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CONFINED SPACE ENTRY

1. Which of the following definitely would not be a confined space?

a. A manhole
b. A storage tank
c. A vat
d. A ventilated room A

2. The primary hazard associated with confined spaces is:

a. Mechanical or moving parts
b. Sound
c. Heat
d. Oxygen deficiency A

3. Portable self-contained breathing devices (SCBA’s) should be used in confined spaces where
hazardous atmospheres exist:
a. With protective equipment and clothing
b. If the entrance is large enough
c. b and d
d. Unless the atmosphere is ventilated A

4. Ventilation should achieve which of the following goals?

a. Maintain an oxygen level of at least 19.5%.
b. Keep toxic gases and vapors to within acceptable levels
c. Neither of the above
d. Both a and b A

5. Testing the air in the confined space must be done:

a. During work in the confined space
b. Before entry into the confined space
c. After the confined space is exited
d. a and b A

6. At least how many people must serve as attendant outside a confined space?
a. 0
b. 1 A
c. 2
d. 3

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7. An acceptable method of rescue from a confined space is:

a. A rope tied around a workers waist
b. A lone attendant entering the confined space as soon as trouble starts inside
c. Rescue by any person, whether trained or not in first aid or CPR
d. A trained person with SCBA entering the space after additional help arrives A

8. Residue left in tanks can cause:

a. Fire hazard
b. Explosion hazard
c. Respiratory hazard
d. All of the above A

9. Possible precautions to take when someone is entering a confined space include:

a. Lockout - Tagout
b. Permits
c. Rescue
d. All of the above A

10. When testing the air, what are you testing?

a. Oxygen levels
b. Air Contaminants
c. If a permit is required
d. All of the above A

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ELECTRICAL SAFETY

1. What flows through conductors to make electricity?

a. Atoms
b. Protons
c. Electrons A
d. Neutrons

2. When a potential difference of electromotive force exists between two points on the circuit,
what flows?
a. Resistance
b. Current
c. Ohms
d. Water

3. Porcelain, wood, rubber, and other substances make good ____.

a. Insulators A
b. Negative terminals
c. Positive terminals
d. Conductors

4. What are the hazards of electricity?

a. Shock
b. Burns
c. Arc-blast
d. Explosions
e. Fires
f. All of the above A

5. What effects on the body can an electrical shock have?

a. Tingling sensation
b. Cardiac arrest
c. Visible burns
d. Internal organ damage
e. All of the above A

6. What is over current?

a. Current that travels over the conductor
b. Current that travels through the circuit
c. Less current than the circuit can handle
d. More current than the circuit can handle
e. None of the above D

7. An over current protective device __________.

a. Creates a weak link in the circuit if there is over current
b. Can be either a fuse or a circuit breaker
c. Is a ground-fault circuit-interrupter A
d. a and b
e. None of the above

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8. Energized parts of electrical equipment operating at 50 volts or more must be ______ to

avoid accidental contact.
a. Insulated
b. Grounded A
c. Guarded
d. Protected

9. A low-resistance path intentionally created to the earth is a ________.

a. Insulator
b. Ground A
c. Guard
d. Protector

10. Before repair work or maintenance is started, you should _____ electrical equipment.
a. De-energize and lock it out A
b. Turn on
c. Check the circuit breaker for flaws
d. Check your co-worker’s

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EMERGENCY RESPONSE

1. A good source for chemical information is:

a. Spill carts
b. In cabinets containing the chemicals
c. An MSDS A
d. Emergency response team handbook

2. When working on a spill you must:

a. Get cleanup material before doing anything else A
b. Start cleaning up immediately
c. Wear gloves, goggles, and other appropriate Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
d. None of the above

3. Who are the proper people to clean up a hazardous chemical spill?

a. Whoever is closest
b. Those that have been properly trained A
c. Whoever discovers it
d. The safety person

4. What is not a basic safety procedure everybody needs to know in case of emergency?
a. The exit ways
b. First aid or where to get it
c. The national emergency response process A
d. How to notify safety and/or rescue personnel

5. The purpose of a spill control station is:

a. To provide adequate storage for chemicals
b. To provide equipment to deal with spills
c. To clean up work areas at the end of a shift
d. All of the above A

6. Spill stations will typically contain:

a. Pillows or pads
b. Acid and base neutralizers
c. Coveralls, goggles, and gloves
d. All of the above A

7. If you are not on the emergency response team, what can you do to help during a chemical
spill?
a. Check for hazards A
b. Begin cleaning up
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

8. OSHA must be notified of an emergency incident if:

a. One or more fatalities occur
b. Three or more people are hospitalized
c. The National Response Center is notified
d. Both a and b A

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9. In an emergency, people you should contact include:

a. Your supervisor
b. A designated safety person
c. Neither a or b
d. Both a and b A

10. Evacuation will depend on:

a. The chemical spilled
b. The hazards involved
c. The area affected
d. All of the above A

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FIRE PREVENTION

1. Which of the following types of packaging are combustible?

a. Cardboard
b. Foam composition
c. Paper
d. All of the above D

2. What is the best defense against fire?

a. Fire extinguishers
b. Evacuation plans
c. Fire alarms
d. Prevention A

3. ABC-rated fire extinguishers should not be used on what type of fire?

a. Flammable liquids, gases, and greases
b. Electricity
c. Combustible metals A
d. They all can use a typical extinguisher

4. Class A combustible materials are:

a. Wood, cloth, paper, rubber, and plastic A
b. Flammable liquids, gases, and greases
c. Electricity
d. Combustible metals

5. When using a fire extinguisher, which of the following is incorrect?

a. Pull the pin and stand back 8 to 10 feet
b. Aim at the upper part of the flames A
c. Squeeze the handle
d. None of the above

6. What is an ignition source for flammable liquids?

a. Cigarettes
b. Cutting torch
c. Operating motor
d. All of the above A

7. Which of the following is a safe handling method for flammable liquids?

a. Storage and Use
b. Transfer
c. Disposal
d. All of the above A

8. Which of the following is not a property of chemical hazards?

a. Reactivity
b. Explosiveness
c. Flammability
d. Hygienic A

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9. To avoid fires resulting from ignition of compressed gases:

a. Store all cylinders upright and secured to walls
b. Never roll or drag cylinder when gases are stored, transported, or used
c. Modify or change pressure relief devices as needed
d. Both a and b A

10. Which of the following shouldn’t be done when escaping a fire?

a. Use a cloth or handkerchief to cover your mouth
b. Get on your hands and knees and crawl to an exit, if possible
c. Use a blanket or tarp to fan the fire away A
d. None of the above

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FIRST AID/BLOODBORNE PATHOGENS

1. Bloodborne Pathogen Exposure control plans are used when:

a. At all times
b. Universal precaution is taken
c. A parenteral exists
d. Workers are occupationally exposed to blood or other potentially infectious material

(Parenteral: A piercing of mucous membranes or the skin barrier by means of a needle stick,
human bite, cut, and/or abrasion.)

2. Potentially infectious materials include:

a. Fluid found around the heart, lungs, and abdomen
b. Blood, urine, and vomit when visibly contaminated with blood
c. Any fluid you cannot identify
d. All of the above

3. The bloodborne pathogen standard applies to:

a. Doctors, nurses, nurse aides, and dentists
b. Healthcare workers, law enforcement personnel, and fire fighters
c. Jailers, funeral home employees, and workers at uncontrolled hazardous waste remediation
sites
d. All of the above

4. Using "universal precautions" means:

a. Treating all blood and body fluids as though they were infectious
b. That all workers who are exposed to bloodborne pathogens follow the same set of work
procedures
c. Using gloves and masks whenever you deal with blood or body fluids
d. Careful hand washing along with the use of gloves and masks

5. Food and drink can be stored in the same refrigerator as blood or body fluids:
a. If they are kept on clearly marked, different shelves
b. If food and drink containers are unopened and discarded after opening
c. Never
d. If there is no other place to store food or drink in a work area

6. Personal protective equipment must be used:

a. When the possibility of exposure exists
b. At all times
c. At the worker's discretion
d. As required by the supervisor

7. Hepatitis B vaccination must be available to a worker:

a. Once a year
b. If you have an occupational exposure risk
c. At time of hire
d. It is not necessary to have a vaccination

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8. An exposure incident is defined as:

a. Reasonably anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact with blood or
other potentially infectious materials
b. Specific eye, mouth, mucous membrane, or parenteral skin contact with blood or potentially
infected body fluids that results from doing one's job
c. Reasonably anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact with blood or
other potentially infectious materials as a result of doing one's job
d. A piercing of mucous membranes or the skin barrier

(Parenteral: A piercing of mucous membranes or the skin barrier by means of a needle stick,
human bite, cut, and/or abrasion.)

9. Medical records must be maintained on all employees with occupational exposure for the
following length of time:
a. Thirty (30) years
b. Length of employment plus 30 years
c. Until a person leaves their place of employment
d. Length of employment plus 20 years

10. Warning labels must:

a. Contain the biohazard legend and be printed in fluorescent yellow
b. Contain the biohazard legend and be printed in fluorescent green
c. Contain the biohazard legend and be printed in fluorescent orange or orange-red
d. Be printed in fluorescent orange

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FORKLIFT SAFETY

1. Which of the following is not a safety guideline when operating a forklift?

a. Keep to the right
b. Make sure the load is balanced
c. Hang loads from the forks
d. Never travel with a load raised high

2. Operators are required to inspect their fork lifts:

a. Monthly
b. Daily
c. Before use
d. Weekly

3. What is a vital aspect to vehicle inspections?

a. Brakes
b. Steering
c. Fork movement
d. Both a and b

4. Who has the right-of-way?

a. Your forklift
b. An approaching forklift
c. Other motorized vehicles in the area
d. Pedestrians

5. If your vision is obstructed when traveling with a load:

a. Raise the load so you can see under it
b. Lower and tilt the load forward so you can see over it
c. Travel in reverse
d. Travel forward

6. The best way to travel with your load:

a. High enough to see under it
b. Stay at least three vehicle lengths when following another vehicle
c. 4 to 6 inches off the floor
d. Both b and c

7. Travel down a ramp or any incline:

a. Avoid this, if possible
b. In reverse
c. In forward
d. Only without loads

8. How far should forks enter the pallet?

a. Half way
b. Three quarters
c. One fourth
d. All the way

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9. During the pre-operational inspection, you should check:

a. Hydraulic system
b. Brakes
c. Tires
d. All of the above

10. When is a forklift considered unattended?

a. When you're 25 feet or more away and it's in view
b. When you are not in view of the forklift
c. When you're 35 feet or more away and it's in view
d. Both a and b

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HAZARD COMMUNICATION (HazCom)

1. What type of hazard is associated with chemicals?

a. Physical
b. Health
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above C

2. The OSHA HazCom standard provides for all of the following except:
a. Annual testing
b. Training
c. Labeling
d. Provision of MSDS's A

3. Carcinogens are chemicals that cause:

a. Cardio Pulmonary
b. Cancer
c. Blindness
d. Skin rashes B

4. Which of the following is not a physical hazard, but is a health hazard?

a. Flammable liquids or solids
b. Explosive
c. Corrosive
d. Combustible liquids C

5. Who is covered by the HazCom standard?

a. Employees that use hazardous chemicals
b. Only people who use chemicals on a daily basis
c. All employees who may be exposed to hazardous chemicals under normal working
conditions
d. Work environments in which chemicals pose a health hazard to employees C

6. What is the difference between acute and chronic health hazards?

a. Acute occurs rapidly and chronic occurs over time
b. Chronic follows a brief exposure
c. Chronic has an obvious effect, such as death
d. Acute has very obvious warning signs A

7. MSDS’s must have all of the following pieces of information except:

a. Whether the chemical is a carcinogen
b. The date of preparation of latest revision
c. Identity of chemical as used on its label
d. Date the chemical was manufactured D

8. Warning labels on chemicals must have all but:

a. First aid precautions
b. Appropriate hazard warning
c. Name and address of the chemical manufacturer or importer
d. Identity of the hazardous chemical (must match MSDS) D

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9. Your company's written HazCom program needs to include all but:

a. A list of the hazardous chemicals known to be present in your workplace
b. The training schedule
c. What type of labeling system is used
d. Processes used regarding uncontrolled hazardous energy B

10. When must you be trained about any given chemical:

a. Before you start working with it
b. After your probationary period is up
c. Within 20 days of beginning work with it
d. Only if you request training C

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LIFTING TECHNIQUES

1. Good sitting posture includes all but:

a. Knees slightly higher than hips
b. Hips forward
c. Shoulders not rounded
d. Lower back not overly arched

2. Which of the following does not contribute to back pain?

a. Proper lifting technique
b. Poor posture
c. Poor physical conditions
d. Stress

3. The single most important rule when lifting is to:

a. Weigh the load
b. Bend the knees
c. Lean over to pick it up
d. Set the load down properly

4. What part of your body should absorb the most weight when lifting?
a. The back
b. The arms
c. The shoulders
d. The legs

5. Which of the following is not a good therapy method to deal with back pain?
a. Bed rest
b. Ignoring it until it goes away
c. Cold or hot packs
d. Physical therapy

6. Which of the following is not a guideline for proper lifting?

a. Size up the load before trying to lift
b. Always push, not pull
c. Set the load down by using your knees
d. Twist or turn your body slightly, if needed

7. When should you seek medical attention for back pain?

a. When the pain does not go away
b. When there is numbness in the lower limbs
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above

8. Posture is important for your back

a. While standing and sitting
b. While sleeping
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a or b

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9. What physical feature or condition causes extra strain on your spine and lower back?
a. Overweight
b. Erect posture
c. Trim figure
d. Large feet

10. A type of back pain is:

a. A strain or sprain
b. Stress
c. Ruptured or slipped disk
d. All of the above

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LOCKOUT/TAGOUT

1. The term Lockout refers to the process of:

a. Blocking the flow of energy from a power source to a piece of equipment by attaching a
lock(s)
b. Shutting down a piece of equipment for service or maintenance work
c. Applying a lock to a piece of equipment to show that it should not be used
d. Applying a tag to a piece of equipment to show that it should not be used

2. A Lockout procedure is used whenever:

a. The servicing or repair work to be done places an employee in danger
b. An equipment guard must be removed for servicing
c. A power source can be locked out for servicing
d. All of the above.

3. Tagout refers to:

a. The warning tag attached to a power source or piece of machinery telling others not to
operate
b. The process of blocking energy from reaching a piece of equipment
c. Signing off that a certain piece of machinery has been serviced
d. A device that physically prevents others from restarting equipment

4. An authorized employee is one who:

a. Operates machinery that is subject to lockout
b. Services machinery that is subject to lockout
c. Locks out equipment for servicing
d. Both b and c

5. An affected employee is one who:

a. Operates machinery that is subject to lockout
b. Works in an area where lockout is used
c. Services machinery that is subject to lockout
d. Both a and b

6. A zero energy state refers to:

a. A power source that is locked out for servicing
b. A power source that is locked out and tagged for servicing
c. The release of all stored energy from a power source
d. The release of all locks and tags so that energy can be restored

7. If several people work on a piece of equipment, what precautions should be taken during a
Lockout?
a. Each person applies his or her own lock
b. A single lock is place on the machine
c. A single lock is placed on the machine while all workers are present
d. A large, single lock is place on the machine so everyone can see it

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8. If you come across a piece of equipment that is turned off but not locked out, you would:
a. Ask someone working in the area if it could be turned back on
b. Treat it as being locked out and notify someone who is authorized to perform lockout
c. Never restart the equipment.
d. Both b and c

9. A lockout audit must be performed by:

a. An authorized person who works with the lockout procedure that is to be inspected
b. An authorized person who does not work with the lockout
c. procedure to be inspected
d. A person from the Health and Safety department
e. The safety manager

10. Lockout/Tagout procedures are in place to:

a. Prevent the accidental start-up of equipment
b. Prevent workers from taking short cuts while servicing equipment
c. Prevent accidents
d. All of the above

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MACHINE GUARDING
1. What are the mechanical hazards of working with moving parts of machines?
a. Points of operation
b. Power transmission apparatus
c. Electricity
d. a and b C

2. Why can a rotating motion be hazardous?

a. Contact with a rotating machine part can grip clothing or skin and force an arm into a
dangerous position
b. Exposed parts can cause cuts or abrasions
c. Intermeshing gears can force fingers and hands into the machine
d. All of the above A

3. What must a machine guard do to prevent injuries?

a. Prevent contact
b. a, c and d
c. Create no new hazards
d. Be secure B

4. A serious possible hazard associated with power equipment and tools is?
a. Electric current
b. Mechanical injuries
c. Neither a or b
d. Both a and b D

5. General safety rules that will help keep you safe when working with electric equipment
include:
a. Keeping your work area clean
b. Maintaining your tools
c. Using 3-pronged plugs
d. All of the above D

6. What is one of the most important safety measures to take when working with electric
equipment?
a. Wearing gloves
b. A well-lit work area
c. Grounding
d. A non-skid floor surface C

7. A safety rule to follow when using saws is:

a. Make sure the blade is in good condition and sharp
b. Inspect material before cutting
c. Wear goggles or a face shield
d. All of the above D

8. Which of the following shouldn't you do with drills?

a. Select the correct drill bit for the job to be done
b. Remove the bit from the drill when finished
c. Hold the drill loosely
d. Make sure the material being drilled is secure C

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9. What is a built-in safety feature you should never remove from electrical equipment?
a. The drill bit
b. A blade
c. Machine guards/blade guards
d. Manufacturer's nameplate C

10. When using a power tool, you should always be certain to keep the cord:
a. Away from sharp edges
b. Unplugged
c. Out of water
d. a and c D

11. Maintenance of tools is important, which of the following can be done to maintain power
tools?
a. Store in a safe, dry place
b. Keep them oiled
c. Keep any blades or bits sharp
d. All of the above A
12. The power tool that is most likely to cause a burn hazard is a:
a. Drill
b. Saw
c. Welding machine
d. Planer C

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PERSONAL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT (PPE)

1. What are important components in hazard assessment?

a. Good communication
b. Careful planning and preparation
c. Looking for potential hazards
d. All of the above D

2. Under OSHA PPE regulations, your employer must:

a. Provide engineering controls
b. Conduct a hazard assessment
c. Train employees in the use of PPE
d. All of the above C

3. All of the following are good rules to follow on the job except:
a. Identify all potential hazards before beginning
b. Stick to your normal routine, even if circumstances change
c. Check with the supervisor if you are unsure about a situation
d. Know your company's hazard reporting procedure B

4. If you exercise your rights under the General Duty Clause of the OSH Act, your employer
may not for that reason:
a. Fix the hazard
b. Demote or fire you
c. Conduct its own inspection
d. Call OSHA for advice or assistance in abating a hazard

5. Which of the following is not a goal of hazard reporting?

a. To prevent accidents
b. Make the workplace safer
c. Aid in the event of an emergency
d. Get the employer or employee in trouble

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EYE PROTECTION

1. What is the most important aspect of eye protection?

a. Style
b. Durability
c. Looks
d. Effectiveness D

2. What is the number one cause of job-related eye injuries?

a. Chemical exposure
b. Foreign objects striking eyes
c. Cuts from tools
d. Slips and falls B

3. How could most eye injuries be avoided?

a. By following safety precautions
b. By wearing eye protective equipment
c. a and b
d. By not wearing eye protection C

4. What kind of eye protection is best for protecting against fumes and dust?
a. Safety glasses
b. Face shields
c. Equipment guards
d. Goggles D

5. What is the proper name of the type of lens used to protect your eyes from bright light or
sun?
a. Clear lens
b. Absorptive lens
c. Shades
d. Sunglasses B

6. Vision testing checks:

a. Eyesight accuracy
b. Muscle balance
c. Color distinguishing capability
d. All of the above A

7. You can wear contact lenses at work unless you work in which of the following situations?
a. An office
b. Contaminated atmosphere while wearing a respirator
c. A mail distribution center
d. Outside B
8. Which of the following is not considered an emergency eyewash facility?
a. A bathroom sink faucet
b. Drench showers
c. Emergency bottles
d. Hand-held drench hose A

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9. When should you use an emergency eyewash facility?

a. When a foreign object gets into your eye
b. If dust particles get into your eyes
c. If a chemical splashes in your eye
d. All of the above D

10. Which of the following does not represent good safety practice to protect your vision?
a. Using equipment guards on machinery along with additional eye protection
b. Using corrective street-wear eyeglasses as protective equipment
c. Inspecting eyewashes and showers frequently to make sure they work and that the water is
potable
d. Having your eyes tested regularly B

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FOOT PROTECTION

1. What must you know about foot protection on your job before you can begin to work?
a. When it is necessary
b. What kind you need and how to wear it
c. Its limitations, care, useful life, and disposal
d. All of the above D

2. The primary source of foot injury is:

a. Puncture by stepping on a nail
b. Chemical burn
c. Twisting ankles on a slippery floor
d. Sharp or heavy object falling on foot A

3. Foot protection is made to meet a variety of occupational needs, including:

a. Reducing static electricity of wearer
b. Protecting the toes from crushing injuries
c. Keeping hot metal out of shoes
d. All of the above D

4. What is not one of the various types of safety shoe?

a. Safety boots
b. Foundry shoes
c. Non-conductive shoes
d. Store-bought sneakers D

5. Some add-on's to boots or shoes that provide extra protection include all but:
a. Rubber spats
b. Metatarsal guards
c. Strap-on cleats
d. Colored laces D
6. What is the most important aspect of safety footwear?
a. Looks
b. Protection provided
c. Color
d. Price B

7. What is the acronym of the organization that sets standards that safety footwear must
meet?
a. DOT
b. NFPA
c. OSHA
d. ANSI D

8. What are some good reasons to invest in foot protection?

a. They are ugly
b. You can find a pair designed to accommodate almost any situation at work
c. They protect your feet from specific workplace injuries
d. b and c C

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9. Functions of the foot include:

a. Support
b. Propulsion
c. Neither a or b
d. Both a and b D

10. Which type of safety shoe is used to protect against oil, water, acids, and other industrial
chemicals.
a. Non-conductive shoes
b. Conductive shoes
c. Safety boots
d. Electric hazard shoes C

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HAND PROTECTION

1. What is the most used tool you have:

a. A hammer
b. A screwdriver
c. A wrench
d. Your hands D

2. Besides providing PPE for your hands, how will your employer try to prevent hand
injuries?
a. Machine guards to protect hands and fingers from moving parts
b. Ergonomically designed workstations and tools
c. Maintain a clean and orderly workplace
d. All of the above A

3. Which of the following is not one of the three basic kinds of hazards to hands?
a. Mechanical hazards from machinery
b. Contact with irritating substances
c. Being stepped on
d. Environmental hazards like heat or cold C

4. What does CTS stand for?

a. Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
b. Cold Tingly Syndrome
c. Cold Tendon Sensitivity
d. Callused Thumb Syndrome A

5. What is not a good housekeeping practice used to help prevent hand problems?
a. Hand washing
b. Keeping tools clean
c. Keeping aisles clear
d. Wearing safety shoes D

6. What are types of personal protective equipment for hands?

a. Mitts
b. Gloves
c. Finger cots
d. All of the above B

7. Which gloves are best for handling rough or abrasive materials?

a. Rubber gloves
b. Vinyl gloves
c. Leather gloves
d. Cotton gloves C

8. Which is not considered a protective cream?

a. Softening cream
b. Water-repellent cream
c. Solvent-repelling cream
d. Vanishing cream D

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9. What is the best way to control bleeding from a cut?

a. By running it under water
b. With a loose bandage
c. Direct pressure on the wound
d. Waiting until it stops C

10. What are ways to prevent CTS?

a. Grasp objects with whole hand if possible
b. Keep the wrist in a straight position whenever possible
c. Short frequent breaks from repetitive tasks that hurt the wrist
d. All of the above D

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HEARING CONSERVATION

1. How you are affected by sound will have nothing to do with:

a. Your age
b. Your sex
c. The length of exposure to the sound
d. The loudness of the sound A

2. Hearing protection must be provided by employers for noise occurring in intensity that
exceeds an average of:
a. 0 decibels
b. 50 decibels
c. 85 decibels
d. 100 decibels C

3. Impulse noise is the type produced by something like:

a. A jackhammer
b. A circular saw
c. A fan
d. An internal combustion engine A

4. Studies link noise exposure with:

a. High blood pressure
b. Ulcers
c. Sleeping disorders
d. All of the above D

5. One thing that is not an effective protection device:

a. Molded earplug inserts
b. Earmuffs
c. Canal caps
d. Wadded cotton D

6. The most important factor for effectiveness of hearing protection devices is:
a. Color
b. Appearance
c. Wearing it
d. None of the above D

7. Which is an engineering control that can reduce noise exposure?

a. Separating noisy machinery from as many workers as possible
b. Using sound absorbing materials
c. Placing machinery on rubber mountings to reduce vibration
d. All of the above D

8. The best way to detect hearing loss is:

a. Noticing it in your daily activities
b. Turning the TV or radio louder
c. Someone telling you you are hard of hearing
d. Periodic hearing tests A

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9. Noise is now recognized as an occupational hazard that can cause:

a. Hearing loss
b. Stress
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a and b C

10. Which type of frequency is generally most damaging to your hearing?

a. Low
b. High
c. Medium
d. All affect it the same D

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RESPIRATORY PROTECTION REVIEW

1. Respirators prevent harmful fumes, dust, vapors, and gases from entering the:
a. Respiratory system
b. Blood stream
c. Nervous system
d. None of the above A

2. The decision to use respirators in the workplace is based upon:

a. Exposure limits allowed for particular contaminants
b. Scientific measurement of hazard level in the work area
c. Amount of oxygen in the work area
d. All of the above D

3. ________ respirators are used when there is enough oxygen present.

a. Air-purifying
b. Filtering
c. Air-supplying
d. Either a or b D

4. ________ respirators are used whenever there is not enough oxygen in a confined space or
area and where the concentration of the airborne substance that is present is Immediately
Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH).
a. Air-purifying
b. Filtering
c. Air-supplying
d. None of the above D

5. When dealing with hazardous chemicals, you should always:

a. Wear the respirator with cartridges that are specifically designed for the chemical
b. Wear whatever respirator is available
c. Wear other PPE as recommended in the MSDS
d. Both a and c D

6. Proper respirator fit can be determined by:

a. Conducting a positive pressure test
b. Using special instruments to detect leaks
c. Conducting a negative pressure test
d. All of the above A

7. Proper respirator fit may be prevented by:

a. A person's physical face structure
b. Glasses with temple pieces
c. Excessive facial hair
d. All of the above A

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8. Before using a respirator, you should:

a. Look for holes, tears, cracks, and snags
b. Make sure all connections are tight
c. When applicable, check to see that the air or oxygen cylinder is fully charged according to the
manufacturer's instructions
d. All of the above D

9. After using a respirator, you should:

a. Make sure that the respirator is decontaminated following manufacturer’s recommendations
b. Put it away without inspecting it
c. Disassemble all respirator components
d. None of the above A

10. Everyone who uses a respirator must:

a. Be qualified to test the equipment using scientific instruments
b. Be trained in proper respirator selection, use, and maintenance
c. Know how to repair the equipment
d. Work only with extremely toxic substances B

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SLIPS, TRIPS, AND FALLS REVIEW

1. What is the best way to help prevent slips, trips, and falls?
a. Increase friction between your shoes and the surface
b. Apply an abrasive to the floor that will increase traction
c. Wear shoes with neoprene soles
d. Increase traction on your shoes with sandals and cleats A

2. What is not one of the three physical forces that play a part in falls?
a. Momentum
b. Friction
c. Gravity
d. Density D

3. The lack of what force causes a slip?

a. Momentum
b. Friction
c. Gravity
d. Density D
4. What are safety precautions to take to avoid slips:
a. Clean up spills right away
b. Move slowly on smooth surfaces
c. Take short steps and point feet slightly outward when walking on wet surfaces
d. All of the above D

5. What force pulls you to the ground once a fall has begun?
a. Momentum
b. Friction
c. Gravity
d. Density C

6. What often contributes to slips and falls on stairs?

a. Loss of traction
b. Poor lighting or clutter on stairs
c. Not using the handrail
d. All of the above D

7. What is not recommended for ladders?

a. Using both hands
b. Overreaching from a ladder
c. Hoisting tools or materials up after you reach the top of the ladder
d. Only one person on the ladder at a time B

8. Neoprene soles won't help on which type of surface?

a. Dry
b. Wood
c. Wet
d. Oily D

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9. What force contributes to a trip?

a. Momentum
b. Friction
c. Gravity
d. Density A

10. Which of the following is not recommended for scaffolds?

a. Check for defects daily
b. Lock casters
c. Use fall and climbing protection
d. None of the above B

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