PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN HISTOPATHOLOGY AND MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS (PART 1)

1. Ideal amount of the fixative:

A. 1 – 2X the volume of the specimen C. 10 – 15X the volume of the specimen
B. 5 – 10X the volume of the specimen D. 10 – 20X the volume of the specimen
2. All of the following are microanatomical fixatives, EXCEPT:
A. 10% Formalin C. Bouin’s solution
B. Zenker’s solution D. Flemming’s fluid
3. Best fixative for the nervous system:
A. Formalin fixative C. Lead fixative
B. Permanganate fixative D. Chromate fixative
4. Fixative of choice for the preservation of fats:
A. Helly’s fluid C. Formalin
B. Newcomer’s fluid D. Newcomer’s fluid
5. Helly’s fluid is exactly the same as in Zenker’s fixative, but instead of GLACIAL ACETIC ACID, what component is
added:
A. Mercuric chloride C. Sodium sulfate
B. Potassium dichromate D. Formalin
6. Fixative recommended for fixing small pieces of liver, spleen, connective tissue fibers and nuclei:
A. Zenker’s fluid C. Heidenhain’s Susa solution
B. Orth’s fluid D. Regaud’s fluid
7. Excellent microanatomic fixative for pituitary gland, bone marrow and blood containing organs such as spleen and
liver:
A. Bouin’s solution C. Carnoy’s fluid
B. Helly’s fluid D. Flemming’s solution
8. All mercurial fixing solutions lead to the formation in tissues of diffuse BLACK granules and these mercury deposits
must be removed BEFORE STAINING. Removal of mercuric chloride deposit is accomplished by:
A. Saturated solution of iodine C. Distilled water
B. Sodium thiosulfate D. Saturated solution of picric acid
9. Considered to be the MOST RAPID fixative/ recommended for fixing chromosomes, lymph glands and urgent biopsies:
A. Gendre’s fixative C. Newcomer’s fluid
B. Carnoy’s fluid D. Flemming’s solution
10. Fixatives used mainly for acid mucopolysaccharides:
A. Lead fixatives C. Chromate fixatives
B. Mercurial fixatives D. Picric acid fixatives
11. Most widely used fixative for electron microscopy:
A. Acetone C. Osmium tetroxide
B. Zenker’s fluid D. Trichloroacetic acid
12. The process of decalcification is best performed:
A. Before fixation C. After impregnation
B. After fixation D. None of these
13. Most ideal and most reliable method of determining extent of decalcification:
A. Physical test C. X-ray or radiological test
B. Chemical test D. Adsorption test
14. The fastest chemical solution in decalcifying tissues is:
A. Trichloroacetic acid C. Formic acid
B. Nitric acid D. Versene
15. All of the following remove intracellular and extracellular water from the tissue following fixation, EXCEPT:
A. Alcohol C. Tetrahydrofuran
B. Chloroform D. Dioxane
16. A TOXIC dehydrating agent, primarily employed for blood and tissue films and for smear preparation:
A. Ethyl alcohol C. Butyl alcohol
B. Methyl alcohol D. Isopropyl alcohol
17. Function/s of tetrahydrofuran:
A. Dehyrating agent C. Both of these
B. Clearing agent D. None of these
18. Excessive exposure to this clearing agent may be extremely toxic to man and may become carcinogenic or it may
damage the bone marrow resulting to APLASTIC ANEMIA:
A. Xylene C. Tetrahydrofuran
B. Benzene D. Toluene
19. Process whereby the clearing agent is completely removed from the tissue and replaced by a medium that will
completely fill all the tissue cavities:
A. Embedding C. Blocking
B. Infiltration D. Casting
20. Simplest, most common and best embedding medium for routine tissue processing:
A. Paraffin wax C. Celloidin
B. Ester wax D. Carbowax
21. A semi-synthetic wax used for embedding the eyes:
A. Paraplast C. Ester wax
B. Bioloid D. Carbowax
22. The DRY celloidin embedding method is employed chiefly for the:
A. Bones and teeth C. Whole organs
B. Large brain blocks D. Eyes

23. All of the following are substitutes for paraffin wax, EXCEPT:
 2
A. Paraplast C. Malinol
B. Embeddol D. Tissue Mat
24. Melting point of ester wax:
A. 56-57oC B. 46-48oC C. 54-58oC D. 50-54oC
25. The last container through which tissue pass through in an automatic tissue processor contains:
A. Paraffin C. Formalin
B. Xylol D. Alcohol
26. Microtome knife recommended for frozen sections or for cutting extremely hard and tough specimens embedded in
paraffin blocks, using a base-sledge type or sliding microtome:
A. Plane-concave knife C. Biconcave knife
B. Plane-wedge knife D. None of these
27. Removal of gross nicks on the knife edge:
A. Honing B. Stropping C. Both of these D. None of these
28. Removal of “burr” or irregularities on the knife edge:
A. Honing B. Stropping C. Both of these D. None of these
29. Angle formed between the cutting edge of the microtome knife (27o-32o):
A. Bevel angle C. Both of these
B. Clearance angle D. Neither of these
30. Angle formed between the surface of the block and the cutting edge of the knife (0o-15o):
A. Bevel angle C. Both of these
B. Clearance angle D. Neither of these
31. This type of microtome easily cuts large blocks and serial sections can be obtained with ease because larger knives
can be used:
A. Sliding C. Rocking
B. Rotary D. Freezing
32. The cryostat is an apparatus used in fresh tissue microtomy. It consists of a microtome, kept inside a cold chamber
which has been maintained at a temperature of:
A. 20oC B. -20oC C. 4oC D. -4oC
33. A tissue exposed to short burst of CARBON DIOXIDE for a few minutes will:
A. Freeze C. Dehydrate
B. Harden D. Fix
34. Fat cells and enzymes are best demonstrated in:
A. Paraffin section C. Celloidin section
B. Plastic embedded section D. Frozen section
35. When trimming tissue block, they must be surrounded by at least __ of wax.
A. 1 mm B. 2 mm C. 3 mm D. 4 mm
36. Thickness of paraffin sections for routine histologic procedures:
A. 10-15  B. 4-6  C. 0.5  D. 5-10 
37. The following methods are done for drying sections on slide, EXCEPT:
A. On a hot plate at 45-55oC for 30-45 minutes
B. On a Bunsen flame
C. In an incubator at 37oC for 3 hours
D. In a wax oven at 56-60oC for 2 hours
38. Most probable cause when clearing agent turns milky as soon as the tissue is placed in it:
A. Incomplete fixation C. Incomplete dehydration
B. Prolonged fixation D. Prolonged dehydration
39. It is added to Mayer’s egg albumin to prevent the growth of molds:
A. Sodium chloride C. Thymol crystals
B. Glycerol D. Powdered starch
40. Adhesive added to the water in the floating-out bath – most convenient alternative to direct coating of slides:
A. Plasma B. Gelatin C. Starch paste D. Dried albumin
41. To avoid distortion of the image, the refractive index of the mountant should be near as possible to that of the glass
which is:
A. 1. 581 B. 1.185 C. 1.518 D. 1.155
42. Deparaffinization of tissue sections is accomplished by passing through:
A. Ammonia water C. Alcohol
B. Acetone D. Xylol
43. Coverslips from slides may be removed by immersion in:
A. Ammonia water C. Alcohol
B. Acetone D. Xylol
44. Process by which sections are stained with simple aqueous or alcoholic solutions of the dye:
A. Progressive staining C. Direct staining
B. Regressive staining D. Indirect staining
45. A tissue-mordant-dye complex is needed in:
A. Progressive staining C. Direct staining
B. Regressive staining D. Indirect staining
46. With this staining technique, the tissue is first overstained, and the excess stain is removed or decolorized from
unwanted part of the tissue:
A. Progressive staining C. Direct staining
B. Regressive staining D. Indirect staining

47. The regressive staining method employs this procedure:

 3
A. Deparaffinization C. Differentiation
B. Clearing D. Dehydration
48. Accelerate or hasten the speed of the staining power and selectivity of the dye:
A. Oxidizing agents C. Accentuators
B. Acid differentiators D. Mordants
49. Substances which aid in attaching a stain or dye to the tissue:
A. Oxidizing agents C. Accentuators
B. Acid differentiators D. Mordants
50. This technique entails the use of specific dyes, which differentiate particular substances by staining them with a color
that is different from that of the stain itself:
A. Orthochromatic staining C. Counterstaining
B. Metachromatic staining D. Vital staining
51. All of the following are metachromatic stains, EXCEPT:
A. Thionine C. Safranin
B. Toluidine blue D. Eosin
52. Stain used for demonstrating mitochondria during intravital staining:
A. Victoria blue C. Benzidine
B. Acridine orange D. Janus Green B
53. Application of a different color or stain to provide contrast and background to the staining of the structural component
to be demonstrated:
A. Orthochromatic staining C. Counterstaining
B. Metachromatic staining D. Vital staining
54. The routine stain for surgical tissue section is:
A. Gram’s stain C. Pap’s stain
B. Wright’s stain D. H&E stain
55. Routinely used in histopathology as a counterstain/background fro contrasting stain because it gives a pleasing and
colorful contrasts to nuclear stains:
A. Eosin C. Methylene blue
B. Toluidine blue D. Crystal violet
56. In the hematoxylin-eosin stain (H&E), this stain acts as the acid dye:
A. Hematoxylin C. Either of these
B. Eosin D. Neither of these
57. In routine H&E, most fixatives can be used, EXCEPT:
A. Zenker’s formol C. Osmic acid
B. Formaldehyde D. Picric acid
58. Only substance in histopathology that can fix, differentiate or stain tissues all by itself:
A. Osmic acid C. Trichloroacetic acid
B. Picric acid D. Acetic acid
59. The active dye (coloring agent) in hematoxylin solution is:
A. Hematin B. Hematein C. Hematoxylin D. Hematoxylon
60. All of the following are chemical oxidizing agent/ripening agent for hematoxylin, EXCEPT:
A. Sodium iodate C. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Mercuric oxide D. Ammonium alum
61. Ripening agent for Harris’ hematoxylin:
A. Sodium iodate C. Potassium permanganate
B. Mercuric oxide D. Hydrogen peroxide
62. Function of ammonium alum in the Harris hematoxylin formula:
A. Oxidizing agent C. Dye solvent
B. Mordant D. Dye
63. Staining of the nuclei by alum hematoxylin is enhanced by the addition of:
A. Alum C. Glacial acetic acid
B. Ethanol D. Mercuric oxide
64. Glacial acetic acid added to hematoxylin will:
A. Inactivate stain C. Enhance cytoplasmic staining
B. Decrease nuclear staining D. Enhance nuclear staining
65. A sheen of oxidized dye on the surface of hematoxylin solution indicates:
A. Stain is concentrated C. Stain has to be filtered
B. Stain is contaminated by bacteria D. Stain has to be discarded
66. Acid alcohol used in routine H&E acts as:
A. Mordant C. Bluing agent
B. Stain D. Differentiator
67. The acid used in combination with alcohol in an acid alcohol solution:
A. Acetic acid C. Nitric acid
B. Oxalic acid D. Hydrochloric acid
68. Staining result in the routine hematoxylin and eosin method:
A. Nuclei pink, cytoplasm blue to blue-black
B. Nuclei blue to blue-black, cytoplasm pink
C. Nuclei and cytoplasm pink
D. Nuclei and cytoplasm blue-black

69. A common BASIC NUCLEAR STAIN for plasma cells and may also be employed in cytological examination of fresh
sputum for malignant cells:
 4
A. Eosin C. Crystal violet
B. Methylene blue D. Aniline blue
70. PAS positive substances are stained:
A. Blue C. Green
B. Brown-black D. Magenta red
71. Staining method for glycogen:
A. PAS technique C. Best Carmine method
B. Langhan’s iodine stain D. All of these
72. Tubercle bacilli in Ziehl-Neelsen stain:
A. Bright red C. Green
B. Grayish blue D. Blue
73. Feulgen’s reaction is the most reliable and most specific histochemical staining technique for:
A. RNA B. DNA C. Both D. Neither
74. In the Masson-Fontana ammoniacal silver reaction, melanin and argentaffin cell granules are stained:
A. Brown B. Red C. Black D. Blue
75. Lipids in Sudan IV are stained:
A. Black B. Blue black C. Red D. Deep blue to violet
76. Positive reaction for cholesterol in Schultz Method:
A. Blue-black C. Pale pink
B. Grayish-blue D. Blue-green
77. The method of choice for staining in exfoliative cytology:
A. Pap’s stain C. H&E stain
B. Wright’s stain D. Giemsa stain
78. Components of the EA-50 stain, EXCEPT:
A. Eosin Y C. Light green
B. Orange green D. Bismarck brown
79. All of the following are fixative used for cytologic smears, EXCEPT:
A. Equal parts of 95% ETOH and ether C. 10% Formalin
B. 95% Ethyl alcohol D. Carnoy’s fluid
80. BEST fixative for virtually all diagnostic cytology studies but flammable and volatile:
A. Equal parts of 95% ETOH and ether C. 10% Formalin
B. 95% Ethyl alcohol D. Carnoy’s fluid
81. All of the following are examples of good adhesive agents for cytologic method, EXCEPT:
A. Egg albumin C. Pooled human serum or plasma
B. Celloidin ether alcohol D. Leuconostoc culture
82. Smears prepared for cytologic examination from cut surfaces of lymph nodes can be obtained by:
A. Spreading C. Touch preparation
B. Pull-Apart D. Streaking
83. Organisms found in the normal vaginal flora that stain BLUE to lavander with Pap’s method:
A. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Doderlein bacilli
B. Streptococci D. Acid fast bacilli
84. Clue cells are diagnostic of what infection:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. HSV-II
B. Gardnerella vaginalis D. Candida albicans
85. Cells found in a vaginal smear which are thick and round to oval in shape (similar to fried fresh eggs with sunny-side
up) with strongly basophilic cytoplasm and vesicular nucleus:
A. Superficial cells C. Parabasal cells
B. Intermediate cells D. Basal cells
86. Increase in size of an organ or tissue due to an increase in number of cells:
A. Hypertrophy B. Necrosis C. Hyperplasia D. Atrophy
87. Continuous abnormal proliferation of cells without control causes an overgrowth of tissue or tumor cells:
A. Anaplasia B. Hyperplasia C. Neoplasia D. Dysplasia
88. The dissolving of cells by enzymatic action is:
A. Rotting B. Decay C. Autolysis D. Putrefaction
89. A malignant tumor is least characterized by:
A. Metastases C. Encapsulation
B. Mitotic figures D. Invasion of adjacent tissues
90. A medical laboratory technician to be registered must have obtained a grade within this range (Medical Technology
Board Exam):
A. 65-74.5% C. 60-74.9%
B. 70-74.9% D. 73-73%
91. RA 5527 was approved on:
A. June 21, 1969 C. June 21, 1968
B. July 21, 1969 D. June 11, 1978
92. The Blood Banking Law:
A. RA 4224 C. RA 1517
B. RA 4688 D. RA 5527
93. National Blood Services Act of 1994:
A. RA 1517 C. RA 7719
B. RA 8504 D. RA 8981

94. Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998:

A. RA 1517 C. RA 7719
 5
B. RA 8504 D. RA 8981
95. Newborn Screening Act of 2004
A. RA 9288 C. RA 9165
B. RA 8504 D. RA 7719
96. All services are done on a primary category laboratory except: (A.O. 2007-0027)
A. Routine urinalysis C. Routine chemistry
B. Routine hematology D. Blood typing
97. Who are the members of the Medical technology Board?
A. Pathologist, medical technologist and medical technician
B. Secretary of health, dean and president of PAMET
C. One internist, one pathologist and one medical technologist
D. A registered pathologist and two registered medical technologist
98. Sections of RA 5527 amended by PD 1534:
A. 3, 8, 13 C. 11, 16, 29
B. 16, 21, 22 D. 11, 21, 29
99. In order to pass examination (MT), a candidate must obtain a general average of:
A. 50% B. 60% C. 70% D. 75%
100.The penalty of revocation of certificate of registration may be imposed by the board if there is:
A. Majority vote B. Unanimous vote C. Either of these D. Neither of these

END OF THE EXAM

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN HISTOPATHOLOGY AND MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS (PART 2)

1. Nonkeratinizing stratified squamous epithelium would be found lining the:

A. Skin C. Esophagus
B. Trachea D. Urinary bladder
2. The connective tissue cells actively involved in wound healing are:
A. Plasma cells C. Macrophages
B. Mast cells D. Fibroblasts
3. Tissue composed of a network of bony trabeculae separated by interconnecting bone marrow spaces:
A. Cortical bone C. Cancellous bone
B. Woven bone D. Compact bone
4. Muscle that histologically contains cytoplasmic cross-striations and has multiple nuclei located at the edge of the
fibers is classified as:
A. Smooth C. Skeletal
B. Visceral D. Cardiac
5. Malignant tumors of connective tissue are known as:
A. Carcinomas C. Sarcomas
B. Lipomas D. Fibromas
6. The antibody class most frequently used in immunofluorescent and immunoenzyme staining is:
A. IgM C. IgG
B. IgE D. IgA
7. The most specific stain available for the identification of melanomas in paraffin section is the:
A. DOPA reaction C. Warthin-Starry
B. Gridley method D. Immunostain for HMB-45
8. Frozen sections are commonly used for:
1. Rapid pathologic diagnosis during surgery 3. Immunohistochemical staining
2. Diagnostic and enzyme histochemistry 4. Demonstration of lipids and carbohydrates
A. 1 and 2 are correct C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. 2 and 4 are correct D. All are correct
9. Characteristics of a good fixative:
1. Cheap, stable and safe to handle 3. Inhibit bacterial decomposition and autolysis
2. Produce minimum shrinkage of tissue 4. Harden tissue thereby making cutting of sections easier
A. 1 and 2 are correct C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. 2 and 4 are correct D. All are correct
10. Microanatomical fixatives:
1. 10% formol saline 3. Zenker’s solution
2. Heidenhain’s susa 4. Flemming’s fluid
A. 1 and 2 are correct C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. 2 and 4 are correct D. All are correct
11. Mercuric chloride fixatives:
1. Zenker’s fluid 3. B-5 fixative
2. Heidenhain’s Susa solution 4. Orth’s fluid
A. 1 and 2 are correct C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B. 2 and 4 are correct D. All are correct
12. All mercurial fixing solutions lead to the formation in tissues of diffuse BLACK granules and these mercury deposits
must be removed BEFORE STAINING. Removal of mercuric chloride deposit is accomplished by:
A. Saturated solution of iodine C. Distilled water
B. Sodium thiosulfate D. Saturated solution of picric acid
13. Most widely used fixative for electron microscopy:
A. Acetone C. Osmium tetroxide
B. Zenker’s fluid D. Trichloroacetic acid
14. When fat is to be preserved, the fixative of choice is:
A. Formalin C. Carnoy solution
B. Zenker solution D. Bouin solution
15. Zenker fluid contains all of the following, except:
A. Mercuric chloride C. Formaldehyde
B. Potassium dichromate D. Glacial acetic acid
16. Orth solution contains all of the following, except:
A. Potassium dichromate C. Sodium sulfate
B. Mercuric chloride D. Formaldehyde
17. Fixative for blood smears:
A. Bouin solution C. B-5
B. Carnoy solution D. Methanol
18. An unknown pigment in tissue section that can be bleached with a saturated alcoholic solution of picric acid is most
likely:
A. Melanin pigment C. Hemosiderin
B. Formalin pigment D. Mercury pigment
19. A common reason for adding acetic acid to fixatives is to:
A. Coagulate proteins C. Preserve carbohydrates
B. Reduce shrinkage D. Change the pH
20. The process of decalcification is best performed:
A. Before fixation C. After impregnation
B. After fixation D. None of these
 2
21. Most ideal and most reliable method of determining extent of decalcification:
A. Physical test C. X-ray or radiological test
B. Chemical test D. Adsorption test
22. The fastest chemical solution in decalcifying tissues is:
A. Trichloroacetic acid C. Formic acid
B. Nitric acid D. Versene
23. All of the following remove intracellular and extracellular water from the tissue following fixation, EXCEPT:
A. Alcohol C. Tetrahydrofuran
B. Chloroform D. Dioxane
24. Dioxane is a reagent that can be used:
A. For both fixing and dehydrating tissues C. In very small volume rations
B. For both dehydrating and clearing tissues D. For long periods without changing
25. Function/s of tetrahydrofuran:
A. Dehyrating agent C. Both of these
B. Clearing agent D. None of these
26. Excessive exposure to this clearing agent may be extremely toxic to man and may become carcinogenic or it may
damage the bone marrow resulting to APLASTIC ANEMIA:
A. Xylene C. Tetrahydrofuran
B. Benzene D. Toluene
27. Process whereby the clearing agent is completely removed from the tissue and replaced by a medium that will
completely fill all the tissue cavities:
A. Embedding C. Blocking
B. Infiltration D. Casting
28. The last container through which tissue pass through in an automatic tissue processor contains:
A. Paraffin C. Formalin
B. Xylol D. Alcohol
29. Simplest, most common and best embedding medium for routine tissue processing:
A. Paraffin wax C. Celloidin
B. Ester wax D. Carbowax
30. A semi-synthetic wax used for embedding the eyes:
A. Paraplast C. Ester wax
B. Bioloid D. Carbowax
31. The DRY celloidin embedding method is employed chiefly for the:
A. Bones and teeth C. Whole organs
B. Large brain blocks D. Eyes
32. All of the following are substitutes for paraffin wax, EXCEPT:
A. Paraplast C. Malinol
B. Embeddol D. Tissue Mat
33. Melting point of ester wax:
A. 56-57oC C. 46-48oC
o
B. 54-58 C D. 50-54oC
34. Carbowax has a major disadvantage of:
A. Dissolving during flotation C. Making tissues brittle fro sectioning
B. Being a lengthy processing method D. Causing cell shrinkage
35. Microtome knife recommended for frozen sections or for cutting extremely hard and tough specimens embedded in
paraffin blocks, using a base-sledge type or sliding microtome:
A. Plane-concave knife C. Biconcave knife
B. Plane-wedge knife D. None of these
36. Removal of gross nicks on the knife edge:
A. Honing C. Both of these
B. Stropping D. None of these
37. Removal of “burr” or irregularities on the knife edge:
A. Honing C. Both of these
B. Stropping D. None of these
38. Angle formed between the cutting edge of the microtome knife (27o-32o):
A. Bevel angle C. Both of these
B. Clearance angle D. Neither of these
39. This type of microtome easily cuts large blocks and serial sections can be obtained with ease because larger knives
can be used:
A. Sliding C. Rocking
B. Rotary D. Freezing
40. The cryostat is an apparatus used in fresh tissue microtomy. It consists of a microtome, kept inside a cold chamber
which has been maintained at a temperature of:
A. 20oC C. -20oC
o
B. 4 C D. -4oC
41. Fat cells and enzymes are best demonstrated in:
A. Paraffin section C. Celloidin section
B. Plastic embedded section D. Frozen section
42. When trimming tissue block, they must be surrounded by at least __ of wax.
A. 1 mm C. 2 mm
B. 3 mm D. 4 mm
 3
43. Most probable cause when clearing agent turns milky as soon as the tissue is placed in it:
A. Incomplete fixation C. Incomplete dehydration
B. Prolonged fixation D. Prolonged dehydration
44. It is added to Mayer’s egg albumin to prevent the growth of molds:
A. Sodium chloride C. Thymol crystals
B. Glycerol D. Powdered starch
45. To avoid distortion of the image, the refractive index of the mountant should be near as possible to that of the glass
which is:
A. 1. 581 C. 1.185
B. 1.518 D. 1.155
46. Deparaffinization of tissue sections is accomplished by passing through:
A. Ammonia water C. Alcohol
B. Acetone D. Xylol
47. Coverslips from slides may be removed by immersion in:
A. Ammonia water C. Alcohol
B. Acetone D. Xylol
48. Ripening of hematoxylin is a process of:
A. Hydrolysis C. Mordanting
B. Oxidation D. Reduction
49. Mercuric oxide or sodium iodate is used in hematoxylin to:
A. From hematein C. Prevent oxidation
B. Serve as the mordant D. Stabilize the solution
50. A commonly used connective tissue procedure that stains collagen blue:
A. Masson trichrome C Best carmine
B. van Gieson D. Aldehyde fuchsin
51. The phosphotungstic acid hematoxylin (PTAH) is useful for demonstrating:
A. Edema fluid C. Ground substance
B. Muscle striations D. Reticulin network
52. A method for demonstrating the nucleic acids, in which the DNA stains green and the RNA stains red:
A. Feulgen reaction C. Masson trichrome
B. Methyl green - pyronin D. Gomori trichrome
53. Thin sections for electron microscopy are stained with:
A. Hematoxylin and eosin C. Uranyl acetate and lead
B. Toluidine blue D. fluorescein and rhodamine
54. Feulgen’s reaction is the most reliable and most specific histochemical staining technique for:
A. RNA C. Both
B. DNA D. Neither
55. In the Masson-Fontana ammoniacal silver reaction, melanin and argentaffin cell granules are stained:
A. Brown C. Red
B. Black D. Blue
56. All of the following are fixative used for cytologic smears, EXCEPT:
A. Equal parts of 95% ETOH and ether C. 10% Formalin
B. 95% Ethyl alcohol D. Carnoy’s fluid
57. All of the following are examples of good adhesive agents for cytologic method, EXCEPT:
A. Egg albumin C. Pooled human serum or plasma
B. Celloidin ether alcohol D. Leuconostoc culture
58. Smears prepared for cytologic examination from cut surfaces of lymph nodes can be obtained by:
A. Spreading C. Touch preparation
B. Pull-Apart D. Streaking
59. Organisms found in the normal vaginal flora that stain BLUE to lavander with Pap’s method:
A. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Doderlein bacilli
B. Streptococci D. Acid fast bacilli
60. Clue cells are diagnostic of what infection:
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae C. HSV-II
B. Gardnerella vaginalis D. Candida albicans
61. Cells found in a vaginal smear which are thick and round to oval in shape (similar to fried fresh eggs with sunny-side
up) with strongly basophilic cytoplasm and vesicular nucleus:
A. Superficial cells C. Parabasal cells
B. Intermediate cells D. Basal cells
62. A malignant tumor is least characterized by:
A. Metastases C. Encapsulation
B. Mitotic figures D. Invasion of adjacent tissues
63. Identified by the presence of pale, pink-staining cytoplasm and dark pyknotic nuclei:
A. Superficial cells C. Intermediate cells
B. Parabasal cells D. None of these
64. May occur in large groups or small sheets and may present a honeycomb appearance when viewed on end:
A. Navicular cells C. Endometrial cells
B. Pregnancy cells D. Endocervical glandular cells
65. If smears cannot be made immediately for cytology, the collected material should be placed in ___ for all types of
effusion.
A. 10% formalin C. Chloroform
B. Glacial acetic acid D. 50% alcohol
 4
66. Absence of alveolar macrophages:
A. Saliva C. Both of these
B. Sputum D. None of these
67. Jelly-like clots in peritoneal, pleural and pericardial fluids may be prevented by addition of:
A. Acetic acid C. Alcohol
B. Formalin D. Heparin
68. For CSF specimens, a minimum of ____ is necessary for cytologic evaluation.
A. 1 cc C. 10 cc
B. 15 cc D. 20 cc
69. To obtain a more reliable cytological evaluation, urine specimen may have to be collected and examined twice – one
in the early morning and another later in the day. At least ___mL is needed which must be centrifuged. Smears of
sediments should be prepared and fixed as soon as possible after collection.
A. 10 mL C. 20 mL
B. 40 mL D. 50 mL
70. Ferning in vaginal smear is the basis for early detection of:
A. Early malignancy C. Menopausal cervix
B. Normal cervix D. Early pregnancy
71. Presence of large number of Doderlein bacilli may be found in which of the following conditions:
1. Last trimester of pregnancy 3. Infection
2. Diabetes mellitus 4. Estrogen deficiency
A. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
72. Cytologic picture strongly suggestive of malignancy
A. Class II C. Class IV
B. Class III D. Class V
73. Increase in size of an organ or tissue due to an increase in the number of cells resulting from growth of new cells:
A. Hypoplasia C. Atrophy
B. Hypertrophy D. Hyperplasia
74. Marked regressive change in adult cells towards more primitive or embryonic cell types:
A. Metaplasia C. Dysplasia
B. Anaplasia D. Neoplasia
75. Continuous abnormal proliferation of cells without control:
A. Metaplasia C. Dysplasia
B. Anaplasia D. Neoplasia
76. Reversible change involving the transformation of one cell type to another:
A. Metaplasia C. Dysplasia
B. Anaplasia D. Neoplasia
77. Rigidity or stiffening of the muscles occurring 6-12 hours after death:
A. Algor mortis C. Livor mortis
B. Rigor mortis D. Autolysis
78. Inflammation characterized by the presence of large amount of pus:
A. Serous C. Fibrinous
B. Hemorrhagic D. Suppurative or purulent
79. Inflammation characterized by extensive outpouring of a watery, low-protein fluid from blood:
A. Serous C. Fibrinous
B. Hemorrhagic D. Suppurative or purulent
80. It is usually observed in skeletal muscles, heart, kidneys, endocrine organs and smooth muscles of hollow viscera due
to increased workload and endocrine stimulation (e.g. during exercise and pregnancy)
A. Compensatory hypertrophy C. True hypertrophy
B. False hypertrophy D. None of these
81. It is due to edema fluid and connective tissue proliferation (e.g. in cirrhosis and chronic hypertrophic salphingitis or
appendicitis):
A. Compensatory hypertrophy C. True hypertrophy
B. False hypertrophy D. None of these
82. Blood Banking Law of 1956:
A. RA 1517 C. RA 4688
B. RA 5527 D. PD 223
83. Clinical Laboratory Act of 1966:
A. RA 1517 C. RA 4688
B. RA 5527 D. PD 223
84. Creation of Professional Regulation Commission:
A. RA 1517 C. RA 4688
B. RA 5527 D. PD 223
85. The clinical laboratory law requires that:
A. The pathologist owns the clinical laboratory
B. The clinical laboratory is owned by a medical technologist
C. The clinical laboratory has a pathologist, medical technologist and medical laboratory technician
D. The clinical laboratory is headed by a pathologist
86. Who are the members of the Medical technology Board?
A. Pathologist, medical technologist and medical technician
B. Secretary of health, dean and president of PAMET
C. One internist, one pathologist and one medical technologist
D. A registered pathologist and two registered medical technologist
 5
87. A medical technician to be registered must have obtained a grade within this range (Medical Technology Board Exam):

A. 65-74.9% C. 60-74.9%
B. 70-74.9% D. 73-74.9%
88. Administrative investigations shall be conducted by:
A. At least one member of the Board C. At least one member of the Board w/one legal officer
B. Three members of the Board D. At least two members of the Board w/ one legal officer
89. The Commissioner of PRC is appointed by:
A. President of the Philippines C. Senate president
B. Speaker of the House D. Secretary of Health
90. Any member of the Medical Technology Board, if after due hearing, if found guilty of neglect of duty or incompetence
can be removed by:
A. President of the Philippines C. PRC chairman
B. CHED Commissioner D. Civil Service Commissioner
91. The penalty of revocation of certificate of registration may be imposed by the board if there is:
A. Majority vote C. Either of these
B. Unanimous vote D. Neither of these
92. National Blood Services Act of 1994:
A. RA 5527 C. RA 1517
B. RA 7719 D. RA 8504
93. Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998:
A. RA 7719 C. RA 8504
B. RA 1517 D. PD 223
94. Newborn Screening Act of 2004
A. RA 9288 C. RA 9165
B. RA 8504 D. RA 7719
95. All services are done on a primary category laboratory except: (A.O. 2007-0027)
A. Routine urinalysis C. Routine chemistry
B. Routine hematology D. Blood typing
96. Sections of RA 5527 amended by PD 1534:
A. 3, 8 and 13 C. 11, 16 and 29
B. 16, 21 and 22 D. 11, 21 and 29
97. The records of anatomic and forensic pathology shall be kept in the laboratory for:
A. Five years C. Ten years
B. Fifteen years D. Permanently
98. MT CODE OF ETHICS: Accept the responsibilities inherent to being a (98).
A. Professional C. Medical technologist
B. Filipino D. None of these
99. MT CODE OF ETHICS: Perform my task with (99) absolute reliability and accuracy.
A. Within constructive limits C. Full confidence
B. No conflict of interest D. None of these
100.MT CODE OF ETHICS: (100) of the professional organization and other allied health organizations.
A. Uphold the dignity C. Contribute to the advancement
B. Uphold the law D. None of these

END OF THE EXAM

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION IN HISTOTECHNIQUES AND MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS (PART3)

1. A fixative made up of mercuric chloride stock solution to which glacial acetic acid has been added just before
use:a. Zenker’s b. Helly’s c. Orth’s d. Flemming’s
2. All of the following are components of Helly’s solution, except:
a. mercuric chloride b. potassium dichromate c. formaldehyde d. glacial acetic acid
3. An excellent microanatomic fixative for pituitary gland, bone marrow and blood-containing organs such as
spleen and liver:
a. Helly’s b. Orth’s c. Carnoy’s d. Heidenhain’s susa solution
4. A fixative recommended mainly for tumor biopsies especially of the skin:
a. Helly’s b. Orth’s c. Carnoy’s d. Heidenhain’ susa solution
5. It is recommended for study of early degenerative processes and tissue necrosis:
a. Carnoy’s b. Zenker’s c. Helly’s d. Orth’s
6. It demonstrates Rickettsia and other bacteria:
a. Carnoy’s b. Zenker’s c. Helly’s d. Orth’s
7. It is recommended for acid mucopolysaccharides:
a. formaldehyde b. mercurial fixatives c. lead fixatives d. picric acid fixatives
8. Picric acid fixatives:
a. Bouin’s solution b. Brasil’s fixative c. both of these d. none of these
9. Glacial acetic acid solidifies at:
a. 1 oC b. 10 oC c. 7 oC d. 17 oC
10. Excellent for fixing blood smears and bone marrow tissues:
a. formalin b. acetic acid c. picric acid d. methyl alcohol
11. Composition of Carnoy’s fluid:
a. mercuric chloride, acetic acid c. alcohol, chloroform, acetic acid
b. picric acid, formaldehyde, acetic acid d. potassium dichromate, formaldehyde
12. It is recommended for fixing chromosomes, lymph glands and urgent biopsies:
a. Carnoy’s b. Zenker’s c. Helly’s d. Orth’s
13. It is considered to be the most rapid fixative:
a. Carnoy’s b. Zenker’s c. Helly’s d. Orth’s
14. Swelling effect on tissues counteract shrinkage produced by other components/fixatives:
a. glacial acetic acid b. trichloroacetic acid c. both of these d. none of these
15. It is used in fixing brain tissues for diagnosis of rabies:
a. formalin b. methyl alcohol c. acetone d. acetic acid
16. It is used to remove excessive mercuric fixatives:
a. tap water b. 50-70% alcohol c. iodine d. none of these
17. It is most common decalcifying agent used, utilized both as simple solution or combined with other reagents:
a. nitric acid b. hydrochloric acid c. citric acid d. chromic acid
18. It decalcifies and softens tissues at the same time:
a. hydrochloric acid b. trichloroacetic acid c. Perenyi’s fluid d. sulfurous acid
19. Composition of Perenyi’s fluid:
a. NaCl soln, HCl, water c. chromic acid, osmium tetroxide
b. formic acid, formol saline d. nitric acid, chromic acid, ethyl alcohol
20. It may be used both as a fixative and decalcifying agent:
a. nitric acid b. hydrochloric acid c. citric acid d. chromic acid
21. A very expensive although the most ideal and most reliable method of determining the extent of decalcification:
a. physical test b. mechanical test c. chemical method d. radiological method
22. Best dehydrating agent because it is fast-acting, it mixes with water and penetrates tissue easily:
a. ethyl alcohol b. acetone c. cellosolve d. triethyl phosphate
23. Dehydrates and clears tissues:
a. dioxane b. tetrahydrofuran c. both of these d. none of these
24. A clearing agent which may damage the bone marrow resulting in aplastic anemia:
a. xylene b. toluene c. benzene d. chloroform
25. A clearing agent recommended for tough tissues, for nervous tissues, lymph nodes and embryos because it
causes minimum shrinkage and hardening of tissues:
a. xylene b. toluene c. benzene d. chloroform
26. A mixture of highly purified paraffin and synthetic plastic polymers with a melting point of 56-57 oC.
a. celloidin b. paraplast c. ester wax d. carbowax
27. It is recommended for bones, teeth, large brain sections and whole organs
a. wet celloidin method b. dry celloidin method c. both of these d. none of these
28. It is preferred for processing of whole eye sections:
a. wet celloidin method b. dry celloidin method c. both of these d. none of these
29. Gilson’s mixture made up of equal parts of chloroform and cedarwood oil, is added to the celloidin block before
hardening, to make the tissue transparent:
a. wet celloidin method b. dry celloidin method c. both of these d. none of these
30. The angle formed between the cutting edges, normally between 27 to 32o:
a. bevel angle b. clearance angle c. both of these d. none of these
31. It involves the removal of gross nicks on the knife edge, to remove blemishes, and grinding the cutting edge of
the knife on a stone:
a. honing b. stropping c. both of these d. none of these
32. It involves the removal of burr and for final polishing of the knife edge:
a. honing b. stropping c. both of these d. none of these
 2

33. The knife is then turned over, and the other surface is again drawn forward, edge first, with a HEEL TO TOE
direction:
a. honing b. stropping c. both of these d. none of these
34. It is used for cutting celloidin embedded sections:
a. freezing microtome b. rocking microtome c. rotary microtome d. sliding microtome
35. This was invented by Paldwell Trefall in 1881, the simplest among the different types of microtomes:
a. freezing microtome b. rocking microtome c. rotary microtome d. sliding microtome
36. This was invented by Minot in 1885-86 to cut paraffin embedded tissues, and is the most common type used for
both routine and research laboratories:
a. freezing microtome b. rocking microtome c. rotary microtome d. sliding microtome
37. This was developed by Adam in 1789:
a. freezing microtome b. rocking microtome c. rotary microtome d. sliding microtome
38. This was invented by Queckett in 1848:
a. freezing microtome b. rocking microtome c. rotary microtome d. sliding microtome
39. It is added to Mayer’s egg albumin to prevent the growth of molds:
a. gelatin b. egg white c. glycerin d. thymol
40. A natural dye derived by extraction from the heartwood of a Mexican tree:
a. carmine b. hematoxylin c. orcein d. saffron
41. A vegetable dye extracted from certain lichens:
a. carmine b. hematoxylin c. orcein d. saffron
42. Alum hematoxylin solutions:
a. Ehrlich’s hematoxylin b. Harris hematoxylin c. both of these d. none of these
43. An excellent stain for elastic fibers (Taenzer Unna), especially recommended in dermatological studies due to
its ability to demonstrate the finest and most delicate fibers in the skin:
a. carmine b. orcein c. Prussian blue d. picric acid
44. A process by which sections are stained with simple aqueous or alcoholic solution of the dye:
a. direct staining b. indirect staining c. progressive staining d. regressive staining
45. Tissue is first overstained to obliterate the cellular details, and the excess stain is removed or decolorized from
unwanted parts of the tissue:
a. direct staining b. indirect staining c. progressive staining d. regressive staining
46. In the Masson Fontana technique, melanin is stained:
a. red b. blue c. green d. black
47. In the von Kossa silver nitrate method, calcium is stained:
a. red b. blue c. green d. black
48. Most reliable and specific histochemical staining technique for DNA:
a. von Kossa b. Levaditi’s c. Sakaguchi’s d. Feulgen’s
49. In the methyl green pyronin stain for nucleic acids, DNA is stained:
a. green/blue-green b. rose-red c. purple d. black
50. In the methyl green pyronin stain for nucleic acids, RNA is stained:
a. green/blue-green b. rose-red c. purple d. black
51. All of the following are considered as good adhesive agents for cytologic method, except:
a. pooled serum or plasma b. egg albumin c. celloidin ether alcohol d. Leuconostoc culture
52. All of the following are fixatives for cytologic smears, except:
a. ethyl alcohol and ether b. 95% ethyl alcohol c. Carnoy’s d. formalin
53. Incomplete or defective development of a tissue or organ, represented only by a mass of fatty or fibrous tissue,
bearing no resemblance to the adult structure:
a. agenesia b. aplasia c. atresia d. atrophy
54. It refers to the complete non-appearance of an organ:
a. agenesia b. aplasia c. atresia d. atrophy
55. Failure of an organ to form an opening:
a. agenesia b. aplasia c. atresia d. atrophy
56. An acquired decrease in size of a normally developed or mature tissue or organ resulting from reduction in cell
size or decrease in total number of cells or both:
a. agenesia b. aplasia c. atresia d. atrophy
57. A reversible change involving the transformation in one type of adult cell to another:
a. anaplasia b. dysplasia c. metaplasia d. neoplasia
58. Regressive alteration in adult cells manifested by variation in size, shape and orientation:
a. anaplasia b. dysplasia c. metaplasia d. neoplasia
59. Dedifferentiation:
a. anaplasia b. dysplasia c. metaplasia d. neoplasia
60. Marked regressive change in adult cells towards more primitive or embryonic cell types:
a. anaplasia b. dysplasia c. metaplasia d. neoplasia
61. Continuous abnormal proliferation of cells without control:
a. anaplasia b. dysplasia c. metaplasia d. neoplasia
62. It is characterized by cooling of the body to equalize that of the surrounding environment, occurring at a definite
rate, about 7 oF per hour and usually important in establishing the approximate time of death:
a. algor mortis b. livor mortis c. rigor mortis d. dessication
63. This refers to the rigidity or stiffening of the muscles occurring 6 to 12 hours after death and persisting for 3 to 4
days:
a. algor mortis b. livor mortis c. rigor mortis d. dessication
 3

64. This refers to the purplish discoloration or lividity of the skin after death:
a. algor mortis b. livor mortis c. rigor mortis d. dessication
65. This refers to the drying and wrinkling of the cornea and anterior chamber of the eye due to the absorption of
the aqueous humor.
a. algor mortis b. livor mortis c. rigor mortis d. dessication
66. Identified by the presence of pale, pink-staining cytoplasm and dark pyknotic nuclei:
a. superficial cells b. intermediate cells c. parabasal cells d. none of these
67. The penalty of revocation of certificate of registration may be imposed by the board if there is:
a. Majority vote b. Unanimous vote c. Either of these d. Neither of these
68. National Blood Services Act of 1994:
a. RA 5527 b. RA 1517 c. RA 7719 d. RA 8504
69. Newborn Screening Act of 2004:
a. RA 9502 b. RA 9288 c. RA 9211 d. RA 9165
70. What are the disorders included in the newborn screening?
1. congenital hypothyroidism (CH) 3. congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) 5. phenylketonuria
2. galactosemia 4. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
a. 1, 3 and 5 b. 1, 3, 4 and 5 c. 1, 2 and 5 d. AOTA
71. Philippine AIDS Prevention and Control Act of 1998:
a. RA 7719 b. RA 8504 c. RA 1517 d. PD 223

72 – 79:
A. RA 1517 B. RA 4688 C. RA 5527 D. PD 223
72. Philippine Medical technology Act

i
73. Blood Banking Law
74. Clinical Laboratory Act
75. Creation of Professional Regulation Commission
76. June 22, 1973
77. June 21, 1969
78. June 18, 1966
79. June 16, 1956

80 – 88: SERVICE CAPABILITY OF LABORATORIES

Revised Rules and Regulations Governing the Licensure and Regulation of Clinical Laboratories in the Philippines
(August 22, 2007)

80. Blood typing – for hospital-based A. Done in primary secondary and tertiary laboratories

e
81. Special Hematology B. Done in secondary and tertiary laboratories
82. Immunology C. Done only in a tertiary laboratory
83. Microbiology – culture and sensitivity
84. Routine Clinical Chemistry
85. Routine Fecalysis
86. Routine Hematology
A 87.
88.
Routine Urinalysis
Special Chemistry

89 to 100: FILL IN THE BLANKS: CODE OF ETHICS

A. Contribute to the advancement G. Ethics committee

B. Knowledge and expertise H. No conflict of interest
C. Professional I. Promote life and benefit mankind
D. Spirit of brotherhood J. Strictly confidential;
E. Uphold the dignity K. Uphold the law
F. Within constructive limits L. Full confidence

As I enter into the practice of Medical Technology, I shall:

 Accept the responsibilities inherent to being a (89).

 (90) and shall not participate in illegal work.
 Act in a strict spirit of fairness to all and in a (91) toward other members of the profession.
 Accept employment from more than one employer only when there in (92).
 Perform my task with (93) absolute reliability and accuracy.
 Share my (94) with my colleagues.
 (95) of the professional organization and other allied health organizations.
 Restrict my praises, criticisms, views and opinions (96).
 Treat any information I acquired in the course of my work as (97).
E  (98) and respect of my profession and conduct myself a reputation of reliability, honesty and integrity.
 Be dedicated to the use of clinical laboratory science (99).
 Report any violations of the above principles of the professional conduct to authorized agency and to the (100).

END OF THE EXAM