NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)

BOTANY 5. Which of the following statements accurately

SECTION - A
1. Which of the following represents the correct
order of these categories from the highest
(most general) to the lowest (most specific)?
(1) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family,
Genus, Species
(2) Family, Genus, Species, Order, Class,
Phylum, Kingdom
(3) Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class,
Phylum, Kingdom
(4) Order, Family, Genus, Species, Class,
Phylum, Kingdom
2. Ashwagandha belongs to
(1) Solanaceae (2) Liliaceae
(3) Malvaceae (4) Poaceae
3. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option:
Assertion (A): Euglenoids like Euglena can
behave as heterotrophs in the absence of
sunlight.
Reason (R): Euglenoids have flexible bodies
due to a protein-rich layer called pellicle.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the
correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.
4. Which of the following statements is true
about fungi?
(1) Fungi are primarily autotrophic organisms
that synthesize their own food through
photosynthesis.
(2) The bodies of fungi consist of long,
slender, thread-like structures called hyphae,
and their cell walls are composed mainly of
cellulose.
(3) Most fungi are heterotrophic, absorbing
organic matter from dead substrates as
saprophytes, and some live as parasites or
symbionts.
(4) Fungi are unicellular organisms that do
not form a mycelium.
2
describes the life cycle and reproduction of
mosses?
(1) In mosses, the dominant stage of the life
cycle is the sporophyte, which consists of a
foot, seta, and a leafy shoot.
(2) Mosses reproduce only sexually, with the
zygote developing into a gametophyte stage
that includes protonema and leafy stages.
(3) Mosses have a dominant gametophyte
stage that includes a protonema and a leafy
stage, and reproduce both vegetatively and
sexually.
(4) The sporophyte stage in mosses is less
elaborate compared to liverworts, consisting
only of a simple capsule without a seta or
foot.
6. Asexual spores and gametes both are non
motile in
(1) green algae (2) brown algae
(3) BGA (4) Red algae
7. Which of the following correctly describes
the structure of a dicotyledonous seed?
(1) It consists of a single cotyledon, a radicle,
and an embryonal axis, with a prominent
endosperm.
(2) The seed coat consists of two layers, the
outer testa and the inner tegmen, with the
hilum marking the point of attachment to the
fruit.
(3) The seed lacks a seed coat and has
multiple cotyledons arranged around the
embryonal axis.
(4) The seed contains a micropyle but does
not have a hilum or distinct seed coat layers.
8. What best describes the process of
taxonomy?
(1) The study of only the internal structure of
organisms for classification.
(2) The process of naming and defining
groups of biological organisms on the basis
of shared characteristics.
(3) A method focused solely on the
ecological information of organisms for
classification.
(4) The use of only external structure for
classifying all living organisms.
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
9. Which of the following have dorsiventral (3) Lyases
leaves (4) Ligases
(1) Wheat (2) Rice 14. Assertion (A): Competitive inhibitors reduce
(3) Lily (4) Pea the activity of enzymes by binding to the
10. Assertion (A): In dicotyledonous roots like active site, competing with the substrate.
the sunflower, the outermost layer is the Reason (R): Competitive inhibitors have a
epiblema, which often gives rise to similar molecular structure to the substrate,
unicellular root hairs. allowing them to bind to the enzyme’s active
Reason(R): The epiblema's primary function site.
is to absorb water and nutrients from the soil, (1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
and the root hairs increase the surface area explanation of A.
for this absorption. (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and the correct explanation of A.
reason is the correct explanation of the
(3) A is true but R is false.
assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but the (4) Both A and R are false.
reason is not the correct explanation of the 15. Match the following stages of Meiosis I with
assertion.
their respective description:
(3) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. Column A
11. What is not associated with eukaryotic (Stages of Column B (Descriptions)
flagella or cilia Meiosis I)
(1) 9+2 arrangement of microtubules A. Chromosomes start
(2) naked I. Leptotene pairing together and
(3) emerge from basal body synapsis occurs.
(4) axoneme of tubulin protein B. The chromosomes
12. What are the key features of the nucleus in a become visible under the
II. Zygotene
eukaryotic cell? microscope and begin to
(1) The nucleus is surrounded by a single- compact.
layered nuclear membrane which is C. Homologous
continuous with the cytoplasm. chromosomes begin to
III. Pachytene
(2) Nucleoli in the nucleus are membrane- separate except at the
bound structures and are sites for lipid chiasmata.
synthesis. D. Chromosomes are fully
(3) The nuclear envelope is a double IV. Diplotene condensed, and the meiotic
membrane structure with pores, and the spindle is assembled.
nucleus contains nucleoli and chromatin. E. Recombination nodules
(4) Chromosomes within the nucleus are appear and crossing over
always in a highly condensed form, V. Diakinesis between non-sister
irrespective of the cell's stage in the cell chromatids of homologous
cycle. chromosomes occurs.
X
|
X
| (1) I-B, II-A, III-E, IV-C, V-D
13. C  C  X  Y  C  C , represents to (2) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D, V-E
(1) Oxidoreductase (3) I-E, II-B, III-C, IV-D, V-A
(2) Hydrolases (4) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-E, V-B
3
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
16. Consider the following statements regarding
meiosis:
Statement A: Meiosis involves only one
round of DNA replication followed by two
sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division,
termed meiosis I and meiosis II.
Statement B: The result of meiosis is the
production of two haploid cells.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct.
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(3) Only statement A is correct.
(4) Only statement B is correct.
17. Select the incorrect pair
(1) Joseph pristley – Role of air in growth
(2) J.Ingenhousz – Essentiality of air
(3) Engelmann – Absorption spectrum
(4) C.V.Niel – Photosynthesis in bacteria
18. Which of the following statements is
incorrect regarding the biosynthetic phase of
photosynthesis?
(1) ATP and NADPH produced in the light
reaction are used in the biosynthetic phase of
photosynthesis to produce sugars.
(2) The biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis
depends directly on the presence of light for
the synthesis of food.
(3) Melvin Calvin's use of radioactive
carbon-14 in photosynthesis studies led to the
discovery of the first CO2 fixation product as
a 3-carbon organic acid.
(4) The first product identified in the Calvin
cycle was 3-phosphoglyceric acid, also
known as PGA.
19. Which of the following statements accurately
compares fermentation and aerobic
respiration?
(1) Both fermentation and aerobic respiration
completely degrade glucose to CO2 and H2O.
(2) In fermentation, there is a net gain of
more ATP molecules per glucose molecule
than in aerobic respiration.
(3) NADH is oxidized to NAD+ more slowly
in fermentation compared to aerobic
respiration.
4
(4) Fermentation and aerobic respiration both
generate the same amount of ATP from one
glucose molecule.
20. In the process of glycolysis, which statement
is true?
(1) Glycolysis does not occur in anaerobic
organisms.
(2) Two molecules of ATP are used in the
conversion of Glucose to fructose 1, 6-
bisphosphate.
(3) NADH + H+ is not formed during
glycolysis.
(4) One Glucose produce one pyruvic acid.
21. Which of the following statements is true
regarding Abscisic Acid (ABA)?
(1) ABA promotes seed germination.
(2) ABA is known for its role in stimulating
plant growth.
(3) ABA aids in closing stomata and helps
plants tolerate stress.
(4) ABA primarily functions as a catalyst in
photosynthesis.
22. Which of the following is an example of
plasticity in plants?
(1) Same shaped leaves in juvenile and
mature plants.
(2) Similar leaf shapes in different
environmental conditions.
(3) Different leaf shapes in juvenile and
mature plants of cotton, coriander, and
larkspur.
(4) Consistent leaf development irrespective
of environmental changes.
23. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option:
Assertion (A): Both wind and water
pollinated flowers are not very colourful and
do not produce nectar.
Reason (R): Wind and water pollinated
flowers do not require to attract pollinators,
hence the absence of bright colors and nectar.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the
correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
24. Which of the following, means of asexual
reproduction, mimic to sexual reproduction
(1) Gemma (2) Zoospore
(3) Apomixis (4) Fragmentation
25. Which statement about gene behavior in peas
is true?
(1) BB homozygotes produce smaller starch
grains and wrinkled seeds.
(2) bb homozygotes produce large starch
grains and round seeds.
(3) Bb heterozygotes produce intermediate-
sized starch grains and round seeds.
(4) Bb heterozygotes produce large starch
grains and wrinkled seeds.
26. In the cross between true-breeding red-
flowered (RR) and true-breeding white-
flowered plants (rr) in snapdragons
(Antirrhinum sp.), what is the phenotypic
ratio observed in the F2 generation?
(1) 3 Red : 1 White
(2) 1 Red : 2 Pink : 1 White
(3) 1 Red : 1 Pink : 1 White
(4) All Pink
27. Consider the following statements about
DNA replication and choose the correct
options:
I. In E. coli, the average rate of
polymerisation during DNA replication is
approximately 2000 base pairs per second.
II. DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation
only in the 5' to 3' direction, leading to
continuous synthesis on the 3' to 5' template
and discontinuous synthesis on the 5' to 3'
template.
III. DNA replication in E. coli initiates from a
specific sequence called the origin of
replication.
IV. In eukaryotes, DNA replication occurs
during the G1 phase of the cell cycle.
(1) Only I, II, and III are correct
(2) Only II, III, and IV are correct
(3) Only I and III are correct
(4) All I, II, III, and IV are correct
28. An experiment was conducted to understand
the regulation of gene expression in E. coli.
The bacteria were grown in a medium
containing lactose but no glucose. Which of
5
the following outcomes is expected based on
the functioning of the lac operon?
(1) The repressor protein remains bound to
the operator, blocking RNA polymerase and
preventing transcription of the operon.
(2) The lac repressor protein gets inactivated
by lactose, allowing RNA polymerase to
access the promoter and initiate transcription
of the operon.
(3) The presence of lactose has no effect on
the lac operon as glucose is the preferred
carbon source for E. coli.
(4) Both glucose and lactose are required
simultaneously for the expression of the lac
operon.
29. Match the following microbes with the
substances they produce:
Column A: Column B: Substances
Microbes Produced
I. Aspergillus niger A. Ethanol
II. Saccharomyces
B. Citric Acid
cerevisiae
III. Streptococcus C. Streptokinase
IV. Trichoderma
D. Cyclosporin A
polysporum
V. Monascus
E. Statins
purpureus
(1) I-D, II-E, III-C, IV-B, V-A
(2) I-E, II-A, III-D, IV-C, V-B
(3) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-E, V-D
(4) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D, V-E
30. Read the following statements about sewage
treatment and choose the correct option:
Statements:
A. Primary treatment of sewage involves
physical removal of particles through
filtration and sedimentation.
B. In secondary treatment, the primary
effluent is passed into aeration tanks where
aerobic microbes grow.
C. The activated sludge from secondary
treatment is used entirely as an inoculum for
the aeration tank.
D. The effluent from secondary treatment
plants is often released untreated into rivers,
leading to pollution.
(1) Only A and B are correct.
(2) A, B, and C are correct.
(3) B, C, and D are correct.
(4) All statements A, B, C, and D are correct.
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
31. RNAi involves silencing of specific m-RNA
by using
(1) ssDNA
(2) dsDNA
(3) complementary dsRNA
(4) hnRNA
32. Which of the following statements is true
regarding the mechanism of action of Bt
toxin in Bt Cotton plants?
(1) Bt toxin remains active throughout the
plant's life cycle and affects all insects that
come in contact with the plant.
(2) The Bt toxin is initially an inactive
protoxin that becomes active in the acidic gut
environment of the insect, leading to its
death.
(3) The Bt toxin protein, in its inactive form,
is converted into an active toxin in the
alkaline gut of the insect, causing cell lysis
and death.
(4) Bt toxin selectively targets plant cells,
causing them to become toxic to all types of
insects.
33. Which of the following is an essential
component of a stirred-tank bioreactor?
(1) A light delivery system for
photosynthesis.
(2) An agitator system for even mixing and
oxygen availability.
(3) A chlorophyll extraction system.
(4) A carbon dioxide delivery system for
plant cell cultures.
34. Which of the following contribution is
attributed to Ernst Mayr in the field of
biology ?
(1) He developed the theory of natural
selection
(2) He discovered the double helix structure
of DNA
(3) He was a key figure in the development of
the modern evolutionary synthesis
(4) He invented the polymerase chain
reaction (PCR) technique
6
35. Assertion (A): Chrysophytes are
predominantly found in marine environments
and are major producers in the ocean.
Reason (R): Diatoms, a type of chrysophyte,
have cell walls embedded with silica which
makes them indestructible, contributing
significantly to the formation of
diatomaceous earth.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
SECTION - B
36. Which of the following statements is true
about Phaeophyceae (brown algae)?
(1) The primary food storage form in
Phaeophyceae is starch.
(2) In Phaeophyceae, sexual reproduction is
strictly oogamous.
(3) The plant body in Phaeophyceae is
differentiated into holdfast, stipe, and frond.
(4) Phaeophyceae are primarily freshwater
algae and use chlorophyll b for
photosynthesis.
37. Which of the following statements correctly
describes the structure of a drupe?
(1) A drupe has a multicarpellary inferior
ovary and multiple seeds.
(2) In a drupe, the pericarp is undifferentiated
and generally dry.
(3) The mango, an example of a drupe, has a
thin epicarp, fleshy mesocarp, and a hard
endocarp.
(4) The coconut, a drupe, lacks an endocarp
and has a predominantly fleshy pericarp.
38. Select the correct match.
(1) Monocot stem – open vascular bundle
(2) Dicot stem – closed vascular bundle
(3) Stem – radial arrangement of xylem &
phloem
(4) conjoint vascular bundle – phloem located
on outside the xylem
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
39. Centriole is made up of 43. Match the substances in Column A with their
(1) 13 microtubules corresponding roles or products in the
(2) 3 peripheral fibrils Tricarboxylic Acid (TCA) Cycle in Column
(3) 9 microtubules B.
(4) 9 peripheral fibrils Column A Column B:
40. What is the primary significance of mitosis in 1. Isomerised to
A. Acetyl CoA
multicellular organisms? isocitrate
(1) Mitosis leads to the formation of haploid 2. Oxidized to
B. Citrate
daughter cells. oxaloacetic acid (OAA)
(2) Mitosis primarily contributes to the 3. Reduced to NADH +
C. Succinyl-CoA
genetic diversity of organisms. H+
(3) Mitosis results in the production of 4. Condenses with
diploid daughter cells, essential for growth D. NAD+ oxaloacetic acid to form
and repair. citric acid
(4) Mitosis is the primary method of E. FAD+ 5. Reduced to FADH2
reproduction in multicellular organisms. (1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-5, E-4
41. Consider the following statements regarding (2) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4, E-5
the structure of proteins and choose the (3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3, E-5
correct option: (4) A-5, B-3, C-2, D-1, E-4
I) The primary structure of a protein refers to 44. Match the Plant Growth Regulators (PGRs)
the three-dimensional arrangement of amino in Column A with their corresponding
acids. discoveries or effects in Column B.
II) In the secondary structure of proteins, Column A Column B
amino acid sequences are often organized 1. Identified from the
into right-handed helices or β-pleated sheets. A. Auxin 'bakanae' disease in rice
III) Tertiary structure of proteins involves the seedlings.
arrangement of multiple polypeptide B. Gibberellic 2. Promotes cytokinesis
subunits. Acid in plant cells.
IV) The quaternary structure of a protein, as 3. Isolated by F.W.
seen in human hemoglobin, consists of C. Kinetin Went from oat seedling
multiple polypeptides or subunits arranged in coleoptile tips.
a specific architecture. 4. Identified as a
(1) Only I and III are correct. D. Abscisic Acid
gaseous PGR that
(2) Only II and IV are correct. (ABA)
hastens fruit ripening.
(3) I, II, and III are correct.
5. Chemically identical
(4) II, III, and IV are correct.
to inhibitor-B,
42. Given the requirements of the Calvin cycle E. Ethylene
abscission II, and
for the synthesis of one glucose molecule,
dormin.
how many ATP and NADPH molecules are
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-5, E-4
needed in total?
(2) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-5, E-4
(1) 12 ATP and 6 NADPH
(3) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4, E-5
(2) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
(4) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-1
(3) 36 ATP and 18 NADPH
(4) 18 ATP and 18 NADPH

7
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
45. Assertion (A): Apomixis in angiosperms (3) Biogas plants are less effective in rural
results in the formation of seeds without areas due to the limited availability of cattle
fertilisation. dung.
Reason (R): Polyembryony, a phenomenon (4) The primary use of biogas is in industrial
where more than one embryo is formed in a settings for heavy machinery.
seed, is observed in angiosperms. 50. In the context of plant tissue culture and its
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the applications, which of the following is true?
correct explanation of A. (1) Micro-propagation is ineffective for
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the generating large numbers of plants in a short
correct explanation of A. duration.
(3) A is true, but R is false. (2) Somatic hybrids are produced by sexual
(4) A is false, but R is true. reproduction between different plant species
46. Mendelian monohybrid phenotypic ratio is (3) Meristem culture can be used to produce
(1) 1 tall : 1 dwarf (2) 3 tall : 1 dwarf virus-free plants even from virus-infected
(3) All tall (4) All dwarf parent plants
47. Which of the following is initiation codon (4) Protoplasts isolated for tissue culture are
(1) AUG (2) UAA surrounded by their original cell walls
(3) UAG (4) GUA ZOOLOGY
48. Which of the following sequences correctly SECTION –A
represents the steps involved in recombinant 51. Match List I with List II.
DNA technology? List - I List - II
(1) Fragmentation of DNA, isolation of (A) Sino-atrial node I) Transmits action
DNA, ligation into a vector, transferring into potentials to ventricles
the host.
(2) Isolation of DNA, fragmentation by (B) Tricuspid valve II) Action potentials
restriction endonucleases, ligation into a stimulate atrial systole
vector, transferring the recombinant DNA
into the host. (C) Mitral valve III) Left atrio ventricular
(3) Ligation of DNA fragment into a vector, septum
isolation of DNA, transferring into the host,
(D) Bundle of His IV)Right atrio ventricular
fragmentation of DNA.
septum
(4) Transferring the recombinant DNA into
the host, isolation of DNA, fragmentation of
DNA, ligation into a vector. Choose the correct answer from the options
49. Which statement is accurate regarding the given below
production and use of biogas? (1) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D – I
(1) Biogas is predominantly composed of (2) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
nitrogen and oxygen and is produced by (3) A - II, B - III, C - IV, D - I
aerobic bacteria. (4) A- IV, B - II, C - I, D – III
(2) Methanogens, such as Methanobacterium, 52. Sinus venosus in frog’s heart receives blood
are involved in biogas production and from
primarily produce methane from cellulosic (1) right atrium (2) vena cavae
material. (3) conus arteriosus (4) left atrium

8
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
53. Given below are two statements: one is 57. Given below are two statements:
labelled as Assertion A and the other is Statement-A: The mutated gene can be
labelled as Reason R: detected by using autoradiography.
Assertion-(A): Fore limbs of mammals have Statement-B: The complimentary DNA of
similar anatomical structure. mutated gene has complementarity with the
Reason-(R): Homology indicates common radioactively labelled probe DNA.
ancestry. In the light of the above statements, choose
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
the most appropriate answer from the options below:
given below: (1) Both statements A & B are correct
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the (2) Statement A is correct but statement B is
correct explanation of 'A'. incorrect
(2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is not the (3) Statement A is incorrect but
correct explanation of 'A'. statement B is correct
(3) A is false, but R is true (4) Both statements A & B are incorrect
(4) 'A' is true and 'R' is false 58. Oviparous homeothermic animal with
54. GIFT is an assisted reproductive technology forelimbs adapted for swimming is
suggested for (1) Delphinus (2) Pteropus
(1) female who can produce ova (3) Aptenodytes (4) Alligator
(2) male with low sperm count 59. Match List I with List II.
(3) female who cannot produce ova List – I List – II
(4) female who cannot provide suitable (Hyposecretion) (Disorder)
environment for fertilisation (A) Corticosteroids I) Tetany
55. Which of the following statements are not (B) Parathyroid II) Cretinism
true for pulmonary gaseous exchange? hormone
(A) Dissociation of CO2 from (C) Thyroxine III) Addison’s disease
carbaminohaemoglobin
(B) Percentage saturation of haemoglobin
increases due to high pO2 (D) ADH IV) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Carbonic anhydrase catalyses the
formation of HCO3 and H  from H 2CO3
(E) Insulin V) Diabetes insipidus
(D) Oxygen dissociation curve shifts towards
right side Choose the correct answer from the options
(E) 100 ml of blood delivers 4 ml of CO2 to given below
the alveoli. (1) A - V, B - I, C - III, D - IV, E – II
Choose the correct answer from the following (2) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV, E – V
options. (3) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - II, E – V
(1) A, B and D (2) B, C and E (4) A- III, B - I, C - II, D - V, E – IV
(3) A, B and C (4) C and D only 60. Leydig cells secrete the hormone _A_ under
the influence of __B__. The A and B
56. Passive immunity develops by injecting
represent
(1) antitetanus serum (1)A – Androgen, B – FSH
(2) vaccine with killed virus (2) A – Testesterone, B – LH
(3) antigens of diphtheria bacteria (3) A – FSH, B – LH
(4) tetanus toxins (4) A – LH, B – Androgen
9
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
61. Which of the following statements are correct and water
for monocytes? Choose the correct answer from the options
(A) They have a kidney shaped nucleus given below
(B) Phagocytic agranulocytes (1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D – IV
(C) Similar to mast cells in function (2) A - III, B – II, C - IV, D – I
(D) Long lived cells (3) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II
(E) Polymorphonuclear phagocytes (4) A- IV, B - II, C - I, D – III
Choose correct answer from the following 65. The technique of DNA finger printing was
options. developed by
(1)A, B only (2) B, C only (1) Alexander von Humboldt
(3) A, B and E (4) D, E only (2) Frederick Sanger
62. Given below are two statements: one is (3) Alfred Hershey and Chase
labelled as Assertion A and the other is (4) Alec Jeffreys
labelled as Reason R: 66. Given below are two statements: one is
Assertion-(A): Repeated activation of skeletal labelled as Assertion A and the other is
muscle fibres can lead to fatigue. labelled as Reason R:
Reason-(R): Accumulation of lactic acid Assertion-(A): During follicular phase of
occurs due to aerobic breakdown of glycogen menstrual cycle, the primary follicles grow
in muscle fibres. and develop into a mature Graafian follicle.
In the light of the above statements, choose Reason-(R): Raising levels of gonadotropins
the most appropriate answer from the options stimulate follicular development during
given below: follicular phase.
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the In the light of the above statements, choose
correct explanation of 'A'. the most appropriate answer from the options
(2) A is false, but R is true given below:
(3) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is not the (1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the
correct explanation of 'A'. correct explanation of 'A'.
(4) 'A' is true and 'R' is false (2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is not the
63. Which of the following is incorrect pair? correct explanation of 'A'.
(1) Energy pyramid – upright (3) 'A' is true and 'R' is false
(2) Producers – First trophic level in DFC (4) A is false, but R is true
(3) Resource partitioning – Warbler birds 67. Male with XO karyotype
(4) Human liver fluke – complex life history (1) Fruitfly (2) Cock
64. Match List I with List II. (3) Grasshopper (4) Turner’s syndrome
List – I List – II 68. Which of the following features are common
(A) PCT I) Diffusion of urea into to dog fish and star fish?
medullary interstitium (A) Radial symmetry
(B) Collecting duct II) Maintains high (B) Closed circulation
osmolarity of medullary (C) Ma rine habitat
interstitium (D) Branchial respiration
(C) DCT III) Reabsorption of (E) External fertilisation
70% of electrolytes and Choose correct answer from the following
water options.
(D) Loop of Henle IV) Conditional (1) C only (2) C, D, E
reabsorption of sodium (3) A, C, E (4) A, B, C
10
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
69. Which STI is completely curable when (3) Statement A is incorrect but statement B
detected early and treated properly? is correct
(1) HIV infection (2) Hepatitis-B (4) Both statements A & B are incorrect
(3) Genital herpes (4) Syphilis 73. Ciliated epithelium is seen in the lining of
70. Match List I with List II. (1) Intestinal mucosa
List - I List - II (2) Bronchioles
(A) Sutures I) Synovial joint (3) PCT
between atlas and (4) Alveoli
occipital condyles 74. Match List I with List II.
(B) Pivot joint II) Fibrous cartilage List - I List - II
between pubic (A) Cuscuta on I) Mutualism
bones hedge plant
(C) Condyloid joint III) Fibrous joint (B) Barnacles on II) Amensalism
between frontal Balaenoptera
bone and parietal (C) Apis and sun III) Parasitism
bone flower
(D) Symphysis IV)Movable joint (D) Pencillium and IV) Commensalism
between atlas and Staphylococci
axis Choose the correct answer from the options
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
given below (1) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D – I
(1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D – IV (2) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
(2) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV (3) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - III
(3) A - III, B – IV, C - I, D - II (4) A- III, B - IV, C - I, D – II
(4) A- II, B - IV, C - I, D – III 75. Select the group of Australian placental
71. The part of human brain that helps in the mammals exhibiting adaptive radiation
regulation of body temperature thirst and (1) Numbat, Spotted cuscus, flying phalanger
hunger (2) Mole, flying squirrel, lemur
(1) pituitary (3) Marsupial mole, Bobcat, Tasmanian wolf
(2) hypothalamus (4) Anteater, Tasmanian tiger cat, sugar
(3) medulla glider
(4) corpora quadrigemina 76. Diploid cells which undergo meiosis during
72. Given below are two statements: spermatogenesis in human are
Statement-A: Human embryo shows a row of (1) Spermatogonia
functional gill slits behind head. (2) Primary spermatocytes
Statement-B:According to Karl Ernst Von (3) Secodnary spermatocytes
Baer, embryos never pass through adult (4) Spermatids
stages of ancestors. 77. Males exhibit sexual dimorphism in
In the light of the above statements, choose cockroach, frog and sting ray. Choose the
the correct answer from the options given option with correct description respectively
below: (1) anal cerci, vocal sacs, pelvic claspers
(1) Both statements A & B are correct (2) brood pouch, copulatory pads, poison
(2) Statement A is correct but statement B is sting
incorrect (3) anal styles, vocal sacs, pelvic claspers
(4) anal styles, copulatory pads, brood pouch
11
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
78. Given below are two statements:
Statement-A: Certain animals which have
become extinct in the wild, but continue to be
maintained in zoological parks.
Statement-B:Gametes of endangered species
can be preserved in viable and fertile
condition for long periods
cryopreservation.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both statements A & B are correct
(2) Statement A is correct but statement B is
incorrect
(3) Both statements A & B are incorrect
(4) Statement A is incorrect but
statement B is correct
79. The historic convention on Biological
diversity, ‘The Earth Summit’ was held in
(1) Johannesburg, 2002
(2) Rio de Janeiro, 1992
(3) Rio de Janeiro, 2002
(4) South Aftrica, 1992
80. Which of the following ovarian hormones
levels raise during pregnancy in a woman?
(A) Estrogen
(B) Progestogen
(C) Cortisol
(D) Relaxin
(E) Prolactin
Choose correct options.
(1) A, B, D (2) A, B, C
(3) A, B, C, E (4) A, B, C, D, E
81. Choose incorrect statement about uterine
endometrium
(1) It is the site for implantation
(2) It undergoes cyclical changes during
menstrual cycle
(3) It is the inner glandular layer
(4) Oxytocin induces its contraction during
parturition
82. Given below are two statements:
Statement-A: The polarised membrane of
nerve fibre becomes more permeable to Na 
when stimulated suitably.
Statement-B: Action potential generates due
to efflux of Na  in a depolarised membrane.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both statements A & B are correct
by (2) Statement A is correct but statement B is
incorrect
(3) Statement A is incorrect but
statement B is correct
(4) Both statements A & B are incorrect
83. The functional residual capacity of lungs is
(1) ERV + TV
(2) EC + RV
(3) ERV + RV
(4) VC – IC
84. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) Activation of cellular oncogenes can lead
to oncogenic transformation of cells.
(2) MRI uses strong magnetic fields and
ionising radiations to detect cancer of internal
organs
(3) Cancer cells exhibit metastasis
(4) Cancer cells exhibit uncontrolled growth
due to loss of contact inhibition
85. Which of the following is correctly matched
set?
(1) Renal cortex – PCT, DCT
(2) Uricotelism – Pigeon, platypus
(3) Pectoral girdle – Clavicle, sphenoid
(4) Hind brain – Medulla, cerebrum
SECTION - B
86. Given below are two statements:
Statement-A: Detritus food chain is
connected with the grazing food chain at
some levels.
Statement-B: Detritivores are eaten by some
predators of grazing food chain.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Both statements A & B are correct
(2) Statement A is correct but statement B is
incorrect
(3) Statement A is incorrect but
statement B is correct
(4) Both statements A & B are incorrect
12
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
87. Choose correct set of statements about In the light of the above statements, choose
Klinefelter’s syndrome. the most appropriate answer from the options
(A) They exhibt gynaecomastia given below:
(B) They are males with an additional copy (1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the
of Y chromosome correct explanation of 'A'.
(C) They are tall statured with palm crease (2) 'A' is true and 'R' is false
(D) It is due to aneuploidy of 22nd pair of (3) A is false, but R is true
chromosomes. (4) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is not the
(E) They are sterile correct explanation of 'A'.
(1) A, B, E (2) A, B, D 92. The unique character of molluscs is
(3) A and E only (4) A, C, E (1) Gills
88. Brain stem does not include (2) Chitinous exoskeleton
(1) Pons (3) Radula
(2) Medulla oblongata (4) Calcareous spicules
(3) Mid brain 93. Which of the following is not under the
(4) Cerebellum control of glucocorticoids?
89. Match List I with List II. (1)Anti inflammatory responses
List - I List - II (2) Maintenance of electrolyte and body fluid
(A) Pteropus I) Proboscis gland volume
(B) Saccoglossus II) Poison gland (3) Inhibition of cellular uptake and utility of
(C) Bangarus III) Mammary glands aminoacids
(D) Neophron IV)Oil gland (4) Maintenance of cardiovascular system.
Choose the correct answer from the options 94. Which of the following is not a cannabinoid?
given below (1) Marijuana
(1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D – IV (2) Hashish
(2) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV (3) Cocaine
(3) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II (4) Charas
(4) A- IV, B - II, C - I, D – III 95. Match List I with List II.
90. Lobe finned fish List - I List - II
(1) Caecilian (A) Cervical cap I) Inhibits ovulation
(2) Limulus (B) Progestasert II) Blocks sperm
(3) Tuatara transport in vas deferens
(4) Coelacanth (C) Implant III) Cervix hostile to
91. Given below are two statements: one is sperms
labelled as Assertion A and the other is (D) Vasectomy IV)Prevents sperm entry
labelled as Reason R: into cervix
Assertion-(A): Respiratory rhythm centre Choose the correct answer from the options
makes necessary adjustments in the given below
respiratory process whenever H  ions and (1) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D – I
CO2 increase in blood. (2) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV
Reason-(R): Chemosensitive area in pons
(3) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - III
sends signals to the respiratory rhythm centre
upon activation. (4) A- IV, B - III, C - I, D – II

13
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
96. The enzyme renin is secreted by In the light of the above statements, choose
(1) Peptic cells of gastric mucosa the most appropriate answer from the options
(2) JG cells of afferent arteriole given below:
(3) Macula densa of DCT (1) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is the
(4) Smooth muscle fibres of efferent arteriole correct explanation of 'A'.
97. Given below are two statements: (2) Both 'A' and 'R' are true and 'R' is not the
Statement-A: Thalassemia is a qualitative correct explanation of 'A'.
problem of globin synthesis. (3) A is false, but R is true
Statement-B: Beta thalassemia is controlled (4) 'A' is true and 'R' is false
by a single gene HBB on 16th chromosome. PHYSICS
In the light of the above statements, choose SECTION – A
the correct answer from the options given 101. A monkey drops a mango from a mango tree
below: on which a monkey is sitting at a height of
(1) Both statements A & B are correct 19.6 m. It strikes the ground with a speed of
(2) Statement A is correct but statement B is (Given g = 9.8 ms-2)
incorrect (1) 9.8 ms-1 (2) 19.6 ms-1
(3) Statement A is incorrect but (3) 4.9 ms-1 ( 4) 39.2 ms-1
statement B is correct 102. One division on the main scale of a vernier
(4) Both statements A & B are incorrect callipers is equal to 0.5 mm. Its vernier scale
has 20 equal divisions which match with 16
98. Match List I with List II. main scale division. The least count of the
List - I List - II vernier callipers is
(A) Treponema pallidum I) Syphilis (1) 0.03125 mm (2) 0.25 mm
(B) Trichophyton II) Ring worm (3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.01 mm
(C) Wuchereria III) Filaria 103. A child stands on the edge of a cliff of 10 m
(D) Trypanosoma IV) African height above ground and throws a stone
sleeping sickness horizontally with an initial speed of 5ms-1.
Choose the correct answer from the options Neglecting the air resistance, the speed with
given below which the stone hits the ground will be nearly
(1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D – IV (1) 5 ms-1 (2) 10 ms-1
(2) A - III, B - I, C - II, D - IV (3) 15 ms-1 (4) 20 ms-1
(3) A - I, B - III, C - IV, D - II 104. A block of mass 50 kg moved on a horizontal
(4) A- III, B - IV, C - I, D – II surface by some external force through a
99. Detritivores are involved in distance of 5m. Coefficient of friction of
(1) Catabolism between the surfaces is 0.4. The work done
(2) Mineralisation by friction is (g = 10 ms 2 )
(3) Leaching (1) -1000 J (2) -500 J
(4) Fragmentation (3) +500 J (4) +1000J
100. Given below are two statements: one is 105. When same force acts on two different bodies
labelled as Assertion A and the other is of masses 4 kg and 5 kg at rest, the velocities
labelled as Reason R: acquired by the bodies in same interval of
Assertion-(A): Ventricular systole begins time are in the ratio of
shortly after T-wave in ECG. (1) 4: 5 (2) 5:4
Reason-(R): Number of QRS complexes per (3) 16:25 (4) 25:16
minute in ECG indicates heart rate.
14
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
106. Assertion (A): Steam engines and automobile wings is 50 m2 and density of air is 1.2 kgm-3
engines have flywheel that has large moment then the dynamic lift on the air plane is
of inertia. (1) 13.5 kN (2) 27 kN
Reason (R): Large moment of inertia of a (3) 54 kN (4) 3 kN
flywheel resists sudden changes in its speed 111. An ideal gas at a pressure of 1 atmosphere
and hence prevents jerky motion and temperature of 27ºC is compressed
(1) A and R are correct and R is correct adiabatically until its pressure becomes 8
times the initial pressure, then the final
explanation of A
temperature is  
(2) A and R are correct and R is not correct
  3/ 2
explanation of A (1) 600ºC (2) 527ºC
(3) A is correct but B is wrong (3) 427ºC (4) 327ºC
(4) A is wrong but B is correct 112. The mean free path for a gas, with molecular
107. Starting from the centre of the earth having diameter d and number density n can be
radius R, the variation of g (acceleration due expressed as
to gravity) with distance (r) is shown by 1 1
(1) (2)
2n d 2
2n 2 d 2
1 1
(3) (4)
2n  d
2 2 2
2n d
(1) (2) 113. Match List – I with List – II.
List – I ( event) List – II ( Quantity
conserved)
a) Before and P) Angular
after Elastic momentum
(3) (4)
collision between
108. A simple pendulum has spherical shell filled
two particles
with water as bob of pendulum. if a hole is
made at bottom of the shell then time period b) Revolution of a Q) Mass
of oscillation of pendulum will planet around the
(1) first increases and then decreases to Sun
original
c) Smooth flow of R) Charge
(2) Increase continuously
water running
(3) Decreases continuously
down a tap
(4) Doesn’t change
109. A bullet of mass 5 g , travelling with a speed
d) Current flow at S) Kinetic Energy
of 210 ms-1, strikes a fixed wooden target. Its
kinetic energy is converted into heat and half a junction of
of the heat generated rises the temperature of electrical network
bullet. The rise in temperature of the bullet (1) a – S; b – P; c – R ;d-Q
will be specific heat of material of bullet is (2) a – S; b –P; c – Q; d-R
0.030 cal g-1 0C-1) (3) a – P; b – Q; c – R ;d-S
(1) 87.50 C (2) 83.3 0C (4) a – P;b – S; c – Q; d-R
(3) 119.2 0C (4) 38.4 0C
110. An aeroplane is flying horizontally, so that
velocity of wind above the wings is 50 ms-1
and that below the wings is 40 ms-1. If area of

15
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
114. A meter stick is balanced on a knife edge at 120. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm forms a
its center. When a coin of mass 10g is real image of double the size of the object.
placed at 12 cm division , the stick is found The object distance is
to be balanced at 45 cm division. The mass of (1) 20 cm (2) 10 cm
the stick is (3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm
(1) 66g (2) 33g 121. Five dipoles of dipole moment P each are
(3) 55g (4) 45g placed in a closed surface. Charge on each
115. A particle executing S.H.M with an pole of a dipole is ‘q’. The net electric flux
amplitude 5 cm has a velocity 5 cms-1 at its through the closed surface is
mean position. Its acceleration when its 10q
(1) (2) zero
displacement is 3cm is 0
(1) 4 cms-2 (2) 5 cms-2 5q q
(3) (4)
(3) 2 cms-2 (4) 3 cms-2 0 0
116. A steel rod has a radius of 10 mm and length 122. Two wires A and B of the same material,
having radii in the ratio 1:2 and carry
2 m.Young’s modulus of steel is 200 GPa. If
currents in the ratio 4:1. The ratio of drift
157 kN force stretches it along its length then speed of electrons in A and B is
strain in the rod will be (1) 16:1 (2) 1:16
(1) 12.5  10 4 (2) 25 104 (3) 1:4 (4) 4:1
123. Equation of travelling wave on a stretched
(3) 125 104 (4) 250 104 string of linear density 5gm-1 is
117. A person standing in a lift experiences y = 0.03 sin (450t – 9x), where distance and
time are measured in SI units. The tension in
weight loss when lift moves
the string is
(1) down with constant velocity (1) 10 N (2) 12.5 N
(2) up with constant velocity (3) 7.5 N (4) 5 N
(3) down with constant acceleration 124. In the reaction H  H 4 He 1 n. If the
2 3
1 1 2 0
(4) up with constant acceleration
average binding energies of 2 3 and 4 He
118. A particle of charge 5C enters into a 1 H, 1H 2
are respectively a, b and c (in MeV), then the
uniform transverse magnetic field of 0.5 T energy (in MeV) released in this reaction is
with a speed of 5 ms-1, the force on the (1) 2a+3b-4c (2) 4c-(2a+3b)
charged particle will be (3) c – a – b (4) c – a + b
(1) zero (2) 125x10-7 N
125. A ray of light is incident on an equilateral
(3) 125x10-6 N (4) 625x10-7 N
prism of refractive index 3 , at an angle of
119. In the circuit shown in figure if the current
in the 6 resistor is 1.2 A. What is the value incidence 600 on one refractive surface. The
angle at which the ray is incident on the other
of resistance R in the circuit
surface inside the prism is
R
(1) 300 (2) 600
6 (3) 15o (4) 45 o
8
126. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron is 
and it has kinetic energy E If the de-Broglie
wavelength of it is reduced by 25%, then the
12V kinetic energy of electron now will be
(1) 6 (2) 10 (1) 16/ 9 E (2) 7/ 9 E
(3) 13 (4) 8 (3) 9 /7 E (4) 9 /16 E
16
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
127. A parallel beam of monochromatic
unpolarised light is incident on a transparent 

plate of refractive index 3 . The reflected
beam is completely polarized. The angle of
incidence is (1) T (2) T

(1) 600 (2) 300

(3) 450 (4) 370
128. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency  
25 MHz travel in free space along X-
direction. At a particular point in space and
(3) T (4) T
time electric field strength of the wave is
131. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 300
E  6.3 j Vm 1 . The magnetic induction at with an external field of 800 G, experiences a
that place is torque of 0.016 Nm. The magnetic moment
8
(2) 2.1  10 8 k T of magnet is
(1) 2.1  10 j T (1) 0.8 Am2 (2) 0.2 Am2
(3) 2.1  10 8 i T (4) 6.3  108 j T (3) 0.4 Am 2
(4) 0.16 Am2
129. In a transformer, the source of energy loss 132. A wheel of radius 0.5 m has 20 spokes. It is
and the precaution to minimize that are rotating at the rate of 180 revolution per
minute, perpendicular to the horizontal
mentioned in set-I and in set –II. Match the
component of earth’s magnetic field of
appropriate ones 0.4x10-4 T. The emf induced between the rim
Set-I Set-II and the centre of wheel will be nearly
A. Flux leakage (1) 3 105V (2) 6 103V
P. thin sheets of
(3) 3 106V (4) 6 104V
laminated core
133. A light bulb and open coil inductor are
B. Resistance of Q. Thick wire in connected to an AC source through a key as
windings high current shown. After closing the switch if an iron rod
is inserted into the interior of the inductor
windings
then the glow of bulb
C. Eddy currents R. soft iron core .
D. Hysterisis S. Primary and
secondary coils are
wound one over the
other (1) Increases
(2) doesn’t change
(1) A-S ; B-Q; C-R; D-P
(3) decreases
(2) A-S ; B-Q; C-P; D-R (4) first increases and falls to
(3) A-Q ; B-P; C-S; D-R
(4) A-S ; B-R; C-P; D-Q
130. Variation of resistivity of Nichrome (  ) with
absolute temperature (T) is shown by

17
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
134. The logic circuit shown below has the input 2 2
(3) E (4) E
waveforms ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown. Pick out 5 3
the current output waveform 137. A resistance of 2 is connected across one
gap of a metre-bridge and unknown
resistance, greater than 2 is connected
across the other gap. When these resistances
are interchanged, the balance point shifts by
20cm, neglecting any end correction, the
unknown resistance is
(1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 5 (4) 4
138. For hydrogen atom electron in nth Bohr
orbit, the ratio of the radius of orbit to its
de – Broglie wavelength is
n n2
(1) (2)
2 2
1 1
(3) (4)
2 n 2  n2
139. In the figure, the reverse breakdown
voltage of a Zener diode is 5.6 V, then the
current I z through the diode is

(1) 17 mA (2) 15 mA
135. Electric field strength due to a point dipole (3) 10 mA (4) 7 Ma
at a distance ‘r’ from it on its axial line is 140. The primary of a transformer with primary to
secondary turns ratio of 1 : 2, is connected to
E . Electric field strength on its equatorial an alternating of voltage 200 V. A current of
line at the same distance ‘r’ will be 4 A is flowing though the primary coil.
E E Assuming that the transformer has no losses,
(1) (2) the secondary voltage and current are
2 2
respectively
(3) 2E (4) 2E (1) 100 V, 8 A (2) 400 V, 8 A
SECTION-B (3) 400 V, 2 A (4) 100 V, 2A
136. Two condensers of capacities 2F and 3F 141. A LCR series circuit has a resistor of
are connected in parallel with a battery. If resistance 10 behaves like a pure resistive
circuit at an angular frequency 50 kHz.
the energy stored in 2F is E. Then the
If the resistance is changed to 20 then
energy stored in condenser of capacity 3F resonant frequency the circuit will be
are (1) 25 kHz (2) 50 kHz
3 (3) 100 kHz (4) 40 kHz
(1) E (2) E
2
18
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
142. In an electromagnetic wave ratio of energy Y
associated with electric field and magnetic
fields is V
K
(1) 2 :1 (2) 1:2
(3) 1:1 (4) 4:1
143. If a body of mass 2 kg tied to string of length
1m and whirled in vertical circle with critical X
O
velocity, then the tension in the string at the (1) zero always
lowest point is (g=10ms-2) (2) it increases as it moves along the line
(1) zero (2) 60 N (3) it is of the same magnitude but changes
(3) 120 N (4) 20 N in direction as it moves along the line
144. A rocket is fired vertically with a speed half (4) it remains same, both in magnitude and
of escape speed from the earth’s surface. direction at all points
How far from the earth surface does the 148. Statement-I : Gases have less viscosity than
rocket go before returning to the earth? liquid.
Statement-II : With rise in temperature
(Radius of earth is R)
surface tension of liquids decrease.
(1) R (2) R/2 (1) Statement I is correct and statement II is
(3) 2R (4) R/3 wrong
145. Dimensions of energy density is same as that (2) Both the statements are correct
of (3) Both the statements are wrong
(1) Young’s modulus (4) Statement II is correct and statement I is
(2) Surface tension wrong
(3) Coefficient of velocity 149. A particle is projected obliquely at 600 with a
(4) Compressibility speed 20 ms-1 from ground where
acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms-2. The
146. For the velocity time graph shown in figure
dot product of velocity and acceleration at
in time interval from t = 0 to t = 5 s. The ratio the highest point of trajectory has a
of distance to magnitude of displacement is magnitude
(1) 100 (2) 200
(3) 100 3 (4) zero

150. Two particles are revolving circular paths of

same radii have centripetal accelerations in
4:9 proportions. The ratio of their speeds is
(1) 10 : 81 (2) 4:9
(1) 11 : 7 (2) 9 : 7 (3) 2:3 (4) 4:2
CHEMISTRY
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 7 : 5 SECTION –A
147. A particle of mass ‘m’ moves with a 151. What will be the molality of the solution
constant velocity along a straight line y= k containing 18.25g of HCl gas in 500g of
(parallel to x- axis). Which of the following water?
statements is correct about its angular (1)0.1m (2) 1M
momentum about origin? (3) 0.5m (4) 1m

19
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
152. When 22.4 litres of H2 g  is mixed with 11.2 159. The given enthalpy diagram represents which
of the following reactions?
litres of Cl2 g  , each at S.T.P, the moles of
HCl g  formed is
equal to
(1) 1 mol of HCl g  (2) 2 mol of HCl g 
(3) 0.5 mol of HCl g  (4) 1.5 mol of HCl g 
2 (1) Enthalpy diagram for endothermic reaction
153. The graph between  and r (radial distance)
(2) Enthalpy diagram for exothermic reaction
is shown below. This represents. (3) Enthalpy diagram for reversible reaction
(4) Enthalpy diagram for non-spontaneous
reaction
160. Solubility of CaF2 is 0.5 104 mol L1 . The
value of K sp for the salt is

(1)3s orbital (2) 2p orbital (1) 5 1012 (2) 2.5 10

16

(3) 1s orbital (4) 2s orbital (3) 11013 (4) 5 1013

154. The number of ions amongst the following 161. Consider the following properties
that have the bond order of 2.5 are I) pH II) Pressure
N 2 , NO  , C2  , N 2 , C22 , CN  III) Volume IV) Entropy
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 5 V) EMF of a cell VI) Boiling point
155. Nessler’s reagent is used for identification of
Select intensive and extensive properties.
following cation:
(1) Na  (2) K  (3) NH 4 (4) Pb2 Intensive Extensive
156. The number of  bonds,  bonds and lone (1) I, II, IV III, V, VI
pair of
(2) I, II, III, IV V, VI
electrons in pyridine, respectively are
(1) 12, 2, 1 (2) 11, 2, 0 (3) I, III, IV II, V, VI
(3) 12, 3, 0 (4) 11, 3, 1 (4) I, II, V, VI IV, III
157. For a first – order reaction A   Product, 162. Match Column-I with Column-II
the half – life is 100 seconds. The rate
constant of the reaction is: Column – I Column – II
(1) 6.9 102 s 1 4 1
(2) 6.93 10 s A) Riboflavin p) Beriberi
3 1 1 1
(3) 6.93 10 s (4) 6.93 10 s
B) Thiamine q) Scurvy
158. For a given reaction, H  35.5 kJ mol 1 and
C) Pyridoxine r) Cheilosis
S  83.6 J K 1mol 1. The reaction is
D) Ascorbic acid s) Convulsions
spontaneous at (Assume that H  and S
do not vary with temperature.)
(1) T  425K (1) A-p, B – s, C – r, D – q
(2) all temperatures (2) A-r, B – s, C – p, D – q
(3) T  298K (3) A-r, B – p, C – s, D – q
(4) T  425K (4) A-s, B – q, C – p, D – r
20
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
163. Assertion (A): All naturally occurring  -
amino acids except glycine are optically active (1) I – b, II – d, III – a, IV – c
Reason(R): Most naturally occurring amino (2) I - d, II – a, III – c, IV – b
acids have L-configuration (3) I – a, II – c, III – b, IV – d
(1) A is false but R is true (4) I – b, II – c, III – d, IV – a
(2) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct 167. A set of solutions is prepared by using 180 gm
explanation of A of water as a solvent and 10 gm of different
(3) Both A and R are true, and R is NOT the non-volatile solutes
correct explanation of A A (mol.wt = 100), B (mol.wt = 200), C
(4) A is true but R is false (mol.wt = 10,000) The relative lowering of
164. The standard reduction potentials of vapour pressures is in the order of
Zn 2 | Zn, Cu 2 | Cu and Ag  | Ag are (1) A > B > C (2) A > C > B
respectively (3) C > B > A (4) B > C > A
-0.76, 0.34 and 0.8 V. The following cells 168. Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal
were constructed. solution?
a) Zn / Zn2 / /Cu 2 / Cu (1) Vmix
b) Zn / Zn 2 / / Ag  / Ag (2) P  Pobserved  PRaoult
c) Cu / Cu 2 / / Ag  / Ag (3) H mix
0
What is the correct order of Ecell of these (4) S mix
cells? 169. Identify P and Q products in given reaction
(1) b  c  a (2) b  a  c 
KI  MnO4 
H
 P  Mn2

(3) a  b  c (4) c  a  b

KI  MnO4 
OH
 IO3  Q
165. The instantaneous rate of the reaction is
expressed in the following way for a reaction (1) IO3 , MnO2 respectively
1 d C  1 d  D  1 d  A d  B
(2) I  , Mn 2  respectively
   
2 dt 3 dt 4 dt dt
The reaction is (3) IO3 , Mn 2  respectively
(1) 4A + B → 2C +3D
(4) I 2 , MnO2 respectively
(2) B + 3D → 4A + 2C
(3) A + B → C +D
(4) B + D → A + C 170. The correct order of reactivity towards
166. Match the compounds to the CORRECT electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction is
oxidation states of the underlined metal
CH 3 Cl NO2

COMPOUND OXIDATION
A) B)
STATE C) D)

I. K MnO4 a. +1
II. K 2 CrO4 b. 7
(1) A B C  D
III. Cu2 I 2 1
c.  (2) C B D A
2 (3) DC  A B
IV. KO2 d. +6 (4) DC  B A
21
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
171. A  CH3 NH2 , B  CH3 2 NH , OH OH

C   CH 3 3 N , D  NH 3 3) ;
Correct basic strength in aqueous solution is Br Br
(1) D  A  B  C
Br
(2) B  A  C  D OH
OH
(3) B  D  C  A
Br Br
(4) C  B  D  A
172. Correct trend of electro negativity (on Pauling 4) ;
scale) in 14th group elements is
(1) C  Pb  Si  Ge  Sn Br Br
(2) C  Pb  Si  Ge  Sn 175. Statement-I: f-block is placed separately in
(3) C  Pb  Si  Ge  Sn periodic table to preserve the basic
(4) C  Si  Ge  Sn  Pb classification principle of periodic table
173. Statement-II: S-block elements can be found in
CH 3 KMnO 4 / H  nature in pure elemental state.
CH 3 C CH X Y
(1) Both statement-I and Statement II are true
CH 3 (2) Statement-I is false, but statement-II is false
‘X’ and ‘Y’ in this reaction are. (3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
(1) Acetone; Acetic acid (4) Both statement-I and Statement-II are false
(2) Acetone; Acetaldehyde
(3) Acetaldehyde; Acetaldehyde 176.
alc . KOH , 
(4) Acetaldehyde ; Acetic acid CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 3  
174.
F
OH
IUPAC name of the major product in the
above reaction is.
(1) 1-butene
(2) cis-2-butene
Br2 / CS 2 Br2 / H 2O (3) trans-2-butene
(4) but-1,3-diene
177. Halide most readily hydrolyses by SN 1
A  major  B
mechanism is.
A and B respectively are (1) C6 H 5Cl
OH
OH
(2) C6 H5 2 CHCl
Br (3) C6 H 5CH 2Cl
1) ;
(4) C6 H5 3 CCl
178. The crimson colour imparted to flame is due
Br
to salt of
OH
OH
(1) Barium
Br Br
Br (2) Calcium
2) ;
(3) Strontium
(4) Sodium
Br
22
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
179. Assertion(A): Phenols give O-and P- (4) Both S I and S II are correct
nitrophenol on nitration with conc. HNO3 and 184.In which of the following arrangements, the
given sequence is not strictly according to the
H 2 SO4 mixture
properties indicated against it?
Reason(R): OH group in phenol is O-, P- (1) B < Be < C < O: Increasing first ionization
directing
enthalpy
(1) A is false but R is true (2) I < Br < Cl < F: Negative electron gain
(2) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct enthalpy
explanation of A
(3) Mg 2  Na   F   O 2 : Increasing ionic
(3) Both A and R are true, and R is NOT the
correct explanation of A radii
(4) A is true but R is false (4) C < N < O < F: Increasing electronegativity
180. 2-hexyne gives trans-2 hexene on treatment 185. Which of the following reagents may be used
with to distinguish between phenol and benzoic
acid?
(1) Na / liq.NH 3 (2) Pd / BaSO4
(1) Aqueous NaOH (2) Tollen’s reagent
(3) LiAlH 4 (4) Pt / H 2 (3) Hinsberg’s reagent (4) Neutral FeCl3
181. The lanthanoid that does not show +4
SECTION-B
oxidation
186. In which of the following, mixing of 1N
state is. strong acid and 1N strong base results in
(1) Dy (2) Ce (3) Eu (4) Tb
highest increase in temperature
182. Which of the following statements are true
(1) 20 ml acid + 30 ml alkali
A) Ma3b3 type of complex exhibits fac- mer (2) 10 ml acid + 40 ml alkali
isomerism (3) 25 ml acid + 25 ml alkali
B) Tetrahedral complexes never exhibit optical (4) 35 ml acid + 15 ml alkali
isomerism 187. The values  m for NH 4Cl , NaOH and
3
C) Co  en 3  shows optical isomerism NaCl respectively 149.74, 248.1 and
2 126.4 ohm1cm2 mol 1
D) trans  Pt  en 2 Cl2  does not exhibit
The value of  m of NH 4OH
optical isomerism
(1) A, B, C are correct (1) 371.44 (2) 271.44
(2) B, C, D are correct (3) 71.44 (4) 143.2
(3) A, C, D are correct 188. Weight (g) of two moles of the organic
(4) B, C are correct compound, which is obtained by heating
183. Statement-I: Pure aniline and other arylamines sodium ethanoate with sodium hydroxide in
are usually colourless presence of calcium oxide is:
Statement-II: Arylamines get coloured on (1) 18 (2) 16
storage due (3) 32 (4) 30
to atmospheric reduction 189. NH 4CN is a salt of weak acid HCN
In the light of above statements choose the K a  6.2 1010  and a weak base NH 4OH
most appropriate answer from the options given
( K b  1.8 105 ) . A one molar solution of
below
(1) S I is correct, but S II is incorrect NH 4CN will be
(2) Both S I and S II are incorrect (1) Neutral (2) Strongly acidic
(3) S I is incorrect, but S II is correct (3) Strongly basic (4) Weakly basic
23
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
190. Given below are two statements: one is from ‘B’ involve the same mechanism. The
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled mechanism is
as Reason R:
(1) S N 2 (2) E1
Assertion (A): In equation  r G  nFEcell ,
value of  r G depends on n, (3) E2 (4) S N 1
Reason (R): Ecell is an intensive property and 195.
rG  CH3 2 Cd
CH 3COCl A
is an extensive property.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct H2
explanation of A B
Pb / BaSO4
(3) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
correct explanation of A A, B are respectively.
(4) A is true but R is false (1) CH 3COCH 3 , CH 3CHO
191. A solution containing 62 g ethylene glycol in
(2) CH 3COCH 2CH 3 , CH 3CHO
250g water is cooled to 100 C . If K f for
(3) CH 3COCH 3 , CH 3CH 2OH
water is 1.86
(4) CH 3CH 2COCH 3 , CH 3CH 2OH
K kg mol 1 , the amount of water (in g )
3 3
separated as ice is 196. I .... Co  NH 3 6  , II ..... Co  CN 6  ,
(1) 64 (2) 32 (3) 16 (4) 48 3

192.If the equilibrium constant for the given III .... Co  NO2 6  correct decreasing order
1 1 of wavelength of light absorbed is
reaction NO N 2  O2 , is 0.25 then the
2 2
equilibrium constant for the reaction (1) II  I  III
1 1 (2) III  I  II
N2  O2 NO will be
2 2
(3) I  III  II
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
193. (4) III  II  I
Kl 95%/ H3 PO4 
197. KMnO4 can be prepared from K 2 MnO4 as
CH3CH 2OH   A 
CH3COOAg
 B 
H3O
C  D
per

If C  the reaction.

 or  LiAlH 4  D
B2 H 6 / H 2O
, then the compound ‘C’ is
3MnO42  2 H 2O 2MnO4  MnO2  4OH 
(1) CH 3COOC2 H 5 (2) CH 3CHO The reaction can go to completion by removing
(3) CH 3COOH (4) C2 H 5OH OH  ions on adding.
194. (1) NaCl
(2) KOH
Conc. HI  excess 
C2 H5OH 
Conc. H2 SO4
413 K
A  
 B 
C2 H5ONa
 C (3) CO2
Formation of ‘A’ from C2 H 5OH and (4) SO2
formation of ‘C’
24
 NEET GT-02 (10-02-24)
198. Match the method in column I with the
respective intermediate in column II

Column I Column II
i) Dumasmethod a)Ammonium
sulphate
ii) Kjeldhal’s b) Silica gel
method
iii) Carius method c) AgNO3
iv) d) Nitrogen
Chromotography

(1) i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b

(2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
(3) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
199. Which of the following compound gives
Tollen’s test but does not give haloform test?
O O
1) CH 3  C  H 2) CH 3  C  CH 3
O
3) H  C  H

O
C  CH 3
4)

200. Assertion (A): Boron has highest melting

point in group 13, that is 2453K.
Reason (R): Boron has solid crystalline lattice
structure.
(1) Both A and R are correct, and R is the
correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct
(3) A is correct and R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are correct, and R is the not
correct explanation of A

25