SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day - 30 (Eng)
Reasoning Ability
Directions (1-5): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below
Ten persons –P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y are
living in a ten storey-building, where the lower-
most floor is numbered as one and the top-most
floor is numbered as ten. They belong to the
same family with three generations and there is
no single parent. Not more than two persons of
the same gender live on adjacent floors.
P is the son-in-law of the one who is the mother
of S. W lives four floors below her sister-in-law V,
who has no siblings. The one who lives on the
eighth floor is the son-in-law of T, who lives
immediately above his granddaughter. The one
who lives on the third floor is the brother of S,
who lives two floors below her only brother. R is
the niece of W’s sister who is a spinster. Only
three persons live between Q’s one of the
daughters and X’s only daughter, whose
grandfather is T. The one who lives on the ninth
floor is the son of P, who is the brother-in-law of
Y’s father. Y lives on an even numbered floor
and lives below one of her paternal aunts. U is
the grandson of W’s mother, who lives on a
prime number floor above floor number 5. Both R
and the one who is the maternal aunt of R are
living below R’s grandfather.
1. How is P related to the one who lives two
floors below X?
a) Sister-in-law
b) Brother-in-law
c) Husband
d) Wife
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e) Can’t be determined
2. Who lives three floors above the one who is
the niece of W?
a) The one who is the grandfather of R
b) Q
c) The one who is the mother of U
d) The one who is the nephew of X
e) S
3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not
false with respect to the final arrangement?
a) The one who is the daughter-in-law of T lives
on an odd numbered floor
b) Y and her mother live on adjacent floors.
c) Three persons live between T and son-in-law
of Q
d) U is not a daughter of P
e) All the given statement is true.
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the given arrangement and thus
form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to the group?
a) The one who lives on floor number 7
b) The one who is the daughter of T
c) The one who lives two floors above Y.
d) The one who is the cousin of U.
e) The one who lives three floors below P.
5. Which of the following statement is true with
respect to X from the final arrangement?
a) X is the daughter of T
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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day - 30 (Eng)
b) Only two persons live above X
c) X lives immediately below his niece
d) X is the brother-in-law of W
e) All the statement is false
Directions (6-10): Study the following information
carefully and answer the questions given below
A ten letter word (may or may not be meaningful)
with no repeated letters is arranged in three
arrangements to form a series.
Arrangement 1:
O is placed fifth to the left of E. The number of
letters placed to the left of O is one more than
the number of letters placed to the right of N. M
is placed third to the right of U, where neither of
them is placed adjacent to N. As many letters
between T and H as between H and V, which is
placed immediate right of A. A is placed four
places away from C. More than two letters are
placed between H and A.
Arrangement 2:
If the word formed in arrangement 1 doesn’t give
a meaningful word, then all the vowels in the
word are replaced with their third preceding letter
as per the English alphabetical series and all the
consonants are replaced with their opposite letter
as per the English alphabetical series. Else, If
arrangement 1 forms the meaningful word, then
all the consonants in the word are replaced with
their third preceding letter as per the English
alphabetical series and all the vowels are
replaced with their opposite letter as per the
English alphabetical series.
Arrangement 3:
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Some random letters are picked from both
arrangements to form a word. If the letters form a
meaningful word then the word is written as it is.
If the letters did not form a meaningful word, then
the letters are written in reverse alphabetical
order from left to right.
The first letter and the last letter of arrangement
1 are taken along with the letter which is fourth
from the left end and fifth from the right end of
arrangement 2 is taken to form the first word. E is
not the second letter of the first word. Next, the
letter which is fourth from the right end of both
arrangements along with the letter which is
second from the left end in arrangement 2 is
taken to form the second word. Then, the letter
which is fourth from left end and fifth from right
end in arrangement 1 is taken along with the
letter which is third from left end and second from
right end of arrangement 2 is taken to form the
third word.
6. Which of the following letter is placed third to
the right of E in arrangement 2?
a) Q
b) L
c) K
d) S
e) F
7. Which of the following letter is placed exactly
between the letters which is second from left end
and third from right end in arrangement 1?
a) U
b) C
c) E
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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day - 30 (Eng)

d) V archery, tennis, boxing and rowing in Olympics.

e) M Each country gets different rank from 1 to 6, such
that rank 1 is the highest rank whereas rank 6 is
8. In which of the following combination, the first the lowest rank. Each Country gets different
letter is exactly between the second and third ranks in all four sports. No two countries get the
letter in any of the three arrangements? same rank in each sport.
a) COU Japan gets the highest rank in tennis which is
b) STE three ranks higher than China in boxing. US rank
c) JEK in tennis is same as Malaysia’s rank in rowing,
d) EFV but neither of them ranks first nor last. China
e) MNT neither gets the second highest nor lowest rank
in any sports. In tennis, Turkey gets higher rank
9. How many letters are there in the English than Malaysia and lower rank than US. Japan
alphabetical series between the letters which is gets lowest rank in archery and second lowest
second from both ends in arrangement 1? rank in boxing. Sum of the rank of India in boxing
a) Four and tennis is equal to rowing. In boxing, Turkey
b) Five gets two ranks higher than Japan. India neither
c) Six gets the highest nor lowest rank. The one who
d) Seven gets first rank in boxing gets last rank in tennis.
e) More than seven In rowing, Japan gets higher rank than US and
lower rank than Malaysia. The rank difference
10. What is the third word (may or may not be between Turkey in boxing and rowing is equal to
meaningful) formed in arrangement 3? China in archery. In archery, US get three ranks
a) LOHK higher than India.
b) ULKH 11. How many countries get higher ranks than
c) KLOH China in boxing?
d) LHOK a) One
e) HULK b) Two
c) Three
Directions (11-15): Study the following d) Four
information carefully and answer the questions e) Five
given below
Six countries – US, China, India, Japan, Turkey 12. What is the rank of Turkey in Boxing and
and Malaysia participated in different sports – Archery and US in rowing respectively?

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day - 30 (Eng)

a) 4, 3, 2 A businessman shared his profit amount of

b) 5, 6, 3 Rs.60,000 with his nine employees - A, B, C, D,
c) 6, 1, 2 E, F, G, H and I are sitting around a triangular
d) 3, 2, 4 table in such a way that one person sits at each
e) Both a and d corner facing outside and two persons sit on
each side of the table facing inside the table.
13. What is the sum of the rank of Japan in Profit was shared in different percentage - 2%,
archery, India in boxing and Malaysia in tennis? 4%, 5%, 8%, 11%, 15%, 16%, 18% and 21%
a) 10 based on their performance.
b) 14 Note: The share percentage of the persons
c) 24 sitting at the corners is a prime number.
d) 34 Four persons sit between E and F, who is not
e) 18 adjacent to B. The one who gets 4% of profit sits
third to the right of F, whose share percentage is
14. Which country gets three ranks lower than a non-prime odd number. B sits third to the left of
US in tennis and two ranks higher than Turkey in I, who sits second to the right of the one whose
rowing respectively? share is Rs.1200. The sum of the share received
a) China, US by F and I is Rs.13800, where F and B don’t sit
b) Malaysia, US adjacent to each other. The difference between
c) China, Japan the share percentage of C and H is 2%. C sits to
d) Japan, Turkey the immediate left of the one whose share in
e) India, US profit is Rs.12600. The number of persons sitting
between G and D is same as the number of
15. The sum of the rank of which country in all persons sitting between E and B. The share
the four sports events is the lowest? difference between A and the one who sits
a) China and Turkey immediate right of the one whose share
b) US and Malaysia percentage is 15% is Rs.7800. The one whose
c) India and Japan percentage share is 16% and D are not sitting
d) India and Turkey together.
e) China and US 16. Who among the following person gets the
share of Rs.9600?
Directions (16-20): Study the following a) The one who sits second to the left of F
information carefully and answer the question b) I
given below. c) B

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day - 30 (Eng)

d) The one who sits immediate right of E d) B

e) Both d and c e) G

17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are 19. If I is related to 16% and H is related to 15%
not false with respect to the final arrangement? in a certain way, then who is related to 21%?
a) Three persons sit between C and the one a) B
whose share percentage is 5 b) F
b) F sits second to the left of the one whose c) A
share is 9600 d) I
c) Sum of the share of A and E is less than c) D
Rs.15000
d) Both a and b 20. Which of the following statement is true with
e) Both b and c respect to D?
a) The share amount of D is Rs.3000
18. Four of the following five are alike in a certain b) D sits immediate left of the one whose share is
way based on the given arrangement and thus Rs.9600
form a group. Which one of the following does c) D’s percentage share is a prime number
not belong to the group? d) D sits second to the left of the one who sits
a) F immediate left of B.
b) D e) D sits third to the right of the one whose share
c) E percentage is 8%
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Answer Key with Explanation

Directions (1-5): 1. Answer: B

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day - 30 (Eng)

2. Answer: A  The one who lives on the ninth floor is the

3. Answer: D son of P, who is the brother-in-law of Y’s
4. Answer: E father.
5. Answer: C  Y lives on an even numbered floor and
We have, lives below one of her paternal aunts.
 P is the son-in-law of the one who is the
mother of S.
 W lives four floors below her sister-in-law
V, who has no siblings.
 The one who lives on the eighth floor is
the son-in-law of T, who lives immediately
above his granddaughter.
 The one who lives on the third floor is the
brother of S, who lives two floors below
her only brother.
From above conditions, we have two Again we have,
possibilities:  U is the grandson of W’s mother, who
lives on a prime number floor above floor
number 5.
 Both R and the one who is the maternal
aunt of R are living below R’s grandfather.
Note: Not more than two persons of the same
gender live on adjacent floors.
While applying above conditions, case 1, and 3
gets eliminated

Again we have,
 R is the niece of W’s sister who is a
spinster.
 Only three persons live between Q’s one
of the daughters and X’s only daughter,
whose grandfather is T.

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day - 30 (Eng)

Again we have,
 M is placed third to the right of U, where
neither of them is placed adjacent to N.
 As many letters between T and H as
between H and V, which is placed
immediate right of A.
 A is placed four places away from C.
 More than two letters are placed between
H and A.

(Note - sign indicates female and + sign

indicates male)
Thus, case 1.a gives the final arrangement.

Thus, case 2.a gets final arrangement.

Arrangement 2:
 If the word formed in arrangement 1
doesn’t give a meaningful word, then all
the vowels in the word are replaced with
Directions (6-10) their third preceding letter as per the
6. Answer: C English alphabetical series and all the
7. Answer: B consonants are replaced with their
8. Answer: D opposite letter as per the English
9. Answer: D alphabetical series.
10. Answer: E  If arrangement 1 forms the meaningful
Arrangement 1: word, then all the consonants in the word
We have, are replaced with their third preceding
 O is placed fifth to the left of E. letter as per the English alphabetical
 The number of letters placed to the left of series and all the vowels are replaced
O is one more than the number of letters with their opposite letter as per the
placed to the right of N. English alphabetical series.
Since the word AVOUCHMENT form the
meaningful word, condition 2 is implemented.

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day - 30 (Eng)

 Vowels: A,O,U,E -> Z,L,F,V Arrangement 1: AVOUCHMENT

 Consonants: V,C,H,M,N,T -> S,Z,E,J,K,Q Arrangement 2: ZSLFZEJVKQ
Thus, the newly formed word is ZSLFZEJVKQ New word: HULK
Arrangement 3: Thus the newly formed word is FATESMJHULK
Some random letters are picked from both
arrangements to form a word. If the letters form Directions (11-15)
a meaningful word then the word is written as it 11. Answer: C
is. If the letters did not form a meaningful word, 12. Answer: D
then the letters are written in reverse 13. Answer: B
alphabetical order from left to right. 14. Answer: A
 The first letter and the last letter of 15. Answer: E
arrangement 1 are taken along with the Final arrangement:
letter which is fourth from the left end and
fifth from the right end of arrangement 2 is
taken to form the first word. E is not the
second letter of the first word.
Arrangement 1: AVOUCHMENT
Arrangement 2: ZSLFZEJVKQ
New word: FATE
 Next, the letter which is fourth from right
We have,
end of both arrangements along with the
 Japan gets the highest rank in tennis
letter which is second from the left end in
which is three ranks higher than China in
arrangement 2 is taken to form the
boxing.
second word.
 US rank in tennis is same as Malaysia’s
Arrangement 1: AVOUCHMENT
rank in rowing, but neither of them ranks
Arrangement 2: ZSLFZEJVKQ
first nor last.
New word: SMJ
While applying above conditions, we have
 Then, the letter which is fourth from the
four possibilities:
left end and fifth from the right end in
arrangement 1 is taken along with the
letter which is third from the left end and
second from right end of arrangement 2 is
taken to form the third word.

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day - 30 (Eng)

 In boxing, Turkey gets two ranks higher

than Japan.
 In tennis, Turkey gets higher rank than
Malaysia and lower rank than US.(While
applying this conditions, case 4 gets
eliminated)
 Sum of the rank of India in boxing and
tennis is equal to rowing.
 India neither gets the highest nor lowest
rank.
Since, only possible combination is (2, 3,
and 5), While applying this condition, case
2 gets eliminated.
 China neither gets the second highest nor
lowest rank in any sports.
Thus, case (3) and case (1a) are not valid.

Again we have,
 Japan gets lowest rank in archery and
second lowest rank in boxing.

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SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day - 30 (Eng)

Again we have,
 The one who gets the first rank in boxing
gets the last rank in tennis.
 In rowing, Japan gets higher rank than US
and lower rank than Malaysia.
 The rank difference between Turkey in
boxing and rowing is equal to China in
archery.
Since, china doesn’t get rank 2 or 6 in any
event, thus only possible rank for china in
Archery is 3, and in rowing is 1.
 In archery, US gets three ranks higher
than India

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day - 30 (Eng)

That means, F doesn’t sit at the corner as

the persons sitting at the corners share is
a prime percentage.
From above conditions, we have four
possibilities:

Thus, case 1 gives the final arrangement.

Directions (16-20)
16. Answer: C
17. Answer: B
18. Answer: D
Again we have,
19. Answer: A
 B sits third to the left of I, who sits second
20. Answer: E
to the right of the one whose share is
Final arrangement:
Rs.1200.
Since, 2% of 60,000 is 1200, and the one
whose percentage is prime sits at corner)
 The sum of share received by F and I is
Rs.13800, where F and B don’t sit
adjacent to each other.
Since, 23% of 60,000 is 13800, thus only
such possible combinations are (15, 8).
We have,
By the above condition, case3 gets
 Four persons sit between E and F, who is
eliminated.
not adjacent to B.
 The one who gets 4% of profit sits third to
the right of F, whose share percentage is
non-prime odd number.

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day - 30 (Eng)

 The share difference between A and the

one who sits immediate right of the one
whose share percentage is 15% is
Rs.7800.
Since 7800 is 13% of 60,000, thus
Again we have, difference percentage must be 13%, (4
 The difference between the share and 4a eliminated)
percentage of C and H is 2%.  The one whose percentage share is 16%
 C sits to the immediate left of the one and D are not sitting together.
whose share in profit is Rs.12600.
Since, 21% of 60,000 is 12600, thus(Case
1,2 gets eliminated)
 The number of persons sitting between G
and D is same as the number of persons
sitting between E and B.

Thus, case 4.i gives the final arrangement.

Again we have,

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Quantitative Aptitude Day -30 (Eng)

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (01 - 05): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The given pie chart shows the average quantity (litres) of petrol and diesel in five different filling stations
[P, Q, R, S, and T].

Note – The ratio of the quantity of petrol and diesel in S is 4:3. The Total quantity of petrol and diesel in T
is the same. The quantity of diesel is the same in Q and S. The quantity of petrol in R is 25% more than
the same in S. The quantity of petrol in P is 55% less than the same in R. The quantity of diesel in S is
120 litres.
1) The ratio of regular, premium 95 and premium petrol is Rs.102 and the price per litres of diesel
98 types of petrol in Q are 3:2:1. Total 75% of is Rs.94. Find the total revenue earned by P?
petrol sold in Q. The ratio of regular, premium 95 a) Rs.14578
and premium 98 types of petrol sold in Q is 5:4:2. b) Rs.15268
Find the percentage of premium 95 and premium c) Rs.14252
98 types petrol unsold in Q? d) Rs.15336
a) 12.5% e) Rs.15642
b) 19.5%
c) 18.18% 3) Total quantity of petrol sold in R is _______ %
d) 11.11% and total quantity of diesel sold in R is _______%.
e) 16.67% The total unsold quantity of fuel in R is _______.
Find which of the following satisfies the blank?
2) Out of the total quantity of petrol in P, 6.66% a) 75, 80, 120
are unsold and out of the total quantity of diesel b) 80, 75, 95
in P 7.69% are unsold. The price per litres of c) 60, 70, 105.5
d) More than one option is true

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Quantitative Aptitude Day -30 (Eng)

e) None of these trucks and the rest for cars. Find the total
quantity of fuel sold to the car in S?
4) 80% of petrol and 80% of diesel are sold in S. a) 70.4
Out of the total quality of petrol sold in S, 75% is b) 74.4
sold for bikes and the rest for cars. Out of the c) 72.4
total quantity of diesel sold in S, 60% sold for d) 76.4
e) None of these

Directions (05 - 08): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The line graph shows the number of boys, the number of girls and the total number of chocolates
distributed among all the students of the five different classes [A, B, C, D, and E].

Note – In classes D and B, each boy and girl got 2 chocolates, in class C, boys got 2 chocolates and girls
got 5 chocolates. In class A, boys got 3 chocolates and girls got 3 chocolates.
5) The average age of boys in class A is 5 years II. 5.9>average age>5.3
and the average age of boys in class B is 6 III. 5.1<average age <5.7
years. The average age of girls in class A is 6 a) I and III
years and the average age of girls in class B is 5 b) II and I
years. Find the possible range of average age of c) II and III
all the students of classes A and B? d) I and III
I. 6.5>average age>5.8 e) only II

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Quantitative Aptitude Day -30 (Eng)

6) The boys of class E got (z-1) chocolates. If a) only II

each boy got 2 chocolates more and each girl b) All three
got 3 chocolates more then find the total number c) only I and II
of chocolates distributed in class E? d) only II and III
a) 254 e) None of these
b) 242
c) 282 8) The ratio of mango chocolate and orange
d) 222 chocolate is 4:5 out of the total chocolate
e) 262 distributed in A and the ratio of mango and
orange chocolate is 5:3 out of the total chocolate
7) The ratio of the number of boys in classes D distributed in B. If the price of each mango
and F is 2:3 and the ratio of the number of boys chocolate is Rs.1.5 and the price of each orange
and girls in class F is 3:4. The average number chocolate is Rs.2. Find the total amount spend in
of girls in classes F and G is 30. The average classes A and B?
number of students in class G is 32. Find the a) Rs.285
possible difference of total boys in class F and b) Rs.295
G? c) Rs.245
I.3z+4 d) Rs.265
II.2x+3 e) None of these
III.6y+1

Directions (09 - 12): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The given bar graph shows the difference between the CI and SI in two years and the principle amount in
four different schemes [A, B, C, and D].

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -30 (Eng)

9) A person has Rs. (X+12000). He divided the
amount into Rs. m and Rs. n. He invested Rs. m
in scheme D in SI and he invested Rs. n in
scheme C in CI for 2 years. The interest amount
in scheme C is 3570 more than he earned in
scheme D. The ratio of m and n 3:5. Find the CI
when Rs. X invests at scheme D for 2 years?
a) Rs.5420
b) Rs.5888
c) Rs.5088
d) Rs.6088
e) Rs.7288
10) Rs. ______ invest in scheme C at simple
interest for 2 years and Rs. _______ invest in
scheme C at compound interest for 3 years. The
sum of SI and CI is ________.
Find which of the following is true?
a) Rs.12000, Rs.16000, Rs.1540
b) Rs.20000, Rs.22000, Rs.14852
c) More than one option is true
d) Rs.25000, Rs.20000, Rs.17917.5
e) Rs.12000, Rs.16000, Rs.11934
11) The difference between SI and CI is Rs.3200
when Rs. (x + 2500) invested for 2 years in
scheme B. Find the SI when (2x -5000) invests
for 5 years in the same scheme?
a) Rs.52000
b) Rs.60000
c) Rs.85000
d) Rs.56200
e) None of these
12) The ratio of SI when Rs.x+2000 and
Rs.x+5000 invest in scheme A for 3 and 4 years
is 3:5. Find the CI if Rs.2x+500 invest in scheme
A for 2 years?
a) Rs.4305
b) Rs.4450

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Quantitative Aptitude Day -30 (Eng)

c) Rs.4250 e) None of these

d) Rs.5420

Directions (13- 16): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
The given table shows the total number of bottles [large + small] manufactured, the difference of number
[large – small] size bottles manufactured, the percentage of default large size bottles manufactured, the
percentage of default small size manufactured and the number of default large size bottle manufactured
by five different factory [P, Q, R, S and T].

Tota bottle manufactured = large + small size bottle = perfect and default bottle manufactured
13) The total manufacturing cost of the large
bottle is Rs. 18 and the small bottle is Rs.12. The
selling price of the large bottle is Rs.25 and the
small bottle is 20. If the bottle is the default, then
it is sold at a 20% discount on the selling price.
Find the total profit earned by P?
a) 21.32%
b) 45.35%
c) 40.32%
d) 75.32%
e) 32.22%
14) The ratio of red and green bottles
manufactured out of the total large bottles
manufactured in Q is 2:3 and the ratio of red and
green bottles manufactured out of the total small
size bottles manufactured in Q is 4:3. Find the
possible difference between the total red and
total green manufactured in Q?
I. E-6
II. B/4
III. D/2
a) only I

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -30 (Eng)

b) only II There are four tourist spots [A, B, C, and D].

c) only III Different numbers of people visit in June and
d) only I and II July. The ratio of tourists visiting A in June and
e) all true July is 6:7. The ratio of tourists visiting in July in
B and C is 6:7. The number of tourists visiting B
15) Find which of the following is true? in June was 25% less than the number of tourists
I. The sum of the perfect large bottles visiting B in July. In June, the number of tourists
manufactured in P and Q is 180. visiting C was 33.33% more than the number of
II. Difference between default bottles tourists visiting D in the same month. The
manufactured in R and S is 0. number of tourists visiting D in July is 150%
III. Total small bottles manufactured in S and more than the number of tourists visiting A in
Tare 190. June. The total number of tourists visiting A in
a) only I July and D in June is 3800. The total number of
b) only II and III tourists visiting B in June and D in July is 4800.
c) only II The number of tourists visiting C in July is 12.5%
d) only III less than the number of tourists visiting C in
e) None of these June.
17) The ratio of the number of tourists visiting E
16. Quantity: I Total large perfect bottle and D in June is 3:2 and the ratio of the number
manufactured in P and T is what percent of total of tourists visiting E and C in July is 5:4. The
small default bottle manufactured in R and S? Total number of tourists visiting in June and July
Quantity: II Total large perfect bottle in F is 20% more than E. Find the total number of
manufactured in Q and R is what percent of total tourists visit in F in July if The ratio of the number
small default bottle manufactured in S and T? of tourists visit F in June and July is 3:2?
A. Quantity: I < Quantity: II a) 3508
B. Quantity: I ≥ Quantity: II b) 3208
C. Quantity: II ≥ Quantity: I c) 3408
D. Quantity: I > Quantity: II d) 3068
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or relation can't be e) 3048
established
18) The ratio of male and female visitors in A in
Directions (17-20): Study the following June is 7:5 and the ratio of male and female
information carefully and answer the questions visitors in A in July is 4:3. The Ticket price for
given below. males is Rs.8 and the Ticket price for females is

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
Quantitative Aptitude Day -30 (Eng)

Rs.5. Find the total revenue earned by A in June c) 6820

and July together? d) 6640
a) Rs.14500 e) None of these
b) Rs.14570
c) Rs.14520 20) The average age of tourists in June in D is
d) Rs.17500 29 years and the average age of tourists in July
e) Rs.16520 in D is 21 years. Find the average age of all
tourists in D in June and July together?
19) The number of tourists increased by 25% a) 24.55 years
and 20% in B and C in August than previous b) 22.55 years
month. Find the total number of tourists in B and c) 25.65 years
C in August? d) 29.65 years
a) 6540 e) None of these
b) 6360
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Answer Key with Explanation

Directions (01 - 05):
The quantity of diesel in S and Q is 120 liters
The quantity of petrol in S is 120*4/3=160 litres
So, the average quantity of petrol and diesel in S
is = [120+160]/2=140 litres
So, total value of pie chart is = [140/20]
*100=700liters
So, the average quantity of petrol and diesel in T
is = 700*20/100=140litres
or, The total quantity of petrol and diesel in T is =
140*2=280litres
The quantity of petrol and diesel in T is =
[280/2]=140 liters
The quantity of petrol in R is = 160*125/100=200
liters
The total quantity of petrol and diesel in R is =
[700*30/100]*2=420litres
So, The quantity of diesel in R is = 420-
200=220litres
Quantity of petrol in P is = 200*45/100=90 liters
Total quantity of petrol and diesel in P is =
[700*12/100] *2=168 liters
So,The quantity of diesel in P is = 168-90=78
liters
Total quantity of petrol and diesel in Q is =
[700*18/100] *2=252 liters
The quantity of petrol in Q is = 252-120=132
liters
1) Answer: C
So, the total premium 95 and premium 98 types
of petrol in Q is 132*3/6=66 liters

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -30 (Eng)

Total premium 95 and premium 98 types of Or, 45y=30z

petrol sold in Q is Or, z=1.5y
= [132*75/100] *6/11=54 liters So, 30y+25*1.5y=26*2.5y+5
So, required percentage = [66-54] Or, 2.5y=5, y=2
*100/66=18.18% So, z=1.5*2=3
So, x=2.5*2=5
2) Answer: D
6.66% = 1/15 and 7.69% =1/13
So, the total revenue earned by P
=[90*14/15]*102 + [78*12/13]*94
= 84*102+72*94=Rs.15336

3) Answer: B 5) Answer: C
Let's check option B, The required average age is
The total unsold quantity of petrol in R is =

= [200*20/100] + [220*75/100] [10*5+15*6+20*6+25*5]/[10+15+20+25]=385/70

= 95 =5.5
II. 5.9>average age>5.3 III. 5.1<average age
4) Answer: A <5.7

Some total quantity of fuel sold to S is

= [160*80/100] * [25/100] + 6) Answer: D

[120*80/100]*[40/100] Each girls got = [100-28*(3-1)]/22=44/22=2

= 32+38.4=70.4 liters So, now total chocolate distributed is =
28*4+22*5=222

Directions (05 - 08):

So, in D, 6z*2+12y*2=28z 7) Answer: B

Or, 12z+24y=28z Boys in F is = 18*3/2=27

In C, 15y*2 + 5z*5=26x+5 Girls in F is = 27*4/3=36

In A, 2x*3+10y*3=30z Girls in G is = 30*2-36=24

In B, 5x*2+3x*2=40Y Boys in G is = 32*2-24=40

Or, 16x=40Y So, difference = 40-27=13=3z+4=6y+1=2x+3

Or, x=40y/16=2.5y
Or, 6*2.5y+30y=30z 8) Answer: B
Total amount of chocolate spent in A and B

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -30 (Eng)

= [90*4/9]*1.5 + [90*5/9]*2 +[80*5/8]*1.5 + CI = 20000*[1+15/100]3-20000=30417.5-

[80*3/8]*2 20000=10417.5
=60+100+75+60=295 So, sum of interest = 10417.5+7500=17917.5
Similarly, we can check others' values also.
Directions (09 - 12): We can see only D and E are true.
The amount of investment in scheme A is
Rs.10000 11) Answer: B
The difference between CI and SI is Rs.100 So, we can say,
So, 100=10000[R/100]2 3200 = [x+2500]*[40]*[40]/ [100*100]
Or, R2=100 Or, [x+2500]=[3200*100*100]/[40*40]=20000
Or, R= +10, -10 so, R cannot be negative. Or, x=20000-2500=17500
So, R=10%. So, required SI = [17500*2-
So, similarly, we can calculate the interest rate of 5000]*40*5/100=30000*40*5/100
other schemes. =60000

12) Answer: A
So,
[(x+2000)*3*10/100]:[(x+5000)*4*10/100]=3:5
Or, 4x+20000=5x+10000
Or, x=10000
9) Answer: C
So, Required CI = [20500*110*110/(100*100)]-
Let m is 3i and n is 5i.
20500=Rs.4305
[5i*[115/100]2-5i ] – [3i*12*2/100]=3570
Or, 1.6125i-0.72i=3570
Directions (13- 16):
Or, 0.8925i=3570
The total number of large size bottles
Or, i=3570/0.8925=4000
manufactured in P is = [40/28.57]*100=140
So, X=5*4000+3*4000-12000=20000
Similarly, the total number of large size bottles
So, required CI = 20000*[1+(12/100)]2-
manufactured in Q, R, S, and T is 100, 140, 90,
20000=Rs.5088
and 160 respectively.
So, [A+B]/2=140, [C+D]/2=100, [A+10+D]/2=140,
10) Answer: C
[C-10+B/2]/2=90
Let's check option D,
So, A+B=280
So, SI = 25000*15*2/100=7500
C+D=200, A+D=270, 2C-20+B=360, 2C+B=380

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -30 (Eng)

So, A+B-A-D=280-270, B-D=10, B=D+10 So, the difference is 90-80=10=B/4=E-6

So, 2C+D+10=380 So, I and II true
Or, 2C+D=370
So, 2C+D-C-D=370-200=170 15) Answer: B
So, C=170, I. The sum of perfect large bottles manufactured
D=200-170=30 in P and Q is = 70+120=190.
B=30+10=40 II. The Difference of default bottles manufactured
A=280-40=240 in R and S is = 20+20-30-10=0.
So, E=[320-280]/2.5=16 III. Total small bottles manufactured in S and T is
Number of small size bottles manufactured in =120+70=190.
T=[240+40-160]=120
16) Answer: A
Quantity I
Required percentage =
[(100+140)/(20+10)]*100=800%
Quantity II
Required percentage
=[(70+120)/(10+10)]*100=950%
Quantity I<Quantity II

Directions (17-20):
13) Answer: C
Let, The number of tourists visiting A in June and
Total cost = 18*140+100*12=Rs.3720
July be 6x and 7x, respectively.
Total selling price = [100*25+40*(25*80/100)] +
Let the number of tourists visiting B and C in July
[80*20 + 20*(20*80/100)] = 3300+1920=5220
be 6y and 7y, respectively.
So, profit percentage = [5220-
The number of tourists visiting B in June is
3720]*100/3720=40.32%
6y*75/100=4.5y.
In July, the number of tourists visiting D is
14) Answer: D
6x*250/100 = 15x.
The total number of red colour bottles
So, 4.5y+15x=4800 --(I)
manufactured is = 100*2/5 + 70*4/7
The number of tourists visiting in June in C is
=40+40=80
7y*100/87.5=8y.
The total number of green colour bottles
manufactured is = 170-80=90

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -30 (Eng)

In June, the number of tourists visiting D is = =2400*3/2 + 2800*5/4=3600+3500=7100

8y*100/133.33 = 6y. The total number of tourist visits in F is =
So, 6y+7x=3800---(II) 7100*120/100=8520
By solving (I) and (II), we get x = 200 and y = The number of tourists visiting F in July is =
400. 8520*2/5=3408
The number of tourists visiting A in June and
July is 6* 200 = 1200 and 7* 200 = 1400. 18) Answer: D
The number of tourists visiting in July in B and C So, the total revenue earned by A in June and
is 6* 400 = 2400 and 7* 400 = 2800, July together
respectively. = [1200*7/12]*8+[1200*5/12]*5 +[1400*4/7]*8 +
The number of tourists visiting B in June is [1400*3/7]*5
4.5*400=1800. = 5600+2500+6400+3000=17500
The number of tourists visiting in July in D is
=15* 200 = 3000. 19) Answer: B
The number of tourist visits in June in C is 8 * So, the total number of tourists in B and C is
400 = 3200. = 2400*125/100 + 2800*120/100= 6360
In June, the number of tourists visiting D is
=6*400=2400. 20) Answer: A
17) Answer: C So, required average age =
The total number of tourists visiting E in June [2400*29+3000*21]/5400
and July is =132600/5400=24.55 years

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
ENGLISH Day - 30

English Language

Directions (1-5): In each of the following
questions a paragraph has been given with a
line/sentence being omitted/missed. You are
required to find out the best possible option from
the given options that fits aptly in the blank and
makes the paragraph complete and coherent.
1. BJP’s campaign for the upcoming Mumbai
civic polls has hit a roadblock after their tour
vehicle was vandalised by bike-borne assailants
last night. _____________ to improve the city’s
infrastructure and the rampant corruption and
scams, was smashed by unknown people,
prompting the BJP to suspend the “poll khol”
campaign rally.
A. A few policemen from the State Reserve
Police Force (SRPF) were deployed to maintain
law and order in the area
B. A visibly aggressive Darekar accused the Shiv
Sena of pelting stones, following which the police
stepped up security in the area
C. The windshield of the truck, fitted with a giant
LED screen to play videos outlining the Shiv
Sena’s failure
D. BJP leaders have handed over the CCTV
footage which showed a person pelting stones at
the truck.
E. None of the above
2. Nearly seven tonnes of Sampangi flowers
were dumped by farmers in pits in Erode district
of Tamil Nadu after they failed to get a decent
sale price. Notably, _____________ Therefore,in
order to avoid more loss, they halfway dumped
nearly seven tonnes of Sampangi flowers in pits.
A. they also requested the government to
intervene by providing MSP to avoid such loss of
livelihood.
B. they had to begin plucking the flowers by 5
AM in the morning and with a steep fall in prices.
C. the flowers are brought to Sathyamangalam
Flower producers society where the price is
determined.
D. the cost of Sampangi flower dropped from Rs
70 per kilo last week to Rs 10 for the day,
shocking farmers.
E. None of the above
3. An encounter broke out between Maoists and
Commando Battalion for Resolute Action
(CoBRA) commandos of CRPF in Chhattisgarh's
Bijapur near Sukma border and one CRPF jawan
sustained injuries in the attack. A joint team of
CoBRA 210 battalion, Special Task Force (STF)
and District Reserve Guard (DRG)
personnel___________.
A. sustained a bullet injury in their leg and were
currently undergoing treatment at
a field hospital in Basaguda.
B. were out on a search operation when they
were ambushed.
C. and a grenade launcher was recovered from
the encounter site.
D. and several live Under Barrel Grenade
Launcher (UNGL) cells, explosives, Maoist

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
ENGLISH Day - 30

literature and other materials were also B. based on the parents' complaint, a case under
recovered from the spot. section 304 A was registered with the
E. None of the above Valasaravakkam police
C. the incident occurred on March 28, when
4. After the recent clashes in Delhi's Jahangirpuri Deekshith was dropped by the school van inside
area, Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister Yogi the school premises
Adityanath chaired a law-and-order review D. in connection with a case where a school van
meeting on Monday night and issued a set of ran over an 8-year-old student within the school
directions. Over the premises.
weekend,__________________. As a result, nine E. None of the above
people were injured and admitted to the hospital
for treatment. Directions (6-10): The sentences given below
A. violence erupted in Jahangirpuri in Delhi have three blanks each which are followed by a
during a Hanuman Jayanti procession table with three columns that contain words that
B. the UP government said that directions were can fill the blanks. You are required to read the
being issued as the festivals of Eid and Akshay same carefully and answer the questions that
Tritiya are likely to fall on the same date early follow
next month. 6. Considering that states, put together, account
C. no religious procession or marches will be for a significant share of overall public sector
allowed without proper permission spending in the economy, their expenditure
D. Religious programmes can happen only at ________ is central to a strategy that ________
designated spots and road routes and traffic will heavily on public spending to ________ economic
not be blocked. growth.
E. None of the above Column I Column II Column III
A. Stance I. Depends a) Ascribe
5. Sri Venkateshwara Matriculation school in B. Paradigm II. Connives b) Revive
Chennai dismissed three staff, including the C. Aspect III. Relies c)Commemor
school principal Lakshmi, ________________ ate
While the driver and student's caretaker were A. B-I-a
arrested earlier, the school authorities have B. A-III-b
today dismissed three staff, after instructions C. C-II-c
from the State Department of Education. D. B-I-a
A. the child's caretaker, who was supposed to be E. A-I-c
near the van, was arrested.

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
ENGLISH Day - 30

7. This month has seen _________ developments not mention the names of the farm unions, or the
for India-Pakistan relations. Both countries leaders ________.
handled India’s ________ firing of a missile with Column I Column II Column III
_________ restraint. A. Citations I. Imbibed a) Propelled
Column I Column II Column III B. Indexes II. Deviant b) Related
A. Pedantic I. Accidental a) C. Annexures III. Engaged c) Involved
Apprehensive A. C-III-c
B. Appalling II. Conducive b) Lamentable B. A-I-b
C. II. Purported c)Exceptional C. C-II-a
Encouraging D. B-III-d
A. A-I-b E. None of the above
B. B-II-c
C. C-I-c 10. The _________ long ______ in bilateral
D. A-II-a relations, which began when Australia and India
E. None of the above _______ from the same supercontinent, must now
end.
8. While some of it could be ________ to the Column I Column II Column III
pandemic, such delays in the resolution process, A. Millennial I. Rift a) Form
at times due to ________ promoters trying to hold B. Millennium II. Heft b) Bifurcated
on to their firms by ________ legal loopholes, can C. Millennials III. Drift c) Split
be observed even under the IBC. A. B-II-b
Column I Column II Column III B. C-I-a
A. Hackneyed I. Errant a) Exploiting C. A-III-c
B. Attributed II. Obsessive b) Preserving D. B-II-b
C. Blamed III. Commercial c) Locating E. None of the above
A. A-II-c
B. C-III-b Directions (11-17): Read the following passage
C. A-III-a carefully and answer the questions given below.
D. B-I-a Odisha’s Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik has
E. C-II-a written to Prime Minister Narendra Modi,
requesting the Centre to direct the National
9. In the report’s _________, the committee has Medical Commission (NMC) to ensure
given details of the people _________ but it does uninterrupted education for medical students who

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
ENGLISH Day - 30
have been evacuated from Ukraine. He has
requested him to enable their admission to Indian
medical colleges. There is a partial precedent in
the post-Partition “transfers” provided to refugee
medical students who migrated from medical
colleges located in the newly-created Pakistan.
However, that was standards (a) easy as all
medical colleges in pre-Independence India had
similar framework (b) under a common regulatory
relatively (c).
The number of seats available for medical
education in India is far less than the number of
aspirants who leave school with the dream of
becoming doctors. Of the 1.6 million students
who appeared in the National Eligibility cum
Entrance Test (NEET) in 2021, only 88,120
made it into the 562 medical colleges in the
country. Others had to enroll in non-medical
courses in India or seek admission to foreign
medical colleges. While the number of medical
colleges has now increased to 596 (with 89,875
seats), the entry barrier is still high.
We need to offer more opportunities to students
who seek a medical career since our health
system is woefully short of both basic doctors
and specialists. A recent analysis estimates that
India has only 4.8 fully qualified and actively
serving doctors per 10,000 population. Those too
are inequitably distributed across the states, with
a further tilt towards urban centres. It is essential
that we increase the number of medical colleges,
especially in states that have a low number of
such seats.
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State governments must be supported to invest
in the upgradation of district hospitals. Specialist
posts in many clinical disciplines that are needed
for the MBBS programme already exist in the
district hospitals. These specialists can be
designated as faculty for a new medical college
attached to the district hospital. These hospitals
can be linked downstream to primary healthcare
services and upstream to tertiary care hospitals
to provide the students with a full range of clinical
exposure while functioning as the main center of
education. State governments must be financially
assisted to undertake this transformation of
district hospitals. A centrally sponsored scheme
aims to set up 157 new medical colleges
attached to existing district/referral hospitals in
areas that do not have any medical colleges.
This will reduce urban-rural disparities in
healthcare and also help to scale-up training in
the much needed but greatly neglected discipline
of family medicine. Nursing colleges and
_______________ health professional training
centres (for paramedical courses) may also be
added to district hospitals to create a multi-
layered, multi-skilled health workforce.
11. Why has Odisha's Chief Minister Naveen
Patnaik written to Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
I. To ensure uninterrupted education for
evacuated medical students from Ukraine.
II. He requested the PM to give admission to the
students evacuated from Ukraine in the Indian
scientific colleges.
III. He requested the Centre to direct the National
Medical Commission (NMC) to ensure higher
Page 4 of 11
 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
ENGLISH Day - 30
degree of college to the students evacuated from
Ukraine.
A. Only B
B. Only C
C. Both A and B
D. Only A
E. Both B and C
12. Why did the author say “the entry barrier is
still high”?
A. Because not every student will be able to clear
the cutoff marks criteria in NEET and get
admission in the top medical colleges.
B. Because many candidates have to enroll in
non-medical courses in India or seek admission
to foreign medical colleges
C. Despite increasing the number of medical
colleges in India, it is still insufficient as
compared to the students appearing in the
NEET.
D. Both B and C
E. Both A and B
13. Which of the following statements is/are true
as per the context of the passage?
I. We have to increase the number of medical
colleges, especially in states which have a
smaller number of qualified and actively serving
doctors.
II. In the National Eligibility cum Entrance Test
(NEET) in 2021, 1.6 million students appeared,
only 88,120 got selected in the 562 medical
colleges.
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III. According to the recent study, India has only
4.6 fully qualified and actively serving doctors per
10,000 population.
A. Only B
B. Only C
C. Both A and B
D. Only A
E. Both B and C
14. What will be the benefit/(s) of setting up 157
new medical colleges attached to the existing
district/referral hospitals in areas that do not
have any medical colleges according to the
author?
A. It will reduce the urban-rural difference in the
healthcare sector.
B. It will financially assist the transformation of
district hospitals.
C. It will provide a full range of clinical exposure
to the new doctors.
D. It will increase the faculty for a new medical
college attached to the district hospital.
E. It will create the link between downstream to
primary healthcare services and upstream to
tertiary care hospitals.
15. How will state governments contribute to the
healthcare sector of our country?
A. By recruiting sufficient number of doctors in
the district hospitals
B. By investing in the upgradation of district
hospitals
C. By conducting regular training in the district
hospitals
Page 5 of 11
 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
ENGLISH Day - 30

D. By renovating district hospitals time to time B. New employees are taught the proper safety
E. None of the above procedures.
C. In business, the pragmatic approach to
16. In the below sentence three words have problems is often more successful than an
been highlighted which may or may not be in idealistic one.
their correct positions. you are required to D. When the police arrived, the street was in total
interchange them in order to make the sentence chaos.
contextually correct. E. Exposure to the sun can accelerate the ageing
However, that was standards (a) easy as all process.
medical colleges in pre-Independence India had
similar framework (b) under a common regulatory 19.
relatively (c). A. And judging by the repeated glances the
A. bca woman gave the sky, she too was cognizant of
B. cba the failing light.
C. acb B. The new reporter was apprised of
D. cab developments in this story.
E. bac C. Good reporters are keenly observant of
everything around them.
17. Fill the blank given in the passage. D. I wasn't even conscious of what was
A. detached happening.
B. joined E. Authors are famously ignorant about the
C. allied realities of publishing.
D. relevant
E. disparate 20.
A. Other companies are in an even worse
Directions (18-22): In the questions given below, predicament than ourselves.
five sentences have been given which use words B. Opposition leaders this week implored the
that have been highlighted. One of these president to break the deadlock.
sentences uses a word that is unrelated to the C. The police have announced a breakthrough
rest. You are required to choose the same as in the murder case.
your answer. D. Kate found herself in a dilemma when her two
18. best friends were fighting.
A. The modality of teaching is changing to E. The imbroglio seemed to be on the floor, on
become more modern. the other side of the table, near the wall.

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
ENGLISH Day - 30

21. 22.
A. Soldiers from many different countries have A. His death sparked outrage throughout Europe
been subsumed into the United Nations peace- and culminated in the King making public
keeping force. penance.
B. She found him entertaining enough to B. I pledge to repent and atone for this crime for
overlook his faults. the rest of my life, she said.
C. Because the information was important, the C. To expiate for breaking his neighbor's window,
government decided to classify several of the John shoveled snow for three months.
documents as top-secret. D. They've offered no apologies and seem to
D. Since I have never been married, I am unsure have no thoughts of reparation.
of what my wifely duties will entail. E. All the given sentences are correct
E. I can only imagine other uses you might have
embraced, for personal financial enhancement.
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Answer Key with Explanation

1. Answer: C Nadu. The cost of Sampangi flowers dropped

The paragraph is all about the BJP’s campaign
for the upcoming Mumbai civic polls in which the
windshield of the campaign truck, fitted with a
giant LED screen, was smashed by bike-borne
men, prompting the BJP to suspend the “poll
khol” campaign rally. So the option which aptly
fits in the given blank is C. Others have no
relation with the given blank. Hence option C is
the correct answer.
2. Answer: D
The paragraph is all about being unable to get a
decent sale price, further resulting in losses,
farmers dumped nearly seven tonnes of
Sampangi flowers in the Erode district of Tamil
from Rs 70 per kilo last week to Rs 10 which
shocked the farmers resulting in dumping the
tonnes of Sampangi flowers. So the option
which aptly fits in the given blank is D. Others
have no relation with the given blank. Hence
option D is the correct answer.
3. Answer: B
The paragraph is about an encounter that broke
out between Maoists and Commando Battalion
for Resolute Action (CoBRA) commandos of
CRPF in which one CRPF jawan had injuries in
the attack. Also a joint team of armed forces
were attacked when they were out on a search
operation. So the option which aptly fits in the

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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
ENGLISH Day - 30
given blank is B. Others have no relation with the
given blank. Hence option B is the correct
answer.
4. Answer: A
The paragraph is about after the recent violence
in Delhi’s Jahangirpuri, UP CM Yogi Adityanath
issued a set of directions regarding religious
processions in the state because of the recent
clashes in Delhi's Jahangirpuri area. So the
option which aptly fits in the given blank is A.
Others have no relation with the given blank.
Hence option A is the correct answer.
5. Answer: D
The paragraph is about a recent development in
a case where an 8-year-old boy, a student of
Class 2, was crushed to death by the school van
within the school premises; the school
authorities have today dismissed three staff,
including the school principal, after instructions
from the State Department of Education.So the
option which aptly fits in the given blank is A.
Others have no relation with the given blank.
Hence option D is the correct answer.
6. Answer: B
For the first blank, A and C both fit but B does
not. So, options (a) and (d) can be ruled out.
Only b fits appropriately in the third blank so, A-
III-b seems to be the correct combination.
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Stance means a point of view so here it means
the expenditure point of view is something on
which the policy would completely rely.
Connive means to secretly involve in wrong
activities and this is unconnected. Ascribe
means to mention that something happened
because of something.
The other words are simple to understand and
hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
7. Answer: C
The sentence carries a positive tone and
therefore no negative words should fit in any of
the three blanks.
Pedantic is the quality of being irritating and too
concerned about unimportant details. Appalling
means to shock someone to a level of derision.
Purported means alleged or reported to have
done. Lamentable means worthy of regret or
very disappointing.
All the above words can clearly be ruled out.
Encouraging and Exceptional are two positive
words and they also fit the sentence contextually
so, if we choose option (c), the sentence would
become meaningful.
8. Answer: D
Hackneyed is when some words or phrases
have been used too much so that they have
become obsolete. Blamed is grammatically unfit.
Attributed is like being given credit for
something. So, the best of the three words is
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 SBI PO & IBPS PO Mains PDF Course 2023
ENGLISH Day - 30
‘attributed’ as it has happened due to the
pandemic as per the sentence.
Errant is an unacceptable behaviour. So, such a
behaviour by the ones protecting their firms is
being mentioned. Also, making use of the
loopholes is being quoted which makes the word
‘Exploiting’ the best fit for the sentence.
Therefore, the best option that fits is (d).
9. Answer: A
Only c fits the third blank most appropriately of
the three given words. The other two words can
be ruled out.
An annexure is a supplement or an addition to
the original document so this is what fits the
context of the sentence pretty well.
Imbibe is to acquire from someone such as skills
or habits etc. Deviant means different from the
usual which also doesn’t fit the context of the
sentence.
So, the best is to go with the words C-III-c as
they complete the sentence the best. Therefore,
option (a) should be marked.
10. Answer: C
A Millennial is denoting or relating to a period of
a thousand years whereas Millennials is
generally used for the young adults which is
certainly not the case here. Millennium is a
period of 1000 years so it is clear that A will be a
better word for the first blank than the other two.
Drift is a slow movement so here it signifies the
slow movement between the Indo-Australian
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relations. Rift is a difference or a gap. Heft is to
lift or carry the weight of something.
The best is to go with words Millennial and drift
for the 1st and the 2nd blanks. This is enough
hint that option (c) should be correct.
11. Answer: D
Refer to the first paragraph- “Odisha’s Chief
Minister Naveen Patnaik has written to Prime
Minister Narendra Modi, requesting the Centre to
direct the National Medical Commission (NMC)
to ensure uninterrupted education for medical
students who have been evacuated from
Ukraine. He has requested him to enable their
admission to Indian medical colleges.” It is clear
from the above quoted lines that only statement I
is correct.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
12. Answer: C
Refer to the second paragraph- “The number of
seats available for medical education in India is
far less than the number of aspirants who leave
school with the dream of becoming doctors.
While the number of medical colleges has now
increased to 596 (with 89,875 seats), the entry
barrier is still high.” Hence option C is the correct
answer.
13. Answer: C
Statements I and II both are correct, for
statement I, refer to the third paragraph and for
statement II, refer to the second paragraph.
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Correction in III- According to the recent study,
India has only 4.8 fully qualified and actively
serving doctors per 10,000 population.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
14. Answer: A
Refer to the fourth paragraph- “A centrally
sponsored scheme aims to set up 157 new
medical colleges attached to the existing
district/referral hospitals in areas that do not
have any medical colleges. This will reduce
urban-rural disparities in healthcare and also
help to scale-up training in the much needed but
greatly neglected discipline of family medicine.”
From the above quoted lines, we can say that
option A is the correct answer.
15. Answer: B
Refer to the fourth paragraph- “State
governments must be supported to invest in the
upgradation of district hospitals. Specialist posts
in many clinical disciplines that are needed for
the MBBS programme already exist in the district
hospitals”.
From the above quoted lines, we can say that
option B is the correct answer.
16. Answer: D
We need torearrange the highlighted words in
order to make the sentence contextually correct.
In place of standards “relatively” will come,
“similar standards” sounds perfect and
regulatory framework is the correct term.
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The correct sentence will be- However, that was
relatively easy as all medical colleges in pre-
Independence India had similar standards under
a common regulatory framework.
Hence,option D is the correct answer.
17. Answer: C
The word which is apt for the blank given in the
passage is “allied” which means “having a close
connection or similar or related in some way”.
Remaining words are inapt for the blank.
18. Answer: D
The words in (a), (b), (c) and (e) are all
synonyms that mean; A specific mode in which
something is expressed or is experienced, the
steps of doing things. The word ‘chaos’ however,
means disorder. This is the opposite of the given
words in the other options.
Therefore, the best would be to go with option
(d).
19. Answer: E
Being aware or knowing things is what is meant
by being ‘cognizant’. ‘Apprised’ means being
informed about things. ‘Observant’ and
‘Conscious’ are synonyms of ‘cognizant’ and
‘apprised’. The word ‘ignorant’ however is the
opposite of the given words as it means being
unaware of things.
Therefore, the best answer is option (e).
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20. Answer: C absorb one thing into the other. To entail,

Predicament is a difficult, unpleasant, or
embarrassing situation.
A deadlock means to come to a point where no
progress can be made because of fundamental
disagreement.
A dilemma is a difficult situation or problem.
An imbroglio an extremely confused,
complicated, or embarrassing situation.
A breakthrough is a sudden discovery that
solves a problem. This word is different from the
others as all the other words are synonyms of
each other.
21. Answer: B
The word subsumed is used when we include or
classify and embrace are also similar things.
The word that is different from the rest is hence,
overlook which means to fail to notice or simply
have a look from a height.
Therefore, the best answer is option (b).
22. Answer: E
The given words are all synonyms to each other.
Penance means the act of inflicting punishment
on oneself or to punish someone. To atone and
expiate is to make amends for one’s mistakes.
Reparation means to compensate for a
wrongdoing.
Therefore, all the given sentences use similar
words and hence, the correct answer would be
option (e).

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