K
Ans. (2) Sol.
q0
Sol. For monoatomic molecule degree of freedom = 3.
3
Kavg K BT
2
0.414 1.6 10 19 2
T d kq 0
3 1.38 10 23 2Tsin 2 Rd
2 R
= 3200 K
Q
2R
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Kq 0 Q 55. In a nuclear fission process, a high mass nuclide
T
R 2
2
(A 236) with binding energy 7.6 MeV/Nucleon
dissociated into middle mass nuclides (A 118),
9 10 2 30 10
9 12
having binding energy of 8.6 MeV/Nucleon. The
0.30
2
2 energy released in the process would be ____ MeV.
Ans. (236)
9 10 3 30
3N Sol. Q = BEProduct – BERectant
9 10 2
= 2(118) (8.6) – 236(7.6)
53. Two coils have mutual inductance 0.002 H. The = 236 × 1 = 236 MeV
current changes in the first coil according to the 56. Four particles each of mass 1 kg are placed at four
corners of a square of side 2 m. Moment of inertia
relation i = i0 sin t, where i0 = 5A and = 50
of system about an axis perpendicular to its plane
rad/s. The maximum value of emf in the second and passing through one of its vertex is _____
kgm2.
coil is V. The value of is ____.
Ans. (2)
Sol. = Mi = Mi0sint
di Ans. (16)
EMF = – M 0.002 i0 cos t
dt
a
m m
EMFmax = i0 (0.002) = 5 50 0.002
Sol. a a
EMFmax V
2 m m
a
8
54. Two immiscible liquids of refractive indices
5
2a
2
I ma 2 ma 2 m
3
and respectively are put in a beaker as shown in
2 = 4ma2
the figure. The height of each column is 6 cm. A = 4 × 1 × (2)2 = 16
coin is placed at the bottom of the beaker. For near 57. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with
normal vision, the apparent depth of the coin is an amplitude of 4 cm. At the mean position,
velocity of the particle is 10 cm/s. The distance of
cm. The value of is______. the particle from the mean position when its speed
4
becomes 5 cm/s is cm, where = ______.
Ans. (12)
Sol. Vat mean position A 10 4
5
2
v A2 x 2
Ans. (31) 5 2
5 4 x 2 x2 16 4
h1 h 2 6 6 2
15 31
Sol. h app 4 cm x 12 cm
1 2 3 / 2 8 / 5 4 4
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58. Two long, straight wires carry equal currents in 1A
10 8
VA VB 6 volt
3 3
Q C VA VB
8
150 400C
3
Ans. (160)
60. If average depth of an ocean is 4000 m and the
7
i 4 10 10
Sol. B 0 2 bulk modulus of water is 2 × 109 Nm–2, then
2 a 5
102
2 V
fractional compression of water at the bottom
V
16 105 160T
of ocean is × 10–2. The value of is _____
59. The charge accumulated on the capacitor (Given, g = 10 ms–2, = 1000 kg m–3)
connected in the following circuit is ____ C
Ans. (2)
(Given C = 150 F) P
Sol. B
V
V
Ans. (400)
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CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 64. Which of the following is strongest Bronsted base?
61. Two nucleotides are joined together by a linkage
known as :
(1) Phosphodiester linkage
(2) Glycosidic linkage (1)
(3) Disulphide linkage
(4) Peptide linkage
(2)
Ans. (1)
Sol. Phosphodiester linkage
(3)
(4)
Ans. (4)
62. Highest enol content will be shown by :
Sol.
:
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66. Which of the following has highly acidic hydrogen? 68. Consider the following complex ions
P = [FeF6]3–
(1) Q = [V(H2O) 6]2+
R = [Fe(H2O)6] 2+
The correct order of the complex ions, according to
(2)
their spin only magnetic moment values (in B.M.) is :
(1) R < Q < P (2) R < P< Q
(3) (3) Q < R < P (4) Q < P < R
Ans. (3)
Sol. [FeF6]3– : Fe+3 : [Ar] 3d5
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70. Given below are two statements : 72. The ascending order of acidity of –OH group in the
Statement (I) : The 4f and 5f - series of elements following compounds is :
(A) Bu – OH
are placed separately in the Periodic table to
preserve the principle of classification. (B)
Statement (II) :S-block elements can be found in
pure form in nature. In the light of the above (C)
statements, choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below : (D)
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (E)
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false Choose the correct answer from the options given
Ans. (3) below :
Sol. s-block elements are highly reactive and found in (1) (A) < (D) < (C) < (B) < (E)
(2) (C) < (A) < (D) < (B) < (E)
combined state.
(3) (C) < (D) < (B) < (A) < (E)
(4) (A) < (C) < (D) < (B) < (E)
71. Given below are two statements : Ans. (4)
Statement (I) : p-nitrophenol is more acidic than
m-nitrophenol and o-nitrophenol.
Sol.
Statement (II) : Ethanol will give immediate
turbidity with Lucas reagent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below : 73. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Melting point of Boron (2453 K)
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
is unusually high in group 13 elements.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false Reason (R) : Solid Boron has very strong
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true crystalline lattice.
Ans. (1) In the light of the above statements, choose the
Sol. Acidic strength most appropriate answer from the options given
below ;
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) Is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
Ethanol give lucas test after long time (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (2)
Statement (I)correct Sol. Solid Boron has very strong crystalline lattice so
Statement (II) incorrect its melting point unusually high in group 13
elements
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77. IUPAC name of following compound (P) is :
74. Cyclohexene is _________ type of an
organic compound.
(1) Benzenoid aromatic
(2) Benzenoid non-aromatic
(3) Acyclic
(4) Alicyclic (1) l-Ethyl-5, 5-dimethylcyclohexane
Ans. (4) (2) 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane
(3) l-Ethyl-3, 3-dimethylcyclohexane
Sol. is Alicyclic (4) l,l-Dimethyl-3-ethylcyclohexane
Ans. (2)
75. Yellow compound of lead chromate gets dissolved
on treatment with hot NaOH solution. The product
of lead formed is a : Sol.
(1) Tetraanionic complex with coordination
number six
(2) Neutral complex with coordination number 3-ethy 1, 1 -dimethylcyclohexane
four
(3) Dianionic complex with coordination number 78. NaCl reacts with conc. H2SO4 and K2Cr2O7 to give
six reddish fumes (B), which react with NaOH to give
(4) Dianionic complex with coordination number yellow solution (C). (B) and (C) respectively are ;
four (1) CrO2Cl2, Na2CrO4 (2) Na2CrO4, CrO2Cl2
Ans. (4) (3) CrO2Cl2, KHSO4 (4) CrO2Cl2, Na2Cr2O7
Sol. PbCrO4 + NaOH (hot excess) [Pb(OH)4]-2 + Ans. (1)
Na2CrO4 Sol. NaCl + conc. H2SO4 + K2Cr2O7
Dianionic complex with coordination number four CrO2Cl2 + KHSO4 + NaHSO4 +H2O
76. Given below are two statements : (B)
Statement (I) : Aqueous solution of ammonium Reddish brown
carbonate is basic.
CrO2Cl2 + NaOH Na2CrO4 + NaCl +H2O
Statement (II) : Acidic/basic nature of salt solution
(C)
of a salt of weak acid and weak base depends on Ka
Yellow colour
and Kb value of acid and the base forming it.
79. The correct statement regarding nucleophilic
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
substitution reaction in a chiral alkyl halide is ;
appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Retention occurs in SNl reaction and inversion
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
occurs in SN2 reaction.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) Racemisation occurs in SNl reaction and
incorrect
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are retention occurs in SN2 reaction.
incorrect (3) Racemisation occurs in both SN1 and SN2
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is reactions.
correct (4) Racemisation occurs in SN1 reaction and
Ans. (1) inversion occurs in SN2 reaction.
Sol. Aqueous solution of (NH4)2CO3is Basic Ans. (4)
pH of salt of weak acid and weak base depends on Sol. SN1 – Racemisation
Ka and Kb value of acid and the base forming it SN2 – Inversion
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80. The electronic configuration for Neodymium is: 83. Mass of methane required to produce 22 g of CO2
[Atomic Number for Neodymium 60] after complete combustion is ______g.
(1)[Xe] 4f4 6s2 (2) [Xe] 5f47s2 (Given Molar mass in g mol–1 C = 12.0
(3) [Xe] 4f6 6s2 (4) [Xe] 4f15d16s2
H = 1.0
Ans. (1)
Sol. Electronic configuration of Nd(Z = 60) is; O = 16.0)
[Xe] 4f4 6s2 Ans. (8)
SECTION-B Sol. CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O
–1
81. The mass of silver (Molar mass of Ag : 108 gmol ) 22
Moles of CO2 = 0.5
displaced by a quantity of electricity which 44
displaces 5600 mL of O2 at S.T.P. will be _____ g. So, required moles of CH4 = 0.5
Ans. 107 gm or 108
Mass = 0.5 × 16 = 8gm
Sol. Eq. of Ag = Eq. of O2
Let x gm silver displaced, 84. If three moles of an ideal gas at 300 K expand
x 1 5.6 isotherrnally from 30 dm3 to 45 dm3 against a
4
108 22.7 constant opposing pressure of 80 kPa, then the
(Molar volume of gas at STP = 22.7 lit) amount of heat transferred is_______ J.
x = 106.57 gm
Ans. (1200)
Ans. 107
OR, Sol. Using, first law of thermodynamics,
as per old STP data, molar volume=22.4 lit U = Q + W,
x 1 5.6 U = 0 : Process is isothermal
4 , x= 108 gm.
108 22.4
Q=–W
Ans. 108
W = – PextV : Irreversible
82. Consider the following data for the given reaction
= -80 × 103 ( 45 – 30) × 10-3
2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g)
= –1200 J
1 2 3
85. 3-Methylhex-2-ene on reaction with HBr in
HI (mol L–1) 0.005 0.01 0.02
presence of peroxide forms an addition product
Rate (mol L–1s–1) 7.5 × 10–4 3.0 ×10–3 1.2×10–2 (A). The number of possible stereoisomers for 'A'
The order of the reaction is _________. is_________.
Ans. (2) Ans. (4)
Sol. Let, R = k[HI]n Br
using any two of given data,
Sol. HBr
3 n
3 10 0.01 Peroxide
4
7.5 10 0.005
2chiral centres
n=2
No. of stereoisomers = 4
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86. Among the given organic compounds, the total 88. The number of electrons present in all the
number of aromatic compounds is 1
completely filled subshells having n=4 and s
2
is ______.
(A)
(Where n = principal quantum number and
s = spin quantum number)
(B)
Ans. (16)
Sol. n = 4 can have,
(C) 4s 4p 4d 4f
-
Total e 2 6 10 14
1
Total e- with S = + 1 3 5 7
(D) 2
So, Ans.16
Ans. (3)
89. Sum of bond order of CO and NO+ is _____.
Sol. B,C and D are Aromatic Ans. (6)
Sol. CO CO : BO = 3
87. Among the following, total number of meta NO+ N O+ : BO = 3
directing functional groups is (Integer based)
90. From the given list, the number of compounds with
– OCH3, –NO2, –CN, –CH3 –NHCOCH3,
+ 4 oxidation state of Sulphur ________.
– COR, –OH, – COOH, –Cl SO3, H2SO3, SOCl2, SF4, BaSO4, H2S2O7
Ans. (4) Ans. (3)
Sol.
Sol. –NO2, – C N, –COR, –COOH
are meta directing. Compounds SO3 H2SO3 SOCl2 SF4 BaSO4 H2S2O7
O.S.of Sulphur: +6 +4 +4 +4 +6 +6
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Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (27-01-2024) Evening Session
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Saturday 27th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
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x y 1 z 2 4. Let R be the interior region between the lines
Sol. L1
1 2 3 3x y 1 0 and x 2y 5 0 containing the
origin. The set of all values of a, for which the
points (a2, a + 1) lie in R, is :
1
(1) (3, 1) ,1
3
1
(2) (3,0) ,1
3
2
(3) (3,0) ,1
3
M(,1 2,2 3)
1
(4) (3, 1) ,1
PM ( 1)iˆ (1 2)ˆj (3 5)kˆ 3
Ans. (2)
PM is perpendicular to line L1
Sol. P(a2, a + 1)
PM.b 0 ( b ˆi 2ˆj 3kˆ ) L1 = 3x – y + 1 = 0
1 4 2 9 15 0 Origin and P lies same side w.r.t. L1
L1(0) . L1(P) > 0
14 14 1
3(a2) – (a + 1) + 1 > 0
M (1,3,5) y
Q 2M P [M is midpoint of P & Q ]
1
2 2 a (,0) , …………….(1)
1 1 3
l2 1
2 2 Let L2 : x + 2y – 5 = 0
1 Origin and P lies same side w.r.t. L2
l2 L 2 (0).L 2 (P) 0
4
1 a 2 2(a 1) 5 0
l [Line make acute angle with x-axis]
2 a 2 2a 3 0
Equation of line passing through (1, 6, 3) will be (a 3)(a 1) 0
ˆ 1 ˆi 1 ˆj 1 kˆ a (3,1) …………….(2)
r (iˆ 6jˆ 3k) 2 2
2 Intersection of (1) and (2)
Option (3) satisfying for = 4 1
a (3,0) ,1
3
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5. The 20th term from the end of the progression 2x 3 1
Sol. f (x) ;x
1 1 3 1 2x 1 2
20,19 ,18 ,17 ,...., 129 is :-
4 2 4 4 | x | 1 5
g(x) ,x
2x 5 2
(1) –118
Domain of f(g(x))
(2) –110
2g(x) 3
(3) –115 f (g(x))
2g(x) 1
(4) –100
5 | x | 1 1
x and
Ans. (3) 2 2x 5 2
Sol.
1 1 3
20,19 ,18 ,17 ,......, 129
1 5
x R and x R
4 2 4 4 2
This is A.P. with common difference 5
Domain will be R
1 3 2
d1 1
4 4 7. For 0 < a < 1, the value of the integral
1 1
129 ,..............,19 , 20 dx
4 4 1 2a cos x a
0
2
is :
1 3
This is also A.P. a 129 and d 2
4 4 (1)
a2
Required term =
2
(2)
1 3 a2
129 (20 1)
4 4
(3)
1 3 1 a2
129 15 115
4 4
(4)
1 a2
1 5
6. Let f : R R and g : R R be Ans. (3)
2 2
dx
2x 3 | x | 1 Sol. I ; 0 a 1
defined as f (x) and g(x) . Then 1 2a cos x a 2
2x 1 2x 5 0
the domain of the function fog is : I
dx
1 2a cos x a 2
5
0
(1) R /2
2 2(1 a 2 )
2I 2 dx
(1 a ) 4a 2 cos 2 x
2 2
(2) R 0
/2
7 2(1 a 2 ).sec 2 x
(3) R I (1 a 2 ) 2 .sec 2 x 4a 2
dx
4 0
/2
5 7 2.(1 a 2 ).sec 2 x
(4) R ,
2 4
I
0
(1 a 2 )2 .tan 2 x (1 a 2 ) 2
dx
Ans. (1)
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2.sec2 x 3 sin x cos x log e (1 x) 1
/2 .dx 9. If lim , then
1 a2
x 0 2
I 3tan x 3
2
1 a2 2– is equal to :
tan 2 x
0
2
1 a (1) 2
2 (2) 7
I 2 0
(1 a 2 ) (3) 5
(4) 1
I Ans. (3)
1 a2
3 sin x cos x log e (1 x) 1
x Sol. lim
8. Let g(x) 3f f (3 x) and f (x) 0 for all x 0 3tan 2 x 3
3
x3 x2 x4 x 2 x3
x (0,3) . If g is decreasing in (0, ) and 3 x .... 1 .... x ...
lim 3! 2! 4! 2 3 1
x 0 3tan 2 x 3
increasing in (, 3), then 8 is
1
(1) 24 (3 ) ( 1)x x 2 ....
lim 2 2
x2
1
(2) 0 x 0 3x 2 2
tan x 3
(3) 18 1
(4) 20
1
3 0, 1 0 and 2 2
Ans. (3) 3 3
x 3, 1
Sol. g(x) 3f f (3 x) and f (x) 0 x (0, 3)
3 2 2 3 5
f (x) is increasing function 10. If , are the roots of the equation, x2 x 1 0
1 x and Sn 2023 n 2024n , then
g(x) 3 .f f (3 x)
3 3
(1) 2S12 S11 S10
x
f f (3 x) (2) S12 S11 S10
3
If g is decreasing in (0, ) (3) 2S11 S12 S10
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11. Let A and B be two finite sets with m and n 3 3
1
elements respectively. The total number of subsets 2 2
1 1
of the set A is 56 more than the total number of Sol. 1 0
3 3
subsets of B. Then the distance of the point P(m, n) 2 3 3 1 0
22 6 1 0
Ans. (1)
3 7 3 7
Sol. 2m 2n 56 ,
2 2
2n (2mn 1) 23 7 Hence option (2) is correct.
13. An urn contains 6 white and 9 black balls. Two
2 n 23 and 2mn 1 7 successive draws of 4 balls are made without
n 3 and 2mn 8 replacement. The probability, that the first draw
gives all white balls and the second draw gives all
n 3 and m n 3 black balls, is :
n 3 and m 6 5 5
(1) (2)
256 715
P(6,3) and Q(–2, –3) 3 3
(3) (4)
PQ 82 62 100 10 715 256
Ans. (3)
Hence option (1) is correct 6
C 9
C 3
Sol. 15 4 11 4
C4 C4 715
Hence option (3) is correct.
12. The values of , for which (x 8 x 2 )dx
14. The integral is
1
3 3 (x12 3x 6 1) tan 1 x 3 3
1 x
2 2
1 1 equal to :
1 0 , lie in the interval 1/3
3 3 1
2 3 3 1 0 (1) log e tan 1 x 3 3 C
x
1/2
1
(1) (–2, 1) (2) loge tan 1 x 3 3 C
x
(2) (–3, 0)
1
3 3 (3) log e tan 1 x 3 3 C
(3) , x
2 2 3
1
(4) (0, 3) (4) loge tan 1 x 3 3 C
x
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
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x8 x 2 For 7 solutions n = 13
Sol. I = dx
1 13
k
(x12 3x 6 1) tan 1 x 3 3
x
So,
k 1 2
k
S (say)
1 1 2 3 13
Let tan 1 x 3 3 t S 2 3 .... 13
x 2 2 2 2
1 3 1 1 1 12 13
S 2 3 ..... 13 14
. 3x 2 4 dx dt
1 x
2
2 2 2 2 2
1 x3 3
x 1
1 13
S 1 2 13 213 1 13
x6 3x 6 3 . 14 S 2. 13 13
. dx dt 2 2 1 1 2 2 2
x 3x 1 x 4
12 6
2
1 dt 1
3 t 3
I ln | t | C 16. The position vectors of the vertices A, B and C of a
triangle are 2iˆ 3jˆ 3kˆ , 2iˆ 2jˆ 3kˆ and
1 1
I ln tan 1 x 3 3 C
3 x ˆi ˆj 3kˆ respectively. Let l denotes the length of
1/3 the angle bisector AD of BAC where D is on the
1
I ln tan x 3 3
1
C line segment BC, then 2l2 equals :
x
(1) 49
Hence option (1) is correct
(2) 42
15. If 2tan2 5sec 1 has exactly 7 solutions in
(3) 50
n
the interval 0, , for the least value of n N (4) 45
2
Ans. (4)
n
k
then
k 1 2
k
is equal to : Sol. AB = 5
AC = 5
1
(1) 15 (214 14) A (2, –3, 3)
2
1 15
(2) (2 15)
214
15
(3) 1
213
1 14 B D C
(4) (2 15)
23 (2,2,3) (–1, 1, 3)
Ans. (4) D is midpoint of BC
Sol. 2tan2 5sec 1 0 1 3
D , ,3
2sec 5sec 3 0
2 2 2
(2sec 1)(sec 3) 0 1
2
3
2
l 2 3 (3 3)2
1
sec ,3 2 2
2
45
1 l
cos 2, 2
3
2l2 = 45
1
cos
3
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17. If y = y(x) is the solution curve of the differential 18. Let e1 be the eccentricity of the hyperbola
equation (x 4)dy (y 3y)dx 0 ,
2 2
x 2 y2
1 and e2 be the eccentricity of the ellipse
3 16 9
x 2, y(4) and the slope of the curve is never
2 x 2 y2
1 , a > b, which passes through the foci
zero, then the value of y(10) equals : a 2 b2
3 of the hyperbola. If e1e2 = 1, then the length of the
(1)
1 (8)1/4 chord of the ellipse parallel to the x-axis and
3
passing through (0, 2) is :
(2)
1 2 2 (1) 4 5
3 8 5
(3) (2)
1 2 2 3
3 10 5
(4) (3)
1 (8)1/4 3
Ans. (1) (4) 3 5
Sol. (x 4)dy (y 3y)dx 0
2 2
Ans. (3)
dy dx x 2 y2 5
2 Sol. H: 1 e1
y 3y
2
x 4 16 9 4
1 y (y 3) dx e1e2 1 e2
4
3 y(y 3)
dy 2
x 4 5
Also, ellipse is passing through (5,0)
1 1 x2
(ln | y 3| ln | y |) ln C
3 4 x2 a = 5 and b = 3
x 2 y2
1 y3 1 x 2 E: 1
ln ln C 25 9
3 y 4 x2
3
At x 4, y Q P
2 (0, 2)
1
C ln 3 (–5,0) (5,0)
4
1 y3 1 x 2 1
ln ln ln(3) 5 5
3 y 4 x2 4 End point of chord are
3 ,2
At x = 10
1 y 3 1 2 1 L PQ
10 5
ln ln ln(3)
3 y 4 3 4 3
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(4!)! (5!)! SECTION-B
Sol. 3!
,
(4!) (5!) 4!
21. The mean and standard deviation of 15
(24)! (120)!
,
(4!)6 (5!) 24 observations were found to be 12 and 3
Let 24 distinct objects are divided into 6 groups of respectively. On rechecking it was found that an
4 objects in each group.
24! observation was read as 10 in place of 12. If µ and
No. of ways of formation of group = N
(4!) 6 .6! 2 denote the mean and variance of the correct
Similarly,
Let 120 distinct objects are divided into 24 groups observations respectively, then 15( 2 2 ) is
of 5 objects in each group.
No. of ways of formation of groups equal to ……………………..
(120)!
= N Ans. (2521)
(5!) 24 .24!
20. Let the position vectors of the vertices A, B and C Sol. Let the incorrect mean be and standard
of a triangle be 2iˆ 2jˆ kˆ , ˆi 2jˆ 2kˆ and deviation be
2iˆ ˆj 2kˆ respectively. Let l1, l2 and l3 be the
We have
lengths of perpendiculars drawn from the ortho
center of the triangle on the sides AB, BC and CA x i
12 x i 180
respectively, then l12 l22 l32 equals : 15
1
(1) (2)
1 As per given information correct x i = 180–10+12
5 2
1 1 182
(3) (4) (correct mean) =
4 3 15
Ans. (2)
Also
Sol. ABC is equilateral
Orthocentre and centroid will be same x i 2
5 5 5 144 3 x i 2 2295
G , , 15
3 3 3
A (2, 2, 1) Correct x i 2 = 2295 – 100 + 144 = 2339
15( 2 2 )
B C
(1,2,2) (2, 1, 2) 182 182 182 2339 182 182
15
3 3
Mid-point of AB is D ,2, 15 15 15 15 15 15
2 2
182 2339
1 1 1 15
1 15 15
36 9 36
1 = 2521
1
2 3
6
1
12 22 23
2
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22. If the area of the region a 2 2bc d2
{(x, y) : 0 y min{2x,6x x 2}} is A, then 12 A (a d)2 2ad 2bc
6 Ans. (32)
1
A 4 8 (6x x 2 )dx
2 4
Sol. 2x y 3 0
76 6x 3y 1 0
A
3 x 2y 2 0
12A = 304 Will not form a if x 2y 2 0 is concurrent
23. Let A be a 2 × 2 real matrix and I be the identity with 2x y 3 0 and 6x 3y 1 0 or parallel
matrix of order 2. If the roots of the equation to either of them so
| A xI | 0 be –1 and 3, then the sum of the Case-1: Concurrent lines
diagonal elements of the matrix A2 is…………… 2 1 3
4
6 3 1 0
Ans. (10) 2 2 5
a b P 16 16
16
Let A
c d 25
We have a + d = 2 16
[P] 32 32
25
ad – bc = –3
25. The coefficient of x2012 in the expansion of
a b a b a 2 bc ab bd
A
2
2
c d c d ac cd bc d (1 x)2008 (1 x x 2 )2007 is equal to
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Sol. (1 x)(1 x)2007 (1 x x 2 )2007 1 v dX
dv
1 v 2
X
(1 x)(1 x 3 )2007
1
tan 1 v ln(1 v 2 ) ln | X | C
(1 x)( 2007
C0 2007
C1 (x ) .......)
3
2
(1 x)((1) r 2007 Cr x 3r ) y 1 1 y 1
2
tan 1 ln 1 ln | x 1|
x 1 2 x 1
(1) r 2007 Cr x 3r (1) r 2007 Cr x 3r 1
1 and 2
3r = 2012
5 11
2012
r
3 1 t
x
27. Let f (x) g(t)log e dt , where g is a
3r + 1 = 2012 0 1 t
3r = 2011 continuous odd function.
2011
r /2
x 2 cos x
2
3 If
/2
f (x) x
1 e
dx , then is
Hence there is no term containing x2012.
equal to………….
So coefficient of x2012 = 0
Ans. (2)
26. If the solution curve, of the differential equation
1 t
x
dy x y 2
passing through the point (2, 1) is Sol. f (x) g(t)ln dt
dx xy 0 1 t
x
y 1
2 1 t
1 y 1
tan
1
log x 1 log e | x 1| ,
f ( x) g(t)ln 1 t dt
x 1 e 0
Now,
dY X Y
dX X Y /2
x 2 cos x
I f (x) dx …..(1)
hk20 /2
1 ex
h k 1
hk 0 /2
x 2 e x cos x
Y vX
I
/2
f ( x)
1 ex
dx ……(2)
dv 1 v dv 1 v 2 /2 /2
v X
dX 1 v dX 1 v 2I
/2
x 2 cos x dx 2 x 2 cos x dx
0
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/2
x 2 y z7
I x 2 sin x 0
/2
2x sin xdx
0
Sol.
1 1 8
x3 y2 z2
k
2
/2
2 x cos x cos xdx 4 3 1
4 0
2 4k 3
2
2
2
2(0 1) 2 2 3k 2
4 4 2
k 1, 1
2
8 7 k 2
28. Consider a circle (x ) (y ) 50 , where
2 2
P (1,1, 1)
, 0 . If the circle touches the line y + x = 0 at P(1,1,–1)
42 2
4 9 1 14
4 108
l 2 8
14 14
14l 2 108
S: (x )2 (y )2 50 1
30. Let the complex numbers and lie on the
CP = r
circles | z z 0 |2 4 and | z z 0 |2 16 respectively,
5 2
2 where z 0 1 i . Then, the value of 100 | |2
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1 1
z0 z0 16
(1 z 0 )(1 z0 ) 16 | |2
1 z 0 z0 | |2 | z 0 | 16 | |2
1 z 0 z0 14 | |2 …………(2)
5 | |2 1
100 | |2 20
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PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 33. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
31. The equation of state of a real gas is given by Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R ).
Assertion (A) : The angular speed of the moon in
a
P 2 V b RT , where P, V and T are its orbit about the earth is more than the angular
V speed of the earth in its orbit about the sun.
pressure. volume and temperature respectively and Reason (R) : The moon takes less time to move
R is the universal gas constant. The dimensions of around the earth than the time taken by the earth to
a move around the sun.
is similar to that of : In the light of the above statements, choose the
b2 most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) PV below :
(2) P (1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) RT (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(4) R correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Ans. (2)
correct explanation of (A)
a (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Sol. P 2
a PV2
V Ans. (2)
And [V] = [b] 2 1
Sol.
T T
PV 2
a P
b2 V2 Tearth = 365 days 4 hour
moon earth
32. Wheatstone bridge principle is used to measure the
34. Given 27 days
Tmoon below are two statements :
specific resistance (S1) of given wire, having Statement (I) : The limiting force of static friction
length L, radius r. If X is the resistance of wire, depends on the area of contact and independent of
r 2 materials.
then specific resistance is : S1 X . If the Statement (II) : The limiting force of kinetic
L
friction is independent of the area of contact and
length of the wire gets doubled then the value of depends on materials.
specific resistance will be : In the light of the above statements, choose the
S1 most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) below :
4
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(2) 2S1 incorrect
(3)
S1 (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
2 correct
(4) S1 (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Ans. (4) (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Ans. (2)
Sol. As specific resistance does not depends on
Sol. Co-efficient of friction depends on surface in
dimension of wire so, it will not change. contact So, depends on material of object.
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35. The truth table of the given circuit diagram is : 37. The atomic mass of 6C12 is 12.000000 u and that of
13
6C is 13.003354 u. The required energy to
A
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39. Three voltmeters, all having different internal 42. Primary side of a transformer is connected to
resistances are joined as shown in figure. When 230 V, 50 Hz supply. Turns ratio of primary to
some potential difference is applied across A and secondary winding is 10 : 1. Load resistance
B, their readings are V1, V2 and V3. Choose the
connected to secondary side is 46 . The power
correct option.
consumed in it is :
V1 V2
(1) 12.5 W (2) 10.0 W
(3) 11.5 W (4) 12.0 W
A B Ans. (3)
V3 V1 N1
Sol.
(1) V1 = V2 (2) V1 V3 V2 V2 N 2
(3) V1 + V2 > V3 (4) V1 + V2 = V3 230 10
Ans. (4) V2 1
Sol. From KVL,
V2 23V
V1 + V2 – V3 = 0 V1 + V2 = V3
40. The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of oxygen at V22
Power consumed =
27°C is : R
[Use universal gas constant (R)= 8.31 J/mole K] 23 23
(1) 6845.5 J (2) 5942.0 J 11.5 W
46
(3) 6232.5 J (4) 5670.5J
43. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is
Ans. (3)
f found to be proportional to the cube of its absolute
Sol. Kinetic energy = nRT Cp
2 temperature. The ratio of for the gas is :
5 Cv
1 8.31 300 J
2 5 3
= 6232.5 J (1) (2)
3 2
41. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
7 9
Assertion(A) and the other is labelled as Reason (3) (4)
(R). 5 7
Assertion (A) : In Vernier calliper if positive zero Ans. (2)
error exists, then while taking measurements, the Sol. P T3 PT3 cons tan t
reading taken will be more than the actual reading.
Reason (R) : The zero error in Vernier Calliper PV const
might have happened due to manufacturing defect
nRT
or due to rough handling. P const
P
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below : P1 T const
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) 1
PT const
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) 3
1
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true 3 3
Ans. (2) 3 2
Sol. Assertion & Reason both are correct
3
Theory
2
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44. The threshold frequency of a metal with work Sol. Let I0 be intensity of unpolarised light incident on
function 6.63 eV is : first polaroid.
I1 = Intensity of light transmitted from 1st polaroid
(1) 16 1015 Hz
I
= 0
(2) 16 1012 Hz 2
be the angle between 1st and 2nd polaroid
(3) 1.6 1012 Hz
be the angle between 2nd and 3rd polaroid
(4) 1.6 1015 Hz 900 (as 1st and 3rd polaroid are crossed)
Ans. (4) 900
Sol. 0 h0 I2 = Intensity from 2nd polaroid
I
6.63 1.6 1019 6.63 1034 0 I2 I1 cos 2 0 cos 2
2
1.6 1019 I3 = Intensity from 3rd polaroid
v0
1034 I3 I 2 cos 2
v0 1.6 1015 Hz I3 I1 cos 2 cos 2
45. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as I3
I0
cos 2 cos 2
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason 2
(R) 90
Assertion (A) : The property of body, by virtue of I0
I3 cos 2 sin 2
which it tends to regain its original shape when the 2
2
external force is removed, is Elasticity. I0 2sin cos
I3
Reason (R) : The restoring force depends upon the 2 2
bonded inter atomic and inter molecular force of I
I3 0 sin 2 2
solid. 8
I3 will be maximum when sin 2 = 1
In the light of the above statements, choose the
2 90
correct answer from the options given below : 45
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true 47. An object is placed in a medium of refractive
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false index 3. An electromagnetic wave of intensity
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct 6 × 108 W/m2 falls normally on the object and it is
explanation (A) absorbed completely. The radiation pressure on
the object would be (speed of light in free space
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
= 3 × 108 m/s) :
correct explanation of (A) (1) 36 Nm–2 (2) 18 Nm–2
Ans. (3 or 4) (3) 6 Nm —2
(4) 2 Nm–2
Sol. Theory Ans. (3)
46. When a polaroid sheet is rotated between two I
Sol. Radiation pressure =
crossed polaroids then the transmitted light v
intensity will be maximum for a rotation of : I
c
(1) 60° (2) 30°
(3) 90° (4) 45° 6 108 3
Ans. (4) 3 108
= 6 N/m2
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48. Given below are two statements : one is labelled a 50. A bullet is fired into a fixed target looses one third
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
of its velocity after travelling 4 cm. It penetrates
Reason(R)
Assertion (A) : Work done by electric field on further D × 10–3 m before coming to rest. The
moving a positive charge on an equipotential value of D is :
surface is always zero.
(1) 2
Reason (R) : Electric lines of forces are always
perpendicular to equipotential surfaces. (2) 5
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) 3
most appropriate answer from the options given
below : (4) 4
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the Ans. (Bonus)
correct explanation of (A)
Sol. v2 – u2 = 2aS
(2) ((A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 2u
2
2
u 2 a 4 10
2
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the 3
correct explanation of (A)
Ans. (4)
Sol. Electric line of force are always perpendicular to
4u 2
9
u 2 2a 4 102
equipotential surface so angle between farce and
displacement will always be 90°. So work done
5u 2
9
2a 4 102 …(1)
equal to 0.
2
49. A heavy iron bar of weight 12 kg is having its one 2u
0 2 a x
end on the ground and the other on the shoulder of 3
a man. The rod makes an angle 60° with the
4u 2
horizontal, the weight experienced by the man is : 2ax …(2)
9
(1) 6 kg
(2) 12 kg (1) /(2)
(3) 3 kg
5 4 102
(4) 6 3 kg
4 x
Ans. (3)
16
N2 x 102
5
Sol.
N1 x 3 2 102 m
60° 120
O x 32 103 m
f
Torque about O = 0 Note : Since no option is matching, Question
L
120 cos60 N2 L 0 should be bonus.
2
N2 = 30 N
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SECTION-B Sol.
(1, 0, 4) (2, -1, 5)
51. The magnetic field at the centre of a wire loop
A B
formed by two semicircular wires of radii R1 = 2 m -4C 4C
and R2 = 4m carrying current I = 4A as per figure pE
given below is × 10–7 T. The value of is pq
______. (Centre O is common for all segments) V V
E 0.2 20
cm m
R2
p 4 ˆi ˆj kˆ
O
4iˆ 4jˆ 4kˆ C m
R1
4iˆ 4jˆ 4kˆ 20iˆ 106 Nm
Ans. (3.00)
8kˆ 8jˆ 105 8 2 105
Sol.
2
53. A closed organ pipe 150 cm long gives 7 beats per
R2 second with an open organ pipe of length 350 cm,
both vibrating in fundamental mode. The velocity
O
R1 of sound is ________ m/s.
Ans. (294.00)
0i 0i Sol.
2R 2 2 2R1 2 closed open
pipe pipe
0i 0i
4R 2 4R1 150 cm 350 cm
v v
fc fo
4107 4 4107 4 4 1 2 2
4 4 4 2
fc f0 7
7 7
3 10 10 v v
7
3 4 150 2 350
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54. A body falling under gravity covers two points A 1
Sol. Change in pressure v2
and B separated by 80 m in 2s. The distance of 2
1
upper point A from the starting point is ________ 4.5 104 2.0 104 103 v 2
2
m (use g = 10 ms–2)
1
2.5 104 103 v 2
Ans. (45.00) 2
Sol. v2 = 50
start v 50
O u=0
{
S
A v1 56.
Velocity of water =
= V = 50
V 50
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58. The electric potential at the surface of an atomic 100 103
nucleus (z = 50) of radius 9 × 10–13 cm is 60. A series LCR circuit with L mH, C F
________ × 106 V.
Ans. (8.00) and R = 10 , is connected across an ac source of
kQ k.Ze
Sol. Potential 220 V, 50 Hz supply. The power factor of the
R R
circuit would be ________.
9 10 50 1.6 1019
9
9 1013 102 Ans. (1.00)
8 106 V 1
Sol. Xc 10
59. If Rydberg’s constant is R, the longest wavelength C 2 50 103
of radiation in Paschen series will be , where 100
7R X L L 2 50 103
= ________.
Ans. (144.00) 10
Sol. Longest wavelength corresponds to transition
between n = 3 and n = 4 XC XL ,Hence, circuit is in resonance
1 1 1 1
RZ2 2 2 RZ2 power factor
R R
1
3 4 9 16 Z R
7RZ2
9 16
144
for Z = 1 144
7R
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–
66. Phenolic group can be identified by a positive: PhCH = CH 2
B2H6/H2 O2,OH
(1) Phthalein dye test Sol. PhCH2CH2OH
(2) Lucas test
(3) Tollen’s test PhCH2CH2 OH + HBr (S 2N) GP )
PhCH2CH2Br + H2 O (SN
(4) Carbylamine test O
Mg/dry ether
Ans. (1) (I) H – C – H
PhCH2CH2CH2OH PhCH2CH2MgBr
Sol. Carbylamine Test-Identification of primary amines (II) H3O+
Lucas Test - Differentiation between 1°, 2° and 3°
alcohols 70. Match List-I with List-II.
Tollen's Test - Identification of Aldehydes List – I List – II
Phthalein Dye Test - Identification of phenols (Reaction) (Reagent(s))
67. The molecular formula of second homologue in the OH OH
COOH
homologous series of mono carboxylic acids is (A) (I) Na2Cr2O7, H2SO4
_________. OH OH
CHO
(1) C3H6O2
(2) C2H4O2 (B) (II) (i) NaOH (ii) CH3Cl
OH O
(3) CH2O
(4) C2H2O2
Ans. (2) (C) O (III) (i) NaOH, CHCl3
Sol. HCOOH, CH3COOH (ii) NaOH (iii) HCl
OH
OCH3
Second homologue (D) (IV) (i) NaOH (ii) CO2
68. The technique used for purification of steam (iii) HCl
volatile water immiscible substance is: Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Fractional distillation below:
(2) Fractional distillation under reduced pressure (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(3) Distillation (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(4) Steam distillation (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
Ans. (4) (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Sol. Steam distillation is used for those liquids which Ans. (4)
are insoluble in water, containing non-volatile Sol. (A) Kolbe Schmidt Reaction
impurities and are steam volatile. (B) Reimer Tiemann Reaction
69. The final product A, formed in the following (C) Oxidation of phenol to p-benzoquinone
reaction sequence is: (D) PhOH + NaOH H2O + PhO–
(i) BH 3 –
PhO + CH 3 – Cl
(ii) H 2O 2, OH PhOCH3 + Cl–
Ph–CH=CH2 A 71. Major product formed in the following reaction is a
(iii) HBr
(iv) Mg, ether, then HCHO/H3 O
+ mixture of:
CH3
(1) Ph CH2 CH2 CH3 O C CH3 HI Major product
(2) Ph CH CH3 CH3
| I I
CH3
(1) and (CH3)3CI (2) and (CH 3)3COH
(3) Ph CH CH3
| OH
OH CH 3
CH 2OH
(3) and (CH 3)3COH (4) and CH3–C–I
(4) Ph CH2 CH2 CH2 OH CH 3
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)
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Sol. 74. Identify from the following species in which d2sp3
H
+O
hybridization is shown by central atom:
O
+H–I +I
–
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(2) BrF5
(3) [Pt(Cl)4]2–
OH
+
+ I–
I
(4) SF6
Ans. (1)
72. Bond line formula of HOCH(CN)2 is:
H Sol. [Co(NH3)6]+3 – d2sp3 hybridization
C CN BrF5 – sp3d2 hybridization
(1) HO CN [PtCl4]-2 – dsp2 hybridization
C N
SF6 – sp3d2 hybridization
HO CH
(2) C N 75. Identify B formed in the reaction.
CN
HO CH
Cl (CH2 )4 Cl
excess NH3
A
NaOH
(3) CN B H2O NaCl
OH
NH
(4) CN CN (1)
Ans. (4) (2) H 2 N CH 2 4 NH 2
OH
OH
CH (3) Cl N H3 (CH2 )4 N H3Cl
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77. Which structure of protein remains intact after Sol. Noble gas configuration = ns2 np6
coagulation of egg white on boiling? [Sr2+] = [Kr]
(1) Primary [Cs+] = [Xe]
(2) Tertiary [Yb2+] = [Xe] 4f14
(3) Secondary [La2+] = [Xe] 5d1
(4) Quaternary [Pb2+] = [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2
Ans. (1) [Fe2+] = [Ar] 3d6
Sol. Boiling an egg causes denaturation of its protein 82. The number of non-polar molecules from the
resulting in loss of its quarternary, tertiary and following is ___________
secondary structures. HF, H2O, SO2, H2, CO2, CH4, NH3, HCl, CHCl3, BF3
78. Which of the following cannot function as an Ans. (4)
oxidising agent? Sol. The non-polar molecules are CO2, H2, CH4 and
(1) N3– BF3
(2) SO24 83. Time required for completion of 99.9% of a First
(3) BrO3 order reaction is ________ times of half life (t 1/2)
of the reaction.
(4) MnO4
Ans. (10)
Ans. (1)
Sol.
Sol. In N3– ion 'N' is present in its lowest possible
2.303 a 100
oxidation state, hence it cannot be reduced further log
t 99.9% k ax 100 99.9 log103 3
because of which it cannot act as an oxidizing 10
t1/ 2 2.303 log 2 log 2 0.3
log 2
agent. k
79. The incorrect statement regarding conformations 84. The Spin only magnetic moment value of square
of ethane is: planar complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)]Cl is
(1) Ethane has infinite number of conformations ________ B.M. (Nearest integer)
(2) The dihedral angle in staggered conformation is (Given atomic number for Pt = 78)
60° Ans. (0)
(3) Eclipsed conformation is the most stable Sol. Pt2+ (d8)
conformation.
(4) The conformations of ethane are inter-
convertible to one-another.
Ans. (3)
Sol. Eclipsed conformation is the least stable
conformation of ethane.
80. Identity the incorrect pair from the following:
(1) Photography - AgBr
Pt 2 dsp2 hybridization and have no unpaired e–s.
(2) Polythene preparation – TiCl4, Al(CH3)3
(3) Haber process - Iron Magnetic moment = 0
(4) Wacker process – Pt Cl2 85. For a certain thermochemical reaction M N at
Ans. (4) T = 400 K, H 77.2 kJ mol–1, S = 122 JK–1,
Sol. The catalyst used in Wacker's process is PdCl2 log equilibrium constant (logK) is –______ × 10–1.
SECTION-B Ans. (37)
81. Total number of ions from the following with Sol. G H TS
noble gas configuration is _________. 77.2 103 400 122 28400 J
Sr2+ (Z = 38), Cs+ (Z = 55), La2+ (Z = 57) Pb2+ G 2.303RTlogK
(Z = 82), Yb2+ (Z = 70) and Fe2+ (Z = 26) 28400 2.303 8.314 400 logK
Ans. (2) logK 3.708 37.08 10 1
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86. Volume of 3 M NaOH (formula weight 40 g mol–1) O O
which can be prepared from 84 g of NaOH is || ||
Sol. C 6 H 5 NH 2 CH 3 C O C CH 3
________ × 10–1 dm3.
AnilineMM 93
Ans. (7)
n NaOH 84 / 40 V 0.7L 7 10 1 L O
Sol. M 3 ||
Vsol (in L) V C 6 H 5 NH C CH 3 CH 3COOH
Ace tan ilide MM 135
87. 1 mole of PbS is oxidised by “X” moles of O3 to
get “Y” moles of O2. X + Y = __________ n Ace tan ilide n Aniline
Ans. (8) m 9.3
Sol. PbS + 4O3PbSO4 + 4O2 135 93
x = 4, y = 4 m 13.5g
88. The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of 90. Total number of compounds with Chiral carbon
pH = 3 at 25°C. The potential of the electrode will atoms from following is ________.
be –________ × 10–2 V. O
O O
2.303RT
0.059V
F
Ans. (18) CH3 CH2 CH(NO2 ) COOH
Sol. 2Haq. 2e H2 (g) CH3 CH2 CHBr CH2 CH3
0.059 PH2 CH3 CH(I) CH2 NO2
E cell E 0cell
log
2 H
2
CH3 CH2 CH(OH) CH2OH
= 0- 0.059 × 3 = - 0.177 volts. = -17.7 × 10-2 V. CH3 CH CH(I) C2 H5
|
89. 9.3 g of aniline is subjected to reaction with excess I
of acetic anhydride to prepare acetanilide. The
mass of acetanilide produced if the reaction is Ans. (5)
100% completed is _________ × 10–1 g. Sol. Chiral carbons are marked by.
(Given molar mass in g mol–1 N : 14, O : 16, C :
O I I
12, H : 1) *
* CH3 CH2 –CH–COOH , * NO2 , * ,
Ans. (135) , * * OH
NO2 OH
I
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Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (29-01-2024) Morning Session
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Monday 29th January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
3 8 2 5 –3 O 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 5 3 8 Range of f(g(x)) is [0, 1]
Ans. (2) 4. A fair die is thrown until 2 appears. Then the
probability, that 2 appears in even number of
Sol. a6 2 a 5d 2
throws , is
a1a 4a5 a(a 3d)(a 4d) 5 1 5 6
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 6 11 11
= (2 5d)(2 2d)(2 d)
Ans. (3)
2 2 3
f(d) 8 32d 34d 20d 30d 10d Sol. Required probability =
3 5
f '(d) 2(5d 8)(3d 2) 5 1 5 1 5 1
.....
6 6 6 6 6 6
– + –
2/3 8/5 5
1 5
8 = 6 =
d 6 1 25 11
5
36
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5.
1
If z 2i , is such that 7. In a ABC, suppose y = x is the equation of the
2
bisector of the angle B and the equation of the side
| z 1| z 1 i ,i 1 and , R , then
AC is 2x –y =2. If 2AB = BC and the point A and
is equal to B are respectively (4, 6) and , , then 2 is
(1) –4 (2) 3
equal to
(3) 2 (4) –1
(1) 42 (2) 39
Ans. (2)
(3) 48 (4) 45
1
Sol. z 2i Ans. (1)
2
Sol.
z 1 z (1 i) A(4,6)
3
2i 2i i D
y=x
2 2
(2,2)
3
2i 2 i B(,) A’(6,4) C(–2,–6)
2 2
AD : DC = 1 : 2
9
2 and 4 4 10
2 4
6 8
3
=
3
14 and = 14
2 cos
1 1
lim
6. 2 3 3 is equal to
dt
x x t 8. Let a, b and c be three non-zero vectors such that
2
x
2
b and c are non-collinear .if a 5b is collinear
3 32
(1) (2) with c,b 6c is collinear with a and
8 4
32 a b c 0 , then is equal to
3
(3) (4)
8 4 (1) 35 (2) 30
Ans. (3) (3) – 30 (4)–25
Sol. Using L’hopital rule Ans. (1)
0 cos x 3x 2 Sol. a 5b c
= lim
x 2x b 6c a
2 2
Eliminating a
sin x 6 1
2 3 2 c 5b c b
= lim
4
x 2x
2 2 1
, 30
3 2 5
=
8 5, 30
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a
9. Let 5, , be the circumcenter of a triangle with 11. If , is the solution of 4cos 5sin 1 ,
4 2 2
(3)
1 1
tan 1 (4)
1 1
tan 1 y 1 cos2 x sin x dx
2 2 2 2
= – cosx + C
Ans. (4)
x = 0, C = 1
(1 sin2 x)cos x
Sol. y(x) dx
1 sin 4 x y 1
2
Put sinx = t
13. Let O be the origin and the position vector of A
1
1 t 2
1 t t and B be 2iˆ 2jˆ kˆ and 2iˆ 4jˆ 4kˆ respectively. If
1 C
= dt = tan
4 the internal bisector of AOB meets the line AB
t 1 2 2
at C, then the length of OC is
x ,t 1 C=0
2 (1)
2
31 (2)
2
34
3 3
1 1
y tan 1 3 3
4 2 2 (3) 34 (4) 31
4 2
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Ans. (2) 1 0 0
Sol. 15. Let A 0 and | 2A |3 2 21 where , Z ,
O 0
3 6 Then a value of is
A B (1) 3 (2) 5
(2, 2, 1) C (2, 4, 4)
1 :2
(3) 17 (4) 9
136 2 34
length of OC Ans. (2)
3 3
1 Sol. A 2 2
14. Consider the function f : ,1 R defined by
2 3
2A 221 A 24
f x 4 2x 3 2x 1 . Consider the statements
3
f x 2 4x3 3x 1 0 AG 69
17. Let R be a relation on Z × Z defined by
Let cos = x,
(a, b)R(c, d) if and only if ad – bc is divisible by 5.
cos 3 = cos = Then R is
4 12
(1) Reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
x cos
12 (2) Reflexive but neither symmetric not transitive
(4) is correct. (3) Reflexive, symmetric and transitive
(4) Reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
Ans. (1)
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Sol. (a, b)R(a, b) as ab – ab = 0 f(h) f(0)
Sol. f '(0) lim
Therefore reflexive h0 h
Let (a,b)R(c,d)ad – bc is divisible by 5
(2h 2 h ) tan h tan 1(h 2 h 1) 0
= lim
bc – ad is divisible by 5 (c,d)R(a,b) h0 (7h 2 3h 1)3 h
Therefore symmetric
=
Relation not transitive as (3,1)R(10,5) and
20. Let A be a square matrix such that AAT I . Then
(10,5)R(1,1) but (3,1) is not related to (1,1)
A A AT A AT is equal to
1 2 2
18. If the value of the integral
2
2
x 2 cos x 1 sin 2 x (1) A2 I (2) A3 I
dx a 2 ,
1 1 esin x
2023
(3) A2 AT (4) A3 AT
x
4
2
Ans. (4)
then the value of a is
3 3
Sol. AAT I ATA
(1) 3 (2) (3) 2 (4)
2 2 On solving given expression, we get
Ans. (1) 1 2
A A (AT )2 2AAT A2 (AT )2 2AAT
2
/2 x 2 cos x 1 sin 2 x
Sol. I 1 x sin x2023 dx
= A[A 2 (A T )2 ] = A3 AT
/2 1 e
SECTION-B
/2 x cos x 2 2
1 sin x 21. Equation of two diameters of a circle are
I
x
2023 dx
/2 1 1 esin( x) 2x 3y 5 and 3x 4y 7 . The line joining the
On Adding, we get 22 1
points , 4 and ,3 intersects the circle
/2 7 7
2I x2 cos x 1 sin2 x dx at only one point P , . Then 17 is equal to
/2
Ans. (2)
On solving
Sol. Centre of circle is (1, 1)
2 3
I 2 C(1,–1)
4 4
a=3
19. Suppose A(–22/7,–4) P( ,) B(–1/7,3)
f x
2 x
2 x tan x tan 1 x 2 x 1 Equation of AB is 7x – 3y + 10 = 0 …(i)
,
7x 3x 1
3
2
Equation of CP is 3x + 7y + 4 = 0 …(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii)
Then the value of f '(0) is equal to
41 1
(1) (2) 0 , 17 2
29 29
(3) (4)
2
Ans. (3)
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22. All the letters of the word "GTWENTY" are Ans. (5)
written in all possible ways with or without Sol.
meaning and these words are written as in a
dictionary. The serial number of the word
"GTWENTY" IS y=x2
y=2x
Ans. (553) 2 4
Sol. Words starting with E = 360
m=3
Words starting with GE = 60
f '(x) 2 x ln 2 2x 0
Words starting with GN = 60
Words starting with GTE = 24 2x ln 2 2x
Words starting with GTN = 24
Words starting with GTT = 24
GTWENTY = 1
y=2xln2
Total = 553 1
y=2x
23. Let , be the roots of the equation x 2 x 2 0
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26. If the solution curve y y x of the differential 28. The area (in sq. units) of the part of circle
equation 1 y 1 log x dx x dy
2
e = 0, x > 0 x 2 y 2 169 which is below the line 5x y 13 is
3 171
1 tan
3 2
y tan
1 tan 3
11
4 2 C1 11 C2 11
C n
29. If ..... 9 with gcd(n, m) = 1,
2 2 3 10 m
1, 1 then n +m is equal to
+ 2 = 3 Ans. (2041)
27. If the mean and variance of the data 65, 68, 58, 44,
9 11
C
48, 45, 60, , ,60 where are 56 and 66.2 Sol. r 1r
r 1
respectively, then 2 2 is equal to
1 9 12
Ans. (6344) = Cr 1
12 r 1
Sol. x 56
2 66.2 1 12 2035
= 2 26
12 6
2 25678
(56)2 66.2
10 m + n = 2041
2 2 6344
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30. A line with direction ratios 2, 1, 2 meets the lines
x = y +2 = z and x + 2 = 2y = 2z respectively at
the point P and Q. if the length of the
perpendicular from the point (1, 2, 12) to the line
PQ is l, then l2 is
Ans. (65)
Sol. Let P(t, t 2, t) and Q(2s 2,s,s)
D.R’s of PQ are 2, 1, 2
2s 2 t s t 2 s t
2 1 2
t 6 and s 2
x 2 y 2 z 2
PQ :
2 1 2
Let F(2 2, 2,2 2)
A(1, 2,12)
AF·PQ 0
2
So F(6,4, 6) and AF 65
A
P F Q
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PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A Sol. Given that
31. In the given circuit, the breakdown voltage of the Current I = I0 + t
Zener diode is 3.0 V. What is the value of Iz? I 0 20A
3A/s
I = 20 + 3t
dq
20 3t
dt
q 20
20
3t 2
q 20t 1000 C
2 0
33. Given below are two statements:
Sol. Statement I : If a capillary tube is immersed first
Vz = 3V in cold water and then in hot water, the height of
Let potential at B = 0 V capillary rise will be smaller in hot water.
Potential at E(VE) = 10 V Statement II : If a capillary tube is immersed first
VC = VA = 3 V in cold water and then in hot water, the height of
Iz + I1 = I capillary rise will be smaller in cold water.
10 – 3 7 In the light of the above statements, choose the
I A most appropriate from the options given below
1000 1000
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3
I1 A (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
2000
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
7 –1.5
Therefore I z 5.5mA (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
1000
Ans. (3)
32. The electric current through a wire varies with time
Sol. Surface tension will be less as temperature
as I = I0 + t. where I0 = 20 A and = 3 A/s. The increases
amount of electric charge crossed through a section
2T cos
of the wire in 20 s is : h
gr
(1) 80 C (2) 1000 C
Height of capillary rise will be smaller in hot water
(3) 800 C (4) 1600 C
and larger in cold water.
Ans. (2)
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34. A convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm 36. A body starts moving from rest with constant
forms an image that is half the size of the object.
acceleration covers displacement S1 in first (p – 1)
The object distance is :
(1) –15 cm (2) 45 cm seconds and S2 in first p seconds. The displacement
(3) –45cm (4) 15 cm S1 + S2 will be made in time :
Ans. (1)
Sol. (1) 2p 1 s
(2) 2p 2
2p 1 s
(3) 2p 1 s
(4) 2p2 2p 1 s
Given R = 30 cm
Ans. (2)
f = R/2 = +15 cm
1 Sol. S1 in first (p – 1) sec
Magnification (m) =
2 S2 in first p sec
For convex mirror, virtual image is formed for real
1
S1 a p 1
2
object.
Therefore, m is +ve 2
1 f 1
S2 a p
2
2 f u 2
u = – 15 cm
35. Two charges of 5Q and –2Q are situated at the 1
S1 S2 at 2
points (3a, 0) and (–5a, 0) respectively. The 2
electric flux through a sphere of radius '4a' having (p – 1)2 + p2 = t2
center at origin is :
2Q 5Q t 2p2 1 2p
(1) (2)
0 0
37. The potential energy function (in J) of a particle in
7Q 3Q
(3) (4) a region of space is given as U = (2x2 + 3y3+ 2z).
0 0
Here x, y and z are in meter. The magnitude of
Ans. (2)
Sol. x - component of force (in N) acting on the particle
at point P (1, 2, 3) m is :
(1) 2 (2) 6
(3) 4 (4) 8
Ans. (3)
Sol. Given U = 2x2 + 3y3 + 2z
U
Fx 4x
5Q charge is inside the spherical region x
5Q
flux through sphere = At x = 1 magnitude of Fx is 4N
0
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V 40. Match List I with List II
38. The resistance R where V 200 5 V and
I List I List II
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Sol. Given m1 = m2 Sol. For photon
r1 3 hc hc
and EP p
r2 4 p EP
mv2
As centripetal force F For electron
r
In order to have constant (same in this question) h hv
centripetal force
e e
me ve 2K e
F1 = F2
Given ve = 0.25 c
m1v12 m 2 v22
r1 r2 h 0.25c hc
e
2K e 8K e
v1 r 3
1
v2 r2 2 Also p e
42. A galvanometer having coil resistance 10 shows
hc hc
a full scale deflection for a current of 3mA. For it
to measure a current of 8A, the value of the shunt E p 8K e
should be:
Ke 1
(1) 3 × 10–3 (2) 4.85 × 10–3
Ep 8
(3) 3.75 × 10–3 (4) 2.75 × 10–3
Ans. (3) 44. The deflection in moving coil galvanometer falls
Sol. Given G = 10
Ig = 3mA from 25 divisions to 5 division when a shunt of
I = 8A 24 is applied. The resistance of galvanometer
In case of conversion of galvanometer into
coil will be :
ammeter.
(1) 12 (2) 96
(3) 48 (4) 100
Ans. (2)
We have IgG = (I – Ig)S
Sol. Let x = current/division
IgG
S
I Ig
S
3 10 10 –3
= 3.75 ×10–3
8 – 0.003 After applying shunt
43. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron is the
same as that of a photon. If velocity of electron is
25% of the velocity of light, then the ratio of K.E.
of electron and K.E. of photon will be:
1 1
(1) (2)
1 8
8 1 Now 5x × G = 20x × 24
(3) (4)
1 4 G = 4 × 24
Ans. (2)
G = 96
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45. A biconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal 1
Work done AB = (8000 + 6000) Dyne/cm2 ×
length of 20 cm in air. Its focal length when 2
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.6 will 3
4m = (6000Dyne/cm ) × 4m
2 3
h
R
2
5 1
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48. A capacitor of capacitance 100 F is charged to a 50. Two vessels A and B are of the same size and are
potential of 12 V and connected to a 6.4 mH at same temperature. A contains 1g of hydrogen
inductor to produce oscillations. The maximum and B contains 1g of oxygen. PA and PB are the
current in the circuit would be : pressures of the gases in A and B respectively, then
(1) 3.2 A (2) 1.5 A PA
is :
(3) 2.0 A (4) 1.2 A PB
Ans. (2) (1) 16 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 32
Sol. By energy conservation Ans. (1)
1 1 2
CV2 LImax PA VA n A RTA
2 2 Sol.
PBVB n BRTB
C Given VA =VB
I max V
L And TA = TB
100 10 –6 PA n A
12
6.4 10 –3 PB n B
12 3 PA 1 / 2
1.5 A 16
8 2 PB 1 / 32
49. The explosive in a Hydrogen bomb is a mixture of
SECTION-B
1
H2, 1H3 and 3Li6 in some condensed form. The
chain reaction is given by 51. When a hydrogen atom going from n = 2 to n = 1
Li6 + 0n12He4 + 1H3 x
3 emits a photon, its recoil speed is m/s. Where
H + 1H 2He + 0n
2 3 4 1 5
1
During the explosion the energy released is x = ______ . (Use : mass of hydrogen atom
approximately = 1.6 × 10–27 kg)
2
[Given : M(Li) = 6.01690 amu. M (1H ) = 2.01471 Ans. (17)
amu. M (2He4) = 4.00388amu, and 1 amu = 931.5 n =2
–3.4 eV
MeV]
(1) 28.12 MeV (2) 12.64 MeV
(3) 16.48 MeV (4) 22.22 MeV n =1
Sol. –13.6 eV
Ans. (4)
E = 10.2 eV
Sol. Li6 + 0n12He4 + 1H3
3
E
H + 1H 2He + 0n
2 3 4 1
Recoil speed(v) =
1
mc
3 Li6 1 H2 2 2 He 4 =
10.2eV
1.6 10 –27 3 108
Energy released in process
10.2 1.6 10 –19
Q = mc 2
1.6 10 –27 3 108
Q = [M(Li)+ M (1H2) –2 × M(2He4)] × 931.5 MeV
17
Q = [6.01690+2.01471–2 × 4.00388] × 931.5 MeV v = 3.4 m/s = m/s
5
Q = 22.216 MeV
Therefore, x = 17
Q = 22.22 MeV
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52. A ball rolls off the top of a stairway with Sol.
horizontal velocity u. The steps are 0.1 m high and
0.1 m wide. The minimum velocity u with which
that ball just hits the step 5 of the stairway will be
x ms–l where x = ___________[use g = 10 m/s2].
Ans. (2)
Sol.
0
1
A 0.1 ˆj
2
2
3 Just miss
(for minimum speed) 0.2 ˆ 0.2 ˆ
B i j
4 2 2
5 Magnitude of induced emf
B·A 0
e 2 10 3 V
t 1
The ball needs to just cross 4 steps to just hit 5th
54. A cylinder is rolling down on an inclined plane of
step
inclination 60°. It's acceleration during rolling
Therefore, horizontal range (R) = 0.4 m
x
R = u.t down will be m/s2, where x = _________.
3
Similarly, in vertical direction 2
(use g = 10 m/s ).
1
h gt 2 Ans. (10)
2
1
0.4 gt 2
2
2
1 0.4
0.4 g
2 u
Sol.
u2 = 2
g sin
For rolling motion, a
u= 2 m/s I
1 cm 2
Therefore, x = 2 MR
53. A square loop of side 10 cm and resistance 0.7 is gsin
a
placed vertically in east-west plane. A uniform 1
1
magnetic field of 0.20 T is set up across the plane 2
in north east direction. The magnetic field is 3
2 10
decreased to zero in 1 s at a steady rate. Then, 2
3
magnitude of induced emf is x × 10 V. The
–3
10
value of x is ________.
3
Ans. (2) Therefore x = 10
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55. The magnetic potential due to a magnetic dipole at 57. A 16 wire is bend to form a square loop. A 9V
a point on its axis situated at a distance of 20 cm battery with internal resistance 1 is connected
from its center is 1.5 × 10–5Tm. The magnetic across one of its sides. If a 4F capacitor is
moment of the dipole is__________Am2. connected across one of its diagonals, the energy
0 x
= 10–7TmA )
–1
(Given : stored by the capacitor will be J. where
4 2
Ans. (6) x = _________.
0 M Ans. (81)
Sol. V
4 r 2
M
1.5 10 –5 10 –7
20 10
2
–2
1.5 10 –5 20 20 10 –4
M
10 –7
M = 1.5 × 4 = 6 Sol.
56. In a double slit experiment shown in figure, when I
V
I
V
9
9
light of wavelength 400 nm is used, dark fringe is R eq R eq 1 12 4 4
12 4
observed at P. If D = 0.2 m. the minimum distance
9 4 9
between the slits S1 and S2 is ______ mm. I1
4 16 16
9 9
VA V B I1 8 8 V
16 2
1 81
U 4 J
2 4
81
U J
2
x 81
d 0.20mm x=9
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59. An electron is moving under the influence of the 60. In a test experiment on a model aeroplane in wind
electric field of a uniformly charged infinite plane
tunnel, the flow speeds on the upper and lower
sheet S having surface charge density +. The
electron at t = 0 is at a distance of 1 m from S and surfaces of the wings are 70 ms–1 and 65 ms–1
has a speed of 1 m/s. The maximum value of if 2
respectively. If the wing area is 2 m the lift of the
m C wing is _______ N.
the electron strikes S at t = l s is 0
2
e m –3
(Given density of air = 1.2 kg m )
the value of is
Ans. (8) Ans. (810)
e
Sol. u 1 m / s; a F v12 v 22 A
1
2 0 m Sol.
2
t 1 s
1.2 702 652 2
1
S = –1 m F
2
1
Using S ut at 2 = 810 N
2
1 e
1 1 1 1
2
2 20 m
0 m
8
e
8
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CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 63. In chromyl chloride test for confirmation of Cl–
61. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as ion, a yellow solution is obtained. Acidification of
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: the solution and addition of amyl alcohol and 10%
Assertion A: The first ionisation enthalpy decreases H2O2 turns organic layer blue indicating formation
across a period. of chromium pentoxide. The oxidation state of
Reason R: The increasing nuclear charge outweighs chromium in that is
the shielding across the period. (1)+6 (2)+5
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3)+10 (4)+3
most appropriate from the options given below: Ans. (1)
Sol. Cl K Cr O H SO CrO Cl CrO2 Cl
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Basic medium
2 2 7 2 4 2 2 4
yellow solution
explanation of A 1.Acidification
(2) A is true but R is false CrO24
2. Amyl alcohol
3. 10% H2 O2
CrO5
yellow solution blue compound
(3) A is false but R is true
O– 2
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the –1
O +6 O– 1
Cr
correct explanation of A –1
O O– 1
Ans. (3) 64. The difference in energy between the actual
Sol. First ionisation energy increases along the period. structure and the lowest energy resonance structure
Along the period Z increases which outweighs the for the given compound is
shielding effect (1) electromeric energy
62. Match List I with List II (2) resonance energy
LIST-I LIST-II (3) ionization energy
(Substances) (Element Present) (4) hyperconjugation energy
A.Ziegler catalyst I.Rhodium Ans. (2)
B.Blood Pigment II. Cobalt Sol. The difference in energy between the actual structure
C.Wilkinson catalyst III.Iron and the lowest energy resonance structure for the
given compound is known as resonance energy.
D.Vitamin B12 IV.Titanium
65. Given below are two statements :
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Statement I : The electronegativity of group 14
below:
elements from Si to Pb gradually decreases.
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Statement II : Group 14 contains non-metallic,
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
metallic, as well as metalloid elements.
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II most appropriate from the options given below :
Ans. (4) (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Sol. Ziegler catalyst Titanium (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Blood pigment Iron (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Wilkinson catalyst Rhodium (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Vitamin B12Cobalt Ans. (1)
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Sol. Gr-14 EN OCH2 CH3
Sol. C o n c H B r (ex ces s)
C 2.5 (P )
Si 1.8 C H = CH 2
Ge 1.8
Sn 1.8
Pb 1.9
The electronegativity values for elements from Si
to Pb are almost same. So Statement I is false.
66. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the
valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:
68. The arenium ion which is not involved in the
1 1
(1) 5, 0, 0, (2) 5, 0,1, bromination of Aniline is .
2 2
1 1
(3) 5,1, 0, (4) 5,1,1,
2 2 (1) (2)
Ans. (1)
Sol. Rb = [Kr]5s1
n=5
(3) (4)
l=0
m=0 Ans. (3)
s = +½ or –½
Sol. Since N H 2 group is o/p directing hence arenium
67. The major product(P) in the following reaction is ion will not be formed by attack at meta position
i.e.
NH 2
H
Br
Hence Answer is (3)
69. Appearance of blood red colour, on treatment of
(1) (2) the sodium fusion extract of an organic compound
with FeSO4 in presence of concentrated H2SO4
indicates the presence of element/s
(1) Br (2) N
(3) N and S (4) S
Ans. (3)
(3) (4) Sol. Fe2 H
Fe3
Conc.H 2SO4
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70. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Cl
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : hv (Formed by free radical mechanism)
Assertion A : Aryl halides cannot be prepared by
replacement of hydroxyl group of phenol by Cl
Sol. +Cl 2 (product A )
halogen atom. Cl
CCl
Reason R : Phenols react with halogen acids violently.
4
(Formed by electrophilic
Cl addition reaction on alkene)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(Product B)
most appropriate from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the Hence correct Ans. (4)
correct explanation of A
72. Identify the incorrect pair from the following :
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) A is true but R is false (1) Fluorspar- BF3
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A (2) Cryolite-Na3AlF6
Ans. (3) (3) Fluoroapatite-3Ca3(PO4)2.CaF2
Sol. Assertion (A): Given statement is correct because
in phenol hydroxyl group cannot be replaced by (4) Carnallite-KCl.MgCl2.6H2O
halogen atom.
Ans. (1)
Reason (R) :
OH Sol. (1) Fluorspar is CaF2
HX
N o R eac tio n
73. The interaction between bond and lone pair of
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75. In which one of the following metal carbonyls, CO 77. The final product A formed in the following
multistep reaction sequence is
forms a bridge between metal atoms?
(1) [Co2(CO)8] (2) [Mn2(CO)10]
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Sol. 83. For a reaction taking place in three steps at same
+e K1K 2
temperature, overall rate constant K . If
0 1 +1 K3
Cl2 Cl + ClO
e
Ea1, Ea2 and Ea3 are 40, 50 and 60 kJ/mol
respectively, the overall Ea is____kJ/mol.
Cl ClO H 2O
Cl2 2OH Ans. (30)
In alkaline medium. MnO 4 oxidises I– to
Ea Ea Ea
80. K1 K 2 A1 A 2 1 RT2 3
Sol. K e
(1) IO 4 (2)IO– K3 A3
E a E a 2 E a3
(3) I2 (4) IO 3 AA 1
A e Ea /RT 1 2 e RT
A3
Ans. (4)
E a E a1 E a 2 E a3 40 50 60 30 kJ / mole.
Sol. 2MnO4 H 2O I
alkaline medium
2MnO 2 2OH IO3
84. For the reaction N 2O4 (g) 2NO2 (g) ,
SECTION-B
Kp= 0.492 atm at 300K. Kc for the reaction at same
81. Number of compounds with one lone pair of temperature is___ × 10–2 .
electrons on central atom amongst following is _ (Given : R = 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1)
Ans. (2)
O3, H2O, SF4, ClF3, NH3, BrF5, XeF4
Sol. K P KC RT
n g
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87. Number of compounds among the following which 89. From the compounds given below, number of
contain sulphur as heteroatom is____.
compounds which give positive Fehling's test is____.
Furan,Thiophene, Pyridine, Pyrrole, Cysteine,
Benzaldehyde, Acetaldehyde, Acetone,
Tyrosine
Ans. (2) Acetophenone,Methanal, 4-nitrobenzaldehyde,
SH
Sol. cyclohexane carbaldehyde.
, OH
H2N
S
Ans. (3)
Thiophene O
Cysteine Sol. Acetaldehyde (CH3CHO),Methanal(HCHO), and
88. The number of species from the following which
CHO
are paramagnetic and with bond order equal to one cyclohexane carbaldehyde .
is____.
Sol. Magnetic behaviour Bond order Consider the given reaction. The total number of
H2 Diamagnetic 1
oxygen atoms present per molecule of the product
He 2 Paramagnetic 0.5
(P) is____.
O 2 Paramagnetic 2.5
Ans. (1)
N 22 Paramagnetic 2 CH3 H CH3
Sol. C=C (i) O 3
2 C=O
O22 Diamagnetic 1 H CH3 (ii) Zn/H2O H
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINA. TION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Monday 29th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
= P 1 (A 2I)P
= P 1 A 2I P Q(4, 6, 2) R(7, 3, 2)
Direction ratio of PR = (4, 1, -1)
= |A-2I|
01 2 Direction ratio of PQ = (1, 4, -1)
6 0 11 = 69 4 4 1
Now, cos
3 3 0 18. 18
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Now from eqn -1 6. Let r and respectively be the modulus and
x5 = 10 amplitude of the complex number
194 5
Now, 2 z 2 i 2 tan , then (r, ) is equal to
25 8
x12 x 22 x 32 x 24 x 52 576 194
3 3
5 25 25 (1) 2sec ,
8 8
x12 x22 x32 x42 54
3 5
Now, variance of first 4 observations (2) 2sec ,
8 8
2
4
4
x i2 xi 5 3
(3) 2sec ,
Var = i 1
i 1 8 8
4 4
11 11
(4) 2sec ,
8 8
54 49 5
=
4 4 4 Ans. (1)
2
5
5. The function f(x) = 2x 3(x) 3 ,x , has Sol. z = 2 i 2 tan = x + iy (let)
8
(1) exactly one point of local minima and no
y
point of local maxima r= x 2 y 2 & tan 1
x
(2) exactly one point of local maxima and no
2
point of local minima 5
r = (2)2 2 tan
8
(3) exactly one point of local maxima and
exactly one point of local minima 5 3
= 2sec 2sec
(4) exactly two points of local maxima and 8 8
exactly one point of local minima 3
Ans. (3) = 2 sec
8
2
Sol. f (x) 2x 3(x) 3 5
2 tan
& tan 1 8
1
f '(x) 2 2x 3 2
1
= 2 1 1 5
= tan 1 tan
x3 8
13 3
x 1 =
= 2 1 8
x3
7. The sum of the solutions x of the equation
+ – +
3cos2x cos3 2x
–1 0 = x3 – x2 + 6 is
cos6 x sin 6 x
M m
So, maxima (M) at x = -1 & minima(m) at x = 0 (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) –1 (4) 3
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Ans. (3) Ans. (1)
3cos2x cos3 2x Sol. logea, logeb, logec are in A.P.
Sol. = x3 – x2 + 6 b2 = ac …..(i)
cos x sin x
6 6
Also
cos2x (3 cos2 2x)
= x3 – x2 + 6 a 2b 3c
cos2x (1 sin 2 x cos2 x) loge ,loge ,loge are in A.P.
2b 3c a
4(3 cos2 2x)
= x3 – x2 + 6 2
(4 sin 2 2x) 2b a 3c
3c 2b a
4(3 cos2 2x)
= x3 – x2 + 6 b 3
(3 cos2 2x)
c 2
x3 – x2 + 2 = 0 (x + 1)(x2 – 2x + 2) = 0
2b
so, sum of real solutions = –1 Putting in eq. (i) b2 = a ×
3
8. Let OA a,OB 12a 4b and OC b, where O
a 3
is the origin. If S is the parallelogram with adjacent
b 2
sides OA and OC, then a :b:c=9:6:4
area of the quadrilateral OABC 10. If
is equal to ___
area of S 3 3
sin 2 x cos 2 x
(1) 6 (2) 10 sin 3 x cos3 x sin(x )
dx A cos tan x sin B cos sin cot x C,
O C 3 3
b
sin 2 x cos 2 x
Area of parallelogram, S a b I= sin 3 x cos3 x (sin x cos cos x sin )
dx
= sin 2 x cos 2 x
dx =
=
1
2
a (12a 4b) b (12a 4b) 3
sin x cos x tan x cos sin
2 2
dx 3
sin x cos x cos cot xsin
2 2
sec2 x cosec2 x
= 8 (a b) tan x cos sin
dx
cos cot xsin
dx
8 (a b) I = I1 + I2 …… {Let}
Ratio = =8
(a b) For I1, let tan x cos – sin = t2
2t dt
9. If loge a, loge b, loge c are in an A.P. and loge a – sec 2 x dx
cos
loge2b, loge2b – loge3c, loge3c – loge a are also in
For I2 , let cos cot xsin z2
an A.P, then a : b : c is equal to
2z dz
(1) 9 : 6 : 4 (2) 16 : 4 : 1 cosec 2 x dx
sin
(3) 25 : 10 : 4 (4) 6 : 3 : 2
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I = I 1 + I2 Ans. (1)
2t dt 2z dz Sol. Differential equation :–
= cos t sin z y dy y
x cos y cos x
2t 2z x dx x
=
cos sin y dy
cos x y x
x dx
= 2sec tan xcos sin 2cosec cos cot xsin
Divide both sides by x2
Comparing
dy
AB = 8 cosec2 x y
y dx 1
cos 2
11. The distance of the point (2, 3) from the line 2x – x x x
3y + 28 = 0, measured parallel to the line
y
3x y 1 0, is equal to Let t
x
(1) 4 2 (2) 6 3
dt 1
cos t
(3) 3 4 2 (4) 4 6 3 dx x
Ans. (4) 1
cos t dt dx
x
Sol. r P Integrating both sides
A
(2, 3) sin t = ln | x | + c
y
sin ln x c
2x – 3y + 28 = 0 x
Writing P in terms of parametric co-ordinates 2 + r 3
Using y(1) = , we get c =
3 2
cos , 3 + r sin as tan = 3
So, 3 2 3
r 3r
P(2 ,3 ) 13. If each term of a geometric progression a1, a2, a3,…
2 2
P must satisfy 2x – 3y + 28 = 0 1
with a1 and a 2 a1 , is the arithmetic mean of
8
r 3r
So, 2(2 ) 3(3 ) 28 0 the next two terms and Sn = a1 + a2 + …+an, then
2 2
S20 – S18 is equal to
We find r = 4 6 3
(1) 215 (2) –218
y (3) 218 (4) –215
12. If sin loge | x | is the solution of the
x
2 Ans. (4)
y dy y Sol. Let r’th term of the GP be arn–1. Given,
differential equation x cos ycos x
x dx x 2ar = ar+1 + ar+2
2arn–1 = arn + arn+1
and y(1) = , then 2 is equal to
3 2
1 r
(1) 3 (2) 12 r
(3) 4 (4) 9 r2 + r – 2 = 0
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Hence, we get, r = – 2 (as r 1) So, the quadratic equation becomes 2x2 – 3x + 1 =
So, S20 – S18 = (Sum upto 20 terms) – (Sum upto 1
0 whose roots are 1,
18 terms) = T19 + T20 2
T19 + T20 = ar18 (1 + r) 1
1 1, 2 lies on 5x + 8y = 9
Putting the values a = and r = – 2;
8 x
we get T19 + T20 = –2 15 16. The function f(x) = ,x –{–2, 8}
x 6x 16
2
14. Let A be the point of intersection of the lines 3x + (1) decreases in (–2, 8) and increases in
2y = 14, 5x – y = 6 and B be the point of (, 2) (8, )
intersection of the lines 4x + 3y = 8, 6x + y = 5.
(2) decreases in (, 2) (2,8) (8, )
The distance of the point P(5, –2) from the line
(3) decreases in (, 2) and increases in (8, )
AB is
13 5 (4) increases in (, 2) (2,8) (8, )
(1) (2) 8 (3) (4) 6
2 2 Ans. (2)
Ans. (4) x
Sol. f(x) =
Sol. Solving lines L1 (3x + 2y = 14) and L2 (5x – y = 6) x 6x 16
2
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736
y ' y" 20. Let a unit vector û xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ make angles ,
225 2 3
736 2 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ
Thus 225 (y' y") = 225 × = 736 and with the vectors i k, j k
225 3 2 2 2 2
18. If R is the smallest equivalence relation on the set 1 ˆ 1 ˆ
and i j respectively. If
{1, 2, 3, 4} such that {(1,2), (1,3)} R, then the 2 2
number of elements in R is ______
1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ
v i j k , then û v is equal to
2
(1) 10 (2) 12
2 2 2
(3) 8 (4) 15
11 5
Ans. (1) (1) (2)
2 2
Sol. Given set {1, 2, 3, 4}
(3) 9 (4) 7
Minimum order pairs are
Ans. (2)
(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (3, 1),(2, 1), (2, 3),(3,2),
(1, 3), (1, 2) Sol. Unit vector û xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ
Thus no. of elements = 10 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ
p1 i k,p2 j k
19. An integer is chosen at random from the integers 1, 2 2 2 2
2, 3, …, 50. The probability that the chosen integer 1 ˆ 1 ˆ
p3 i j
is a multiple of atleast one of 4, 6 and 7 is 2 2
8 21
(1) (2)
25 50 Now angle between û and p1
2
9 14
(3) (4) x z
50 25 û p1 0 0
2 2
Ans. (2)
Sol. Given set = {1, 2, 3, …….. 50} x z 0 ….(i)
P(A) = Probability that number is multiple of 4
Angle between û and p 2
P(B) = Probability that number is multiple of 6 3
P(C) = Probability that number is multiple of 7
uˆ p2 uˆ p 2 cos
Now, 3
12 8 7 y z 1 1
P(A) , P(B) , P(C) yz ….(ii)
50 50 50 2 2 2 2
again 2
Angle between ûand p3
4 1 1 3
P(A B) ,P(B C) ,P(A C)
50 50 50
2
P(A B C) 0 uˆ p3 uˆ p3 cos
3
Thus x 4 1 1
xy …. (iii)
12 8 7 4 1 1 2 2 2 2
P(A B C) 0
50 50 50 50 50 50
from equation (i), (ii) and (iii) we get
21
= 1 1
50 x y=0 z=
2 2
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1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 1 ˆ Ans. 113
Thus û v i k i j k
2 2 2 2 2 Sol. a, b, c and in A.P
2 ˆ 1 ˆ 2b = a + c a – 2b + c = 0
û v i j
2 2
ax + by + c passes through fixed point (1, -2)
2
2 4 1 5 P = (1, - 2)
û v
2 2 2
For infinite solution,
SECTION-B D = D1 = D2 = D3 = 0
21. Let , be the roots of the equation 11 1
x 6x 3 0 such that Im () > Im (). Let a, b
2
D: 2 5 0
be integers not divisible by 3 and n be a natural 12 3
99 98 n =8
number such that 3 (a ib),i 1 . Then
61 1
n + a + b is equal to _______. D1 : 5 0 = 6
Ans. 49 4 2 3
Sol. x 2 6x 6 0 Q = (8,6)
6 i 6 6 PQ2 =113
x (1 i)
2 2
23. Let P(,) be a point on the parabola y2 = 4x. If P
i i
3(e ) , 3(e
4 4
) also lies on the chord of the parabola x2 = 8y
99 5
98 98 1 whose mid point is 1, . Then (-28) (-8) is
4
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Solving (ii) & (iii) Ans. 164
y = x2 + 2 y
2 = 4(4-4) 2-16 + 16 = 0 (2, 6)
Sol.
= 8 4 3 and = 4 - 4 = 28 16 3
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Solve (3) and (4) we get 2
c 1
= –1, = 1 e
M (1, 3, 2) 2
ev 1 x 1 v 0
N (4, 3, –2) e
OM.ON = 4 + 9 – 4 = 9
y
2 y
e 1 x 1 0
x
e x
2r (f (r)) f (x)f (r) 3 r
2 2 f (r)
27. Let f (x) lim r e 2
r x
r x
2 2
x = a, y = 0 a
e
be differentiable in (,0) (0, ) and f(1) = 1. ae = 2
Then the value of ea, such that f(a) = 0, is equal to 32
28. Remainder when 6432 is divided by 9 is equal to
_____.
____.
Ans. 2
Ans. 1
Sol. f(1)=1, f(a) = 0
Sol. Let 3232 = t
2r 2 (f 2 (r) f (x)f (r)) 3 f (r) 32
y
dy
y xy x e
2 3 x Ans. 46
dx
Sol. x2 – 2y = 2023
y dy x 2 xy x 45, y 1
e
x dx y
(x,y)C
(x y) 46.
dy dv
Put y vx vx
dx dx 30. Let the slope of the line 45x + 5y + 3 = 0 be
9r2
v vx
dv x v
e 27r1 for some r1, r2 R. Then
dx v 2
dv e v x
e v vdv dx 8t 2
dx v Lim dt is equal to ____.
3 3r2 x r2 x 2 r1x 3 3x
x 3
ev (x + c) + 1 + v = 0
f (1) 1 x 1, y 1
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Ans. 12
Sol. According to the question ,
9r
27r1 2 9
2
x
8t dt
2
3
lim
x 3 3r2 x
r2 x 2 r1x 3 3x
2
8x 2
= lim 2 (using LH’ Rule)
x 3 3r
2
2r2 x 3r1x 3
2
2
72
=
3r2
6r2 27r1 3
2
72
=
9r2
27r1 3
2
72
= 12
93
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PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A Sol.
31. Two sources of light emit with a power of 200 W. A A A.B
The ratio of number of photons of visible light
B Output = A.B + A B
emitted by each source having wavelengths 300
nm and 500 nm respectively, will be : A
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 1 : 3 A
(3) 5 : 3 (4) 3 : 5 B
B A.B
Ans. (4)
Y = A.B + A.B
hc
Sol. n1 200
1
= A A .B
hc Y = 1.B
n2 200
2 Y=B
33. A physical quantity Q is found to depend on
n1 1 300
a 4 b3
n 2 2 500 quantities a, b, c by the relation Q . The
c2
n1 3
percentage error in a, b and c are 3%, 4% and 5%
n2 5
respectively. Then, the percentage error in Q is :
32. The truth table for this given circuit is : (1) 66% (2) 43%
A (3) 34% (4) 14%
Ans. (3)
a 4 b3
Y Sol. Q
c2
B Q a b c
4 3 2
Q a b c
A B Y A B Y
Q a b c
0 0 1 0 0 0 100 4 100 3 100 2 100
Q a b c
(1) (2)
0 1 1 0 1 1 % error in Q = 4 × 3% + 3 × 4% + 2 × 5%
= 12% + 12% + 10%
1 0 1 1 0 0 = 34%
1 1 0 1 1 1 34. In an a.c. circuit, voltage and current are given by :
V = 100 sin (100 t) V and
A B Y A B Y
I = 100 sin (100 t + ) mA respectively.
0 0 0 0 0 1 3
(3) (4) The average power dissipated in one cycle is :
0 1 0 0 1 0 (1) 5 W (2) 10 W
1 0 0 1 0 1 (3) 2.5 W (4) 25 W
Ans. (3)
1 1 1 1 1 0
Ans. (2)
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Sol. Pavg Vrms I rms cos() 900 9
m = 900 gm = kg kg
1000 10
100 100 103
cos r = 1m
2 2 3
2N 2(10)
10 4 1 rad / sec
10 3 60 60 3
2 2
T – mg = mr2
10
2.5 W 2
4 T = mg + mr
35. The temperature of a gas having 2.0 × 1025 9 9
2
9 2
(1) 500 K (2) 200 K = 8.82
10 9
(3) 100 K (4) 300 K
= 8.82 + 0.98
Ans. (1)
= 9.80 N
Sol. PV = nRT
N 37. The bob of a pendulum was released from a
PV RT
NA horizontal position. The length of the pendulum is
N = Total no. of molecules 10m. If it dissipates 10% of its initial energy
N against air resistance, the speed with which the bob
P kT
V arrives at the lowest point is : [Use, g : 10 ms–2]
1.38 × 1.01 × 105 = 2 × 1025 × 1.38 × 10–23 × T (1) 6 5 ms–1 (2) 5 6 ms–1
5 2
1.01 × 10 = 2 × 10 × T –1 –1
(3) 5 5 ms (4) 2 5 ms
1.01 103
T 500 K Ans. (1)
2
36. A stone of mass 900g is tied to a string and moved Sol. = 10 m,
in a vertical circle of radius 1m making 10 rpm.
Initial energy = mg
The tension in the string, when the stone is at the
lowest point is (if 2 = 9.8 and g = 9.8 m/s2) 9 1
So, mg mv2
(1) 97 N (2) 9.8 N 10 2
(3) 8.82 N (4) 17.8 N 9 1
Ans. (2) 10 10 v2
10 2
Sol. Given that v2 = 180
v 180 6 5 m / s
38. If the distance between object and its two times
magnified virtual image produced by a curved
T
mirror is 15 cm, the focal length of the mirror must
v be :
(1) 15 cm (2) –12 cm
mg (3) –10 cm (4) 10/3 cm
Ans. (3)
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Sol. 40. In Young’s double slit experiment, light from two
\ identical sources are superimposing on a screen.
The path difference between the two lights
\\\
\ \\\\
7
reaching at a point on the screen is . The ratio
\\\\\\\\\\\ \
f 4
u of intensity of fringe at this point with respect to
v = 15 – u
\ \ \\ the maximum intensity of the fringe is :
(1) 1/2 (2) 3/4 (3) 1/3 (4) 1/4
15 cm
Ans. (1)
v 7
m=2= Sol. x
u 4
(15 u) 2 2 7 7
2 x
u 4 2
2u = 15 –u
I I max cos2
3u = 15 u = 5 cm 2
v = 15 – u = 15 – 5 = 10 cm I 7 7
cos2 cos2 cos2
I max 2 22 4
1 1 1
f v u cos2 2
4
1 1 1 2 1
10 (5) 10 10 cos2
4
f = –10 cm 1
39. Two particles X and Y having equal charges are
2
being accelerated through the same potential 41. A small liquid drop of radius R is divided into 27
difference. Thereafter they enter normally in a identical liquid drops. If the surface tension is T,
then the work done in the process will be :
region of uniform magnetic field and describes
(1) 8R2T (2) 3R2T
circular paths of radii R1 and R2 respectively. The 1
(3) R 2 T (4) 4R2T
mass ratio of X and Y is : 8
R
2
R
2 Ans. (1)
(1) 2 (2) 1 Sol. Volume constant
R1 R2 4 3 4
R 27 r 3
R R 3 3
(3) 1 (4) 2 R3 = 27r3
R2 R1
R = 3r
Ans. (2) R
r
mv p 2m(KE) 2mqV 3
Sol. R R2
qB qB qB qB r2
9
R m Work done = T.A
2 2
m R2 = 27 T(4r ) – T 4R
2 R2
m1 R1 = 27T4 4 R 2 T
9
m2 R2
= 8R2T
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42. A bob of mass ‘m’ is suspended by a light string of stress
Sol. Y
length ‘L’. It is imparted a minimum horizontal strain
velocity at the lowest point A such that it just F
completes half circle reaching the top most
Y r
2
(K.E.)A L
position B. The ratio of kinetic energies
(K.E.)B
F Yr 2 ….(i)
is : L
VH B F/2
Y r / 4
2
Vm
mg
L
O C
r 2
FY 2
L L 4
VL From (i)
A mg r 2
Yr 2 Y
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 5 : 1 L L 2
(3) 2 : 5 (4) 1 : 5 = 2
Ans. (2)
44. A planet takes 200 days to complete one revolution
Sol. Apply energy conservation between A & B
around the Sun. If the distance of the planet from
1 1 Sun is reduced to one fourth of the original
mVL2 mVH2 mg(2L)
2 2
distance, how many days will it take to complete
VL 5gL one revolution ?
So, VH gL (1) 25 (2) 50
(3) 100 (4) 20
1
2
(K.E)A 2 m 5gL
5 Ans. (1)
(K.E)B 1
1
2
m gL Sol. T2 r3
2
T12 T22
43. A wire of length L and radius r is clamped at one 3
r13 r2
end. If its other end is pulled by a force F, its
(200)2 T22
length increases by l. If the radius of the wire and 3
r3 r
the applied force both are reduced to half of their 4
original values keeping original length constant,
200 200
the increase in length will become. T22
444
(1) 3 times (2) 3/2 times
200
(3) 4 times (4) 2 times T2
42
Ans. (4)
T2 = 25 days
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45. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency V 10
i 2A
35 MHz travels in free space along the X-direction. Re q 5
At a particular point (in space and time)
4
E 9.6ˆjV / m . The value of magnetic field at this Current in resistance R3 = 2
44
point is :
4
ˆ 2
(1) 3.2 10 8 kT (2) 3.2 10 8 ˆiT 8
(3) 9.6ˆjT ˆ
(4) 9.6 10 8 kT = 1A
Ans. (1) 47. A particle is moving in a straight line. The
E variation of position ‘x’ as a function of time ‘t’ is
Sol. C
B given as x = (t3 – 6t2 + 20t + 15) m. The velocity of
E the body when its acceleration becomes zero is :
3 108
B (1) 4 m/s (2) 8 m/s
E 9.6 (3) 10 m/s (4) 6 m/s
B
3 108 3 108
Ans. (2)
B = 3.2 × 10–8 T
Sol. x = t3 – 6t2 + 20t + 15
ˆ vˆ Eˆ
B
dx
v = 3t – 12t + 20
2
= ˆi ˆj = k̂ dt
So, dv
a = 6t –12
B 3.2 108 kˆ T dt
46. In the given circuit, the current in resistance R3 is : When a = 0
R2 6t – 12 = 0; t = 2 sec
4 At t = 2 sec
R1 1
v = 3(2)2 – 12(2) + 20
2 R4
v = 8 m/s
4 R3 48. N moles of a polyatomic gas (f = 6) must be mixed
with two moles of a monoatomic gas so that the
mixture behaves as a diatomic gas. The value of N
10 V
(1) 1 A (2) 1.5 A is :
(3) 2 A (4) 2.5 A (1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2
Ans. (1) Ans. (3)
Sol. n1f1 n2f2
Sol. feq
R2 n1 n2
1A
2 4 1 For diatomic gas feq = 5
R1 2A R4 (N)(6) (2)(3)
R3 5
2A 1A N2
4
5N + 10 = 6N + 6
N=4
2A
10 V
Req = 2 + 2 + 1 = 5
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49. Given below are two statements : Stress F / A F
Sol. Y
Statement I : Most of the mass of the atom and all Strain / A
its positive charge are concentrated in a tiny
F
nucleus and the electrons revolve around it, is
AY
Rutherford’s model.
Statement II : An atom is a spherical cloud of V
VA
positive charges with electrons embedded in it, is a A
special case of Rutherford’s model. FV
In the light of the above statements, choose the
A2 Y
most appropriate from the options given below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false Y & V is same for both the wires
(2) Statement I is false but statement II is true F
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false A2
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true
F1 A 22
Ans. (3) 1
Sol. According to Rutherford atomic model, most of 2 A12 F2
mass of atom and all its positive charge is
1 2
concentrated in tiny nucleus & electron revolve
around it. F1A22 F2 A12
According to Thomson atomic model, atom is 2
spherical cloud of positive charge with electron F1 A12 4
16
embedded in it. F2 A22 1
Hence,
52. A horizontal straight wire 5 m long extending from
Statement I is true but statement II false.
50. An electric field is given by (6iˆ 5jˆ 3k) ˆ N/C. east to west falling freely at right angle to
horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
The electric flux through a surface area 30iˆ m
2
lying in YZ-plane (in SI unit) is : 0.60 × 10–4 Wbm–2. The instantaneous value of emf
–1
(1) 90 (2) 150 induced in the wire when its velocity is 10 ms is
(3) 180 (4) 60 _________ × 10–3 V.
Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)
Sol. E 6iˆ 5jˆ 3kˆ
Sol. BH = 0.60 × 10–4 Wb/m2
A 30iˆ
E.A Induced emf e BH v
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Sol. For minimum potential difference electron has to From phasor diagram particle has to move from P
make transition from n = 3 to n = 2 state but first
to Q in a circle of radius equal to amplitude of
electron has to reach to n = 3 state from ground
state. So, energy of bombarding electron should be SHM.
equal to energy difference of n = 3 and n = 1 state.
1 3A
E 13.6 1 2 e eV 3
3 cos 2
A 2
13.6 8
V
9
V 12.09 V 12.1 V 6
So, 121
Now, t
54. A charge of 4.0 C is moving with a velocity of 6
4.0 × 106 ms–1 along the positive y-axis under a
2
magnetic field B of strength 2kˆ T. The force
6 T
t
Ans. (36)
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Sol. At steady state, capacitor behaves as an open
circuit and current flows in circuit as shown in the A
diagram.
9V 9V B y3
y1
i 3
6F b 1
6 6
A B A B
D
3 3
3F
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6V 2 4 ds
i2 = A v
15 5 1 8t dt
9 t
dt
s
i1 + i2 + i3 A 4
1 8t 0
10 ds
0
2 9
i3 (r = 0.5 m
10 5 10
s = 2r =
7 9
i3 n 1 8t
t
4
10 10 0
i3 = 0.2 A 8
So, i3 × R1 = 6 V n 1 8t 2
(0.2)R1 = 6
6 1 – 8t = e–2
R1 30
0.2
t 1 e 2 81 s
59. A particle is moving in a circle of radius 50 cm in
such a way that at any instant the normal and So, = 8
tangential components of its acceleration are equal. 60. A body of mass 5 kg moving with a uniform speed
If its speed at t = 0 is 4 m/s, the time taken to
1 3 2 ms1 in X – Y plane along the line y = x + 4.
complete the first revolution will be 1 e2 s,
The angular momentum of the particle about the
where = ______. origin will be ______ kg m2s–1.
Ans. (8) Ans. (60)
Sol. a C a t Sol. y – x – 4 = 0
dl is perpendicular distance of given line from
v 2 dv
origin.
r dt
v t 4
dv dt dl 2 2 m
2 1 12
2
4
v 0
r
v So, L mvdl 5 3 2 2 2 kg m2/s
1 t
v 4 r = 60 kg m2/s
1 1
2t
v 4
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CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 63. Match List I with List II
61. The ascending acidity order of the following H List I List II
atoms is (Compound) (pKa value)
H3C
HC C H H2C CH H3C C H H3C CH2 H
A. Ethanol I. 10.0
H
H3C B. Phenol II. 15.9
A B C D C. m-Nitrophenol III. 7.1
(1) C < D < B < A D. p-Nitrophenol IV. 8.3
(2) A < B < C < D Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) A < B < D < C below :-
(4) D < C < B < A (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Ans. (1) (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
CH3 (3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Sol. CH C > CH 2 CH > H3C – CH 2 > CH3 C (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
CH3
Ans. (4)
Stability of conjugate base acidic strength Sol. Ethanol 15.9
C<D<B<A Phenol 10
M-Nitrophenol 8.3
62. Match List I with List II P-Nitrophenol 7.1
List I (Bio Polymer) List II (Monomer)
A. Starch I. nucleotide 64. Which of the following reaction is correct ?
(1) CH3CH2CH2 NH2
HNO ,0ºC
CH3CH2OH N2 HCl
B. Cellulose II. -glucose
2
HO 2
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65. According to IUPAC system, the compound 69. Match List I with List II
OH List I List II
is named as (Spectral Series (Spectral Region/Higher
for Hydrogen) Energy State)
(1) Cyclohex-1-en-2-ol (2) 1-Hydroxyhex-2-ene
A. Lyman I. Infrared region
(3) Cyclohex-1-en-3-ol (4) Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol
B. Balmer II. UV region
Ans. (4)
Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol C. Paschen III. Infrared region
D. Pfund IV. Visible region
66. The correct IUPAC name of K2MnO4 is Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Potassium tetraoxopermanganate (VI) below :-
(2) Potassium tetraoxidomanganate (VI) (1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) Dipotassium tetraoxidomanganate (VII) (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) Potassium tetraoxidomanganese (VI) (3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Ans. (2) (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Sol. K2MnO4
Ans. (3)
2+x–8=0
Sol. A – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
x = +6
Fact based.
O.S. of Mn = +6
IUPAC Name =
Potassium tetraoxidomanganate(VI) 70. On passing a gas, ‘X’, through Nessler’s reagent, a
brown precipitate is obtained. The gas ‘X’ is
67. A reagent which gives brilliant red precipitate with (1) H2S (2) CO2
Nickel ions in basic medium is (3) NH3 (4) Cl2
(1) sodium nitroprusside Ans. (3)
(2) neutral FeCl3 Sol. Nessler’s Reagent Reaction :
(3) meta-dinitrobenzene 2K 2HgI4 NH3 3KOH HgO. Hg NH2 I 7KI 2H2O
(4) dimethyl glyoxime
Nessler 's Reagent
Iodine of Millon 's base
Brown precipitate
Ans. (4) 71. The product A formed in the following reaction is:
Sol. Ni2+ + 2dmg– [Ni(dmg)2] NH2
NaNO2, HCl, 0ºC
Rosy red/Bright Red precipitate A
then Cu2Cl2
+ –
68. Phenol treated with chloroform in presence of NH2 NH 3Cl
sodium hydroxide, which further hydrolysed in (1) (2)
presence of an acid results Cl
(1) Salicyclic acid Cl Cl
(2) Benzene-1,2-diol (3) (4)
(3) Benzene-1, 3-diol Cl
(4) 2-Hydroxybenzaldehyde Ans. (3)
+
Ans. (4)
–
N2Cl Cl
OH OH NH2
Sol. + CHCl3 + NaOH CHO Sol. NaNO2 HCl Cu2Cl2
0° C
-hydroxy-benzaldehyde
It is Reimer Tiemann Reaction
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72. Identify the reagents used for the following conversion 75. Which of the following statements are correct
O CH3
CHO
about Zn, Cd and Hg?
A. They exhibit high enthalpy of atomization as
CHO
O A B
CHO
OH OH OH
CHO
C
the d-subshell is full.
B. Zn and Cd do not show variable oxidation
state while Hg shows +I and +II.
(1) A = LiAlH4, B = NaOH(aq), C = NH2–NH2/KOH, C. Compounds of Zn, Cd and Hg are
ethylene glycol paramagnetic in nature.
D. Zn, Cd and Hg are called soft metals.
(2) A = LiAlH4, B = NaOH(alc), C =Zn/HCl
Choose the most appropriate from the options
(3) A = DIBAL-H, B= NaOH(aq), given below:
C = NH2–NH2/KOH, ethylene glycol (1) B, D only (2) B, C only
(4) A = DIBAL-H, B = NaOH(alc), C = Zn/HCl (3) A, D only (4) C, D only
Ans. (4) Sol. Ans. (1)
Sol. (A) Zn, Cd, Hg exhibit lowest enthalpy of
OCH3 atomization in respective transition series.
CHO
O CHO
(C) Compounds of Zn, Cd and Hg are diamagnetic
(A) DIBAL–H HO
HO
{Selective
in nature.
CHO
reduction (B)
NaOH
76. The element having the highest first ionization
of ester}
(alc.) enthalpy is
Intramolecular
Aldol
(1) Si (2) Al
(3) N (4) C
CHO
Ans. (3)
(C) Zn/HCl Sol. Al < Si < C < N ; IE1 order.
(Clemmensen
reduction) OH
77. Alkyl halide is converted into alkyl isocyanide by
73. Which of the following acts as a strong reducing
reaction with
agent? (Atomic number : Ce = 58, Eu = 63,
(1) NaCN (2) NH4CN
Gd = 64, Lu = 71) (3) KCN (4) AgCN
(1) Lu3+ (2) Gd3+ Ans. (4)
(3) Eu2+ (4) Ce4+ Sol. Covalent character of AgCN.
Ans. (3)
Sol. Eu+2 Eu+3 + 1e– 78. Which one of the following will show geometrical
isomerism?
[Xe]4f76s0 [Xe] 4f66s0
CHBr
CH 2
74. Chromatographic technique/s based on the
principle of differential adsorption is/are (1) (2)
A. Column chromatography
B. Thin layer chromatography Br Br
C. Paper chromatography CH 2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the CHBr
options given below:
(3) (4)
(1) B only (2) A only
(3) A & B only (4) C only
Ans. (3) Br Br
Ans. (3)
Sol. Memory Based
Sol. Due to unsymmetrical.
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79. Given below are two statements: M 1000
Statement I: Fluorine has most negative electron Sol. m
dsol 1000 M Molar masssolute
gain enthalpy in its group.
815 × 10–3 m
Statement II: Oxygen has least negative electron
gain enthalpy in its group. 85. If 50 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid is required to
In the light of the above statements, choose the neutralise 25 mL of NaOH solution, the amount of
most appropriate from the options given below. NaOH in 50 mL of given NaOH solution is
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true _____g.
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false Ans. (4)
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false Sol. Equivalent of Oxalic acid = Equivalents of NaOH
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 50 × 0.5 × 2 = 25 × M × 1
Ans. (4) MNaOH = 2M
Sol. Statement-1 is false because chlorine has most WNaOH in 50ml = 2 × 50 × 40 × 10–3 g = 4g
negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
80. Anomalous behaviour of oxygen is due to its 86. The total number of ‘Sigma’ and Pi bonds in 2-
(1) Large size and high electronegativity formylhex-4-enoic acid is ____.
(2) Small size and low electronegativity Ans. (22)
H H H O
(3) Small size and high electronegativity
(4) Large size and low electronegativity Sol. H C C C C C C O H
Ans. (3)
H H H H C H
Sol. Fact Based.
SECTION-B O
81. The total number of anti bonding molecular 22 bonds
orbitals, formed from 2s and 2p atomic orbitals in a 87. The half-life of radioisotopic bromine - 82 is 36
diatomic molecule is _____________. hours. The fraction which remains after one day is
Ans. (4) ___________ ×10–2.
Sol. Antibonding molecular orbital from 2s = 1 (Given antilog 0.2006 = 1.587)
Antibonding molecular orbital from 2p = 3 Ans. (63)
Total = 4 Sol. Half life of bromine – 82 = 36 hours
82. The oxidation number of iron in the compound 0.693
t1/2
formed during brown ring test for NO3 ion is _____. K
Ans. (1) 0.693
Sol. [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+, K = 0.01925 hr–1
36
Oxidation no. of Fe = +1 1st order rxn kinetic equation
83. The following concentrations were observed at 2.303 a
500 K for the formation of NH3 from N2 and H2. At t log
equilibrium :[N2] = 2 × 10–2 M, [H2] = 3 ×10–2 M and K ax
[NH3] = 1.5 ×10–2M. Equilibrium constant for the a tK
log (t = 1day = 24hr)
reaction is _______. a x 2.303
Ans. (417) a 24hr 0.01925hr 1
log
NH3 ax
2
2.303
Sol. KC
N2 H2 a
3
log 0.2006
ax
KC
1.5 10
2 2
a
anti log 0.2006
2 10 3 10
2 2 3 ax
a
KC = 417 1.587
ax
If a = 1
84. Molality of 0.8 M H2SO4 solution (density 1.06 g cm–3) 1
is _____×10–3 m. 1.587 1 – x = 0.6301 = Fraction remain
Ans. (815) 1 x
after one day
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88. Standard enthalpy of vapourisation for CCl4 is 89. A constant current was passed through a solution
–1
30.5 kJ mol . Heat required for vapourisation of of AuCl 4 ion between gold electrodes. After a
period of 10.0 minutes, the increase in mass of
284g of CCl4 at constant temperature is ____kJ. cathode was 1.314 g. The total charge passed
(Given molar mass in g mol–1 ; C = 12, Cl = 35.5) through the solution is _________ × 10-2 F.
(Given atomic mass of Au = 197)
Ans. (56)
Ans. (2)
Sol. H 0vap CCl4 30.5 kJ / mol W ch arg e
Sol.
Mass of CCl4 = 284 gm E 1F
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Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (30-01-2024) Morning Session
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Tuesday 30th January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
(3)
x
(4)
y z 2 i z 0 , then |z2| is equal to :
y9 x9
32 32 (1) 9
Ans. (1) (2) 1
(3) 4
1
Sol. (4)
4
Ans. (2)
Sol. z 2 iz
z 2 iz
|z2| = |z|
|z|2 – |z| = 0
|z|(|z| – 1) = 0
|z| = 0 (not acceptable)
Eqn : y – 0 = tan15° (x – 9) y = (2 3 (x 9) |z| = 1
|z|2 = 1
2. Let Sa denote the sum of first n terms an arithmetic
4. Let a a i ˆi a 2ˆj a 3kˆ and b b1ˆi b2ˆj b3kˆ be
progression. If S20 = 790 and S10 = 145, then S15 –
S5 is : two vectors such that a 1; a.b 2 and b 4. If
(1) 395
(2) 390
c 2 a b 3b , then the angle between b and c
is equal to :
(3) 405
2
(4) 410 (1) cos 1
3
Ans. (1)
1
20 (2) cos 1
Sol. S20 2a 19d 790
3
2
2a + 19d = 79 …..(1) 3
(3) cos1
2
S10
10
2a 9d 145
2
2
2a + 9d = 29 …..(2) (4) cos1
3
From (1) and (2) a = -8, d = 5
Ans. (3)
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Sol. Given a 1, b 4, a.b 2 (0, 0)
Sol.
c 2 a b 3b
c 412 144
2
d
2 dx
6x 2 54 d
dx
0 at x = 3
c 48 144
Area = 3 (-2 × 9 + 54) = 108
2
c 192 n
n3
6. The value of lim is :
cos
b.c n k 1
n 2 k n 2 3k 2
b c
48 (1)
2 33
cos 24
192.4
13
48 (2)
cos
8 3.4
8 4 3 3
cos
3
(3)
13 2 3 3
2 3 8
3 3
cos cos1 (4)
2
2
8 2 3 3
5. The maximum area of a triangle whose one vertex Ans. (2)
is at (0, 0) and the other two vertices lie on the n
n3
curve y = -2x2 + 54 at points (x, y) and (-x, y) Sol. lim
n k 1 4 k 2 3k 2
where y > 0 is : n 1 2 1 2
n n
(1) 88
(2) 122 1 n n3
lim
n n k 1
(3) 92 k 2 3k 2
1 2 1 2
(4) 108 n n
Ans. (4) 1
dx
2 1 2
0 3 1 x x
3
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1
1 3 x 2 1 x 2
1
3
8. The area (in square units) of the region bounded by
the parabola y2 = 4(x – 2) and the line y = 2x - 8
dx
0
3 2
3
1 x 2 2 1
x (1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 6
1 (4) 7
1 1 1
2 2 1 2
dx Ans. (2)
0 1 x2
x Sol. Let X = x – 2
3
y2 = 4x, y = 2 (x + 2) – 8
1 1
1 1 2
3 tan 1 3x tan 1 x y = 4x, y = 2x – 4
2 0 2 0
4
y2 y 4
3 1
A 4
2
2 3 2 4 2 3 8 2
13 4
8. 4 3 3
7. Let g : R R be a non constant twice
-2
1 3
differentiable such that g' g' . If a real
2 2
valued function f is defined as
=9
1
f x g x g 2 x , then 9. Let y = y (x) be the solution of the differential
2
equation sec x dy + {2(1 – x) tan x + x(2 – x)}
(1) f”(x) = 0 for atleast two x in (0, 2)
dx = 0 such that y(0) = 2.Then y(2) is equal to :
(2) f”(x) = 0 for exactly one x in (0, 1)
(1) 2
(3) f”(x) = 0 for no x in (0, 1)
(2) 2{1 – sin (2)}
3 1 (3) 2{sin (2) + 1}
(4) f ' f ' 1
2 2 (4) 1
Ans. (1) Ans. (1)
3 1
Sol. f ' x
g ' x g ' 2 x 3
g ' g '
,f '
2 2 0
Sol.
dy
dx
2 x 1 sin x x 2 2x cos x
2
2 2
Now both side integrate
1 3
y x 2 x 1 sin x dx x 2 2x sin x 2x 2 sin x dx
g ' g '
1 2 0, f ' 1 0
Also f '
2
2 2
2
y x x 2 2x sin x
3 1 y 0 0 2
f ' f ' 0
2 2
1 3
rootsin ,1 and 1,
y x x 2 2x sin x 2
2 2 y 2 2
1 3
f " x is zero at least twice in ,
2 2
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10. Let , , be the foot of perpendicular from the = 30
30 30
x 3 y 1 z 4 Required probability
point (1, 2, 3) on the line . 11 11 121
5 2 3
12. If the domain of the function
then 19 is equal to :
2 x 1
(1) 102 f x cos 1 log e 3 x is
(2) 101 4
(3) 99 [, ) y , then is equal to :
(4) 100 (1) 12
Ans. (2) (2) 9
(1, 2, 3) (3) 11
Sol.
(4) 8
Ans. (3)
2 x
Sol. 1 1
4
P()
Let foot P (5k – 3, 2k + 1, 3k – 4) 2 x
1
DR's AP: 5k 4, 2k1, 3k 7 4
DR's Line: 5, 2, 3
–4 2 – |x| 4
Condition of perpendicular lines (25k-20) + (4k-2) + (9k – 21)=0 –6 – |x| 2
Then k
43
–2 |x| 6
38 |x| 6
Then 19 =101 x [–6, 6] …(1)
11. Two integers x and y are chosen with replacement Now, 3 – x 1
from the set {0, 1, 2, 3, ….., 10}. Then the And x 2 …(2)
probability that | x y | 5 is : and 3 – x > 0
30 x<3 …(3)
(1)
121 From (1), (2) and (3)
62 x [–6, 3) – {2}
(2)
121 =6
(3)
60 =3
121 =2
31
(4) + + = 11
121
13. Consider the system of linear equation x + y + z =
Ans. (1)
4, x + 2y + 2 z = 10 , x + 3y + 4 2z = 2 +15,
Sol. If x = 0, y = 6, 7, 8, 9, 10
If x = 1, y = 7, 8, 9, 10 where , R . Which one of the following
If x = 2, y = 8, 9, 10 statements is NOT correct ?
If x = 3, y = 9, 10 1
(1) The system has unique solution if and
If x = 4, y = 10 2
If x = 5, y = no possible value 1 , 15
Total possible ways = (5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1) × 2
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1 -3 < r < 7 ………(1)
(2) The system is inconsistent if and 1
2 From (1) and (2)
(3) The system has infinite number of solutions if 3<r<7
1 15. If the length of the minor axis of ellipse is equal to
and 15 half of the distance between the foci, then the
2
eccentricity of the ellipse is :
1
(4) The system is consistent if 5
2 (1)
Ans. (2) 3
Sol. x + y + z = 4, x + 2y + 2 z = 10 , x + 3y + 4 (2)
3
2 2
z = 2 +15,
1
1 1 1 (3)
3
2 = 2 1
2
1 2 2
(4)
1 3 4 2
5
1 Ans. (4)
For unique solution 0, 2 1 0, Sol. 2b = ae
2
b e
1
Let 0, a 2
2
e2
4 1 1 e 1
4
y 0, x z 10 2 1
2
2 15 3 1 e
5
15 1 16. Let M denote the median of the following
1 frequency distribution.
For infinite solution , 1 or 15 Class 0-4 4-8 8-12 12-16 16-20
2
Frequency 3 9 10 8 6
Then 20 M is equal to :
14. If the circles x 12 y 22 r 2 and (1) 416
x 2 y 2 4x 4y 4 0 intersect at exactly two (2) 104
(3) 52
distinct points, then
(4) 208
(1) 5 < r < 9
Ans. (4)
(2) 0 < r < 7 Sol.
(3) 3 < r < 7 Class Frequency Cumulative
(4)
1
r7 frequency
2 0-4 3 3
Ans. (3) 4-8 9 12
Sol. If two circles intersect at two distinct points 8-12 10 22
r1 r2 C1C2 r1 r2 12-16 8 30
16-20 6 36
r 2 9 16 r 2
|r – 2 | < 5 and r + 2 > 5
-5 < r – 2 < 5 r > 3 ……….(2)
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N Sol. Area = AC BD
2 C
M l h ˆi ˆj
f kˆ
5 1 7
18 12 1 2 3
M 8 4
10
1 1
M = 10.4 17iˆ 8jˆ 11kˆ 474
2 2
20M = 208
19. If 2sin3x + sin 2x cos x + 4sinx – 4 = 0 has exactly
2cos4 x 2sin 4 x 3 sin 2 2 x
n
17. If f x 3 2cos4 x 2sin 4 x sin 2 2 x then 3 solutions in the interval 0, , n N , then the
2
4
2cos x 3 2sin x
4
sin 2 2 x
roots of the equation x2 nx n 3 0 belong
1
f ' 0 is equal to ______
5 to :
(1) 0 (1) 0,
(2) 1 (2) ,0
(3) 2
17 17
(4) 6 (3)
2 , 2
Ans. (1)
(4) Z
2cos4 x 2sin 4 x 3 sin 2 2x
Ans. (2)
Sol. 3 2cos4 x 2sin 4 x sin 2 2x
Sol. 2sin3 x 2sin x.cos2 x 4sin x 4 0
2cos4 x 3 2sin 2 4x sin 2 2x
R 2 R 2 R1, R3 R3 R1
2sin 3 x 2sin x. 1 sin 2 x 4sin x 4 0
6sin x 4 0
2cos 4 x 2sin 4 x 3 sin 2 2x 2
sin x
3 0 3 3
0 3 3 n = 5 (in the given interval)
f(x) = 45 x 2 5x 2 0
f ' x 0 5 17
x
18. Let A (2, 3, 5) and C(-3, 4, -2) be opposite vertices 2
of a parallelogram ABCD if the diagonal Required interval ,0
BD iˆ 2 ˆj 3kˆ then the area of the parallelogram
20. Let f : , R be a differentiable function
is equal to 2 2
x
(1)
1
410 1 x f t dt
2 such that f 0 , If the lim 0 2 ,
2 x 0 e x 1
1
(2) 474
2 then 8 2 is equal to :
1 (1) 16
(3) 586
2 (2) 2
1 (3) 1
(4) 306
2 (4) 4
Ans. (2) Ans. (2)
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x 11 + z 15 z 4
x f t dt
Sol. 0
lim 11 + y 15 y 4
x 0 e x1 2
2
x Now
x2
9 – z + 0 + 14 – y + z + 11 + y + 5 – y – z = 40
x
f t dt ex 1
2
y + z = –1
lim 0 lim 1
x 0 x x 0 x 2 Not possible
f x x 10
= lim (using L Hospital)
x 0 1 For x = 10
1
f 0
2
1
2
8 2 2
SECTION-B
21. A group of 40 students appeared in an examination Hence maximum number of students passed in all
of 3 subjects – Mathematics, Physics & Chemistry. the three subjects is 10.
It was found that all students passed in at least one 22. If d1 is the shortest distance between the lines
of the subjects, 20 students passed in Mathematics, x + 1 = 2y = -12z, x = y + 2 = 6z – 6 and d2 is the
25 students passed in Physics, 16 students passed shortest distance between the lines
in Chemistry, at most 11 students passed in both x 1 y 8 z 4 x 1 y 2 z 6
, , then the
Mathematics and Physics, at most 15 students 2 7 5 2 1 3
passed in both Physics and Chemistry, at most 15 32 3d1
students passed in both Mathematics and value of is :
d2
Chemistry. The maximum number of students
passed in all the three subjects is ________. Ans. (16)
Sol. L : x 1 y z x
y 2
z – 1
Ans. (10) 1
1 1/ 2 1 / 12
, L2 :
1 1 1
Sol. M P 6
d1 = shortest distance between L1 & L2
x
a 2 a1 . b1 b 2
=
b1 b2
C
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x 2 y2 Sol. f : A P(A)
23. Let the latus rectum of the hyperbola 1
9 b2
a f (a)
subtend an angle of at the centre of the
3 That means ‘a’ will connect with subset which
hyperbola. If b2 is equal to
l
m
1 n , where l
contain element ‘a’.
and m are co-prime numbers, then l2 + m2 + n2 is Total options for 1 will be 26. (Because 26 subsets
contains 1)
equal to __________
Ans. (182) Similarly, for every other element
Sol. LR subtends 60º at centre
Hence, total is 26 × 26 × 26× 26× 26× 26× 26 = 242
Ans. 2+42 = 44
9
10x
30º 25. The value 9 dx , where [t] denotes the
x 1
0
greatest integer less than or equal to t, is _____.
Ans. (155)
b2 / a b2 1
tan 30 2 10x 1
ae a e 3 Sol. 1 x
x 1 9
3b 2
e 10x
4 x
2
9 x 1 3
b2 b 2 3b 4 10x
Also, e2 1 1 9 x 9
9 9 81 x 1
= 155
3
b2 (1 13)
2 26. Number of integral terms in the expansion of
824
3, m 2, n 13 1 1
2
7 11 6 is equal to ________.
2 2 2
+ m + n = 182
24. Let A = {1, 2, 3,….7} and let P(1) denote the Ans. (138)
power set of A. If the number of functions Sol. General term in expansion of (7)1/ 2 (11)1/6
824
is
f : A P A such that a f a , a A is m , m
n
824 r
tr + 1 = 824Cr (7) 2
(11) r /6
and n N and m is least, then m + n is equal to
For integral term, r must be multiple of 6.
_______.
Ans. (44) Hence r = 0, 6, 12, ……….822
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27. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential = 5, = 65, = 325
x
dx 1
ln(1 x 2 ) Ans. (15)
IF = e 1 x 2
e 2 1 x2
1
; x2
x
y 1 x 2 3 (x 3 2) dx 2
Sol. f (x) ax 2b; 2 x 2
1
; x 2
x4 x
y 1 x 2 3 2x c
4 1 a
Continuous at x = 2 2b
2 4
y(0) 0 c 0
1 a
1 65 m Continuous at x = -2 2b
y 2 4
2 32 n
Since, it is differentiable at x = 2
m n 97
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1=a+b+c
4 = 4a + 2b + c
8 = 9a + 3b + c
1 3
On solving we get, a = ,b = ,c= -1
2 2
2
10
n 2 3n
1
n 1 2 2
4 n 2 3n 2 , n 4
10 2 10
n 1 n 1
10
4 (6n 3 5n 2 12n 4) = 55(353) + 40
n 1
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PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A Sol.
31. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II T
2 –2
A. Coefficient of viscosity I. [M L T ] 2a
g
2k
B. Surface Tension II. [M L2T–1] 2T
30º Fixed a
–1 –1 4 kg
C. Angular momentum III. [M L T ]
40 – 2T = 4a
D. Rotational kinetic energy IV. [M L0T–2]
T – 10 = 4a 20 = 12 a
(1) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
(2) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV g
a = 5/3 2a =
(3) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I 3
(4) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I 33. A potential divider circuit is shown in figure. The
Ans. (3)
dv V0 is
output voltage
Sol. F A 4V
dy
MLT 2 L2 T 1
3.3k 100 100 100 100 100 100 100
ML1 T 1
F MLT 2 V0
S .T ML0T 2
L (1) 4V (2) 2 mV
(3) 0.5 V (4) 12 mV
L mvr ML2T 1
Ans. (3)
1 2
K .E I ML2T 2 Sol. Req 4000
2
32. All surfaces shown in figure are assumed to be 4 1
frictionless and the pulleys and the string are light.
i A
4000 1000
The acceleration of the block of mass 2 kg is :
1
V0 i.R 500 0.5V
1000
34. Young’s modules of material of a wire of length
‘L’ and cross-sectional area A is Y. If the length of
the wire is doubled and cross-sectional area is
halved then Young’s modules will be :
g
(1) g (2) Y
3 (1) (2) 4Y
4
g g
(3) (4) (3) Y (4) 2Y
2 4
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
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Sol. Young’s modulus depends on the material not Sol. By COME
length and cross sectional area. So young’s KEA + UA = KEB + UB
modulus remains same. 1
35. The work function of a substance is 3.0 eV. The 0 + mg(1) = mv 2 mg 0.5
2
longest wavelength of light that can cause the
emission of photoelectrons from this substance is v g 10 m / s
approximately: 38. The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in
(1) 215 nm (2) 414 nm free space is represented as E E0 cos t kz iˆ .
(3) 400 nm (4) 200 nm
Ans. (2) The corresponding magnetic induction vector will
hc be :
Sol. For P.E.E. :
We (1) B E0C cos t kz ˆj
1240 nm eV E0
(2) B cos t kz ˆj
3 eV C
413.33nm (3) B E0 Ccos t kz ˆj
max 414 nm for P.E.E. E0
36. The ratio of the magnitude of the kinetic energy to (4) B cos t kz ˆj
C
the potential energy of an electron in the 5th excited
Ans. (2)
state of a hydrogen atom is :
1 Sol. Given E E0 cos t kz iˆ
(1) 4 (2)
4 E0
B cos t kz ˆj
1 C
(3) (4) 1
2 Cˆ Eˆ Bˆ
Ans. (3) 39. Two insulated circular loop A and B radius ‘a’
1
Sol. PE KE for each value of n (orbit) carrying a current of ‘I’ in the anti clockwise
2 direction as shown in figure. The magnitude of the
KE 1 magnetic induction at the centre will be :
PE 2 B
37. A particle is placed at the point A of a frictionless
track ABC as shown in figure. It is gently pushed
toward right. The speed of the particle when it
O
reaches the point B is : (Take g = 10 m/s2).
A C A
B
1m
0.5m 2 0 I 0 I
(1) (2)
a 2a
(1) 20 m/s (2) 10 m / s 0 I 20 I
(3) (4)
(3) 2 10 m / s (4) 10 m/s 2a a
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
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Sol. 1 N1 100
Sol. 2 22V
B 2 N 2 10
net
22
I 1 mA, V0 7V
22 103
42. The gravitational potential at a point above the
surface of earth is 5.12 107 J / kg and the
400 109 m
By (i) and (ii)
D 100 102
Width of 1st secondary maxima
h 16 105 m 1600 km
400 109 43. An electric toaster has resistance of 60 at room
3
100 102
0.2 10 temperature (27ºC). The toaster is connected to a
2 mm 220 V supply. If the current flowing through it
41. Primary coil of a transformer is connected to reaches 2.75 A, the temperature attained by toaster
220 V ac. Primary and secondary turns of the
is around : (if 2 104 /º C )
transforms are 100 and 10 respectively. Secondary
(1) 694ºC
coil of transformer is connected to two series
resistance shown in shown in figure. The output (2) 1235ºC
voltage (V0) is : (3) 1694ºC
15k
(4) 1667ºC
V0
Ans. (3)
~ 7k
220
220V Sol. RT=27 = 60, RT 80
2.75
(1) 7 V (2) 15 V R = R0 (1+ T)
(3) 44 V (4) 22 V 80 = 60 [1+ 2 × 10–4(T–27)]
Ans. (1) T 1694ºC
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44. A Zener diode of breakdown voltage 10V is used (1) CB , C A 0
as a voltage regulator as shown in the figure. The (2) C A 0 and CB
current through the Zener diode is
200 (3) CP CV C A CB
500
(4) C A CP CV
Ans. (Bonus)
Sol. For process A
20V log P logV P V , 1
PV Constant
R
(1) 50 mA (2) 0 CA CV …. (i)
(3) 30 mA (4) 20 mA 1
Ans. (3) Likewise for process B PV 1 Cons tan t
200 I1 500 I3 R
C B Cv
11
Sol. I2 R
C B Cv … (ii)
2
10V
20V CP Cv R …. (iii)
By (i), (ii) & (iii)
CP CB C A Cv [No answer matching]
Zener is in breakdown region.
46. The electrostatic potential due to an electric dipole
10 1
I3 at a distance ‘r’ varies as :
500 50 1
10 1 (1) r (2)
I1 r2
200 20
1 1
I 2 I1 I 3 (3) (4)
r3 r
1 1 3 Ans. (2)
I2 30 mA
20 50 100 kP cos
Sol. V
45. Two thermodynamical process are shown in the r2
figure. The molar heat capacity for process A and & can also checked dimensionally
B are CA and CB. The molar heat capacity at 47. A spherical body of mass 100 g is dropped from a
height of 10 m from the ground. After hitting the
constant pressure and constant volume are
ground, the body rebounds to a height of 5m. The
represented by CP and CV, respectively. Choose the
impulse of force imparted by the ground to the
correct statement. body is given by : (given g = 9.8 m/s2)
log P (1) 4.32 kg ms–1 (2) 43.2 kg ms–1
–1
(3) 23.9 kg ms (4) 2.39 kg ms–1
Ans. (4)
tan–1 Sol. I P Pf Pi
M = 0.1 kg
A
B
45º I P 0.1
2 9.8 5 2 9.8 10
O
log V
0.1 14 7 2 2.39 kg ms–1
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48. A particle of mass m projected with a velocity ‘u’ Sol. E = 25 sin (1000 t)
making an angle of 30º with the horizontal. The 1
magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile cos
2
about the point of projection when the particle is at
LR circuit
its maximum height h is :
3 mu 3 3 mu 2
(1) (2) XL
16 g 2 g
mu 3
(3) (4) zero R
2g
R 1 1
Ans. (1) Initially 1
1 L tan tan 45º
Sol. L = mu cos H
X L 1 L
u 2 sin 2
mu cos
2g 2 21 , given
2
mu 3 3 1 3mu 3
2 L 21 L
2g 2 2 16 g tan '
R R
49. At which temperature the r.m.s. velocity of a
tan ' 2
hydrogen molecule equal to that of an oxygen
molecule at 47ºC? 1
cos '
(1) 80 K (2) –73 K 5
(3) 4 K (4) 20 K SECTION-B
Ans. (4)
51. The horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
3RT 3R 320
Sol. at a place is 3.5 105 T . A very long straight
2 32
320 conductor carrying current of 2A in the
T 20 K
16 direction from South east to North West is placed.
50. A series L,R circuit connected with an ac source
The force per unit length experienced by the
1
E = (25 sin 1000 t) V has a power factor of . If conductor is ……… × 10–6 N/m.
2
the source of emf is changed to E = (20 sin 2000 Ans. (35)
t)V, the new power factor of the circuit will be :
Sol. BH 3.5 105 T
1 1
(1) (2)
2 3 F i B sin , i 2 A
F 1
(3)
1
(4)
1 iB sin 2 3.5 105
5 7 2
6
Ans. (3) 35 10 N / m
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52. Two cells are connected in opposition as shown. 54. Each of three blocks P, Q and R shown in figure
has a mass of 3 kg. Each of the wire A and B has
Cell E1 is of 8 V emf and 2 internal resistance;
cross-sectional area 0.005 cm2 and Young’s
the cell E2 is of 2 V emf and 4 internal modulus 2 × 1011 N m–2. Neglecting friction, the
longitudinal strain on wire B is _____ × 10–4.
resistance. The terminal potential difference of cell
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
E2 is: A B
P Q
E1 B E2
A C
R
Ans. (2)
Ans. (6)
T2 T1
8V
P Q
2 B 4 2V
A C Sol.
Sol.
I
R
82 6 10
I 1A a m / s2
24 6 3
Applying Kirchhoff from C to B 30 T1 3 a
T1 20 N
VC 2 4 1 VB
stress
VC VB 6V strain
Y
= 6V 2 104
53. A electron of hydrogen atom on an excited state is 55. The distance between object and its two times
magnified real image as produced by a convex lens
having energy En = – 0.85 eV. The maximum is 45 cm. The focal length of the lens used is
number of allowed transitions to lower energy ______ cm.
Ans. (10)
level is ….. . .
v
Sol. 2
Ans. (6) u
13.6 v 2u …(i)
En 0.85 v u 45 ...(ii)
Sol. n2
n4 u 15 cm
v 30 cm
No of transition
1 1 1
n n 1 4 4 1 f v u
6
2 2 f 10 cm
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56. The displacement and the increase in the 58. Consider a Disc of mass 5 kg, radius 2m, rotating
with angular velocity of 10 rad/s about an axis
velocity of a moving particle in the time interval
perpendicular to the plane of rotation. An identical
of t to (t + 1) s are 125 m and 50 m/s, disc is kept gently over the rotating disc along the
respectively. The distance travelled by the same axis. The energy dissipated so that both the
discs continue to rotate together without slipping is
particle in (t + 2) th s is ____ m.
_____ J.
Ans. (175) = 10 rad/sec
= 175 m Li L f 100 2 I f
f = 5 rad/sec
57. A capacitor of capacitance C and potential V has
1 5 2
2
Ef 2 . . 5 250 J
2
energy E. It is connected to another capacitor of
2 2
capacitance 2 C and potential 2V. Then the loss of E 250 J
Ans. (2) water is now poured in the organ pipe so that the
fundamental frequency is increased to 110 Hz. If
1 C1C2
V1 V2
2
Sol. Energy loss = the organ pipe has a cross-sectional area of 2 cm2,
2 C1 C2
the amount of water poured in the organ tube is
2 _______ g. (Take speed of sound in air is 330 m/s)
.E
3 Ans. (400)
x 2
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V 11 60. A ceiling fan having 3 blades of length 80 cm each
Sol. 30 1 m
4 1 4 is rotating with an angular velocity of 1200 rpm.
V 3 The magnetic field of earth in that region is 0.5 G
110 2 m
4 2 4 and angle of dip is 30º. The emf induced across the
2m, blades is N 105V . The value of N is _____ .
2
32 105 V
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 18)
Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (30-01-2024) Morning Session
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CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 63. Sugar which does not give reddish brown precipitate
61. Given below are two statements: with Fehling‟s reagent is:
Statement-I: The gas liberated on warming a salt (1) Sucrose (2) Lactose
with dil H2SO4, turns a piece of paper dipped in
(3) Glucose (4) Maltose
lead acetate into black, it is a confirmatory test for
Ans. (1)
sulphide ion.
Statement-II: In statement-I the colour of paper Sol. Sucrose do not contain hemiacetal group.
turns black because of formation of lead sulphite. Hence it does not give test with Fehling solution.
In the light of the above statements, choose the While all other give positive test with Fehling
most appropriate answer from the options given
solution
below:
64. Given below are the two statements: one is labeled as
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false Assertion (A): There is a considerable increase in
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true. covalent radius from N to P. However from As to
Ans. (3)
Bi only a small increase in covalent radius is
Sol. Na2S + H2SO4 Na2SO4 + H2S
observed.
(CH3COO)2Pb + H2S PbS + 2CH3COOH
Black lead Reason (R): covalent and ionic radii in a particular
sulphide oxidation state increases down the group.
O
In the light of the above statement, choose the
C CHO most appropriate answer from the options given
Cl H2
below:
62. Pd-BaSO4
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true
This reduction reaction is known as:
(1) Rosenmund reduction (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(2) Wolff-Kishner reduction correct explanation of (A)
(3) Stephen reduction (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Etard reduction (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Ans. (1)
explanation of (A)
Sol.
O
O Ans. (2)
CHO
Cl
H2
Sol. According to NCERT,
Pd-B aS O 4 Statement-I : Factual data,
Statement-II is true.
It is known as rosenmund reduction that is the
partial reduction of acid chloride to aldehyde But correct explanation is presence of completely
filled d and f-orbitals of heavier members
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65. Which of the following molecule/species is most 69. Example of vinylic halide is
stable? CH2 X
X
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
X
X
(3) (4) (3) (4)
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71. Match List-I with List-II Ans. (2)
List-I List-II Sol.
Molecule Shape O
Br MgBr C–OMgBr
(A) BrF5 (I) T-shape Mg, ether O= C= O
H3O +
F F
(1) A-CrO3 B-CrO3
O
H2O H H Bent (2) A-CrO3 B-CrO2Cl2
F (3) A-CrO2Cl2 B-CrO2Cl2
..
ClF3 F Cl T-shape (4) A-CrO2Cl2 B-CrO3
..
F Ans. (2)
F Sol.
F
SF4, S See-saw CH 3 CH(OCOCH 3)2
F CrO3/(CH3CO)2O
F
72. The final product A, formed in the following CrO2 Cl2 H3 O+
Etard reaction CS2
multistep reaction sequence is: CHO
CH[OCrCl 2 (OH)]2 H3 O+
(i) Mg, ether
Br then CO,2 H+
(ii) NH3 ,
A
(iii) Br2, NaOH
74. Given below are two statement one is labeled as
O
NH2 Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
(1) NH2 (2) Assertion (A): CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl is an
example of allyl halide
O O
Reason (R): Allyl halides are the compounds in
(3) Br (4) OH
which the halogen atom is attached to sp2
hybridised carbon atom.
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In the light of the two above statements, choose the Sol. 24Cr [Ar] 3d54s1; Cr2+ [Ar] 3d4
most appropriate answer from the options given 25Mn [Ar] 3d54s2; Mn+ [Ar] 3d54s1
below:
28Ni [Ar] 3d84s2; Ni2+ [Ar] 3d8
(1) (A) is true but (R) is false
23V [Ar] 3d34s2; V+ [Ar] 3d34s1
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
77. Compound A formed in the following reaction reacts
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct with B gives the product C. Find out A and B.
B
explanation of (A) CH3 C CH Na A
CH3 C C CH 2 CH 2 NaBr
(C) |
Ans. (1) CH3
Sol. CH 2 CH CH 2 Cl (1) A=CH3 –C CN a , B = CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br
(2) A=CH3–CH= CH2, B = CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – Br
3
It is allyl carbon and sp hybridized (3) A = CH3 – CH2 – CH3, B = CH3 – C CH
(4) A = CH3 – C CN a , B = CH3 – CH2 – CH3
75. What happens to freezing point of benzene when
small quantity of napthalene is added to benzene? Ans. (1)
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Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (30-01-2024) Morning Session
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83. 86. On a thin layer chromatographic plate, an organic
compound moved by 3.5 cm, while the solvent
B
V 30 moved by 5 cm. The retardation factor of the
(dm3 ) organic compound is _____ × 10-1
20
C Ans. (07)
10 A
Distance travelled by
0 10 20 30 sample/organiccompound
Sol. Retardation factor =
P(kPa) Distance travelled by solvent
An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic transformation 3.5
7 101
starting from the point A and coming back to the 5
same point by tracing the path A B C A 87. The compound formed by the reaction of ethanal
as shown in the diagram. The total work done in with semicarbazide contains _____number of
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Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (30-01-2024) Morning Session
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89. 2MnO4 bI cH2O x I2 yMnO2 zOH 90. The mass of sodium acetate (CH3COONa) required
If the above equation is balanced with integer to prepare 250 mL of 0.35 M aqueous solution is
coefficients, the value of z is _______ ______ g. (Molar mass of CH3COONa is 82.02 g mol-1)
Sol. Reduction Half Oxidation Half Sol. Moles = Molarity × Volume in litres
z=8
Ans 8
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Tuesday 30th January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
1 1 1 x2 y2
25 = 0 be a directrix of the ellipse E : 1
a 2 b2
Sol. 1 2 2 0
and the corresponding focus be S. If from S, the
1 3
perpendicular on the x-axis passes through P, then
22 – – 1 = 0 the length of the latus rectum of E is equal to
1 25 32
1, (1) (2)
2 3 9
1 1 5 25 32
2 2
9 0 13 (3) (4)
9 5
3 Ans. (4 )
Infinite solution = 1 & = 13 A (10, 0)
50 P (3, 5)
n
For unique sol 1 Sol.
B 0,
n
For no sol = 1 & 13 7
If 1 and 13
1
Considering the case when and 13 this
2
will generate no solution case S
2. For , 0, , let 3sin ( ) 2sin( ) and a 25
2 x=
3
real number k be such that tan k tan . Then the
ae = 3
value of k is equal to : a 25
2
(1) (2) –5 e 3
3
a=5
2 b=4
(3) (4) 5
3
2b2 32
Ans. Bonus Length of LR
a 5
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4. Let a ˆi ˆj k,
ˆ , R . Let a vector b be such 6. Let a and b be be two distinct positive real
2 numbers. Let 11th term of a GP, whose first term is
that the angle between a and b is and b 6 ,
4 a and third term is b, is equal to pth term of another
If a . b 3 2 , then the value of 2 2 a b
2
is GP, whose first term is a and fifth term is b. Then p
equal to is equal to
(1) 90 (2) 75 (1) 20 (2) 25
(3) 95 (4) 85 (3) 21 (4) 24
Ans. (1) Ans. (3)
Sol. | b |2 6 ; | a || b | cos 3 2 b
Sol. 1st GP t1 = a, t3 = b = ar2 r2 =
a
| a |2 | b |2 cos2 18 5
b
t11 = ar = a(r ) = a
10 2 5
| a |2 6 a
Also 1 + 2 + 2 = 6 2nd G.P. T1 = a, T5 = ar4 = b
2 + 2 = 5 b b
1/4
r r
4
to find a a
(2 + 2) | a |2 | b |2 sin2 p 1
b 4
Tp = ar p –1
a
1 a
= (5)(6)(6)
2 p 1
5
= 90 b b 4
t11 Tp a a
5. Let f(x) (x 3)2 (x 2)3 , x [4, 4] . If M and m are a a
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Combined equation of lines dy
Sol. y = f(x) f '(x)
(x – 3y + 1) (3x + y + 15) = 0 dx
3x2 – 3y2 – 8xy + 18x – 44y + 15 = 0 dy 1 1
8 44 f '(1) tan f '(1)
x2 – y2 – xy 6x y 5 0 dx (1,f (1)) 6 3 3
3 3
2 2
x – y + 2h xy + 2gx 2 + 2fy + c = 0 dy
f '(3) tan 1 f '(3) 1
dx (3,f (3)) 4
4 22
h , g 3, f , c 5
3 3
3
27 f '(t) 1 f "(t)dt 3
2
4 22
gc h f 35 8 6 14 1
3 3
3
I f '(t) 1 f "(t)dt
2
8. Let a and b be two vectors such that
1
2
| b | 1 and | b a | 2 . Then (b a) b is equal
f'(t) = z f"(t) dt = dz
to z = f'(3) = 1
(1) 3
1
(2) 5 z = f'(1) =
3
(3) 1
1
(4) 4 1
z3
I (z 1)dz z
2
Ans. (2) 3 1/
1/ 3 3
Sol. | b | 1 & | b a | 2 1 1 1 1
1
3 3 3 3 3
b a b b b a 0
4 10 4 10
2
2
2 3
3 9 3 3 27
(b a ) b b a b
4 10
=4+1=5 3 27 3 36 10 3
3 27
9. Let y f(x) be a thrice differentiable function in
= 36, = – 10
(–5, 5). Let the tangents to the curve y=f(x) at
+ = 36 – 10 = 26
(1, f(1)) and (3, f(3)) make angles and ,
6 4 x2 y2
10. Let P be a point on the hyperbola H : 1,
respectively with positive x-axis. If 9 4
3
in the first quadrant such that the area of triangle
27 f (t) 1 f (t)dt 3
2
where , are
1
formed by P and the two foci of H is 2 13 . Then,
integers, then the value of + equals
the square of the distance of P from the origin is
(1) –14
(1) 18
(2) 26
(3) –16 (2) 26
(4) 36 (3) 22
Ans. (2) (4) 20
Ans. (3)
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Sol. A B
y p
(, ) Sol. E1 : A is selected 3W 3W
7R 2R
E2 : B is selected
x
s2 O s1 E : white ball is drawn
P (E1/E) =
1
P(E).P(E / E1 ) 2 10
x 2 y2 P(E1 ). P(E / E1 ) P(E 2 ). P(E / E 2 ) 1 3 1 3
1
9 4 2 10 2 5
a2 = 9, b2 = 4 3 1
=
36 3
b2
b 2 a 2 (e 2 1) e 2 1
a2
4 13 12. Let f : R R be defined f(x) ae2x bex cx . If
e 1
2
9 9 f(0) 1 , f (log e 2) 21 and
13 13 loge 4
39
e s1s 2 2ae 2 3 2 13
3 3 f(x) cx dx 2 ,
0
then the value of |a+b+c|
1 equals :
Area of PS1S2 s1s 2 2 13
2
(1) 16 (2) 10
1
(2 13) 2 13 2 (3) 12 (4) 8
2
Ans. (4)
2 2 2
1 1 1 2 18 3 2 Sol. f(x) = ae2x + bex + cx f(0) = –1
9 4 9
a + b = –1
Distance of P from origin = 2 2
f(x) = 2ae2x + bex + c f (ln 2) = 21
= 18 4 22 8a + 2 b + c = 21
11. Bag A contains 3 white, 7 red balls and bag B ln 4 39
contains 3 white, 2 red balls. One bag is selected at
0
(ae 2x be x )dx
2
random and a ball is drawn from it. The probability ae 2x 39
ln 4
a 39
be x 8a + 4b – b
of drawing the ball from the bag A, if the ball 2 0 2 2 2
drawn in white, is : 15a + 6b = 39
1 1 15 a – 6a – 6 = 39
(1) (2)
4 9
9a = 45 a = 5
1 3
(3) (4) b=-6
3 10
c = 21 – 40 + 12 = –7
Ans. (3)
a+b+c=–8
|a + b + c| = 8
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13. Let L1 : r (iˆ ˆj 2k)
ˆ (iˆ ˆj 2k),
ˆ R 15. f: {0}
L2 : r ( ˆj k)
ˆ (3iˆ ˆj pk),
ˆ R and
x f(x)
f for all x, y, f(y) 0. If f (1) = 2024,
L3 : r ( ˆi mjˆ nk)
ˆ R y f(y)
Be three lines such that L1 is perpendicular to L2 then
and L3 is perpendicular to both L1 and L2. Then the
(1) xf (x) – 2024 f(x) = 0
point which lies on L3 is
(1) (–1, 7, 4) (2) (–1, –7, 4) (2) xf(x) + 2024f(x) = 0
(3) (1, 7, –4) (4) (1, –7, 4) (3) xf(x) +f(x) = 2024
Ans. (1) (4) xf(x) –2023f(x) = 0
Sol. L1 L2 L3 L1, L2
Ans. (1)
3–1+2P=0
P=–1 x f(x) f (1) 2024
Sol. f
ˆi ˆj kˆ y f(y) f(1) 1
1 2
w1985 + w100 + 1
x 3x 3
2
5x 2
= 3x 2x w2 + w + 1 = 0
3 2 2 2 1
lso, z = w2
1 3 8 5
= 3 6 6 10 4 2 w3970 + w200 + 1
3 2 3 2
w + w2 + 1 = 0
3 5
= 6 12 17 Two common root
2 2
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17. Suppose 2 – p, p, 2 – are the coefficient of 19. Let f : R R be a function defined
four consecutive terms in the expansion of (1+x)n. x
f(x) and g(x) f(f(f(f(x)))) then
Then the value of p 6 2p equals
2 2 (1 x 4 )1/ 4
(1) 4 (2) 10 2 5
(3) 8 (4) 6
18
0
x 2 g(x)dx
n+1
Cr+1 = n+1Cr+3 x
2r + 4 = n + 1 f(f(f(f(x)))) =
(1 4x 4 )1/ 4
n = 2r + 3
2 5
2r+4
Cr+1 = 2 x3
Data Inconsistent
18
0
(1 4x 4 )1/4
dx
(3) 11 (4) 9 =
2 3 1
Ans. (2)
3
2x 3 2x – 1 = [26] 39
Sol. 0 and 1 1 2
4x x 3
2
x2
2 3 3x 1 x 3 x 0 0
0 0 & 0
(4x 3)(x 1) x2 x2 20. Let R = 0 y 0 be a non-zero 3 × 3 matrix,
0 0 z
– + – +
–3/2 –1 3/4 2 4
where x sin = y sin z sin
1
, 2 , …..(1) 3 3
3 0, (0,2 ) . For a square matrix M, let trace
2,3 …….(2) (M) denote the sum of all the diagonal entries of
1 M. Then, among the statements:
3 ,3 ……(3) (1) (2) (3) (I) Trace (R) = 0
(II) If trace (adj(adj(R)) = 0, then R has exactly one
3 non-zero entry.
4 ,3
(1) Both (I) and (II) are true
3 (2) Neither (I) nor (II) is true
3
4 (3) Only (II) is true
5 4 15 3 12 (4) Only (I) is true
Ans. (3)
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2 4
(say), 0 y2 xyY x xyY x x 2 Y x
2
Sol. x sin y sin z sin
3 3
x, y, z 0 and sin, sin 2 , sin 4 0 = y 2 2Y x
3 3
2xy – x2 Y(x) = 2
Also,
dy 2xy 2
2 4
sin sin sin 0 R dx x2
3 3 dy 2 2
2
y 2
2 2 4 dx x x
sin sin 2 sin
3 3
xyz 0 1
2 2 4 I.F. = e 2 ln x 2
sin sin sin x
3 3
1 2
(i) Trace (R) = x + y + z y 2 x 3 c
Statement (i) is False x 3
(ii) Adj(Adj(R)) = |R| R Put x = 1, y = 1
Trace (Adj(Adj(R))) 2 1
1 c c
= xyz(x + y + z) 0 3 3
Hypothesis of conditional statement (ii) is 2 1 1
Y X2
false 3 X 3
Conditional statement (ii) is vacuously 5
true !! 12Y 2 12 20
3
22. Let a line passing through the point (–1, 2, 3)
SECTION-B
x 1 y 2 z 1
intersect the lines L1 : at
21. Let Y = Y(X) be a curve lying in the first quadrant 3 2 2
such that the area enclosed by the line x 2 y 2 z 1
M , , and L 2 : at N(a, b,
Y – y = Y(x) (X – x) and the co-ordinate axes, 3 2 4
where (x, y) is any point on the curve, is always
2 c). Then the value of
2 equals ____.
y
2Y x
1 , Y(x) 0. If Y(1) = 1, then 12Y(2) a b c 2
Ans. (196)
equals ______ .
Ans. (20) Sol. M 3 1,2 2, 2 1 3 2
(–1, 2, 3)
M( ) N(a,b,c)
3 2 2 2 4
3 1 2 4 2
3 2 3
2
2 2
2
y xY x y xY x y2 2Y x 2
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2 0 n n
Ck nCk n 1
4
Sol. k 1
n 1
k 0
14
1 n n 1
a + b + c = –1 =
n 1 k 0
C k 1 n C n k
2 196 1 2n 1
C n 1
a b c2 n 1
23. Consider two circles C1 : x2 + y2 = 25 and C2 : (x – n 1 n
C k 1 n 1
)2 + y2 = 16, where (5, 9). Let the angle n
Ck
k 2 n 1
k0
between the two radii (one to each circle) drawn
from one of the intersection points of C1 and C2 be 1 n 1 n
63
C n 1Ck 2
n 1 k 0 n k
sin 1 . If the length of common chord of C1
8 1 2n 1
= Cn 2
and C2 is , then the value of ()2 equals _____ . n 1
Ans. (1575) 2n 1
Cn 2 2n 1 n 2 1
C1 : x2 y2 25 , C2 : x y2 16
2n 1
Sol.
2
C n 1 n2
5<<9 n 5
n2 6
n = 10
25. Let Sn be the sum to n-terms of an arithmetic
progression 3, 7, 11, ...... .
6 n
If 40 Sk 42 , then n equals ___ .
n n 1 k 1
Ans. (9)
63 Sol. Sn = 3 + 7 + 11 + ...... n terms
sin 1
8 n
= 6 n 1 4 3n 2n 2 2n
63 2
sin = 2n2 + n
8
n n n
1 1
Area of OAP = 5 4sin Sk 2 K 2 K
2 2 2 k 1 k 1 k 1
n n 1 2n 1 n n 1
63 = 2
40 6 2
8
2n 1 1
5 63 = n n 1
3 2
2 25 63 = 1575 n n 1 4n 5
=
6
n
2 n
6
24. Let
n Ck
and
n 1 n
C k n C k 1
.
40 S 42
n n 1 k 1 k
k 0
k 1 k0 k 2
40 < 4n + 5 < 42
If 5 = 6, then n equals ___________ . 35 < 4n < 37
Ans. (10) n=9
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26. In an examination of Mathematics paper, there are Sol. x = 0 and x2 3 x 5 x 1 6 x 2 0
20 questions of equal marks and the question paper Here all terms are +ve except at x = 0
is divided into three sections : A, B and C . A So there is no value of x
student is required to attempt total 15 questions Satisfies this equation
taking at least 4 questions from each section. If Only solution x = 0
No of solution 1.
section A has 8 questions, section B has 6
29. The area of the region enclosed by the parabola
questions and section C has 6 questions, then the
(y – 2)2 = x – 1, the line x – 2y + 4 = 0 and the
total number of ways a student can select 15
positive coordinate axes is ______.
questions is _______ .
Ans. (5)
Ans. (11376)
Sol. Solving the equations
Sol. If 4 questions from each section are selected
(y – 2)2 = x – 1 and x – 2y + 4 = 0
Remaining 3 questions can be selected either in (1,
X = 2(y – 2)
1, 1) or (3, 0, 0) or (2, 1, 0)
Total ways = 8 c5 6 c5 6 c5 8c6 6 c5 6 c 4 2 +
8
c 5 6 c 6 6 c 4 2 8c 4 6 c 6 6 c 5 2 + 8 c 7 6 c 4 6 c 4
= 56 . 6 . 6 + 28 . 6 . 15 . 2 + 56 . 15 . 2 + 70 . 6 . 2
+ 8 . 15 . 15
= 2016 + 5040 + 1680 + 840 + 1800 = 11376
27. The number of symmetric relations defined on the
x2
set {1, 2, 3, 4} which are not reflexive is _____ . x 1
4
Ans. (960)
x2 – 4x + 4 = 0
Sol. Total number of relation both symmetric and
2
(x – 2)2 = 0
n n
reflexive = 2 2 x=2
n2 n 3
2 Exclose area (w.r.t. y-axis) = x dy – Area of .
Total number of symmetric relation = 2
0
Then number of symmetric relation which are
y 2
3
2 1
not reflexive = 1 dy 1 2
0
2
n n 1 n n 1
2 2 2 2 3
y
2
10 6 = 4y 5 dy 1
2 –2
0
1024 – 64 3
y3
= 960 = 2y 2 5y 1
3 0
28. The number of real solutions of the equation
x x2 3 x 5 x 1 6 x 2 0 is ______ . = 9 – 18 + 15 – 1 = 5
Ans. (1)
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30. The variance 2 of the data
xi 0 1 5 6 10 12 17
fi 3 2 3 2 6 3 3
Is _______ .
Ans. (29)
Sol.
xi fi fixi fixi2
0 3 0 0
1 2 2 2
5 3 15 75
6 2 12 72
10 6 60 600
12 3 36 432
17 3 51 867
fi = 22 fixi2 = 2048
fixi = 176
So x
fi x i 176 8
fi 22
1
fi x i 2 x
2
for 2
N
1
2048 8
2
=
22
= 93.090964
= 29.0909
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PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 33. For the photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic
31. If 50 Vernier divisions are equal to 49 main scale energy (Ek) of the photoelectrons is plotted against
divisions of a travelling microscope and one the frequency (v) of the incident photons as shown
smallest reading of main scale is 0.5 mm, the in figure. The slope of the graph gives
Vernier constant of travelling microscope is:
(1) 0.1 mm
Ek
(2) 0.1 cm
(3) 0.01 cm
(4) 0.01 mm v
Ans. (4) (1) Ratio of Planck’s constant to electric charge
Sol. 50 V+S = 49S + S (2) Work function of the metal
(3) Charge of electron
S = 50 (S – V)
(4) Planck’s constant
.5 = 50 (S – V)
Ans. (4)
0.5 1
SV 0.01 mm Sol. K.E. = hf –
50 100
tan = h
32. A block of mass 1 kg is pushed up a surface
34. A block of ice at –10°C is slowly heated and
inclined to horizontal at an angle of 60° by a force
converted to steam at 100°C. Which of the
of 10 N parallel to the inclined surface as shown in
following curves represent the phenomenon
figure. When the block is pushed up by 10 m along qualitatively:
inclined surface, the work done against frictional (1)
force is : [g = 10 m/s2]
Temperature
10 N
M Heat supplied
s = 0.1 (2)
Temperature
60°
(1) 5 3 J (2) 5 J
(3) 5 × 103 J (4) 10 J Heat supplied
Ans. (2)
Sol. Work done again frictional force
0.1 5 10 5J
N 10
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(3) Sol. Steeper curve (B) is adiabatic
Adiabatic PVv = const.
Temperature v
T
Or P const.
P
Heat supplied Tv
const.
(4) P v 1
Curve (A) is isothermal
Temperature
T = const.
PV = const.
37. An electron revolving in nth Bohr orbit has
Heat supplied
magnetic moment n . If n n x , the value of x is:
Ans. (4)
(1) 2 (2) 1
35. In a nuclear fission reaction of an isotope of mass
(3) 3 (4) 0
M, three similar daughter nuclei of same mass are Ans. (2)
formed. The speed of a daughter nuclei in terms of Sol. Magnetic moment = ir2
mass defect M will be : evr
2cM Mc 2 2
(1) (2)
M 3 1
n2
2 M 3M n
(3) c (4) c n
M M
Ans. (3) x=1
Sol. (X) (Y) + (Z) + (P) 38. An alternating voltage V(t) = 220 sin 100 t volt is
M M/3 M/3 M/3 applied to a purely resistive load of 50 . The time
taken for the current to rise from half of the peak
1M 2 1M 2 1M 2
Mc2 V V V value to the peak value is:
2 3 2 3 2 3
(1) 5 ms
2 M (2) 3.3 ms
Vc
M (3) 7.2 ms
36. Choose the correct statement for processes A & B (4) 2.2 ms
shown in figure. Ans. (2)
P Sol. Rising half to peak
t = T/6
2 1
t 3.33ms
B 6 3 300 300
A 39. A block of mass m is placed on a surface having
vertical cross section given by y = x2/4. If
V coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height
(1) PV = k for process B and PV = k for process A. above the ground at which block can be placed
(2) PV = k for process B and A. without slipping is:
P 1 (1) 1/4 m (2) 1/2 m
(3) k for process B and T = k for process A. (3) 1/6 m (4) 1/3 m
T Ans. (1)
T dy x
(4) k for process A and PV = k for process B. Sol. tan
P 1 dx 2 2
Ans. (1 & 3) x = 1 , y = 1/4
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40. If the total energy transferred to a surface in time t 43. A particle of charge ‘–q’ and mass ‘m’ moves in a
is 6.48 × 105 J, then the magnitude of the total circle of radius ‘r’ around an infinitely long line
momentum delivered to this surface for complete charge of linear density ‘+’. Then time period
absorption will be : will be given as:
(1) 2.46 × 10–3 kg m/s (Consider k as Coulomb’s constant)
(2) 2.16 × 10–3 kg m/s 4 2 m 3 m
(3) 1.58 × 10–3 kg m/s (1) T 2 r (2) T 2r
2kq 2kq
(4) 4.32 × 10–3 kg m/s
1 m 1 2kq
Ans. (2) (3) T (4) T
2r 2kq 2 m
E 6.48 105
Sol. p 8
2.16 10 3 Ans. (2)
C 3 10
2kq
41. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I0 is Sol. m2 r
r
passed through a polaroid A and then through
2kq
another polaroid B which is oriented so that its 2
mr 2
principal plane makes an angle of 45° relative to 2
that of A. The intensity of emergent light is : 2 2kq
T
(1) I0/4 (2) I0 mr 2
(3) I0/2 (4) I0/8 m
T 2r
Ans. (1) 2kq
Sol. Intensity of emergent light 44. If mass is written as m = k cP G–1/2 h1/2 then the
I0 I value of P will be : (Constants have their usual
= cos2 45 0 meaning with k a dimensionless constant)
2 4
(1) 1/2
42. Escape velocity of a body from earth is 11.2 km/s. (2) 1/3
If the radius of a planet be one-third the radius of (3) 2
earth and mass be one-sixth that of earth, the (4) –1/3
Ans. (1)
escape velocity from the plate is: Sol. m = k cP G–1/2 h1/2
(1) 11.2 km/s (2) 8.4 km/s M1L0 T0 [LT –1 ]P [M –1L3T –2 ]–1/2 [ML2 T –1 ]1/2
(3) 4.2 km/s (4) 7.9 km/s By comparing P = 1/2
Ans. (4) 45. In the given circuit, the voltage across load
resistance (RL) is:
RE M
Sol. RP , MP E 1.5 k
3 6
2GM e D1 D2
Ve …(i) (Ge) (Si)
Re
15V RL 2.5 k
2GM P
VP …(ii)
RP
Ve (1) 8.75 V
2 (2) 9.00 V
Vp (3) 8.50 V
Ve 11.2 (4) 14.00 V
VP 7.9 km/sec Ans. (1)
2 2
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Sol. F 80
Sol. aA = aB = aC 8m / s2
D1 D2 5 3 2 10
1.5 k
A
T1
i Ge Si 5 kg
(0.3) (0.7) T1 = 5 × 8 = 40
15V RL 2.5 k
B
T1 T2
3 kg
T2 – T1 = 3 × 8 T2 = 64
14
i 3.5mA 48. When a potential difference V is applied across a
4
wire of resistance R, it dissipates energy at a rate
VL iRL 3.5 2.5 volt W. If the wire is cut into two halves and these
8.75volt halves are connected mutually parallel across the
same supply, the same supply, the energy
5 dissipation rate will become:
46. If three moles of monoatomic gas is
3 (1) 1/4W (2) 1/2W
7 (3) 2W (4) 4W
mixed with two moles of a diatomic gas , Ans. (4)
5
v2
the value of adiabatic exponent for the mixture is: Sol. W ….(i)
R
(1) 1.75 (2) 1.40
v2
(3) 1.52 (3) 1.35 W' ….(ii)
1 R
Ans. (3)
2 2
Sol. f1 = 3, f2 = 5
From (i) & (ii), we get
n1 = 3, n2 = 2 W ' 4W
n f n 2 f2 9 10 19 49. Match List I with List II
fmixture 11
n1 n 2 f 5 List-I List-II
2 5 29 A. Gauss’s law of I. 1
mixture 1
19
19
1.52 magnetostatics o E da 0 dV
B. Faraday’s law of II.
electro magnetic
o B da 0
47. Three blocks A, B and C are pulled on a horizontal
induction
smooth surface by a force of 80 N as shown in
C. Ampere’s law III. d
figure o E dl dt
B da
A B C
D. Gauss’s law of IV. o B dl I
5 kg
T1
3 kg
T2
2 kg
F=80N
electrostatics
0
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50. Projectiles A and B are thrown at angles of 45° and 53. Two discs of moment of inertia I1 = 4 kg m2 and
60° with vertical respectively from top of a 400 m high I2 = 2 kg m2 about their central axes & normal to
tower. If their ranges and times of flight are same, the
their planes, rotating with angular speeds 10 rad/s
ratio of their speeds of projection vA : vB is :
& 4 rad/s respectively are brought into contact face
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 :1
to face with their axe of rotation coincident. The
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1: 2
loss in kinetic energy of the system in the process
Ans. (Bonus)
Sol. is_____J.
uA Ans. (24)
45° 60°
uB Sol. I11 + I22 = (I1 + I2)0 (C.O.A.M.)
gives 0 = 8 rad/s
1 1
E1 I112 I2 22 216J
2 2
I1 I2 02 192J
1
E2
2
E = 24J
For uA & uB time of flight and range can not be 54. In an experiment to measure the focal length (f) of
same. So above options are incorrect. a convex lens, the magnitude of object distance (x)
SECTION-B and the image distance (y) are measured with
51. A power transmission line feeds input power at 2.3
reference to the focal point of the lens. The y-x
kV to a step down transformer with its primary
winding having 3000 turns. The output power is plot is shown in figure.
delivered at 230 V by the transformer. The current in The focal length of the lens is_____cm.
the primary of the transformer is 5A and its
efficiency is 90%. The winding of transformer is 40
made of copper. The output current of transformer A
is_____A. y
30 B
Ans. (45)
(cm)
Sol. Pi = 2300 ×5 watt C
20
P0 = 2300 × 5 × 0.9 = 230 × I2 D E
I2 = 45A
10
52. A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small
identical drops of water. If E1 be the total surface
energy of 1000 small drops of water and E2 be the x (cm)
surface energy of single big drop of water, the E1 : 10 20 30 40
E2 is x : 1 where x = ________. Ans. (20)
Ans. (10)
1 1 1
Sol.
34 r 3 1000 34 R 3 Sol.
f 20 (f 20) f
R = 10r
2 1
E1 = 1000 × 4r2 × S f 20cm
f 20 f
E2 = 4 (10r)2 S
Or x1x2 = f2 gives f = 20 cm
E1 10
, x 10
E2 1
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55. A vector has magnitude same as that of F
tan e ….(i)
A 3jˆ 4ˆj and is parallel to B 4iˆ 3jˆ . The x B Vg
and y components of this vector in first quadrant
Fe
are x and 3 respectively where x = _______. tan ….(ii)
k
Ans. (4)
(B L )Vg
5(4iˆ 3j)
ˆ
Sol. ˆ
N | A | B 4iˆ 3jˆ From Eq. (i) & (ii)
5
x=4 BVg (B L )kVg
56. The current of 5A flows in a square loop of sides 1
m is placed in air. The magnetic field at the centre 1.4 = 0.7 k
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60. Two resistance of 100 and 200 are connected
in series with a battery of 4 V and negligible
internal resistance. A voltmeter is used to measure
voltage across 100 resistance, which gives
reading as 1 V. The resistance of voltmeter must
be______.
Ans. (200)
RV
100 200
Sol.
4V
R v 100 200
R v 100 3
3Rv = 2Rv + 200
Rv = 200
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OH OH
63. Given below are two statements:
Statement – I: High concentration of strong COO CH2OH
nucleophilic reagent with secondary alkyl halides
(4) +
which do not have bulky substituents will follow
SN2 mechanism.
OH OH
Statement – II: A secondary alkyl halide when
treated with a large excess of ethanol follows SN1 Ans. (2)
mechanism. Sol. Meta–chlorobenzaldehyde will undergo
In the the light of the above statements, choose the Cannizzaro reaction with 50% KOH to give m–
most appropriate from the questions given below:
chlorobenzoate ion and m–chlorobenzyl alcohol.
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
CHO
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. COO
50% KOH CH2OH
(3) Both statement I and Statement II are false. 2 +
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
Cl
Ans. (4) OH OH
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65. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as 67. IUPAC name of following compound is
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. CH3—CH—CH2—CN
Assertion A : H2Te is more acidic than H2S. NH2
Reason R: Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2Te is (1) 2–Aminopentanenitrile
lower than H2S. (2) 2–Aminobutanenitrile
In the light of the above statements. Choose the (3) 3–Aminobutanenitrile
most appropriate from the options given below. (4) 3–Aminopropanenitrile
(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct Ans. (3)
explanation of A. Sol. 4 3 2 1
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct CH3—CH—CH2—CN
explanation of A.
(3) A is false but R is true. NH2
(4) A is true but R is false. 3–Aminobutanenitrile
Ans. (2)
Sol. Due to lower Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2Te it 68. The products A and B formed in the following
ionizes to give H+ more easily than H2S. reaction scheme are respectively
(i) conc.HNO3/conc.H2SO4
323–333 K (i) NaNO2, HCl, 273–278 K
66. Product A and B formed in the following set of (ii) Sn/HCl (ii) Phenol
reactions are: A B
B 2H6 CH3 H+/H2O
B A
H2O2,NaOH(aq.)
Cl NO2 HO
(1) , NO2
CH2OH CH2OH
(1) A= B=
NH2 NH2
OH
CH3 CH3 ,
(2)
(2) A= OH B=
OH OH
CH2OH CH3 NH2
(3) A= B= (3) , HO N N
OH
CH3 CH3 NH2
(4) A= B= OH , N N
(4)
OH
OH
Ans. (2)
CH3 B2H6 CH3
Sol. Ans. (3)
H2O2,NaOH NO2 NH2
OH
conc.HNO3 Sn/HCl
(B)
H+/H2O conc.H2SO4
NaNO2+HCl
Sol. 0–5ºC
CH3 OH
+
OH NNCl–
HO N N
(A)
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69. The molecule/ion with square pyramidal shape is: 72. If a substance ‘A’ dissolves in solution of a mixture
(1) [Ni(CN)4]
2–
(2) PCl5 of ‘B’ and ‘C’ with their respective number of
(3) BrF5 (4) PF5 moles as nA, nB and nC, mole fraction of C in the
solution is:
Ans. (3)
nC nC
Sol. BrF5 (1) (2)
n A nB nC n A nB nC
F nC nB
(3) (4)
n A – nB – nC n A nB
F F
Br Ans. (2)
F F nC
Sol. Mole fraction of C =
n A nB nC
Square Pyramidal.
73. Given below are two statements:
70. The orange colour of K2Cr2O7 and purple colour of Statement – I: Along the period, the chemical
KMnO4 is due to reactivity of the element gradually increases from
group 1 to group 18.
(1) Charge transfer transition in both.
Statement – II: The nature of oxides formed by
(2) dd transition in KMnO4 and charge transfer group 1 element is basic while that of group 17
transitions in K2Cr2O7. elements is acidic.
(3) dd transition in K2Cr2O7 and charge transfer In the the light above statements, choose the most
transitions in KMnO4. appropriate from the questions given below:
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) dd transition in both.
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is False.
Ans. (1) (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
K 2Cr2O7 Cr 6 No d d transition (4) Both Statement I and Statement II is false.
Sol. Charge transfer
7
KMnO4 Mn No d d transition
Ans. (3)
Sol. Chemical reactivity of elements decreases along
the period therefore statement – I is false.
71. Alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO2 gives “A” Group – 1 elements from basic nature oxides
which on electrolytic oxidation in alkaline solution while group – 17 elements form acidic oxides
produces B. A and B respectively are: therefore statement – II is true.
–
(1) Mn2O7 and MnO4
(2) MnO42– and MnO4– 74. The coordination geometry around the manganese
in decacarbonyldimanganese(0)
(3) Mn2O3 and MnO42–
(1) Octahedral (2) Trigonal bipyramidal
(4) MnO42– and Mn2O7 (3) Square pyramidal (4) Square planar
Ans. (2) Ans. (1)
Sol. Alkaline oxidative fusion of MnO2: Sol. Mn2(CO)10
CO CO CO CO
2MnO2 4OH– O2 2MnO42 2H2O
MnO42 MnO4 e CO
CO CO CO
Octahedral around Mn
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75. Given below are two statements: Ans. (1)
Statement-I: Since fluorine is more electronegative Sol. Tf is maximum when i × m is maximum.
than nitrogen, the net dipole moment of NF3 is greater 180
1) m 1 3, i = 1 +
than NH3. 60
Statement-II: In NH3, the orbital dipole due to Hence
Tf (1 ) k f 3 1.86 5.58 C ( 1)
lone pair and the dipole moment of NH bonds are
180 3
in opposite direction, but in NF3 the orbital dipole 2) m 2 3, i 0.5, Tf k f ' 7.68C
60 2
due to lone pair and dipole moments of N-F bonds
180 1.48
are in same direction. 3) m 3 1.48, i 0.5, Tf k f ' 3.8C
122 2
In the light of the above statements. Choose the 180
most appropriate from the options given below. 4) m 4 1, i 1, Tf 1 k f ' 1.86C
180
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. As per NCERT, k f ' (H2 O) 1.86 k kg mol 1
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. k f ' (Benzene) 5.12 k kg mol 1
(3) Both statement I and Statement II is are true.
78. A and B formed in the following reactions are:
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is are true. CrO 2 Cl 2 4NaOH A 2NaCl 2H 2O
Ans. (2) A 2HCl 2H 2 O 2 B 3H 2 O
(1) A = Na2CrO4, B = CrO5
N N (2) A = Na2Cr2O4, B = CrO4
(3) A = Na2Cr2O7, B = CrO3
Sol. F F F H H H (4) A = Na2Cr2O7, B = CrO5
Ans. (1)
76. The correct stability order of carbocations is Sol. CrO2Cl 2 4NaOH Na 2CrO4 2NaCl 2H 2O
(A)
Na 2CrO4 2H 2O2 2HCl CrO5 3H 2O
(1) (CH3 )3 C CH3 C H 2 (CH3 )2 C H C H 3 2NaCl
Missing from
(B)
balanced eqaution
(2) C H3 (CH3 )2 C H CH 3 C H 2 (CH 3 )3 C 79. Choose the correct statements about the hydrides
of group 15 elements.
(3) (CH3 )3 C (CH3 )2 C H CH3 C H 2 C H 3 A. The stability of the hydrides decreases in the
order NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
(4)
B. The reducing ability of the hydrides increases
C H3 CH3 C H 2 CH3 C H (CH 3 )C
| in the order NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
CH3 C. Among the hydrides, NH3 is strong reducing
agent while BiH3 is mild reducing agent.
Ans. (3) D. The basicity of the hydrides increases in the
order NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
Sol. More no. of hyperconjugable Hydrogens, more
Choose the most appropriate from the option given
stable is the carbocations. below:
(1) B and C only (2) C and D only
77. The solution from the following with highest (3) A and B only (4) A and D only
Ans. (3)
depression in freezing point/lowest freezing point is
Sol. On moving down the group, bond strength of M–H
(1) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in water bond decreases, which reduces the thermal stability
(2) 180 g of acetic acid dissolved in benzene but increases reducing nature of hydrides, hence A
(3) 180 g of benzoic acid dissolved in benzene and B are correct statements.
(4) 180 g of glucose dissolved in water
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80. Reduction potential of ions are given below: 82. NO2 required for a reaction is produced by
decomposition of N2O5 in CCl4 as by equation
ClO4 IO4 BrO4
2N 2O 5 g 4 NO 2(g) O 2(g)
E 1.19V E 1.65V E 1.74V
The initial concentration of N2O5 is 3 mol L–1 and it
The correct order of their oxidising power is:
is 2.75 mol L–1 after 30 minutes.
(1) ClO4 IO4 BrO4 The rate of formation of NO2 is x × 10–3 mol L–1
min–1 , value of x is ________.
(2) BrO4 IO4 ClO4
Ans. (17)
(3) BrO4 ClO4 IO4 Sol. Rate of reaction (ROR)
1 [N 2O5 ] 1 [NO 2 ] [O 2 ]
(4) IO4 BrO4 ClO4
2 t 4 t t
Ans. (2) 1 [N 2O5 ] 1 ( 2.75 3)
ROR mol L–1 min –1
Sol. Higher the value of ve SRP (Std. reduction 2 t 2 30
1 ( 0.25)
potential) more is tendency to undergo reduction, ROR mol L–1 min –1
2 30
so better is oxidising power of reactant. 1
ROR mol L–1 min –1
Hence, ox. Power:- BrO4 IO4 ClO4 240
[NO 2 ]
Rate of formation of NO2 4 ROR
t
SECTION-B 4
16.66 103 molL–1 min –1 17 10 3 .
81. Number of complexes which show optical 240
isomerism among the following is ________.
83. Two reactions are given below:
cis [Cr(ox) 2 Cl 2 ]3– , [Co(en)3 ]3 , 3
2Fe s O 2(g) Fe 2O 3(s) , Hº –822 kJ / mol
cis [Pt(en)2 Cl 2 ]2 , cis [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ] , 2
1
trans [Pt(en) 2 Cl 2 ]2 , trans [Cr(ox) 2 Cl 2 ]3– Cs O 2(g) CO(g) , Hº –110 kJ / mol
2
Ans. (4) Then enthalpy change for following reaction
3C s Fe 2O 3(s) 2Fe(s) 3CO(g)
Sol. cis [Cr(ox)2 Cl 2 ]3– can show optical isomerism
Ans. (492)
(no POS & COS)
3
3 Sol. 2Fe s O 2(g) Fe 2O 3(s) , Hº –822 kJ / mol
[Co(en)3 ] can show (no POS & COS) 2
……(1)
cis [Pt(en) 2 Cl 2 ]2 can show (no POS & COS)
1
C s O 2(g) CO(g) , Hº –110 kJ / mol
cis [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ] can show (no POS & COS) 2
……(2)
trans [Pt(en) 2 Cl 2 ]2 can’t show (contains POS
3C s Fe 2O 3(s) 2Fe(s) 3CO(g) , H3 ?
& COS) (3) = 3 × (2) – (1)
3–
trans [Cr(ox) 2 Cl 2 ] can’t show (contains H3 = 3 ×H2 –H1
= 3(–110) + 822
POS & COS)
= 492 kJ/mole
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84. The total number of correct statements, regarding 86. Number of geometrical isomers possible for the
the nucleic acids is_________.
given structure is/are ___________.
A. RNA is regarded as the reserve of genetic
information. D
B. DNA molecule self-duplicates during cell
H H
division
C. DNA synthesizes proteins in the cell.
D
D. The message for the synthesis of particular
proteins is present in DNA Ans. (4)
E. Identical DNA strands are transferred to Sol. 3 stereocenteres, symmetrical
daughter cells.
Ans. (3) Total Geometrical isomers 4. EE, ZZ, EZ (two
Sol. A. RNA is regarded as the reserve of genetic isomers)
information. (False)
D
B. DNA molecule self-duplicates during cell
division. (True)
H * H
C. DNA synthesizes proteins in the cell. (False)
*
D. The message for the synthesis of particular *
proteins is present in DNA. (True) D
E. Identical DNA strands are transferred to
daughter cells. (True) 87. Total number of species from the following which
can undergo disproportionation reaction _______.
85. The pH of an aqueous solution containing 1M
benzoic acid (pKa = 4.20) and 1M sodium benzoate H2O2 ,ClO3– , P4 ,Cl 2 ,Ag,Cu 1, F2 ,NO2 ,K
is 4.5. The volume of benzoic acid solution in 300
Ans. (6)
mL of this buffer solution is _______ mL.
Ans. (100) Sol. Intermediate oxidation state of element can undergo
Sol. disproportionation.
1M Benzoic acid 1M Sodium Benzoate
(Va ml) (Vs ml) H2O2 ,ClO3– , P4 ,Cl 2 ,Cu 1 ,NO2
Millimole Va 1 Vs 1
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89. 2-chlorobutane + Cl2 C4H8Cl2(isomers) 90. Number of spectral lines obtained in He+ spectra,
Total number of optically active isomers shown by when an electron makes transition from fifth
C4H8Cl2, obtained in the above reaction is_______.
excited state to first excited state will be
Ans. (6)
Sol. Ans. (10)
n = n1– n2 = 6 – 2 = 4
Maximum number of spectral lines
n( n 1) 4(4 1)
= 10
2 2
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Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (31-01-2024) Morning Session
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Wednesday 31st January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
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x 2 y2 13 x = 39
Sol. 1
9 25 x = 3, y = 2
a = 3, b = 5 Center of given circle is (5, –2)
9 4 Radius 25 4 13 4
e 1 foci 0, be = (0, ± 4)
25 5 CM 4 16 5 2
4 15 3
eH CP 16 20 6
5 8 2
5. The area of the region
Let equation hyperbola
xy x 1 x 2
x 2 y2 x, y : y 4x, x 4, 0, x 3
2
1 x 3 x 4
A 2 B2
8 is
B eH 4 B
3 16 64
(1) (2)
64 9 80 3 3
A2 B2 e2H 1 1 A 9
2
9 4 8 32
(3) (4)
x 2 y2 3 3
1 Ans. (4)
80 64
9 9 Sol. y2 4x, x 4
B 16 xy x 1 x 2
Directrix : y 0
eH 9
x 3 x 4
3 14 2 16
PS = e PM Case – I : y 0
2 3 5 9
x x 1 x 2
2 8 0
7 x 3 x 4
5 3
x 0,1 2,3
4. If one of the diameters of the circle x2 + y2 – 10x +
4y + 13 = 0 is a chord of another circle C, whose Case – II : y < 0
center is the point of intersection of the lines 2x + x x 1 x 2
0, x 1, 2 3, 4
3y = 12 and 3x – 2y = 5, then the radius of the x 3 x 4
circle C is
(1) 20 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 3 2
Ans. (3)
P
4
M
(5, –2)
C
4
(3, 2)
Area 2 x dx
0
Sol.
2 4 32
2x + 3y = 12 2 x 3/2
3 0 3
3x – 2y = 5
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4x 3 2 1 2 1
6. If f x , x and (fof) (x) = g(x), where
6x 4 3 Sol. D 2 3
2
2 3 1
g : , then (gogog) (4) is equal
3 3
= 1( + 3) + 2(2 – 9) + 1(–2 – 3)
to
= + 3 + 4 – 18 – 2 – 3
19 19
(1) (2) For infinite solutions D = 0, D1 = 0, D2 = 0 and
20 20
D3 = 0
(3) – 4 (4) 4
D=0
Ans. (4)
– 3 + 4 = 17 ….(1)
4x 3
Sol. f x
6x 4 4 2 1
4x 3 D1 5 3 0
4 3 34x
6x 4 3 1
gx x
4x 3 34
6 4 1 4 1
6x 4
D2 2 5 3 0
g x x g g g 4 4 3 3
e2 sin x 2 sin x 1
7. lim 15 9 4 2 9 1 6 15 0
x 0 x2
(1) is equal to – 1 (2) does not exist 13 9 36 9 0
(3) is equal to 1 (4) is equal to 2 54
13 54, put in (1)
Ans. (4) 13
e2 sin x 2 sin x 1 54 54
Sol. lim 3 4 17
x 0 x2 13 13
e2 sin x 2 sin x 1 sin 2 x 54 39 216 221
lim 2
2
x 0
sin x x 1
15 5
Let |sinx| = t 3
e 2t 2t 1 sin 2 x 1 54
lim 2
lim 2 Now, 12 13 12. 13.
t 0 t x 0 x 3 13
2e2t 2 = 4 + 54 = 58
lim 1 2 1 2
t 0 2t 9. The solution curve of the differential equation
8. If the system of linear equations
dx
x 2y z 4 y x log e x log e y 1 , x > 0, y > 0 passing
dy
2x y 3z 5
through the point (e, 1) is
3x y z 3
has infinitely many solutions, then 12 + 13 is y y
(1) loge x (2) log e y2
equal to x x
(1) 60 (2) 64 x x
(3) log e y (4) 2 log e y 1
(3) 54 (4) 58 y y
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
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dx x x D(1, 2) C()
Sol. ln 1
dy y y
x
Let t x ty
y
dx dt
ty
dy dy
Sol. A( ) B(1, 0)
dt
t y t ln t 1 Let E is mid point of diagonals
dy
11 2 0
dt dt dy &
y t ln t 2 2 2 2
dy t ln t y
2 2
dt dy
2 2 2 2 8
t.ln t y
11. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
dp dy
let ln t = p
dy tan x y
p y equation ,
dx sin x sec x sin x tan x
1
dt dp
t
x 0, satisfying the condition y 2.
lnp = lny +c 2 4
ln(ln t) = ln y + c
Then, y is
x 3
ln ln ln y c
y (1)
3 2 log e 3
at x = e, y = 1
3
e (2) 2 log e 3
ln ln ln(1) c c 0 2
1 (3) 3 1 2log e 3
x 3 2 log e 3
ln ln ln y (4)
y Ans. (1)
x dy sin x y cos x
ln eln y Sol.
y dx 1
sin x.cos x sin x.
sin x
x cos x cos x
ln y sin x y cos x
y
sin x 1 sin 2 x
10. Let Z and let A (), B (1, 0), C ()
and D (1, 2) be the vertices of a parallelogram dy
sec 2 x y.2 cos ec2x
ABCD. If AB = 10 and the points A and C lie on dx
the line 3y = 2x + 1, then 2 () is equal dy
2 cos ec 2x .y sec 2 x
to dx
(1) 10 (2) 5 dy
p.y Q
(3) 12 (4) 8 dx
Ans. (4)
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I.F. e e
2cosec 2x dx
pdx
Sol. p b c b 0
Let 2x = t p c b 0
dx p c b p c b
2 1
dt Now, p.a 0 given
dt
dx So, c.a a.b 0
2
(3 – 3 – 8) + (12 + 1 – 14) = 0
e
cosec(t)dt
= –8
t p c 8b
ln tan
e 2
p 31iˆ 11jˆ 52kˆ
ln tan x 1 So, p.(iˆ ˆj k)
ˆ
e
tanx = –31 + 11 + 52
= 32
y(IF) Q IFdx c
1
13. The sum of the series
1 1 1 3 12 14
y sec2 x c
tan x tan x 2 3
….. up to 10 terms
1 3 2 2
2 4
1 3 32 34
1 dt
y. c for tan x = t is
tan x |t| 45 45
(1) (2)
1 109 109
y. ln | t | c 55 55
tan x (3) (4)
109 109
y tan x ln | tan x | c Ans. (4)
Sol. General term of the sequence,
Put x , y=2 r
4 Tr
1 3r 2 r 4
2 = ln 1 + c c = 2
r
Tr 4
y | tan x | ln | tan x | 2 r 2r 1 r 2
2
r
y 3 ln 3 2
3
Tr
r 1 r2
2 2
12. Let a 3iˆ ˆj 2k,
ˆ b 4iˆ ˆj 7kˆ and r
Tr
c ˆi 3jˆ 4kˆ be three vectors. If a vectors p
r 2
r 1 r 2 r 1
1 2
satisfies pb cb and pa 0 , then r r 1 r 2 r 1
Tr 2 2
p ˆi ˆj kˆ is equal to r r 1 r 2 r 1
(1) 24 1 1 1
2
(2) 36 2 r r 1 r r 1
2
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14. The distance of the point Q(0, 2, –2) form the line 15. For , , 0. If sin–1 + sin–1 + sin–1 = and
passing through the point P(5, –4, 3) and ( + + ) ( – + ) = 3, then equal to
perpendicular to the lines
r 3iˆ 2kˆ +
(1)
3
2
2iˆ 3jˆ 5kˆ , and r ˆi 2ˆj kˆ +
1
(2)
µ ˆi 3jˆ 2kˆ , µ is 2
3 1
(1) 86 (3)
2 2
(2) 20
(4) 3
(3) 54 Ans. (1)
(4) 74 Sol. Let sin 1 A,sin 1 B,sin 1 C
Ans. (4) A+B+C=
2
Sol. A vector in the direction of the required line can be 2 3
obtained by cross product of
2 2 2
ˆi ˆj kˆ
2 2 2 1
2 3 5
2 2
1 3 2 1
cos C
2
9iˆ 9jˆ 9kˆ
sinC
Required line,
1
r 5iˆ 4ˆj 3kˆ ' 9iˆ 9ˆj 9kˆ cos C 1 2
2
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17. Let g(x) be a linear function and x3 2x 2 1 1 3x
gx ,x 0 18. If f (x) 3x 2
2
2x x3 6
f x 1 x x
1
, is continuous at x = 0. x3 x 4 x2 2
,x 0
2 x for all x , then 2f(0) + f 0 is equal to
If f 1 f 1 , then the value of g(3) is
(1) 48 (2) 24
1 4 (3) 42 (4) 18
(1) loge 1/3
3 9e Ans. (3)
1 4 0 1 1
(2) loge 1
3 9 Sol. f 0 2 0 6 12
4 0 4 2
(3) log e 1
9 3x 2 4x 3
4 f x 3x 2 2x x 6 +
2 3
(4) log e 1/3
9e x3 x 4 x 2 2
Ans. (4)
x3 2x 2 1 1 3x
Sol. Let g(x) = ax + b
6x 2 3x 2 +
Now function f(x) in continuous at x = 0
x3 x 4 x2 2
lim f x f 0
x 0
x3 2x 2 1 1 3x
1
1 x x 3x 2 2 2x x3 6
lim b
x 0 2 x
3x 2 1 0 2x
0b 0 0 3 0 1 1 0 1 1
g x ax f 0 2 0 6 0 2 0 2 0 6
0 4 2 0 4 2 1 0 0
Now, for x > 0
1
1
= 24 – 6 = 18
1 1 x x 1
f x 2f 0 f 0 42
x 2x 2 x
2
4 40
ln (4)
1/3 153
9e
Ans. (4)
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Sol. 3 bad apples, 15 good apples. 1
2 11
5 2
Let X be no of bad apples Sol. I sin 2x cos x 2
1 cos x 2
dx
15 0
C2 105
Then P(X = 0) 18
C2 153 Put cosx = t2 sinx dx = – 2 t dt
3
C1 15 C1 45
P X 1 1
18
C2 153 I 4 t 2 t11 1 t t dt
5
0
3
C 3
P X 2 18 2 1
C2 153
I 4 t14 1 t 5 dt
105 45 3 51 0
E X 0 1 2
153 153 153 153
Put 1 + t5 = = k2
1
5t4dt = 2k dk
3
Var X E X 2 E X
2
2
2k
k 1 k
2
I 4 2
dk
2 5
105 45 3 1 1
0 1 4
153 153 153 3 2
8
I k 2k 4 k 2 dk
6
57 1 40 5
1
153 9 153
20. Let S be the set of positive integral values of a for 8 k 7 2k 5 k 3
2
I
ax 2 2 a 1 x 9a 4 5 7 5 3 1
which 0, x .
x 2 8x 32
Then, the number of elements in S is : 8 8 2 8 2 2 2 1 2 1
I
(1) 1 5 7 5 3 7 5 3
(2) 0
8 22 2 8
(3) I
5 105 105
(4) 3
Ans. (2)
525 I 176 2 64
Sol. ax2 + 2 (a + 1) x + 9a + 4 < 0 x R
a 0 22. Let S 1, and f : S be defined as
e 1 (2t 1)5 t 2 t 3 2t 10
11
SECTION-B f (x) t 7 12 61
dt
1
21. If the integral Let p = Sum of square of the values of x, where
1
f(x) attains local maxima on S. and q = Sum of the
2
115
2
525 sin 2x cos x 1 cos 2 x dx is equal to
2
n
2 64 , then n is equal to ______
Then, the value of p2 + 2q is ________
Ans. (27)
Ans. (176)
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Sol. x y z 1
Sol. r Q r, r,1
f x e 1 2x 1 x 2 x 3 2x 10
x 11 5 7 12 61 1 1 0
x y z 1
k R k, k, 1
1 1 0
PQ a r ˆi a r ˆj a 1 kˆ
1 a = r + a – r = 0.
Local minima at x , x = 5 2a = 2r a = r
2
PR a k i a k ˆj a 1 kˆ
Local maxima at x = 0, x = 2
a–k–a–k=0 k=0
1 11
p 0 4 4, q 5 As, PQ PR
2 2
Then p2 + 2q = 16 + 11 = 27
a r a k a r a k a 1a 1 0
a = 1 or –1
23. The total number of words (with or without 12a2 = 12
meaning) that can be formed out of the letters of 25. In the expansion of
5
1 x 1 x 1 2 3 , x 0 , the
the word ‘DISTRIBUTION’ taken four at a time, 2 3 3 1
is equal to _____ x x x
sum of the coefficient of x3 and x–13 is equal to ___
Ans. (3734)
Ans. (118)
Sol. We have III, TT, D, S, R, B, U, O, N 5
1 x 1 x 1 2 3
2 3 3 1
Number of words with selection (a, a, a, b) Sol.
x x x
4! 5
8 C1 32 1 3
3! 1 x 1 x 1
2
x
Number of words with selection (a, a, b, b)
1 x 1 x 1 x
2 15
4!
6
2!2! x15
1 x x 1 x
17 17
Number of words with selection (a, a, b, c)
2 C1 8 C2
4!
672
x15
2! coeff x 3 in the expansion coeff x18 in
Number of words with selection (a, b, c, d)
1 x x 1 x
17 17
9 C4 4! 3024
=0–1
total = 3024 + 672 + 6 + 32 = –1
= 3734 coeff x 13 in the expansion coeff x 2 in
17 17
24. Let Q and R be the feet of perpendiculars from the (1 + x) – x(1 + x)
17 17
point P(a, a, a) on the lines x = y, z = 1 and x = –y,
2 1
z = –1 respectively. If QPR is a right angle, then
= 17 × 8 – 17
12a2 is equal to _____ = 17 × 7
= 119
Ans. (12)
Hence Answer = 119 – 1 = 118
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26. If denotes the number of solutions of |1 - i|x = 2x 5 2
a 1 e2
|z| 2
and , where
arg(z) 5 5 2
e
1 e2
2
4 1 i i
z 1 i , i 1 , then 2 2e2 e
4 i 1 i
2e2 e 2 0
the distance of the point () from the line
2e2 2e e 2 0
4x – 3y = 7 is _____
2e e 2 1 1 2 0
Ans. (3)
e 2 2e 1 0
2
x
Sol. 2x x 0 1 1
e 2 ; e
4 i i i i 2
z 1 i
4 1 1 x2 y2
1 a 5 2
i b2 a 2b2
1 4i 6i 2 4i 3 1 b=5
2
2i a 2 b2 b2 e12 1 e12 51
2
4 28. Let a and b be two vectors such that
2
| a | 1,| b | 4 and a . b 2 . If c 2a b 3b
Distance from (1, 4) to 4x 3y 7
15 and the angle between b and c is , then
Will be 3
5 192sin2 is equal to______
27. Let the foci and length of the latus rectum of an Ans. (48)
2 2
x y
ellipse 1, a > b be 5,0 and
a 2 b2
50 , Sol.
b c 2a b b 3 b
2
2
2b 2 | c |2 2a b 3b
Sol. focii 5,0 ; 50
a
3
64 144 192
5 2a 4
ae = 5 b2
2 | c |2 cos 2 144
5 2a
b 2 a 2 1 e2 192cos2 144
2
192sin 2 48
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29. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and R = {(1, 2), (2, 3), (1, 4)} 30. Let f : be a function defined by
Sol. All elements are included M N, , , then the least value of
Ans. (5)
M 1 x .sin x 1 x dx
4
f (a )
M=N–M 2M = N
= 2; = 1;
Ans. 5
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a F
m m
Sol. Sol. a F F
i 2R ' a
m a m
F i B Gm 2 Gm 2
F and F '
2
a2 2a
= 2R
Gm 2 Gm 2
F 2iRBj Fnet 2
a2 2a 2
36. If the wavelength of the first member of Lyman 2 2 1 Gm 2 Gm 2 2 2 1
2
series of hydrogen is . The wavelength of the 32 L2 a 2
a = 4L
second member will be
38. The given figure represents two isobaric processes
27 32 for the same mass of an ideal gas, then
(1) (2)
32 27
27 5
(3) (4)
5 27
Ans. (1)
1 13.6z 2 1 1
Sol. 2 ….. (i)
hc 1 2
2 (1) P2 P1 (2) P2 P1
1 13.6z 2 1 1 (3) P1 P2 (4) P1 P2
2 ….. (ii)
' hc 1 2
3 Ans. (4)
On dividing (i) & (ii) Sol. PV = nRT
nR
27 V T
' P
32
nR
37. Four identical particles of mass m are kept at the Slope =
P
four corners of a square. If the gravitational force 1
Slope
exerted on one of the masses by the other masses is P
(Slope)2 > (Slope)1
2 2 1 Gm 2
, the length of the sides of the P2 < P1
32 L2 39. If the percentage errors in measuring the length
square is and the diameter of a wire are 0.1% each. The
percentage error in measuring its resistance will
L
(1) (2) 4L be:
2 (1) 0.2% (2) 0.3%
(3) 3L (4) 2L (3) 0.1% (4) 0.144%
Ans. (2) Ans. (2)
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L 42. Two charges q and 3q are separated by a distance
Sol. R 2
d ‘r’ in air. At a distance x from charge q, the
4 resultant electric field is zero. The value of x is :
R L 2d (1 3)
(1)
R L d r
L d r
0.1% and 0.1% (2)
L d 3(1 3)
R r
= 0.3% (3)
R (1 3)
40. In a plane EM wave, the electric field oscillates
(4) r (1 3)
sinusoidally at a frequency of 5 × 1010 Hz and an
Ans. (3)
amplitude of 50 Vm–1. The total average energy
density of the electromagnetic field of the wave is : Sol.
[Use 0 = 8.85 × 10 C / Nm ]
E
–12 2 2
net P 0
(1) 1.106 × 10–8 Jm–3
–8 –3 kq k 3q
(2) 4.425 × 10 Jm
2
x (r x)2
(3) 2.212 × 10 Jm–3
–8
Ans. (1) r x 3x
1 r
Sol. U E 0 E 2 x
2 3 1
1 43. In the given arrangement of a doubly inclined
U E 8.85 10 12 50
2
Ans. (1)
Sol. F = ax2 + bt1/2
[F]
[a] M1L1T 2
[x 2 ]
[F] (1) 9 kg
[b] 1/2
M1L1T 5/2
[t ] (2) 4.5 kg
(3) 6.5 kg
2 2 5
b2 M L T M1L3 T 3 (4) 2.25 kg
a M1L1T 2 Ans. (2)
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a = 2m/s2 Sol.
T
Sol. a = 2m/s2 fr
mgsin37
fr ° /4
Mgsin53°
For M block
L1 /2
10gsin53° – µ (10g) cos53° – T = 10 × 2
T = 80 – 15 – 20
T = 45 N /4
For m block
T – mg sin 37° – µmg cos 37° = m × 2
L1 2
45 = 10 m 4 2
m = 4.5 kg
2v
44. A coil is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field v = f f2
2L 2
of 5000 T. When the field is changed to 3000 T in
2s, an induced emf of 22 V is produced in the coil. v
v = f1(4L1) f2
If the diameter of the coil is 0.02 m, then the L2
number of turns in the coil is :
v
(1) 7 (2) 70 f1
4L1
(3) 35 (4) 140
Ans. (2) f1 = f2
v
v
Sol. N
t 4L1 L 2
(B)A L2 = 4L1
Bi = 5000 T, 60 = 4 × L1
Bf = 3000 T L1 = 15 cm
d = 0.02 m
46. A small steel ball is dropped into a long cylinder
r = 0.01 m
containing glycerine. Which one of the following
(B)A
is the correct representation of the velocity time
= (2000)(0.01)2 = 0.2
graph for the transit of the ball?
0.2
N 22 N
t 2
N = 70
45. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe
is equal to the first overtone frequency of an open (1) (2)
organ pipe. If length of the open pipe is 60 cm, the
length of the closed pipe will be :
(1) 60 cm (2) 45 cm
(3) 30 cm (4) 15 cm (3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (2)
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Sol. Sol.
F
N
Fv Coin
f
r
µ
mg mg
mg – FB – Fv = ma
N = mg
4 3 4 3 dv
r g L r g 6rv m f = m2r
3 3 dt
f = µN
4 6r µmg = mr2
Let R3g L K1 and K2
3m m g
dv r
K1 K 2 v
dt 48. Two conductors have the same resistances at 0°C
v t but their temperature coefficients of resistance are
dv
K1 K 2 v dt 1 and 2. The respective temperature coefficients
0 0 for their series and parallel combinations are :
1 1 2
n K1 K 2 v 0 t (1) 1 2 ,
v
2
K2
1 2 1 2
K K2v (2) ,
2 2
n 1 K 2 t
K1 1 2
(3) 1 2 ,
1 2
K1 K2 v K1eK2t
1 2
(4) , 1 2
K 2
v 1 1 e K 2t
K2 Ans. (2)
47. A coin is placed on a disc. The coefficient of Sol. Series :
Req = R1 + R2
friction between the coin and the disc is µ. If the
2R(1 eq ) R(1 1) R(1 2 )
distance of the coin from the center of the disc is r,
the maximum angular velocity which can be given 2R(1 eq ) 2R 1 2 R
to the disc, so that the coin does not slip away, is : 1 2
eq
g r 2
(1) (2) Parallel :
r g
1 1 1
g
(3) (4) R eq R1 R2
r rg
1 1 1
Ans. (3)
R R(1 1) R(1 2 )
(1 eq )
2
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2 1 1 50. When a metal surface is illuminated by light of
1 eq 1 1 1 2 wavelength , the stopping potential is 8V. When
the same surface is illuminated by light of
2 1 2 1 1
wavelength 3, stopping potential is 2V. The
1 eq 1 1 1 2
threshold wavelength for this surface is :
2 1 1 1 2 (1) 5
(2) 3
= 2 1 2 1 eq
(3) 9
2 1 1 2 1 2 (4) 4.5
= Ans. (3)
Sol. E = Kmax
2 2 eq 1 2 eq 1 2 2
hc
Neglecting small terms
0
2 + 2(1 + 2) 2 2 eq 1 2
K max eV0
1 2 2 eq hc hc
8e ......(i)
0
1 2
eq
2 hc hc
2e .......(ii)
3 0
49. An artillery piece of mass M1 fires a shell of mass
on solving (i) & (ii)
M2 horizontally. Instantaneously after the firing,
0 9
the ratio of kinetic energy of the artillery and that
SECTION-B
of the shell is :
51. An electron moves through a uniform magnetic
M2
(1) M1 / (M1 + M2) (2)
M1 field B B0 i 2B0 j T. At a particular instant of
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52. A parallel plate capacitor with plate separation 5 2 2
A
mm is charged up by a battery. It is found that on
introducing a dielectric sheet of thickness 2 mm, 2 3 3
while keeping the battery connections intact, the
capacitor draws 25% more charge from the battery B
than before. The dielectric constant of the sheet is A
____.
3 3 3
Ans. (2)
B
Sol. Without dielectric
A 0 1
R eq 3 1
Q V
d 3
with dielectric 54. A solid circular disc of mass 50 kg rolls along a
A 0 V horizontal floor so that its center of mass has a
Q
t speed of 0.4 m/s. The absolute value of work done
dt
K on the disc to stop it is ______ J.
given
Ans. (6)
A 0 V A 0 V
1.25 Sol. Using work energy theorem
t d
dt
K 1 1
W KE 0 mv2 I2
2 2
2
1.25 3 5
K 1 K2
W=0– mv 2 1 2
K 2 2 R
53. Equivalent resistance of the following network is 1 1
= 50 0.42 1 = –6J
_____ . 2 2
Absolute work = +6J
W = –6J W 6J
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Sol. L
u=0
H–h
Sol.
h
1 Ans. (18)
I2 = I0 + 9I0 + 2 9I20 . = 13 I0
2 P
Sol.
I1 10 V
V
I2 13
V
57. A small square loop of wire of side is placed P
V
inside a large square loop of wire of side L
V
(L = 2 ). The loops are coplanar and their centers gh
V
coinside. The value of the mutual inductance of the
0.02
system is x × 10–7 H, where x = _____. 103 × 10 × h = 9 108
100
Ans. (128)
h = 18 m
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59. A particle performs simple harmonic motion with 60. The mass defect in a particular reaction is 0.4g.
7
amplitude A. Its speed is increased to three times at The amount of energy liberated is n × 10 kWh,
2A where n = _____.
an instant when its displacement is . The new
3
(speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s)
nA
amplitude of motion is . The value of n is ___. Ans. (1)
3
2
Ans. (7) Sol. E = mc
2
2A
v ' 3v 5A (A ') 2
3
7A
A'
3
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66. A species having carbon with sextet of electrons 69. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
and can act as electrophile is called Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(1) carbon free radical Assertion A: Alcohols react both as nucleophiles
(2) carbanion and electrophiles.
(3) carbocation Reason R: Alcohols react with active metals such
(4) pentavalent carbon as sodium, potassium and aluminum to yield
Ans. (3) corresponding alkoxides and liberate hydrogen.
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71. Identify correct statements from below: Sol. A B + C
A. The chromate ion is square planar.
Pi 0 0
B. Dichromates are generally prepared from
chromates. Pi – x x x
C. The green manganate ion is diamagnetic. Pt = Pi + x
D. Dark green coloured K2MnO4 disproportionates in
a neutral or acidic medium to give permanganate. Pi - x = Pi – Pt + Pi
E. With increasing oxidation number of transition = 2Pi – Pt
metal, ionic character of the oxides decreases.
2.303 Pi
Choose the correct answer from the options given K log
below: t 2Pi Pt
(1) B, C, D only 74. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
(2) A, D, E only Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(3) A, B, C only Assertion A: pKa value of phenol is 10.0 while
(4) B, D, E only that of ethanol is 15.9.
Ans. (4) Reason R: Ethanol is stronger acid than phenol.
Sol. A. CrO42– is tetrahedral In the light of the above statements, choose the
+ +
B. 2Na2CrO4 + 2H Na2Cr2O7 + 2Na + H2O correct answer from the options given below:
C. As per NCERT, green manganate is (1) A is true but R is false.
paramagnetic with 1 unpaired electron.
(2) A is false but R is true.
D. Statement is correct
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
E. Statement is correct
explanation of A.
72. ‘Adsorption’ principle is used for which of the
following purification method? (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
(1) Extraction
(2) Chromatography Ans. (1)
(3) Distillation Sol. Phenol is more acidic than ethanol because
(4) Sublimation conjugate base of phenoxide is more stable than
ethoxide.
Ans. (2)
Sol. Principle used in chromotography is adsorption. 75. Given below are two statements:
73. Integrated rate law equation for a first order gas Statement I: IUPAC name of HO–CH2–(CH2)3–
phase reaction is given by (where Pi is initial CH2– COCH3 is 7-hydroxyheptan-2-one.
pressure and Pt is total pressure at time t) Statement II: 2-oxoheptan-7-ol is the correct
2.303 Pi IUPAC name for above compound.
(1) k log
t 2Pi Pt In the light of the above statements. choose the
2.303 2Pi most appropriate answer from the options given
(2) k log below:
t 2Pi Pt
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) k
2.303
log
2Pi Pt
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
t Pi
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2.303 Pi
(4) k (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
t 2Pi Pt Ans. (1)
Ans. (1) Sol. 7-Hydroxyheptan-2-one is correct IUPAC name
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76. The correct statements from following are: 78. Match List I with List II
A. The strength of anionic ligands can be LIST-I LIST-II
explained by crystal field theory. A. Glucose/NaHCO3/D I. Gluconic acid
B. Glucose/HNO3 II. No reaction
B. Valence bond theory does not give a
C. Glucose/HI/ D III. n-hexane
quantitative interpretation of kinetic stability of
D. Glucose/Bromine IV. Saccharic acid
coordination compounds. water]
C. The hybridization involved in formation of Choose the correct answer from the options given
[Ni(CN)4]2–complex is dsp2. below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
D. The number of possible isomer(s) of (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
cis-[PtC12 (en)2]2+ is one (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
below: Ans. (2)
Sol. Glucose ¾¾¾¾
NaHCO3
D
® no reaction
(1) A, D only
Glucose ¾¾¾
HNO3
® saccharic acid
(2) A, C only D
Glucose ¾¾
HI
® n-hexane
(3) B, D only D
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SECTION-B 84. The product of the following reaction is P.
81. Molar mass of the salt from NaBr, NaNO3, KI and CHO
CaF2 which does not evolve coloured vapours on
heating with concentrated H2SO4 is _____ g mol–1, (i) PhMgBr(1 equiv.)
(ii) aq. NH4Cl
(Molar mass in g mol–1 : Na : 23, N : 14, K : 39,
O : 16, Br : 80, I : 127, F : 19, Ca : 40 OH
Ans. (78) The number of hydroxyl groups present in the
Sol. CaF2 does not evolve any gas with concentrated product P is________.
H2SO4. Ans. (0)
NaBr evolve Br2 Sol. Product benzene has zero hydroxyl group
CHO CHO CHO
NaNO3 evolve NO2 PhMgBr aq. NH4Cl
+
(1 eq.)
KI evolve I2 Product
OH OMgBr OH
2+ Reactant
82. The 'Spin only’ Magnetic moment for [Ni(NH3)6]
is______× 10–1 BM. 85. The number of species from the following in which
the central atom uses sp3 hybrid orbitals in its
(given = Atomic number of Ni : 28)
bonding is__________.
Ans. (28)
NH3, SO2, SiO2, BeCl2, CO2, H2O, CH4, BF3
Sol. NH3 act as WFL with Ni2+ Ans. (4)
2+ 8
Ni = 3d Sol. NH3 sp3
SO2 sp2
SiO2 sp3
No. of unpaired electron = 2
BeCl2 sp
n n 2 8 2.82 BM CO2 sp
H2O sp3
= 28.2 × 10–1 BM
CH4 sp3
x = 28
BF3 sp2
83. Number of moles of methane required to produce C2H5OH
22g CO2(g) after combustion is x × 10–2 moles. The Product A
value of x is 86. CH3CH2Br + NaOH H2O
Product B
Ans. (50) The total number of hydrogen atoms in product A
and product B is__________.
Sol. CH 4(g) 2O2(g) CO2(g) 2H2 O( )
Ans. (10)
22 C 2H 5OH
n CO2 0.5 moles CH2=CH2
44 Sol. CH3CH2Br + NaOH H 2O
CH3–CH2–OH
So moles of CH4 required = 0.5 moles Total number of hydrogen atom in A and B is 10
–2
i.e. 50 × 10 mole 87. Number of alkanes obtained on electrolysis of a
x = 50 mixture of CH3COONa and C2H5COONa is_____.
Ans. (3)
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89. The ionization energy of sodium in kJ mol–1. If
Sol. CH3COONa CH3
electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 242 nm is
C2 H5COONa C2 H5 just sufficient to ionize sodium atom is______.
2C2 H5 CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 Ans. (494)
1240
Sol. E eV
2CH3 CH3 CH3 nm
CH3 C2 H5 CH3 CH2 CH3 1240
eV
242
88. Consider the following reaction at 298 K.
= 5.12 eV
3
O2(g) O3(g) .K P 2.47 1029. = 5.12 × 1.6 × 10–19
2
= 8.198 × 10–19 J/atom
r G for the reaction is _________ kJ. (Given R
= 494 kJ/mol
= 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
90. One Faraday of electricity liberates x × 10–1 gram
Ans. (163) atom of copper from copper sulphate, x is______.
3
Sol. O2(g) O3(g) .K P 2.47 1029. Ans. (5)
2
Sol. Cu2+ + 2e– Cu
r G = – RT ln KP
2 Faraday mol Cu
= – 8.314 × 10–3 × 298 × ln (2.47 × 10–29)
1 Faraday mol Cu deposit
= –8.314 × 10–3 × 298 × (–65.87)
0.5 mol = 0.5 g atom = 5 × 10–1
= 163.19 kJ
x=5
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Wednesday 31st January, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM
(1)
15 5 z13 z32 125 3z1. z 2 5
7
20 15i 125 15z1z2
17 5
(2) 3z1z2 25 4 3i
6
3z1z2 21 3i
17 5
(3) z1.z2 7 i
7
z1 z2 25
2
5
(4)
17 z12 z 22 25 2 7 i
Ans. (3)
11 2i
Sol. A(a,b), B(3,4), C(-6, -8)
z12 z22
2
2:1 121 4 44i
B
z14 z24 2 7 i 117 44i
C A 2
(-6, -8) (a, b) (3, 4)
z14 z 24 117 44i 2 49 1 14i
a 0, b = 0 P 3,5
Distance from P measured along x – 2y – 1 = 0 z14 z24 75
x 3 r cos , y = 5+rsin
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4. Let a variable line passing through the centre of the Sol.-
circle x2 + y2 – 16x – 4y = 0, meet the positive x
f x t t e
2 t2
dt
co-ordinate axes at the point A and B. Then the x
f x 2. x x 2 e x ............ 1
minimum value of OA + OB, where O is the 2
origin, is equal to
x2 1
(1) 12
g x t 2 e t dt
(2) 18 0
(3) 20 g x xe x 2x 0
2
(4) 24
f x g x 2xe x 2x 2e x 2x 2e x
2 2 2
Ans. (2)
Integrating both sides w.r.t.x
Sol.- y 2 m x 8
f x g x 2xe x dx
2
x-intercept
0
2
8 x t
2
m
y-intercept
e dt e t
t
8m 2
0
0
2 e
log 9 1
e
1
OA OB 8 8m 2
m 1
9 f (x) g(x) 1 9 8
f ' m
2
8 0 9
Let , , be mirror image of the point (2, 3, 5)
m2
6.
1
m2 x 1 y 2 z 3
4 in the line .
2 3 4
1
m Then 2 3 4 is equal to
2
(1) 32
1 (2) 33
f 18
2 (3) 31
Minimum = 18 (4) 34
Ans. (2)
Sol.
5. Let f ,g : (0, ) R be two functions defined by P(2,3,5)
t t e
2
x
dt and g(x) t 2 e t dt .
x
f (x)
1
2 t2
x 0
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7. Let P be a parabola with vertex (2, 3) and directrix a 2 2b2
x 2 y2
2x + y = 6. Let an ellipse E : 2 2 1, a b of Put in (1) b
2 328
a b 25
1
eccentricity pass through the focus of the 2b 2
2
4b 2 1 328 656
2 2
b2 4
parabola P. Then the square of the length of the a a 2 25 25
latus rectum of E, is
385 8. The temperature T(t) of a body at time t = 0 is 160o
(1)
8 F and it decreases continuously as per the
347 dT
(2) K(T 80) , where K
8 differential equation
dt
512
(3) is positive constant. If T(15) = 120oF, then T(45) is
25
equal to
656
(4) (1) 85o F
25
(2) 95o F
Ans. (4)
Sol.- (3) 90o F
(4) 80o F
(1.6, 2.8)
Ans. (3)
( , )
axis Sol.-
(2, 3) Focur
dT
k T 80
dt
T t
dT
Slope of axis
1
T 80 0 Kdt
160
2
T
1
y 3 x 2
ln T 80 160 kt
2
ln T 80 ln 80 kt
2y 6 x 2
T 80
2y x 4 0 ln kt
80
2x y 6 0
T 80 80e kt
4x 2y 12 0
120 80 80e k.15
1.6 4 2.4
40 1
2.8 6 3.2 e k15
80 2
Ellipse passes through (2.4, 3.2)
T 45 80 80e k.45
2 2
24 32
80 80 e k.15
3
1
10 10
……….(1)
a2 b2 1
80 80
b2 1 b2 1 8
Also 1
a2 2 a 2 2 90
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9. Let 2nd, 8th and 44th, terms of a non-constant A.P. 11. The area of the region enclosed by the parabola
be respectively the 1st, 2nd and 3rd terms of G.P. If y = 4x – x2 and 3y = (x – 4)2 is equal to
the first term of A.P. is 1 then the sum of first 32
(1)
20 terms is equal to- 9
(1) 980 (2) 960 (2) 4
(3) 990 (4) 970 (3) 6
Ans. (4) 14
Sol.- 1 + d, 1 + 7d, 1 + 43d are in GP (4)
3
(1 + 7d)2 = (1 + d) (1 + 43d) Ans. (3)
1 + 49d2 + 14d = 1 + 44 d + 43d2 Sol.-
6d2 – 30d = 0
d=5
20
S20 2 1 20 1 5
2
=10 2 95
=970
10. Let f : R (0, ) be strictly increasing 4
x 4
2
Area 4x x 2 dx
1
f (7x)
3
function such that lim 1. Then, the value
x f (x)
3 4
4x 2 x 3 x 4
f (5x) Area
of lim 1 is equal to 2 3 9
x
f (x) 1
(1) 4 64 64 4 1 27
(2) 0 2 3 2 3 9
(3) 7/5 27 21 6
(4) 1
12. Let the mean and the variance of 6 observation a,
Ans. (2)
b, 68, 44, 48, 60 be 55 and 194, respectively if
Sol.- f : R (0, )
a > b, then a + 3b is
f 7x (1) 200
lim 1
x f x
(2) 190
f is increasing (3) 180
f x f 5x f 7x (4) 210
Ans. (3)
f x f 5x f 7x Sol.- a, b, 68, 44, 48, 60
f x f x f x Mean = 55 a>b
f 5x Variance = 194 a + 3b
1 lim 1
x f x a b 68 44 48 60
55
f 5x 6
1 220 a b 330
f x a b 110......(1)
1 1 0
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Also, 14. Consider the function f : (0, ) R defined by
xi x
2
log e x
n
194 f (x) e . If m and n be respectively the
number of points at which f is not continuous and f
a 55 b 55 68 55 44 55
2 2 2 2
For f ' x 0
f x is increasing function 0 1
a e 0 f
b e131 e3 f 1
P(2b + 4, a + 2) m = 0 (No point at which function is not continuous)
P 2 e3 4,2 n = 1 (Not differentiable)
m+n=1
P
15. The number of solutions, of the equation
d esin x 2esin x 2 is
(1) 2
(2) more than 2
x + e -3 y = 4
(3) 1
d
2e3 4 2e3 4 2 1 e6 (4) 0
1 e6 Ans. (4)
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Sol.- Take esin x t t 0 Sol.- 6C
m 2 6 Cm1 6 Cm 2 8 C3
m1 Cm2 8 C3
2 7C 7
t 2
t
8C
m 2 8 C3
t2 2
2
t m 2
t 2 2t 2 0 And n 1 P : n P 1:8
3 4
t2 2t 1 3
n 1 n 2 n 3 1
t 1 3
2
n n 1 n 2 n 3 8
t 1 3 n 8
t 1 1.73
n Pm1 n 1 Cm 8 P3 9 C2
t 2.73 or -0.73 (rejected as t > 0)
98
esin x 2.73 8 7 6
2
loge esin x loge 2.73
= 372
sin x loge 2.73 1
So no solution.
18. A coin is based so that a head is twice as likely to
16. If a sin 1
sin 5 and b cos 1
cos 5 , occur as a tail. If the coin is tossed 3 times, then
then a b is equal to the probability of getting two tails and one head is-
2 2
(1) 4 25
2
2
(1)
(2) 8 40 50
2 9
(3) 4 20 50
2 1
(2)
(4) 25 9
Ans. (2) 2
(3)
Sol. a sin 1 sin 5 5 2 27
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19. Let A be a 3 3 real matrix such that 0 0
1 1 1 1 0 0 Given A 1 2
A 0 2 0 , A 0 4 0 , A 1 2 1 .
0 0
1 1 1 1 0 0
y1 0
x 1
y2 2
Then, the system A 3I y 2 has
z 3 y3 0
(1) unique solution y1 0, y2 2, y3 0
(2) exactly two solutions from (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7)
(3) no solution x1 3x, x 2 0, x3 1
(4) infinitely many solutions y1 0, y2 2, y3 0
Ans. (1)
z1 1, z2 0, z3 3
x1 y1 z1
Sol.- Let A x 2 y2 z2 3 0 1
x 3 y3 z3 A 0 2 0
1 0 3
1 2
x 1
Given A 0 0 …. (1)
Now A 3l y 2
1 2
z 3
x1 z1 2
0 0 1 x 1
x 2 z 2 0 0 1 0 y 2
1 0 0 z 3
x 3 z3 2
z 1
x1 z1 2 …. (2) y 2
x 3
x 2 z2 0 …. (3)
x 3 z3 0 …. (4)
z 1, y 2, x 3
20. The shortest distance between lines L1 and L2,
1 4
x 1 y 1 z 4
Given A 0 0 where L1 : and L2 is the line
2 3 2
1 4 passing through the points A 4, 4,3 .B 1,6,3
x1 z1 4 x 3 y z 1
and perpendicular to the line , is
x 2 z 2 0 2 3 1
121 24
x 3 z3 4 (1) (2)
221 117
x1 z1 4 …. (5)
141 42
(3) (4)
x 2 x 2 0 …. (6) 221 117
x3 z3 4 Ans. (3)
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Sol.-
x 4 y 4 z 3 2
2 sin x cos x
L2
2 sin 4 x cos 4 x dx
3 2 0 0
x 2 x1 y 2 y1 z 2 z1
2 3 2 2
2 sin x cos xdx
3 2 0
2 1 2sin 2 x cos2 x
0
S.D
n1 n 2
2 2
sin 2x
5 5 7 2 sin 2 2x dx
2
2 3 2 0
3 2 0
2
2 sin 2x
n1 n 2
2 1 cos2 2x dx
0
141
Let cos 2x t
4iˆ 6ˆj 13kˆ
141
16 36 169 22. Let a, b, c be the length of three sides of a triangle
141 satisfying the condition (a2 + b2)x2 – 2b(a + c).
221 x + (b2 + c2) = 0. If the set of all possible values of
SECTION-B
x is the interval , , then 12 2 2 is equal
120 x 2 sin x cos x to ______.
3 0 sin 4 x cos4 x
21. dx is equal to _________.
Ans. (36)
Ans. (15)
Sol.- a 2
b2 x 2 2b a c x b2 c2 0
x 2 sin x . cos x
Sol.- sin 4 x cos4 x dx a 2 x 2 2abx b 2 b 2 x 2 2bcx c 2 0
0
ax b bx c 0
2 2
2
sin x . cos x
x 2 x dx
2 ax b 0, bx c 0
0
sin x cos x
4 4
abc b + c > a c+a>b
2 sin x . cos x 2x 2
0
sin 4 x cos 4 x
1 5 1 5
2 2
x sin x cos x sin x cos x
2 dx 2 dx x
0
sin x cos x
4 4
0
sin 4 x cos 4 x 2 2
1 5 1 5
2 sin x cos x
2 .
2
sin x cos x x , or x
4 0 sin 4 x cos 4 x
dx 2 sin 4 x cos4 x dx 2 2
0
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5 1 5 1 24. Let the coefficient of xr in the expansion of
x
x 3 x 3 x 2
2 2 n 1 n 2
5 1 5 1
, x 3 x 2 ....... x 2
n 3 2 n 1
2 2
5 1
n
2 2
5 1 be r . If n n , , N, then the value
12 12
2 2 r
=36
r 0
4
of equals __________.
2 2
x 3 x 3 x 2 x 3
n 1 n 2 n 3
C lies on 2x – y = 5 and the point D lies on
x 2 ........ x 2
2 n 1
3x – 2y = 6, then the value of is
Ans. (32) n 1
3 3 2 3
n 1
4 1 .....
Sol.- 4 4 4
n
D , 3
1
4n 1
C , 4
6
2y =
3x – P 3
1
4
A(-2,-1) 4 3 n
n n n
B(1,0) 2x – y = 5
4, 3
2 1 1 2 2 16 9 25
P , ,
2 2 2 2
25. Let A be a 3 3 matrix and det (A) = 2. If
2 1 1
and
2 2 2 2
3.....(1), 1......(2)
n det adj adj ...... adjA
2024-times
Also, , lies on 3x – 2y = 6
Then the remainder when n is divided by 9 is equal
3 2 6 ......(3) to ___________.
and , lies on 2x – y = 5 Ans. (7)
2 5.........(4) Sol.- A 2
32 22024
A
222024
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22024 22 22022 4 8
674
4 9 1
674 x 2 x3 x 2 x3
ax 2 1 x ..... b x .......
2! 3! 2 3
22024 4 mod 9 x 2
x 3
Sol.- cx 1 x .......
x! 3!
22024 9m 4, m even lim
x 0 3 sin x
x.
x
29m4 16 . 23 16 mod 9
3m
c b x c a x 2 a x 3 ......
b b c
lim 2 3 2
1
7 x x3
Sol.- a b c 2 a b 24ˆj 6kˆ 28. A line passes through A(4, –6, –2) and B(16, –2,4).
5iˆ ˆj 4kˆ c 2 7iˆ 7ˆj 7kˆ 24ˆj 6kˆ The point P(a, b, c) where a, b, c are non-negative
integers, on the line AB lies at a distance of 21
ˆi ˆj kˆ
units, from the point A. The distance between the
5 1 4 14iˆ 10ˆj 20kˆ
points P(a, b, c) and Q(4, –12, 3) is equal to ____.
x y z
Ans. (22)
ˆi z 4y ˆj 5z 4x kˆ 5y x 14iˆ 10ˆj 20kˆ
Sol.-
z 4y 14, 4x 5z 10,5y x 20
x4 x6 z2
a b i .c 3
12 4 6
2iˆ 3jˆ 2kˆ .c 3 x4 y6 z2
21
2x 3y 2z 3 6 2 3
7 7 7
x 5, y 3, z 2
6 2 3
c 25 9 4 38 21 4, 21 6, 21 2
2
7 7 7
22, 0, 7 a, b, c
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Sol.- 30. Let A = {1, 2, 3, ………100}. Let R be a relation
dx 2y
sec 2 x e tan 2 x tan x 0 on A defined by (x, y) R if and only if 2x = 3y.
dy
dx dt Let R1 be a symmetric relation on A such that
Put tan x t sec x
2
I.F. e e y
dy
ue y e y e 2y dy
1
e y e y c
tan x
x , y 0, c 0
4
x , y=
6
3e e 0
e2 3
e8 9
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PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A Sol.
31. A light string passing over a smooth light fixed
pulley connects two blocks of masses m1 and m2 .
If the acceleration of the system is g/8, then the
ratio of masses is
M iA
= 5 0.2 0.1 iˆ
= 0.1 iˆ
(1)
9
(2)
8
M B 0.1 iˆ 2 10 3 ˆj
7 1
4 5
= 2 104 kˆ N m
(3) (4)
3 3 33. The measured value of the length of a simple
Ans. (1) pendulum is 20 cm with 2 mm accuracy. The time
for 50 oscillations was measured to be 40 seconds
Sol. a
m1 m2 g g
with 1 second resolution. From these
m1 m2 8
measurements, the accuracy in the measurement of
8m1 8m 2 m1 m 2 acceleration due to gravity is N%. The value of N
7m1 9m 2 is:
(1) 4 (2) 8
m1 9
(3) 6 (4) 5
m2 7
Ans. (3)
32. A uniform magnetic field of 2 103 T acts along
Sol. T 2
positive Y-direction. A rectangular loop of sides 20 g
cm and 10 cm with current of 5 A is Y-Z plane.
42
The current is in anticlockwise sense with g
T2
reference to negative X axis. Magnitude and g 2T
direction of the torque is : g T
(1) 2 104 N m along positive Z –direction 0.2 1
4
2
(2) 2 10 N m along negative Z-direction 20 40
(3) 2 104 N m along positive X-direction 0.3
=
(4) 2 104 N m along positive Y-direction 20
0.3
Ans. (2) Percentage change = 100 = 6%
20
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34. Force between two point charges q1 and q 2 37. The speed of sound in oxygen at S.T.P. will be
placed in vacuum at ‘r’ cm apart is F. Force approximately:
between them when placed in a medium having (Given, R 8.3 JK1 , 1.4)
dielectric K = 5 at ‘r/5’ cm apart will be:
(1) 310 m / s
(1) F/25 (2) 5F
(3) F/5 (4) 25F (2) 333 m/s
Ans. (2) (3) 341 m/s
1 q1q 2 (4) 325 m/s
Sol. In air F
40 r2 Ans. (1)
In medium RT 1.4 8.3 273
Sol. v
1 q1q 2 25 q1q 2 M 32 103
F' 5F
4 K 0 r ' 2
4 5 0 r 2 314.8541 315 m / s
35. An AC voltage V 20sin200t is applied to a 38. A gas mixture consists of 8 moles of argon and 6
series LCR circuit which drives a current moles of oxygen at temperature T. Neglecting all
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the
I 10 sin 200t . The average power
3 system is
dissipated is: (1) 29 RT
(1) 21.6 W (2) 200 W (2) 20 RT
(3) 173.2 W (4) 50 W
(3) 27 RT
Ans. (4)
(4) 21 RT
Sol. P IV cos
Ans. (3)
20 10
cos60
o
Sol. U nC V T
2 2
50 W U n1CV1 T n 2CV2 T
36. When unpolarized light is incident at an angle of 3R 5R
8 T 6 T
60° on a transparent medium from air. The 2 2
reflected ray is completely polarized. The angle of = 27RT
refraction in the medium is
39. The resistance per centimeter of a meter bridge
(1) 30 0 (2) 60 0
wire is r, with X resistance in left gap. Balancing
0 0
(3) 90 (4) 45 length from left end is at 40 cm with 25
Ans. (1)
resistance in right gap. Now the wire is replaced by
Sol. By Brewster’s law
another wire of 2r resistance per centimeter. The
new balancing length for same settings will be at
(1) 20 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 80 cm
(4) 40 cm
At complete reflection refracted ray and reflected
Ans. (4)
ray are perpendicular.
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X 25 42. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a rough inclined
surface as shown in the figure.
Sol. 1
G
=0.
g
5k
1=40c 2=60cm
25 X
.....(i) 300
r 1 r 2
25 X If F1 is the force required to just move the block
..... (ii)
2r '1 2r '2
up the inclined plane and F2 is the force required
From (i) and (ii)
'2 2 40 cm to just prevent the block from sliding down, then
40. Given below are two statements: the value of F1 F2 is : [Use g 10m / s2 ]
Statement I: Electromagnetic waves carry energy
as they travel through space and this energy is (1) 25 3 N (2) 50 3 N
equally shared by the electric and magnetic fields. 5 3
Statement II: When electromagnetic waves strike (3) N (4) 10 N
2
a surface, a pressure is exerted on the surface.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Ans. ( √ ) BONUS
most appropriate answer from the options given Sol. f K mg cos
below:
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 50 3
0.1
correct 2
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 2.5 3 N
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect.
Ans. (2)
1 B2
Sol. 0 E 2
2 20
1
E CB and C
0 0 F1 mg sin f K
41. In a photoelectric effect experiment a light of
25 2.5 3
frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is
made to fall on the surface of photosensitive
material. Now if the frequency is halved and
intensity is doubled, the number of photo electrons
emitted will be:
(1) Doubled (2) Quadrupled
(3) Zero (4) Halved
Ans. (3)
f
Sol. Since f 0 F2 mg sin f K
2 i.e. the incident frequency is less
than threshold frequency. Hence there will be no 25 2.5 3
emission of photoelectrons.
F1 F2 5 3 N
current 0
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43. By what percentage will the illumination of the R2
Sol. R1
lamp decrease if the current drops by 20%? 2
(1) 46% (2) 26% R0
R 0 A1 A2
1/3 1/3
(3) 36% (4) 56% 2
Ans. (3) 1
A1 A2
Sol. P i2R 8
192
Pint I2int R A1 24
8
Pfinal 0.8 Iint R 46. The mass of the moon is 1/144 times the mass of a
2
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48. A body of mass 2 kg begins to move under the Sol.
action of a time dependent force given by
F 6t iˆ 6t 2 ˆj N . The power developed by the
(3) 9t 5
6t W3
If A = 0 ; A 1
(4) 9t 3
6t W5
Sol.
F 6t iˆ 6t 2 ˆj N B = 0 ; B 1
F ma 6tiˆ 6t 2 ˆj B=1; B0
a
F
3tiˆ 3t2ˆj
Y = A B A B = 1 1 = 0
m
t 50. Consider two physical quantities A and B related
3t 2 ˆ 3 ˆ
v adt it j
2 B x2
0
to each other as E where E, x and t have
At
P F.v 9t3 6t5 W
dimensions of energy, length and time
49.
respectively. The dimension of AB is
(2) L2 M1T1
(4) L0 M1T1
The output of the given circuit diagram is Ans. (2)
Sol. B L2
(1) (2)
x2 L2 1
A
2
tE TML T 2 MT 1
A M1T
AB L2 M 1T1
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
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SECTION-B 53. The magnetic flux (in weber) linked with a
51. In the following circuit, the battery has an emf of 2 closed circuit of resistance 8 Ω varies with time (in
2 seconds) as 5t2 36t 1 . The induced current
V and an internal resistance of . The power
3 in the circuit at t = 2s is _______ A.
consumption in the entire circuit is ______ W. Ans. (2)
d
Sol. 10t 36
dt
at t 2, 16 V
16
i 2A
R 8
54. Two blocks of mass 2 kg and 4 kg are connected
by a metal wire going over a smooth pulley as
shown in figure. The radius of wire is 4.0 105
m and Young's modulus of the metal is
Ans. (3) 2.0 1011 N / m2 . The longitudinal strain
4 1
Sol. R eq developed in the wire is . The value of
3
V2 4 is____. [Use g 10 m / s2 )
P 3W
R eq 4 / 3
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Sol. 57. The distance between charges +q and –q is 2l and
0
between +2 q and -2 q is 4l . The electrostatic
ucos45 potential at point P at a distance r from centre O is
u ql
0
H 2 109 V , where the value of is
45 r
O
1
u 2 sin 2 ______. (Use 9 109 Nm2C 2 )
L mu cos 40
2g
1
mu 3 x 8
4 2g
Ans. (20) r
0
Sol. 120 60 0
Pnet 6q
K p.r 9 10 6q
9
V
r3
r2
cos 1200
q
= 27 2 109 Nm2 c 2
r
0 Ni1 0 1 100 27
BP 2 10 3 T
2r 2 58. Two identical spheres each of mass 2 kg and radius
50 cm are fixed at the ends of a light rod so that the
0 Ni 2 0 2 100 separation between the centers is 150 cm. Then,
BQ 4 10 3 T moment of inertia of the system about an axis
2r 2
perpendicular to the rod and passing through its
x
Bnet B2P BQ2 middle point is kg m2 , where the value of x is
20
____.
= 20 mT Ans. (53)
x = 20
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Sol. 2k . k 5k
Sol. k eq k
2 kg 2 kg 3k 3
I
m k eq
Angular frequency of oscillation
c cm
50 50
m
5k
150 cm
3m
75 cm
2 3m
2 Period of oscillation 2
I mR2 md 2 2 5k
5
12m
2 1
2
3 53
2
I 2 2 2 kg m2 5k
5 2
4
20
60. A nucleus has mass number A1 and volume V1 .
X = 53
Another nucleus has mass number A2 and volume
59. The time period of simple harmonic motion of
V2 . If relation between mass number is A2 4 A1 ,
M
mass M in the given figure is , where the
5K V2
then ________.
value of is _______. V1
Ans. (4)
Sol. For a nucleus
4
Volume: V R3
3
R R0 A
1/3
4
V R30 A
3
V2 A 2
4
Ans. (12) V1 A1
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CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 62. A sample of CaCO3 and MgCO3 weighed 2.21 g
is ignited to constant weight of 1.152 g. The
61. Match List I with List II
composition of mixture is :
LIST – I LIST – II (Given molar mass in g mol1
CaCO3 :100, MgCO3 :84 )
(Complex ion) (Electronic
Configuration (1) 1.187 g CaCO3 1.023 g MgCO3
A. Cr H 2 O 6
3 I. t 2g 2 eg0 (2) 1.023 g CaCO3 1.023 g MgCO3
(3) 1.187 g CaCO3 1.187 g MgCO3
Sol:- CaCO3 s
CaO s CO2 g
C. Ni H 2 O 6
2 III. 3
t 2g eg 2
MgCO3 s
MgO s CO2 g
3 2.21 x
Fe H 2 O 6 Contains Fe3 : Ar 3d 5 : t 32g eg2 weight of MgO formed 40
84
2 2.21 x x
Ni H 2 O 6
Contains Ni 2 : Ar 3d8 : t 62g eg2 40 56 1.152
84 100
3 x 1.1886 g weight of CaCO3
V H 2 O 6
Contains V 3 : Ar 3d 2 : t 22g ego
& weight of MgCO3 1.0214 g
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63. Identify A and B in the following reaction sequence. Sol:-
Br
S 1 : S 8 12 OH 4S 2 2S 2 O 32 6H 2 O
Conc. HNO 3 (i) NaOH
A B S2 : ClO4 cannot undergo disproportionation
(ii) HCl
reaction as chlorine is present in it’s highest
Br OH
oxidation state.
NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2
(1) A= , B= 65. Identify major product ‘P’ formed in the following
reaction.
NO2 NO2
Br Br O
OH Anhydrous
C ‘P’
(2) A= , B= Cl AlCl3
+ (Major Product)
NO2 NO2
Br Br O
NO2 OH
(1) O C
(3) A= , B=
Cl
NO2 OH
NO2 NO2
(2) COCH 3
(4) A= , B=
OH
Ans. (1)
Br Br OH
NO2 NO2
Sol:- Con. HNO3 (i)NaOH
NO2 NO2 O
NO2 NO2
(3) C
H
(Acid base
NaOH reaction)
OH O Na
+ O
NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2
(ii) HCl
(4) C
NO2 NO2
64. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: S8 solid undergoes
disproportionation reaction under alkaline Ans. (4)
2
conditions to form S2 and S2 O3
Statement II: ClO4 can undergo ..
O
O
O
..
..
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66. Major product of the following reaction is – Br
1
Sol:- 2
3
4 5
_
D Cl
? Br
CH3
H
CH3
H Cl H H 3C number of unpaired electrons = 2
(±) (±) 69. The azo-dye (Y) formed in the following reactions
is Sulphanilic acid NaNO2 CH3COOH X
67. Identify structure of 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane.
Br Br X+ Y
1. NH 2
HSO 3 N=N
Br 1.
N=N SO 3H
2. HO3S N=N NH 2
Br
2.
Br HO3S N=N
HSO 3 N=N
3.
Br 3.
NH 2
Br
HSO 3 N=N NH 2
4.
4.
Br
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Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (31-01-2024) Evening Session
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O NH 2 NH3 HSO 4 NH2
||
Sol:- NH2 N N O C CH3 Conc. H 2SO 4 453-473K Lassaigne’s test 2
Fe SCN
Sol:-
Blood red colour
NaNO2 CH3COOH SO3H
C
71. A g B g g The correct relationship
SO3 H SO3 H 2
X
O
between KP , and equilibrium pressure P is
||
N N O C CH3 1 1
2 P 2
(1) K P
2
1
+ 2
3 1
2 P 2
SO3 H NH2
(2) K P
2 2 1
1
1 3
2 P 2
(3) K P
2
3
HO3S NN NH2 2
1 1
Y 2 P 2
Red azo-dye
(4) K P
2
3
2
Ans. (2)
This is known as Griess-Ilosvay test.
C
Sol:- A g
B g g
2
70. Given below are two statements :
t = teq 1
2
Statement I: Aniline reacts with con. H2SO4
followed by heating at 453-473 K gives p- PB
. P, PA
1
. P , PC 2 .P
aminobenzene sulphonic acid, which gives blood 1 1 1
2 2 2
red colour in the 'Lassaigne's test'. 1
P .P 2
KP B C
Statement II: In Friedel - Craft's alkylation and PA
acylation reactions, aniline forms salt with the 3 1
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 23)
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Sol:- (A) All group 16 elements form oxides of the Sol:- Steam distillation technique is applied to separate
EO2 and EO3 type where E S, Se, Te or Po . substances which are steam volatile and are
immiscible with water.
(B) SO2 is reducing while TeO2 is an oxidising
76. Given below are two statements :
agent.
(C) The reducing property increases from H 2S to Statement I: Group 13 trivalent halides get easily
hydrolyzed by water due to their covalent nature.
H2Te down the group.
Statement II: AlCl3 upon hydrolysis in acidified
.. 3
O ..
have six lone pairs aqueous solution forms octahedral Al H 2 O 6
O
..
(D) O ..
..
..
ion.
73. Identify the name reaction.
CHO In the light of the above statements, choose the
CO, HCl correct answer from the options given below :
Anhyd. AlCl3/CuCl 1. Statement I is true but statement II is false
(1) Stephen reaction
2. Statement I is false but statement II is true
(2) Etard reaction
(3) Gatterman-koch reaction 3. Both statement I and statement II are false
(4) Rosenmund reduction 4. Both statement I and statement II are true
Ans. (3) Ans. (4)
Sol:-
CHO Sol:- In trivalent state most of the compounds being
CO, HCl covalent are hydrolysed in water. Trichlorides on
Anhyd. AlCl3/CuCl hydrolysis in water form tetrahedral M OH 4
Gatterman-Koch reaction species, the hybridisation state of element M is
74. Which of the following is least ionic ? sp3.
(1) BaCl2 (2) AgCl In case of aluminium, acidified aqueous solution
(3) KCl (4) CoCl2 3
forms octahedral Al H 2 O 6 ion.
Ans. (2)
77. The four quantum numbers for the electron in the
Sol:- AgCl CoCl2 BaCl2 KCl (ionic character)
outer most orbital of potassium (atomic no. 19) are
Reason : Ag has pseudo inert gas configuration. 1
(1) n 4, l = 2, m 1, s
75. The fragrance of flowers is due to the presence of 2
some steam volatile organic compounds called 1
(2) n 4, l = 0, m 0 , s
essential oils. These are generally insoluble in 2
water at room temperature but are miscible with 1
(3) n 3, l = 0, m 1 , s
water vapour in vapour phase. A suitable method 2
for the extraction of these oils from the flowers is - (4) n 2 , l = 0, m 0 , s
1
1. crystallisation 2
2. distillation under reduced pressure Ans. (2)
3. distillation Sol:- 19 K 1s2 , 2s2 , 2p6 , 3s2 , 3p6 , 4s1 .
4. steam distillation Outermost orbital of potassium is 4s orbital
Ans. (4) 1
n 4, l 0, ml 0, s .
2
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78. Choose the correct statements from the following Sol:- CH3 shows M and I .
A. Mn 2O7 is an oil at room temperature Cl shows M and I but inductive effect
dominates.
B. V2O4 reacts with acid to give VO22 NO2 shows M and I .
1. A, B and D only
80. Consider the following elements.
2. A and C only A'B' Period
Group
3. A, B and C only C'D'
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Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (31-01-2024) Evening Session
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SECTION-B 84. Number of isomeric products formed by mono-
chlorination of 2-methylbutane in presence of
81. A diatomic molecule has a dipole moment of
sunlight is _______.
1.2 D. If the bond distance is 1Å , then fractional
charge on each atom is ______ 101 esu . Ans. (6)
Sol:- 1.2 D q d * + Cl
1.2 1010 esu Å q 1Å
Cl
q 1.2 1010 esu
84 Ans. (11)
Number of amino group in x 2
42
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 26)
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Sol:- Specific gravity (density) = 1.54 g/cc.
89. From the vitamins A, B1 , B6 , B12 , C, D, E and K,
Volume 1L 1000 ml
the number vitamins that can be stored in our body
Mass of solution 1.54 1000
is ______.
1540 g
% purity of H2SO4 is 70% Ans. (5)
So weight of H3PO4 0.7 1540 1078 g Sol:- Vitamins A, D, E, K and B12 are stored in liver
1078 and adipose tissue.
Mole of H3PO4 = 11
98 90. If 5 moles of an ideal gas expands from 10 L to a
11 volume of 100 L at 300 K under isothermal and
Molarity 11
1L reversible condition then work, w, is x J. The
88. The values of conductivity of some materials at value of x is ______.
298.15 K in Sm1 are 2.1103 ,
(Given R 8.314 J K1mol1 )
1.0 1016 ,1.2 10, 3.91,1.5 102 ,
1107 ,1.0 103 . The number of conductors Ans. (28721)
among the materials is ______. Sol:- It is isothermal reversible expansion, so work done
Ans. (4) negative
Sol:-
Conductivity S m -1 V
W 2.303 nRT log 2
2.1 103 V1
1.2 10 conductors at 298.15K
3.91
1 103 100
2.303 5 8.314 300 log
1 1016 Insulator at 298.15 K 10
1 107
1.5 102 Semiconductor at 298.15 K 28720.713 J
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 27)
Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Morning Session
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINA ION – JANUARY,
T 2024
(Held On Thursday 01st February, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
1
1
y2
2. The value of the integral dy
16 0 y 2 1
4
xdx y2
sin 4
(2 x) cos 4 (2 x)
equals :
1
0 Put y p
y
2 2 2 2
(1) (2) dp
8 16 I
2
16 p2 2
2 2
2 2
(3) (4)
32 64 1 p
tan
Ans. (3) 16 2 2
2
I
16 2
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2 1 Sol.
1 0 T
3. If A = , B = , C = ABA and X Finding tan (A + B) we get
1 2 1 1 tan (A + B) =
= ATC2A, then det X is equal to : 1 x
(1) 243 tan A tan B x( x x 1)
2
x x 1
2
(2) 729 1 tan A tan B 1
1
x x 1
2
(3) 27
(4) 891
tan (A + B) =
1 x x2 x 1
Ans. (2) x 2
x x
1 x
Sol.
x2 x 1
2 1
A det( A) 3 x 2
x x
1 2
1 0 x2 x 1
tan( A B) tan C
B det( B) 1 x x
1 1
A B C
Now C = ABAT det(C) = (dct (A))2 x det(B)
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6. LetS={ z C : z 1 1 and Sol. Median = 170 125, a, b, 170, 190, 210, 230
Mean deviation about
2 1 z z i z z 2 2 }. Let z1, z2
Median =
S be such that z1 max z and z2 min z . 0 45 60 20 40 170 a 170 b 205
zs zs
2 7 7
Then 2z1 z2 equals :
a + b = 300
(1) 1 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 2 Mean = 170 125 230 190 210 a b 175
7
Ans. (4)
Mean deviation
Sol. Let Z = x + iy
Then (x - 1)2 + y2 = 1 (1) About mean =
&
2 1 2 x i (2iy ) 2 2
50 175 a 175 b 5 15 35 55
7
= 30
( 2 1) x y 2 (2)
8. Let a 5iˆ ˆj 3kˆ, b iˆ 2 ˆj 4kˆ and
Solving (1) & (2) we get
Either x = 1 or x
1
(3)
c a b iˆ iˆ iˆ. Then c iˆ ˆj kˆ is
2 2
equal to
On solving (3) with (2) we get
For x = 1 y = 1 Z2 = 1 + i
& for (1) –12 (2) –10
1 1 1 i (3) –13 (4) –15
x y 2 Z1 1
2 2 2 2 2 Ans. (1)
Now
2
Sol. a 5iˆ j 3kˆ
2 z1 z2
b iˆ 2 ˆj 4kˆ
2
1
1 2 i (1 i)
2
(a b ) iˆ a iˆ b b iˆ a
2 5b a
2
2 5b a iˆ iˆ
7. Let the median and the mean deviation about the
median of 7 observation 170, 125, 230, 190, 210, a, b 11 ˆj 23kˆ iˆ iˆ
205
be 170 and respectively. Then the mean
7
11kˆ 23 ˆj iˆ
deviation about the mean of these 7 observations is :
(1) 31
(2) 28
11 ˆj 23kˆ
(3) 30 c . iˆ ˆj kˆ 11 23 12
(4) 32
Ans. (3)
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Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Morning Session
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9. Let S = {x R : ( 3 2) x ( 3 2) x 10}. 11. Let f : R R and g : R R be defined as
Then the number of elements in S is : loge x , x0
f(x) = x and
(1) 4 (2) 0 e , x0
(3) 2 (4) 1
x , x0
Ans. (3) g(x) = x . Then, gof : R R is :
e , x0
3 2
x x
Sol. 3 2 10
(1) one-one but not onto
Let 3 2 t
x
(2) neither one-one nor onto
(3) onto but not one-one
1
t 10 (4) both one-one and onto
t
Ans. (2)
t2 – 10t + 1 = 0
Sol.
10 100 4
t 52 6 f ( x), f ( x) 0
2 g(f(x)) =
e , f ( x) 0
f ( x)
x 2
3 2 3 2
e x , , 0
x = 2 or x = –2
Number of solutions = 2 g(f(x)) = eln x , (0,1)
10. The area enclosed by the curves xy + 4y = 16 and ln x, 1,
x + y = 6 is equal to :
(1) 28 – 30 log e 2 (2) 30 – 28 log e 2
(3) 30 – 32 log e 2 (4) 32 – 30 log e 2
Ans. (3) (0,1)
Sol. xy + 4y = 16 , x+y=6
y(x + 4) = 16 ____(1) , x + y = 6___(2)
(1,0)
on solving, (1) & (2)
we get x = 4, x = –2
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 4)
Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Morning Session
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Sol. Using family of planes dy
2x + 3y –z – 5 = k1 (x + y + 3z + 4) + k2 (3x – y Sol. dx 2 x( x y) x( x y) 1
3
+ z - 7)
x y t
2 = k1 + 3k2, 3 = k1 - k2, -1 = 3k1 + k2, -5 =
4k1 – 7k2 dt
1 2 xt 3 xt 1
On solving we get dx
13 1 16
k2 , k1 , 70, dt
19 19 13 xdx
2t 3 t
16
13 = 13 (-70) 13 tdt
xdx
1120 2t t 2
4
13. For 0 < < /2, if the eccentricity of the hyperbola Let t 2 z
x2 – y2cosec2 = 5 is 7 times eccentricity of the
dz
ellipse x2 cosec2 + y2 = 5, then the value of is :
5
2 2z 2
z
xdx
(1) (2)
6 12
dz
(3)
3
(4)
4
1
xdx
4z z
Ans. (3) 2
Sol.
1
eh 1 sin 2 z
ln 2 x2 k
ec 1 sin 2 z
eh 7ec
1 sin 2 7(1 sin 2 ) z
1
6 3 2 e
sin 2
8 4 15. Let f : R R be defined as
3
sin a b cos 2x
2 ; x0
x2
2
f(x) = x cx 2 ; 0 x 1
3 2x 1 ; x 1
14. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
dy
equation = 2x (x + y)3 – x (x + y) – 1, y(0) = 1.
dx
If f is continuous everywhere in R and m is the
2
1 1
Then, y equals : number of points where f is NOT differential then
2 2
m + a + b + c equals :
4 3
(1) (2) (1) 1 (2) 4
4 e 3 e
2 1 (3) 3 (4) 2
(3) (4)
1 e 2 e Ans. (4)
Ans. (4)
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 5)
Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Morning Session
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Sol. At x = 1, f(x) is continuous therefore, x2 y2
16. Let = 1, a > b be an ellipse, whose
f(1–) = f(1) = f(1+) a2 b2
f(1) = 3 + c ….(1) 1
eccentricity is and the length of the latus
+
f(1 ) = lim 2(1 + h) + 1 2
h0
rectum is 14 . Then the square of the eccentricity
+
f(1 ) = lim 3 + 2h = 3 ….(2)
h0 x2 y2
of = 1 is :
from (1) & (2) a2 b2
lim
2
a b b 2h 2 h 4 ...
3 17.
2
Let 3, a, b, c be in A.P. and 3, a – 1, b + l, c + 9 be
h 0 h2 in G.P. Then, the arithmetic mean of a, b and c is :
(1) –4 (2) –1
for limit to exist a – b = 0 and limit is 2b ….(5)
(3) 13 (4) 11
from (3), (4) & (5)
Ans. (4)
a=b=1 Sol.
checking differentiability at x = 0 3, a, b, c A.P 3, 3+d, 3+2d, 3+3d
1 cos 2h 3, a–1,b +1, c + 9 G.P 3, 2+d, 4+2d, 12+3d
2
h2 2 d 3 4 2d
2
LHD : lim a=3+d
h 0 h
b = 3 + 2d d = 4, -2
4h 2 16h 4 c = 3 + 3d
1 1 ... 2h 2
lim 2! 4! 0 If d = 4 G.P 3, 6, 12, 24
h 0 h3 a=7
0 h 2 2 2 b = 11
RHD : lim 0 c = 15
h0 h
abc
Function is differentiable at every point in its domain 11
3
m=0
m+a+b+c=0+1+1+0=2
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 6)
Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Morning Session
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18. Let C : x2 + y2 = 4 and C’ : x2 + y2 - 4x + 9 = 0 be 1
19. If 5f(x) + 4f = x2 – 2, x 0 and y = 9x2f(x),
two circles. If the set of all values of so that the x
circles C and C’ intersect at two distinct points, is then y is strictly increasing in :
R– [a, b], then the point (8a + 12, 16b – 20) lies on 1 1
(1) 0, ,
5 5
the curve :
(1) x2 + 2y2 – 5x + 6y = 3 1 1
(2) ,0 ,
5 5
(2) 5x2 – y = – 11
1 1
(3) x2 – 4y2 = 7 (3) ,0 0,
5 5
(4) 6x2 + y2 = 42
1 1
(4) , 0,
Ans. (4) 5 5
Sol. x2 + y2 = 4 Ans. (2)
C (0, 0) r1 = 2 1
Sol. 5 f(x) + 4 f = x2 – 2, x 0 …(1)
x
C' (2, 0) r2 = 4 2 9
1
Substitute x
|r1 – r2| < CC' < |r1 + r2| x
1 1
2 4 2 9 2 2 4 2 9 5 f 4 f x 2 2 …(2)
x x
On solving (1) and (2)
4 + 42 – 9 – 4 4 2 9 < 42
5x 4 2x 2 4
f x
True R…. (1) 9x 2
y = 9x2f(x)
2 2
4 < 4 + 4 – 9 + 4 4 9
2
y = 5x4 – 2x2 – 4 …(3)
9 dy
5 < 4 4 9 and
2
2 20x3 4x
4 dx
for strictly increasing
25 3 3
< 42 – 9 , , dy
16 2 2 0
dx
169
2 4x(5x2 – 1) > 0
64
1 1
x ,0 ,
13 13
5 5
, , …(2)
8 8
20. If the shortest distance between the lines
from (1) and (2) x y 2 z 1 x 3 y 1 z 2
and
13 13 13 13 2 1 1 1 2 1
, , R – 8 , 8
8 8 is 1, then the sum of all possible values of is :
13 13 (1) 0 (2) 2 3
as per question a and b
8 8 (3) 3 3 (4) 2 3
Ans. (2)
required point is (–1, 6) with satisfies option (4)
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Sol. Passing points of lines L1 & L2 are 22. The number of elements in the set
, 2,1 & 3,1, 2 S = {(x, y, z) : x, y,z Z, x + 2y + 3z = 42, x, y, z
3 1 1 0} equals __________.
2 1 1
Ans. (169)
1 2 1
S.D = Sol. x + 2y + 3z = 42, x, y, z 0
iˆ ˆj kˆ
2 1 1 z=0 x + 2y = 42 22
1 2 1
z=1 x + 2y = 39 20
3
1= z=2 x + 2y = 36 19
3
z=3 x + 2y = 33 17
0, 2 3
SECTION-B z=4 x + 2y = 30 16
dx 2x (t 1)4 z=9 x + 2y = 15 8
dt t 1
z = 10 x + 2y = 12 7
dx 2x
= (t + 1)3
dt t 1 z = 11 x + 2y = 9 5
2
dt 1
F = e t 1 = e2ln(t 1) = z = 12 x + 2y = 6 4
(t 1)2
z = 13 x + 2y = 3 2
x 1
(t 1) dt c
3
(t 1)2 (t 1)2 z = 14 x + 2y = 0 1
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6 7 8
x 1 1 x 2
1 x 3 392
30 n 1
Sol. coeff of x in 6 12
x
33 66 n
coeff. of x in 1 x 1 x 1 x
6 7 8
36 2 3
n 33
General term 33
Sum 22 32 12
2
Cr1 7Cr2 8Cr3 1 3 x r1 2r2 3r3
6 r
=6699
r1 2r2 3r3 36 25. Let {x} denote the fractional part of x and
r1 r2 r3 equal to ____________.
1 7 7 Ans. (18)
Case-II : r1 2r2 15 (Taking r3 = 7)
3 6 7 Sol. Finding right hand limit
5 5 7
lim f x lim f 0 h
x 0 h 0
r1 r2 r3
lim f h
Case-III : 4 7 6 r1 2r2 18 (Taking r3 = 6) h 0
6 6 6
cos 1 (1 h 2 ) sin 1 (1 h)
lim
Coeff. = 7 + (15 × 21) + (15 × 35) + (35) h 0 h(1 h 2 )
–(6 × 8) – (20 × 7 × 8) – (6 × 21 × 8) + (15 × 28)
= lim
cos1 1 h 2 sin 1 1
+ (7 × 28) = –678 =
h 0 h 1
Let cos1 1 h 2 cos 1 h 2
24. Let 3, 7, 11, 15, ...., 403 and 2, 5, 8, 11, . . ., 404
be two arithmetic progressions. Then the sum, of lim
2 0
1 cos
the common terms in them, is equal to _________.
1
Ans. (6699) lim
2 0 1 cos
Sol. 3, 7, 11, 15, ….., 403
2
2, 5, 8, 11, …., 404
1
LCM (4, 3) = 12
2 1/ 2
11, 23, 35,….. let (403)
403 = 11 + (n - 1) x 12 R
2
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Now finding left hand limit Sol. x2 + y2 = 3 and x2 = 2y
L lim f x y2 + 2y – 3 = 0 (y + 3) (y – 1) = 0
x 0
lim f h y = – 3 or y = 1
h 0
lim
2
cos1 1 h sin 1 1 h y=1x= 2 P( 2,1)
h h
h 0 3
lim
2
cos1 1 h 1 sin 1 1 h 1
2x y
h 1 h 1
h 0 3
2( 2) 1
lim
cos1 h 2 2h sin 1 h 3
1 h 1 1 h
h 0 2
For circle C1
1
sin h Q1 lies on y axis
lim
h 0 2
1 1 h
2
Let Q1 0, coordinates
sin 1 h
lim 2
2 h 0 h 2h R1 = 2 3 (Given
= 16 + 2 3 6 or 3 6
= 18
9 3
26. Let the line L : 2 x + y = pass through the point
of the intersection P (in the first quadrant) of the circle 2 1 1
x2 + y2 = 3 and the parabola x2 = 2y. Let the line L 1
PQ1Q2 0 9 1
2
touch two circles C1 and C2 of equal radius 2 3 . If 0 3 1
the centres Q1 and Q2 of the circles C1 and C2 lie on the
y-axis, then the square of the area of the triangle
1
2
2(12) 6 2
PQ1Q2 72
2
PQ1Q2 is equal to ___________.
Ans. (72)
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27. Let P = {z : |z + 2 – 3i | 1} and 8 2 cos xdx
= + loge (3 + 2
2
28. If
Q = {z : z (l + i) + z (1 – i) –8} . Let in 2 (1 esin x )(1 sin 4 x)
Apply king
1 2
8 2 cos x esin x
(–2,3) 2 I
1 esin x 1 sin 4 x
dx
....(2)
2
31 5 2
So 31
5
36
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Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Morning Session
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0 dz 2
dk ˆi ˆj kˆ
4 2 2 2
z 2 k 2 b d 1 1 1
2 1 1 1
1 z
0
1 k 2
4 2 tan 1 ln
2 2 2 2 k 2 0iˆ 2ˆj 2kˆ (DR's of Line perpendicular to
1 2 2 L1and L2)
4 2 ln
2 2 2 2 2 2 DR of AB line
2
3 3 3
2 0 2 2
L2 : r 4iˆ 5jˆ 6kˆ ˆi ˆj kˆ 5 7 15
B , ,
2 2 2
intersect L1 and L2 at P and Q
5
respectively. If ( , , ) is the midpoint Point of AB = , 2, 6 , ,
2
of the line segment PQ, then 2( + + )
2() = 5 + 4 + 12 = 21
is equal to ___________.
30. Let A= {1, 2, 3, . . 20}. Let R1 and R2 two
Ans. (21)
relation on A such that
R1 = {(a, b) : b is divisible by a}
Sol.
R2 = {(a, b) : a is an integral multiple of b}.
to ________.
Ans. (46)
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n(R1) = 66
n R1 R 2 20
n R1 R 2 n R1 n R1 R 2
n R1 20
= 66 – 20
R1 – R2 = 46 Pair
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PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 33. In the given circuit if the power rating of Zener
31. With rise in temperature, the Young's modulus of diode is 10 mW, the value of series resistance Rs to
elasticity regulate the input unregulated supply is :
RS
(1) changes erratically
+
(2) decreases
(3) increases Vs RL = 1k
Vz = 5V
8V
(4) remains unchanged
–
Ans. (2)
(1) 5k (2) 10
Sol. Conceptual questions
(3) 1k (4) 10k
32. If R is the radius of the earth and the acceleration
Ans. (BONUS)
due to gravity on the surface of earth is g = 2 m/s2, RS Is I
then the length of the second's pendulum at a Iz
V1
height h = 2R from the surface of earth will be,: Sol.
V s = 8V 1k
Vz = 5V
2
(1) m
9
1 Pd across Rs
(2) m V1 = 8 – 5 = 3V
9
4 Current through the load resistor
(3) m 5
9 I= = 5mA
1 103
8
(4) m Maximum current through Zener diode
9
Ans. (2) 10
Iz max. = = 2mA
5
GMe 1
Sol. g’ = g 2 And minimum current through Zener diode
(3R) 9
Iz min. = 0
T = 2 Is max. = 5 + 2 = 7mA
g' V1 3
And Rs min = k
Since the time period of second pendulum is 2 sec. Is max . 7
T = 2 sec Similarly
Is min. = 5mA
2 = 2 9
g V1 3
And Rs max. = = k
Is min. 5
1
m
9 3 3
k < Rs < k
7 5
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34. The reading in the ideal voltmeter (V) shown in the 36. Two moles a monoatomic gas is mixed with six
given circuit diagram is : moles of a diatomic gas. The molar specific heat of
0.2 0.2 0.2 the mixture at constant volume is :
5V 5V 5V 9 7
0.2 (1) R (2) R
5V V 4 4
0.2 5V
3 5
0.2 0.2 0.2 (3) R (4) R
2 2
5V 5V 5V Ans. (1)
(1) 5V (2) 10V
n1Cv1 n 2Cv2
(3) 0 V (4) 3V Sol. CV =
n1 n 2
Ans. (3)
5
E eq 85 2 R 6 R
Sol. i = = 2 2
req 8 0.2 26
I = 25A 9
= R
V = E – ir 4
= 5 – 0.2 × 25 37. A ball of mass 0.5 kg is attached to a string of
=0 length 50 cm. The ball is rotated on a horizontal
35. Two identical capacitors have same capacitance C. circular path about its vertical axis. The maximum
One of them is charged to the potential V and other tension that the string can bear is 400 N. The
to the potential 2V. The negative ends of both are maximum possible value of angular velocity of the
connected together. When the positive ends are ball in rad/s is,:
also joined together, the decrease in energy of the (1) 1600 (2) 40
combined system is : (3) 1000 (4) 20
1 Ans. (2)
(1) CV 2
4 Sol. T = m2
(2) 2 CV2 400 = 0.52 × 0.5
1 = 40 rad/s.
(3) CV 2
2 38. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance
3 C = 200 pF. It is connected to 230 V ac supply
(4) CV 2
4 with an angular frequency 300 rad/s. The rms
Ans. (1) value of conduction current in the circuit and
q net CV 2CV displacement current in the capacitor respectively
Sol. VC =
Cnet 2C are :
VC =
3V (1) 1.38 A and 1.38 A
2 (2) 14.3 A and 143 A
Loss of energy (3) 13.8 A and 138 A
2
1 1 1 3V (4) 13.8 A and 13.8 A
= CV 2 C(2V) 2 2C
2 2 2 2 Ans. (4)
CV 2 Sol. I =
V
= 230 × 300 × 200 × 10–12 = 13.8 A
= XC
4
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39. The pressure and volume of an ideal gas are related 41. The de Broglie wavelengths of a proton and an
3/2
as PV = K (Constant). The work done when the particle are and 2 respectively. The ratio of the
gas is taken from state A (P1, V1, T1) to state
velocities of proton and particle will be :
B (P2, V2, T2) is :
(1) 1 : 8
(1) 2(P1V1 – P2V2)
(2) 1 : 2
(2) 2(P2V2 – P1V1)
(3) 4 : 1
(3) 2( P1 V1 P2 V2 )
(4) 8 : 1
(4) 2(P2 V2 P1 V1 )
Ans. (4)
Ans. (1 or 2)
h h h
Sol. For PVx = constant Sol. = v=
p mv m
If work done by gas is asked then
vp m
nRT
W= v mp p
1 x
3 =4×2=8
Here x =
2 42. 10 divisions on the main scale of a Vernier calliper
P V PV coincide with 11 divisions on the Vernier scale. If
W= 2 2 1 1
1
each division on the main scale is of 5 units, the
2
= 2(P1V1 – P2V2) ….. Option (1) is correct least count of the instrument is :
If work done by external is asked then 1
(1)
W = –2(P1V1 – P2V2) ….. Option (2) is correct 2
40. A galvanometer has a resistance of 50 and it 10
(2)
allows maximum current of 5 mA. It can be 11
converted into voltmeter to measure upto 100 V by 50
(3)
connecting in series a resistor of resistance 11
(1) 5975 5
(4)
(2) 20050 11
(3) 19950 Ans. (4)
(4) 19500 Sol. 10 MSD = 11 VSD
Ans. (3) 10
1 VSD = MSD
Sol. 11
Rg R LC = 1MSD – 1VSD
Ig
G 10
= 1 MSD MSD
V 100 11
R= Rg 50
Ig 5 103 1MSD
=
= 20000 – 50 11
= 19950 5
= units
11
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43. In series LCR circuit, the capacitance is changed 45. The dimensional formula of angular impulse is :
from C to 4C. To keep the resonance frequency (1) [M L–2 T–1] (2) [M L2 T–2]
unchanged, the new inductance should be : (3) [M L T–1] (4) [M L2 T–1]
1 Ans. (4)
(1) reduced by L
4 Sol. Angular impulse = change in angular momentum.
(2) increased by 2L [Angular impulse] = [Angular momentum] = [mvr]
3 = [M L2 T–1]
(3) reduced by L 46. A simple pendulum of length 1 m has a wooden
4
(4) increased to 4L bob of mass 1 kg. It is struck by a bullet of mass
Ans. (3) 10–2 kg moving with a speed of 2 × 102 ms–1.
The bullet gets embedded into the bob. The height
Sol. ’ =
to which the bob rises before swinging back is.
1 1
(use g = 10 m/s2)
L'C' LC (1) 0.30 m (2) 0.20 m
L’C’ = LC (3) 0.35 m (4) 0.40 m
L’(4C) = LC Ans. (2)
L
L’ =
4
3L 1m
Inductance must be decreased by
4
m
44. The radius (r), length (l) and resistance (R) of a u M
Sol.
metal wire was measured in the laboratory as
mu = (M + m)V
r = (0.35 ± 0.05) cm
10–2 × 2 × 102 1 × V
R = (100 ± 10) ohm
V 2m/s
l = (15 ± 0.2) cm
The percentage error in resistivity of the material V2
h= = 0.2 m
2g
of the wire is :
(1) 25.6% (2) 39.9% 47. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with
(3) 37.3% (4) 35.6% uniform speed takes time T to complete one
Ans. (2) revolution. If this particle is projected with the
same speed at an angle to the horizontal, the
Sol. = R maximum height attained by it is equal to 4R. The
angle of projection is then given by :
R r
2 1 1
R r
2gT 2 2 2R 2
10 0.05 0.2 (1) sin 1 2 (2) sin 1 2
= 2 R 2gT
100 0.35 15
1 1
=
1 2 1
2gT 2 2 R 2
10 7 75 (3) cos 1 2 (4) cos 1 2
R 2gT
= 39.9% Ans. (1)
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2R 50. A monochromatic light of wavelength 6000Å is
Sol. =V
T incident on the single slit of width 0.01 mm. If the
v sin
2 2
diffraction pattern is formed at the focus of the
Maximum height H =
2g
convex lens of focal length 20 cm, the linear width
4 2 R 2
4R = 2
sin 2 of the central maximum is :
T 2g
(1) 60 mm
2
2gT (2) 24 mm
sin =
2R
(3) 120 mm
1
2gT 2 2 (4) 12 mm
= sin 1 2
R Ans. (2)
48. Consider a block and trolley system as shown in Sol. Linear width
figure. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between
2d 2 6 107 0.2
the trolley and the surface is 0.04, the acceleration W=
a 1 105
of the system in ms–2 is :
(Consider that the string is massless and = 2.4 × 10–2 = 24 mm
unstretchable and the pulley is also massless and SECTION-B
frictionless) : 51. A regular polygon of 6 sides is formed by bending
20 kg
a wire of length 4 meter. If an electric current of
fk 4 3 A is flowing through the sides of the
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52. A rectangular loop of sides 12 cm and 5 cm, with 12 10 2
Motional emf in BC = 2 = B0 v
its sides parallel to the x-axis and y-axis 10
respectively moves with a velocity of 5 cm/s in the
eq = 2 – 1 = 300 × 10–7 V
positive x axis direction, in a space containing a
For time variation
variable magnetic field in the positive z direction.
dB
The field has a gradient of 10–3T/cm along the (eq)’ = A = 60 × 10–7 V
dt
negative x direction and it is decreasing with time (eq)net = eq + (eq)’ = 360 × 10–7 V
at the rate of 10–3 T/s. If the resistance of the loop
eq net
2
is 6 m, the power dissipated by the loop as heat is Power = = 216 × 10–9 W
R
_______ × 10–9 W.
53. The distance between object and its 3 times
Ans. (216)
magnified virtual image as produced by a convex
y
lens is 20 cm. The focal length of the lens used is
B A V = 5cm/s __________ cm.
B
Ans. (15)
2 1
Sol. x
C D
(012, 0) (0, 0) I O
u
Sol. V
v = 3u
B – B0 = –10–1x f = 15 cm
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56. The identical spheres each of mass 2M are placed
at the corners of a right angled triangle with
mutually perpendicular sides equal to 4 m each.
F
Sol. Taking point of intersection of these two sides as
r
/2 origin, the magnitude of position vector of the
mg 4 2
centre of mass of the system is , where the
x
F q2 value of x is ___________
In air tan
2 mg 40r 2mg
Ans. (3)
2M
F' q2
In water tan =
2 mg ' 40r r 2 mgeff
Sol.
4m
Equate both equations
1
0g = 0r g 1 2M 4m 2M
1.5
m 1 r1 m 2 r2 m 3 r3
Position vector rCOM
r = 3 m1 m 2 m 3
55. The radius of a nucleus of mass number 64 is
2M 0 2M 4iˆ 2M 4ˆj
rCOM
4.8 fermi. Then the mass number of another 6M
4 4
nucleus having radius of 4 fermi is
1000
, where r ˆi ˆj
x 3 3
x is _____. 4 2
| r |
3
Ans. (27) x=3
Sol. R = R0A1/3 57. A tuning fork resonates with a sonometer wire of
length 1 m stretched with a tension of 6 N. When
R3 A
the tension in the wire is changed to 54 N, the
3
4.8 64 same tuning fork produces 12 beats per second
4 A with it. The frequency of the tuning fork is
64 _______ Hz.
1.2
3
=
A Ans. (6)
64 1 T
Sol. f =
1.44 1.2 2L
A
1 6 1 54
64 1000 f1 = f2 =
A 2 2
1.44 1.2 x
f1 1
144 12 f2 – f1 = 12
x = 27 f2 3
64
f1 = 6HZ
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58. A plane is in level flight at constant speed and each 60. A particle is moving in one dimension
2
of its two wings has an area of 40 m . If the speed (along x axis) under the action of a variable force.
of the air is 180 km/h over the lower wing surface
It's initial position was 16 m right of origin. The
and 252 km/h over the upper wing surface, the
variation of its position (x) with time (t) is given as
mass of the plane is ________kg. (Take air density
to be 1 kg m–3 and g = 10 ms–2) x = –3t3 + 18t2 + 16t, where x is in m and t is in s.
Ans. (9600) The velocity of the particle when its acceleration
2
Sol. A = 80 m becomes zero is _________ m/s.
Using Bernonlli equation Ans. (52)
1
A(P2 – P1) = V12 V22 A
2
Sol. x = 3t3 + 18t2 + 16t
1 v = –9t2 + 36 + 16
mg = × 1 (702 – 502) × 80
2 a = – 18t + 36
mg = 40 × 2400 a = 0 at t = 2s
m = 9600 kg v = –9(2)2 + 36 × 2 + 16
59. The current in a conductor is expressed as
v = 52 m/s
I = 3t2 + 4t3, where I is in Ampere and t is in
second. The amount of electric charge that flows
through a section of the conductor during t = 1s to
t = 2s is ____________ C.
Ans. (22)
2 2
Sol. q = i dt (3t 2 4t 3 )dt
1 1
2
q = t3 t 4
1
q = 22C
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CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 63. In acidic medium, K2Cr2O7 shows oxidising action
NOON
61. If one strand of a DNA has the sequence as represented in the half reaction
ATGCTTCA, sequence of the bases in Cr2 O27 XH Ye 2A ZH2 O
complementary strand is: X, Y, Z and A are respectively are:
(1) CATTAGCT (2) TACGAAGT (1) 8, 6, 4 and Cr2O3 (2) 14, 7, 6 and Cr3+
(3) GTACTTAC (4) ATGCGACT (3) 8, 4, 6 and Cr2O3 (4) 14, 6, 7 and Cr3+
Ans. (2) Ans. (4)
Sol. Adenine base pairs with thymine with 2 hydrogen Sol. The balanced reaction is,
bonds and cytosine base pairs with guanine with 3 Cr2 O27 14H 6e 2Cr 3 7H 2 O
hydrogen bonds. X = 14
A T G C T T C A DNA strand Y=6
Hydrogen bonds A=7
T A C G A A G T Complementary strand
64. Which of the following reactions are
62. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as disproportionation reactions?
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (A) Cu+ Cu2+ + Cu
(R). (B) 3MnO24 4H 2MnO4 MnO2 2H2O
Assertion (A) : Haloalkanes react with KCN to (C) 2KMnO4 K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
form alkyl cyanides as a main product while with (D) 2MnO4 3Mn 2 2H2 O 5MnO2 4H
AgCN form isocyanide as the main product. Choose the correct answer from the options given
Reason (R) : KCN and AgCN both are highly below:
ionic compounds. (1) (A), (B) (2) (B), (C), (D)
In the light of the above statement, choose the most (3) (A), (B), (C) (4) (A), (D)
appropriate answer from the options given below: Ans. (1)
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct Sol. When a particular oxidation state becomes less
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the stable relative to other oxidation state, one lower,
one higher, it is said to undergo disproportionation.
correct explanation of (A)
Cu+ Cu2+ + Cu
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 3MnO24 4H 2MnO4 MnO2 2H2O
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the 65. In case of isoelectronic species the size of F–, Ne
correct explanation of (A) and Na+ is affected by:
Ans. (1) (1) Principal quantum number (n)
(2) None of the factors because their size is the
(i) KCN + R — X R—CN same
(Ionic) (Ma jor product) (3) Electron-electron interaction in the outer
Sol. .. orbitals
(ii) AgCN + R — X R—NC
(Covalent) (Ma jor product) (4) Nuclear charge (z)
AgCN is mainly covalent in nature and nitrogen is Ans. (4)
Sol. In F–, Ne, Na+ all have 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 configuration.
available for attack, so alkyl isocyanide is formed They have different size due to the difference in
as main product. nuclear charge.
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66. According to the wave-particle duality of matter by Sol. [Ni(H2O)6]+2 Green colour solution due to d-d
de-Broglie, which of the following graph plot transition.
presents most appropriate relationship between [Ni(CN)4]–2 is diamagnetic and it is colourless.
68. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
wavelength of electron () and momentum of
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
electron (p)? Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : PH3 has lower boiling point than NH3.
Reason (R) : In liquid state NH3 molecules are
p associated through vander waal’s forces, but PH3
(1) (2) molecules are associated through hydrogen bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
p most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) (4) (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
1/p p (4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Ans. (1) Ans. (4)
Sol. Unlike NH3, PH3 molecules are not associated
h 1 through hydrogen bonding in liquid state. That is
Sol.
p p why the boiling point of PH3 is lower than NH3.
p = h (constant) 69. Identify A and B in the following sequence of
reaction
So, the plot is a rectangular hyperbola. CH3
Cl2 / h
A
H2 O
373K
B
COCl CHO
(1) (A) = (B) =
p
67. Given below are two statements: CHCl2 CHO
Statement (I): A solution of [Ni(H2O)6]2+ is green (2) (A) = (B) =
in colour.
Statement (II): A solution of [Ni(CN)4]2– is CH2 Cl CHO
colourless.
(3) (A) = (B) =
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given CHCl2 COOH
below: (4) (A) = (B) =
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Ans. (2)
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Sol.
CH3 CHCl2 CHO
correct
Cl 2 /h
H2 O
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is 373 K
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70. Given below are two statements: 73. Ionic reactions with organic compounds proceed
Statement (I) : Aminobenzene and aniline are through:
same organic compounds. (A) Homolytic bond cleavage
Statement (II) : Aminobenzene and aniline are (B) Heterolytic bond cleavage
(4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (1) CIF3 < N2 < SO2 < K2O < LiF
(2) LiF < K2O < CIF3 < SO2 < N2
Ans. (1)
(3) N2 < SO2 < CIF3 < K2O < LiF
Sol. In Homoleptic complex all the ligand attached with
(4) N2 < CIF3 < SO2 < K2O < LiF
the central atom should be the same. Hence
Ans. (3)
[Ni(CN)4]2– is a homoleptic complex.
Sol. Increasing order of ionic character
72. Which of the following compound will most easily
N2 < SO2 < ClF3 < K2O < LiF
be attacked by an electrophile? Ionic character depends upon difference of
CH3 electronegativity (bond polarity).
(1) (2) 75. We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl labelled
as ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ with concentration 0.1 M,
Cl OH 0.01M & 0.001 M, respectively. The value of van
(3) (4) t’ Haft factor (i) for these solutions will be in the
order.
Ans. (4) (1) iA < iB < iC
Sol. Higher the electron density in the benzene ring (2) iA < iC < iB
more easily it will be attacked by an electrophile. (3) iA = iB = iC
(4) iA > iB > iC
Phenol has the highest electron density amongst all
Ans. (1)
the given compound.
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Sol. Sol. DIBAL H, H2 O
CH3 (CH 2 )5 COOC 2 H 5 CH 3 (CH 2 ) 5 CHO
Salt Values of i (for different conc. of a Salt)
0.1 M 0.01 M 0.001 M C6 H5COC6 H5
Zn(Hg) & conc. HCl
C6 H5CH2 C6 H5
NaCl 1.87 1.94 1.94
C6 H5CHO
CH3MgBr
C6 H5CH OH CH3
i approach 2 as the solution become very dilute. H2 O
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SECTION-B Sol. SrSO4 – white
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86. Total number of deactivating groups in aromatic Sol. Acidic oxide: Cl2O7, SiO2, N2O5
electrophilic substitution reaction among the Neutral oxide: CO, NO, N2O
following is
Amphoteric oxide: Al2O3 , SnO2 , PbO2
O O
89. Consider the following reaction:
CH3,
OCH3, –N CH3 , –N –C N, –OCH3
3PbCl2 + 2(NH4)3PO4 Pb3(PO4)2 + 6NH4Cl
H H
If 72 mmol of PbCl2 is mixed with 50 mmol of
Ans. (2)
Sol. (NH4)3PO4 , then amount of Pb3(PO4)2 formed is
O O …… mmol. (nearest integer)
CH3,
–C N, –OCH3 Ans. (24)
OCH3, –N CH3 , –N
H H Sol. Limiting Reagent is PbCl2
(–M group) (+M group) (+M group) (–M group) (+M group)
mmol of Pb3(PO4)2 formed
87. Lowest Oxidation number of an atom in a
compound A2B is -2. The number of an electron in mmol of PbCl2 reacted
=
its valence shell is 3
Ans. (6) = 24 mmol
+ –2 -2
Sol. A2B 2A + B , B has complete octet in its di- 90. Ka for CH3COOH is 1.8 × 10– 5 and Kb for NH4OH
anionic form, thus in its atomic state it has 6 is 1.8 × 10–5. The pH of ammonium acetate
electrons in its valence shell. As it has negative
solution will be
charge, it has acquired two electrons to complete
its octet. Ans. (7)
88. Among the following oxide of p - block elements, pK w pK a pK b
Sol. pH
number of oxides having amphoteric nature is 2
Cl2O7, CO, PbO2, N2O, NO, Al2O3, SiO2, N2O5, pKa = pKb
SnO2 pK w
Ans. (3) pH 7
2
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FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Thursday 01st February, 2024) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 06 : 00 PM
1 3
3 2
the value of (– is : Sol. I 2x 3x x 1 dx
0
80
(1) (2) 9 2a
9 Using f x dx = 0 where f(2a–x) = –f(x)
0
20
(3) (4) 8 Here f(1–x) = –f(x)
3
I=0
Ans. (1)
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x 2 y2 13
18
5. Let P be a point on the ellipse 1 . Let the 2
9 4 x 2x 3
Sol.
line passing through P and parallel to y-axis meet 3
the circle x2 + y2 = 9 at point Q such that P and Q 1
12
2
6
are on the same side of the x-axis. Then, the x3 x3 18 1 1
t 7 18c6 2 c6 12 . 26
eccentricity of the locus of the point R on PQ such 3 3
that PR : RQ = 4 : 3 as P moves on the ellipse, is : 6 12
11 13 1 2
(1) (2) x3 x3 1 1
19 21 t13 18c12 2
18
c12 . 12 .x –6
3 2
6
3
139 13
(3) (4)
23 7 m 18c6 .3–12.2–6 : n 18c12 .2–12.3–6
Ans. (4) 1 1
n 3 2 –12.3–6 3 3 2 9
12 6
Q x2 y2 m 3 .2 2 4
P 1
9 4 7. Let be a non-zero real number. Suppose f : R
P(3cos , 2sin ) R is a differentiable function such that f (0) = 2 and
Q(3cos , 3sin) lim f x 1 . If f '(x) = f(x) +3, for all x R,
x
then f (–loge2) is equal to____.
Sol. (1) 3 (2) 5
4 3 (3) 9 (4) 7
P R Q Ans. (Bonus)
(3C, 2S) (h, k) (3C, 3S) Sol. f(0) = 2, lim f x 1
x
h = 3cos; f (x) – .f(x) = 3
18 I.F = e–x
k sin
7 y(e–x) = 3.ex dx
x 2 49y 2 3ex
locus = 1 f(x). (e–x) = c
9 324
3 3
324 117 13 x=0 2 c c2 (1)
e 1
49 9 21 7
3
6. Let m and n be the coefficients of seventh and f(x) = c.ex
thirteenth terms respectively in the expansion of Case-I > 0
18 1 3
1 x – 1 = c(0)
1 x3 1 . Then n 3
is :
3 2 m = –3 (rejected)
2x 3 Case-II < 0
4 1 3
(1) (2) as lim f (x) 1 c = 0 and 1 = –3
9 9 x
1 9 f(x) = 1 (rejected)
(3) (4) as f(0) = 2
4 4
data is inconsistent
Ans. (4) Ans. (Bonus)
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8. Let P and Q be the points on the line A (1,3,2)
x 3 y 4 z 1
which are at a distance of 6
8 2 2
units from the point R (1,2,3). If the centroid of the
1: 1
triangle PQR is (,,), then 2+2 +2 is:
B D C (3, 6, 7)
(1) 26 (–2, 8, 0) 1 7
2 , 7, 2
(2) 36 Sol.
(3) 18 A(1, 3, 2); B(–2, 8, 0); C(3, 6, 7);
(4) 24 AC 2iˆ 3jˆ 5kˆ
Ans. (3)
AB = 9 25 4 38
Sol.
R(1,2,3)
AC = 4 9 25 38
38
t10 15 a 9d 15
(2) 8a 3d (2)
2 t5 7 a 4d 7
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Sol. |z| 1
3
4
11. If cos x dx a b 3 , where a and b are
0
/3 3
Min. value of z 2i is actually zero.
Sol.
0
cos 4 xdx 2
/3
x 2 25
1 cos 2x
2
13. If the domain of the function f(x) =
2
dx
(4 x 2 )
+log10 (x2 + 2x – 15) is (– , ) U [,), then
0
/3
1 2 + 3 is equal to :
4 0
(1 2cos 2x cos 2 2x)dx
(1) 140 (2) 175
(3) 150 (4) 125
1 1 cos 4x
/3 /3 /3
4 0
dx 2 cos 2x dx
0
0
2
dx
Ans. (3)
x 2 25
1 1 1 Sol. ƒ(x) = + log10(x2 + 2x - 15)
(sin 2x)0 /3 (sin 4x) 0 /3 4x 2
4 3 2 3 8 Domain : x2 – 25 0 x (–, -5] [5, )
1 1 1 4 – x2 0 x {–2, 2}
(sin 2x)0 /3 (sin 4x) 0 /3
4 3 2 3 8 x2 + 2x – 15 > 0 (x + 5) (x – 3) > 0
x (–, –5) (3, )
1 3 1 3 x (–, –5) [5,)
4 2 2 8 2
= –5; = 5
7 3 3= 150
14. Consider the relations R1 and R2 defined as aR1b
8 64
1 7 a2 + b2 = 1 for all a , b, R and (a, b) R2(c, d)
a ; b
8 64 a + d = b + c for all (a,b), (c,d) N × N. Then
9 7 (1) Only R1 is an equivalence relation
9a + 8b = 2
8 8 (2) Only R2 is an equivalence relation
12. If z is a complex number such that |z|1, then the (3) R1 and R2 both are equivalence relations
(4) Neither R1 nor R2 is an equivalence relation
1
minimum value of z (3 4i) is: Ans. (2)
2
Sol. aR1 b a2 + b2 = 1; a, b R
5
(1) (2) 2 (a, b) R2 (c, d) a + d = b + c; (a, b), (c, d) N
2
for R1 : Not reflexive symmetric not transitive
3
(3) 3 (4) for R2 : R2 is reflexive, symmetric and transitive
2
Hence only R2 is equivalence relation.
Ans. (Bonus)
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15. If the mirror image of the point P(3,4,9) in the line x 1; x even
Sol. ƒ(x) =
x 1 y 1 z 2 2x; x odd
is (,,), then 14 (+ + )
3 2 1 ƒ(ƒ(ƒ(a))) = 21
is : C–1: If a = even
(1) 102 (2) 138 ƒ(a) = a – 1 = odd
(3) 108 (4) 132 f(f(a)) = 2(a – 1) = even
Ans. (3)
ƒ(ƒ(ƒ(a))) = 2a – 3 = 21 a = 12
P(3, 4, 9)
Sol. C–2: If a = odd
ƒ(a) = 2a = even
ƒ(ƒ(a)) = 2a – 1 = odd
N ƒ(ƒ(ƒ(a))) = 4a – 2 = 21 (Not possible)
(3 + 1, 2 –1, + 2)
Hence a = 12
Now
A(,)
x 3 x
PN.b 0 ? lim
x 12 12 12
3(3 – 2) + 2 (2 – 5) + ( – 7) = 0
| x |3 x
14 = 23
23 lim lim
14 x 12 12 x 12 12
83 32 51 = 144 – 0 = 144.
N , ,
14 14 14 17. Let the system of equations x + 2y +3z = 5,
3 83 62 2x + 3y + z = 9, 4x + 3y + z = have infinite
number of solutions. Then + 2is equal to :
2 14 7
(1) 28 (2) 17
4 32 4
(3) 22 (4) 15
2 14 7
Ans. (2)
9 51 12
Sol. x + 2y + 3z = 5
2 14 7
2x + 3y + z = 9
Ans. 14 (r) = 108
4x + 3y + z = µ
x 1, x is even, for infinite following = 1 = 2 = 3 = 0
16. Let f(x) = x N. If for some
2x, x is odd, 1 2 3
| x |3 x 2 3 1 = 0 –13
a N, f(f(f(a))) = 21, then xlim ,
a
a a 4 3
where [t] denotes the greatest integer less than or 5 2 3
equal to t, is equal to : 9 3 1 = 0 = 15
(1) 121 µ 3 13
(2) 144 1 5 3
(3) 169 2 9 1 = 0
(4) 225
4 15 13
Ans. (2)
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1 2 5 19. Let Ajay will not appear in JEE exam with
2 3 9 = 0 2
probability p = , while both Ajay and Vijay will
4 3 15 7
(x
i 1
i ) 2 x i 10 2
i 1
Sol. 35 5
6 xi
Mean µ 2
5 10 P(A) p
7
xi
1
P(A V) q
10
5
Now (xi 1
i )2 40 Let yi = xi –
P(A)
5
7
1
2
2y yi2 (y) 18
10 Ans. P(A V)
2
35
10
1 (x i ) 20. Let the locus of the mid points of the chords of
2x (x i ) i 1 circle x2+(y–1)2 =1 drawn from the origin intersect
2
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r2 + r – 1 > 0
C(0, 1)
, 1 5 1 5
,
(0,0)
r (2)
m(h,k) O 2 2
Sol.
mOM . mCM = –1 Taking intersection of (1) , (2)
k k 1
. 1 1 5 1 5
h h r ,
locus is x2 + y(y – 1) = 0 2 2
x2 + y 2 – y = 0
As r > 1
1 5
1 r 1,
0, 2
2
x+y–1=0 [r] = 1 [ –r] = – 2
P Q
3 [ r] + [ – r] = 1
1/ 2 1
p p
2 2 2 22. Let A = I2 – 2MMT, where M is real matrix of
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x
25. Let a ˆi ˆj kˆ , b ˆi 8jˆ 2kˆ and
23. Let f : (0, ) R and F(x) tf(t)dt . If F(x2) =
0
12
c 4iˆ c2 ˆj c3 kˆ be three vectors such that
4 5
x + x , then f(r
r 1
2
) is equal to :
b a c a . If the angle between the vector
Ans. (219)
x c and the vector 3iˆ 4ˆj kˆ is , then the greatest
Sol. F(x) = t f (t)dt
0
integer less than or equal to tan2 is :
F1(x) = xf(x)
Given F(x2) = x4 + x5, let x2 = t Ans. (38)
2 5/2
F(t) = t + t
F’(t) = 2t + 5/2 t3/2 Sol. a i j k
3/2
t·f(t) = 2t + 5/2 t
f(t) = 2 + 5/2 t1/2 b ˆi 8jˆ 2kˆ
12
2
12 5
f (r ) 2 r c 4i c2 j c3 k
r 1 r 1 2
12(13)
= 24 + 5/2 ba ca
2
=219
b c a 0
24. If y
x 1 x x 2
1 (3cos 2
x 5)cos3 x ,
x x x x 15 b c
then 96y' is equal to : b c
6
Ans. (105)
i 8j 2k 4i c2 j c3 k i j k
Sol. y
x 1 x x 2
+ 1
(3cos2x–5)cos3x
x x x x 15 + 4 = –1 = – 5
x x x 1
2
5 3 + c3 = 2 c3 = 7
y x 1 1
5
1
cos5x – cos3x
x 1 +
3
c 4i 3j 7k
4 2
y’ = 1 – cos x· (sinx) + cos x (sinx)
12 12 7 7 7
cos
9 1 3 1 26 74 26 74 2 481
y ' 1
6 16 2 4 2
32 9 12 35 625 3
tan 2
32 32 49
[tan2] = 38
= 96 y ' = 105
6
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26. The lines L1, L2, …, L20 are distinct. For 0 0 l
a
Sol. L1, L3, L5, - - L19 are Parallel x2 x3
a b ab x
2 3
L2, L4, L6, - - L20 are Concurrent b
27. Three points O(0,0), P(a, a2), Q(–b, b2), a > 0, b > 0, a b 2 ab (a 2 b2 ab)
S1 2 3
are on the parabola y = x2. Let S1 be the area of the
S2 ab
region bounded by the line PQ and the parabola, 2
and S2 be the area of the triangle OPQ. If the
3(a b)2 6ab 2(a 2 b2 ab)
S m
minimum value of 1 is , gcd(m, n) = 1, then 3ab
S2 n
m + n is equal to :
1 a b
2
Ans. (7) 3 b a
min 2
Sol.
4 m
m+n=7
Q 3 n
(–b, b2 )
P 28. The sum of squares of all possible values of k, for
(a, a2 )
which area of the region bounded by the parabolas
to :
Ans. (8)
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Sol. ky2 = 2(y – x) 2y2 = kx dx 1 x y 2
29. If , x(1) = 1, then 5x(2) is equal to :
dy y
Point of intersection
Ans. (5)
2y 2
ky 2 2 y dx x 1 y 2
k Sol.
dy y y
1 2y
y=0 ky 2 1
k dy
1
Integrating factor = e y
y
4y
ky 2 1 1 y2
k x 2 dy
y y
2 2k
y x 1
k
4 2
k 4 yc
k y y
2k
x = –1 – y2 + cy
k2 4
ky2 2y2
A y x(1) = 1
.dy
0 2 k
1=–1–1+cc=3
2k
x = – 1 – y2 + 3y
y 2 k 2 y3 k2 4
2 2 k 3 5x (2) = 5(– 1 – 4 + 6)
0
=5
2
2k 1 k 4 1 2k 2
2 2 30. Let ABC be an isosceles triangle in which A is at
k 4 2 2k 3 k 4
2
(–1, 0), A , AB = AC and B is on the
2 3
1 1
4 positive x-axis. If BC 4 3 and the line BC
6 k 4
k 4
intersects the line y = x + 3 at (, ), then is :
2
4
k Ans. (36)
k
A M G M 2
2 Sol.
C
4
k 4 30°
k
120°
30°
4
Area is maximum when k A(–1,0) B(b,0)
k
c 4 3
[By sine rule]
k = 2, –2 sin 30 sin120
2c = 8 c = 4
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AB b 1 4
b = 3, mAB = 0
1
mBC
3
1
BC:- y (x 3)
3
3y x 3
Point of intersection : y = x + 3, 3y x 3
3 1 y 6
6
y
3 1
6
x 3
3 1
63 3 3
3 1
3
1 3 6
1 3 1 3 2
4
36
2
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PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A 32. To measure the temperature coefficient of resistivity
through the galvanometer. If resistance of the shown in the figure is prepared. The arm BC is
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33. From the statements given below :
(A) The angular momentum of an electron in nth into gravitational potential energy. And rotational
orbit is an integral multiple of h. KE remains unchanged as there is no friction.
(B) Nuclear forces do not obey inverse square law.
1
(C) Nuclear forces are spin dependent. mv 2 mgh
2
(D) Nuclear forces are central and charge
independent. v2
h
(E) Stability of nucleus is inversely proportional to 2g
the value of packing fraction. 36. Conductivity of a photodiode starts changing only
Choose the correct answer from the options given if the wavelength of incident light is less than
below :
660 nm. The band gap of photodiode is found to be
(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) only
(2) (A), (C), (D), (E) only X
8 eV . The value of X is :
(3) (A), (B), (C), (E) only
(4) (B), (C), (D), (E) only (Given, h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js, e = 1.6 × 10–19C)
Ans. (3) (1) 15 (2) 11
Sol. Part of theory
(3) 13 (4) 21
34. A diatomic gas ( = 1.4) does 200 J of work when
Ans. (1)
it is expanded isobarically. The heat given to the
gas in the process is : hc 6.6 1034 3 108
Sol. Eg J
(1) 850 J (2) 800 J 660 109
(3) 600 J (4) 700 J 6.6 10 34 3 108
eV
Ans. (4) 660 10 9 1.6 10 19
2 2 15
Sol. = 1 + = 1.4 0.4 eV
f f 8
f=5 So x = 15
W = n R T = 200J
37. A big drop is formed by coalescing 1000 small
f 2 droplets of water. The surface energy will become :
Q nRT
2 (1) 100 times (2) 10 times
7
200 = 700 J 1 1
2 (3) th (4) th
100 10
35. A disc of radius R and mass M is rolling
Ans. (4)
horizontally without slipping with speed . It then
Sol. Lets say radius of small droplets is r and that of big
moves up an inclined smooth surface as shown in
figure. The maximum height that the disc can go drop is R
up the incline is : 4 4
R3 1000 r 3
3 3
R = 10r
h
Ui = 1000 (4r2S)
2 3 2 Uf = 4R2S
(1) (2)
g 4 g = 100 (4r2S)
1 2 2 2 1
(3) (4) Uf = Ui
2 g 3 g 10
Ans. (3)
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38. If frequency of electromagnetic wave is 60 MHz Sol. For first minima a sin =
and it travels in air along z direction then the 1
sin
corresponding electric and magnetic field vectors a 2
will be mutually perpendicular to each other and = 30°
the wavelength of the wave (in m) is : Angular spread = 60°
(1) 2.5 (2) 10 42. C1 and C2 are two hollow concentric cubes
(3) 5 (4) 2 enclosing charges 2Q and 3Q respectively as
Ans. (3)
shown in figure. The ratio of electric flux passing
c 3 108
Sol. 5m through C1 and C2 is :
f 60 106
39. A cricket player catches a ball of mass 120 g
moving with 25 m/s speed. If the catching process
is completed in 0.1 s then the magnitude of force
exerted by the ball on the hand of player will be 3Q 2Q
(in SI unit):
(1) 24 (2) 12 (1) 2 : 5 (2) 5 : 2
(3) 25 (4) 30
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
Ans. (4)
Ans. (1)
p
Sol. Fav 2Q
t Sol. smaller cube
0
0.12 25
30N
0.1 5Q
bigger cube
40. Monochromatic light of frequency 6 × 10 Hz 14
0
is produced by a laser. The power emitted is
smaller cube 2
2 × 10–3 W. How many photons per second on an
bigger cube 5
average, are emitted by the source ?
(Given h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js) 43. If the root mean square velocity of hydrogen
(1) 9 × 1018 (2) 6 × 1015 molecule at a given temperature and pressure is
(3) 5 × 1015 (4) 7 × 1016 2 km/s, the root mean square velocity of oxygen at
Ans. (3) the same condition in km/s is :
Sol. P = nh
(1) 2.0 (2) 0.5
P 2 103
n (3) 1.5 (4) 1.0
h 6.63 1034 6 1014
= 5 × 1015 Ans. (2)
41. A microwave of wavelength 2.0 cm falls normally 3RT
Sol. Vrms
on a slit of width 4.0 cm. The angular spread of the M
central maxima of the diffraction pattern obtained
V1 M2 2 32
on a screen 1.5 m away from the slit, will be:
V2 M1 V2 2
(1) 30° (2) 15°
(3) 60° (4) 45° V2 = 0.5 km/s
Ans. (3)
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44. Train A is moving along two parallel rail tracks 4 C2
towards north with speed 72 km/h and train B is
moving towards south with speed 108 km/h.
2
Sol. C1
Velocity of train B with respect to A and velocity 6
–1
of ground with respect to B are (in ms ) :
I
(1) –30 and 50
(2) –50 and –30 I 6V
(3) –50 and 30 In steady state
(4) 50 and –30 Req = 12
Ans. (3) 6
I 0.5A
12
Sol. B
30 m/s P.D across C1 = 3V
20 m/s P.D acoross C2 = 4V
A q1 = C1V1 = 12 C
VA = 20 m/s q2 = C2V2 = 24 C
VB = –30 m/s q1 1
Velocity of B w.r.t. A q2 2
VB/A = – 50 m/s 46. In a metre-bridge when a resistance in the left gap
Velocity of ground w.r.t. B is 2 and unknown resistance in the right gap, the
VG/B = 30 m/s balance length is found to be 40 cm. On shunting
45. A galvanometer (G) of 2 resistance is connected the unknown resistance with 2, the balance
in the given circuit. The ratio of charge stored in length changes by :
(1) 22.5 cm (2) 20 cm
C1 and C2 is :
(3) 62.5 cm (4) 65 cm
4 6F Ans. (1)
G C2 2 X
C1
6 Sol.
4F G
100 –
2 X
6V First case X 3
40 60
2 23
(1) In second case X ' 1.2
3 23
3 2 1.2
(2)
2 100
(3) 1 200 – 2 = 1.2
1
(4) 200
2 62.5cm
3.2
Ans. (4)
Balance length changes by 22.5 cm
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47. Match List - I with List - II. 50. A body of mass 4 kg experiences two forces
List - I List - II F1 5iˆ 8jˆ 7kˆ and F2 3iˆ 4jˆ 3kˆ . The
(Number) (Significant figure)
acceleration acting on the body is :
(A) 1001 (I) 3
(B) 010.1 (II) 4 (1) 2iˆ ˆj kˆ
(C) 100.100 (III) 5 (2) 4iˆ 2jˆ 2kˆ
(D) 0.0010010 (IV) 6
(3) 2iˆ ˆj kˆ
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below : (4) 2iˆ 3jˆ 3kˆ
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) Ans. (3)
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Sol. Net force = 8iˆ 4jˆ 4kˆ
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
F
(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) a 2iˆ ˆj kˆ
Ans. (3) m
Sol. Theoretical SECTION-B
48. A transformer has an efficiency of 80% and 51. A mass m is suspended from a spring of negligible
works at 10 V and 4 kW. If the secondary voltage mass and the system oscillates with a frequency f1. The
is 240 V, then the current in the secondary coil is : frequency of oscillations if a mass 9 m is suspended
(1) 1.59 A (2) 13.33 A
f1
(3) 1.33 A (4) 15.1 A from the same spring is f2. The value of is ___.
f2
Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
ES IS
Sol. Efficiency =
EP IP 1 k
Sol. f1
2 m
240IS
0.8
4000 1 k
f2
3200 2 9m
IS = 13.33A
240 f1 9 3
49. A light planet is revolving around a massive star in f2 1 1
a circular orbit of radius R with a period of
52. A particle initially at rest starts moving from
revolution T. If the force of attraction between
reference point. x = 0 along x-axis, with velocity
3
planet and star is proportional to R 2
then choose
that varies as 4 xm / s. The acceleration of
the correct option :
2 5/2 2 7/2
the particle is ____ms–2.
(1) T R (2) T R
2 3/2 Ans. (8)
(3) T R (4) T2 R3
Ans. (1) Sol. V4 x
GMm dv
Sol. F m2R aV
R3/2 dx
1 2 1
2 T so 4 x 4 x 1/2 = 8 m/s2
R5/2 2
T2 R5/2
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 16)
Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Evening Session
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53. A moving coil galvanometer has 100 turns and 55. A particular hydrogen - like ion emits the radiation
2
each turn has an area of 2.0 cm . The magnetic of frequency 3 × 1015 Hz when it makes transition
field produced by the magnet is 0.01 T and from n = 2 to n = l. The frequency of radiation
the deflection in the coil is 0.05 radian when a emitted in transition from n = 3 to n = l is
current of 10 mA is passed through it. x
× 1015 Hz, when x = ______.
The torsional constant of the suspension wire is 9
x × 10–5 N-m/rad. The value of x is___. Ans. (32)
Ans. (4) 1 1
Sol. E 13.6z 2 2 2
Sol. = BINAsin ni nf
C = BINAsin90° 1 1
E C 2 2
BINA 0.01 10 10 3 100 2 10 4 nf ni
C
0.05
1 1
= 4 × 10–5 N-m/rad. h C 2 2
nf ni
x=4
1 1
54. One end of a metal wire is fixed to a ceiling and a 2 2
1 n f n i 2 1
load of 2 kg hangs from the other end. A similar
2 1 1
wire is attached to the bottom of the load and 2 2
n f n i 31
another load of 1 kg hangs from this lower wire.
1 1
Then the ratio of longitudinal strain of upper wire 1 4 3 / 4
to that of the lower wire will be___.
1 1 8 / 9
1 9
[Area of cross section of wire = 0.005 cm2,
Y = 2 × l011 Nm–2 and g = 10 ms–2] 3 9
4 8
Ans. (3)
1 27
Sol. T1 = 30N 2 32
2 kg
32 32 32
T2 = 10N 2 1 3 1015 Hz 1015 Hz
27 27 9
1 kg
56. In an electrical circuit drawn below the amount of
FL
L charge stored in the capacitor is ___C.
AY
L F 10 V R1
4
L AY + –
C R2
L1
10F 5
L1 F 30
1 3
L2 F2 10 R3 6
L2
Ans. (60)
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 17)
Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Evening Session
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+ – R1 =4 Sol. Let intensity of light on screen due to each slit is I0
I1 10 V R =5 So internity at centre of screen is 4I0
Sol. 2
Intensity at distance y from centre-
I2 C=10F
I3 I = I0 + I0 + 2 I0I0 cos
R3=6
In steady state there will be no current in branch of Imax = 4I0
10 cos = 0
I1 I3 1A
46
VR3 Vc VR2 VR2 0 2
I3R3 = Vc
Kx
Vc = 1 × 6 = 6 volt 2
qc = CVc = 10 × 6 = 60 C 2
d sin
2
57. A coil of 200 turns and area 0.20 m2 is rotated at half
2 y 1
a revolution per second and is placed in uniform d
D 2
magnetic field of 0.01 T perpendicular to axis of
D 5 10 7 1
rotation of the coil. The maximum voltage generated y
4d 4 10 3
2
in the coil is volt. The value of is__. = 125 × 10–6
= 125
Ans. (5)
59. A uniform rod AB of mass 2 kg and Length 30 cm
Sol. = NAB cos(t)
d at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. An impulse
= NABsin(t)
dt of force 0.2 Ns is applied to end B. The time taken
max = NAB by the rod to turn through at right angles will be
= 200 × 0.2 × 0.01 ×
s , where x = ____.
4 2 x
volt
10 5
Ans. (4)
58. In Young's double slit experiment, monochromatic
Sol. A
light of wavelength 5000 Å is used. The slits are
1.0 mm apart and screen is placed at 1.0 m away
from slits. The distance from the centre of the
screen where intensity becomes half of the
maximum intensity for the first time is___×10–6 m. J L = 0.3m
B m = 2kg
Ans. (125)
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 18)
Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Evening Session
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Impulse J = 0.2 N-S 60. Suppose a uniformly charged wall provides a
uniform electric field of 2 × l04 N/C normally. A
J Fdt 0.2N s charged particle of mass 2 g being suspended
through a silk thread of length 20 cm and remain
Angular impuls (M) stayed at a distance of 10 cm from the wall. Then
1
the charge on the particle will be C where
M c dt x
x =______. [use g = 10 m/s2]
L Ans. (3)
F 2
dt
+
E (Uniform)
L L
2
Fdt J
2
+
Sol. +
+
20cm
0.3
0.2
2 +
+ qE
= 0.03 +
d=10cm
mg
ML2 2 (0.3)2 0.09
I cm 10 1
12 12 6 sin
20 2
M Icm (f i ) = 30°
qE
tan
0.09 mg
0.03 (f )
6 q 2 104
tan 30
f = 2 rad/s 1 10 3 10
1
q 106
= t 3
1
t sec. q 106 C
22 4 3
x=3
X=4
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 19)
Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Evening Session
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CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION
SECTION-A Sol. A p bonding molecular orbital has higher electron
rd
61. The transition metal having highest 3 ionisation density above and below inter nuclear axis
enthalpy is : Inter nuclear
+
(+) +
axis
(1) Cr (2) Mn –
– –
pu(p )
(3) V (4) Fe py py
y
+
(–)
V : 2833 KJ/mol – – – +
py py pg (p )
Cr : 2990 KJ/mol
*
Mn : 3260 KJ/mol 63. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Fe : 2962 KJ/mol Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
alternative Assertion (A) : In aqueous solutions Cr2+ is
Mn : 3d5 4s2 reducing while Mn3+ is oxidising in nature.
Fe : 3d6 4s2 Reason (R) : Extra stability to half filled electronic
Cr : 3d5 4s1 configuration is observed than incompletely filled
V : 3d3 4s2 electronic configuration.
So Mn has highest 3rd IE among all the given In the light of the above statement, choose the most
elements due to d5 configuration. appropriate answer from the options given below:
62. Given below are two statements : (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
Statement (I) : A p bonding MO has lower electron correct explanation of (A)
density above and below the inter-nuclear asix. (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
node between the nuclei. (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) (A) is true but (R) is false
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 20)
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64. Match List - I with List - II. Sol. I. In p-Block both metals and non metals are
List-I List-II
present but in d-Block only metals are present.
(Reactants) Products
(A) Phenol, Zn/ (I) Salicylaldehyde II. EN and IE of non metals are greater than that
(B) Phenol, CHCl3, NaOH, HCl (II) Salicylic acid of metals
(C) Phenol, CO2, NaOH, HCl (III) Benzene
(D) Phenol, Conc. HNO3 (IV) Picric acid I - False, II-True
Choose the correct answer from the options given 66. The strongest reducing agent amont the following
below.
(1) (A)-(IV), (B), (II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) is:
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) (1) NH3 (2) SbH3
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(3) BiH3 (4) PH3
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Ans. (3) Ans. (3)
OH
Sol. Strongest reducing agent : BiH3 explained by its
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 21)
Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Evening Session
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69. Select the compound from the following that will CH3 C2H5
Pd/C
show intramolecular hydrogen bonding. Sol. H2 + CH3 – C C – C2H5 C C
(1) H2O 2-pentyne H H
CH3 H
(2) NH3 Na
CH3 – C C – CH3 + H2
(3) C2H5OH Liquid NH3 C C
H CH3
NO2
Trans-2-butene
(4) 73. The number of radial node/s for 3p orbital is:
OH
(1) 1 (2) 4
Ans. (4)
(3) 2 (4) 3
Sol. H2O, NH3, C2H5OH Intermolecular H-Bonding
O Ans. (1)
Sol. For 3p : n = 3, =1
N Number of radial node = n – – 1
O
Intramolecular =3–1–1=1
O H H-Bonding
74. Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List - II
70. Lassaigne's test is used for detection of :
Compound Use
(1) Nitrogen and Sulphur only
(A) Carbon tetrachloride (I) Paint remover
(2) Nitrogen, Sulphur and Phosphorous Only
(B) Methylene chloride (II) Refrigerators and air
(3) Phosphorous and halogens only
(4) Nitrogen, Sulphur, phosphorous and halogens conditioners
Ans. (4) (C) DDT (III) Fire extinguisher
Sol. Lassaigne's test is used for detection of all element (D) Freons (IV) Non Biodegradable
N, S, P, X. insecticide
71. Which among the following has highest boiling Choose the correct answer from the options given
point? below :
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (1) (A)-(I), (B), (II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(2) CH3CH2CH2CH2–OH (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-( II)
(3) CH3CH2CH2CHO (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(4) H5C2 – O – C2H5
(4) (A)-( II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
Sol. Due to H-bonding boiling point of alcohol is High.
Sol. CCl4 used in fire extinguisher. CH2Cl2 used as
72. In the given reactions identify A and B. paint remover. Freons used in refrigerator and AC.
CH3 C2H5 DDT used as non Biodegradable insecticide.
Pd/C 75. The functional group that shows negative
H2 + A C C
resonance effect is:
H H
Na/LiquidNH3 (1) –NH2 (2) –OH
CH3 C C CH3 H2 "B"
(3) –COOH (4) –OR
(1) A : 2–Pentyne B : trans – 2 – butene
Ans. (3)
(2) A : n – Pentane B : trans – 2 – butene O
(3) A : 2 – Pentyne B : Cis – 2 – butene
(4) A : n – Pentane B : Cis – 2 – butene Sol. C OH shows –R effect, while rest 3 groups
Ans. (1) shows +R effect via lone pair.
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 22)
Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Evening Session
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76. [Co(NH3)6]3+ and [CoF6]3– are respectively known 78. C2H5Br
alc. KOH
A
Br 2
B
KCN
C
CCl 4 Excess H3O+
as: Excess
(1) Spin free Complex, Spin paired Complex D
(2) Spin paired Complex, Spin free Complex Acid D formed in above reaction is :
(3) Outer orbital Complex, Inner orbital Complex (1) Gluconic acid
(4) Inner orbital Complex, Spin paired Complex (2) Succinic acid
Ans. (2) (3) Oxalic acid
Sol. [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) Malonic acid
3+
Co (strong field ligand) 3d 6
t 62g ,e0g , Ans. (2)
Excess
Co3+ (weak field ligand) 3d6 t 24g ,eg2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2
Succinic H3O+
Hybridisation : sp3d2 Acid COOH COOH CN CN
(D) (C)
Outer orbital complex (spin free complex)
79. Solubility of calcium phosphate (molecular mass, M)
no pairing will take place
in water is Wg per 100 mL at 25° C. Its solubility
77. Given below are two statements :
product at 25°C will be approximately.
Statement (I) : SiO2 and GeO2 are acidic while
3 5
SnO and PbO are amphoteric in nature. W W
(1) 10 7 (2) 10 7
Statement (II) : Allotropic forms of carbon are M M
5 5
due to property of catenation and p-d bond W W
(3) 103 (4) 10 5
formation. M M
In the light of the above statements, choose the Ans. (2)
most appropriate answer from the options given W 10
Sol. S
below: M
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Ca 3 (PO 4 )2 (s) 3Ca 2 (aq.) 2PO 34 (aq.)
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 3s 2s
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
W 1000 W 10
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true S
M 100 M
Ans. (3)
Ksp = (3s)3 (2s)2
Sol. SiO2 and GeO2 are acidic and SnO, PbO are
= 108 s5
amphoteric.
5
Carbon does not have d-orbitals so can not form W
108 10 5
p-d Bond with itself. Due to properties of M
5
catenation and p-p bond formation. carbon is W
1.08 107
able to show allotropic forms. M
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 23)
Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Evening Session
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80. Given below are two statements : Sol. A(g) 2B(g) + C(g)
Statement (I) : Dimethyl glyoxime forms a six- t=0 0.1
membered covalent chelate when treated with
t = 115 sec. 0.1 – x 2x x
NiCl2 solution in presence of NH4OH.
Statement (II) : Prussian blue precipitate contains 0.1 + 2x = 0.28
iron both in (+2) and (+3) oxidation states. In the 2x = 0.18
light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below: x = 0.09
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true 1 0.1
K n
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 115 0.1 0.09
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false = 0.0200 sec–1
Ans. (1) = 2 × 10–2 sec–1
Sol. Ni2+ + NH4OH + dmg 83. The number of tripeptides formed by three
O H O different amino acids using each amino acid once
CH3 C N N C CH3 is ______.
Ni2+ Ans. (6)
CH3 C N N C CH3 Sol. Let 3 different amino acid are A, B, C then
O H O following combination of tripeptides can be
formed-
2 Five member ring
ABC, ACB, BAC, BCA, CAB, CBA
III II 84. Number of compounds which give reaction with
Fe 4 [Fe(CN)6 ]3
Hinsberg's reagent is_______.
Prussian Blue NH2
O
SECTION-B +
N2 Cl
–
NH
81. Total number of isomeric compounds (including
stereoisomers) formed by monochlorination of
2-methylbutane is________.
Ans. (6) N NH2
NH N
* * NH2
Sol. Cl
Cl
Cl Cl (1)
(2) (1) (2)
O
NH2
H2N C NH2
82. The following data were obtained during the first N N
order thermal decomposition of a gas A at constant H
Ans. (5)
volume:
Sol.
A(g) 2B(g) + C(g) NH2
NH2
S.No Time/s Total pressure/(atm) NH
H2N
1. 0 0.1
2. 115 0.28
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 24)
Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Evening Session
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85. Mass of ethylene glycol (antifreeze) to be added to Sol. 2H2O O2 + 4H+ + 4e–
18.6 kg of water to protect the freezing point at W Q
–24°C is________ kg (Molar mass in g mol –1
for E 96500
86. Following Kjeldahl's method, 1g of organic for the same reaction is –_______×10–1 kJ mol–1.
compound released ammonia, that neutralised 10 (Given R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
mL of 2M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in
Ans. (57)
the compound is _______%.
Sol. G° = –RT n K
Ans. (56)
= –8.314 × 300 n (10)
Sol. H2SO4 + 2NH3 (NH4)2 SO4
= 5744.14 J/mole
Millimole of H2SO4 10 × 2
= 57.44 × 10–1 kJ/mole
So Millimole of NH3 = 20 × 2 = 40
89. Consider the following redox reaction :
Organic NH3
40 below Ered
wt. of N = 14
1000
EMnO /Mn2 1.51V
% composition of N in organic compound 4
40 14 E CO2 / H2 C2 O4 0.49V
100
1000 1
= 56% If the equilibrium constant of the above reaction is
87. The amount of electricity in Coulomb required for given as Keq = 10x, then the value of x = _______
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 25)
Final JEE-Mains Exam JAN (01-02-2024) Evening Session
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Sol. Cell Rxn ; MnO4– + H2C2O4 Mn2+ + CO2 90. 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion
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Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success (Page - 26)