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SINGLE ADMISSION TEST TO MASTER'S DEGREE COURSES IN

MEDICINE AND SURGERY AND IN DENTISTRY AND DENTAL PROSTHESIS

ACADEMIC YEAR 2015/2016

Questions: 60.
Time available: 100 minutes.
Score:
• Answer correct + 1.5
• Answer incorrect -
• 0.4 Answer not given 0

LOGIC TEST

1. Owners of cars with the same power (kW) pay the same amount of car tax, regardless of the
kilometers travelled. It is not fair that those who travel only 1,000 km a year pay as much as those
who travel 20,000. The stamp duty should be abolished and this tax revenue should be replaced
with an increase in the fuel tax. In this way, motorists who drive more kilometers would pay
more. This would not only result in a fairer system, but also a probable increase in tax revenues.

Which of the following statements expresses the main message of the previous passage?
A) A higher fuel tax would bring more tax revenues than the current road tax B) Everyone would have
to
continue paying the same amount of car tax for the same kW C) The fuel tax increase would
ensure that motorists who travel more kilometers pay more D) The car tax should be replaced with an
increase in the tax on fuel E)
Motorists should pay differentiated amounts of car tax based on the kilometers traveled

2. When evaluating the risks we take in life, our level of concern varies depending
on whether or not these risks depend on us. Many, for example, smoke despite being aware
of the health risks, just as others practice extreme sports. However, the same people, faced
with lower risk activities, such as the use of public transport or the consumption of meat,
demand that the government guarantee the absence of risks.

Which of the following statements is fully supported by the previous passage?

A) Many people do not have a consistent attitude towards risk B) One should be
prepared to accept some risks in life C) Governments cannot guarantee that an
activity is completely risk-free D) The choice to take risks it is an inalienable right E)
Smokers have no right to criticize the government

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3. To impress a woman, a man doesn't have to be handsome or rich: the only characteristic needed
is a sense of humor. A survey revealed that for 8 out of 10 women this quality is more important
than looks and money. Just read the online ads to verify that 80% of women want suitors with a
good sense of humor.
On what implicit assumption is the above passage based?
A) Rich and good looking men have a poor sense of humor B) Men and women
have different opinions about what makes a person attractive C) The opinion of women who took
the survey and those who advertise online reflects the thoughts of all women D) Until the time of the survey,
the sense of humor was not given due weight E) In
addition to the sense of humor, other characteristics are also important, such as attention
and kindness

4. The decision to house a shark in an aquarium in a shopping mall has been strongly criticised.
Animal rights activists believe that the animal has little room to move and that the conditions
in which it is kept are not suitable. These criticisms are, however, unfounded and should be
ignored. In some countries, shark fin is considered a delicacy. The fish industry that
deals with this trade often mutilates these animals by cutting off the precious fin and throwing the
sharks back into the sea to let them die. So, it's better for sharks to find themselves in an aquarium
than to meet such a horrible end.

Which of the following answers is the wrong logical step in the previous passage?
A) Assuming a causal link based on a correlation B) Producing a
false version of the counter-argument C) Attacking the author of
the reasoning rather than the reasoning itself D) Swapping the premises for the
conclusion of the reasoning E) Justifying an action wrong on the basis
of another equally wrong

5. Due to the recession, the price of copper has tripled in recent years as the demand for all raw
materials has increased globally due to their intrinsic value. Despite signs of economic recovery,
the price of copper continues to increase exponentially, while the demand for other
raw materials, such as gold, has returned to ordinary levels. This phenomenon suggests
that, in addition to the recession, several factors have led to increased demand for copper.

Which of the following statements, if considered true, strengthens what is claimed by the passage?
A) A recession does not always lead to an increase in the price of raw materials B) For a long
time before the recession, copper was depreciated C) Emerging countries
have increased the production of household appliances that require the use of copper components D)
Demand of gold has
reached its maximum limit E) Nowadays the amount of copper
components used in the manufacturing industry has decreased

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6. Critical age linguistic theory argues that children who have not acquired their first
language by the age of ten will no longer be able to acquire it. This theory has implications
for second language learning. Since there is a limited period in which children acquire their
first language, it follows that this same period is the best for learning other
languages. The teaching of foreign languages in schools should therefore be introduced
as soon as possible.
On what implicit assumption is the above passage based?
A) Learning a second language is equivalent or very similar to learning the first language B)
Primary
teachers can speak and teach foreign languages C) Learning a language is
equivalent to learning any other subject such as history or math D) Reasoning precedes
language E) Bilingual
children learned both languages during
the critical period

7. Fresh snow on a sunny day is ideal for pleasant skiing. Last night it snowed and now the
skies are clear, so today should be an ideal day for skiing.
Which of the following statements has the same logical structure as the above reasoning?
A) Electric cars won't become widespread until batteries are lighter. Batteries are still heavy, so
electric cars won't become widespread for some time. B) More experienced employees are more
likely
to get promotions. Mr. Rossi has a lot of experience, so he should make a career C) A splendid
sunny day is the ideal condition for a good football match.
It's cloudy today so it won't be pleasant to play football D) Good quality food in restaurants
tends to be expensive. The prices of the recently
opened restaurant in the city are high, so the food must be of good quality E) Abundant snowfalls
are the necessary condition to cause avalanches in the mountains.

There were several avalanches this morning, so it must have snowed heavily last night

8. Medical expenses for unnecessary cosmetic surgery should be borne entirely by the
patients.
Which of the following statements expresses the principle underlying this reasoning?
A) Defective cosmetic prostheses considered to be a health risk should be removed at no cost to
the patient by the National Health Service B) A patient rushed to
the emergency room by ambulance should return home by his own means if discharged C) I
parents of children with Special
Educational Needs (SEN) should be able to take advantage of additional support from social
services and local authorities D) If you choose to look for work
in a city far from your home city, you should bear the travel or move

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E) Those who, despite not being disabled, deliberately park in spaces reserved for disabled people
should not be surprised to be fined

9. Consider the following statements:

Rongfeldt is no further north than Sgybo
Sgybo is no further south than Rongfeldt
Sgybo is at least as north as Rongfeldt What do
these three statements mean?
A) The first is logically equivalent to the third, but not to the second B) None of
the three is logically equivalent C) The first is logically
equivalent to the second, but not to the third D) The second is logically equivalent
to the third, but not to the first E) All three are logically equivalent

10. A soccer tournament takes place in two stages. In the first phase the teams are divided into 8
groups of equal number. Each team plays only once against each team in its group. The winner of each
group qualifies for the second knockout stage.
At the end of the tournament the winning team will have played 8 games.
How many teams take part in the first stage of the tournament?
A) 8
B) 24
C) 40
D) 48
E) 64

11. A road network consists of a series of drivable roads from north to south and a series of drivable
roads from east to west. At each intersection there is a roundabout. Due to some works in progress,
Michele cannot drive his car directly from point X to point Y: starting from point X, drive east for 2
minutes, then north for 3 minutes, then west for 2 minutes, then north for 3 minutes until you reach
point Y.

If Michael travels at an average speed of 30 km/h in each section of his journey, what is the straight
line distance between point X and point Y?
A) 5 km
B) 2 km
C) 4 km
D) 3 km
E) 9 km

12. Teresa wants to install some shelves in an 80 cm wide niche where you can store 100 books
with a thickness of 25 mm each and 62 books with a thickness of 35 mm each. He plans to purchase
560cm of lumber to make the shelves and has no intention of placing both types of books on the
same shelf.

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What is the maximum number of extra books Teresa can buy before having to install more shelves?

A) 12
B) 15
C) 24
D) 32
E) 35

13. Paolo works from Monday to Friday and, every other week, also on Saturday.
What is Paul's maximum number of working days in a month?
A) 21
B) 22
C) 23
D) 24
E) 25

14. A church clock strikes the hours by striking the corresponding number of strokes each hour from
9 in the morning (9 strokes) to 9 in the evening (9 strokes) and one stroke on the half hour during
this period. For the rest of the time it strikes no toll.
What is the total number of chimes the clock strikes each day?
A) 89
B) 99
C) 90
D) 100
E) 103

15. At the supermarket, 500g packs of coffee are always on special offer, however the offers vary from
week to week:
Week 1: a free 250g pack with the purchase of 2 packs; Week 2: 25% off full price;
Week 3: a free pack with the purchase of 3 packs;
Week 4: 10% discount on the indicated price and an additional 100g for free;
Week 5: With the purchase of one pack, the second is half price.

Although the quantities change, the cost of coffee per 100g in each of the offers listed above
remains the same every week, except for one: which one?
A) Week 1 B)
Week 2 C) Week
3 D) Week 4 E)
Week 5

16. The “Marconi” typography has decided to print the new telephone directory in smaller fonts to
save paper. As a result, 4 columns per page can now be printed

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instead of 3. Each column also contains 25% more names than the old list which had 750 pages.

How many pages does the new telephone directory have?

A) 300 pages
B) 450 pages
C) 250 pages
D) 500 pages
E) 600 pages

17. Identify the term whose etymology does NOT follow the same "logic" as the others: A)
Toponymy B)
Antonomasia C)
Homonymy D)
Pronominal E)
Homophony

18. Which of the proposed pairs of terms logically completes the following verbal proportion:

x : mountain = face : y
A) x = slope; y = hexahedron
B) x = top; y = nape
C) x = hill; y = pentagon
D) x = sea; y = head
E) x = summit; y = limb

19. Which of the proposed pairs of terms logically completes the following verbal proportion:

x : betting = smoking : y
A) x = play therapy; y = dependence
B) x = toy library; y = tabasco
C) x = gambling; y = botulism
D) x = gambling addiction; y = tobacco
E) x = pathology; y = Manichaeism

20. What words should be substituted for the numbers to give a complete and logical sense to the
following sentence?
“The director has received nothing from ______(1)______, since in recent years she had already had to
______(2)______ a similar request from at least a dozen people, all followers of Pastafarianism, a
religion _______( 3)_______.”
A) (1) assent; (2) to defer; (3) partisan B) (1) to
purge; (2) to obstruct; (3) modest C) (1) to
object; (2) to grant; (3) parody D) (1) consent; (2)
to reiterate; (3) paroxysmal

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E) (1) hope; (2) to interdict; (3) milestone

TEST OF GENERAL CULTURE

21. In which city was the 1900 World's Fair held?

A) London
B) Paris
C) Milan
D) Berlin
E) Lisbon

22. Which of the following Italian political figures has NEVER been elected President of the
Republic?
A) Giovanni Spadolini
B) Giuseppe Saragat
C) Giovanni Gronchi
D) Carlo Azeglio Ciampi
E) Luigi Einaudi

BIOLOGY TEST

23. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells can both have: 1. Guanine

2.
Ribosomes
3. Flagella
A) All B)
Only 2
C) Only 1
and 3 D)
Only 2 and 3 E) Only 1 and 2

24. The electron microscope image shows dozens of similarly shaped organelles ranging in
size from 0.25 mm to 0.75 mm inside a human liver cell. These organelles have a single,
smooth membrane.
Which of the organelles listed below could they be?
A) Centrioles
B) Mitochondria
C) Lysosomes
D) Nucleoli
E) Ribosomes

25. Which of the compounds listed below is NOT a product of the Calvin cycle?
A) ADP

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B) Inorganic phosphate
+
C) NADP
D) Triose phosphate
D) Carbon dioxide

26. What is the maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds between mRNA and tRNA in a ribosome
during the translation?
A) 9
B) 18
C) 3
D) 6
E) 12

27. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Natural selection acts on genes, while artificial selection acts on chromosomes
integers

B) Natural selection and artificial selection act on genes

C) Natural selection acts on alleles, while artificial selection acts on genes
D) Artificial selection acts on alleles, while natural selection acts on genes
E) Natural selection and artificial selection act on alleles

28. The table shows the maximum concentration of glucose, oxygen and urea expressed in the
same arbitrary units (ua) taken in different blood vessels in a healthy mammal.

Blood vessel Glucose (ua) Oxygen (ua) Urea (ua)

x 0.9 39 0.6

Y 1.3 40 1.4

Z 0.8 91 1.4

Which of the following correctly identifies blood vessels?

A) X = Portal vein; Y = pulmonary vein; Z = Renal vein
B) X = Portal vein; Y = renal vein; Z = Pulmonary vein
C) X = Renal vein; Y = portal vein; Z = Pulmonary vein
D) X = Pulmonary vein; Y = portal vein; Z = renal vein
E) X = Renal vein; Y = pulmonary vein; Z = portal vein

29. Given the following three modes of regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes, which one(s).
does it/s happen before the translation?
1. Alternative pre-mRNA splicing.
2. Epigenetic alteration of DNA through methylation.
3. Enzymatic removal of signal peptides from a precursor protein.

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A) Only 1 and 2
B) All
C) Only 2 and 3
D) Only 1
E) Only 3

30. Which of the following statements correctly describes human glycogen? 1. It is a polymer of
glucose. 2. It is a hormone produced
by the pancreas.
3. Can be accumulated as an energy source in liver and muscle cells.
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 2
C) Only 1 and 3
D) Only 1
E) Only 3

31. A man who has never received a blood transfusion has blood type AB. Which of the following statements
correctly describes this individual?
1. Has anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
2. Has a phenotype indicating co-dominance.
3. Has some cells with only A antigen and some cells with only B antigen.
A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 2
C) Only 1
D) Only 2 and 3
E) Only 3

32. A gene is transferred from an animal cell of one species X to a cell of another organism Y.

Which of the following organisms given below could be Y?

1. Another animal of species X.
2. An animal of another species.
3. A bacterium.
A) Only 2 and 3
B) Only 1 and 2
C) Only 1 and 3
D) Everyone

E) Only 3

33. Consider a human sensory neuron involved in the patellar reflex. What will have to cross the postsynaptic
membrane of this neuron first for an action potential to be generated?

A) Neurotransmitter

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B) Approx
2+

+
C) Na
+
D) K
E) ATP

34. Given the following

processes: 1. Alcoholic
fermentation
2. Glycolysis 3. Oxidative
phosphorylation
4. Krebs cycle Which occur exclusively within organelles of eukaryotic cells, such as yeast for example?

A) Only 1 and 2
B) Only 1, 3 and 4
C) Only 1 and 4
D) Only 2, 3 and 4
E) Only 3 and 4

35. In humans, a specific disease is caused by a recessive allele on the X chromosome. In one state,
5,000 children are born in one year, and all have a normal pair of sex chromosomes. Among these
children, 80 boys and 15 girls manifest the disease, while 1920 are healthy boys. 2085 females are born
without the recessive allele and 900 are healthy carriers of the disease.

If only one cheek cell were taken from every child born this year, what would be the total number of
copies of the recessive allele present?
A) 1010
B) 110
C) 995
D) 95
E) 1090

36. Which of the following structures is located at the boundary between the superior vena cava and the
right atrium of the human heart?
A) Atrioventricular node B)
Sinoatrial node C) Bundle
of His D) Purkinje
fibers E) Semilunar valves

37. In a healthy woman, four hormones are released at different levels during the menstrual cycle.
Increased release of one of these hormones promotes the next event.
Which of the possible options listed below shows the correct sequence of hormone release from the onset
of menstruation?

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[ ÿ = followed by]
A) Progesterone ÿ estrogen ÿ LH ÿ FSH
B) FSH ÿ estrogen ÿ progesterone ÿ LH
C) Estrogen ÿ FSH ÿ progesterone ÿ LH
D) Estrogen ÿ progesterone ÿ LH ÿ FSH
E) FSH ÿ estrogen ÿ LH ÿ progesterone

38. Which of the following cells of the human body contains the acrosome?
A) A phagocyte
B) An egg cell C) A
sperm D) A lymphocyte
E) A rod

39. Which of the following statements correctly describes the characteristics of human
skeletal muscle contraction?
A) Calcium ions bind to tropomyosin, cause troponin to move, and expose myosin actin binding sites B)
Calcium ions bind to troponin, cause
tropomyosin to move, and expose myosin binding sites for actin C) Calcium ions bind to actin, cause
tropomyosin to move, and expose the actin
binding sites for myosin D) Calcium ions bind to tropomyosin, cause troponin to move, and expose the actin
myosin actin binding sites E) Calcium
ions bind to troponin, cause tropomyosin to move and expose myosin actin binding sites

40. Which of the following biochemical compounds does NOT have an even number of carbon atoms?
A) Deoxyribose B)
Glucose C)
Amylopectin D)
Amylose E)
Maltose

CHEMISTRY TEST

41. The table below shows the values of the first eight ionization energies of an element whose
atomic number is less than 20:

THE II III IV v YOU VII VIII

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578 1817 2745 11577 14842 18379 23326 2746

Ionization energy 5
(kJ mol -1)

Which group of the periodic table does the element belong to?
A) Group 2
B) Group 13
C) Group 1
D) Group 14
E) Group 15

42. Considering the underlying equilibrium reactions, in which of the reactions will a greater
amount of X be produced in either case of either an increase in temperature or an increase in
pressure?
[Assume no change of state occurs when temperature or pressure is changed]

A) 2 Q(g) ÿX(g) the direct reaction is endothermic B) Q(g) + R(g) ÿ3

X(g) + T(g) the direct reaction is exothermic C) Q(g) + R(g) ÿ2 X(g)
the direct reaction is exothermic D) Q(g) + R(g) ÿ2 R(g) ÿX(g)

the direct reaction is exothermic

43. At room temperature the underlying substances are all gases.

Which of these substances will have the highest boiling point?
A) CH4
B) CO
C) H2S
D) NH3
E) NF3

44. Given the equation:

3 Cu + x HNO3ÿ y Cu(NO3)2+ z H2O + 2 NO
What value must the coefficients x and z have for the equation to be balanced ?
A) x = 2; z= 1
B) x = 4; z= 2
C) x = 6; z= 3
D) x = 10; z= 5
E) x = 8; z= 4

45. The following acidic aqueous solutions have different pH values:

1. 0.2 mol dm–3HCl
2. 0.1 mol dm–3HNO3

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3. 0.2 mol dm–3H2SO4 4.

0.1 mol dm–3CH3COOH
Which of the following options represents the sequence of solutions in increasing order of pH (from
left to right)?
A) 4, 3, 1, 2
B) 1, 3, 2, 4
C) 2, 4, 1, 3
D) 3, 1, 2, 4
E) 4, 2, 1, 3

46. When 1.2 g of magnesium reacts completely with dilute and excess sulfuric acid, the product
magnesium sulfate is separated, dehydrated and has a final weight of 5.5 g.
The reaction
is: Mg + H2SO4ÿ MgSO4+ H2
What is the percent yield of magnesium sulfate?
“Assume relative atomic mass: Mg = 24; S = 32; O = 16”
A) 71%
B) 22%
C) 92%
D) 80%
E) 8%

47. What is the minimum volume of an aqueous solution of 0.150 mol/L potassium hydroxide
needed to completely neutralize an aqueous solution containing 5×10–3mol of succinic
acid (HOOCCH2CH2COOH)?
A) 300 mL
B) 33.3 mL
C) 16.7 mL
D) 167 mL
E) 66.7 mL

48. What is the IUPAC systematic name of the organic compound with the
formula CH3CBr2CH(OH)(CH2)4CH3?
A) 2,2-dibromo-heptan-3-ol B)
2,2-dibromo-octan-3-ol C) 7,7-
dibromo-heptan-6-ol D) 7,7-
dibromo-octan-1 -ol E) 2,2-
dibromo-octan-2-ol

49. What are the bond angle and three-dimensional structure of ammonium ion?
[According to VSEPR theory]
A) structure = pyramidal with square base bond angle = 109.5° B) structure =
planar square bond angle = 90°

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C) structure = pyramidal with square base bond angle = 107°

D) structure = tetrahedral bond angle = 109.5°
E) structure = tetrahedral bond angle = 90°

50. An atom has electron configuration 2, 8, 18, 7.

Which of the options below reports the correct position of this element in the Periodic Table (Period
and Group) and the charge of the ion in its binary ionic compound (Charge)?
A) Period: 4; Group: 17; Charge: 1+ B)
Period: 4; Group: 15; Position: 1- C)
Period: 4; Group: 15; Position: 2- D) Period:
3; Group: 17; Position: 1- E) Period: 4;
Group: 17; Charge: 1-

51. Calcium and strontium are both Group 2 elements of the Periodic Table. Calcium has atomic number
20 and strontium has atomic number 38.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A) Both metals react with oxygen to form basic oxides with the formula MO (where M stands for Ca or Sr)

B) The first ionization potential of calcium is lower than that of strontium C) Strontium has a
smaller atomic radius than calcium D) Both elements react with
chlorine to form covalent compounds with the formula MCl2 (where M stands for Ca or Mr)

E) Strontium is more electronegative than calcium

52. Water is added to 10 cm3of an aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid 2 mol dm-3 to obtain 1000 cm3
of dilute hydrochloric acid. How much does the pH value of the acid solution vary?

A) The pH value remains unchanged B)

The pH value increases by 1 C) The
pH value increases by 2 D) The pH
value decreases by 1 E) The pH value
decreases by 2

PHYSICS AND MATHEMATICS TEST

53. A group of 10 cyclists consists of 6 men and 4 women. The 10 cyclists weigh an average of 74 kg.
The average weight of the 6 men is 82 kg.
How much do the average 4 women weigh?
A) 63 kg
B) 62 kg
C) 64.5 kg
D) 66 kg
E) 72 kg

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54. Which of the following is an equation of a line perpendicular to the line 4x + 6y = 5 ?

A) 3x - 2y = 14
B) 6x + 4y = 17
C) 2x + 3y = 5
D) 4x - 6y = 21
E) x + 3y = 1

55. The probability with which a patient has to wait less than ten minutes for their turn in a doctor's
office is 0.8.
What is the probability that a patient who goes to the doctor's office twice waits, at least once,
less than ten minutes before being seen by the doctor?
A) 0.8
B) 0.25
C) 0.64
D) 0.04
E) 0.96

56. The dose of "Nutridrixol" that must be prescribed to a patient depends on his weight expressed
in kg (m) and can be calculated considering . The dose, in mg, is given by the value of D rounded to
the nearest multiple of 10 .
What is the minimum weight (in kg) of patients prescribed a dose of 60 mg of “Nutridrixol”?

A) 72.5
B) 75
C) 65
D) 77.5
E) 80

57. The volume of a given mass of an ideal gas is transformed adiabatically.

Which of the following statements regarding this transformation must be true?
A) The absolute temperature variation is directly proportional to the pressure variation B) The absolute
temperature
DOES NOT change C) The pressure DOES
NOT change D) There is NO
exchange of thermal energy with the surrounding environment E) The volume
change is instantaneous

58. Two charged and isolated particles are placed, in vacuum, at a certain distance. The
electrostatic force between the two particles is 4.0 N. What would the electrostatic force be if the
distance between the particles were halved?
A) 1.0
NB) 8.0 N

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C) 4.0 No
D) 16.0 No
E) 2.0 No

59. A body of mass m is initially at rest. The velocity of the body varies uniformly from zero to v in time t.

What does the expression mv/t represent for the considered body?
A) The resultant force B)
The mean acceleration C) The
final momentum D) The mean
power E) The final kinetic
energy

60. A tram is traveling along straight, horizontal tracks at a speed of 12.0 m s–1 when the brakes are
applied. Because of this, the tram decelerates with a constant rate of 1.50 m s–2until it comes to a stop.

What is the distance traveled by the tram in the total time it decelerated?
A) 96.0 m
B) 18.0 m
C) 48.0 m
D) 108.0 m
E) 216.0 m

*END*

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